Disha 1000 Mcq-Pages Geography PDF

https://sscstudy.
com/
Section B : Geography
1 Astronomy
1. Consider the following statements regarding Codes:

asteroids: A B C D
1. Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes (a) 2 3 5 1
orbiting the Sun. (b) 3 5 1 2
2. Most of the asteroids are small but some (c) 4 1 2 3
have diameter as large as 1000 km. (d) 4 3 2 1
3. The orbit of asteroids lies between orbits of 4. Diamond Ring is a phenomenon observed
Jupiter and Saturn. (a) at the start of a total solar eclipse.
Which of the statements given above are (b) at the end of a total solar eclipse.
correct? (c) only along the peripheral regions of the
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only totality trail.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) only in the central regions of the totality trail.
2. Which one of the following statements is correct 5. The tail of a comet is directed away from the sun
with reference to our solar system?
because
(a) The earth is the densest of all the planets in
(a) the comet rotates around the sun, the lighter
our solar system.
mass of the comet is pushed away due to the
(b) The predominant element in the composition
centrifugal force alone.
of Earth is silicon.
(c) The Sun contains 75 percent of the mass of (b) the comet rotates, the lighter mass of the
the solar system. comet is attracted by some star situated in
(d) The diameter of the sun is 190 times that of the direction of its tail.
the Earth. (c) The radiation emitted by the sun exerts a
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct radial pressure on the comet throwing its tail
answer using the codes given below the list: away from the Sun.
List-I List-II (d) The tail of the comet always exists in the
(Special characteristic) (Name of Planet) same orientation.
A. Smallest planet of 6. Consider the following two statements, one labeled
the solar system 1. Mercury as the Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R).
B. Largest planet of Examine these two statements carefully and select
the solar system 2. Venus the correct answer using the codes given below:
C. Planet second from Assertion (A): The same face of the Moon is
the Sun in the 3. Jupiter always presented to the Earth.
Solar system Reason (R): The Moon rotates about its own
D. Planet nearest to axis in days which is about the
the Sun 4. Pluto same time that it takes to orbit
5. Saturn the earth.
https://sscstudy.com/
B-2 || Astronomy
Codes: Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A. explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
explanation of A.
explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) A is false, but R is true. 10. The twinkling of a star is due to
7. Consider the following two statements. One (a) the variation in the intensity of light emitted
labeled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason by it with time.
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and (b) the variation in the composition of the star
select the correct answer by using the codes given with time.
below. (c) the transit of other celestial objects across
Assertion (A): Existence of human life on Venus the line of sight.
(d) the atmospheric refraction of starlight.
is highly improbable.
11. Which of the following phenomenon is/are the
Reason (R): Venus has extremely high effect of the rotation of the Earth?
level of carbon dioxide in its 1. Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon
atmosphere. and the Stars.
Codes: 2. Flatness of the poles and bulge at the
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct equator.
explanation of A. 3. Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 4. Magnetic field of the Earth.
explanation of A. Select the correct answer by using the codes
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
8. The term syzygy is referred to when 12. What is meant by the eclipse of Moon?
(a) The Earth is at perihelion and the Moon at (a) It occurs when the Earth comes between
perigee. the Sun and the Moon and the centers of all
(b) The Earth is at aphelion and the Moon at three are on the same straight line.
apogee. (b) It is path along which the moon revolves.
(c) The Moon and the Sun are at right angles (c) For any place, it is the average angle made
with reference to the Earth. by a line drawn from the moon to place and
horizontal at midnight.
(d) The Moon, Sun and Earth lie along a straight
(d) When the Moon comes between the Sun and
line. the Earth, it causes the shadows of the Moon
9. Consider the following two statements, one to fall on Earth.
labelled as the Assertion (A) and the other as 13. Consider the following statements:
Reason (R). Examine these two statements 1. The albedo of an object determines its visual
carefully and select the correct answer by using brightness when viewed with reflected
the codes given below: light.
Assertion (A): To orbit around Sun, the planet 2. The albedo of Mercury is much greater than
the albedo of the Earth.
Mars takes lesser time than time
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
taken by the Earth.
correct?
Reason (R): The diameter of the planet Mars (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
is less than that of the Earth. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Geography || B-3
14. We always see the same face of the Moon 19. Consider the following two statements, one
because labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason
(a) it rotates at the same speed as the Earth
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and
around the Sun.
(b) it takes equal time for revolution around the select the correct answer by using the code given
Earth and rotation on its own axis. below:
(c) it revolves on its axis in a direction opposite Assertion (A): Comets revolve round the sun
to that of the Earth. only in long elliptical orbit.
(d) it is smaller than the Earth.
15. The inexhaustible source of energy of the stars is Reason (R): A comet develops a tail when it
due to gets close to the sun.
(a) decay of radioactive elements. Codes:
(b) conversion of Hydrogen to Helium. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(c) conversion of Helium to Hydrogen.
explanation of A.
(d) excess of oxygen that helps burning and
release of energy. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
16. Consider the following statements explanation of A.
1. The Earth receives the Sun’s energy at the (c) A is true, but R is false.
infrared end of the spectrum. (d) A is false, but R is true.
2. The Earth re-radiates the Sun’s heat as
ultraviolet energy. 20. The eclipse of Sun occurs
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) when the Moon comes between the Sun and
correct? the Earth.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (b) when the Earth comes between the Sun and
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
17. Consider the following statements regarding Moon.
asteroids and comets? (c) when the Sun comes between the Earth and
1. Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while Moon.
comets are formed of frozen gases held (d) None of these
together by rocky and metallic material.
21. During the Venus transit, the planet appeared as
2. Asteroids are found mostly between the
orbits of Jupiter and Mars, while comets are a tiny black circle moving on the Sun. The black
found mostly between Venus and Mercury. colour on the Sun is because the planet :
3. Comets show a perceptible glowing tail, (a) Obstructed all light from the Sun.
while asteroids do not.
(b) Is black in colour.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? (c) Was invisible due to bright rays from the
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only Sun.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Behaved as a black hole during its transit.
18. The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs
22. Consider the following statements:
(a) when two full moons occur in the same
month. 1. The Earth is nearest to the Sun on about
(b) when two full moons appear in the same January 3.
month thrice in a calendar year. 2. Earth is farthest from the Sun on about July 4.
(c) when four full moons appear in two Which of the above statements is/are correct?
consecutive months of the same calendar
year. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) None of the above (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
B-4 || Astronomy
23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. The Earth looks blue when seen from the
answer using the codes given below the lists space due to the presence of large amount of
List-I List-II water, hence it is called ‘Blue Planet’.
(Planets) (Satellites) Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. Mars 1. Tethys (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
B. Jupiter 2. Deimos (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C. Saturn 3. Europa 27. Consider the following two statements, one
D. Uranus 4. Titania labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason
Codes: (R). Examine these two statements carefully and
A B C D select the correct answer by using the codes given
(a) 1 2 3 4 below:
(b) 2 3 1 4 Assertion (A): Venus is the brightest object in
(c) 3 2 1 4 the sky after the Sun.
(d) 4 3 2 1 Reason (R): Venus is the second planet from
24. Consider the following statements: the Sun in our solar system.
1. The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the Codes:
Andromeda galaxy. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
2. The Sun’s nearest known star is a red dwarf explanation of A.
star called Proxima Centauri, at a distance of (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
4.3 light years away. explanation of A.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct? (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (d) A is false, but R is true.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 28. Consider the following statements:
25. Consider the following two statements, one 1. Our solar system is located in the orion arm
labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason of the Milky way galaxy, about two-third of
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and the way out from the centre.
select the correct answer by using the codes given 2. The solar system formed from an interstellar
below: cloud of dust and gas or nebulla about 4.6
Assertion (A): The planet Neptune appears blue billion years ago.
in colour. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Reason (R): The presence of Methane gas in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
the atmosphere of Neptune is (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
responsible for its colour. 29. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. When the Sun, the Earth and the Moon are
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct aligned in a straight line, the position is
explanation of A. referred to as SYZYGY.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 2. When the Sun and Moon are in straight line,
explanation of A. it results in spring tide.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 3. When the Sun and Moon are in right angle,
(d) A is false, but R is true. it results in Neap tide.
26. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Since Venus is seen in the East in morning correct?
and in the West in evening. It is called (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
‘Morning star’ as well as ‘Evening star’. (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography || B-5
30. Consider the following two statements, one Codes:

labelled as the Assertion (A) and other as Reason A B C D
(R). Examine these two statements carefully and (a) 1 2 3 4
select the correct answer by using the codes given (b) 2 1 3 4
below: (c) 4 3 1 2
Assertion (A): The tidal effect of Moon on the (d) 3 4 2 1
surface of Earth is less than that 33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
of Sun. answer from the codes given below the list:
Reason (R): Moon’s gravitational pull at List-I List-II
Earth’s surface is less compared A. Planet 1. Moon
to Sun’s gravitational pull. B. Satellite 2. Uranus
Codes: C. Comet 3. Mariner
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct D. Artificial satellite 4. Halley
explanation of A. Codes:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A B C D
explanation of A. (a) 2 1 4 3
(c) A is true, but R is false. (b) 1 2 3 4
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 4 3 1 2
31. There are two statements, one labelled as the (d) 2 1 3 4
Assertion (A) and other as Reason (R). Examine 34. Consider the following statements:
these two statements carefully and select the 1. Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve
correct answer by using the codes given below: around the Sun from east to west i.e.,
Assertion (A): According to Nova hypothesis, clockwise.
Solar planets were formed 2. While other planets revolve around the Sun
because of explosion of Super from west to east i.e., anti-clockwise.
Nova. Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Reason (R): A star becomes Super Nova in (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
that stage when it has lack of (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
hydrogen element. 35. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. The Sun is the heart spot of the Solar system
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct which is the source of energy of all organism
explanation of A. of the earth.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 2. The innermost layer of the Sun is called
explanation of A. Corona.
(c) A is true, but R is false. Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
(d) A is false, but R is true. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
answer using the codes given below the lists: 36. Scientists have determined the temperature
List-I List-II near the Earth’s centre 1,000°C hotter than was
(Planets) (Satellites) reported in an experiment run 20 years ago at
A. Earth 1. Tritan (a) 6,000° Celsius
B. Jupiter 2. Titan (b) 5,000° Celsius
C. Saturn 3. Ganymede (c) 4,000° Celsius
D. Neptune 4. Moon (d) None of these
B-6 || Astronomy
37. Match the following B. Largest planet of (ii) Venus
List-I List-II the solar system
(Features) (Dates) C. Planet second from the (iii) Jupiter
A. Vernal equinox 1. December 22 Sun in the solar system
B. Summer solstice 2. September 23 D. Planet nearest to the Sun (iv) Pluto
C. Winter solstice 3. March 20 (v) Saturn
D. Autumnal equinox 4. June 22 (a) A-(ii); B-(iii); C-(v); D-(i)
Codes: (b) A-(iii); B-(v); C-(i); D-(ii)
A B C D (c) A-(iv); B-(i); C-(ii); D-(iii)
(a) 3 4 1 2 (d) A-(iv); B-(iii); C-(ii); D-(i)
(b) 3 1 2 4 41. Which of the following statements in regard to
(c) 3 1 4 2 the galaxy is correct?
(d) 2 4 1 3 (a) Numerous tiny bodies that move around the
38. Match the following sun are called galaxies
List-I List-II (b) Galaxy is found between the orbits of Mars
(Longitudes) (Dates) and Jupiter
A. Prime Meridian 1. 180º longitude (c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars
B. Tropic of Cancer 2. 23½º N latitude and clouds of dust and gases
C. International Date Line 3. 0º longitude (d) A galaxy does not have a sun
D. Arctic Circle 4. 23½º S latitude 42. Match the planets with their properties and
E. Tropic of Capricorn 5. 66½º N latitude accordingly select the correct alternative:
Codes: Planet Property
A B C D E (A) Saturn (i) Longest year
(a) 2 4 5 1 3 (B) Neptune (ii) 71% water
(b) 3 2 1 5 4 (C) Earth (iii) Longest day
(c) 3 1 4 5 2 (D) Venus (iv) Having most moons
(a) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D - iii
(d) 3 4 5 2 1
(b) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i
39. Match column I with column II and select the
(c) A – ii, B – iv, C – i, D - iii
correct answer using the code given below the
(d) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i
columns:
43. Global Positioning System (GPS) is associated
(A) Earth (i) Dwarf planet
with
(B) Pluto (ii) Star
1. determining latitude and longitude
(C) Moon (iii) Blue planet
2. constellation of satellites
(D) Sun (iv) Satellite
3. US system of GPS and Russian system of
(1) A-(iii), B-(i) C-(iv), D-(ii)
GLONASS
(2) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
4. navigation
(3) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i) Select the correct answer using the codes given
(4) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv) below
40. Match column I with column II and select the (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below the (c) 2 and 3 (d) All of these
columns: 44. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect
Column I Column II sphere. This is because
(Special characteristic) (Name of planet) 1. The Earth has a rotational motion and the
A. Smallest planet (i) Mercury rotational speed increases as one goes from
of the solar system the poles towards the equator.
Geography || B-7
2. The equator experiences greater gravitational (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

pull from the sun. (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
3. The intensity of sunlight received at the 47. Which one of the following statements is/ are
equator is greater than that at the poles. correct with regard to Milky Way?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. It is a spiral galaxy.
below 2. The solar system resides in one of its spiral
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 arms.
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these Select the correct answer using the code given
45. Consider the following statements below:
1. The Earth does not move along its orbit at a (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
constant rate. (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. The Earth moves fastest at perihelion and 48. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
slowest at aphelion. 1. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth
The above statements are true of which one of the comes directly between the Sun and the Moon
following laws? 2. Solar eclipse happens when the Moon comes
(a) Kepler’s second law directly between the Sun and the Earth
(b) Newton’s second law of motion 3. Lunar eclipse takes place when the Sun comes
(c) Ohm’s law directly between the Earth and the Moon
(d) Newton’s law of gravitation 4. Solar eclipse happens when the Earth comes
46. Which of the following factors influence ocean directly between the Sun and the Moon
currents? Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Rotation of the Earth below:
2. Air pressure and wind Code:
3. Ocean water density (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 3 and 4
4. Revolution of the Earth (c) 1 and 2 (d) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below
B-8 || Astronomy
ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 7. (a) 13. (a) 19. (b) 25. (a) 31. (b) 37. (a) 43. (d)
2. (b) 8. (d) 14. (b) 20. (a) 26. (c) 32. (c) 38. (b) 44. (a)
3. (d) 9. (d) 15. (b) 21. (d) 27. (a) 33. (a) 39. (a) 45. (a)
4. (c) 10. (d) 16. (d) 22. (c) 28. (c) 34. (c) 40. (d) 46. (b)
5. (a) 11. (d) 17. (c) 23. (b) 29. (d) 35. (a) 41. (c) 47. (c)
6. (c) 12. (d) 18. (a) 24. (c) 30. (a) 36. (a) 42. (a) 48. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (a) Asteroids are rocky debris of varying sizes a great pace that sublimation occurs. The sublimation
orbiting the Sun. Most of the asteroids are small of the ice that carries away dirt and rock causes the
but some have diameter as large as 1000 km. There appearance of a large white fireball with a long tail.
are millions of asteroids, many thought to be the The layer that envelopes the comet is called the coma.
shattered remnants of planetesimals, bodies within A tail of dust particles, hydrogen, or ions extends
the young Sun’s solar nebula that never grew large more than a million miles away from the comet.
enough to become planets. The large majority of 6. (c) The same side of the Moon always faces the
known asteroids orbit in the asteroid belt between Earth because the Moon spins once on its axis in
the orbits of Mars and Jupiter, or are co-orbital with exactly the same amount of time that the Moon
Jupiter. Asteroids vary greatly in size, from almost revolves around the Earth, or once every 29 days.
1,000 km for the largest down to rocks just tens of The Moon and Earth have been tidally locked in this
metres across. configuration for millions of years.
2. (b) The Earth is the densest of all the planets 7. (a) Existence of human life on Venus is highly
in our solar system. The density of the Earth is improbable because Venus has extremely high level
5.513 g/cm3. This is an average of all of the material of carbon dioxide in its atmosphere.
on the planet. 8. (d) The term SYZYGY is referred to when the
3. (d) Smallest planet of the solar system is Pluto while moon, sun and earth lie along a straight line. As seen
the largest is Jupiter. Planet second from the Sun in from the Earth, a solar eclipse is a type of eclipse
the solar system is Venus; planet nearest to the Sun that occurs when the Moon passes between the Sun
is Mercury. and Earth, and the Moon fully or partially blocks
4. (c) Diamond Ring is a phenomenon observed only (“occults”) the Sun. This can happen only at new
along the peripheral regions of the totality trail. When moon, when the Sun and the Moon are in conjunction
the shrinking visible part of the photosphere becomes as seen from Earth in an alignment referred to as
very small, Baily’s beads will occur. These are caused SYZYGY. In a total eclipse, the disk of the Sun is
by the sunlight still being able to reach Earth through fully obscured by the Moon. In partial and annular
lunar valleys. Totality then begins with the diamond eclipses only part of the Sun is obscured.
ring effect, the last bright flash of sunlight. 9. (d) The diameter of the planet Mars is less than
5. (a) Because of the comet rotation around the sun, that of the Earth. Mars has approximately half the
the lighter mass of the comet is pushed away due to diameter of Earth. It is less dense than Earth, having
the centrifugal force alone. When a comet comes about 15% of Earth’s volume and 11% of the mass.
close enough to the sun, the ice begins to melt at such Its diameter is 6,779 kms.
Geography || B-9
10. (d) The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric an extra full moon that appears in a subdivision of a
refraction of starlight. The scientific name for year, either the third of four full moons in a season
the twinkling of stars is stellar scintillation (or or, recently, a second full moon in a month of the
astronomical scintillation). Stars twinkle when we see common calendar. The phrase has nothing to do with
them from the Earth’s surface because we are viewing the actual color of the moon, although a literal “blue
them through thick layers of turbulent (moving) air moon” (the moon appearing with a tinge of blue) may
in the Earth’s atmosphere. occur in certain atmospheric conditions; e.g., when
11. (d) All the given phenomena are the effect of the there are volcanic eruptions or when exceptionally
rotation of the earth. The Earth rotates from the west large fires leave particles in the atmosphere.
towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or 19. (b) Comets revolve round the sun only in long
polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. elliptical orbit. A comet develops a tail when it gets
12. (d) Eclipse of moon occurs when the moon comes close to the sun.
between the sun and the earth and it causes the 20. (a) The eclipse of sun occurs when the moon comes
shadow of the moon to fall on earth. A lunar eclipse between the sun and the earth.
occurs when the Moon passes directly behind the 21. (d) The black color on the sun is because the planet
Earth into its umbra (shadow). This can occur only behaved as a black hole during its transit. A transit
when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned (in of Venus across the Sun takes place when the planet
“SYZYGY”) exactly, or very closely so, with the Venus passes directly between the Sun and Earth (or
Earth in the middle. Hence, a lunar eclipse can only
another planet), becoming visible against (and hence
occur the night of a full moon.
obscuring a small portion of) the solar disk. During
13. (a) The albedo of an object determines its visual a transit, Venus can be seen from Earth as a small
brightness when viewed with reflected light. Albedo black disk moving across the face of the Sun. The
is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) duration of such transits is usually measured in hours
reflected from the Earth back into space. It is a (the transit of 2012 lasted 6 hours and 40 minutes).
measure of the reflectivity of the earth’s surface.
22. (c) The earth is nearest to the sun on about January
14. (b) We always see the same face of moon because
3rd. Earth is farthest from the sun on about 4th July.
it takes equal time for revolution around the earth
23. (b) Deimos is the satellite of Mars. Europa is the
and rotation on its own axis.
satellite of Jupiter. Tethys is the satellite of Saturn.
15. (b) The inexhaustible source of energy of the
Titan is the satellite of Uranus.
stars is due to conversion of Hydrogen to Helium.
In the interior of a star, the particles move rapidly 24. (c) The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the
in every direction because of the high temperatures Andromeda galaxy. The Andromeda Galaxy is a
present. Every so often a proton moves close enough spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light years
to a nucleus to be captured, and a nuclear reaction from Earth in the Andromeda constellation. Also
takes place. Only protons of extremely high energy known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, the sun’s
(many times the average energy in a star such as the nearest known star is a red dwarf star called proxima
Sun) are capable of producing nuclear events of this centauri. Proxima Centauri is a red dwarf about 4.24
kind. A minimum temperature required for fusion is light years from the Sun, inside the G-cloud, in the
roughly 10 million K. Since the energies of protons constellation of Centaurus.
are proportional to temperature, the rate of energy 25. (a) The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.
production rises steeply as temperature increases. The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of
17. (c) Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while Neptune is responsible for its colour. Neptune is the
comets are formed of frozen gases held together eighth and farthest planet from the Sun in the Solar
by rocky and metallic material. Comets show a System. It is the fourth largest planet by diameter
perceptible growing tail, while asteroids do not. and the third largest by mass. Among the gaseous
18. (a) The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs, when two planets in the solar system, Neptune is the most dense.
full moons occur in the same month. A blue moon is Neptune is 17 times the mass of Earth.
B-10 || Astronomy
26. (c) The earth looks blue when seen from the space investigate Mars, Venus and Mercury from 1962
due to the presence of large amount of water. to 1973. The program included a number of firsts,
27. (a) Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the including the first planetary flyby, the first pictures
sun. Venus is the second planet from the sun in our from another planet, the first planetary orbiter, and
solar system. the first gravity assist maneuver.
28. (c) Our solar system is located in the orion arm of 34. (c) Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve
the milky way galaxy, about two-third of the way out around the sun from east to west while other planets
from the centre. The sun is about 26,000 light-years revolve around the sun from west to east.
from the center of the Milky Way Galaxy, which is 35. (a) The sun is the heart spot of the solar system
about 80,000 to 120,000 light-years across (and less which is the source of energy of all organism of
than 7,000 light-years thick). We are located on one of the earth. The Sun produces energy by the nuclear
its spiral arms, out towards the edge. It takes the sun fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core. It means
(and our solar system) roughly 200-250 million years that, since there is a huge amount of hydrogen in the
to orbit once around the Milky Way. In this orbit, we core, these atoms stick together and fuse into a helium
(and the rest of the Solar System) are traveling at a atom. This energy is then radiated out from the core
velocity of about 155 miles/sec (250 km/sec). and moves across the solar system.
31. (b) According to Nova hypothesis, Solar planets 36. (a) These measurements confirm geophysical
were formed because of explosion of Super Nova. A models that say that the temperature difference
star becomes Super Nova in that stage when it has between the solid core and the mantle above must
lack of hydrogen elements. A supernova happens be at least 1,500° C to explain why the earth has
where there is a change in the core, or center, of a a magnetic field. The research team, which was
star. A change can occur in two different ways, with led by Agnes Dewaele from the CEA, a French
both resulting in a supernova. technological research organisation, used X-rays
The first type of supernova happens in binary from the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility
star systems. Binary stars are two stars that orbit (ESRF) in Grenoble, France, as a key investigating
the same point. One of the stars, a carbon-oxygen tool.
white dwarf, steals matter from its companion star. 37. (a) As Earth revolves around the Sun, there are two
Eventually, the white dwarf accumulates too much moments each year when the Sun is exactly above
matter. Having too much matter causes the star to the equator. These moments — called equinoxes
explode, resulting in a supernova. — occur around March 20 or 21 and September 22
or 23. Equinox literally means “equal night,” since
The second type of supernova occurs at the
the length of day and night is nearly equal in all
end of a single star’s lifetime. As the star runs out
parts of the world during the equinoxes. When the
of nuclear fuel, some of its mass flows into its
Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun in
core. Eventually, the core is so heavy that it cannot
spring, the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt away
withstand its own gravitational force. The core
from the sun, signaling the start of fall. Thus, in the
collapses, which results in the giant explosion of a
Southern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called
supernova. The sun is a single star, but it does not
the autumnal equinox, and the September equinox is
have enough mass to become a supernova.
called the vernal equinox.
32. (c) Moon is the satellite of Earth. Ganymede is the The summer solstice occurs when the tilt of
satellite of Jupiter. Tritan is the satellite of Saturn. a planet’s semi-axis, in either the northern or the
Titan is the satellite of Neptune. southern hemisphere, is most inclined toward the
33. (a) Uranus is a planet. Moon is a satellite. Halley star (sun) that it orbits. Earth’s maximum axial tilt
is a comet. Mariner is a artificial satellite. The toward the sun is 23° 26’. This happens twice each
Mariner program was a program conducted by the year, at which times the sun reaches its highest
American space agency NASA in conjunction with position in the sky as seen from the north or the
Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) that launched a south pole.
series of robotic interplanetary probes designed to The summer solstice occurs during a
Geography || B-11
hemisphere’s summer. This is the northern solstice C. The planet second from the sun in the
in the northern hemisphere and thesouthern solstice solar system is – Venus
in the southern hemisphere. Depending on the shift D. Planet nearest to the sun – Mercury
of the calendar, the summer solstice occurs some 41. (c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars
time between June 20 and June 22 in the northern and clouds of dust and gases.
hemisphere[2][3] and between December 20 and 43. (d) The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a
December 23 each year in the southern hemisphere. space-based satellite navigation systems that
Winter solstice is an astronomical phenomenon provides and time information in all weather,
which marks the shortest day and the longest night anywhere in the Earth.
of the year. Winter solstice occurs for the Northern GPS Country
Hemisphere in December and for the Southern 1. GPS USA
Hemisphere in June. The point at which the Sun’s 2. GLONASS Russia
path crosses the celestial equator moving from 3. Galileo Europe
north to south is called the autumnal equinox. the 4. Compass China
equinox in autumn, on about 22 September in the 5. Gagan India
northern hemisphere and 20 March in the southern 44. (a) The shape of the Earth is very close to that of
hemisphere. an oblate spheroid, a sphere flattered along the axis
38. (b) A prime meridian is a meridian (a line of from pole to pole such that there is bulge around
longitude) in a geographical coordinate system equator. This bulge results from the rotation of the
at which longitude is defined to be 0°. A prime Earth and causes the diameter at the equator to be 43
meridian and its opposite in a 360°-system, the km large than the pole to pole diameter.
180th meridian (at 180° longitude), form a great 45. (a) Kapler’s law give a description of the motion
circle. This great circle divides the sphere, e.g., the of planets around the Sun. Kepler’s are laws
Earth, into two hemispheres. are
The Tropic of Cancer, also referred to as the 1. The orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the
Northern Tropic, is the most northerly circle of Sun at one of two faces.
latitude on the Earth at which the Sun may appear
2. A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out
directly overhead at its culmination.
equal areas during intervals of time.
The International Date Line (IDL) is an
46. (b) A ocean current is a continuous, directed
imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface
movement of ocean water generated by the forces
located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the
acting upon this mean flow, such as breaking
Greenwich Meridian.
waves, wind, coriolis effect, cabbeling, temperature
ArcticCircle is an imaginary circle round the
and salinity differences and tides caused by the
earth, parallel to the equator, at latitude66° 32′ N;
gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
it marks the northernmost point at which the sun
appearsabove the level of the horizon on the winter 47. (c) The Milky Way glaxy is the home of our solar
solstice. system. It is very difficult to study this glaxy because
ROPIC OF CAPRICORN is the parallel of the solar system is located within it. It seems to be a
latitude that is approximately 231⁄2 degrees south spiral glaxy.
of the equator and that is the southernmost latitude 48. (a) Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes
reached by the overhead sun directly between the Sun and the Moon. Solar eclipse
40. (d) A. The smallest planet of the solar system is happens when the Moon comes directly between the
– Pluto Sun and the Earth. Lunar eclipse takes place when the
B. The largest planet of the solar system is – Sun comes directly between the Earth and the Moon.
Jupiter
2 Physical Geography
1. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:

correct answer from the codes given below: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Assertion (A): The polar front theory states that explanation of A.
masses of relatively, warm and (b) Both and R ar true, but R is not the correct
cold air are brought into contact. explanation of A.
Reason (R): These masses are known after (c) A is true, but R is false.
their source regions. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Codes: 5. Which of the following concepts form basis for
(a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct the Plate Tectonic Theory? Use the codes given
explanation of A. below to select the correct answer:
(b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the 1. Continental drift 2. Isostasy
3. Palaeomagnetism 4. Pole wandering
correct explanation of A.
Codes:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(d) R is true, but A is false. (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
2. Which one of the following is called marine 6. Which one of the following statements is not true
snowfall? about subsidence theory of Coral reefs?
(a) Fall of snowflakes on sea surface. (a) The theory has been postulated by Charles
(b) Fall of hail on sea surface. Darwin.
(c) Continuous fall of snow pillets on ocean (b) According to the theory coral polyps grow
floors. both in shallow and deep oceanic waters.
(d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on (c) Fringing reef, barrier reef and atolls
ocean floors. are successive stages of coral reef
3. Which one of the following is correctly development.
matched? (d) Reef building starts from submarine plate
(a) Rossby waves — Jet stream form.
(b) El Nino — Strong monsoon 7. Consider the following statements and select the
(c) Index cycle — Walker circulation correct answer from the codes given below:
(d) Hadley cell — Mid-latitude cell Assertion (A): Aridity is the distinctive
4. Consider the following statements and select the characteristic of the deserts.
correct answer from the codes given below: Reason (R): They receive low rainfall and
Assertion (A): There has been equatorial have high evaporation.
counter current in every ocean Codes:
of the world. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
Reason (R): Equatorial counter currents are
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
formed by the piling of water
explanation of A.
in eastern part of the ocean by (c) A is true, but R is false.
equatorial currents. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Geography || B-13
8. Which one of the following statements is true Codes:

about tropopause? (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) It is about 5 km thick layer. explanation of A.
(b) Its average height is about 10 km over the (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
equator. explanation of A.
(c) There is no seasonal variation in its height. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) The temperature at its top is lowest over the (d) A is false, but R is true.
equator and relatively higher over the poles. 12. Consider the following statements and select the
9. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): New folded mountains are also
correct answer from the codes given below:
called Tertiary Mountains.
Assertion (A): Equatorial counter current is not
Reason (R): They are mainly formed along
found in the Indian ocean during
the constructive plate margins.
summer season.
Codes:
Reason (R): During summer season south- (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
west monsoon current is dominant explanation of A.
in northern Indian Ocean. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
Codes: explanation of A.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) A is true, but R is false.
explanation of A. (d) A is false, but R is true.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 13. The horizontal distribution of temperature of
explanation of A. ocean water is largely affected by
(c) A is true, but R is false. 1. Depth of water in the ocean
(d) A is false, but R is true. 2. Ocean current
10. Read the following statements and select the 3. Prevailing winds
correct answer from the codes given below: 4. Latitudes
1. Corals are mainly found in the tropical Which of the following is correct?
oceans. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
2. Corals need clean sediment free water. (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Corals are mainly found in deeper parts of 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
the ocean. answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II
4. Rain water promotes the growth of corals.
(Original) (Metamorphic)
Codes:
A. Basalt 1. Slate
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
B. Coal 2. Schist
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
C. Limestone 3. Marble
11. Consider the following statements and select the D. Shale 4. Diamond
correct answer from the code given below: Codes:
Assertion (A): The circum-pacific belt is the most A B C D
vulnerable zone of Tsunamis. (a) 1 2 3 4
Reason (R): It is tectonically most active (b) 2 4 3 1
area and generates world’s (c) 4 3 2 1
major earthquakes. (d) 3 4 2 1
B-14 || Physical Geography

correct answer using the codes given below: A B C D
Assertion (A): The length of the day at the (a) 2 4 1 3
equator is always 12 hours. (b) 2 1 4 3
Reason (R): The angle of incidence of the (c) 1 2 3 4
Sun’s rays at the equator is (d) 4 3 2 1
constant. 19. Select the correct chronological order of the
Codes: following organic cycles from the codes given
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct below:
explanation of A. 1. Alpine 2. Torridonian
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 3. Caledonian 4. Hercynian
(c) A is true, but R is false. (a) 2, 4, 1,3 (b) 2, 3, 4,1
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 1, 3, 4, 2 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
16. Consider the following statements 20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
1. Igneous rocks are rich in natural gas. answer from the codes given below:
2. Igneous rocks are rich in metallic minerals. List-I List-II
3. Igneous rocks are not fossiferous. (Concept) (Propounder)
4. Igneous rocks consist of silicate minerals. A. Peneplain 1. Powel
Which of the statements given above are B. Base level 2. Wegener
correct? C. Continental drift 3. Hary Hess
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 D. Plate tectonics 4. Davis
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Codes:
17. Match the following two lists and choose the A B C D
correct answer from the codes given below: (a) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (b) 2 1 3 4
(Oceans) (Ridges) (c) 4 1 2 3
A. Atlantic Ocean 1. Cocos ridge (d) 4 2 1 3
B. Pacific Ocean 2. Lomonosov ridge 21. Which one of the following is the correct sequence
C. Indian Ocean 3. Dolphin ridge and of the terrigenous deposits from the coast to the
challenge ridge deeper part of the sea? Use the codes given below
D. Arctic Ocean 4. East Indian ridge to select the correct answer:
Codes: 1. Clay 2. Mud
A B C D 3. Sand 4. Silt
(a) 2 4 1 3 Codes:
(b) 3 1 4 2 (a) 4, 2, 1, 3 (b) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) 1 2 3 4 (c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 4 3 2 1 22. Select the correct chronological order of the
18. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct following geological periods, from the codes
answer from the codes given below: given below:
List-I List-II 1. Oligocene 2. Eocene
(Processes) (Land forms) 3. Pliocene 4. Miocene
A. Permafrost 1. Flood plain Codes:
B. Diastrophism 2. Pingo (a) 3, 2, 1, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
C. Running water 3. Stack (c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
D. Sea waves 4. Horst
Geography || B-15
23. Consider the following statements: (c) There is sudden increase in the velocity of P
1. The axis of the Earth’s magnetic field is waves along the mantle core boundary.
1ϒ (d) The inner core of the earth is in molten
inclined at 23 and half to the geographic
2 state.
axis of the Earth. Codes:
2. The Earth’s magnetic pole in the Northern (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
northern Canada. 28. Which one of the following characteristics of
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through the earth is not explained by the tetrahedral
Thumba in South India. hypothesis?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) Drifting of the continents.
correct? (b) Location of chain of Fold Mountains around
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the Pacific Ocean.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
24. Which one of the following is the correct sequence (c) Antipodal arrangement of the continents and
of the descending order of the latitudinal zones oceans.
of ocean salinity? Use the codes given below to (d) Triangular shape of the continents and the
select the correct answer: oceans.
1. 10°N — 15°N 29. Which of the following is the correct order of
2. 15°N — 40°N current of the South Atlantic Ocean from Equator
3. 40°N — 50°N and back?
4. 50°N — 70°N 1. Benguela
Codes: 2. Brazil
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 3. South Atlantic Drift
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2 4. South Equatorial
25. The correct chronological order of the following
Codes:
geological epochs is
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(a) Pleistocene, Pliocene, Holocene, Miocene.
(b) Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene. (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) Holocene, Miocene, Pleistocene, Pliocene. 30. Which one of the following is not a correct
(d) Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene, Miocene. statement about Coriolis force?
26. The formation of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a (a) It affects wind direction.
typical example of the process of (b) It is an effect of the rotational movement of
1. Convergence 2. Divergence the earth.
3. Shear 4. Sea floor spreading (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and
Select the correct answer from the following maximum at the equator.
codes: (d) The magnitude of Coriolis Effect is
Codes: determined by the wind speed, mass of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 moving body and sine of latitude.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
31. Consider the following statements and select the
27. Study the following statements about the interior
correct answer from codes given below:
of the earth and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A): Tropical areas get more
(a) The average density of the outer crust is insolation than the temperate
2.8. area.
(b) The crust is separated from the mantle by Reason (R): Tropical areas have larger length
the Gutenberg discontinuity. of day than the temperate areas.

Codes: 35. In an Anticyclone
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Barometric pressure is high towards centre
explanation of A. of the system.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (b) Winds blow in clockwise direction in
explanation of A. southern hemisphere.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) Weather remains moist and sky is cloudy.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) Situation of calm prevails and weather
32. Consider the following statements regarding the changes rapidly.
Tidal hypothesis: 36. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
1. It is a monistic hypothesis. answer with the help of the codes:
2. It was propounded by the British scientist List-I List-II
James Jeans. (Land forms) (Agents of formation)
3. It holds filament responsible for the origin of A. Faults 1. Glacial activity
the solar system. B. Flood plains 2. Fluvial effects
Which of the statements given above are C. Coral reefs 3. Organic activity
correct? D. Moraines 4. Earth movement
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Codes:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 A B C D
33. With reference to Kober’s Theory of Geosyncline, (a) 1 3 2 4
consider the following: (b) 4 2 3 1
Term Meaning (c) 3 1 4 2
1. Orogen : Geosyncline (d) 2 3 1 4
2. Kratogen : Foreland 37. Study the following statements and select the
3. Randketten : Marginal ranges correct answer from the codes given below:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 1. The average density of rocks in the lower
crust of the earth is 3.
matched?
2. There is a gradual decrease in the velocity of
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the seismic waves through the lower crust.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The mantle-core boundary is marked by
Moho-discontinuity.
correct answer using the codes given below:
4. The outer core of the earth is in molten
Assertion (A): Basalt is a dark coloured and fine
form.
grained igneous rock formed by
Codes:
magma.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
Reason (R): Magma inside of the earth are
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
cooled very slowly because of
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
higher temperature prevailing
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
there. 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A (Era) (Epoch)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Palaeozoic 1. Jurassic
explanation of A. B. Mesozoic 2. Archean
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Pre Cambrian 3. Oligocene
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Cainozoic 4. Silurian
Geography || B-17
Codes: 41. The correct sequence of different layers of the

A B C D atmosphere from the surface of the Earth upwards
(a) 1 4 2 3 is
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Ionosphere,
(c) 1 4 3 2 Mesosphere.
(d) 4 1 3 2 (b) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Ionosphere,
Mesosphere.
39. Match the List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere,
answer from the codes given below:
Ionosphere.
List-I List-II
(d) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere,
A. Agulhas current 1. North Atlantic Ionosphere.
B. Kuroshio current 2. South Atlantic 42. Consider the following statements:
C. Florida current 3. Indian Ocean 1. Either of the two belts over the oceans at
D. Falkland current 4. North Pacific about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known
Codes: as Horse Latitude.
A B C D 2. Horse latitude are low pressure belts.
(a) 4 3 2 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) 3 4 1 2 correct?
(c) 1 2 3 4 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(d) 2 1 4 3 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
40. Consider the following statements and select 43. Consider the following factors
1. Rotation of the Earth
the correct answer with the help of codes given
2. Air Pressure and Wind
below:
3. Density of Ocean Water
Assertion (A): In southern hemisphere westerlies 4. Revolution of the Earth
are called roaring forties between Which of the above factors influence the ocean
the latitudes of 40°– 50°S, currents?
furious fifties at 50°S latitude and (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 4 only
shrieking sixties at 60°S latitude. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Reason (R): The westerlies become more 44. Normally, the temperature decreases with the
vigorous in the southern increase in height from the Earth’s surface
hemisphere because of lack of because
land and dominance of oceans. 1. The atmosphere can be heated upwards only
Their velocity increases and from the Earth’s surface.
they become stormy. They are 2. There is more moisture in the upper
atmosphere.
also associated with boisterous
3. The air is less dense in the upper atmosphere.
gales.
Codes: below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
explanation of A. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct 45. Consider the following atmospheric conditions
explanation of A. with reference to Tropical cyclones.
(c) A is true, but R is false. 1. High relative humidity.
(d) A is false, but R is true. 2. Warm oceanic temperature.

3. Region lying between the tropics of cancer 49. Consider the following statements and select
and Capricorn. the correct answer with the help of codes given
Which of the above motivate the development of below:
cyclone? Assertion (A): The work of wind as an agent of
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only gradation is not as widespread as that of water.
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 Reason (R): It is effective only in the desert
46. Which of the following elements exhibit the regions of the world where rainfall is scanty and
following properties? soil particles are loose.
1. It is the third most abundant element in the (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
earth crust. correct explanation of (A).
2. It exists in a stable combination with other (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the
materials mainly silicates and oxides. correct explanation of (A).
3. It has high strength-to-weight ratio. (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(a) Magnesium (b) Iron (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(c) Aluminium (d) Calcium 50. Consider the following statements and select
47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct the correct answer with the help of codes given
answer using the codes given below: below:
List-I List-II Assertion (A): Hurricane cannot develop in the
(Soils) (Climatic region) vicinity of equator.
A. Podzol 1. Temperate Reason (R): Coriolis force is maximum over the
steppe cool equator.
B. Chernozem 2. Cool temperate (a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
C. Spodsols 3. Hot and humid correct explanation of A.
D. Laterite 4. Humid cool (b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not
temperate correct explanation of A.
Codes: (c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
A B C D (d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
(a) 2 1 4 3 51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) 3 4 2 1 answer from the codes given below
(c) 2 3 4 1 List-I List-II
(d) 4 1 3 2 A. Sublimation 1. The energy
48. Examine the following statements and select the absorbed is used to
give the motion
correct answer using the codes given below:
needed the escape
1. The atmospheric air is never completely
the surface.
dry.
B. Freezing 2. Energy is released.
2. Water vapour can occupy as much as 4 per
C. Evaporation 3. Releases 80 cal/gm
cent of the atmospheric volume.
D. Condensation 4. Absorb 680 cal/gm
3. Water vapour in the atmosphere is always
to change the state.
invisible. Codes:
Codes: A B C D
(a) 1 and 2 are correct (a) 2 3 4 1
(b) 2 and 3 are correct (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 1 and 3 are correct (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct (d) 3 2 4 1
Geography || B-19
52. Match the following: 2. structure 4. permeability

List-I List-II (a) 1 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(Mountain Types) (Mountains) (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All of these
A. Block Mountain 1. Appalachian 57. A study of the nature of the old sedimentary rocks
B. Old fold mountain 2. Rocky gives an indication about the
C. Young fold mountain 3. Black Forest 1. age of the earth
D. Volcanic mountain 4. Socottish 2. past environmental conditions
Highlands 3. old civilizations
E. Relict mountain 5. Vesuvious 4. direction of plate movements
Codes: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3
A B C D E (c) 1 and 2 (d) Only 2
(a) 1 3 2 5 4 58. Match the following:
(b) 3 1 4 2 5 List I List II
(c) 3 1 2 5 4 A. Temperature falls 1. Ionosphere
(d) 4 1 2 3 5 with height
B. Reflects radio 2. Stratosphere
53. What is not true of igneous rocks?
waves back to
1. they are crystalline
earth
2. they have a layered structure
C. Contains most of 3. Tropopause
3. they contain metals the ozone
4. they contain fossils D. Fall in temperature 4. Troposphere
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 stops
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 Codes:
54. What is true of sedimentary rocks? A B C D
1. they are layered. (a) 4 2 1 3
2. they contain fossils. (b) 3 2 4 1
3. they are transported rocks. (c) 4 1 2 3
4. many of these are formed in water bodies. (d) 4 3 1 2
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4 59. Match the following
(c) 1 and 4 (d) all the above List I List II
55. Match the following (Winds) (Plane of occurence)
List-I List-II A. Santa Ana 1. Argentina
A. Plucking 1. Wind B. Chinook 2. Alps
C. Foehn 3. Rockies
B. Deflation 2. Stream
D. Zonda 4. California
C. Abrasion 3. Glacier A B C D
D. Attrition 4. Mutual friction of rock (a) 4 3 2 1
fragments (b) 2 1 4 3
Codes: (c) 4 2 3 1
A B C D (d) 3 4 2 1
(a) 3 2 1 4 60. Match the following
(b) 3 1 2 4 List I List II
(c) 1 3 4 2 A. Isobars 1. Temperature
(d) 3 4 1 2 B. Isohyets 2. Pressure
56. The factor that determines the water holding C. Isotherms 3. Rainfall
capacity of rock debris is its D. Isohel 4. Snowfall
1. porosity 3. texture 5. Sunshine

A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 2 4 1 3 (c) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 3 1 5 (d) 1 2 4 3
(c) 2 3 5 1 66. Match the following
(d) 2 1 3 5 List I List II
61. Which of the following are wrongly matched? (Wind types) (Regions where they
1. Typhoons China Sea occur)
2. Cyclones West Indies A. Brick fielders 1. N. California
3. Hurricanes Indian Ocean B. Sirocco 2. Australia
4. Tornadoes Australia C. Bergs 3. Mediterranean
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 D. Northers 4. Africa
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 Codes:
62. The chief characteristics of shifting cultivation A B C D
are (a) 2 3 1 4
1. High dependence on manual labour (b) 2 3 4 1
2. Low level of technology (c) 3 1 2 4
3. Utilization of poor soils through fallowing (d) 2 1 3 4
4. Use of chemical fertilizers 67. What is true about Nile?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2, 3 and 4 1. Forms the largest delta of the world
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The longest river of the world
63. Double cropping is a common practice in areas 3. Provides fertile soils and water for irrigation
having in a desert region
1. a lot of rainfall. 4. The most voluminous river
2. good irrigation facilities. (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
3. a long growing period. (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
4. alluvial soils. 68. Match the following
(a) 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4 (Peaks) (Range)
64. What are the conditions favourable for tea A. Gurushikhar 1. Annamalai
cultivation? B. Dodabeta 2. Aravalli
1. Warm temperature C. Annaimudi 3. Nilgiri
2. High rainfall D. Dhupgarh 4. Satpura
3. High altitude Codes:
4. Sloping land A B C D
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (a) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) All the four (b) 2 3 1 4
65. Match the following (c) 2 4 3 1
List-I List-II (d) 3 2 1 4
Ore Metal 69. What is the chief cause of low yields of crops in
A. Limonite 1. Copper India?
B. Pyrite 2. Uranium 1. Small size of holdings
C. Bauxite 3. Iron 2. Traditional methods of farming
D. Monazite 4. Aluminium 3. Mass illiteracy among farmers
Codes: 4. Low level of farm mechanization
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
Geography || B-21
70. Match the following (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

List-I List-II (b) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i
A. SAIL 1. Chemicals (c) A-iv, B-i, C-iii, D-ii
B. BALCO 2. Iron and Steel (d) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii
C. BPCL 3. Electronics 74. Match list I with list II and select the correct
D. BEL 4. Aluminium answer using the codes given below the list.
Codes: List I List II
A B C D (A) 0° latitude (i) Standard meridian of India
(a) 2 4 1 3 1
(b) 2 1 4 3 (B) 88 °E (ii) Arctic Circle
2
(c) 4 2 1 3
1
(d) 2 1 3 4 (C) 23 °S (iii) Equator
71. Match the following 2
List-I List-II 1
(D) 66 ° N (iv) Tropic of Capricorn
(Tribes) (Area of occurence) 2
A. Adivasis 1. Kerala Codes :
B. Moplahs 2. Nilgiri Hills (a) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (iv), D - (ii)
C. Todas 3. Manipur (b) A - (ii), B - (iii), C - (iv), D - (i)
D. Angamis 4. Madhya Pradesh (c) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (i), D - (iv)
Codes: (d) A - (iii), B - (i), C - (ii), D - (iv)
A B C D 75. Consider the following statements about our
(a) 4 2 1 3 country India:
(b) 4 1 2 3 I. India has an area of about 3.28 million sq.
(c) 4 1 3 2 km.
(d) 4 3 2 1 II. India is located in the south-eastern
72. Which factors influence the density distribution hemisphere.
of population in India most profoundly?
III. The latitudinal extent of India is 8°4’N and
1. Amount of rainfall
37° 6’N latitudes.
2. Fertility of soils
IV. The longitudinal extent of India is 68°7’E
3. Distribution of minerals
and 97° 25’ E longitudes.
4. Cultural factors
Of these statements:
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 2 and 4
(a) Only I is correct
(c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
(b) I, II and III are correct
(c) Only III and IV are correct
(d) I, III and IV are correct
columns:
76. Which the following is/are the characteristic(s) of
Column I Column II
Tropical Deciduous Forests?
1
(A) Tropic of cancer (i) 23 ° N (i) Trees shed their leaves in the dry season to
2 conserve water
1 (ii) The hardwood trees found in these forests
(B) Tropic of Capricorn (ii) 23 °S
2 are sal, teak and shisham
1 (iii) Tigers, lions, elephants and monkeys are
(C) Arctic circle (iii) 66 ° N
2 common animals
1 (a) only (i) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(D) Antarctic circle (iv) 66 °S (c) only (iii) (d) All of them
2

77. Match column I with column II and select the Column I Column II
correct answer using the code given below the Types of Forest Important Trees
columns: (A) Tropical Rain (i) Pine, Deodar and
Column I Column II Forest Spruce
A. Argentina (i) Down (B) Tropical (ii) Bamboo,
B. Australia (ii) Pampas Deciduous Cinchona and
C. North America (iii) Veld Forest
D. South Africa (iv) Prairie Mahogany
(a) A(ii), B(i),C(iv),D(iii) (C) Mountain Forest (iii) Kikar, Babul, Date
(b) A(iii), B(i),C(iii),D(iv) and Palm
(c) A(i), B(ii),C(iii),D(iv) (D) Thorn Forest (iv) Neem, Teak,
(d) A(iv), B(i),C(ii),D(iii) Shisham and Sal
(a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D - (i)
(b) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (i), D - (iv)
(c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
columns:
(d) A – (i), B – (ii), C – (iii), D - (iv)
Column A Column B
81. Match the animal with its habitat and accordingly
A. Oasis (i) Glacier select the correct alternative:
B. Oil (ii) Depressions with water Column I Column II
C. Gangri (iii) Sahara Animal Habitat
D. Bedouins (iv) Libya (A) Elephant (i) Coniferous Forest or
(a) A-(i); B-(ii); C-(iii); D-(iv) Taiga
(b) A-(iii); B-(ii); C-(i); D-(iv) (B) Silver Fox (ii) Mediterranean
(c) A-(iii); B-(iv); C-(ii); D-(i) (C) Wild buffalo or (iii) Tropical Deciduous
(d) A-(ii); B-(iv); C-(i); D-(iii) Bison Forest
79. Match column I with column II and select the (D) Horse (iv) Temperate
correct answer using the code given below the Grasslands
columns: (a) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D - (i)
Column I Column II (b) A – (iii), B – (ii), C – (iv), D - (i)
(Types of Forests) (Areas Associated) (c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
A. Tropical (i) Sunderbans (d) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D - (ii)
rainforests 82. Match the deserts with their locations and select
B. Monsoon forests (ii) Andaman and the correct alternative:
Nicobar islands Column I Column II
C. Thorny bushes (iii) Uttar Pradesh and Desert Location
Bihar (A) Gobi (i) Chile
D. Tidal forests (iv) Rajasthan and (B) Kalahari (ii) Sudan and Egypt
(C ) Atacama (iii) China and
Gujarat
Mongolia
Codes:
(D) Nubian (iv) Namibia and
(a) A - (ii); B - (iii); D - (iv); D - (i)
Botswana
(b) A - (i); B - (ii); C - (iii); D - (iv)
(a) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D - (ii)
(c) A - (ii); B - (iv); C - (iii); D - (i) (b) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (ii)
(d) A - (iv); B - (iii); C - (ii); D - (i) (c) A – (ii), B – (iv), C – (i), D - (iii)
80. Match the two columns and select the correct (d) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D - (i)
alternative
Geography || B-23
83. Temperate Grasslands in different regions of the Column I Column II

world are known by different names. Match the (A) Sial (i) Remains of the dead
name with the region and accordingly select the plants and animals
correct alternative: trapped in rocks
Column I Column II (B) Sima (ii) Layer lies between
Name Region crust and core
(A) Veldt (i) North America (C) Nife (iii) Uppermost layer of the
(B) Downs (ii) Central Asia earth.
(C) Steppes (iii) Australia (D) Fossils (iv) Innermost layer of the
(D) Prairies (iv) South Africa earth.
(a) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D - i Codes :
(b) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D - i (a) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i
(c) A – iv, B – ii, C – i, D - iii (b) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(c) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
(d) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D - ii
(d) A – iv, B – i, C – ii, D – iii
84. Which of the following pairs are correctly
matched?
(I) Ranches – Large cattle farms
columns:
(II) Bison – American buffalo
Column I Column II
(III) Alfa– Alfa – Medicines
(A) Basalt (i) Intrusive igneous
(IV) Combine – A machine that can sow,
rock
plough and work as
(B) Granite (ii) Metamorphic rock
thresher all by itself.
(C) Sandstone (iii) Extrusive igneous
(a) I and II only (b) I, II and IV only
rock
(c) I and IV only (d) All the above
(D) Marble (iv) Sedimentary rock
85. Consider the following pairs
Codes :
I. Savannah – East Africa
(a) A – iii, B – iv, C – i, D – ii
II. Prairies – North America
(b) A – iii, B – i, C – iv, D – ii
III. Veld – Europe
(c) A – iv, B – iii, C – ii, D – i
IV. Down – Australia
(d) A – i, B – iii, C – iv, D – ii
Which of the above pairs are correct?
(a) I, II, III and IV (b) I, II and IV
(c) I and II (d) III and IV
columns:
86. Choose the correct statement(s)?
Column I Column II
(1) The movement of interior plates of earth
(Water falls) (Countries)
causes change in surface of earth.
(A) Angel falls (i) Africa
(2) Sea waves comes under exogenic force.
(B) Niagara falls (ii) India
(3) Sudden movement of interior of earth causes
(C) Victoria falls (iii) South America
earthquakes.
(D) Jog falls (iv) North America
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 2 Codes:
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All are true (a) (A) – i, (B) – iv, (C) – i, (D) – ii
87. Match column I with column II and select the (b) (A) – ii, (B) – iii, (C) – iv, (D) – i
correct answer using the code given below the (c) (A) – i, (B) – ii, (C) – iii, (D) – iv
columns: (d) (A) – iii, (B) – ii, (C) – i, (D) – iv

90. Match column I with column II and select the 94. Match the River Valley Projects with the states
correct answer using the code given below the benefited by them and accordingly select the
columns: correct alternative:
Column I Column II Types of Industries Examples
(Land forms) (Exogenic forces) (A) Damodar Valley (i) Gujarat and
(A) Flood plain (i) Sea waves Rajasthan
(B) Sea cliff (ii) Glaciers (B) Chambal (ii) Madhya Pradesh
(C) Moraines (iii) Wind and Rajasthan
(D) Sand dunes (iv) River (C) Sardar Sarovar (iii) Andhra Pradesh and
(a) (A) – iv, (B) – iii, (C) – ii, (D) – i
Karnataka
(b) (A) – iii, (B) – ii, (C) – i, (D) – iv
(D) Tungabhadra (iv) Bengal, Bihar and
(c) (A) – iv, (B) – i, (C) – ii, (D) – iii
(d) (A) – iii, (B) – iv, (C) – i, (D) – ii Jharkhand
91. Consider the following statements regarding the (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
climate of Sahara desert? (b) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
I. The climate of the Sahara desert is scorching (c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
hot and dry. (d) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
II. The sky is cloudless and clear. 95. Match the two columns and select the correct
III. It receives plenty of rainfall. alternative
IV. The nights may be freezing cold with Mineral Information related
temperatures nearing zero degrees. to that mineral
Of the above statements, which are correct. (A) Bauxite (i) Non-Metallic
(a) I only (b) I, III and IV mineral
(c) I, II and III (d) All of above (B) Haematite (ii) Aluminium
92. Consider the following statements? (C) Mica (iii) Found in Malaysia
I. The oasis in the Sahara and the Nile Valley (D) Tin (iv) Best quality Iron
in Egypt supports settled population. Ore
II. Trucks are replacing camels in the salt trade. (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - ii, D - i
III. The discovery of oil in Algeria, Libya and (b) A - ii, B - iii, C- i, D - iv
Egypt is constantly transforming the Sahara
(c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
desert.
(d) A - i, B- ii, C - iii, D - iv
Of these statements:
(a) I and II are correct 96. Match the Crops with the Soil required by them
(b) I, II and III are correct and accordingly select the correct alternative:
(c) Only III is correct Crop Soil Required
(d) II and III are correct (A) Tea (i) Alluvial soil with
93. Match column I with column II and select the clayey sub-soil
correct answer using the code given below the (B) Millets (ii) Well drained loamy
columns: soil
Column A Column B (C) Rice (iii) Less fertile and
A. Coal (i) Southern California sandy Soil
B. Petroleum (ii) Norway (D) Coffee (iv) Hill slopes with
C. Water Energy (iii) Russia alluvial soil
D. Wind Energy (iv) Persian Gulf (a) A - iv, B - iii, C - i, D - ii
(a) A(iii), B(i), C(ii), D(iv) (b) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i
(b) A(iii), B(iv), C(ii), D(i) (c) A - ii, B - iv, C - i, D - iii
(c) A(i), B(ii), C(iii), D(iv) (d) A - iv, B - ii, C - i, D - iii
(d) A(i), B(ii), C(iv), D(iii)
Geography || B-25
97. Match list I with list II and select the correct 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called
answer using the codes given below the lists: epicenter.
List I List II 2. The lines joining the places which were
(Minerals) (Distribution) affected Earthquake at the same point of
(A) Iron-ore (i) South Africa time are called homoseismal lines.
(B) Manganese (ii) France Select the correct answer using the codes given
(C) Limestone (iii) North Sweden below
(D) Platinum (iv) Georgia (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i 102. What would be the influence on the weather
(b) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high
(c) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i pressure develops over the North-Western part of
(d) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - i India?
98. Which of the following pairs is not correct? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward
I. Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu from this high pressure area.
II. Tarapur – Uttar Pradesh 2. The Northern plain would become cold.
III. Rana Pratap Sagar– Rajasthan 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would
IV. Kaiga – Karnataka blow during the day time.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. There would be torrential rains brought by
below: thunderstorms.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) I and IV (d) Only IV below
99. Match list I with list II and select the correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
List I List II 103. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere
(water bodies) (Distribution of water in %) is/are responsible for acid rains ?
(A) Oceans (i) 0.0001 1. Oxides of sulphur
(B) Ice caps (ii) 0.0019 2. Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Atmosphere (iii) 97.3 3. Oxides of carbon
(D) Rivers (iv) 2.0 Select the correct answer using the codes given
Codes: below
(a) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A - (iii), B -(i), C - (ii), D - (iv) 104. Which among the following phenomenas can
(d) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) occur when very warm and humid air is rising
100. Which of the following is/are West flowing over a mass of a very cold air?
river(s) of India? 1. Calm weather
1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 2. Snowfall
3. Narmada 4. Kavery 3. Storms and cyclonic storms
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. Intense rain and hail
below Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 below
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
101. Which of the following statements relating to (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Earthquakes is/are correct?

105. Consider the following statements (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km above the 109. Consider the following statements
surface of the Earth 1. National parks are a special category of
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the protected areas of land and sea coasts where
Sun. people are an integral part of the system.
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on 2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation
the Earth of particular species.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the
correct? habitat of a particular wild animal.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statement given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 correct?
106. Which of the following statement regarding (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
ozone layer within the atmosphere is/are correct? (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation 110. Consider the following statements :
found in the Sun’s rays. 1. Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere
2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious threat to the lies below an altitude of 1000 m.
ozone layer. 2. The amount of precipitable water in the
Select the correct answer using the codes given atmosphere increases from the equator to the
below poles.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
107. Which of the following statements regarding red
111. Consider the following statements :
soils of India is/are correct?
1. Coal is a sedimentary rock.
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric 2. Basalt is an igneous rock.
oxide content. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
potash. 112. Which of the following statements characterize
3. They are porous and have friable structure. the anticyclones?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Anticyclones are low pressure systems.
below 2. They are characterized by divergent wind
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 circulation.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. They are indicative of dry weather
108. Which of the following best explain why the conditions.
lower course of a river is sometimes chocked
Select the correct answer using the code given
with sediments?
below?
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
course.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is
low. 113. Consider the following statements related to
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river’s stratification of atmospheric layers
lower course. 1. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to
4. Much of the river water is drawn for stratosphere.
irrigation in the lower course. 2. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of
Select the correct answer using the codes given troposphere.
below 3. Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’.
Geography || B-27
Which of the statements given above are correct? radiations from the Earth’s surface exceeds
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 the energy received from the Sun at 4:00 p.m.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Energy received by the Earth from solar
114. Which among the following statements radiations continues to exceed the energy lost
characterized EI Nino? by outgoing long-wave radiations from the
I. It occurs at irregular intervals Earth’s surface up to 4:00 p.m.
II. It carriers warmer water Select the correct answer using the code given
III. It carries less saline water below :
IV. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern Code :
oscillation. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct, answer using the code given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below 118. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only correct order of sequence based on area covered in
(c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
India beginning from the largest covered area:
115. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Moist deciduous 2. Dry deciduous
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
I. It enjoys equatorial climate 3. Wet evergreen 4. Semi-evergreen
II. This is the only place in India where a volcano Select the correct answer using the code given
is located below :
III. This is the only place in India where coral Code :
bed is found (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1
correct? 119. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only 1. The angle of the axis in relation to the plane
(c) II and III only (d) I only in which the earth revolves around the sun is
116. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer not constant.
using the code given below the lists : 2. The amount of energy given off by the
List I List II sun changes with the transparency of the
(Agents of erosion) (Topographical feature) atmosphere. Select the correct answer using
(A) Running water 1. Cirque the code given below.
(B) Glacier 2. Barchan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(C) Wind 3. Rift Valley
(D) Underground 4. Doline
120. Which of the following statements relating to
Water 5. Gorge
tsunami is/are correct?
Codes : As the tsunamis leave the deep water of the open
(a) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 sea and travel towards shallow water
(b) A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3 1. the speed considerably
(c) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-5 2. they attain enormous height is reduced
(d) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 3. they appear as a gentle rise and fall of the sea
117. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy Select the correct answer using the code given
at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never below.
occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
reasons are correct. (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Transformation of solar energy into heat 121. Consider the following statements :
requires some time. 1. In the coastal regions, the land breeze blows
2. The loss of energy through long-wave over to the sea during night.

2. In the coastal regions, during night, the air 124. Assertion (A) : Granite has larger crystals than
over the sea is warmer than the air over land. basalt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Reason (R) : Basalt has larger content of metallic
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 minerals.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 125. Assertion (A) : Most of the weather changes are
122. Which of the following statements is/are confined to troposphere.
correct? Reason (R) : Most of the atmospheric mass is
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low contained in this layer.
pressure belt which forms an important zone 126. Assertion (A): Trees in Mediterranean region
have thick bark.
of contact over Northern India and Pakistan.
Reason (R) : It is an adaptation to long summer
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites drought.
inflow of winds from different directions. 127. Assertion (A) : Within the equatorial regions
Select the correct answer using the code given the highlands have experienced the maximum
below : economic development.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Reason (R) : These have been the areas settle by
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Europeans.
123. Match list I with list II and select the correct 128. Assertion (A) : USA grows sugarcane in the Gulf
answer using the codes given below the lists: coast region.
List I List II Reason (R) : The climate of this region is warm
(A) Mahogany (i) Tropical Deciduous and moist.
forests 129. Assertion (A) : Yak is an important animal of
(B) Shisham (ii) Mediterranean Tibetan Highlands.
vegetation Reason (R) : This is a small animal requiring less
(C) Eucalyptus (iii) Tropical Evergreen grazing.
forests 130. Assertion (A) : China is a leading producer of
(D) Citrus fruits (iv) Temperate Evergree Rice but does not export rice.
forests Reason (R) : Chinese rice is of inferior quality
Codes: and there is no demand for it in the international
(a) A-(iii), B- (i), C- (iv), D- (ii) market.
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C- (iii), D- (iv) 131. Assertion(A) : Mercator’s projection has been
(c) A- (ii), B- (iii), C- (iv), D- (i) used for making navigational charts.
(d) A- (iii), B- (iv), C- (ii), D- (i) Reason (R) : Loxodromes are shown as straight
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 124-131): Consider the following lines on this.
statements and select the correct answer with the help
of codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R Explains A
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Geography || B-29
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 15. (a) 29. (c) 43. (c) 57. (d) 71. (b) 85. (b) 99. (a) 113. (d) 127. (a)
2. (d) 16. (a) 30. (c) 44. (c) 58. (c) 72. (c) 86. (d) 100. (c) 114. (d) 128. (a)
3. (a) 17. (b) 31. (c) 45. (d) 59. (a) 73. (a) 87. (a) 101. (b) 115. (c) 129. (c)
4. (c) 18. (a) 32. (c) 46. (c) 60. (b) 74. (a) 88. (b) 102. (a) 116. (a) 130. (c)
5. (c) 19. (b) 33. (d) 47. (a) 61. (c) 75. (d) 89. (a) 103. (a) 117. (c) 131. (a)
6. (b) 20. (c) 34. (a) 48. (a) 62. (d) 76. (d) 90. (c) 104. (d) 118. (a)
7. (a) 21. (d) 35. (a) 49. (a) 63. (c) 77. (a) 91. (c) 105. (b) 119. (a)
8. (d) 22. (d) 36. (b) 50. (c) 64. (c) 78. (d) 92. (b) 106. (c) 120. (b)
9. (a) 23. (c) 37. (d) 51. (c) 65. (b) 79. (a) 93. (b) 107. (b) 121. (c)
10. (a) 24. (b) 38. (b) 52. (c) 66. (b) 80. (c) 94. (d) 108. (c) 122. (b)
11. (a) 25. (b) 39. (b) 53. (d) 67. (c) 81. (b) 95. (c) 109. (b) 123. (a)
12. (c) 26. (c) 40. (a) 54. (d) 68. (b) 82. (c) 96. (a) 110. (d) 124. (b)
13. (c) 27. (c) 41. (c) 55. (b) 69. (b) 83. (a) 97. (a) 111. (c) 125. (b)
14. (b) 28. (a) 42. (a) 56. (b) 70. (a) 84. (b) 98. (b) 112. (a) 126. (a)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The polar front theory states that masses of streams on Earth are westerly winds (flowing west
relatively warm and cold air are brought into contact. to east).
These masses are known after their source regions. In 4. (c) There has been equatorial counter current in
meteorology, the polar front is the boundary between every ocean of the world. The Equatorial Counter
the polar cell and the Ferrel cell in each hemisphere. Current is an eastward moving, wind-driven flowing
At this boundary a sharp gradient in temperature 10-15m deep current found in the Atlantic, Indian,
occurs between these two air masses, each at very and Pacific Oceans. This current flows west-to-east
different temperatures. at about 3-10°N in the Atlantic and Pacific basins,
2. (d) Continuous fall of tiny marine sediments on between the North Equatorial Current (NEC) and
ocean floors is called marine snowfall. In the deep the South Equatorial Current (SEC).
ocean, marine snow is a continuous shower of mostly 5. (c) The concepts of continental drift and pole-
organic detritus falling from the upper layers of the wandering form the basis for the plate Tectonic
water column. It is a significant means of exporting theory. Plate tectonics is the theory that the outer
energy from the light-rich photic zone to the aphotic rigid layer of the earth (the lithosphere) is divided
zone below. into a couple of dozen “plates” that move around
3. (a) Jet stream is Rossby waves. Jet streams are fast across the earth’s surface relative to each other, like
flowing, narrow air currents found in the atmospheres slabs of ice on a lake. A plate may be an ocean basin
of some planets, including Earth. The main jet alone, or a continent alone, or a combination of ocean
streams are located near the tropopause, the transition basin+continent (common).
between the troposphere (where temperature 6. (b) The coral polyps grow both in shallow and
decreases with altitude) and the stratosphere (where deep oceanic waters is not true. A coral polyp is an
temperature increases with altitude). The major jet invertebrate meaning an animal with no backbone,

examples of this are anemones and jellyfish. It is small pockets. As they cool slowly underground, the
also the single living unit of a coral and the creature magma becomes igneous rocks.
responsible for our coral reefs. 17. (b) Dolphin and challenger ridge are located in
7. (a) Aridity is the distinctive characteristics of the Atlantic ocean. The Dolphin ridge is in the North
deserts. They receive low rainfall and have high Atlantic Ocean and the Challenger ridge is in the
evaporation. South Atlantic Ocean. Cocos ridge is located in
8. (d) The temperature at its top is lowest over the Pacific Ocean. To the east of longitude 150° W,
equator and relatively higher over the poles. the relief of the ocean floor is considerably less
9. (a) Equatorial counter current is not found in the pronounced than it is to the west. In the eastern
Indian Ocean during summer season because during Pacific the Cocos Ridge extends southwestward
summer season south-west monsoon current is from the Central American isthmus to the Galapagos
dominant in northern Indian ocean. Islands. East Indian ridge is located in Indian Ocean.
10. (a) Corals are mainly found in the tropical oceans. The Southeast Indian Ridge (SEIR) is a divergent
Corals need clean sediment free water. A coral polyp tectonic plate boundary located along the seafloor
has a sack like body and an opening encircled by of the southern Indian Ocean. It separates the Indo-
stinging tentacles called cnidae. The coral polyp Australian Plate to the north from the Antarctic Plate
uses calcium carbonate from seawater to build itself to the south. Lomonosov ridge is located in Arctic
a hard skeleton and it is this limestone skeleton that ocean. The Lomonosov Ridge is a 1,800 km long
protects the soft coral polyp. ridge, which divides the Arctic Ocean into two major
11. (a) The circum-pacific belt is the most vulnerable basins: the Eurasia Basin and the Amerasia Basin.
zone of Tsunamis. It is tectonically most active area 18. (a) Permafrost forms Pingo lands. A “pingo” is a
and generates world’s major earthquakes. Ring of mound or hill, consisting of an outer layer of soil
Fire, also called Circum-Pacific Belt or Pacific Ring covering a core of solid ice. It’s sort of like a big Earth
of Fire, long horseshoe-shaped seismically active pimple on the Arctic landscape. Diastrophism forms
belt of earthquake epicentres, volcanoes, and tectonic Horst land which is the raised fault block bounded
plate boundaries that fringes the Pacific basin. by normal faults or graben. A horst is formed from
12. (c) New folded mountains are also called tertiary extension of the Earth’s crust. The raised block is a
mountains. During the Tertiary, the last phase of portion of the crust that generally remains stationary
the breakup of Pangea was accompanied by several or is uplifted while the land has dropped on either
continental collisions, multiple small terranes and side. Running water forms flood plain type of land.
A floodplain or flood plain is an area of land adjacent
continents collided, resulting in several mountain
to a stream or river that stretches from the banks of
chains that we know today, such as the Pyrenees,
its channel to the base of the enclosing valley walls
Alps, and Zagros Mountains.
and experiences flooding during periods of high
13. (c) The horizontal distribution of temperature of discharge.
ocean water is largely affected by ocean current, 19. (b) The correct order of the orogenic cycles are:
prevailing winds and latitudes. Torridonian — Caledonian — Heranian — Alpine.
14. (b) Schist is a metamorph of Basalt. Diamond is 20. (c) The concept of peneplain is propounded by
a meta-morph of coal. Marble is a metamorph of Davis. A peneplain is a low-relief plain representing
limestone. State is a metamorph of shale. the final stage of fluvial erosion during times of
15. (a) The length of the day at the equator is always extended tectonic stability. The concepts of base
12 hours. The angle of incidence of the sun’s rays at level and widespread erosion of great mountain
the equator is constant. ranges to low elevation and relief are the cornerstones
16. (a) Igneous rocks are rich in natural gas. They are of Powell’s work. The continental drift concept
rich in metallic minerals. They are not fossiferous. propounded by in Wegener 1912. He proposed that
Igneous rocks are called fire rocks and are formed the continents we know today were once all attached
either underground or above ground. Underground, in a single landmass he called Pangaea. They were
they are formed when the melted rock, called surrounded by one global ocean, but then broke apart
magma, deep within the earth becomes trapped in and somehow “drifted” to their separate places on the
Geography || B-31
globe. The concept of plate tectonics propounded by 33. (d) Orogen means geosyncline, Kratogen means
Hary Hess. Hess described how hot magma would foreland, Randkettan means marginal ranges.
rise from under the crust at the Great Global Rift. Leopold Kober (21 September 1883 – 6. September
When the magma cooled, it would expand and push 1970) was an influential Austrian geologist
the tectonic plates apart. responsible for a number of now largely discredited
21. (d) The correct sequence of terrigenous deposits theories of orogeny and for coining the term kraton
are: sand, silt, clay and mud. to describe stable continental platforms. Kober,
22. (d) The correct order of the geological periods are: developing geosyncline theory, posited that stable
pliocene, miocene, oligocene, ecocene. blocks known as forelands move toward each other,
23. (c) The Earth’s magnetic pole in the northern forcing the sediments of the intervening geosynclinal
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern region to move over the forelands, forming marginal
Canada. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through mountain ranges known as Randketten, while
Thumba in South India. leaving an intervening median mass known as the
Zwischengebirge.
24. (b) (15°N – 40° N > 10° N – 15° N > 40° N – 50°
34. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
N > 50° N – 70° N)
the true explanation of A.
25. (b) The correct order of the geological epochs is: 35. (a) In an anticyclone barometric pressure is high
(miocene, pliocene, pleistocene, pliocene). towards centre of the system. An anti-cyclone -- also
26. (c) The formation of mid-Atlantic ridge is a typical known as a high pressure area -- is a large atmospheric
example of the process of Divergence and sea floor circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise
spreading. around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-
27. (c) The average density of the outer crust is 2.8. clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
There is sudden increase in the velocity of P waves 36. (b) Earth movements create faults. Fluvial effects
along the mantle core boundary. create flood plains. Organic activity creates coral
28. (a) Drifting of the continents is not explained reefs. Earth movements create moraines.
by the tetrahedral hypothesis. The Tetrahedral
37. (d) The average density of rocks in the lower crust
hypothesis is an obsolete scientific theory
attempting to explain the arrangement of the Earth’s of the earth is 3. The outer core of the earth is in
continents and oceans by referring to the geometry molten form.
of a tetrahedron. 38. (b) Palaeozoic Silurian
29. (c) The correct order is: (South Equatorial — Mesozoic Jurassic
Brazil — South Atlantic drift — Benguela) Pre cambrian Archean
30. (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and Cainozoic Oligocene
maximum at the equator. 39. (b) Agulhas current Indian ocean
31. (c) Tropical areas get more insolation than Kuroshio current North Pacific
the temperature area. The intensity of albedo Florida current North Atlantic
temperature effects depend on the amount of albedo
Falkland current South Atlantic
and the level of local insolation; high albedo areas
in the arctic and antarctic regions are cold due to 40. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
low insolation, where areas such as the Sahara the correct explanation of A.
Desert, which also have a relatively high albedo, 41. (c) (Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Iono-
will be hotter due to high insolation. Tropical and sphere)
sub-tropical rain forest areas have low albedo, 42. (a) Either of the two belts over the oceans of
and are much hotter than their temperate forest about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known as
counterparts, which have lower insolation. Horse Latitude. This region, under a ridge of high
32. (c) It was propounded by the British Scientist pressure called the subtropical high, is an area which
James Jeans. It holds filament responsible for the receives little precipitation and has variable winds
origin of the solar system. The tidal or near-collision
mixed with calm. The horse latitudes are associated
hypothesis was put forward by James Jeans in 1917,
in which the planets were considered to have been with the subtropical anticyclone and the large-scale
formed due to the approach of some other star to the descent of air from high-altitude currents moving
Sun. toward the poles.

43. (c) Rotation of the earth, air pressure and wind, 59. (a) The Santa Ana winds are strong, very dry
density of ocean water are the factors which offshore winds that impact Southern California and
influence the ocean currents. northern Baja California from late fall through early
44. (c) The atmosphere can be heated upwards only winter.
from the earth’s surface. The air is less dense in the Along the eastern slopes of the Rockies, the
upper atmosphere. Chinook wind provides a welcome respite from the
45. (d) The atmospheric conditions should be high in long winter chill
relative humidity, warm oceanic temperature and A warm dry wind coming off the lee slopes of a
region lying between the Tropics of Cancer and mountain range, especially off the northern slopes
Capricorn. A tropical cyclone is a rapidly-rotating of the Alps.
storm system characterized by a low-pressure Zonda wind (in Spanish, viento zonda) is a regional
center, strong winds, and a spiral arrangement of term for the foehn wind that often occurs on the
thunderstorms that produce heavy rain. Tropical eastern slope of the Andes, in Argentina. The Zonda
is a dry wind (often carrying dust) which comes
cyclones typically form over large bodies of
from the polar maritime air, warmed by descent
relatively warm water. They derive their energy
from the crest, which is approximately 6,000 m
from the evaporation of water from the ocean
(20,000 ft) above sea level. It may exceed a velocity
surface, which ultimately recondenses into clouds
of 40 km/h (25 mph)
and rain when moist air rises and cools to saturation.
60. (b) Isobar is a line drawn on a weather map or
46. (c) Aluminium is the third most abundant element chart that connectspoints at which the barometric
in the earth crust after oxygen and silicon. pressure is the same.
53. (d) Igneous rock is formed through the cooling Isotherms are lines connecting areas of the same
and solidification of magma or lava. Igneous rock temperature, Isohyet is a line drawn on a map
may form with or without crystallization, either connecting points having equal rainfall at acertain
below the surface as intrusive (plutonic) rocks or on time or for a stated period.
the surface as extrusive (volcanic) rocks. Isohel is a line on a weather map connecting points
Rock that has formed through the deposition that receive equal amountsof sunshine.
and solidification of sediment, especially sediment 61. (c) Cyclone is a large-scale, atmospheric
transported by water (rivers, lakes, and oceans), ice wind-and-pressure system characterized bylow
(glaciers), and wind. Sedimentary rocks are often pressure at its center and by circular wind motion,
deposited in layers, and frequently contain fossils. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere,
Note: Limestone and shale are common clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
sedimentary rocks. Tornado is a localized, violently destructive
58. (c) Stratosphere is an atmospheric layer lying windstorm occurring over land,especially in the
between the troposphere and themesosphere, in Middle West, and characterized by a long, funnel-
which temperature generally increases with height. shaped cloud extending toward the ground and
Troposphere is the lowest atmospheric layer, about made visible by condensation and debris.
18 kilometres (11 miles) thick atthe equator to about 62. (d) Shifting cultivation is a land-use system, esp in
6 km (4 miles) at the Poles, in which airtemperature tropical Africa, in which a tract of land is cultivated
decreases normally with height at about 6.5°C per until its fertility diminishes, when it is abandoned
km. until this is restored naturally.It is often used by
Tropopause is the boundary, or transitional layer, tropical-forest root-crop farmers in various parts of
between the troposphere and the stratosphere. the world and by dry-rice cultivators of the forested
Ionosphere is a region of the earth’s atmosphere, hill country of Southeast Asia. Areas of the forest
extending from about 60kilometres to 1000 km are burned and cleared for planting; the ash provides
above the earth’s surface, in which there is ahigh some fertilization, and the plot is relatively free of
concentration of free electrons formed as a result weeds. After several years of cultivation, fertility
of ionizingradiation entering the atmosphere from declines and weeds increase. Traditionally, the area
space. was left fallow and reverted to a secondary forest
Geography || B-33
of bush. Cultivation would then shift to a new plot; Sea. It is around 160 kilometres (100 miles)
after about a decade the old site could be reused. in length and spreads out over 240 kilometres
63. (c) Double cropping is to raise two consecutive (149 miles) of coastline. It is rich in agriculture
crops on the same land within a singlegrowing and has been farmed for thousands of years.
season. An example of double cropping might be • Around 40 million people (half of Egypt’s
to harvest a wheat crop by early summer and then population) live in the Nile Delta region.
plant corn or soybeans on that acreage for harvest • In 1787, the famous Rosetta stone was found
in the fall. This practice is only possible in regions in the Nile Delta in the city of Rosetta. This
with long growing seasons. Ancient Egyptian artifact played a key
64. (c) Tea grows only in a warm environment. For role in modern understanding of Egyptian
this reason this plant is mainly found in regions hieroglyphics.
between 16 degrees south latitude and 20 degrees • The Aswan High Dam was built in 1970
north latitude. India is the largest producer and to help regulate flooding of the Nile River.
exporter of tea in the world. The ideal climatic Before the Aswan Dam was built, years that
conditions for the production and growing of tea are featured high levels of water could wipe out
as follows: crops while years of low level water could
• Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the produce famines and drought. The dam helps
production of tea. High temperature is required control these water levels.
in summer. The lowest temperature for the 69. (b) The low productivity in India is a result of the
growth of tea is 16°C. following factors:
• Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for • The average size of land holdings is very
tea cultivation. small (less than 2 hectares) and is subject to
• Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil fragmentation due to land ceiling acts, and in
mixed with lime and iron. The soil should be some cases, family disputes
rich in humus. • Adoption of modern agricultural practices and
• Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. use of technology is inadequate
Stagnation of water is not good for tea plants. • India has inadequate infrastructure and
Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such
services.
mountain slopes are good for tea cultivation.
• lliteracy, general socio-economic backwardness,
67. (c)
slow progress in implementing land reforms
• The length of the Nile River is approximately
6650 kilometres (4132 miles). It is believed to and inadequate or inefficient finance and
be the longest river in the world. marketing services.
• Located in Africa, the Nile River lies in the • nconsistent government policy.
following countries: Kenya, Eritrea, Congo, • Irrigation facilities are inadequate,
Burundi, Uganda, Tanzania, Rwanda, Egypt, 72. (c) In an agricultural country, the fertility of soil
Sudan and Ethiopia. and rainfall are the most important determinants of
• The Nile River has huge significance in regards density of population. In case of industrial country
to Ancient Egypt. Most of Ancient Egypt’s the density of population may be influenced by such
historical sites are located along the banks of factors as the availability of minerals, industrial
the Nile River including cities such as Luxor development and levels of urbanization etc.
and Cairo. 75. (d) India lies in the Northern hemisphere.
• In 2004, the White Nile Expedition became the 84. (b) Alfa-Alfa is a grass, not medicine
first to navigate the entire length of the Nile 85. (b) Veld tropical grasslands are found in south
River. The expedition began in Uganda and Africa.
finished in Rosetta, taking four months and 91. (c) The Sahara desert has scanty rainfall.
two weeks to complete. 93. (b) Russia has about 1/3rd of coal reserves and
• The Nile Delta in Northern Egypt is where 2/3rd of the world’s reserves of petroleum. Water
the Nile River drains in to the Mediterranean

energy has been harnessed by Norway. Wind energy of water vapour lies below an altitude of 5 kilometer.
has been utilized in Southern California. Amount of precipitable water in atmosphere increases
98. (b) Tarapur power plant is located in Maharashtra, from the poles to the equator.
whereas Narora in Uttar Pradesh. 111. (c) Sedimentary rocks are formed from sediments
100. (c) Mahanadi, Krishna and Kavery are East that have been pressed together. Sediments may come
flowing rivers. While Narmada, Tapi, Luni and
from plant or animal remains, from minerals that were
Payaswani are West flowing rivers.
once dissolved in water, or form large rocks that have
101. (b) The point of origin of an Earthquake is called
been broken up into smaller pieces by water, wind or
focus or hypocenter. Epicenter is the point at ground
level directly above the hypocenter. ice.
The line on Earth’s surface connecting points Igneous rocks are rocks formed from molten rock
which are affected by Earthquake at same time are material as it cools and hardens.
called homoseismal lines. 112. (a) Areas that have higher air pressure than the
103. (a) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur surrounding area are called anticyclones.
dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the 113. (d) All the given statements are correct.
water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids. 114. (d) El Nino, an unusual warning of surface ocean
104. (d) Calm weather and intense rain and hail waters in the eastern tropical Pacific is the part of
phenomena can occur when very warm and humid southern oscillation. Scientists do not know exactly
air is rising over a mass of a very cold air. how El Nino forms. It is said that El Nino may
105. (b) The ozone layer is a layer in Earth’s atmosphere have contributed to the 1993 Mississipi and 1995
which contains relatively high concentration of California floods. The average period length of EL
ozone. This layer absorbs 97.99% of the sun’s
Nino is 5 years.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which potentially
115. (c) Barren Island (Andaman sea) is the only active
damages the life forms on Earth. It is mainly
volcano Island in even south Asia. It is the part of
located the lower portion of stratosphere from
Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
approximately 20 to 30 km above Earth.
106. (c) The ozone layer contains 97–99% of the Sun’s Islands.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which is potentially 116. (a) Agents of erosion Topographical
damaging to the life on Earth. Chlorofluorocarbons, features
along with nitric oxide, nitrous oxide, hydroxyl, Running water - Gorge
chlorine, bomotenorocarbon etc. are serious treat to Glacier - Cirque
the ozone layer. Wind - Barchan
107. (b) The presence of good concentration of Underground water - Delive
iron (ferric) oxide is responsible for giving this 117. (c) Transformation of solar energy into heat requires
soil its redish colour. These soils are found in some time, energy received by the earth from solar
Chhotanagpur Plateau, Telangana, Nilgiris, Tamil radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by
Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and periophering
outgoing long-wave radiations from the earth’s
area of Deccan Plateau. Red soils have traces of
surface from 4.00p.m.
time and humous but they can’t be rich of the same.
108. (c) The river is chocked because the valley of a 118. (a) The main areas of tropical forest are found
river is widest in its lower course and the velocity of in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Western
a river in its lower course is low. Ghats, which fringe the Arabian Sea coastline of
109. (b) National parks are large areas of public land peninsular India; and the greater Assam region in the
set aside for native plants, animals and places north-east. Small remnants of rain forest are found
where they live. Sanctuaries are concerned with in Orissa state. Semi-evergreen rain forest is more
conservation of particular species. extensive than the evergreen formation partly because
110. (d) Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere evergreen forests tend to degrade to semi-evergreen
lies below an altitude of 2 kilometer and 90 per cent with human interference. There are substantial
Geography || B-35
differences in both the flora and fauna between the and the basaltic lava having a higher content of
three major rain forest regions. metallic minerals solidifies rapidly once it reaches
119. (a) For the poles latitude = 90° and for equator the surface.
latitude = 0°. Latitude at a point on the surface of the 125. (b) There is no relationship between the mass of
earth is defined as the angle, which the line joining the atmosphere accounted for by the troposphere
that point to the centre of earth makes with equatorial and the weather changes here. Most of the weather
plane. changes are associated with the presence of moisture
120. (b) Tsunami waves do not resemble normal sea in the troposphere. Also most of the influence of the
waves, because their wavelength is far longer. Rather solar energy entering the earth’s atmosphere is felt
than appearing as a breaking wave, a tsunami may in this layer itself.
instead initially resemble a rapidly rising tide, and for 126. (a) Long roots, thick bark and small sized thick
this reason they are often referred to as tidal waves. leaves are some of the adaptations among the plants
Tsunamis generally consist of a series of waves with to withstand a long dry season. Thick bark and
periods ranging from minutes to hours, arriving in a small sized leaves reduce the rate of transpiration.
so-called “wave train”.[4] Wave heights of tens of Long roots enable the plants to obtain moisture
metres can be generated by large events. Although from greater depth. The Mediterranean regions do
the impact of tsunamis is limited to coastal areas, not receive rainfall during the summer as the pole-
their destructive power can be enormous and they ward shift of the pressure belts during the respective
can affect entire ocean basins. summer, brings these regions under the influence of
121. (c) Land heats and cools more rapidly than the the trade winds which blow from east to west thus
sea. During the day the land gets heated and the air causing no rainfall in these western margins of the
over the land being hotter and lighter than that over continents. During winter when the pressure and
the sea, a low pressure area is created over the land. wind belts shift towards the equator, these regions
The hot air rises and cool air from the see ruches in come under the influence of the westerlies which
blowing from oceans to land, cause rainfall along
towards the land, which is referred as sea breeze.At
these western margins.
night the land rapidly loses its heat faster than the sea. 127. (a) For the purpose of settlement in the tropical
The air over the sea is therefore warmer and lighter regions, the Europeans always selected the highlands
than over the land and a breeze blows but from the as these areas offered comparatively cooler and less
land towards the sea. humid climatic conditions. In the tropical lowlands
122. (b) The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), the hot and humid climate was a deterring factor to
known by sailors as the doldrums, is the area the European settlements.
128. (a) The warm Gulf Stream keeps the temperatures
encircling the earth near the equator where the
higher than the normal temperature of the latitude.
northeast and southeast trade winds come together. 129. (c) Yak is a rather large bodies animal. It is reared in
The ITCZ appears as a band of clouds, usually the cold regions as it can withstand cold climate.
thunderstorms that circle the globe near the equator. 130. (c) China does not export rice as the country has a
In the Northern Hemisphere, the trade winds move in large population and consequently a large domestic
a south-western direction from the northeast, while in consumption of rice. There is no relation between
the Southern Hemisphere, they move north-westward the quality of rice produced in China and the country
from the southeast. not being an exporter of rice.
124. (b) The crystal size in the igneous rocks is more a 131. (a) Mercator’s projection is used for political
function of the quickness of the process of cooling maps due to its property of orthomorphism and not
rather than of the mineral content. The mineral due to the fact that it shows loxodromes as straight
content determines the melting point of the rocks lines.
3 Economic Geography

correct answer from the codes given below: A B C D
Assertion (A): The W.T.O. aims to promote (a) 2 1 4 3
free trade. (b) 2 3 4 1
Reason (R): It does not manage the global (c) 1 3 2 1
economy impartially. (d) 4 2 3 1
Codes: 4. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct answer from the codes given below:
explanation of A. List-I List-II
(Mineral) (Area of production)
A. Coal 1. Highveld
explanation of A.
B. Gold 2. Karaganda Basin
C. Iron ore 3. Krivoi Rog
(d) A is false, but R is true.
D. Petroleum 4. San Joaquin valley
2. The main features of the commercial dairy
Codes:
farming are A B C D
1. It is capital intensive. (a) 2 3 1 4
2. It is labour intensive. (b) 2 1 3 4
3. It is highly productive. (c) 4 1 2 3
4. It is highly commercial. (d) 1 2 3 4
Select the correct answer from the codes given 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
below: answer from the codes given below:
Codes: List-I List-II
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only (Mineral) (Occurrence)
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 A. Coal 1. Bisbee
3. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Copper ore 2. Baku
answer from the codes given below: C. Iron ore 3. Mesabi
List-I List-II D. Petroleum 4. Westphalia
(Oil refineries) (Country) Codes:
A. Abadan 1. Saudi Arabia A B C D
B. Haifa 2. Iran (a) 4 2 3 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
C. Kirkuk 3. Israel
(c) 3 1 2 4
D. Ras Tanavra 4. Iraq
(d) 1 4 3 2
Geography || B-37
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 9. Consider the following statements and select the
answer by using the codes given below: correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II Assertion (A): Commercial fishing industry has
(Country) (Coal fields) developed in temperate zones.
A. China 1. Pennsylvania Reason (R): These temperate areas have wide
B. Germany 2. Saar extension of continental shelf
C. Ukraine 3. Shensi areas and favourable climate.
D. U.S.A. 4. Donetz Basin Codes:
Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(a) 4 2 1 3
explanation of A.
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 3 2 1
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
answer from the codes given below: List-I List-II
List-I List-II A. Tin 1. Mexico
(Mineral) (Leading producer) B. Silver 2. Zambia
A. Tin 1. Zambia C. Mica 3. Malaysia
B. Thorium 2. India D. Copper 4. India
C. Uranium 3. Malaysia Codes:
D. Copper 4. Canada A B C D
Codes: (a) 4 2 1 3
A B C D (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1 11. Which of the following are not the examples of
(d) 4 3 2 1 shifting cultivation?
8. Consider the following statements and select the Select the correct answer from the codes given
correct answer from the codes given below: below:
1. Ladang 2. Hacienda
Assertion (A): New economic geography deals
3. Fazenda 4. Pondu
with the spatial economy of 21st
Codes:
century.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Reason (R): It attempts to meet the new (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
economic challenges. 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A. (Crops) (Main producing area)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Coconut 1. Kenya
explanation of A. B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Tea 4. Senegal
B-38 || Economic Geography

Codes: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(b) 1 4 3 2 (d) A is false, but R is true.
(c) 3 2 1 4 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 4 1 2 3 answer from the codes given below:
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below: (Industrial region) (Country)
List-I List-II A. Kinki 1. France
(Country) (Oil field) B. Lorraine 2. U.S.A.
A. Iran 1. Bargan C. Midlands 3. Japan
B. Iraq 2. Damam D. New England 4. U.K.
C. Kuwait 3. Kirkuk Codes:
D. Saudi Arabia 4. Masjid Sulaiman A B C D
Codes: (a) 3 2 1 4
A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 17. Consider the following statements and select the
(d) 4 3 1 2 correct answer from the codes given below:
14. Consider the following statements and select the Assertion (A): Brazil is a leading producer of
correct answer from the codes given below: ethanol.
Assertion (A): The growth rate of population Reason (R): It is the largest producer of
in developing countries is sugarcane in the world.
higher than that of developed Codes:
countries. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason (R): Low level of economic explanation of A.
development leads to high total (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
fertility rate. explanation of A.
Codes: (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct (d) A is false, but R is true.
explanation of A. 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct answer from the codes given below:
explanation of A. List-I List-II
(c) A is true, but R is false. (Industry) (Centre)
(d) A is false, but R is true. A. Iron and steel 1. Turin
15. Consider the following statements and select the B. Ship building 2. Taipei
correct answer from the codes given below: C. Electronics 3. Montreal
Assertion (A): The south east Asian countries D. Automobile 4. Pittsburgh
export timber on a large scale. Codes:
Reason (R): These countries have large A B C D
ports. (a) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) 3 4 1 2
explanation of A. (d) 2 4 1 3
Geography || B-39
19. Consider the following statements and select the 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): There are disparities in regional List-I List-II
development on a global scale A. Saar Industrial Region 1. China
and within each country too. B. New England 2. Germany
Reason (R): Such disparities are mainly due Industrial Region
to the lack of adequate skilled C. South Transvaal 3. U.S.A.
labour. Industrial Region
Codes: D. Canton Industrial 4. South Africa
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Region
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A B C D
explanation of A. (a) 2 3 4 1
(c) A is true, but R is false. (b) 1 3 2 4
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 3 2 4 1
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) 4 1 3 2
answer from the codes given below: 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
(Iron and steel centre) (Country) List-I List-II
A. Cleveland 1. Canada (Mineral) (Mine)
B. Essen 2. Russia A. Diamond 1. Butte
C. Hamilton 3. U.S.A. B. Coal 2. Kimberley
D. Tula 4. Germany C. Cobalt 3. Katanga
Codes: D. Silver 4. Saar
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 4 2 3 A B C D
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) 2 1 3 4
answer from the codes given below the lists: 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
(City) (Important industry) List-I List-II
A. Shanghai 1. Ship building A. Detroit 1. Cutlery
B. Chicago 2. Iron and steel B. Pittsburgh 2. Ship building
C. Shefield 3. Cotton textile C. Plymouth 3. Iron and steel
D. Yokohama 4. Engineering D. Sheffield 4. Automobile
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1

25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below: A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 1 2 4 3
(Crops) (Largest producer) (b) 2 3 4 1
A. Wheat 1. Brazil (c) 3 4 2 1
B. Cotton 2. China (d) 1 3 2 4
C. Sugarcane 3. U.S.A. 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Tea 4. India answer from the codes given below:
A B C D A. Iron and steel 1. Atlanta
(a) 1 2 3 4 B. Ship building 2. Bradford
(b) 2 3 1 4 C. Automobile 3. Cleveland
(c) 2 4 3 1 D. Woollen textile 4. Yakohama
(d) 4 1 2 3 Codes:
26. Which of the following are fund resources? A B C D
1. Coal 2. Copper (a) 3 4 1 2
3. Petroleum 4. Forest (b) 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 2 4 1 3
below: (d) 3 2 1 4
Codes: 30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 List-I List-II
27. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct A. Hydropower 1. France
answer from the codes given below; B. Coal 2. Congo Democratic
List-I List-II Republic
A. Shifting cultivation 1. Mongolia C. Petroleum 3. Poland
B. Nomadic herding 2. Australia D. Nuclear power 4. Iraq
C. Livestock ranching 3. Tundra Region Codes:
D. Fishing and hunting 4. Amazon Basin A B C D
Codes: (a) 2 3 4 1
A B C D (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 2 1 4 31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 4 1 3 2 answer from the codes given below:
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below: (Industrial region) (Name of country)
List-I List-II A. Ruhr 1. U.S.A.
A. Largest producer of 1. U.S.A. B. New England 2. Brazil
wheat in the world C. Kinki 3. Germany
B. Largest producer of 2. China D. Belo Horizontal 4. Japan
milk in the world Codes:
C. Largest producer of 3. India A B C D
sugarcane in the (a) 3 1 4 2
world (b) 2 3 1 4
D. Largest producer of 4. Brazil (c) 4 2 3 1
maize in the world (d) 1 4 2 3
Geography || B-41
answer using the codes given below the lists: A B C D
(Coal field) (Country) (b) 3 1 2 4
A. Donetz 1. Germany (c) 1 3 2 4
B. Kuznatsk 2. U.K. (d) 1 3 4 2
C. Lancashire 3. Russia 36. Which of the following is accredited with the
D. Saar 4. Ukrain Geographical Indication (GI) mark?
1. Handwoven Pashmina shawls of Kashmir.
Codes:
2. Bhagalpur Silk, Bihar.
A B C D
3. Madurai Idly, Tamil Nadu.
(a) 1 2 3 4 4. Darjeeling Tea, West Bengal.
(b) 4 3 2 1 Select the answer from the codes given below:
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 3, and 4
answer by using the codes given below the lists: (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(Minerals) (Important centres) answer using the codes given below.
A. Copper 1. Butte List-I List-II
B. Diamond 2. Katanga (Iron ore areas) (States)
C. Gold 3. Kimberley A. Dhalli Rajhara 1. Odisha
D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand B. Kudremukh 2. Jharkhand
Codes: C. Badam Pahar 3. Karnataka
A B C D D. Noamundi 4. Chhattisgarh
Codes:
(a) 2 4 3 1
A B C D
(b) 2 3 4 1
(a) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
34. Arrange the following countries in the descending (d) 1 4 2 3
order of their wheat production and select the 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below.
1. China 2. India List-I List-II
3. Russia 4. U.S.A. (Industrial (Place of
Codes: production) production)
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3 B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Chikkan 3. Moradabad
answer using the codes given below the lists: Embroidery
List-I List-II D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar
(Minerals) (Major producer) Codes:
A. Mineral oil 1. Zambia A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
B. Copper 2. Guyana
(b) 3 2 1 4
C. Manganese 3. Venezuela
(c) 4 2 1 3
D. Bauxite 4. Gabon
(d) 4 1 2 3

39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 42. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
(Sectors) (Economic Column I Column II
activities) (A) Sericulture (i) Breeding of fish
A. Primary sector 1. Business (B) Pisciculture (ii) Commercial rearing
organisation of silk worms
B. Secondary sector 2. Cultivation (C) Viticulture (iii) Growing vegetables,
C. Tertiary sector 3. Handloom textiles flowers and fruits
D. Quarternary 4. Transport services (D) Horticulture (iv) Cultivation of
Codes: grapes
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv)
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 43. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
(Industrial (Explanations) Column I Column II
activities) (Names of shifting) (Areas Associated)
A. Processing 1. Inputs are processed Cultivation)
activities goods (A) Ladang (i) Mexico
B. Fabricating 2. Major inputs (B) Milpa (ii) North-East India
activities are raw material (C) Roca (iii) Malaysia
C. Integrative 3. Involve neither (D) Jhumming (iv) Brazil
activities inputs nor outputs Codes:
D. Administrative 4. Inputs are processed (a) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
activities goods undergoing little (b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
change (c) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
Codes: (d) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
A B C D 44. In which countries is the shipbuilding industry
(a) 1 2 3 4 concentrated?
(b) 2 1 4 3 1. Japan 2. Hong Kong
(c) 1 4 3 2 3. Russia 4. South Korea
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
41. Match column I with column II and select the (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below the 45. Consider the following statements:
columns: Industry refers to an economic activity that is
Column I Column II concerned with the
A. Rice (i) 30-40ºC I. Production of goods
B. Tea (ii) 15-25ºC II. Extraction of minerals
C. Cotton (iii) 20ºC III. Provision of services
D. Coffee (iv) 25ºC Of these statements
(a) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv) (a) II and III are correct
(b) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii) (b) I and II are correct
(c) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) (c) I, II and III are correct
(d) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii) (d) Only I is correct
Geography || B-43
46. Consider the following statements: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
The factors affecting the location of industries are correct?
the availability of : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(i) raw material (ii) labour (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(iii) transport (iv) market 52. Which of the following are responsible for the
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land
(b) (iii) and (i) are correct in India ?
(c) only (iv) is correct 1. Low per capita income.
(d) All the above are correct 2. Rapid rate of increase of population
47. Which of following methods is/are suitable for 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the
soil conservation in hilly region?
heirs.
1. Terracing and contour bunding
4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing.
2. Shifting cultivation
3. Contour ploughing
below :
below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these 53. Consider the following statements about black
48. Which one of the following is the example of soil of India
subsistence farming? 1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet.
(a) Shifting cultivation 2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as
(b) Commercial farming well as phosphorus required for the growth
(c) Extensive and intensive farming of plants
(d) Organic farming Which of the statements given above is/are
49. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of correct?
India from west to East. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura 54. Consider the following statements with regard to
(c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura the mining industry of India
(d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi 1. The spatial distribution of minerals is
50. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular uneven.
India because 2. The mining industry since colonial days has
1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it been export-oriented.
difficult to dig canals and wells Which of the statements given above is/are
2. rives are rainfed
correct?
3. of compact nature of population and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
agricultural field
55. Which of the following is/are the chief
below :
characteristics of commercial grain farming of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the middle latitude grasslands?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1. The size of farms are generally large.
51. Consider the following statements
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized.
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on
3. It is a type of extensive farming.
community land and on privately owned
land. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers below:
to plant trees on their own farmland to meet (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
the domestic need of the family. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (a) 29. (a) 36. (d) 43. (b) 50. (a)
2. (d) 9. (a) 16. (b) 23. (b) 30. (a) 37. (c) 44. (d) 51. (c)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (a) 31. (a) 38. (a) 45. (c) 52. (b)
4. (b) 11. (c) 18. (b) 25. (b) 32. (b) 39. (b) 46. (d) 53. (a)
5. (b) 12. (a) 19. (c) 26. (b) 33. (b) 40. (b) 47. (a) 54. (c)
6. (b) 13. (d) 20. (b) 27. (b) 34. (b) 41. (b) 48. (a) 55. (c)
7. (c) 14. (a) 21. (d) 28. (b) 35. (a) 42. (a) 49. (b)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) The WTO established in 1995. It aims to situated in Dnipropetrovsk Oblast, to the southwest
promote free trade, but it does not manage the of the Oblast’s administrative centre. San Joaquin
global economy impartially. The organization valley is known for petroleum exploration. The San
deals with regulation of trade between participating Joaquin Valley is the area of the central valley of
countries; it provides a framework for negotiating the U.S. state of California that lies south of the
and formalizing trade agreements, and a dispute Sacramento – San Joaquin river delta in Stockton.
resolution process aimed at enforcing participant’s 5. (b) Coal mining occurs in Westphalia. It is a
adherence to WTO agreements, which are signed by region in Germany. Copper ore occurs in Bisbee.
representatives of member governments and ratified Bisbee is a city in Cochise County, Arizona, United
by their parliaments. States, 82 miles southeast of Tucson. Iron ore
2. (d) The main features of the commercial dairy occurs in Mesabi.The Mesabi Iron Range is a vast
farming are capital intensive, labour intensive,
deposit of iron ore and the largest of four major iron
highly productive and highly commercial.
ranges in the region collectively known as the Iron
3. (b) The oil refineries of Iran are located in Abadan.
Abadan is a city in and the capital of Abadan County, Range of Minnesota. Discovered in 1866, it is the
Khuzestan province, Iran. It lies on Abadan Island, chief deposit of iron ore in the United States. Baku
53 kilometres from the Persian Gulf, near the Iraq- is famous for petroleum exploration. Baku is the
Iran border. The oil refinery of Israel is located in capital and largest city of Azerbaijan, as well as the
Haifa. Haifa is the largest city in northern Israel, largest city on the Caspian Sea and of the Caucasus
and the third-largest city in the country, with a region.
population of over 291,000. The oil refinery of Iraq 6. (b) Shensi is the coal field of China. It is a province
is located in Kirkuk. Kirkuk is a city in Iraq and the of the People’s Republic of China, officially part
capital of Kirkuk Governorate. It is located in the of the northwest China region. Saar is known as
Iraqi governorate of Kirkuk, 236 kilometres north the coal mining in Germany. The Saarland is one
of the capital, Baghdad. The oil refinery of Saudi of Germany’s sixteen federal states. Its capital is
Arabia is located in Ras Tanura. Ras Tanura is a city at Saarbrücken. Donetz Basin is the coal field of
in the eastern province of Saudi Arabia located on a
Ukraine. It comprises the Donbas Foldbelt, which
peninsula extending into the Persian Gulf.
4. (b) Karaganda Basin is known for coal production. is the uplifted and compressionally deformed
Karagandy, more commonly known by its Russian part of the Pripyat–Dniepr–Donets (PDD) Basin.
name Karaganda, is the capital of Karagandy Pennsylvania is known for coal mining in U.S.A.
province in Kazakhstan. Highveld is known for gold Pennsylvania, officially the Commonwealth of
production. The Highveld is the portion of the South Pennsylvania, is a U.S. state that is located in the
African inland plateau. Krivoi Rog is known for iron northeastern and mid-Atlantic regions of the United
ore production. It is a city in central Ukraine. It is States, and the Great Lakes region.
Geography || B-45
7. (c) Malaysia is the leading producer of tin. India England is a region in the northeastern corner of the
is the leading producer of thorium. Canada is the United States consisting of the six states of Maine,
leading producer of uranium. Zambia is the leading Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Vermont, Rhode
producer of copper. Island, and Connecticut.
8. (a) New Economic Geography deals with the 17. (a) Brazil is the leading producer of ethanol
spatial economy of 21st century because it attempts because it is the largest producer of sugarcane in the
to meet the new economic challenges. world. Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel
9. (a) Commercial fishing industry has developed in produced by the fermentation of sugarcane juice
temperature zones because these temperate areas and molasses. Because it is a clean, affordable and
have wide extension of continental shelf areas and low-carbon biofuel, sugarcane ethanol has emerged
favourable climate. as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation
10. (c) Malaysia is known for tin production. Mexico sector. Brazil is the world’s largest sugarcane
is known for silver production. India is known ethanol producer and a pioneer in using ethanol as a
for mica production. Zambia is known for copper motor fuel. In 2012/13, Brazilian ethanol production
production. reached 23.2 billion litres (6.1 billion gallons).
11. (c) Hacienda and Pondu are not the examples of 18. (b) Turin is the centre of automobile industry.Turin
shifting cultivation. Shifting cultivation is known is a city and an important business and cultural centre
as ladang cultivation in south east Asia. Fazendas in northern Italy, capital of the Piedmont region.
(meaning “farms”) were plantations found Pittsburgh is the centre of iron and steel industry.
throughout Brazil; during the colonial period (16th - Pittsburgh is the seat of Allegheny County and with
18th centuries), they were concentrated primarily in a population of 306,211 is the second-largest city
the northeastern region, where sugar was produced. in the U.S. state of Pennsylvania. Montreal is the
12. (a) The main producing country of coconut is centre of ship-building. Montreal is a city in the
Papua New Guinea. The main producing country of Canadian province of Quebec. It is the largest city
banana is Ecuador. The main producing country of in the province. Taipai is the centre of electronics.
groundnut is Senegal. The main producing country Taipei, officially known as Taipei City, is the capital
of tea is Kenya. of Taiwan. Situated at the northern tip of Taiwan,
13. (d) Masjid-e-Suleiman is the oil field of Iran. Taipei is located on the Tamsui river.
Kirkuk is the oil field of Iraq. Bargan is the oil field 19. (c) Disparities in regional development on a global
of Kuwait. Deman is the oil field of Saudi Arabia. scale are not mainly due to the lack of adequate
14. (a) The growth rate of population in developing skilled labour.
countries is higher than that of developed countries 20. (b) Regarding to the Iron and steel centre,
because law level of economic development leads Cleveland is located in U.S.A. Essen is located in
to high total fertility rate. Germany. Hamilton is located in Canada. Tula is
15. (c) The south east Asia countries export timber located in Russia.
on a large scale but these countries have no large 21. (d) Cotton textile industry belongs to Shanghai.
ports. Iron and steel industry belongs to Chicago.
16. (b) Kinki is the industrial region of Japan. Engineering industry belongs to Shefield. Ship
The Kansai region or the Kinki region lies in the building industry belongs to Tokohama.
southern-central region of Japan’s main island 22. (a) Saar industrial region is located in Germany.
Honshu. Lorraine is the industrial region of France. New England industrial region is located in U.S.A.
Lorraine is one of the 27 regions of France. The South Transval industrial region is located in
administrative region has two cities of equal South Africa. Canton industrial region is located in
importance: Metz, the regional prefecture and China.
Nancy. Midlands is the industrial region of U.K. 23. (b) Diamond extracts from the Kimberley mines.
The Midlands is an area comprising central England The first diamond found in South Africa, was
that broadly corresponds to the early medieval discovered less than 30 miles away and within a few
Kingdom of Mercia. It borders southern England, years, the mining town of Kimberley. Coal founded
northern England, East Anglia and Wales. New in Saar region. In the past, a coal mining was an
England is the industrial region of U.S.A. New important branch of industry. Cobalt founded in

Katanga region. Katanga is one of the provinces of Automobile industry belongs to Atlanta. Woollen
the Democratic Republic of the Congo. The eastern textile industry belongs to Bradford.
part of the province is a rich mining region, which 30. (a) Hydropower associated with Congo Democratic
supplies cobalt, copper, tin, radium, uranium, and
Republic. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
diamonds. The region’s capital, Lubumbashi, is the
second largest city in the Congo. Silver founded in has reserves of petroleum, natural gas, coal, and a
Butte. Butte is a census-designated place (CDP) potential hydroelectric power generating capacity
in Matanuska-Susitna Borough, Alaska, United of around 100,000 MW. The Inga Dam, alone
States. on the Congo River, has the potential capacity to
24. (a) Cutlery industry located in Plymouth. Ship generate 40,000 to 45,000 MW of electric power,
building industry located in Shefield. Iron and steel sufficient to supply the electricity needs of the
industry located in Pittsburgh. Automobile industry whole southern Africa region. Coal associated with
located in Detroit. Poland. Today Poland’s coal industry is among
25. (b) China is the largest producer of wheat. Roughly the most competitive in Europe, providing jobs to
two-thirds of the total wheat production came from over 100,000 people in the country. Poland is now
the north China plain and nearly another third from the 9th largest hard coal producer in the world
the central provinces. Winter wheat accounts for and the largest coal producer in the EU. It is also
about 94% of China’s total wheat output. U.S.A. the 8th largest coking coal exporter in the world.
is the largest producer of cotton. In its January Petroleum associated with Iraq. In 2006, Iraq’s oil
report, USDA estimated a ‘13-14 US crop of 13.19 production averaged 2.0 million barrels per day
million bales. Upland production was estimated at (320×103 m3/d), down from around 2.6 Mbbl/d
12.55 million bales and extra-long staple production (410×103 m3/d) of production prior to the coalition
at 636,000 bales. Brazil is the largest producer of invasion in 2003. Iraq’s reserve to production ratio
sugarcane. Brazil’s sugarcane industry association is 158 years. Nuclear power associated with France.
UNICA estimates Brazil’s sugar cane production in France derives over 75% of its electricity from
2012/13 at 531.4 million ton which is 8% up from nuclear energy. This is due to a long-standing policy
the 493.2 million ton produced in 2011/12. India based on energy security.
is the largest producer of tea. Tea Board of India 31. (a) Ruhr industrial region belongs to Germany.
shows that during January to August, tea production New England industrial region belongs to U.S.A.
has risen by 6.2% to 705 million kg in 2013. Kinki industrial region belongs to Japan. Belo
26. (b) Coal and petroleum are the fund resource Horizonte industrial region belongs to Brazil.
minerals. Because they are of the highest value in 32. (b) Donetz coal field belongs to Ukrain. Kuznatsk
the foreign world market due to demand and also for coal field belongs to Russia. Lancashire coal field
scarcity. belongs to U.K. Saar coal field belongs to Germany.
27. (b) Shifting cultivation practices in Amazon Basin. 33. (b) Copper mineral located in Katanga. Diamond
Nomadic herding practices in Mangolia. Live stock mineral located in Kimberley. Gold mineral located
ranching belongs to Australia. Fishing and hunting in Wit watersrand. The Witwatersrand Gold Rush
belongs to Tundra region. was a gold rush in 1886 that led to the establishment
28. (b) Largest producer of wheat in the world is of Johannesburg, South Africa. It was part of the
China. Largest producer of milk in the world is Mineral Revolution. Silver located in Butte.
India. Largest producer of sugarcane in the world 34. (b) The countries in the descending order of their
is Brazil. Largest producer of maize in the world is wheat production are; China, India, U.S.A. and
U.S.A. Russia.
29. (a) Iron and steel industry belongs to Cleveland. 35. (a) Venezuela is the major producer of mineral
Ship building industry belongs to Yakohama. oil.With 77,800,000,000 barrels (1.237×1010 m3)
Geography || B-47
of proven oil reserves in 2004 Venezuela has the farming in which the farmers clear a patch of forest
largest proven oil reserves in South America and land by feeling and burning of trees and then crops
the sixth largest in the world. Zambia is the major are grown.
producer of Copper. Zambia’s copper output is 49. (b) Kochi is the Western most while Mathura is
expected to hit 1.5 million tonnes by 2017 as foreign Eastern most. Also among these Panipat is most
companies pour $3 billion into sector. Gabon is North while Koyali is most South.
the major producer of Manganese. The high-grade 50. (a) The tank irrigation is practised mainly in the
manganese deposits at Moanda, near Franceville, peninsular India due to the following reasons
are among the world’s richest. Reserves were 1. The undulating relief and hard rocks makes it
estimated at 250 million tons with a metal content of difficult to dig canals and wells.
48–52%. Guyana is the major producer of Bauxite. 2. There is little percolation of rain water due to
Linden is the second largest town in Guyana after hard rock structure and ground water is not
Georgetown. It is primarily a bauxite mining town, available in large quantity.
containing many mines 60–90 metres deep. 3. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal
36. (d) Geographical Indications of Goods are defined and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they
as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the cannot supply water to canals throughout the
geographical indication referring to a country or to a year.
place situated therein as being the country or place 4. The scattered nature of population and
of origin of that product. Typically, such a name agricultural fields also favours tank irrigation.
conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness 51. (c) Rural forestry (also known as community
which is essentially attributable to the fact of its forestry) aims to raise the trees on community land
origin in that defined geographical locality, region and on privately owned land as in farm forestry.
or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Farm forestry encouraged individual farmers
Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the
geographical indications are covered as an element domestic needs of the family.
of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 All these schemes are taken up under the social
to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual forestry programme.
Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was 52. (b) The factors responsible for the decrease of per
part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay capita holding of cultivated land in India are
Round of GATT negotiations. India, as a member of 1. Rapid rate of increase of population.
the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the 2. Practice of dividing land equally among the
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration heirs.
& Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with 53. (a) Black soils retain moisture, so they becomes
effect from 15th September 2003. sticky and getting wet. They contain iron, lime,
45. (c) Industry refers to an economic activity that is magnesium, alumina and potosh but lack phoshorous
concerned with the production of goods, extraction and nitrogen.
of minerals or the provision of services. 54. (c) Mining is removal of valuable raw material
47. (a) Level terrace or contour bunding involves from the Earth, this terms includes removal of soil.
construction of bind passing through the points India adds very little value to the minerals, it exports
having same elevation ploughing and/or planting most of the mined minerals.
across a slope following its elevation contour lines. Indian Mining Industry has been a major mineral
48. (a) Subsistance farming is self-sufficiency producer in Asia and globally as well.
farming in which the farmers grow enough food to 55. (c) Middle latitude grassland farming have very
feed themselves and families. It is mostly practised large farms, are mechanised and fall in the category of
in developing countries. extensive cultivation. Grassland are found all across
Shifting cultivation is a type/example of subsistence the globe.
4 World Geography

answer from the codes given below: (a) 1, 3, 4, 2 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4
List-I List-II (c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 4, 2, 1, 3
A. Detroit 1. Cutlery 5. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
B. Pittsburgh 2. Ship building answer from the code given below:
C. Plymouth 3. Iron and steel List-I List-II
D. Sheffield 4. Automobile (Country) (Capital)
Codes: A. Brunei 1. Bander Seri Begawan
A B C D B. Indonesia 2. Phnom Penh
(a) 4 3 1 2 C. Laos 3. Vientiane
(b) 2 3 1 4 D. Combodia 4. Jakarta
(c) 3 1 4 2 Codes:
(d) 4 3 2 1 A B C D
2. Consider the following statements and select the (a) 1 4 3 2
correct answer from the codes given below: (b) 2 4 1 3
Assertion (A): China is the most populous (c) 4 1 3 2
country of the world. (d) 3 1 4 2
Reason (R): Its density of population is much 6. The correct sequence of languages in descending
lower than that of India. order in terms of their number of speakers in the
Codes: world is
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Spanish, English, Chinese, Hindi
explanation of A. (b) English, Chinese, Hindi, Spanish
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) Hindi, Chinese, Spanish, English
explanation of A (d) Chinese, English, Hindi, Spanish
(c) A is true, but R is false. 7. Which of the following pairs are correctly
(d) A is false, but R is true. matched?
3. Which one of the following is correctly
(River) (Countries)
matched?
1. Niger — Guinea
(a) Gulf of Carpentaria — Italy
2. Orange — S. Africa
(b) Gulf of Sidra — Libya
3. Karai — Egypt
(c) Gulf of Po hai — Thailand
4. Nile — Mali
(d) Gulf of Tonking — Malaysia
4. Arrange the following countries of South Asia in
below:
descending order of their population density and
Codes:
use the codes to select the correct answer:
1. India 2. Bangladesh (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
3. Pakistan 4. Srilanka (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
Geography || B-49
8. Consider the following statements and select the 12. Which one of the followiing pairs correctly
correct answer from the codes given below: matched?
Assertion (A): Japan is known for its fisheries (a) Black forest — Germany
in the world. (b) Pennines — France
Reason (R): The continental shelf is wide all (c) Sierra Nevada — Canada
around Japan. (d) Vorges — Haly
Select the correct answer from the codes given 13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
below: answer from the codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Cape Horn 1. India
explanation of A. B. Cape Comorin 2. Australia
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct C. Cape of Good Hope 3. Argentina
explanation of A. D. Cape Yark 4. South Africa
(c) A is true, but R is false. Codes:
(d) A is false, but R is true. A B C D
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) 1 3 4 2
matched? (b) 3 1 2 4
(a) Davis strait — Baffin Sea and Atlantic (c) 1 2 4 3
Ocean (d) 3 1 4 2
(b) Dover strait — Arctic Sea and N. Atlantic 14. Which one of the following is not correctly
Ocean matched?
(c) Palk strait — Mannar Gulf and Bay of (a) Blizzard — Canada
Bengal (b) Brickfielder — France
(d) Sunda strait — Java Sea and Indian Ocean (c) Harmattan — Niger
10. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct (d) Pampers — Argentina
answer from the codes given below: 15. Consider the following statements:
1. A desert is a barren area of land where little
List-I List-II
precipitation occurs.
(Type of winds) (Region)
2. The Sahara desert is the largest singles
A. Blizzard 1. Pairie Plains
stretch desert.
B. Chinook 2. Siberian Plains 3. The next biggest desert is the Great
C. Bora 3. Greenland Australian desert.
D. Khamsin 4. Egypt Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 3 1 4 2 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) 1 2 3 4 answer using the code given below:
(d) 4 3 1 2 (Current) (Feature)
11. Arrange the following continents in the ascending A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in
order of their areal size and select the correct Atlantic Ocean
answer from the codes given below: B. Peru 2. Cold current in the
1. Antarctica 2. Australia current Atlantic Ocean
3. Europe 4. South America C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the
Codes: current Pacific Ocean
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 D. Florida current 4. Cold current in
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2 the Pacific Ocean
B-50 || World Geography

Codes: Codes:
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 2 4 3
17. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Tribe) (Region) (Continent) (Desert)
A. Semang 1. Congo Basin A. Asia 1. Atacama
B. Kirghiz 2. Malaysia B. Africa 2. Great Sandy Desert
C. Bushman 3. Central Asia C. Australia 3. Kalahari
D. Pygmies 4. Kalahari desert D. South America 4. Gobi
Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 A B C D
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 4 3 2
18. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries in (d) 1 2 3 4
the world because it has: 22. Which of the following are temperate grasslands?
1. developed hydel power Select the correct answer from the codes given
2. large deposits of metallic mineral below:
3. high technological capability
1. Campos
4. insular location
Of these statements: 2. Llanoes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 3. Downs
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Pampas
(c) 1 and 3 are correct Codes:
(d) 2 and 4 are correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
19. The correct decreasing order of the population of (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
the various continents is 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Asia, Europe, America, Africa, Australia. answer from the codes given below:
(b) Asia, America, Europe, Africa, Australia.
List-I List-II
(c) Asia, Eruope, Africa, America, Australia.
(d) Asia, America, Africa, Europe, Australia. A. Tin 1. Mexico
20. Examine the following statements and select the B. Silver 2. Zambia
correct answer using the codes given below: C. Mica 3. Malaysia
1. The greater part of Russia is having cold D. Copper 4. India
climate. Codes:
2. Development of Russia is largely concentrated A B C D
west of Ural mountains. (a) 4 2 1 3
3. Siberia is an important agricultural region of (b) 1 3 2 4
Russia.
(c) 3 1 4 1
4. In Russia, Ural mountains separate the two
extensive plains. (d) 4 3 2 2
Geography || B-51
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 28. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Crops) (Main producing area) (Country) (River)
A. Coconut 1. Kenya A. Brazil 1. Orinoco
B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea B. Argentina 2. Maranon
C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador C. Peru 3. Araguaia
D. Tea 4. Senegal D. Venezuela 4. Colorado
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
25. Arrange the following islands of Japan in 29. Consider the following statements and select the
ascending order of their areal size and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
correct answer from the codes: Assertion (A): Japan has developed hydro-
1. Hokkaido electric power on a large-scale.
2. Honshu Reason (R): Japan lacks adequate coal and
3. Shikoku oil deposits.
4. Kyushu Codes:
Codes:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
explanation of A.
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
explanation of A.
answer from the codes:
List-I List-II
(City) (River)
30. Which of the following pairs of straights and the
A. St. Paul-Minneapolis 1. Danube
countries they separate is wrongly matched?
B. Khartoum 2. Mekong
(a) Gibraltar strait — Spain and Morocoo
C. Budapest 3. Mississippi
(b) Bering strait — Sumatra and Malaysia
D. Phnom Penh 4. Nile
(c) Magellan strait — Chile and Tiera del
Codes:
fuego
A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (d) Bass strait — Australia and Tasmania
(b) 2 4 3 1 31. Consider the following areas:
(c) 4 2 3 1 1. Central Africa
(d) 3 4 1 2 2. Borneo and Papua New Guinea
27. Which one of the following is not correctly 3. Amazon Basin
matched? In which of the above areas is the primitive
(a) Duluth — Lake Superior agriculture, such as shifting cultivation or bush-
(b) Detroit — Lake Huron fallow type of cultivation, found?
(c) Chicago — Lake Michigan (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) Ottawa — Lake Ontario (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3

32. Currently half of the world’s population lives 37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
in just six countries. Identify them from the matched?
following. Tribes — Countries
(a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, (a) Berber — Morocco
Indonesia. (b) Inuits — Canada
(b) India, China, Brazil, Pakistan, Bhutan, (c) Semangs — Indonesia
United State. (d) Veddas — Sri Lanka
(c) China, India, United State, Indonesia, Brazil, 38. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct
Pakistan. answer from the codes:
(d) China, India, Bangladesh, United State, List-I List-II
Pakistan, Brazil. (Minerals) (Important centres)
33. The expression ‘South Asia’ usually includes: A. Copper 1. Butte
(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, B. Diamond 2. Katanga
Pakistan and Sri Lanka C. Gold 3. Kimberley
(b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, China D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand
and Pakistan Codes:
(c) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, A B C D
Nepal and Pakistan (a) 2 4 3 1
(d) Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Bhutan, India, (b) 2 3 4 1
China, Nepal and Bangladesh (c) 1 3 2 4
34. Consider the following countries: (d) 3 1 4 2
1. Australia 39. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
2. Namibia matched?
3. Brazil Countries — Capital
4. Chile (a) Hungary — Budapest
Through which of the above does the tropic of (b) Zaire — Kinshasa
Capricorn pass? (c) Kenya — Nairobi
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) New Zealand — Christ Church
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 40. Consider the following statements and select the
35. Which of the following is not correctly correct answer from the codes given below:
matched? Assertion (A): The production of rubber is
(a) Indonesia — Jakarta decreasing in the Amazon.
(b) Maldives — Male Reason (R): Equatorial climate is favourable
(c) North Korea — Seoul for rubber plantation.
(d) Zimbabwe — Harare Codes:
36. Which of the following countries are landlocked (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
countries? explanation of A.
1. Afghanistan (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct
2. Hungary explanation of A.
3. Malaysia (c) A is true, but R is false.
4. Switzerland (d) A is false, but R is true.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 41. Consider the following pairs:
below: 1. St. Petersburg — Gulf of Finland
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. Stockholm — Baltic Sea
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 3. Washington D.C. — Colorado
Geography || B-53
Which of the pairs above is/are correctly Codes:

matched? A B C D
(a) 1 only (a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 2 and 3 (c) 2 3 1 4
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
42. Which one of the following ‘City River’ pairs is 46. Which one of the following matches in case of
not correctly matched? shifting cultivation is not correct?
(a) Berlin — Rhine (a) Ladang – Indonesia
(b) London — Thames (b) Ray – Vietnam
(c) New York — Hudson (c) Milpa – Mexico
(d) Tamrai – Brazil
(d) Vienna — Danube
47. Which of the following is/are the stage(s) of
demographic transition ?
answer from the codes given below.
1. High death rate and birthrate, low growth
List-I List-II
rate.
(Mountains peak) (Country)
2. Rapid decline in death rate, continued low
A. Mt. Everest 1. India birthrate, very low growth rate.
B. K2 2. Nepal 3. Rapid decline in birthrate, continued decline
C. Mt. McKinley 3. North America in death rate
(USA) 4. Low death rate and birthrate, low growth
D. Mt. Aconcagua 4. South America rate.
Codes: Select the correct answer using the codes given
A B C D below
(a) 2 1 3 4 (a) Only 1 (b) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 2 3 4 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 48. Match the following
(d) 3 4 1 2 List-I List-II
44. Which one of the following is not correctly (Local wind) (Area of Prevalence)
matched? A. Chinook 1. North African desert
Islands Ocean B. Foehn 2. Rocky mountain slopes
(a) Greenlands — Arctic Ocean of the USA
(b) Madagaskar — Indian Ocean C. Sirocco 3. Northern slopes of Alps
(c) Tasmaniya — S. Pacific Ocean D. Mistral 4. Sourthern slopes of Alps
(d) Bafin — North Pacific Ocean Codes :
45. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer from the codes given below: (a) 2 3 1 4
List-I List-II (b) 2 1 3 4
(Countries new (Countries old (c) 4 1 3 2
name) name) (d) 4 3 1 2
A. Thailand 1. Nippon 49. Match the following
B. Ghana 2. Gold Coast List-I List-II
C. Zambia 3. Siam (Natural Vegetation of (Annual Rainfall
D. Japan 4. Northern Rhodesia India) Received)
A. Tropical evergreen 1. 100-200 cm
forests

B. Tropical deciduous 2. Above 200 cm 2. It joins the Mediterranean Sea with the Gulf
forests of Suez
C. Tropical dry forests 3. Less than 50 cm 3. It is not a sea level canal.
D. Arid forests 4. Above 300 cm Which of the statement given above is/are
5. 50-100 cm correct?
Codes : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) Only 1
(a) 1 2 5 3 55. Match List-I (Volcano) with List-II (Country) and
select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 4 3 1 5
below the Lists:
(c) 2 1 5 3 List-I (Volcano) List-II (Country)
(d) 2 1 3 4 A. Semeru 1. Indonesia
50. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly B. Cotopaxi 2. Equador
matched? C. Etna 3. Italy
(a) Kuroshio : Warm ocean current D. Kilimanjaro 4. Kenya
(b) Labrador : Warm ocean current 5. India
(c) Benguela : Cold ocean current Codes :
(d) Oyashio : Cold ocean current A B C D A B C D
51. Which one among the following is the idealised (a) 1 2 3 4 (b) 3 4 5 2
global pattern of surface wind from the Equator (c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 3 2 5 4
to Pole ? 56. Consider the following statements in respect of
(a) Doldrum-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies temperate cyclones:
1. They rise in the belt of trade winds.
(b) Easterlies-Westerlies-Trade Wind-Easterlies
2. They move from west to east.
(c) Doldrum-Trade wind-Westerlies-Easterlies Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(d) Westerlies-Trade Wind-Doldrum-Easterlies (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
52. Consider the following statements (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. A hurricane acquires its spin from the 57. Consider the following statements :
coriolis effect. 1. The Labrador current is a cold current in the
2. The diameter of the hurricane decreases as it North Atlantic Ocean.
moves away form low latitudes. 2. The Falkland current is a warm current that
3. The diameter of a hurricane is never below flows along the Chile coast of South Pacific
150 km. Ocean.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these 1. All cyclones develop an eye at the centre.
53. Which of the following seas are enclosed? 2. The temperature inside the eye is nearly 10°C
1. Andaman Sea 2. Arab Sea lesser than that of the surroundings.
3. Sea of Azov 4. Bering Sea Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
below (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 and 4 59. Consider the following statements:
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 4 1. The approach of a cyclone is characterised
54. Consider the following statements by a rise in baromenic reading.
1. Suez Canal is an important link between 2. In the cyclones of the nonthern hemisphere,
developed countries and developing the winds circulate in anticlockwise direction.
countries.
Geography || B-55
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 64. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the centre surrounded by the areas of high
pressure
1. International Date Line lies on the Greenwich
Meridian. 2. In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure
2. The date of Alaska is ahead of the date of surround the area of high pressure
Siberia. 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? is surrounded by the areas of low pressure
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure
61. Consider the following statements: is surrounded by the areas of high pressure
1. In tropical grassland regions, rainfall mainly Select the correct answer using the code given
occurs in the short summer season with a long below:
dry season. Code:
2. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1and 3
is caused by the passage of cyclones in the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
westerly wind belt which lies over this area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 65. Which among the following statements about the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only North Atlantic Drift is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 I. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe
62. Match List I with List II and select the correct ice free
answer using the codes given below the lists: II. It is responsible for the warm air mass which
List I List II interacts with the cold air mass from the Polar
(Volcano) (Country) region and causes rainfall in Western Europe
A. Mount Etna 1. India III. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver
B. Kilinanajaro 2. USA Island and causes dense fog
C. Katmai 3. Tanzania Select the correct answer using the code given
D. Barren Island 4. Italy below
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
Codes:
A B C D (c) II only (d) I and III only
(a) 1 3 2 4 66. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(b) 4 2 3 1 answer using the code given below the lists:
(c) 1 2 3 4 List I List II
(d) 4 3 2 1
(Desert) (Country)
63. Consider the following statements
1. International Date Line is drawn zigzag to A. Kalahari 1. Angola
avoid landmass. B. Namib 2. Sudan
2. International Date Line is 180° W as well as C. Nubian 3. Botswana
180° E of Greenwich. D. Atacama 4. Chile
3. A ship sailing westward from Greenwich when Code:
crossing International Date Line would put back
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
the date by a day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4

67. Match List I with List II and select the correct 2. They are almost absent in the South Atlantic
answer using the code given below the lists: Ocean.
List I List II 3. They do not develop close to the equator.
(Current) (Feature) Select the correct answer using the code given
A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in below.
Atlantic Ocean (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
B. Peru 2. Cold current in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
current Atlantic Ocean 69. Consider the following statements regarding El
C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the Nino effect on Indian Monsoon :
current Pacific Ocean 1. The surface temperature goes up in the
D. Florida current 4. Cold current in Southern Pacific Ocean and there is deficient
the Pacific Ocean rainfall in India.
Code: 2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from
(a) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 its normal position and reduces monsoon
(b) A-3; B-2 C-4; D-1 rainfall in India.
(c) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
68. Which of the following statements regarding
hurricanes is/are correct?
1. They develop over the ocean between 8° – 15°
N.
Geography || B-57
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 10. (c) 19. (c) 28. (d) 37. (c) 46. (d) 55. (a) 64. (b)
2. (b) 11. (c) 20. (c) 29. (a) 38. (b) 47. (d) 56. (b) 65. (b)
3. (b) 12. (a) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (d) 48. (a) 57. (a) 66. (d)
4. (d) 13. (d) 22. (c) 31. (d) 40. (b) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (a)
5. (a) 14. (b) 23. (c) 32. (c) 41. (b) 50. (b) 59. (c) 68. (a)
6. (d) 15. (d) 24. (a) 33. (a) 42. (a) 51. (c) 60. (d) 69. (c)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (d) 34. (d) 43. (a) 52. (d) 61. (c)
8. (c) 17. (d) 26. (d) 35. (c) 44. (d) 53. (c) 62. (d)
9. (b) 18. (c) 27. (b) 36. (d) 45. (a) 54. (b) 63. (c)
Hints & Solutions

1. (d) Detroit – Automobile is 2,117,700 km2 in area. Its source is in the Guinea
Pittsburgh – Iron and steel Highlands in southeastern Guinea. The Orange river,
Plymouth – Ship building Gariep river, Groote river or Senqu river is the longest
Sheffield – Cutlery river in South Africa. It rises in the Drakensberg
All these industrial cities are located in different mountains in Lesotho, flowing westwards through
provinces of the United States of America. South Africa to the Atlantic Ocean.
2. (b) The population density (people per sq. km) in 8. (c) The continental shelf is narrow all around
China was last reported at 143.43 in 2010, according Japan. Around the Japanese Islands, the continental
to a World Bank report published in 2012. shelf is 20 to 30 km wide, narrower than its world
As per the provisional population totals of Census average, with shelf-slope breaks of the average depth
2011, the population density of India has gone up to of 140 metres. Narrow shelves are located offshore
382 persons per square kilometre. the western coast of the Oshima Peninsula, around
3. (b) Gulf of Carpentaria – Australia Toyama Bay, and offshore from the Boso Peninsula to
Gulf of Sidra – Libya the Kii Peninsula. The selves in Toyama Bay, Sagami
Gulf of Po hai – China Bay, and Suruga Bay are extremely narrow, less than
Gulf of Tonking – Vietnam 1 km in width in closed-off sections of the bays.
All these are names of gulfs associated with the Continental shelf slopes are not flat from shorelines
following countries. through outer edges, but terrace-like topography
5. (a) Brunei – Bander seri begawan (submarine terraces) and submarine valleys are
Indonesia – Jakarta found. Submarine valleys are often filled up with
Laos – Vientiane sediments derived from land.
Combodia – Phnom Penh 9. (b) Dover strait – English Channel and North Sea.
All these are names of south-Asian countries with The Strait of Dover or Dover Strait is the strait at
the names of their capitals. the narrowest part of the English Channel, marking
7. (a) The Niger river is the principal river of western the boundary between the Channel and North Sea,
Africa, extending about 4,180 km. Its drainage basin separating Great Britain from continental Europe.

10. (c) Blizzard – Siberian Plains. A blizzard is a severe surface. Both hot and cold deserts play a part in
snowstorm caused by strong sustained winds of at moderating the Earth’s temperature. Across the
least 56 km/h (35 mph) and lasting for a prolonged world, around 20% of desert is sand, varying from
period of time – typically three hours or more. only 2% in North America to 30% in Australia and
Chinook – Prairie Plains. Chinook winds blows in the over 45% in central Asia and Africa.
interior west of North America, where the Canadian 16. (a) A. Kuroshio current - warm Pacific current
Prairies and Great Plains meet various mountain B. Peru current - cold current in Pacific
ranges, although the original usage is in reference to ocean
wet, warm coastal winds in the Pacific Northwest of C. Labrador current - cold current in Atlantic
the United States of America. ocean
D. Florida current - Warm current in
Bora – Green land. Cold and usually dry katabatic
Atlantic ocean
winds, like the Bora, result from the downslope
17. (d) Semang – Malaysia
gravity flow of cold, dense air. Katabatic flows
Kirghiz – Central Asia
slumping down from uplands or mountains may be
Bushman – Kalahari desert
funneled and strengthened by the landscape and are
Pygmies – Congo Basin
then known as mountain gap wind.
All these names are of the tribal communities
Khamsin – Egypt. Khamsin can be triggered by
belonging to the countries respectively.
depressions that move eastwards along the southern
21. (b) Asia – Gobi
parts of the Mediterranean or along the North African
Africa – Kalahari
coast from February to June. In Egypt, Khamsin
Australia – Great Sandy Desert
usually arrives in April but occasionally occurs
South America – Atacama
between March to May, carrying great quantities of
All these are names of deserts located in the
sand and dust from the deserts, with a speed up to
continents respectively.
140 kilometres per hour, and a rise of temperatures
22. (c) Downs – grassy plains called downs are
as much as 20°C in two hours.
located in New Zealand’s South Island and southeast
11. (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 – Australia – Europe – Antarctica –
Australia.
South America.
Pampas – South America’s largest grassland, called
12. (a) Black forest – Germany. The Black Forest is
pampas, which means plain, covers most east-central
a wooded mountain range in Baden-Württemberg,
areas of Argentina.
southwestern Germany. It is bordered by the Rhine
23. (c) Tin – Malaysia
valley to the west and south. The highest peak is the
Silver – Mexico
Feldberg with an elevation of 1,493 metres.
Mica – India
13. (d) Cape Horn – Argentina
Copper – Zambia
Cape Comorin – India
All these are names of minerals found in the given
Cape of Good Hope – South Africa
countries respectively.
Cape Yark – Australia
24. (a) Coconut – Papua New Guinea
14. (b) Brickfielder – Australia. The Brickfielder is a
Banana – Ecuador
hot and dry wind in the desert of southern Australia
Groundnut – Senegal
that occurs in the summer season. It blows in the
Tea – Kenya
coastal regions of the south from the outback, where
All these are names of commercial crops found in
the sandy wastes, bare of vegetation in summer, are
the countries respectively.
intensely heated by the sun.
25. (d) Shikoku – Kyushu – Hokkaido – Honshu
15. (d) A desert is a barren area of land where little
Honshu – Honshu has a total area of 88,017 square
precipitation occurs and consequently living
miles (227,962 sq km) and it is the world’s seventh
conditions are hostile for plant and animal life.
largest island.
Deserts take up about-one third of the Earth’s land
Geography || B-59
Hokkaido – Hokkaido is the second largest island mainstem source of the Amazon river, arising about
of Japan with a total area of 32,221 square miles 160 km to the northeast of Lima, Peru, and flowing
(83,453 sq km). through a deeply eroded Andean valley.
Kyushu – It has a total area of 13,761 square miles Venezuela – Orinoco. The Orinoco is one of the
(35,640 sq km). longest rivers in South America at 2,140 km. Its
Shikoku – Shikoku is the smallest of Japan’s main drainage basin, sometimes called the Orinoquia,
islands with a total area of 7,260 square miles covers 880,000 square kilometres, with 76.3% of it
(18,800 sq km). in Venezuela and the remainder in Colombia.
26. (d) St. Paul-Minneapolis – Mississippi. The 29. (a) Hydroelectricity is Japan’s main renewable
Mississippi river is the chief river of the largest
energy source, with an installed capacity of about 27
drainage system in North America. Flowing entirely
GW and a production of 69.2 TWh of electricity in
in the United States (though its drainage basin
2009, making Japan one of the biggest hydroelectricity
reaches into Canada), it rises in northern Minnesota
producers in the world.
and meanders slowly southwards for 2,320 miles
30. (b) Bering strait divides Alaska and Russia.
(3,730 km) to the Mississippi river delta at the Gulf
of Mexico. 32. (c) China – India – United State – Indonesia – Brazil
Khartoum – Nile. The Nile is a major north-flowing – Pakistan
river in northeastern Africa, generally regarded as the 33. (a) South Asia or southern Asia is the southern
longest river in the world. It is 6,853 km long. region of the Asian continent, which comprises the
Budapest – Danube. The Danube is a river in central sub-Himalayan countries and for some authorities,
Europe, the European Union’s longest and the also includes the adjoining countries to the west
continent’s second longest. and the east. South Asia includes 10 countries and
Phnom Penh – Mekong. The Mekong is a trans- 2 territories:
boundary river in south east Asia. It is the world’s Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran,
12th longest river and the 7th longest in Asia. Its Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri
estimated length is 4,350 km, and it drains an area Lanka.
of 795,000 km2, discharging 457 km3 of water Two territories: British Indian Ocean Territory and
annually. Tibet (China).
27. (b) Detroit is situated lake Erie. Detroit is the 35. (c) North Korea – Pyong-Yong (It is the capital of
most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, North Korea.)
and is the seat of Wayne County, the most populous
37. (c) Semang – Malaysia
county in the state and the largest city on the United
38. (b) A. Copper – Katanga
States – Canada border.
B. Diamond – Kimberley
28. (d) Brazil – Araguaia. The Araguaia river is one of
C. Gold – Witwatersrand
the major rivers of Brazil, and the principal tributary
D. Silver – Butte
of the Tocantins, though it is almost equal in volume
40. (b) Cultivation of rubber in Brazil, its native
at its confluence with the Tocantins. It has a total
habitat, was severely hindered by blight in the early
length of approximately 2,627 km.
20th century. At present, most of the world’s natural
Argentina – Colorado. The Colorado river is the
rubber is produced by rubber trees descended from
principal river of the southwestern United States and
rubber seedlings transplanted from South America to
northwest Mexico. The 1,450-mile river drains an
south and south east Asia. The most severe disease is
expansive, arid watershed that encompasses parts of
South American Leaf Blight (SALB). This disease is
seven U.S. and two Mexican states.
endemic throughout the rubber growing areas in the
Peru – Maranon. The Marañón river is the principal or
Americas. It also poses a major global threat. The

fungus can be controlled by a number of fungicides. 51. (c) From the Equator to Pole the idealised global
Some species are not susceptible to the disease, and pattern of surface wind is
some strains of susceptible species are resistant. Doldrum > Trade wind > Westerlies > Easterlies
Crown budding or grafting of resistant plants onto 52. (d) A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, occurring in
productive trees can be used to control spread. the North Atlantic ocean or the North-East Pacific
43. (a) Mt. Everest – Nepal ocean, East of International Date Line.
K2 – India 53. (c) Arab sea is a sea that lay between Kazakhstan
Mt. McKinley – USA in North and Uzbekistan in South. The sea of Azov
Mt. Aconcagua – South America is a sea on the South of Eastern Europe.
All these are the names of highest mountain peaks
54. (b) The suez canal joins the mediterrahean sea
located in the countries respectively.
with the Red sea, it is an artificial sea level waterway
44. (d) Baffin – North Atlantic Ocean. Baffin Island,
in Egypt also known as ‘The highway to India’. It
in the Canadian territory of Nunavut, is the largest
was opened in 1869.
island in Canada and the fifth largest island in the
55. (a) A. Semeru Volcano is situated in Indonesia.
world. Its area is 507,451 km2 and its population is
B. Cotopaxi Volcano is situated in Equador.
about 11,000.
45. (a) 1. Thailand – Siam C. Etma Voplcano is situated in Italy.
2. Ghana – Gold Coast D. Kilomanjaro Vaolcano is situated in Kenya.
3. Zambia – Northern Rhodesia 56. (b) Temperatre cyclone rises in middle latitude
4. Japan – Nippon. between 35° and 65° latitudes. This region is the belt
47. (d) Demographic transition refers to the transition of western winds.
from high death rate and high birth rate to low death 57. (a) The Falkand current is a cold current. It flows
and birth rates, as a country develops from a pre- along the Argentina’s coast in South Atlantic Ocean.
industrial to industrialised economic system. 58. (a) At the centre of a cyclone is an area of calm
48. (a) Local Wind Area of Prevalence called the eye. The eye is usually about 40 km in
1. Chinook Rocky mountain slopes diameter.
of the USA Air in the centre of a cyclone is less dense than air
2. Foehn Northern slopes of Alps around it because the temperature inside the eye is
3. Sirocco North African desert greater than that of the surroundings.
4. Mistral Sourthern slops of Alps 59. (c) Cyclone is a mass of air whose isobars form an
49. (c) oval or circular shape, with low pressure at the centre.
List-I List-II
The air converge at the centre and rises to disposed
(Natural Vegetation of (Annual Rainfall
off. In a dipression, the winds rotate anticlockwise
India) Received)
A. Tropical evergreen 1. Above 200 cm in northern hemisphere. While in the southern
forests hemisphere, the circular movement of winds is in
B. Tropical deciduous 2. 100-200 cm clockwise direction.
forests 60. (d) Meridian is 0° longitude and international date
C. Tropical dry forests 3. 50-100 cm line is 180° longitude. A person travelling wastwards
D. Arid forests 4. Less than 50 cm
of the Prime Meridian up to 180° W will put his watch
50. (b) The labrador current is a cold current in the back by 12 hours and the other person eastwards upto
North Atlantic ocean which flows form the Arctic 180° will have to put his watch 12 hours forward.
ocean South along with the coast of labrador and
Alaska is in west and Siberia is in East. So, the date
passes around New Foundland continuing South
of Siberia is head of the date of Alaska.
along the East coast of Nova Satia.
Geography || B-61
61. (c) Tropical grassland located mainly in the 67. (a) a. Kuroshio current - warm Pacific current
continental areas of tropical latitudes where rains fall b. Peru current - cold current in
during the summer season which lasts for about five Pacific ocean
months. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall c. Labrador current - cold current in
Atlantic ocean
due to middle latitude fronts and cyclones.
d. Florida current - Warm current in
62. (d) Mount Etna (Italy), Kilimanjaro (Tanzania),
Atlantic ocean
Katmai (USA) and Barren Island (India-Andaman 68. (a) Hurricanes develop over the oceans between
& Nicobar island) 8°-15° N. The term “tropical” refers to the
63. (c) International date line lies between 180°W and geographical origin of these systems, which usually
180ºE of Greenwitch. It is drawn zigzag to avoid form over the tropical oceans. The term “cyclone”
landmass. There is a difference in 1 day if a ship sails refers to their cyclonic nature, with wind blowing
westward from Greenwitch by crossing the date line. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
64. (b) In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. The opposite
centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure. In an direction of circulation is due to the Coriolis force.
Depending on its location and strength, a tropical
anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is surrounded
cyclone is referred to by names such as hurricane,
by the areas of high pressure.
typhoon, tropical storm, cyclonic storm, tropical
65. (b) The North Atlantic current or Drift or sea depression and simply cyclone.
movement is a powerful warm ocean current that 69. (c) El Nino is a shift in ocean temperatures and
continues the gulf stream northeast, which stretches atmospheric conditions in the tropical Pacific that
from Florida to north- western Europe. It moderates
disrupts weather around the world. It is a poorly
the chilled climate of western Europe.
understood recurrent climatic phenomenon that
66. (d) A. Kalahari – Botswana
primarily affects the Pacific coast of South America,
B. Namib – Angola
but has dramatic impacts on weather patterns all
C. Nubian – Sudan
D. Atacama – Chile. over the world. In the Indian Ocean, it affects the
movement of the monsoon winds.
5 Geography of India
1. Which of the following statements are correct? 5. Which one of the following is the correct
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and descending order of the three most populous
Bhutan. states of India (2011)?
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan (a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar
(b) Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
and Nepal.
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
3. Meghalaya shares a border with Bangladesh (d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar
and Myanmar. 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
2. The Himalayan range is very rich in species (Tribe) (State)
diversity. Which one among the following is most A. Lepcha 1. Madhya Pradesh
appropriate reason for this phenomenon? B. Malpaharia 2. Rajasthan
C. Gond 3. Sikkim
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant
D. Bhill 4. Jharkhand
vegetative growth
Codes :
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical A B C D
zones. (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been (b) 3 4 2 1
introduced in this region. (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) It has less human interference. (d) 1 4 3 2
3. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 7. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Bauxite – Rajasthan (a) The Tungabhadra Project serves the states of
Kerla and Tamil Nadu.
(b) Copper – Madhya Pradesh
(b) The Kundoh Project lies in Karnataka.
(c) Iron ore – Uttar Pradesh (c) The Salal Project serves the states of
(d) Mica – Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh.
4. Which of the following factors are responsible (d) The Sharavathy Project is located at the Jog
for the rapid growth of sugar production in south falls.
India as compared to north India? 8. Consider the following statements and select the
1. Higher per acre field of sugarcane correct answer by using the codes given below:
2. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane Assertion (A): There has been some decline
3. Lower labour cost in the growth rate of India’s
4. Longer crushing period population in recent years.
Reason (R): According to 2011 census,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
about 3/4 of Indian’s population
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
is literate.
Geography || B-63
Codes: 13. Which one of following statements is not

(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct correct?
explanation of A. (a) Konyak language is the language of
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct Nagaland.
explanation of A. (b) The largest river island is the world is in
(c) A is true, but R is false. Assam.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) Arunachal Pradesh has the least density of
9. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct population in India.
answer from the codes given below: (d) The biggest desert of the world is in India.
List-I List-II 14. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(Atomic power plant) (State) answer from the codes given below:
A. Kalpakkam 1. Gujarat List-I List-II
B. Kakrapar 2. Karnataka (Biosphere reserve) (State)
A. Agasthyamalai 1. Arunachal Pradesh
C. Kaiga 3. Rajasthan
B. Dibru-Saikhowa 2. Meghalaya
D. Rawatbhata 4. Tamil Nadu
C. Dihong Dibang 3. Kerala
Codes:
D. Nokrek 4. Assam
A B C D
Codes:
(a) 3 1 4 2
A B C D
(b) 4 1 2 3 (a) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 2 4 3 (b) 4 2 1 3
(d) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 2 4
10. Which of the following pairs is not correctly (d) 3 4 1 2
matched? 15. Consider the following statements and select the
(Soil) (State) correct answer by using the codes given below:
(a) Alluvial — Uttar Pradesh Assertion (A): In South India, semi arid steppe
(b) Regur — Maharashtra climate is found in parts of
(c) Laterite — Punjab Karnataka plateau.
(d) Red and yellow — Chhattisgarh Reason (R): It lies in rain shadow area of
11. Golden Quadrilateral Project is Sahyadris.
(a) Conversion of meter gauge into broad gauge. Codes:
(b) Construction of four lane highways joining (a) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct
four metropolises of India. explanation of A.
(c) Joining of four important rivers of north (b) Both A and R are correct, but R is not the
India and south India. correct explanation of A.
(d) Joining of four important cities of India with (c) A is true, but R is false.
air transport. (d) A is false, but R is true.
12. Which one of the following statements is not 16. Which of the following are not the examples of
correct about laterite soils in India? shifting cultivation?
(a) These soils were first studied by Buchanan. Select the correct answer from the codes given
(b) These are the typical soils of the tropical below:
areas with reasonal rainfall. 1. Ladang 2. Jhum
(c) These soils are poor in iron but rich in 3. Pondu 4. Fazenda
nitrogen. Codes:
(d) These are well developed on the summits of (a) 1 and 4 (b) 3 and 4
the Sahyadris and Eastern Ghats. (c) 1, 2, and 3 (d) 2 and 4
B-64 || Geography of India

17. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Reason (R): Cheap tribal labour is available
answer using the codes given below: in abundance in Assam
List-I List-II Codes:
(Tributary) (Rivers) (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A. Chambal 1. Narmada explanation of A.
B. Sone 2. Yamuna (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
C. Manas 3. Brahmaputra explanation of A.
Which of the pairs given above is/are correct (c) A is true, but R is false.
matched? (d) A is false, but R is true.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 22. Arrange the following states of India in ascending
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 only order of their areal size and select the correct
18. Consider the following areas of forests: answer from the codes given below:
1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands forests. 1. Andhra Pradesh 2. Madhya Pradesh
2. Ilambur tract of Kerala. 3. Maharashtra 4. Uttar Pradesh
3. Low outorop of Garo and Khasi hills. Codes:
4. Mikir hills upto 1000 metres. (a) 4, 1, 3, 2 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
Which of the above areas have tropical wet (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 3, 1, 2, 4
evergreen forests? 23. Consider the following statements about south-
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 west monsoon.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 1. It occurs from June to September
19. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly 2. Its direction is north-east to south-west.
matched? 3. It gives maximum rainfall as compared to
National Park — State other monsoon.
(a) Kanha National Park — Madhya 4. It has no branch.
Pradesh Of these statement(s) is/are correct?
(b) Sultanpur National park — Haryana (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(c) Ranthambore National park — Gujarat (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
(d) Bandipur National Park — Karnataka 24. Interior of the Deccan plateau receives an annual
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct rainfall of less than 60 cm, mainly because
answer from the codes given below: (a) It is a rain shadow zone/region.
List-I List-II (b) It is located parallel to wind direction.
(Hill resorts) (State) (c) It is away from the coast.
A. Dalhousie 1. Jammu and Kashmir (d) Rain-bearing clouds are absent.
B. Darjeeling 2. Himachal Pradesh 25. Match the following two lists and select the codes
C. Mussoorie 3. West Bengal given below:
D. Pahalgam 4. Uttarakhand List-I List-II
Codes: A. Coal 1. Bhandera
A B C D B. Gold 2. Karanpura
(a) 2 4 3 1 C. Mica 3. Hutti
(b) 1 3 2 4 D. Manganese 4. Nellore
(c) 2 3 4 1 Codes:
(d) 3 1 4 2 A B C D
21. Consider the following statements and select the (a) 1 3 2 4
correct answer by using the codes given below: (b) 2 3 4 1
Assertion (A): Assam is the largest producer of (c) 3 4 2 1
tea in India. (d) 2 1 4 3
Geography || B-65
26. Consider the following statements: 31. Arrange the following languages in decreasing
1. As per census 2011, the population growth order of their speakers in India.
rate of Nagaland during 2001–2011 was the (a) Hindi, Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu.
lowest among the states of India. (b) Urdu, Tamil, Marathi, Telugu, Bengali,
2. As per census 2011, the population growth Hindi.
rate of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was the (c) Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu, Telugu,
highest among the states of India/Union Tamil.
territory. (d) Hindi, Tamil Telugu, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu.
Which of the statements given above is/are 32. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? correct regarding tank irrigation in peninsular
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Percolation of rainwater is less due to hard
27. Arrange the following states in the descending rock.
order of literacy as per census report of 2011 and (b) Most of the rivers are seasonal and dry up in
select the correct answer from the codes given at summer reason.
the end. (c) Underground water level is higher
1. Kerala 2. Manipur (d) Rainwater can be easily stored by
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Himachal Pradesh constructing tanks.
Codes: 33. Examine the following statements and select the
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 1. Rihand Dam is on a tributary of the Son river.
28. A state in India has the following characteristics: 2. Hirakund Dam is on the Mahanadi river.
1. It northern part is arid and semiarid. 3. Tungabhadra Project is a joint venture of the
2. Its central part produces cotton. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant 4. Kosi is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
over food crops.
Codes:
Which one of the following states has all of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
above characteristics?
(b) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
29. As per geological periods the correct sequence of
order of the following is
correct answer by using the codes given below:
1. Aravalli 2. Himalayas
Assertion (A): India enjoys tropical monsoon
3. Deccan plateau 4. Eastern Ghat
climate.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 Reason (R): India is located within the
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 tropics.
30. Which of the following reasons is responsible for Select the correct answer from the following
the protests against the Tehri Dam Project? codes:
(a) The vulnerability of the dam region to Codes:
earthquakes. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) The environmental distance caused by the explanation of A.
project. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) The problem of displacement of the local explanation of A.
people. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) All of the above (d) A is false, but R is true.

35. Arrange the following mountain ranges from 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
north to south order and select the correct answer answer using the codes given below:
from the codes: List-I List-II
1. Dholadhar A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Bangalore
2. Ladakh Space Centre
3. Pirpanjal B. SHAR Centre 2. Thumba
4. Zaskar C. Space Application 3. Sri Harikota
Codes: Centre
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 D. ISRO Satellite 4. Ahmedabad
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 Centre
answer from the codes given below: A B C D
A. Valley town 1. Mussoorie (b) 2 3 4 1
B. Confluence town 2. Rishikesh (c) 2 3 1 4
C. Gate town 3. Tehri (d) 3 2 4 1
D. Ridge town 4. Dehradun 40. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. In India, natural rubber is produced in
A B C D southern India only.
(a) 1 3 2 4 2. Among the coffee growing states of India,
(b) 2 3 4 1 the lowest average yield per hectare of
(c) 4 3 2 1 plucked coffee is in Kerala.
(d) 2 4 3 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
37. Consider the following specific stages of correct?
demographic transition associated with economic (a) 1 only
development: (b) 2 only
1. Low birth rate with low death rate. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. High birth rate with high death rate. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. High birth rate with low death rate. 41. Among the following states, which one has
Select the correct order of the above stages using the most suitable climatic conditions for the
the codes given below: cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
Codes: minimum cost of production and can develop an
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 export oriented industry in this field?
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1 (a) Goa
38. Which one of the following years is known as (b) U.P.
the ‘Year of the Great Divide’ with regard to (c) M.P
population, after which there has been a continuous (d) Arunachal Pradesh
and rapid growth in India’s population? 42. Which of the following shows the correct
(a) 1911 geographical spread of the plateaus?
(b) 1921 1. Chota Nagpur Plateau – much of Jharkhand,
(c) 1941 West Bengal and adjacent parts of Orissa,
(d) 1951 Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
Geography || B-67
2. Deccan Plateau – Vindhyas to the north and 4. To provide insights into the mass extinction,
flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. thermal structure and state of stress in the
3. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh lithosphere and geothermal potential of the
and Gujarat. West Coast Belt as well as the geothermal
4. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Maharashtra record of climate change in the region.
and Gujarat. Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
43. Which of the following shows the correct match 46. Which of the following National Park’s
of India’s natural resource with their world-wide uniqueness lies in its man-made lakes and ancient
production rank? reservoirs, which have merged into the natural
(a) Rank 1 - barites and chromites; Rank 2 - iron system as vital sources of water? It also has a
ore; Rank 3 - mica blocks and mica splitting; large populaton of panthers, the second largest
predators of the forest.
Rank 4 - coal; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel
(a) Ranthambore National Park
(b) Rank 1 - bauxite and crude steel; Rank 2 - mica
(b) Bandavgarh National Park
blocks and mica splitting; Rank 3 - coal; Rank (c) Bharatpur National Park
4 - barites and chromites; Rank 5 - iron ore (d) Kanha National Park
(c) Rank 1 - coal; Rank 2 - mica blocks and mica 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
splitting; Rank 3 - iron ore; Rank 4 - bauxite and answer using the codes given below.
crude steel; Rank 5 - barites and chromites List-I List-II
(d) Rank 1 - mica blocks and mica splitting; Rank (Lakes) (States)
2 - barites and chromites; Rank 3 - coal; Rank A. Loktak 1. Maharashtra
4 - iron ore; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel B. Pulicut 2. Jammu-Kashmir
44. Which of the following statements about alluvial C. Lonar 3. Tamil Nadu
soils of India are correct? D. Wular 4. Manipur
Codes:
1. These are mostly clay soils and form deep
A B C D
cracks during dry season.
(a) 4 3 1 2
2. Usually they are very productive soils. (b) 3 2 4 1
3. These soils occur at high elevations as well (c) 2 3 1 4
as at low elevations. (d) 1 4 3 2
4. Many of these soils are deficient in nitrogen, 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
humus and phosphorus. answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (Tribes) (States)
45. Which of the following are aims of scientific deep A. Oraon 1. Kerala
drilling project in the Koyna intra-plate seismic B. Khond 2. Gujarat
zone? C. Chenchu 3. Jharkhand
D. Todai 4. Odisha
1. To provide an opportunity to understand
Codes:
the mechanism of reservoir-triggered
A B C D
earthquakes. (a) 3 4 1 2
2. To develop measures to prevent earthquake (b) 4 3 2 1
in a stable continental region. (c) 3 2 4 1
3. To give insights into Deccan volcanism. (d) 2 1 3 4

49. Consider the following statements and choose the 53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
1. Jhum cultivation is adopted in North-Eastern List-I List-II
State of India. A. Gulf Stream 1. Pacific Ocean
2. Jhum cultivation is a process of afforestation. B. West Wind Drift 2. A slow eastward
(a) 1 only movement of water
(b) 2 only over the zone of
(c) Both 1 and 2 westerly wind
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Peru Current 3. Indian Ocean
50. Which one among the following is the correct D. West Australian 4. Warm current
sequence of the rivers from north to south? Current
(a) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra Codes:
(b) Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani- Tungabhadra A B C D
(c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar- Mahanadi
(a) 4 2 1 3
(d) Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra- Mahanadi
(b) 1 3 4 2
51. Consider the following sanctuaries of India:
(c) 4 3 1 2
1. Periyar
(d) 1 2 4 3
2. Dachigam
3. Sariska
4. Kanha
List-I List-II
Which one among the following is the correct
sequence of locations of the above sanctuaries (Times of climate) (Region)
from south to north? A. Aw 1. Rain shadow
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 zone of
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Karnataka
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Amw 2. Thar Desert
answer using the codes given below. C. BShw 3. W. Bengal and
List-I List-II Bihar
(Hydroelectric (Location in map) D. BWhw 4. Malabar Coast
power station) Codes:
A B C D
A. Nagarjuna Sagar
(a) 3 4 1 2
B. Mettur 4 (b) 3 1 4 2
2
3 (c) 2 1 4 3
C. Hirakud (d) 2 4 1 3
D. Sileru
1
A B C D (Rivers) (Their Tributaries)
(a) 3 4 1 2 A. Krishna 1. Chambal
(b) 3 1 4 2
B. Brahamaputra 2. Indravati
(c) 2 1 4 3
C. Godavari 3. Tista
(d) 2 4 1 3
D. Yamuna 4. Bhima
Geography || B-69
Codes: 59. Consider the following sanctuaries of India

A B C D 1. Periyar 2. Dachigam
(a) 4 3 2 1 2. Sariska 4. Kanha
(b) 3 4 2 1 Which one among the following is the correct
(c) 4 3 1 2 sequence of location of the above sanctuaries
(d) 1 4 3 2 from South to North?
56. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2
60. Which of the following statements about Nathu
List-I List-II
La Pass are correct ?
(Soils) (State)
1. It links Sikkim with Tibet
A. Alluvial 1. Rajasthan 2. It was the main artery of the ancient Silk
B. Black soil (Regur) 2. Uttar Pradesh Route
C. Desert 3. Maharashtra 3. It was reopened in the year 2006
D. Red 4. Meghalaya Select the correct answer using the codes given
Codes: below
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(a) 1 2 3 4 (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(b) 2 3 4 1 61. Match the following
(d) 4 2 3 1 (Dam) (River)
57. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A. Ukai dam 1. Beas
answer from the codes given below: B. Bhakra dam 2. Krishan
List-I List-II C. Nagarjuna Sagar dam 3. Sutlej
(Pass) (State) D. Pandoh dam 4. Tapi (Tapi)
A. Shipki La 1. Arunachal Pradesh Codes :
B. Niti pass 2. Himachal Pradesh A B C D
C. Nathula 3. Uttarakhand (a) 1 3 2 4
D. Bomdi La 4. Sikkim (b) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (c) 4 3 2 1
A B C D (d) 4 2 3 1
(a) 2 3 4 1 62. Arrange the following tributaries of river
(b) 2 3 1 4 Brahmaputra from West to East.
(c) 4 2 1 3 1. Lohit 2. Dibang
(d) 4 2 3 1 3. Subansiri 4. Tista
58. Which of the following are UNESCO recognised Select the correct answer using the codes given
world heritage sites ? below
1. Caves of Ajanta (a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2
2. Temple and Caves at Ellora (c) 3, 4, 2, 1 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1
3. Mandapas of Mahabalipuram 63. Match the following
4. Caves of Kanheri List-I List-II
Select the correct answer using the codes given (River) (Tributary)
below A. Ganga 1. Chambal and Ken
B. Indus 2. Wainganga and Indravati
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3
C. Yamuna 3. Chenab and Sutlej
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 D. Godavari 4. Gomti and Kosi

Codes : 3. Sugarcane in Malaysia
A B C D 4. Coffee in Brazil
(a) 4 1 3 2 (a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3
(b) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
(c) 2 1 3 4 68. Which one of the following is the correct
(d) 2 3 1 4 sequence of the given tiger reserves of India from
64. Match the following North to South?
List-I List-II (a) Dudwa-Kanha-Indravti-Bandipur
(Tribal Group) (State where (b) Kanha-Bandipu-Dudwa-Indravati
Prodominantly Located) (c) Idravati-Kanha-Dudwa-Bandipur
A. Reang 1. Arunachal Pradesh (d) Dudwa-Kanha-Bandipur-Indravati
B. Dimasa 2. Nagaland 69. Which of the following statements with regard
C. Konyak 3. Tripura to the expansion of the desert in Rajasthan is/are
D. Mishmi 4. Asom correct?
Codes : 1. The predominant wind direction in
A B C D Rajasthan in North-East to South-West, so
(a) 1 2 4 3 the tendency for desertification has been
(b) 1 4 2 3 more in that direction.
(c) 3 2 4 1 2. The Thar desert is dominantly a monsoon
(d) 3 4 2 1 driven sand desert where wind erosion is a
65. Arrange the following oil refineries of India from major problem during the summer months.
West to East While the Aravalli range is a major barrier
1. Koyali 2. Bongaigaon in the spread of the desert, rampant mining
3. Mathura 4. Haldia creating cuts in the range is leading to the
Select the correct answer using the codes given spread of the desert.
below Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2 below
(c) 3, 1, 2, 4 (d) 2, 4, 3, 1 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
66. Match the following (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
List-I List-II 70. Consider the following places of Kashmir region
(Biosphere Reserve) (Places) 1. Sri Nagar 2. Gilgit
A. Manas 1. Meghalaya 3. Kargil 4. Banihal
B. Pachmarhi 2. Asom Arrange the above place from North to South
C. Nokrek 3. Madhya Pradesh using the code given below
D. Achanakmar 4. Chhattisgarh (a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1
Amarkantak (c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 2, 1, 3, 4
Codes : 71. Which of the following statements with regard to
A B C D rainfall in India is/are correct?
(a) 4 3 1 2 1. Most of the rainfall in India is due to the
(b) 4 1 3 2 South-West monsoon.
(c) 2 1 3 4 2. In South India, rainfall decreases away from
(d) 2 3 1 4 the Eastern Ghats.
67. Which among the following monoculture crops Select the correct answer using the codes given
provide(s) immediate cash to the farmers? below
1. Tea in Asom (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
2. Rubber in Africa (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Geography || B-71
72. Consider the following statements Codes :

1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest A B C D
national park of India. (a) 4 1 3 2
2. It was one of the nine tiger reserves created (b) 2 3 1 4
at the launch of the Project Tiger in 1973. (c) 4 3 1 2
3. Initially it was named as ‘Hailey National (d) 2 1 3 4
Park’. 77. Match the following
Which of the statement given above are correct? List-I List-II
(a) 1 and 2 (b) All of these (River) (Tributary)
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 A. Brahamaputra 1. Musi
73. Consider the following statements B. Krishna 2. Tawa
1. In the month of July, the Inter Tropical C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
Convergence Zone is located in the Indo D. Kaveri 4. Dikhow
Gangetic plain. Codes :
2. Northen Inter Tropical Convergence Zone is A B C D
the zone of clouds and heavy rainfall. (a) 4 2 1 3
Which of the statement given above is/are (b) 4 1 2 3
correct? (c) 3 2 1 4
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 3 1 2 4
(c) Both 2 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 78. What is the correct order to occurrence of the
74. Which of the following factors is/are responsible following places as one moves from East to
for high concentration of jute mills in the Hugli West?
basin? (1) Murshidabad (2) Gorakhpur
1. Nearness to coal fields. (3) Bhopal (4) Bhavnagar
2. Convenient dry climate for spinning and Select the correct answer using the codes given
weaving. below
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) 2, 4, 3, 1 (b) 1, 3, 4, 2
below (c) 1, 2, 3, 4 (d) 4, 3, 2, 1
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 79. Consider the following statements
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 The South-West monsoon originates in India due
75. Consider the following regions of India to
1. Western Ghats 1. low pressure in the Punjab plain.
2. Aravalli Hills 2. high pressure in areas South of India
3. Eastern Himalayas 3. equatorial low being filled up by descending
Which of the above is/are biodiversity hot spot/hot air current.
spots? 4. the Himalayas.
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) 2 and 3 (d) All of the above (a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2
76. Match the following (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
List-I List-II 80. Consider the following statements
(Pass) (State) 1. The Golden Quadrilateral connects the four
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim major cities of Delhi, Mumbai, Bengaluru
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand and Kolkata.
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh 2. The North-South corridor will pass through
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir Hyderabad.

Which of the statements given above is/are 84. Match List-I (Town) with List-Il (River) and select
correct? the correct answer using the codes given below the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Lists:
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 List-I (Town) List-II (River)
81. Consider the following statements A. Nanded 1. Godavari
1. Dakshin Gangotri is India’s second scientific B. Nellore 2. Tungbhadra
manned station in Antarctica after Maitri. C. Hospet 3. Musi
2. The National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean D. Hyderabad 4. Penneru
Research is situated at Goa. Codes :
A B C D A B C D
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 4 2 3 (b) 1 2 4 3
correct?
(c) 3 4 2 1 (d) 3 2 4 1
85. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below :
82. Match List-I (Atomic Power Plant) with List-I
List-I List-II
(State) and select the correct answer using the (Product) (Major Producer)
codes given below the Lists: A. Tea 1. Andhra Pradesh
List-I List-II B. Jute 2. Kerala
(Atomic Power Plant) (State) C. Rubber 3. Orissa
A. Kalpakkam 1. Karnataka D. Tobacco 4. Tamil Nadu
B. Narora 2. MadhyaPradesh Codes :
C. Rawatbhata 3. Maharashtra A B C D A B C D
D. Tarapur 4. Rajasthan (a) 2 3 4 1 (b) 4 1 2 3
5. Tamil Nadu (c) 2 1 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
6. Uttar Pradesh 86. Match List I with List II and select the correct
Codes : answer using the code given below the Lists :
A B C D A B C D List-l List-II
(a) 1 6 4 2 (b) 1 4 6 2 (Mineral) (Mine)
(c) 5 6 4 3 (d) 5 4 6 3 A. Bauxite 1. Balaghat
83. Match List-I (Town) with List-II (Factory/Plant) B. Copper 2. Korba
and select the correct answer using the codes given C. Iron ore 3. Singareni
below the Lists: D. Coal 4. Keonjhar
List-I List-II Codes :
(Town) (Factory/Plant) A B C D A B C D
A. Namrup 1. Aluminium Plant (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 3 1 4 2
B. Vishakhapatnam 2. Steel Plant (c) 3 4 1 2 (d) 2 1 4 3
C. Perambur 3. Fertilizer Plant 87. Match List I with List II and select the correct
D. Renukoot 4. Integral Coach answer using the code given below the Lists :
Factory List-I List-II
(Industry) (Industrial Centre)
Codes :
A. Aluminium 1 Coimbatore
A B C D A B C D
B. Heavy Electricals 2. Renukoot
(a) 1 2 4 3 (b) 1 4 2 3
C. Petrochemicals 3. Vadodara
(c) 3 2 4 1 (d) 3 4 2 1 D. Cotton Textiles 4. Jagdishpur
Geography || B-73
Codes : Codes :
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
88. Match List I with List II and select the correct 92. Which of the following has/have been declared as
answer using the code given below the Lists: national waterways in India ?
List-I List-II I. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga
(National Highway No.) (Cities connected) II. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river
A. NH 5 1. Bhopal-Jaipur Brahmaputra
B. NH 7 2. Bhubaneswar- III. The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river
Chennai Godavari
C. NH 9 3. Nagpur-Varanasi Select the correct answer using the code given
D. NH 12 4. Pune-Hyderabad below
Codes :
(a) I and II oniy (b) II and III only
A B C D A B C D
(c) I only (d) I, II and III
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 93. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
89. Consider the following statements : I. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune
1. Alamatti dam is on the Cauvery river. because it is located at the windward side of
2. Mettur dam in on the Krishna river. Western Ghats
3. Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is on the Chambal II. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid
river. climate as it is located in a rain shadow region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? III. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only the last
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
90. Consider the following statements : below :
1. Kandla port is situated at the head of Gulf of (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
khambhat.
(c) II and III only (d) I only
2. Paradeep Port is situated in the Mahanadi
Delta. 94. Which of the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? south-west monsoon in India is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only I. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast first
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 II. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct west monsoon
answer using the code given below the Lists : III. South-west monsoon retreats when the
List-I List-II permanent wind belts start shifting to the
(Type of vegetation) (State) south
A. Mangrove 1 Madhya Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given
B. Scrub 2 Karnataka below :
C. Teak 3 Rajasthan (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
D. Coniferous 4 Arunachal Pradesh (c) III only (d) I and III only

95. Consider the following statements (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-4-2
I. In India, the largest concentration of roads is (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 1-3-2-4
found in the northern plains 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
II. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road answer using the code given below the Lists :
length is lower in the northern plains. List-I List-II
(Mountain pass) (State)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh
(a) I only (b) II only
B. Lipulekh 2. Sikkim
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
C. Shipki La 3. Uttarakhand
96. Match List I with List II and select the correct D. Nathu La 4. Jammu and Kashmir
answer using the code given below the lists: Codes :
List I List II A B C D A B C D
(Mineral) (State) (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
A. Bauxite 1. Andhra Pradesh (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
B. Mica 2. Orissa 100. Match List I with List II and select the correct
C. Copper 3. Madhya Pradesh answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I List II
D. Zinc 4. Rajasthan
(Himalayan Peak) (State)
Codes :
A B C D A B C D A. K2 1. Uttarakhand
(a) 4 1 3 3 (b) 2 1 3 4 B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu & Kashmir
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh
answer using the code given below the Lists : Codes :
List-I List-II A B C D A B C D
(Port) (Special feature) (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
A. Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
protected port 101. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
B. Kochi 2. Located at mouth 1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal
of lagoon Pradesh) is about two hours ahead than
C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port Dwarka (Gujarat).
D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port 2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and
Codes : Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same.
A B C D A B C D 3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 is one hour ahead than Kolkata (West
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
Bengal).
98. Consider the following coal mines of India :
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad
below :
3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur
Select the correct sequence of the above from east (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
to west. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography || B-75
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (c) 23. (b) 34. (c) 45. (c) 56. (c) 67. (c) 78. (c) 89. (d) 100. (b)
2. (b) 13. (d) 24. (a) 35. (c) 46. (a) 57. (a) 68. (a) 79. (a) 90. (b) 101. (a)
3. (d) 14. (d) 25. (d) 36. (c) 47. (a) 58. (b) 69. (c) 80. (b) 91. (c)
4. (d) 15. (a) 26. (c) 37. (c) 48. (a) 59. (c) 70. (c) 81. (b) 92. (a)
5. (a) 16. (c) 27. (a) 38. (b) 49. (a) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (c) 93. (a)
6. (b) 17. (d) 28. (b) 39. (b) 50. (a) 61. (c) 72. (b) 83. (c) 94. (a)
7. (d) 18. (c) 29. (c) 40. (a) 51. (c) 62. (b) 73. (a) 84. (a) 95. (c)
8. (a) 19. (c) 30. (d) 41. (d) 52. (c) 63. (b) 74. (b) 85. (d) 96. (b)
9. (b) 20. (c) 31. (a) 42. (b) 53. (a) 64. (b) 75. (b) 86. (b) 97. (b)
10. (c) 21. (a) 32. (c) 43. (d) 54. (a) 65. (b) 76. (c) 87. (a) 98. (b)
11. (b) 22. (a) 33. (d) 44. (b) 55. (a) 66. (d) 77. (b) 88. (c) 99. (d)
Hints & Solutions

1. (b) Meghalaya shares border only with Bangladesh. 7. (d) The Sharavathi Project is located at the Jog
2. (b) It is a confluence of different biographical falls. The Sharavathi Hydro Electric Project is today
the backbone of Karnataka’s power generating
zones.
arsenal. The Sharavathi Generating Station with its
3. (d) Mica–Jharkhand. Jharkhand is large producer
10 units has an installed capacity of 1035 MW and
of mica. Jharkhand has richest mica belt and the Linganamakki Dam Powerhouse with 2 units has
accounts for 60% of India’s production in terms an installed capacity of 55 MW. To further tap the
of value. Here, mica is found in a belt extending potential of the Sharavathi river, KPCL has installed
for about 150 km in length and 32 km in width at the Gerusoppa Dam Project, four generating units
from Gaya district of Bihar to Hazaribagh and of 60 MW each, totalling to 240 MW.
Kodarma districts of Jharkhand. Kodarma is a well- 8. (a) Because India’s 73% population is literate so
known place for mica production in Jharkhand we can say the growth of Indian population has been
which produces more than 50% of the total mica decline in recent years.
production in India. 9. (b) Kalpakkam–Tamil Nadu. Madras Atomic
5. (a) Reference-Census 2011 Power Station is located at Kalpakkam. It has
U.P., Maharashtra, Bihar a comprehensive nuclear power production,
fuel reprocessing, and waste treatment facility
6. (b) Lepcha – Sikkim
that includes plutonium fuel fabrication for fast
Malpaharia – Jharkhand breeder reactors (FBRs). It is also India’s first fully
Gond – Rajasthan indigenously constructed nuclear power station. It
Bhill – Madhya Pradesh has two units of 220 MW capacity each.

Kakrapar – Gujarat. The Kakrapar Atomic Power Dihang-Dibang – Arunachal Pradesh. Dihang-
Station is a nuclear power station in India, which Dibang or Dehang-Debang is a biosphere reserve
lies in the proximity of the city of Surat in the state constituted under the Man & Biosphere Programme.
of Gujarat. It consists of two 220 MW pressurized It is in the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh.
water reactors with heavy water as moderator. Nokrek – Meghalaya. Nokrek National Park, or
Kaiga – Karnataka. Kaiga generating station is a Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a national park
nuclear power generating station situated at Kaiga, located approximately 2 km from Tura Peak in West
near the river Kali, in Uttar Kannada district of Garo Hills district of Meghalaya, India. UNESCO
Karnataka, India. The plant has been in operation added this national park to its list of Biosphere
since March 2000 and is operated by the Nuclear Reserves in May 2009.
Power Corporation of India. It has four units. On 27 15. (a) Hint: Due to rain shadow area of Sahyadri,
November 2010, the Kaiga Atomic Power Station the regions between Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh
unit 4 of 220 MW capacity became operational have become semi-arid.
Rawatbhata – Rajasthan. The Rajasthan Atomic 16. (c) Ladang, Jhum and Pondu are the examples
Power Station in India is located about 65 of shifting cultivation. Shifting cultivation is an
kilometres from Kota by way of the Chambal river, agricultural system in which a person uses a piece
approximately 3 kilometres above the dam that holds of land, only to abandon or alter the initial use a
the Rana Pratap Sagar lake. short time later.
10. (c) Hint: Laterite soils prevalent and easy to found This system often involves clearing of a piece of
in Kerala, Tamil Nadu, etc. in India. land followed by several years of wood harvesting
11. (b) Construction of four lane highways joining or farming until the soil loses fertility.
four metropolises of India. The overall length of the Once the land becomes inadequate for crop
quadrilateral is 5,846 km consisting of four / six lane production, it is left to be reclaimed by natural
express highways. The project was estimated to cost vegetation, or sometimes converted to a different
INR 600 bn ($13.2bn) but was completed at about long-term cyclical farming practice.
half of the estimated costs, at INR 308.58 bn. The This system of agriculture is often practised at the
whole length of the quadrilateral was operational by level of an individual or family, but sometimes may
January 2012. involve an entire village.
12. (c) These soils are poor in iron and rich in nitrogen. 17. (d) Manas is a tributary of Brahmaputra and
Hint: Literite soils are rich in iron and poor in Chambal and Son are tributary of Yamuna and
nitrogen. Ganga respectively.
13. (d) The biggest desert of world is in India. 19. (c) Ranthambore National Park is in Rajasthan.
Hint: Biggest desert of the world is in Africa. Ranthambore was established as the Sawai
14. (d) Agasthyamalai – Kerala. The Agasthyamalai Madhopur Game Sanctuary in 1955 by the
hills also called the Ashambu hills, lie at the extreme Government of India and was declared one of
southern end of the Western Ghat mountain range the Project Tiger reserves in 1973. Ranthambore
along the western side of South India. There are at became a national park in 1980. In 1984, the
least 26 peaks over 1,600 metres among these hills. adjacent forests were declared the Sawai Man Singh
Dibru-saikhowa – Assam. Dibru-Saikhowa National Sanctuary and Keladevi Sanctuary.Ranthambore
Park is a national wildlife park in Tinsukia, Assam, Wildlife Sanctuary is known for its tigers and is
India. Dibru-Saikhowa national park is located one of the best places in India to see these majestic
at about 12 km north of Tinsukia town of Assam predators in the jungle. Tigers can be easily spotted
covering an area of 350 km2. even during the daytime.
Geography || B-77
20. (c) Dalhousie – Himachal Pradesh 35. (c) North to South – Ladakh – Zaskar – Pirpanjal
Darjeeling – West Bengal – Dholadhar
Mussoorie – Uttarakhand 36. (c) Valley town – Dehradun. Dehradun, a capital
Pahalgam – Jammu and Kashmir city of Uttarakhand situated in the northern part
All these are the names of famous hill stations of India. Dehradun is called a beautiful town
located in these states respectively. that is located in the Doon Valley surrounded by
21. (a) Assam tea is a black tea named after the region the Shivalik hills, a mountain range of the outer
of its production, Assam, in India. Assam tea is Himalayas. The Doon city is world famous for its
manufactured specifically from the plant Camellia natural scenic beauty, which includes some visually
sinensis var. assamica (Masters). attractive landscapes and enjoyable climate.
22. (a) Arranged their real size in ascending order – Confluence town – Tehri. Tehri is a beautiful
U.P. – Andhra Pradesh – Maharashtra – Madhya town in the state of Uttarakhand. It is also known
Pradesh. as the municipal board of Tehri Garhwal District
23. (b) South west monsoon occurs from June to in Uttarakhand. It is one of the largest districts in
September and gives maximum rainfall as compared Uttarakhand. It is considered as one of the holiest
to other monsoon. Its direction is south-west.
places of the state as it has numerous temples and is
24. (a) It is a rain shadow zone. A rain shadow is an located at the confluence of the holy rivers, Ganga
area of dry land on the leeward side of a mountain.
and Yamuna.
25. (d) Coal – Karanpura.
Gate town – Rishikesh. Rishikesh is called the main
Gold – Bhander.
gate to heaven as the most holy Char Dham Yatra
Mica – Nellore as specified in Hindu mythology begins from here.
Manganese – Hutti The buses and taxies are available at Rishikesh
All these are names of mines of different minerals in for this Yatra of Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri,
different places in India. and Yamunotri. Rishikesh is a small town, having
26. (c) Reference-Census 2011. Final data. population of around 80,000 people. It is located
27. (a) Descending order of literacy census report of very close to Haridwar at a distance of around 15
2011 – Kerala – Himachal Pradesh – Tamil Nadu – miles.
Manipur.
Ridge town – Mussoorie. Located on a 15 km
28. (b) Gujarat. The total geographical area of Gujarat
long horseshoe ridge with the grand Himalayas as
is 19,602,400 hectares, of which crops take up
a backdrop, the colonial hill resort of Mussoorie
10,630,700 hectares. The three main sources of
spreads across at a height of 2,005.5 m above sea
growth in Gujarat’s agriculture are from cotton
production, the rapid growth of high-value foods level. From this vantage point, Mussoorie offers
such as livestock, fruits and vegetables, and from superb scenic view of peaks of the Himalayas in
wheat production, which saw an annual average western Garhwal.
growth rate of 28% between 2000 and 2008. 38. (b) ‘1921’ is the year of great divide. The year
29. (c) Aravalli – Eastern Ghat – Deccan plateau – 1921 is taken as the demographic divide for the
Himalaya. reason that before this year, the population was not
31. (a) Hindi–Bengali–Telugu–Marathi–Tamil–Urdu. stable, sometimes it increased and at other times
32. (c) Underground water level is less in peninsular it decreased. The growth rate of population was
region of India and high in north region of India. generally low before 1921. But after this year, there
34. (c) India is located in the middle of tropic of has been considerable and continuous increase in
cancer. the population.

39. (b) Vikram Sarabhai space centre – Thumba Black soils are mostly clay soils and form deep
SHAR – Sri Harikota cracks during dry season. An accumulation of lime
is generally noticed of varying depths. They are
Space application centre – Ahmedabad
popularly known as “Black cotton soils” because of
ISRO Satellite Centre – Bangalore
their dark brown colour and suitability for growing
All these are names of space centers in different cotton. These are also known as Indian regurs.
places of India, respectively. These soils are deficient in nitrogen, phosphoric
40. (a) During 2012-13, India produced 912,200 tons acid and organic matter but rich in calcium, potash
of rubber registering 0.9% rise over the previous and magnesium
financial year. 45. (c) The objective of the project is to undertake the
investigations of 6-8 kilometers in a deep borehole
41. (d) Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal is endowed
in the Koyna-Warna region of Maharashtra. For past
with rich variety of orchids found in almost all
five decade, the earthquakes have been occurring
parts of the state. Number of them are ornamentals in the restricted area of 20×30 square kilometer,
with exquisite beauty. The Orchid Society of India which includes the earthquake of magnitude of 6.3
(established in 1984) decided to open regional in December 1967. Koyna–Warna area is the best
chapters to spread the message of conservation site in the world, which acts as a natural laboratory
and promotion of orchids throughout the country. to study reservoir-triggered earthquakes. A research
The chapter for Arunachal, Assam and Tripura was laboratory will be set up at Karad as a part of the
entrusted to Dr. S. N. Hegde, Orchidologist. project, which will serve as the operational center
42. (b) The correct geographical spread of the plateaus for carrying out the research activities related to
seismic, deep drilling, borehole investigations, core
is as follows:
analysis and research in associated fields.
1. Chota Nagpur Plateau - Jharkhand and adjacent
46. (a) The Ranthambore National Park, set against
parts of Odisha, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
the backdrop of the historic 1000-year-old
2. Deccan Plateau - Vindhyas to the north and
Ranthambore Fort, lies in the area where the ancient
flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. ranges of the Vindhyas’ flat-topped hills merge
3. Malwa Plateau - Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh with the sharp ridges of the Aravalis. Ranthambore
and Gujarat. also has a large populaton of panthers, the second
43. (d) India is the world’s biggest producer of mica largest predators of the forest. Marsh Crocodiles
blocks and mica splittings. India ranks second abound in the lakes and Gharial can be spotted close
amongst the world’s largest producers of barites and by in the Chambal River, which also harbors the
chromites. India is the third-largest coal producer in Gangetic Dolphin. An open jeep safari also affords a
the world and ranks fourth in the production of iron glimpse of the spectacular ruins of mosques, tombs,
ore. It is the fifth-largest producer of bauxite and watchtowers and palaces scattered within the park.
crude steel. 50. (a) Damodar (West Bengal, Bihar), Brahamani
44. (b) Alluvial soils occur along rivers and represent (Jharkhand), Mahanadi (Odisha), Tungabhadra
the soil materials that have been deposited by the (Andhra Pradesh) and Karnataka.
rivers during flood. Usually they are very productive 51. (c) Periyar (Kerala), Kanha (M.P.), Sariska
soils but many are deficient in nitrogen, humus and (Rajasthan), Dachigam (J.K.) is the correct sequence
phosphorus. from south to north.
Geography || B-79
59. (c) Periyar National Park → Kerala 68. (a)

Kanha National Park → Madhya A. Dudwa National Park – Uttar Pradesh
Pradesh B. Kanha National Park – Madhya Pradesh
Sariska National Park → Rajasthan C. Indravati National Park – Chhattisgarh
Dachigam National Park → Jammu and D. Bandipur National Park – Karnatka
Kashmir 69. (c) The Thar desert (Rajasthan) is a large, arid
region in the North-western part of the Indian
60. (a) Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas.
subcontinent and forms a natural boundary running
It connects the Indian state of Sikkim with China’s
along the border between India and Pakistan.
Tibet Autonomous Region. Sealed by India after
70. (c) From North to South of Kashmir region.
1962 Snio - Indian war, Nathu La was re-opened
1. Gilgit 2. Kargil
in 2006, following numerous bilateral trade
3. Sri Nagar 4. Banihal
agreements. 71. (a) In South India, rainfall decreases from the
62. (b) The tributaries of river Brahmaputra from Western Ghats towards the East.
West to East is Tista, Subansiri, lohit and Dibang. 72. (b) Jim Corbett Park was established in 1936 as
63. (b) River Tributary Hailey National Park. It was rewared in 1956 as Jim
A. Ganga Gomti and Kosi Corbett National Park after the name of hunter and
B. Indus Chenab and Sutlej conservationist of Jim Corbett. He played major role
C. Yamuna Chabai and Ken in the establishment of this park. It is oldest national
D. Godavari Wainganga and Indravati park of the country. The national park was the first
64. (b) Tribal Group State to come under Project Tiger initiative, which was
A. Reang Tripura launched in 1973, initially 9 tiger reserves were
B. Dimasa Asom created.
C. Konyak Nagaland 73. (a) The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ),
D. Mishmi Arunachal Pradesh also known as the doldrum, by the sailors, is the
65. (b) A. Koyali – (near Yadodra, Gujarat) area encircling the Earth near the equator where
B. Bongaigaon – (Assam) winds originating in the Northern and Southern
C. Mathura – (Uttar Pradesh) Hemisphere come together.
D. Haldia – (Kolkata, West Bengal) 74. (b) India is the largest producer of jute goods in the
66. (d) A. Manas – Asom world. The jute industry is second most important
B. Pachmarhi – Madhya Pradesh industry in India. India produces 35% of all jute in
C. Nokrek – Meghalaya the world. Hugli basin is located in Western, due
D. Achanakumar – Chhattisgarh to its dry climate, if is convenient for spinning and
Amarkantak weaving.
67. (c) In terms of agriculture, cash crops are those 75. (b) India was spot of the world’s vast biodiverse
crops which are grown for cash in tropical and region. It hosts three biodiversity regions-the
sub-tropical areas Jute, coffee, cocoa, sugarcane, Western Ghats. Eastern Himalyas and the hilly
bananas, oranges and cotton are common cash ranges that straddles the India-Myanmar border.
crops. Aravalli Hills have no biodiversity hot spot.

76. (c) C. Rawatbhata Atomic Power Plant is situated
List-I List-II in Rajasthan.
(Pass) (State)
D. Tarapur Atomic Power Plant is situated in
A. Zoji La Pass 1. Sikkim
B. Bara Lacha Pass 2. Uttarakhand Maharashtra.
C. Jelep La Pass 3. Himachal Pradesh 83. (c) A. Namrup has a Fertilizer plant.
D. Niti Pass 4. Jammu and Kashmir B. Vishakhapatnam has a steel plant.
77. (b)
List-I List-II C. Perambur has a integral Coach factory.
(River) (Tributary) D. Renukoot has an Aluminium plant.
A. Brahamaputra 1. Musi 84. (a) A. Nanded town is situated on the banks of
B. Krishna 2. Tawa
river Godavari.
C. Narmada 3. Bhavani
D. Kaveri 4. Dikhow B. Nellore town is situated on the banks of
river Penneru.
78. (c) The correct sequence from East to West is
C. Hosper town is situated on the banks of
1. Murshidabad (Paschim Banga)
river Tungbhadra.
2. Gorakhpu (Uttar Pradesh)
D. Hyderabad town is situated on the banks of
3. Bhopal (Madhya Pradesh)
river Munsi. Hyderabad is a unique Islamic
4. Bhavnagar (Gujarat)
sculptor city.
79. (a) The South-West monsoon is generally expected
to being around the start of June and fade down by 85. (d) Chief Producer States
the end of September. India receives majority of Tea — Assam, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu
rainfall from this South-West monsoon. Jute — West Bengal, Bihar, Assam, Orissa
80. (b) The Golden Quadrilateral is a highway Rubber — Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka
network connecting India’s four largest metropolis–
Tobacco — Andhra Praesh, Gujarat,
Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai and Kolkata. The project
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu
is initiated by former Prime Minister Atal Bihari
Bajpayee. The GQ project is managed by the 86. (b) Bauxite : Palamu (Jharkhand) Kaira (Gujarat),
National Highways Authority of India (NHA). Kanti, Jabalpur (M.P.) salem (Tamilnadu),
The north-south-east-west corridor is the Kolhapur (Maharashtra)
lartest ongoing highway project in India. Copper : Singhbum, Hazaribagh (Jharkhand),
81. (b) National Centre for Antarctic and Ocean Khetri Alwer, Bhilwara, Jhunhunu, Sirohi
Research (NCAOR) is an Indian research and (Rajasthan)
development institution situated at Vasco, Goa, it Coal : Raniganj (West Bengal) Thariya, Bokaro,
was established in 25th May, 1998. Giridiih (Jharkhand), Desgarh, Talcher (Orissa)
Dakshin Gangotri is the first research station in Singreni (A.P.)
Antartica. Maitri is India’s second research station,
Iron Ore : Sanai, Mayurbhanj, Keonjhar
built in 1989.
(Orissa), Singhbhum, Hazaribagh, Palamau
82. (c) A. Kalpakkam Atomic Power Plant is situated (Jharkhand).
in Tamil Nadu.
87. (a) Aluminium : Alwaye (Kerala), Asansol (West
B. Narora Atomic Power Plant is situated in Bengal), Renukoot (U.P.), Belur (Karnataka),
Uttar Pradesh. Hiradud (Orissa).
Geography || B-81
Petrochemical : Indian Refineries Ltd (Barauni)

Bihar Noohamati (Assam), Koyali oil Refinery,
Koyali (Gujrat), Chochin oil Refinery Kochi
(Kerala).
Cotton Textiles : Ahmedabad (Gujrat)
Bangalore, Mumbai, Kolkata, Coimbtore
(Tamilnadu), Kanpur (UP), Ludhiana and
Amritsar (Punjab), Indore (MP).
Heavy Electricals : Bharat Heavy Electricals
Ltd Ranipur Hardwar (Uttrakhand)
Heavy Electricals India Ltd (Bhopal)
88. (c) N H No. Cities connected
NH 1 Delhi and Amritsar
NH 2 Delhi and Kolkata
NH 3 Agra and Mumbai
NH 4 Thane and Chennai 91. (c) Mangrove, Scrub, teak and coniferous are the
NH 5 Behragoda and Chennai various types of vegetations found in Karnataka,

Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh
NH 6 Dhulia and Kolkata
respectively.
NH 7 Varanasi and Kanyakumari 92. (a) India has 6 national water ways–
NH 8 Delhi and Mumbai First one is Allahabad to Haldia in the river Ganga
(1620 km). Second is Sadiya to Dhubri in the river
NH 9 Pune and Vijaywada
Brahamputra (891 km). Third is Kollam to Kottapuram
NH 10 Delhi and Fazilka
in the river west coast and canal (205 km). Fourth is
89. (d) Gandhi Sagar Reservoir on Chambal river, Kakinada to Puducherry in the river Godavari (1095
jointly executed by Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan. km). Fifth is Talcher to Dhamra in the river Brahmani
90. (b) Kandla Port is not situated at the head of Gulf (623 km) and sixth one is Lakhipur to Bhanga in the
of Khambat. It is clear from the following map. river Barak (121km).

93. (a) Pune is on the leeward side of the western 97. (b) Kandla-tidal port, Kochi-located at mouth
ghats, it means that it lies on a rain shadow area. of lagoon, Vishakhapatnam-deepest land-locked
But Mumbai lies on the windward side and receives protected port, Kolkata-inland riverine port.
heavy rainfall. 98. (b) Ranigang-Bokaro-Bishrampur-Adilabad.
94. (a) Monsoon may be considered as large scale sea 99. (d) Zoji La-Jammu-Kashmir, Lipulekh-Uttaranchal,
breejes, because of seasonal heating. The south west
Shipki La-Himachal Pradesh, Nathu La-Sikkim.
monsoon brings rain towards the end of summer. It
100. (b) K2-Jammu and Kashmir, Nanda Devi-
arrives in two branches - The way of Bengal branch
Uttarakhand, Tara Pahar-Himachal Pradesh,
and the Arabian sea branch. Kanchenjunga-Sikkim.
95. (c) The Northern Plains of India are expanded 1
101. (a) Indian Standard Time is based on 82 °E
mainly in the state of Punjab, Haryana, Rajasthan, 2
UP and Eastern Bihar. Here the total road length is longitude which passes through Allahabad. Since the
more than total surface roads. east-west extent of India is vast so a time difference
96. (b) Bauxite - Orissa of two hours of found in the local time. Local time
Mica - Andhra Pradesh of Lucknow and Chennai are almost same because
Copper - Madhya Pradesh they lie along the same longitude.
Zinc - Rajasthan

Disha 1000 Mcq-Pages Geography PDF

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Disha 1000 Mcq-Pages Geography PDF

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

https://sscstudy.

1. Consider the following statements regarding Codes:

30. Consider the following two statements, one Codes:

2. The equator experiences greater gravitational (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3

Hints & Solutions

1. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:

8. Which one of the following statements is true Codes:

B-14 || Physical Geography

B-16 || Physical Geography

Codes: 41. The correct sequence of different layers of the

B-18 || Physical Geography

52. Match the following: 2. structure 4. permeability

B-20 || Physical Geography

70. Match the following (a) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv

B-22 || Physical Geography

83. Temperate Grasslands in different regions of the Column I Column II

B-24 || Physical Geography

B-26 || Physical Geography

B-28 || Physical Geography

Hints & Solutions

B-30 || Physical Geography

B-32 || Physical Geography

B-34 || Physical Geography

1. Consider the following statements and select the Codes:

B-38 || Economic Geography

B-40 || Economic Geography

B-42 || Economic Geography

B-44 || Economic Geography

Hints & Solutions

B-46 || Economic Geography

1. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:

B-50 || World Geography

B-52 || World Geography

Which of the pairs above is/are correctly Codes:

B-54 || World Geography

B-56 || World Geography

Hints & Solutions

B-58 || World Geography

B-60 || World Geography

Codes: 13. Which one of following statements is not

B-64 || Geography of India

B-66 || Geography of India

B-68 || Geography of India

Codes: 59. Consider the following sanctuaries of India

B-70 || Geography of India

72. Consider the following statements Codes :

B-72 || Geography of India

B-74 || Geography of India

Hints & Solutions

B-76 || Geography of India

B-78 || Geography of India

59. (c) Periyar National Park → Kerala 68. (a)

B-80 || Geography of India

Petrochemical : Indian Refineries Ltd (Barauni)

Heavy Electricals India Ltd (Bhopal)

88. (c) N H No. Cities connected

NH 1 Delhi and Amritsar

NH 2 Delhi and Kolkata

NH 3 Agra and Mumbai

NH 5 Behragoda and Chennai various types of vegetations found in Karnataka,

of Khambat. It is clear from the following map. river Barak (121km).

B-82 || Geography of India

Copper - Madhya Pradesh they lie along the same longitude.