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Week 2
Martijn de Vries
m.vries@vu.nl
This week
• Any questions?
• Intro by quizzz!
2
Recap of week 1
3
Recap
• Axioms
A1 Completeness: ∀ x, y ∈ X , x ⪰ y or y ⪰ x.
A2 Transitivity: ∀ x, y, z ∈ X , if x ⪰ y and y ⪰ z ⇒ x ⪰ z.
A3o Continuity: ∀x ∈ X , the subsets of strictly preferred and strictly worse
choices are both open.
A3c Archimedean: ∀P, Q, R ∈ P if P ≻ Q ≻ R, then there exists π1 , π2 ∈ (0, 1)
and a unique π ∗ ∈ (0, 1) such that
π1 P(x) + (1 − π1 )R(x) ≻ Q(x) ≻ π2 P(x) + (1 − π2 )R(x)
and π ∗ P(x) + (1 − π ∗ )R(x) ∼ Q(x)
A4 Independence: ∀P, Q, R ∈ P and ∀π ∈ [0, 1),
P(x) ≻ Q(x) ⇔ πP(x) + (1 − π)R(x) ≻ πQ(x) + (1 − π)R(x)
P(x) ∼ Q(x) ⇔ πP(x) + (1 − π)R(x) ∼ πQ(x) + (1 − π)R(x).
A5 State independence: If P(x) = Q(x), then P ∼ Q.
4
Recap(2)
• Certainty equivalent c(x, η̃) and risk premia πsell (x, η̃) and πbuy (x, η̃):
E[u(x + η̃)] = u x + η̄ − πsell (x, η̃) ⇒ πsell (x, η̃) = η̄ − csell (x, η̃)
h i
u(x) = E u x + η̃ − η̄ + πbuy (x, η̃) ⇒ πbuy (x, η̃) = η̄ − cbuy (x, η̃)
where η̄ = E[η̃].
−u ′′ (x) −xu ′′ (x)
• Risk aversion: ARA(x) ≡ u ′ (x)
, RRA(x) ≡ xARA(x) = u ′ (x)
.
• Arbitrage: An arbitrage opportunity is a portfolio with a nonpositive cost
and a nonnegative outcome in every state. At least one of the outcomes
or the cost must be nonzero.
• Complete market; a market is complete if all possible payoffs can be created.
5
Structure of the Course
Lectures
• Week 1: From preferences to CAPM.
Axioms, Utility & Risk aversion, Complete Market, Arbitrage, CAPM.
Tutorial: Explain Referee Report, Problem set 1.
6
Overview of this week
2. CAPM
Why do we do this?
• Fundamental theory to analyze investor choices.
7
Readings
• Chapters 6 from John Ingersoll’s online book Financial Models and Theories.
• Ferson, W. E., & Harvey, C. R. (1999). Conditioning variables and the cross
section of stock returns. Journal of Finance, 54(4), 1325-1360.
• Lewellen, J., & Nagel, S. (2006). The conditional CAPM does not explain asset-
pricing anomalies. Journal of Financial Economics, 82(2), 289-314.
• Jegadeesh, N., & Titman, S. (1993). Returns to buying winners and selling losers:
Implications for stock market efficiency. Journal of Finance, 48(1), 65-91.
8
Mean-variance Analysis
9
Mean-Variance Analysis
Expected utility is
1 1
E[u(W̃ )] = E[W̃ − b W̃ 2 ] = E[W̃ ] − b(var(W̃ ) + (E[W̃ ])2 ) ≡ V (µ, σ 2 )
2 2
Two problems
−u ′′ (W ) b
(i) The Arrow-Pratt measure of risk aversion, ARA(W ) = u ′ (W )
= 1−bW
is
increasing in wealth, contrary to most evidence.
1
(ii) Risk aversion and marginal utility are only positive for outcomes less than Wmax ≡ b
Largest gross return; 1 + rmax ≡ Wmax /W0 = 1/(bW0 ).
An additional constraint, rewriting the above constraint on rmax gives;
−1 1 bW0
rmax = = = W0 ARA(W0 ) ≡ RRA(W0 )
(bW0 )−1 − 1 1 − bW0
such that for large rmax the relative risk aversion must be small.
10
Mean-Variance Analysis(2)
Two-parameter distributions
If all portfolio returns can be described with two parameters, we can probably(?) map
those into mean and variance.
⇒ we must assure that portfolio combinations of assets have returns that come from
the same distribution.
For example, if r˜ has a uniform distribution then w r˜1 + (1 − w )˜
r2 has a triangular
distribution if r˜1 and r˜2 are independent.
Normality: The portfolio adding up problem is solved if r˜ are multivariate normal because
the sum remains normal.
Actually, what we need is that the returns on all portfolios are completely characterized
by their mean and variance,
(i) All assets must have the same distribution.
(ii) The probability distribution must be characterized by µ and σ.
(iii) All portfolios must have the same distributions.
11
The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM)
12
CAPM
∂
Z ∞
V1 (µw , σw ) ≡ V (µw , σw ) = W0 u ′ (W0 (1 + µw + σw υ))g (υ)dυ > 0
∂µw −∞
13
CAPM(2)
According to mean-variance utility:
All investors think about are only mean and variance and always higher means and lower
variances. So the set of efficient (in this case mean-variance efficient) portfolios is the
set that includes the highest mean at each possible level of variance.
The set of minimum-variance portfolios, those with the minimum variance for every
given mean return, µ̂, includes all the efficient plus maximally inefficient portfolios.
1 ′
min w Σw s.t.w ′ µ = µ̂
w 2
1 ′ ′ ′
L≡ w Σw + η[µ̂ − w µ] + γ(1 − 1 w )
2
∂L
0= = Σw − ηµ − γ1
∂w
If Σ is nonsingular, the min-var portfolio at
µ̂ is
−1
wµ̂ =ηµ̂ Σ µ + γµ̂ Σ−1 1 =
C µ̂ − A −1 B − Aµ̂ −1
Σ µ+ Σ 1
D D
14
CAPM(3)
15
CAPM - with rf
The minimization problem can be restated in excess return form with the risk-
free asset eliminated.
The constraint is w ′ (µ − rf 1) = x
Portfolio weights are investments in the risky assets, so they need not sum to 1.
1′ w < 1 ⇒ the residual amount is invested in the risk-free asset
1′ w > 1 ⇒ the investor is borrowing to buy on margin.
16
CAPM - with rf (2)
1 ′
L≡ w Σw + λ[x − w ′ (µ − rf 1)]
2
∂L
0= = Σw − λ(µ − rf 1) ⇒ wx = λx Σ−1 (µ − rf 1)
∂w
Solving for constraint, wx (µ − rf 1) = x, determines λx = x/a and
x −1 xa Σ−1 (µ − rf 1)
wx = Σ (µ − rf 1) = t, where t≡ ,
b b a
a ≡ 1′ Σ−1 (µ − rf 1) = A − rf C
b ≡ (µ − rf 1)′ Σ−1 (µ − rf 1) = B − 2rf A + rf2 C
17
CAPM - with rf (3)
The tangency portfolio, t , is the portfolio in the solution whose weights sum to
1. As all portfolios have weights w ∝ Σ−1 (µ − rf 1),
Σ−1 (µ − rf 1)
t= (1)
1′ Σ−1 (µ − rf 1)
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Sharpe Ratio
The tangency portfolio maximizes the Sharpe ratio — the ratio of mean excess
return to standard deviation
w ′ (µ − rf 1)
max S = (2)
w (w ′ Σw )1/2
⇒ only applies with a risk-free asset obviously.
FOC;
∂S (µ − rf 1) w ′ (µ − rf 1) (w ′ Σw )(µ − rf 1) − w ′ (µ − rf 1)Σw
0= = − Σ w =
∂w (w ′ Σw )1/2 (w ′ Σw )3/2 (w ′ Σw )3/2
19
Sharpe Ratio (2)
(t ′ Σt )(µ − rf 1) − t ′ (µ − rf 1) − Σt (3)
20
Pricing the CAPM
21
Pricing the CAPM(2)
And,
µm − rf
µi − rf = σim 2
= βi (µm − rf ). (5)
σm
22
Testing the CAPM
23
Motivation
• The CAPM explains the differences in average return through the betas
(= the sensitivity to the return of the market portfolio).
• So you may ask the question, why should we limit ourselves to explain
returns only through the market portfolio? Given the failure of the CAPM,
aren’t there other explanatory variables?
24
CAPM
Ri,t+1 − Rf ,t = βi (RM,t+1 − Rf ,t )
Empirically we then regress for each asset i the excess return on a constant and
the market risk premium:
25
CAPM(2)
Cross-sectional specification:
where λ1,t is the estimated market risk premium in month t and βi is a result
from the time series regression.
Empirically we perform a regression of the excess returns on a constant and on
the β’s of the time series regression.
How to test the CAPM cross-sectionally?
1. λ0,t = 0
2. λ1,t = market risk premium in month t
3. βi should be the only factor driving cross-sectional differences in returns.
4. Fama-French challenge these predictions by a Fama-Macbeth analysis (basic
idea: size and beta are strongly correlated and once controlled for size, beta
has no cross-sectional explanatory power)
26
Empirical Observation (Cochrane, 2011)
Average excess returns rise from growth (low book-to-market, ”high price“) to
value (high book-to-market, ”low price“), but β doesn’t(!).
→ β doesn’t explain difference, we need a multi-factor model!
27
Fama & French (1992)
Idea: maybe β is priced because it is strongly correlated with the firm characteristic
Size.
Let’s separate the two effects: test if β is still priced in the cross-section after
controlling for Size.
Approach: form size-β sorted portfolios.
28
Separating effects
How we separate the effect of β from that of another possible explaining variable?
Two methods:
1. Sorting Method
Sort stocks in buckets based on company characteristics in previous period
and check return in this period.
→ no need to assume linear relation.
2. Fama-Macbeth Method
For each month run a cross-sectional regression with the returns of this
period as dependent variable and company characteristics in the previous
period as explanatory variables.
29
Method 1: Double Sorting (size example)
30
Method 1: Double Sorting (size example, 2)
31
Cross-sectional dispersion in β
• Hence: the more cross-sectional spread, the more power in the asset pricing
test.
1. Larger cross-sectional spread
2. Separate size-effect from β-effect
32
Sorting results
33
Sorting results(2)
34
Sorting results(3) - returns
35
Method 2: Fama-MacBeth regressions
The General Method
1. Run the time series regression for each firm, to obtain the β-estimate(s) of each
firm (alternative: rolling window),
e
Ri,t+1 = αi + βi (RM,t+1 − Rf ,t ) + ... + εi,t+1
2. Then, use the estimates to run a cross-sectional regression at each time (so for
100 datapoints, you run 100 seperate regressions!!).
e
Ri,t = λt βi + ... + αi,t
|{z}
errors
3. Final estimate of the factor risk premium (for instance, the market) is
T T
1 X 1 X
λ̂ = λt and, errors α̂i = αi,t
T t=1 T t=1
4. These are the estimates, what about the standard errors? (IID-case)
T T
1 X 2 1 X 2
σ 2 (λ̂) = 2
λ̂t − λ̂ and σ 2 (α̂i ) = 2
α̂i,t − α̂i .
T t=1 T t=1
36
Method 2: Fama-MacBeth regressions(2)
Fama and French (1992) use the following specification for the Fama-MacBeth
analysis:
37
Fama-French (1992) findings
38
Summary of findings
3. Including Size and BTM even absorbs existing anomalies (like earnings-to-
price)
39
The Fama French 3-factor model
40
Constructing the FF3-factor model
Fama and French (1993) propose the FF3-factor model as an alternative.
They add two additional factors or factor mimicking portfolios (Small Minus Big:
SMB, High Minus Low: HML).
Much debate whether these are really risk factors, or alternatively systematic
mispricing or data snooping.
How are the SMB and HML factor mimicking portfolios constructed?
SMB
• Sort all stock on their market capitalization (ME, or size) and split across
the median.
• Go long in the bottom half, go short in the top half.
HML
• Sort all stock on their book-to-market value (BE/ME) and split in three
parts (30/40/30)
• Go long in the top 30%, go short in the bottom 30%.
41
FF3-factor model
42
Testing the FF3-factor model
43
Results Fama and French (1996)
44
Implications of the FF3-model
2. Performance evaluation
45
Reaction to Fama French 3-factor model
46
Ferson & Harvey (1999)
47
What is different?
5. Test assets are 25 Size-BTM portfolios (which have become the standard).
48
Conditional CAPM: Ferson & Harvey (1999)
′ ′
Ri,t+1 = (α0,i + α1,i Zt ) + (b0,i + b1,i Zt )Rp,t+1
49
Ferson & Harvey (1999) tests
1. F -test tests if restricted (constant) beta specification fits the data better than
the more general time-varying beta specification.
2. Bonferroni tests jointly across portfolios
3. Table report R 2 ’s of the various models, also compare across panels
50
Ferson & Harvey (1999) tests(2)
Results are merely a copy of the original FF test (4 out of 25 significant) A more
stringent test is added: is alpha constant over time?
51
Ferson & Harvey (1999) findings
• Columns 3 and 4: alphas are not constant → FF-factors do not explain conditional
expected returns.
52
Testing the 3-factor model cross-sectionally
Ferson and Harvey (1999) also address FF in a similar way as FF addressed the CAPM
→ perform a cross-sectional test, under the H0 of the three factor risk model.
Ferson and Harvey (1999) add an additional out-of-sample factor (’fit’), measure fitted
expected return (α0,i + α′1,i Zt ; result of regressing Ri,t+1 on lagged variables Z .)
53
Ferson & Harvey (1999) findings(2)
54
Ferson & Harvey (1999) findings(3)
55
What is the effect of adding ’fit’ ?
56
So, is the CAPM (by itself) then really useless??
57
Lewellen and Nagel (2006)
• Contrasting earlier work, Lewellen and Nagel (2006) focus on time series
alphas, rather than output from cross-sectional regressions.
58
Basic Idea
• Assume CAPM holds conditionally, what does this imply for unconditional
alphas and betas.
• Decompose unconditional alpha in three covariance terms (derivation follows):
γ2
γ h i γ
αU = 1 − 2 cov(βt , γt ) − 2 cov βt , (γt − γ)2 − 2 cov(βt , σt2 )
σM σM σM
• Plug in values for the three terms and compare the sum to anomaly alphas.
• Conclude that under reasonable values for RHS terms, conditional models
cannot explain anomalies.
59
Steps in the derivation
60
Conditional vs. unconditional CAPM
e
→ note that cov(RM,t+1 ,εt+1 ) equals zero by assumption.
61
Conditional vs. unconditional CAPM(2)
e e e
cov(Ri,t+1 , RM,t+1 ) = E[(β + ηt )(RM,t+1 )2 ] − E[(β + ηt )RM,t+1
e e
]E[RM,t+1 ]
2 e
= βσM + E[ηt (RM,t+1 )2 ] − E[ηt RM,t+1
e e
]E[RM,t+1 ]
62
Conditional vs. unconditional CAPM(3)
We then rewrite:
e
E[ηt (RM,t+1 )2 ] = cov(ηt , γt2 + σt2 )
e
E[ηt RM,t+1 ]E[RM,t+1 ] = γcov(ηt , γt )
and therefore,
e e 2 e
cov(Ri,t+1 , RM,t+1 ) = βσM + E[ηt (RM,t+1 )2 ] − E[ηt RM,t+1
e e
]E[RM,t+1 ]
⇔
e e 2
cov(Ri,t+1 , RM,t+1 ) = βσM + cov(ηt , σt2 ) + cov(ηt , γt2 ) − γcov(ηt , γt )
Finally, write
γt = γ + (γt − γ)
e e 2
+ cov(ηt , σt2 ) + γcov(ηt , γt ) + cov ηt , (γt − γ)2
cov(Ri,t+1 , RM,t+1 ) = βσM
63
Conditional vs. unconditional CAPM (4)
e e 2
+ cov(βt , σt2 ) + γcov(βt , γt ) + cov βt , (γt − γ)2
cov(Ri,t+1 , RM,t+1 ) = βσM
2
We divide by σM to get an expression for the unconditional beta:
γ 1 h i 1
β U = β + 2 cov(βt , γt ) + 2 cov βt , (γt − γ)2 + 2 cov(βt , σt2 )
σM σM σM
We further recall that
Et−1 [Ri,t ] = βγt
E[Ri,t+1 ] = βγ + cov(βt , γt )
64
Conditional vs. unconditional CAPM(5)
αU ≡ E[Ri,t+1 ] − β U γ
= γ(β − β U ) + cov(βt , γt )
γ2
γ γ
= 1 − 2 cov(βt , γt ) − 2 cov βt , (γt − γ)2 − 2 cov(βt , σt2 )
σM σM σM
Recall that we worked under the Null hypothesis that the conditional CAPM
holds.
If αU differs from zero (as is typically the case for Size-BTM portfolios), there
are three possible sources of beta covariation: γt , (γt − γ)2 or market volatility.
65
What is the basic idea?
We therefore arrive at
γ2
γ γ
αU = 1 − 2 cov(βt , γt ) − 2 cov βt , (γt − γ)2 − 2 cov(βt , σt2 )
σM σM σM
γ
≈ cov(βt , γt ) − 2 cov(βt , σt2 )
σM
To explore the magnitude, consider the simplest case where βt only covaries with
the market risk premium (γt ), such that
αU ≈ ρσβ σγ
66
Lewellen and Nagel (2006) findings
Compare the empirical time series anomaly alphas of BTM (0.59%) and Mom
(1.01%) to implied theoretical alphas in Table 1.
67
Approach(2)
• And assume that parameters are constant within the window of observation
(quarterly, semi-annual, annual).
68
Lewellen and Nagel (2006) findings(2)
69
Implications of Lewellen and Nagel (2006)
2. If we assume that the CAPM holds theoretically, the size of the time series
pricing errors that we should observe is much smaller than what we actually
see in practice.
70
So, also conditional CAPM performs bad, but
empirically we find many factors, what is going on?
71
Lewellen, Nagel and Shanken(2010)
• Authors are worried that too many models explain the cross-section of
returns!
72
What is the problem?
• Any factor only weakly correlated with Size and BTM and uncorrelated
with idiosyncratic volatility does the job.
73
Theoretical Observation
(think of Rt+1 as 25 Size-BTM portfolio’s excess returns and Ft+1 as the FF3
factors)
• Propose to test this model with J factors P (assume for simplicity that
J = K)
• We also assume that:
1. F and P have a non-zero correlation (think of any small number).
2. P is uncorrelated with εt+1 .
• In that case, P perfectly explains the cross-section of expected returns
(even though it has little explanatory power for the time series)
74
Theoretical Observation (2)
• Lewellen, Nagel and Shanken (2010): We should hence demand much more
from AP models.
• For instance: a traded factor has a time series risk premium, which should
match λ when the factors K are included on the LHS.
75
Implications of Lewellen, Nagel and Shanken (2010)
76
Implications of Lewellen, Nagel and Shanken (2010) (2)
77
How to resolve?
1. Expand set of test portfolios (individual stocks, add portfolios, e.g. industry
portfolios to the cross-section to break strong factor structure).
2. Take the economic magnitude of the estimated market risk premium and cross-
sectional intercept seriously.
3. Use GLS instead of OLS (does not solve, but requires a higher hurdle).
6. Report confidence intervals for the weighted sum of squared pricing errors (not
just show that they are insignificant by poor measurement, refers to both time
series and cross-sectional intercepts).
78
How to expand the set of test assets?
2. Add industry portfolios (does not put any restrictions on price of risk, but
makes hurdle of R 2 higher because it breaks factor structure).
3. Compute for every test asset the beta w.r.t. traded risk factor and add
betas in second stage (what could be the problem here?, Note this is more
restrictive than just using it as explanatory variable on the RHS).
79
Example: Force the model to price liquidity risk
1. Compute for every portfolio the time series β with respect to the traded
liquidity factor.
3. Test if the loadings on the liquidity beta equals the liquidity risk premium.
80
References
81