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 INDEX
Book Page No.
Class X1: Fundamentals of Physical 1
Geography
Class X1: India – Physical Environment 15
Class XII: Fundamentals of Human 29
Geography
Class XII: India People and Economy 36
 CLASS XI: FUNDAMENTALS OF PHYSICAL GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER 1 & 2
Q1. “Steady state”, “big bang theories” are
theories about:
(a). Origin of the universe
(b). Natural disaster
(c). Particle physics
(d). Gravitational waves
Q2. Consider the following statements about
terrestrial and Jovian planets. Which of the
following is correct
1. Terrestrial planets are gas like and
Jovian planets are earth like
2. Terrestrial planets are called outer
planets and Jovian planets are called
inner planets.
3. Jovian planets are much larger than
the terrestrial planets and have thick
atmosphere, made up of hydrogen
and helium.
4. The terrestrial planets were formed
in the close vicinity of the parent star
where it was too warm for gases to
condense to solid particles. Jovian
planets were formed at quite a distant
location
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q3. “The big splat” is associated with?
(a). Sun
(b). Moon
(c). Jupiter
(d). Saturn
Q4. What were the initial gases occupying
Earth?
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(a). Hydrogen and Helium
(b). Oxygen and Nitrogen
(c). Nitrogen and Helium
(d). Oxygen and Helium
Q6. “DEGASSING” refers to
(a). Addition of gases to Earth’s
atmosphere
(b). Removal of oxygen from the
Earth
(c). Outpouring of gases from the
interior of the Earth
(d). None of the above
Q7. Which one of the following represents
the inner planets?
(a). Planets between the sun and
the Earth
(b). Planets between the Sun and
belt of asteroids
(c). Planets in gaseous state
(d). Planets without satellites
Q8. Which one of the following is not
related to the formation or modification of
the present atmosphere?
(a). Solar winds
(b). Differentiation
(c). Degassing
(d). Photosynthesis
Q9. The reason behind terrestrial planets
being rocky is
(a). They have high density
(b). They have geoid shape
(c). They are near to sun
(d). They are not life inhabiting
Page 1
Q10. On the geological scale, modern man
is living in the following era, period and
epoch
(a). Cainozoic era- Quaternary
period- Holocene epoch
(b). Cainozoic era- tertiary
period- Pliocene epoch
(c). Mesozoic era- Cretaceous
period- Pliocene epoch
(d). Cainozoic era- Quaternary
period- Pliocene epoch
Q11.At present which gases contribute the
most of earth’s atmosphere
(a). Hydrogen and Helium
(b). Hydrogen and Nitrogen
(c). Helium and Oxygen
(d). Nitrogen and Oxygen
Q12. Three stages in the evolution of present
atmosphere are
1. Loss of primordial atmosphere
2. Photosynthesis
3. Degassing
4. Fragmentation of earth’s atmosphere
(a). Only 1, and ,4
(b). Only 1,2 and 3
(c). Only 1,3 and 4
(d). None of the above
CHAPTER 3
Q14. Which of the following are ‘indirect
sources’ of knowing about Earth’s interior
1. Seismic waves
2. Meteorites
3. Gravitation
4. Magnetic field
Choose the correct options
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(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 2 and 3
(c). Only 3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q15. Consider the following statements
about “meteors” Which of the following is
correct
1. Material analyzed from meteors is
from the interior of the Earth.
2. When meteoroids enter Earth’s
atmosphere and burn up, the “
shooting stars” are called meteors.
3. When a meteoroid survives its
journey through the atmosphere and
hits the ground, it’s called a
meteorite.
4. Meteoroids are pieces of other, larger
bodies that have been broken or
blasted off. These come from
comets, asteroids, planets and the
Moon.
(a). Only 1 and 3
(b). Only 2,3 and 4
(c). Only 1,2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Q16.Consider the following statements
about “gravitation force” Which of the
following is correct
(a). It is not the same at different
latitudes on the surface
(b). It is greater near the poles
and less at the equator.
(c). The gravity values also differ
according to the mass of
material.
(d). All of the above
Page 2
Q17. Consider the following statements
about “earthquake” Which of the following (a). Only 1 and 2
is correct. (b). Only 1 and 3
1. The point where energy is released is (c). Only 1,2 and 4
called “focus” or hypocenter (d). All of the above
2. The point on the surface nearest to
focus is called epicenter.
3. Surface waves are of two types, P Q21. Consider the following statements
and S about types of CRUST. Which of the
4. S waves can travel through all three following is correct
mediums. 1. It is the outermost solid part of the
Earth.
(a). Only 1 and 2 2. Oceanic crust is thicker than
(b). Only 1 and 3 continental crust.
(c). Only 1,2 and 4 3. The continental crust is thicker in the
(d). All of the above areas of major mountain systems
4. This type of rock found in the
Q18.The instrument called seismograph is oceanic crust is basalt
used to record
(a). Only 1 and 2
(a). Earthquakes (b). Only 1, 3 and 4
(b). Floods (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). Volcanoes (d). All of the above
(d). Landslides
Q22. Consider the following statements
about types of mantle. Which of the
Q19.Consider the following statements following is correct
about types of earthquake. Which of the 1. Portion of interior beyond the core is
following is incorrect called mantle
2. It extends from moho discontinuity
(a). Tectonic- sliding of rocks to a depth of 2,900 km
along a fault plane 3. Upper portion of mantle is called
(b). Reservoir induced- in the asthenosphere
areas of large reservoir 4. Crust and the uppermost part of the
(c). Collapse- caused due to mantle are called asthenosphere
volcanic eruptions
(d). Explosion earthquakes- (a). Only 2 and 3
explosion of chemical or (b). Only 1, 3 and 4
nuclear devices (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Q20. Which of the following are the
immediate hazardous effects of Earthquake? Q23.Lithosphere refers to
1. Avalanches
2. Fires (a). Crust and uppermost part of
3. Tsunami the mantle
4. Floods (b). Crust and core

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 (c). Crust and asthenosphere
(d). Crust and mantle Q27. Which type of volcanic eruptions has
caused Deccan trap formations?
Q24. Consider the following statements
about types of “core”. Which of the (a). Shield
following is correct (b). Composite
1. Outer core is in solid state whereas (c). Flood
inner core is in liquid state (d). Caldera
2. Core is made up of very heavy
material mostly constituted by nickel
and iron
3. It is referred to as nife layer. CHAPTER 4

(a). Only 1,2 and 3 Q28.Which of the following evidences are

(b). Only 1 and 2 in support of Alfred Wegner’s Continental
(c). Only 2 and 3 Drift theory?
(d). All of the above
1. Matching of continents
Q25. Consider the following statements 2. Rocks of same age across the
about types of VOLCANOES. Which of the oceans
following is correct 3. Placer deposits
4. Distribution of fossils
1. Molten magma for the volcanoes Choose the correct options
release from asthenosphere
2. Once the magma reaches the surface, (a). Only 1 and 2
it’s called lava. (b). Only 1 and 3
3. Lava on cooling develops into (c). Only 1,2 and 3
igneous rocks (d). All of the above
4. Batholits, dyke, stock, are examples
of volcanic intrusive forms. Q29. Which of the following features about
“ocean floor relief” is incorrect
(a). Only 1,2 and 3 1. Continental margin is the transition
(b). Only 1 and 2 between continental shore and deep
(c). Only 2 and 3 sea basins
(d). All of the above 2. Abyssal plains lie between
continental margins and continental
Q26.These are the largest of all the slope
volcanoes on the earth. The Hawaiian 3. Mid oceanic ridges are
volcanoes are the most famous examples. interconnected chain of mountain
These volcanoes are? system within the ocean
4. Mid oceanic ridges are longest
(a). Composite mountain chain on the surface of the
(b). Shield earth though submerged under the
(c). Caldera oceanic waters.
(d). Flood Choose the correct options

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 (a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1,3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q30. Which area is referred to as “Ring of
Fire”
(a). Rim of the Pacific Ocean
(b). Indian ocean
(c). Arctic circle
(d). Antarctic circle
Q31. Which of the following statements are
a proof of “sea floor spreading theory”?
1. Presence of volcanic eruptions all
along the mid oceanic ridges
2. Rocks equidistant on either sides of
the crest of mid oceanic ridges show
remarkable similarities in terms of
period of formation, chemical
composition, magnetic properties.
3. Ocean crust rocks are much younger
than continental crust rocks
4. Sediments on ocean floor are
unexpectedly very thin.
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1,3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q32. Polar fleeing force relates to?
(a). Revolution of the earth
(b). Rotation of the earth
(c). Gravitation
(d). Tides
Q33. Which one of the following is NOT a
minor plate
(a). Nazca
(b). Arabia
(c). Philippines
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(d). Antarctica
Q34. Which one of the following facts was
not considered by those while discussing the
concept of sea floor spreading?
(a). Volcanic activity along the
mid oceanic ridges
(b). Stripes of normal and reverse
magnetic field observed in
rocks of ocean floor
(c). Distribution of fossils in
different continents
(d). Age of rocks from the ocean
floor
Q35. Which one of the following is the type
of plate boundary of the Indian plate along
the Himalayan mountains?
(a). Ocean- Continent
convergence
(b). Divergent boundary
(c). Transform boundary
(d). Continent- Continent
convergence
CHAPTER 5
Q36. Which one of the following is a
metallic mineral?
(a). Sulphur
(b). Phosphates
(c). Nitrates
(d). Gold
Q37. Lithification” refers to?
(a). Process in which sediments
compact under pressure,
expel connate fluids, and
gradually become solid rock
(b). Process in which solid rock
compact under pressure,
Page 5
 expel connate fluids, and
gradually become sediments
(c). Process in which sediments
compact under pressure,
expel connate fluids, and
gradually become liquid
(d). Process of formation of
lithosphere
Q38. Which one of the following rocks is
not matched correctly?
(a). Mechanically formed
Sedimentary rocks-
sandstone, shale, limestone
(b). Organically formed rocks-
chalk, coal
(c). Chemically formed
sedimentary rocks- loess,
coal
(d). Igneous- granite, pegmatite
Q39. Rock cycle refers to?
(a). Continuous process through
which old rocks are
transformed into new ones
(b). Continuous process through
which old rocks are
transformed into new ones
(c). Continuous process through
which igneous rocks are
transformed into
metamorphic ones
(d). Continuous process through
which sedimentary rocks are
transformed into new ones
Q40. Which one of the following is the
salient feature of metamorphic rocks?
CHAPTER 6
Q41.Consider the following statements
about endogenic and exogenic forces. Which
of the following is correct
1. Endogenic forces are external forces
and exogenic forces are internal
forces.
2. The actions of exogenic forces result
in wearing down (degradation of
relief/elevations and filling up
(aggradationof basins/ depressions,
on the earth’s surface.
3. The endogenic forces continuously
elevate or build up parts of the
Earth’s surface
4. The endogenic forces are mainly
land building forces and the
exogenic processes are mainly land
wearing forces
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). Only 2,3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q42. The energy needed for generating
endogenic processes is generated by
1. Radioactivity
2. Rotational friction
3. Tidal friction
4. Primordial heat from the origin of
the Earth
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). Only 2,3 and 4
(d). All of the above

(a). Changeable Q43. Consider the following statements

(b). Quite about diastrophic movements. Which of the
(c). Crystalline following is incorrect
(d). Foliation

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 (a). Orogenic- ocean building Choose the correct options
process
(b). Epirogenic- uplift/ warping (a). Only 1 and 2
of Earth’s crust (b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Diastrophism- building of (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
Earth’s crust (d). All of the above
(d). Plate tectonic- movement of
Earth’s crustal plates CHAPTER 7

Q44. The term “denudation” is used to refer

to Q48. Which of the following are
depositional landforms?
(a). Endogenic geomorphic 1. Alluvial fans
processes 2. Deltas
(b). Exogenic geomorphic 3. Floodplains
processes 4. Sinkholes
(c). Process of formation of Choose the correct options
volcanoes
(d). Plate tectonics (a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
Q45. “Solution, Carbonation, Hydration, (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
Oxidation and Reduction” are examples of (d). All of the above

(a). Mechanical weathering Q49. “These are smooth oval shaped ridge-
process like features composed mainly of glacial till
(b). Physical weathering process with some masses of gravel and sand”
(c). Biological weathering Which glacial landscape is it?
process
(d). Chemical weathering process (a). Drumlins
(b). Eskers
Q46. The following processes match the (c). Moraines
“processes” with their driving force. Which (d). Outwash plains
of the following is incorrect
Q50. Pediments and Pediplains are created
(a). Weathering- molecular stress by
(b). Mass movements-
gravitational force (a). Erosional landform of wind
(c). Erosion- kinetic energy erosion
(d). Endogenic- solar energy (b). Depositional landform of
wind erosion
Q47. Which of the following are soil (c). Erosional landform of water
forming factors erosion
1. Parent material (d). Erosional landform of soil
2. Biological activity erosion
3. Time
4. Heat from the interior of the Earth

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 Q55. Consider the following statements
CHAPTER 8 about dust particles. Which one of the
following is correct?
Q51. Arrange the following gases found in 1. Sea salts, fine soil, smoke soot,
the atmosphere in decreasing order pollen are all examples of dust
particles.
(a). Nitrogen> Argon> Oxygen> 2. They are concentrated in lower
Carbon Dioxide layers of atmosphere, yet
(b). Nitrogen> Oxygen> Argon> convectional air currents may
Carbon Dioxide’ transport them to great heights
(c). Carbon Dioxide> Nitrogen> 3. They don’t act as hygroscopic nuclei
Oxygen> Argon around which clouds form
(d). Carbon Dioxide> Oxygen> 4. Higher concentration is found in
Argon> Nitrogen equatorial and polar regions rather
than subtropical and temperate
Q52. Which gas is responsible for absorbing regions
the UV rays radiating from the Sun?
(a). Only 1 and 2
(a). Ozone (b). Only 1 and 3
(b). Carbon Dioxide (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). Nitrogen (d). All of the above
(d). Argon
Q56. Consider the following statements
Q53. Which one of the following are about structure of the atmosphere. Which of
greenhouse gases? the following is incorrect
1. Water vapour
2. Carbon dioxide (a). Radio waves transmitted by
3. Nitrous oxide Earth are reflected back to
4. Ozone the Earth in ionosphere
Choose the correct options (b). Stratosphere contains ozone
layer
(a). Only 1 and 2 (c). Thickness of troposphere is
(b). Only 1 and 3 greatest at the poles because
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3 heat is transported to great
(d). All of the above heights by strong
convectional currents
Q54. Which one of the following gases is (d). Troposphere is important
transparent to incoming solar radiation and layer for all biological
opaque to outgoing terrestrial radiation? activity

(a). Oxygen CHAPTER 9

(b). Nitrogen
(c). Helium Q57. The factors which cause the variability
(d). Carbon dioxide of insolation at the surface of the Earth are?
1.Rotation of Earth on its axis
2.Angle of inclination of sun’s rays

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 3.Length of the day
4.Transparency of the atmosphere
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Q58. Consider the following statements
about spatial distribution of insolation at the
earth’s surface. Which of the following is
incorrect
(a). Maximum insolation is
received over equator
(b). Insolation received at the
surface varies from about 320
watt/m2 in the tropics to
about 70 watt/m2 in the
poles.
(c). At the same latitude, the
insolation is more over the
continent than over the
oceans.
(d). In winter, the middle and
higher latitudes receive less
radiation than in summer.
Q59. “Albedo of the Earth” refers to
(a). Insolation received by the
Earth
(b). Greenhouse gases
(c). Movement of water on Earth
(d). Earth’s reflected amount of
insolation
Q60. Why does poles not get cooler and
tropics hotter?
(a). Because of Earth’s rotation
(b). Because of Gravitational
force
(c). Because of Redistribution of
Earth’s heat budget
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(d). Because of Plate Tectonics
Q61. What are the factors controlling
temperature distribution?
1. Latitude of the place
2. Altitude of the place
3. Air mass circulation
4. Presence of warm and cold ocean
currents
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Q62. “Isotherms” refers to
(a). Lines joining places having
equal pressure
(b). Lines joining places having
equal gradient
(c). Lines joining places having
equal temperature
(d). Lines joining places having
equal density
Q63. Which of the following conditions
should be fulfilled in order to have
“temperature inversion?
(a). A long winter night
(b). Clear skies
(c). Still air
(d). All of the above
Q64. The Sun is directly overhead at noon
on 21st June at:
(a). The Equator
(b). 23.5 N
(c). 23.5 S
(d). 66.5 N
Page 9
Q65. The atmosphere is mainly heated by
the:
(a). Short wave solar radiation
(b). Long wave terrestrial
radiation
(c). Reflected solar radiation
(d). Scattered solar radiation
Q66. The main reason that the earth
experiences highest temperatures in the
subtropics in the northern hemisphere rather
than at the equator is:
(a). Subtropical areas tend to
have less cloud cover than
equatorial areas
(b). Subtropical areas have longer
day hours in the summer than
the equatorial
(c). Subtropical areas have an
enhanced “greenhouse effect”
compared to equatorial areas
(d). Subtropical areas are nearer
to the oceanic areas than the
equatorial locations
CHAPTER 10
Q67. Consider the following statements
about forces affecting the velocity and
direction of wind. Which of the following is
“incorrect”
(a). Pressure gradient force is
strong where the isobars are
close to each other and is
weak where the isobars are
apart
(b). Frictional force is weakest at
the surface
(c). Coriolis force deflects the
wind to the right direction in
the northern hemisphere and
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
to the left in southern
hemisphere.
(d). Coriolis force is maximum at
the poles and is absent at the
equator.
Q68. Why are tropical cyclones not formed
near the Equator?
(a). Because Coriolis force is zero
(b). Because of high winds
(c). Because Coriolis force is the
highest
(d). Because of tsunami like
conditions
Q69. Pattern of planetary winds depends on
1. Latitudinal variation of atmospheric
heating
2. Emergence of pressure belts
3. Migration of pressure belts following
apparent path of the sun
4. Distribution of continents and oceans
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Q70. Hadley cell, Ferrell cell, polar cell are
(a). Ocean water circulations
(b). Crustal plate movements
(c). Atmospheric circulations
(d). Earthquake movements
Q71. Katabatic wind refers to?
(a). Wind that carries high-
density air from a higher
elevation down a slope under
the force of gravity
(b). Wind that carries low-density
air from a lower elevation up
Page 10
 a slope under the force of
gravity
(c). Local wind blowing in desert
areas
(d). Local wind blowing in ocean
beach are
Q72. “Frontogenesis” refers to
Q76. Which one of the following is the
source region for the formation of air
masses?
(a). Equatorial forest
(b). Himalayas
(c). Siberian plain
(d). Deccan plateau

(a). Convergence of warm and CHAPTER 11

cold ocean currents
(b). Convergence of air masses
(c). Convergence of hot and cold
wind
(d). Convergence of ITCZ
Q73. Which of the following conditions
should be met for tropical cyclones to
originate?
1. Large sea surface with temp lower
than 27 degree
2. Absence of Coriolis force
3. Small variations in vertical speed
4. A preexisting low pressure area
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 3
(b). Only 1 and 4
(c). Only 3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q74. The ITCZ generally occurs
(a). Near the Equator
(b). Near the tropic of cancer
(c). Near the tropic of Capricorn
(d). Near the Arctic circle
Q77. Dew point refers to
(a). Point at which saturation
occurs in a given sample of
air
(b). Point at which mist formation
happens
(c). Point at which ice melts
(d). Point at which fog formation
happens
Q78. When the dew point is above the
freezing point, which of the following is
made
(a). Dew
(b). Mist
(c). Rain
(d). Snow
Q79. Which of the following clouds are
black or dark gray in color, form at middle
level or near the surface of the earth,
extremely dense and opaque to the rays of
the Sun?

Q75. The direction of wind around a low (a). Cirrus

pressure in northern hemisphere is: (b). Cumulus
(c). Stratus
(a). Clockwise (d). Nimbus
(b). Anti-clock wise
(c). Perpendicular to isobars Q80. Which one of the following rainfall
(d). Parallel to isobars occurs along a mountain

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 (a). Convectional (d). Submarine Canyons
(b). Orographic
(c). Frontal Q84. Consider the following factors
(d). Cyclonic affecting the distribution of temperature of
ocean water. Which of the following is
correct?
CHAPTER 12 1. Latitude
2. Unequal distribution of land and
Q81. According to Koeppen, tropical water
climate refers to 3. Prevailing winds
4. Ocean currents
(a). Average temperature of the Choose the correct options
coldest month is 18° C or
higher (a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Potential evaporation exceeds (b). Only 1 and 3
precipitation (c). Only 1 and 4
(c). The average temperature of (d). All of the above
the coldest month is minus 3°
C or below Q85. Thermocline refers to
(d). Average temperature for all
months is below 10° C (a). Transition layer between cool
water at the surface and
Q82. Which of the following are causes of warm water deep below
climate change? (b). Transition layer between
1. Changes in solar output associated warm water at the surface
with sunspot activities and cool water deep below
2. Millankovitch oscillations (c). Transition between two
3. Volcanism pressure gradients
4. Increase in greenhouse gases (d). Transition between cold and
Choose the correct options warm front.

(a). Only 1 and 2 Q86. Identify the element which is not a part
(b). Only 1 and 3 of the hydrological cycle?
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above (a). Evaporation
(b). Hydration
(c). Precipitation
CHAPTER 13 (d). Condensation

Q83. These are “low island found in the Q87. Which one of the following is not a
tropical oceans consisting of coral reefs minor relief feature in the oceans?
surrounding a central depression”
(a). Seamount
(a). Atoll (b). Atoll
(b). Guyots (c). Oceanic deep/ trenches
(c). Sea mounts (d). Guyot

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 (b). Living organisms interact
with each other and the
CHAPTER 14 surrounding environment
(c). Living organisms interact
Q88. “Tide generating force” refers to? with each other only
(d). Plants and wildlife
(a). Difference between
gravitational attraction of the Q92. In the following cycle, the main
moon and centripetal force reservoir of nutrients is the atmosphere and
(b). Moon’s gravitational oceans
attraction only
(c). Moon and sun’s gravitational (a). Gaseous
attraction to the earth (b). Sedimentary
(d). Difference between (c). Both “A” and “B”
gravitational attraction of the (d). none of the above
moon and centrifugal force of
the Earth
Q93.Denitrification refers to?
Q89. Horizontal movement of water is
called (a). Conversion of nitrogen
wastes into nitrites
(a). Tide (b). Conversion of nitrites into
(b). Ocean Current nitrates
(c). Wave (c). Conversion of free nitrogen
(d). Both “B” And “C” into nitrates
(d). Converting nitrates into free
Q90. Spring tides are caused: nitrogen

(a). As result of the moon and the Q94. Ecological balance is a state of
sun pulling the earth
gravitationally in the same (a). Dynamic equilibrium within
direction a community of organisms
(b). As result of the moon and the (b). Equilibrium between two
sun pulling the earth ecosystem
gravitationally in the opposite (c). Equilibrium between living
direction and non-living beings
(c). Due to indention in the coast (d). Equilibrium between two
line species
(d). Due to centrifugal force
Q95. Tropical grasslands are also known as
CHAPTER 15
(a). Prairies
Q91. Ecosystem refers to (b). Steppes
(c). Savanna
(a). Living organisms interact (d). All of the above
with non-living organisms

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 13
 CHAPTER 16

Q96. “Hotspots of diversity “is a term used

to define

(a). Genetic diversity

(b). Species diversity
(c). Equatorial forest
(d). Ecosystem diversity

Q97. “Genetic biodiversity” refers to

(a). Variation of genes within

species
(b). Variation of genes within
plants
(c). Variation of genes within
animals
(d). Variation of genes within
biodiversity

Q98. Threatened species are those which:

(a). Threaten others

(b). Lion and tiger
(c). Are abundant in number
(d). Are suffering from the danger
of extinction

Q99. National parks and sanctuaries are

established for the purpose of :

(a). Recreation
(b). Pets
(c). Hunting
(d). Conservation

Q100. Biodiversity is richer in:

(a). Tropical Regions

(b). Temperate Regions
(c). Polar Regions
(d). Oceans

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 14
 CLASS XI: INDIA – PHYSICAL ENVIRONMENT
CHAPTER 1
Q1. With reference to the expanse of India,
the distance between east to west is less than
distance between north to south despite
being of equal degrees because
(a). Distance between two
longitudes decreases towards
the pole, whereas the distance
between the two latitudes
remains the same
everywhere.
(b). Distance between two
latitudes decreases towards
the pole, whereas the distance
between the two longitudes
remains the same
everywhere.
(c). Indian plate is tilted in the
direction of north east
(d). Apparent shape of Earth as
geoid
Q2. Which of the following facts about
India is INCORRECT?
(a). India has one time zone only.
(b). India is seventh largest
country in the world in terms
of its size.
(c). Sri Lanka and Maldives are
the only two island countries
which are our neighbours.
(d). Indian subcontinent
comprises of Pakistan, Nepal,
Bhutan, Bangladesh, India,
China and Sri Lanka.
Q3. What is Marusthali
(a). Snow covered mountains in
North India
(b). Great Indian Desert
(c). Fertile northern plains
(d). Coastal area
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
CHAPTER 2
Q4.Which of the following sets are wrong
wrt mountains and their location
(a). Himalayas- north
(b). Hindukush and Sulaiman
ranges- north west
(c). Purvachal- north west
(d). Western ghats- south
Q5. Which of the following are not correctly
matched
(a). Shipki La Pass
Himachal Pradesh
(b). Nathu La Pass
Sikkim
(c). Bomdi-La pass
Assam
(d). LipuLekh Pass
Uttarakhand
Q6. Which of the statements about Gulf and
Strait are INCORRECT?
1. A strait is a deep inlet of the sea,
surrounded by land, with a narrow
mouth whereas a gulf is a narrow
waterway that connects two large
water bodies.
2. Sri Lanka is separated from India by
the Gulf of Mannar and Palk Strait.
3. Palk Strait is situated between Tamil
Nadu and Sri Lanka.
4. Gulf of Mannar is situated at
southwestern tip of the subcontinent.
(a). Only 1 and 2 only
(b). Only 1 and 4 only
(c). Only 1,2 and 3
(d). All of the above
Page 15
Q7. India has which of the following Q13. Which of the following are NOT a part
climatic regions according to Koeppen’s of India’s geological regions
Scheme
(a). Peninsular block
(a). Tundra Tropical Savanah (b). Himalayas and other
(b). Semi-arid peninsular mountains
(c). Steppe (c). Indo- ganga Brahmaputra
(d). All of the above plain
(d). Oceans
Q8. Thick deposits of glacial clay and other
materials embedded with moraines are Q14. The following are part of the
known as peninsular block
(a). Cirque/Corrie 1. Deccan plateau
(b). Karewas 2. Central highlands
(c). Bugyals 3. Northeastern plateau
(d). Yardangs 4. Northern plains
Choose the correct options
Q9. Dun formations are a feature of the
following mountains (a). Only 1,2 and 3
(b). Only 1 and 2
(a). Punjab Himalayas (c). Only 1 and 3
(b). Kumaon Himalayas (d). All of the above
(c). Sikkim Himalayas
(d). Nepal Himalayas Q15. Which of the following statements
about peninsular block are INCORRECT
Q10. “Bugyals” refers to
(a). It consists of old mountains
(a). Thar desert like Aravali hills, Nallamala,
(b). Brahmaputra delta Javadi, Veliconda, Palkonda,
(c). Alpine meadows etc.
(d). Coral reefs (b). River valleys generally slope
is from east to west
Q11. Which state is referred to as Molassis (c). East flowing rivers form
Basin deltas before entering into
Bay of Bengal
(a). Manipur (d). Narmada, Tapi and Mahanadi
(b). Assam flow through rift valleys.
(c). Mizoram
(d). Nagaland Q16. Which of the following features of
Himalayas mountains is correct
Q12. Which plate was a part of Indian plate
(a). They are one of the oldest
(a). Australian plate mountain ranges
(b). African (b). They are formed by divergent
(c). Pacific plate boundaries.
(d). Antarctic

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 (c). Many of the Himalayan (a). Ganga and Kali
rivers have antecedent origin (b). Ravi and Kali
(d). They are no more subjected (c). Ganga and Indus
to the interplay of exogenic (d). Indus and Brahmaputra
and endogenic forces
Q21. Following statements match passes
Q17. Which of the following mountains are with location. Which of the following is
a part of Himalayas? incorrect
1. Kashmir Ranges
2. Darjeeling and Sikkim Ranges (a). Himachal Pradesh- Shipki la
3. Arunachal Himalayas (b). Uttrakhand- Lipulekh
4. Aravalli hills (c). Sikkim- Nathu la
Choose the correct options (d). J&K- Bara Lacha la

(a). Only 1 and 2

(b). Only 1,2 and 3 Q22. “Duar formations” are found in which
(c). Only 1 and 4 Himalayas
(d). All of the above
(a). Darjiling and Sikkim
Q18. Kashmir and Dal lake lies between (b). Himachal and Uttarakhand
Himalayas
(a). Great Himalayas and Pir (c). Eastern hills
Panjal range (d). Arunachal Himalayas
(b). Lesser Himalayas and
Shiwaliks Q23. Consider the following statements
(c). Great Himalayas and Pir about “Eastern Hill”. Which of the
Panjal Range following statements are correct
(d). Greater Himalayas and Trans 1. Their alignment is from west to east
Himalayas 2. Their local names are Patkai bum,
Naga hills, Mizo hills
Q19 Arrange the following Ranges from 3. These are very high hills
North to South 4. Most of these ranges are separated
1) Zanskar from each other by small rivers
2) Ladakh
3) Karakoram (a). Only 1 and 2
4) Pir Panjal (b). Only 2 and 4
5) Dhauladhar (c). Only 1 and 3
Choose the correct Option (d). All of the above
(a). 1>2>3>5>4
(b). 3>1>2>4>5 Q24. Consider the following statements
(c). 3>2>1>4>5 about “northern plains”. Which of the
(d). 1>3>2>4>5 following statements are correct
1. Divided into Khadar and Bhangar.
Q20. Uttarakhand Himalayas lies between 2. Plains have features of mature stage
which two rivers of depositional landforms like sand
bars, meanders, ox bow lakes etc.

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 3. Most of the areas are subjected to
periodic floods and shifting river (a). Only 1 and 2
courses forcing braided streams. (b). Only 2 and 4
4. States of Haryana and Delhi form a (c). Only 1, 2 and 4
natural water divide between Indus (d). All of the above
and Ganga river systems.
Q27. Consider the following statements
(a). Only 1 and 2 about deserts.
(b). Only 2 and 4 1. Desert land features include
(c). Only 1 and 3 mushroom rocks, shifting dunes and
(d). All of the above oasis
2. Most of the rivers flowing are
Q25. Consider the following statements perennial
differences between western and eastern 3. Luni is an important river
ghats. Which of the following statements are 4. Rivers form a case of inland
correct drainage.
1. Eastern ghats are known by names
like Sahayadri, Nilgiri hills, (a). Only 1 and 2
Anaimalai hills etc. (b). Only 2 and 4
2. Western ghats are comparatively (c). Only 1, 3 and 4
higher in elevation than Eastern (d). All of the above
ghats.
3. W. Ghats are more continuous than Q28. Consider the following statements
E. Ghats about western and eastern coastal plains
4. Their height increases from north to 1. Western coastal plains are
south submerged and Eastern coastal plains
are emergent in nature
(a). Only 1 and 2 2. Rivers flowing through western
(b). Only 2 and 4 coastal plain make wide deltas
(c). Only 1 and 3 3. Eastern coast has a smaller number
(d). All of the above of ports and harbours due to its
emergent nature.
Q26. Consider the following statements 4. Most of the rivers drain into eastern
about Northeastern plateau. Which of the coast
following is correct Choose the correct options
1. It is not an extension of the main
peninsular plateau (a). Only 1 and 2
2. Meghalaya plateau is also rich in (b). Only 2 and 4
mineral resources like coal, iron ore, (c). Only 1 and 4
limestone, uranium. (d). All of the above
3. It receives maximum rainfall from
south east monsoon Q29. Consider the following statements
4. Northeastern movement of Indian about Andaman and Nicobar islands. Which
plate caused a huge fault between of the following is correct
Rajmahal hills and Meghalaya 1. These are separated by 10-degree
plateau. channel

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 18
 2. They are believed to be elevated (b). A-2, B-3,C-4, D-1
portion of submarine islands (c). A- 4, B-2, C-3, D-1
3. Barren island, the only active (d). A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
volcano in India is situated in
Andaman Islands. Q33. Himalayan Drainage system refers to
4. It receives orographic rainfall and the following major rivers
has equatorial type of vegetation.
(a). Only Ganga
(a). Only 1 and 2 (b). Only Ganga and Indus
(b). Only 2 and 4 (c). Only Ganga and
(c). Only 1 and 4 Brahmaputra
(d). All of the above (d). Ganga, Indus and
Brahmaputra
Q30. On which of the following hill range is
the “Dodebeta” peak situated Q34. Which of the following rivers is known
as Singi Khamban?
(a). Nilgiri hills
(b). Anaimalai hills (a). Indus
(c). Cardamom hills (b). Ganga
(d). Nallamala hills (c). Brahmaputra
(d). Krishna
Q31. 8-degree channel separates
Q35. Consider the following statements
(a). Andaman and Nicobar about Indus. Which of the following is
(b). Maldives and Lakshadweep correct
(c). Minicoy and Maldives 1. It discharges into Arabian Sea, East
(d). India and Sri Lanka of Karachi.
2. It originates from glacier near
Bokhar Chu in Tibetan region in the
CHAPTER 3 Kailash Mountain range.
3. Chenab is the largest tributary of
Q32. Match the following terms with its Indus.
meaning 4. Tochi, Gomal, Viboa, Sangar are left
A. Catchment area 1. All the area drained bank tributaries
by a river and its tributaries
B. Drainage basin 2. Area of land where (a). Only 1 and 2
precipitation collects and drains off into a (b). Only 1,2 and 3
common outlet, such as into a river (c). Only 1 and 4
C. Watersheds 3. area of land that (d). All of the above
drains or “sheds” water into a specific
waterbody Q36. Match the following w.r.t Indus and its
D. River basins- 4.area of land over tributaries. Which of the following is
which rain falls and is caught to serve a river incorrect
basin
(a). Chenab- formed by Chandra
(a). A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4 and Bhaga.

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 (b). Ravi- rises west of Rohtang Q39. Which river is the largest peninsular
pass river system
(c). Beas- rises from Beas Kund,
Rohtang pass (a). Godavari
(d). Satluj- rises from a spring at (b). Kaveri
Verinag, Kashmir (c). Krishna
(d). Mahanadi
Q37. Consider the following statements
about peninsular drainage system. Which of Q40. Match the dams with their rivers
the following is INCORRECT 1. Bhakra Nangal Dam a.
Narmada
(a). Peninsular drainage system is 2. Sardar Sarovar b. Ravi
older than the Himalayan 3. Ranjit Sagar Dam c.
one. Sutlej
(b). It has features of broad, large 4. Maharana Pratap Sagar d. Beas
graded shallow valleys and
mature rivers. (a). 1-a, 2- b, 3-c, 4-d
(c). Western ghats serve as water (b). 1-c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
divide of peninsular rivers (c). 1- c, 2- a, 3- b, 4-d
(d). Peninsular rivers are (d). 1- b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d.
characterized by fixed course,
absence of meanders Q41. Consider the following statements
andperennialflow of water about Rivers of Kerela. Which of the
following is correct
Q38. Three major geological events in the 1. Lord Sabarimala temple is located on
distant past have shaped the present drainage the banks of Pamba river
system of peninsular India. Which of the 2. Pamba river falls in the Vemobanad
following are those? lake
3. Periyar is the longest river
(a). Subsidence of the western
flank of the Peninsula leading (a). Only 1 and 3
to its submergence below the (b). Only 1 and 2
sea level. (c). Only 2 and 3
(b). Upheaval of the Himalayas (d). All of the above
when the northern flank of
the Peninsular block was Q42. Consider the following rivers. Which
subjected to subsidence and of them are East flowing peninsular rivers.
consequent trough faulting. 1. Subarnekha
(c). Slight tilting of the 2. Sarada
Peninsular blocks from 3. Penner
northwest to the southeastern 4. Vaigai
direction gave orientation to
the entire drainage system (a). Only 1 and 3
(d). All of the above (b). Only 1 and 2
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above

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 (a). Dendritic- tributaries parallel
Q43. Which one of the following rivers flow in a uniform sloping
in a rift valley (b). Radial- streams radiate
outwards from a central high
(a). Son point
(b). Narmada (c). Rectangular- two directions
(c). Yamuna of jointing at approximately
(d). Luni right angles or 90 degrees
(d). Trellis- These tributaries
Q44. Which one of the following rivers is enter the main river about
not included in ‘Panchnad’ perpendicular, causing a
trellis-like appearance of the
(a). Ravi system.
(b). Indus
(c). Chenab Q48. Which river is known as Padma in
(d). Jhelum Bangladesh

Q45. Which one of the following is the (a). Ganga

place of confluence of the Alaknanda and (b). Yamuna
Bhagirathi (c). Brahmaputra
(d). Indus
(a). Vishnu Prayag
(b). Karan Prayag CHAPTER 4
(c). RudraPrayag
(d). Dev Prayag Q49. Which of the following factors
determine the climate of India?
Q46. Consider the differences between 1. Latitude
Himalayan and peninsular rivers. Which of 2. Himalaya Mountains
the following is correct 3. Altitude
1. Peninsula rivers are much younger 4. Relief
than the Himalayan rivers
2. Peninsular rivers are perennial rivers (a). Only 1 and 3
3. Himalayan rivers are examples of (b). Only 1 and 2
antecedent drainage. (c). Only 3 and 4
4. The Himalayan rivers flow through (d). All of the above
deep V – shaped valleys called
gorges. Q50. Which of the following factors
influence winter weather in India?
(a). Only 1 and 3
(b). Only 1 and 2 (a). Distribution of pressure in
(c). Only 3 and 4 central and west Asia
(d). All of the above (b). Dry northwestern winds
(c). Western jet stream
Q47. Following are drainage patterns. (d). Western cyclonic disturbance
Which of the following is incorrect. Choose the correct options

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 21
 (a). Only 1 and 3
(b). Only 1 and 2
(c). Only 3 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q51. Which of the following influence
summer monsoon in India
(a). Northward shifting of ITCZ
(b). Eastern jet stream
(c). Tropical cyclones
(d). All of the above
Q52. “Seasonal reversal of winds” refers to
(a). Monsoon
(b). Trade winds
(c). Cyclonic conditions
(d). Local winds like loo
Q53. “Break in monsoon” refers to
(a). Arrival of northeast monsoon
(b). Dry spells in between
monsoon
(c). Winter showers
(d). El nino and La nina
Q54. “Break in monsoon” happens when the
following condition is met
(a). In north India when rain
bearing storms are not very
frequent along the monsoon
trough or ITCZ over this
region.
(b). Over the west coast the dry
spells are associated with
days when winds blow
parallel to the coast.
(c). None of the above
(d). Both A and B
Q55. Tahiti Index is used to measure:
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(a). Intensity of southwest
monsoon winds of southern
oscillation
(b). Intensity of El Nino and La
Nina
(c). Arrival of tsunami
(d). Destruction caused by
earthquake
Q56. Consider the following statements
about winter monsoon.Which of the
following is incorrect.
(a). It causes rainfall in all the
parts of India
(b). In northwestern India, some
weak temperate cyclones
from the Mediterranean sea
cause rainfall in Punjab,
Haryana, Delhi, western UP
(c). Winter monsoon moves from
land to sea
(d). During October to
November, while crossing
over the Bay of Bengal, picks
up moisture and causes
torrential rainfall over Tamil
Nadu coast, southern Andhra
Pradesh, etc.
Q57. What are mango shower, blossom
shower, nor westers?
(a). Local storms of hot water
season
(b). Pre monsoon rain
(c). Irrigation for the cultivation
of monsoon
(d). Winter cold winds
Q58. Consider the following characteristics
of monsoonal rainfall. Which of the
following is correct
(a). Rainfall received from
southwest monsoon is
perennial in nature
Page 22
 (b). It is largely governed by
relief or topography
(c). Monsoon rainfall has a
increasing trend with
increasing distance from the
sea
(d). Monsoon rains occur in wet
spells of few days duration at
a time
Q59. Retreating monsoon causes the most
rain in October and November in the
following region
(a). Eastern part of the peninsula
(b). Western part of the peninsula
(c). Northeastern Himalaya
(d). Western coast
Q60. Which among the following regions
receives high rainfall
(a). Western UP
(b). Meghalaya
(c). Gujarat
(d). Punjab
Q61. Which among the following is
responsible for climatic classification of
Koeppen?
(a). Temperature and rainfall
(b). Temperature and relief
(c). Rainfall and altitude
(d). Temperature and altitude
Q62. Match the following climatic regions
of India according to Koeppen’s Scheme
1. Monsoon with short dry season
a. Western Rajasthan
2. Monsoon with dry summer
b. Coromandel coast of TN
3. Semi-arid steppe climate
c.West coast, south of Goa
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
4. Hot desert
d. North westGujarat, some
parts of Rajasthan, Punjab.
(a). 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(b). 1-d. 2-c, 3-a, D-b
(c). 1-c, 2- b, 3-d, 4-a
(d). 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
Q63. Consider the following benefits of
monsoon in India. Which of the following is
correct
1. Agricultural cycle revolves around it.
2. Regional variation in monsoon helps
in growing various types of crops.
3. Winter rainfall by temperate
cyclones in north India is highly
beneficial for crops(rabi)
4. Sudden monsoon burst creates
problem of soil erosion.
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1, 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q64. What causes rainfall on the coastal
areas of Tamil Nadu in the beginning of
winters
(a). South west monsoon
(b). North eastern monsoon
(c). Temperate cyclones
(d). Local air circulation
Q65.What is the proportion of area of India
which receives annual rainfall less than 75
cm
(a). Half
(b). Two Third
(c). One Third
(d). Three Fourth
Page 23
Q66. Which one of the following is NOT a
fact regarding South India?
(a). Diurnal range of temperature
is less here
(b). Annual range of temperature
is less here
(c). Temperature here IS high
throughout the year
(d). Extreme climatic conditions
are found here
Q67. Which one of the following
phenomena happens when the sun shines
vertically over the Tropic of Capricorn in
the southern Hemisphere?
(a). High pressure develops over
north western India due to
low temp
(b). Low pressure develops over
north western India due to
high temperatures
(c). No changes in temperature
and pressure occur in north
western India
(d). “Loo” blows in the north
western India.
CHAPTER 5
Q68. These forests are found in western
slope of western Ghats; warm and humid
areas with annual precipitation of over
200cm and annual temp above 22 degree
Celsius. These are
(a). Tropical Deciduous forests
(b). Tropical thorn forest
(c). Montane
(d). Tropical evergreen forest
Q69. Rosewood, Mahogany, Aini, Ebony
species of trees are found in the following
forest
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(a). Tropical Deciduous forests
(b). Tropical thorn forest
(c). Montane
(d). Tropical evergreen forest
Q70. Consider the following statements
about Tropical deciduous forests. Which of
the following is correct
1. These are the most widespread
forests in the India
2. They are also called monsoon forests
3. They spread over regions which
receive rainfall between 70-20cm
4. In the dry season, tree shed their
leaves completely.
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q71. Khair, Neem, Khejri, Palas are
vegetation species of which forest
(a). Tropical Deciduous forests
(b). Tropical thorn forest
(c). Montane
(d). Tropical evergreen forest
Q72. Gujjars, Bakarwals, Bhotiyals and
Gaddis tribe engage in the practice of
(a). Transhumance
(b). Hunting gathering
(c). Slash and burn agriculture
(d). Nature worship
Q73. Temperate forests are also known as
which of the following
(a). Sholas in the nilgiris
(b). Anaimalai
(c). Palani hills
(d). All of the above
Page 24
Q74. Which of the following are Wetlands
(a). Vast saline expanse of
Rajasthan, Gujarat, Gulf of
Kachchh
(b). Floodplains of Brahmaputra
(c). Lakes and rivers of the
montane region of Kashmir
and Ladakh.
(d). Freshwater marshes of the
Gangetic plains.
Q75. Consider the following statements
about forest area and forest cover.
1. Forest cover is the area notified and
recorded as the forest land
irrespective of the existence of trees,
while the actual forest area is the
area occupied by forests with
canopy.
2. Forest area is based on the records of
State Revenue Department while the
forest cover is based on aerial photos
and satellite imageries.
3. Both forest area and forest cover are
same in all the states.
4. Lakshadweep had 0 % forest area.
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q76. Which of the following measures are
needed to conserve forest
1. Checking soil erosion
2. Increasing forest cover through
social forestry and afforestation.
3. Encourage substitution of wood
4. Creating people’s movement to
encourage conservation of forest
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q77. Consider the following statements
about Social Forestry. Which of the
following statement is incorrect
1. It means management and protection
of forests and afforestation on barren
lands with the purpose of helping in
environment, rural, social
development.
2. It is of two types Urban forestry,
rural forestry
3. Urban forestry refers to growing of
trees and agri crops on the same land
inclusive of waste patches
4. Community forestry refers raising of
trees on community land like village
pasture, temple land etc.
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 4
(c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q78. Which of the following are reasons for
declining wildlife in India
1. Industrial dev causing exploitation of
resources
2. Incidence of forest fire
3. Hunting was taken as a sport
4. Land cleared for agriculture, human
settlement, roads, mining etc.
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 4
(c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q79. Which of the following is correct
regardig Aim of Wildlife Protection Act,
1972:
Page 25
 (a). To provide protection to the (a). Nilgiris
endangered species listed in (b). Panna
the schedule of the act (c). Sunderbans
(b). To provide legal support to (d). Nanda Devi
the conservation areas of the
country Q84. “Dugong Dugon” is found in
(c). Both A and B
(d). None of the above (a). Gulf of Mannar
(b). Lakshadweep
Q80. Which of the following biosphere (c). Orissa
reserve is NOT under Man and Biosphere (d). Assam
Reserve
CHAPTER 6
(a). Nilgiri
(b). Nanda Devi Q85. Urvara and Usara are the names of
(c). Nokrek
(d). Cold desert (a). Types of soil
(b). Types of cropping season
Q81. Nagarhole, Bandipur, Madumalai, (c). Types of clouds
Silent Valley are a part of which biosphere (d). Types of paddy
reserve
Q86. Consider the following statements
(a). Pachmarhi about Alluvial soil. Which of the following
(b). Seshachalam is correct.
(c). Nilgiri 1. They are depositional soils,
(d). Agasthyamalai transported and deposited by rivers
and streams.
Q82. Consider the following statements 2. They are rich in phosphorus but poor
about Sunderbans biosphere reserve in potash
1. Made from the delta of only Ganga 3. Khadar is the old alluvium and
river system bhangar is new alluvium.
2. It comprises closed and open 4. Both Khadar and Bangar contain
mangrove forest calcareous concretions(kankars)
3. It is spread in only one country i.e.
India (a). Only 1 and 2
4. It is home to Royal Bengal tigers (b). Only 1 and 4
Choose the correct options (c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1 and 4 Q87. Consider the following statements
(c). Only 2 and 4 about Black soil. Which of the following is
(d). All of the above correct
1. It covers deccan peninsula
Q83. Which was the first biosphere reserve 2. It is also known as “black cotton
of India? soil”

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 3. They are generally clayey, deep and Q92. Adding which of the following helps in
impermeable solving the problem of salinity in the soil?
4. It absorbs the moisture for a very
long time (a). Water
(b). Gypsum
(a). Only 1, 2 and 4 (c). Cement
(b). Only 1 and 4 (d). Legumes
(c). Only 2 and 4
(d). All of the above Q93. “In the areas of intensive cultivation
with excessive use of irrigation, fertile
Q88. Which of the following soil is known alluvial soils are becoming saline” What is
as “Regur Soil” the reason?

(a). Black (a). Excessive use of chemicals

(b). Alluvial (b). Excessive use of ground
(c). Laterite water
(d). Forest (c). Over use of fertilizers
(d). Due to capillary action
Q89. Which one of the following soil
develops on crystalline igneous rocks? Q94. Consider the following statements
about soil erosion. Which of the following is
(a). Black correct
(b). Red
(c). Alluvial 1. Sheet and gully erosion are examples
(d). Laterite of wind erosion
2. Sheet erosion takes place on level
Q90. How does red soil develop its color lands after heavy shower and soil
removal is easily noticeable
(a). Due to wide diffusion of iron 3. Gully erosion happens on steep
in crystalline and slopes
metamorphic rocks. 4. A region with a large no of deep
(b). Due to subsoil being red in gullies or ravines is called badland
color topography.
(c). Due to widespread rainfall
(d). Due to desertification (a). Only 1, 2 and 4
(b). Only 1 and 4
Answer: A (c). Only 3 and 4
Q91. Which soil is used as brick in house (d). All of the above
construction
Q95. Which of the following measures can
(a). Red help in conserving soil
(b). Black 1. Land with a slope gradient of 15-25
(c). Laterite percent should not be used for
(d). Alluvial cultivation
2. Stopping over grazing and shifting
cultivation

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 3. Contour bunding, contour terracing, (a). Speed of wave is
crop rotation should be done more in the shallow
4. Efforts to create gully plugging, water than in ocean
terracing or by planting cover deep
vegetation. (b). Speed of wave is
Choose the correct options more in the ocean
deep than in shallow
(a). Only 1, 2 and 4 water
(b). Only 1 and 4 (c). There is no Coriolis
(c). Only 3 and 4 force
(d). All of the above (d). Lack of high wind
speed
CHAPTER 7
Q99. Which of the following conditions
Q96. Yokohama strategy is related to what need to be met for the emergence of a
event? tropical cyclone
1. Large and continuous supply of cold
(a). Water conservation air
(b). Soil conservation 2. Weak Coriolis force
(c). Disaster management 3. Unstable condition through the
(d). Reducing greenhouse gases troposphere that creates local
disturbances around which a cyclone
Q97. One can have disaster preparedness for develops
Earthquake by following certain guidelines. 4. Absence of strong vertical wind
Which of the following are correct wedge, which disturbs the vertical
guidelines? transfer of latent heat.
1. Establishing earthquake monitoring Choose the correct options
centers.
2. Preparing a vulnerability map of the (a). Only 1, 2 and 4
country (b). Only 1 and 4
3. Modifying the house types and (c). Only 3 and 4
building designs in the vulnerable (d). All of the above
areas
4. Use lighter materials in major Q100. “Storm surge” refers to
construction activities in vulnerable
areas (a). Local storms in the
subcontinent
(a). Only 1, 2 and 4 (b). Storm in the middle of the
(b). Only 1 and 4 ocean
(c). Only 3 and 4 (c). Abnormal rise of sea level as
(d). All of the above the cyclone crosses the coast.
(d). Abnormal rise of sea level as
Q98. Why is the ship at sea not much the tsunami crosses the coast
affected by Tsunami

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 CLASS XII: FUNDAMENTALS OF HUMAN GEOGRAPHY
CHAPTER 1 & 2
Q1. “Natural growth of population” refers
to
(a). Difference between births
and deaths in a particular
region between two points of
time
(b). Births – Deaths + In
Migration – Out Migration
(c). Change of population in a
particular area between two
points of time is known as
growth of population
(d). None of the above
Q2. Components of Population Change are
(a). Birth
(b). Death
(c). Migration
(d). All of the above
Q3. Which of the following are “Push
Factors” for migration?
1. Poverty
2. Promise of a better life
3. Lack of employment opportunities
4. Better employment opportunities
Choose the correct Options
(a). Only 2 and 4
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q4. “Demographic cycle” refers to
(a). Population of any place changes
from high births and high deaths to
low births and low deaths as society
progresses from rural agricultural
and illiterate society to urban
industrial and literate society
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
(b). Population of any place changes
from low births and high deaths to
low births and low deaths as society
progresses from rural agricultural
and illiterate society to urban
industrial and literate society
(c). Population of any place changes
from high births and low deaths to
low births and low deaths as society
progresses from rural agricultural
and illiterate society to urban
industrial and literate society
(d). Population of any place changes
from low births and low deaths to
high births and high deaths as society
progresses from rural agricultural
and illiterate society to urban
industrial and literate society
Q5. Which one of the following continents
has the highest growth of population?
(a). Australia
(b). North America
(c). Africa
(d). Asia
CHAPTER 3
Q6. Which of the following statements
about “Working Population Composition” is
INCORRECT
(a). The population of India
according to their economic
status is divided into two
groups, namely; main
workers and marginal
workers.
(b). Main Worker is a person who
works for at least 183 days in
a year.
(c). A marginal Worker is a
person who works for less
than 183 days in a year
Page 29
 (d). The work participation rate is (d). High birth rate and low death
defined as the percentage of rate
total workers (main and
marginal) to the total CHAPTER 4
population.
Q11. Who created Human development
Q7. Pyramid of Age structure means Index in 1990

(a). Refers to the number of working (a). Amartya Sen

population and dependent (b). World Bank
population (c). UNDP
(b). Refers to the number of females (d). Mahbub Ul Haq
and males in different age groups
(c). Refers to number of children and Q12. Human Development Report is
old age people published by
(d). Refers to only females in a
country (a). World Bank
(b). UNDP
Q8. Working age population refers to [VERY (c). United Nations
BASIC but important] (d). Amnesty International

(a). 15-59 Q13. Which of the following are pillars of

(b). 15- 64 Human Development?
(c). 18-59 1. Equity
(d). 18-64 2. Sustainability
3. Productivity
Q9. Sex ratio is measured in India as [VERY 4. Empowerment
BASIC but important] Choose the correct options

(a). Sex ratio =Female population (a). Only 1 and 2

* 100/Male Population
(b). Sex ratio=Female population
* 1000/Male Population
(c). Sex ratio= Male population *
100/female Population
(d). Sex ratio= Male population *
1000/female Population
Q10. What is peculiar about Japan’s age
pyramid?
(a). low birth rate and death rate.
(b). Low birth rate and high death
rate
(c). high birth rate and high death
rate
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above
Q14. Which of the following are approaches
to human development
1. Income approach
2. Expenditure approach
3. Welfare approach
4. Basic needs approach
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4
(c). Only 1 and 3
(d). All of the above

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Q15. In calculating HDI, the following (a). Only 1 and 2
indicators are used (b). Only 1, 3 and 4
1. Health (c). Only 1 and 4
2. Sex ratio (d). All of the above
3. Education
4. Access to resources Q19. Pastoralism refers to
Choose the correct options
(a). Cultivation of grain
(a). Only 1 and 2 (b). Cultivation of grapes
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4 (c). Cultivation of fishes
(c). Only 1 and 3 (d). Rearing of animals on
(d). All of the above pastures

Q16. Which country proclaims the Gross Q20. Transhumance refers to

National Happiness Index
(a). Process of migration from plain
(a). Bhutan areas to mountains during
(b). India summers and vice versa in
(c). Sweden winters
(d). Netherlands (b). Process of migration from
mountain areas to plain areas
Q17. The difference between “Growth” and during summers and vice versa in
“Development” is that winters
1. Growth is quantitative but (c). Process of moving from one
development is qualitative place to another like a nomad
2. Growth is qualitative but (d). None of the above
development is quantitative
3. Growth can only be positive Q21. Jhuming, Milpa, Ladang are examples
4. Development can only be positive of
Choose the correct options
(a). Nomadic herding
(a). Only 1 and 2 (b). Slash and burn agriculture or
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4 shifting agriculture.
(c). Only1 and 4 (c). Plantation farming
(d). All of the above (d). Hunting gathering

Q22. The following crops are grown as

CHAPTER 5 plantation crops
1. Coffee
Q18. Primary activities refers to 2. Rubber
1. Fishing 3. Sugarcane
2. Quarrying 4. Banana
3. Forestry Choose the correct options
4. Agriculture
Choose the correct options (a). Only 1 and 2

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 (b). Only 1, 3 and 4 (a). Market gardening
(c). Only 1 and 4 (b). Plantation agriculture
(d). All of the above (c). Mediterranean agriculture
(d). Commercial grain farming
Q23. Truck farming is used for
Q27. Which one type of agriculture amongst
(a). Specialization in the the following is also called “slash and burn”
cultivation of fruits only agriculture
(b). Specialization in the
cultivation of horticulture (a). Extensive subsistence
only agriculture
(c). Specialization in the (b). Primitive subsistence
cultivation of vegetables only agriculture
(d). Specialization in the (c). Extensive commercial grain
cultivation of sugarcane only cultivation
(d). Mixed farming
Q24. “Kolkhoz” was a system of
Q28.Which one of the following does not
(a). Water irrigation system follow monoculture
(b). Harvesting of renewable
energy (a). Dairy farming
(c). It is based on social (b). Plantation agriculture
ownership of the means of (c). Mixed farming
production and collective (d). Commercial grain farming
labour
(d). Privatization of agriculture
CHAPTER 6
Q25. Which of the following are benefits of
“Cooperative Farming” Q29. Consider the following characteristics
1. Economies of scale about modern large-scale manufacturing.
2. Solves the problem of fragmentation Which of the following is correct
of land 1. Specialization of skills
3. More men- material- money 2. Mechanization
resources 3. Technological innovation
4. More productivity 4. Access to market
Choose the correct options Choose the correct options

(a). Only 1 and 2 (a). Only 1 and 2

(b). Only 1, 3 and 4 (b). Only 1, 3 and 4
(c). Only 1 and 4 (c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above (d). All of the above

Q26. In which one of the following types of Q30. Foot Loose Industries, is a type of
agriculture is the farming of citrus fruits recently flourishing industry. It can be
very important indicated from which of the following:

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 32
 (a). Diamond (a). Cottage industries
(b). Computer chips (b). Basic industries
(c). Mobile manufacturing (c). Small scale industries
(d). All of the above (d). Footloose industries

Q31. Which of the following are agro based Q35. India has the following types of
Industries Industries
1. Textile
2. Sugar (a). Public sector only
3. Coffee (b). public and private sector only
4. Leather (c). private sector only
Choose the correct options (d). Public, private, joint sector/
co-operative
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4 CHAPTER 7
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above Q36. Difference between “Quaternary” and
“Quinary Service” is
Q32. Ruhr coal Industry is based in
(a). Quinary sector represents the
(a). Germany highest category of decision
(b). France makers who formulate policy
(c). Russia guidelines whereas Quaternary is
(d). India part of tertiary sector of the
economy which is knowledge
Q33. Which one of the following statements based.
is INCORRECT (b). Quaternary sector represents the
highest category of decision
(a). Cheap water transport has makers who formulate policy
facilitated the jute mill industry guidelines whereas Quinary is part
along the Hoogli of tertiary sector of the economy
(b). Sugar, cotton textiles, and which is knowledge based.
vegetable oils are footloose (c). Quaternary is a part of secondary
industries sector whereas quinary sector is a
(c). The development of petroleum and part of tertiary sector
hydroelectricity reduced, to a great (d). Quaternary is a part of tertiary
extent, the importance of coal sector whereas quinary is a part of
energy as a locational factor for manufacturing sector
Industry.
(d). Port towns in India have attracted Q37. “Digital divide” refers to
Industries
(a). Number of people who have social
Q34. Which one of the following types of media account vis a vis number of
Industries produces raw materials for other people who don’t
Industries (b). Gap between demographics and
regions that have access to modern

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 information and communications
technology, and those that don't or
have restricted access.
(c). Reach of ICT based services
(d). Number of services which are
online with respect to services
which are still paper based
Q38. “Outsourcing” helps in
1. Time zone advantage
2. Cost advantages
3. Access to experts
4. Greater competitive advantage
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 2
(b). Only 1, 3 and 4
(c). Only 1 and 4
(d). All of the above
CHAPTER 8
Q39. Following are highways with their
places. Choose the INCORRECT one
(a). NH 1 - Delhi-Ambala-
Jalandhar-Amritsar-Indo-Pak
Border
(b). NH 10 - Delhi-Fazilka-Indo
Pak Border
(c). NH 11 - Delhi- Mumbai
(d). NH 20 - Pathankot -Mandi
Q40. Consider the following statements
about waterways. Which of the following is
INCORRECT
(a). NW1- Sadiya- Dhubri
(b). NW2- Sadiya-Dhubri
(c). NW3- Kottapuram – Kollam
(d). NW4- Kakinada–Puducherry
stretch of canals, Kaluvelly
Tank, Bhadrachalam
Rajahmundry, Waziraba–
Vijayawada
Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS
Q41. Which is the longest waterways in
India?
(a). Sadiya Dhubri
(b). Brahmaputra
(c). West Coast Canal,
Champakara Canal, and
Udyog Mandal Canal
(d). The Ganga-Bhagirathi-
Hooghly
Q42. The BIG INCH PIPELINE transports
(a). Milk
(b). Water
(c). LPG
(d). Petroleum
CHAPTER 9
Q43. “Dumping of good” as a practice refers
to
(a). Manufacturers or marketers
export a product to another
nation at a price that is lesser
than the home country price
or lesser than the production
cost
(b). Dumping of non-renewable
waste
(c). Landfill burning
(d). Manufacturers or marketers
export a product to another
nation at a price that is
greater than the home country
price or greater than the
production cost
Q44. Consider the following statements
about WTO.
– 1. WTO’s forerunner GATT was
founded in 1995
2. India is a member of WTO since
1995
Page 34
 3. WTOis the only global international 1. Lucknow
organization dealing with the rules of 2. Puri
trade between nations. 3. Varanasi
4. TRIPS, TRIMS, AOA are WTO 4. Jaipur
agreements Choose the correct options
Choose the correct options
(a). Only 1 and 3
(a). Only 1 and 2 (b). Only 1 and 4
(b). Only 2, 3 and 4 (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). Only 1 and 3 (d). All of the above
(d). All of the above
Q49. “SUBURBANISATION” refers to
Q45. What are the pros of free trade
1. Elimination of global monopolies (a). Suburbanization is a
2. Competition on a global level population shift from villages
3. Increase of global monopolies to urban areas
4. Decrease in competition on a global (b). Suburbanization is a
level population shift from central
Choose the correct options urban areas into suburbs
(c). Suburbanization is a
(a). Only 1 and 2 population shift from suburbs
(b). Only 2, 3 and 4 to cities
(c). Only 1 and 3 (d). Suburbanization is a
(d). All of the above population shift from suburbs
to villages
Q46. “These ports are collection centers
where goods are brought in from different
countries for export” This port is

(a). Entrepot ports

(b). Ports of call
(c). Oil ports
(d). Packet station

CHAPTER 10

Q47. Which one of the following forms of

settlement develops along either side of
roads, rivers and canals

(a). Circular
(b). Cross shaped
(c). Linear
(d). Square

Q48. Examples of “cultural towns” are

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 CLASS XII: INDIA PEOPLE AND ECONOMY

2. Better medical, educational facilities

CHAPTER 1 3. Marriage
4. Safety
Q50. Which period is referred to as period Choose the correct options
of population explosion in India?
(a). Only 1 and 3
(a). 1951-1981 (b). Only 1 and 4
(b). 1891-1921 (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(c). 1921-1951 (d). All of the above
(d). 1981 to present
Q56. What is the primary reason for women’
Q51. Which language family constitutes the migration, according to recent census:
highest percentage in India
(a). Marriage
(a). Dravidian (b). Job
(b). Indo- European (c). Safety
(c). Sino Tibetan (d). health facilities
(d). Austric
Q57. Reverse Migration refers to
Q52. Which state has the highest percentage
of urban area (a). Migration to Pakistan
(a). Goa (b). Migrating to places of Indian
(b). Kerala diaspora
(c). TN (c). Migrating back to India
(d). UP (d). Migration of Anglo Indians
back to England
Q53. In which sector is the highest
proportion of working population Q58. Consider the following statements
(a). Manufacturing about social consequences of migration.
(b). Agriculture sector 1. Social change
(c). Services sector 2. Diffusion of new ideas
(d). Mining 3. Increase in women’s status
4. Technological advancement
CHAPTER 2 Choose the correct options

Q54. According to Census 2001, migration (a). Only 1 and 3

to India from which country is the highest? (b). Only 1 and 4
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(a). Pakistan (d). All of the above
(b). Afghanistan
(c). Bangladesh CHAPTER 3
(d). Bhutan
Q59. Human development refers to
Q55. Which of the following are reasons for
people to migrate from rural to urban area
1. Better job opportunities

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 36
 (a). Process of enhancing people’s CHAPTER 4
freedoms and opportunities and
improving their well-being. Q62. Panna, Para, Palli, Nagla, Dhani are
(b). Seeing people as means to an end examples of
(c). Developing human resources for
development (a). Hamlet settlement
(d). Economic development for the (b). Dispersed settlement
benefit of humans (c). Clustered settlement
(d). None of the above
Q60. Child sex ratio refers to
Q63. Which of the following are Industrial
(a). Number of males per thousand towns?
females in the age group 0–6
years in a human population (a). Jamshedpur
(b). Number of females per thousand (b). Raniganj
males in the age group 0–6 years (c). Ambala
in a human population (d). Pilani
(c). Number of females per thousand
males in the age group 0–8 years Q64. Which one of the following towns is
in a human population NOT located on river bank?
(d). Number of males per thousand
females in the age group 0–8 (a). Agra
years in a human population (b). Patna
(c). Bhopal
Q61. Consider the following statement about (d). Kolkata
Gender Development Index(GDI).
1. The GDI measures gender gaps in Q65. “Conurbation” refers to
human development achievements
by accounting for disparities between (a). Decline of urbanization
women and men (b). Large area of urban
2. The GDI shows how much women development that resulted
are lagging behind their male from the merging of
counterparts and how much women originally separate towns or
need to catch up within each cities.
dimension of human development. (c). Rural countryside
3. It uses two basic dimensions of (d). Merging of neighborhoods
human development
4. It uses the same component CHAPTER 5
indicators as in the HDI.
Choose the correct options Q66. Net Area Sown refers to

(a). Only 1 and 2 (a). Any land which is left fallow

(b). Only 1 and 3 (uncultivated) for more than
(c). Only 1,2 and 4 five years is included in this
(d). All of the above category

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 (b). This is the land which is left (b). Rainfed
without cultivation for one or (c). Terrace farming
less than one agricultural (d). Subsistence farming
year
(c). land which is left Q71. “Aus” “aman” and “boro” are varieties
uncultivated for more than a of
year but less than five years
(d). The physical extent of land (a). Wheat
on which crops are sown and (b). Jute
harvested is known as net (c). Sugar
sown area (d). Rice

Q67. “Any land which is left fallow for Q72. Which coarse grain occupies the
more than five years” is highest cropped area?

(a). Culturable waste land (a). Jowar

(b). Forest (b). Bajra
(c). Barren and waste land (c). Maize
(d). Land put to non-agricultural (d). None of the above
uses
Q73. Which of the following is a food crop
Q68. Which of the following land have as well as fodder crop?
undergone highest rate of increase?
(a). Jowar
(a). Area under non-agricultural (b). Bajra
uses (c). Maize
(b). Culturable waste land (d). Rice
(c). Forest
(d). Barren and waste land Q74. Which of the following crops help in
“nitrogen fixation”
Q69. Total cultivable land can be arrived at
by adding up (a). Rice
1. Net sown Area (b). Pulses
2. All fallow lands (c). Wheat
3. Culturable wasteland. (d). Maize
4. Barren and waste land
Choose the correct options Q75. This plant needs a long frost-free
period, a lot of heat and plenty of sunshine,
(a). Only 1 and 2 clear sky during flowering stage. It prefers
(b). Only 1,2 and 3 warm and humid climate. India grows both
(c). Only 1 and 3 its varieties.
(d). All of the above
(a). Cotton
Q70. “BARANI” farming refers to (b). Tea
(c). Coffee
(a). Irrigated (d). Jute

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 Q80. Codex Alimentarius is related to

CHAPTER 6 (a). Food

(b). Water
Q76. Which country is the largest producer (c). Waste management
of milk (d). Fisheries

(a). China CHAPTER 7

(b). Bangladesh
(c). India Q81. Which state is the leading producer of
(d). Pakistan Manganese?

Q77. Consider the following statement (a). Tamil Nadu

related to livestock farming. Which of the (b). Kerala
following is INCORRECT (c). Orissa
(d). MP
(a). Blue Revolution: Milk
Production Q 82. Following is an indispensable metal in
(b). Brown Revolution: Leather the electrical industry for making wires,
(c). Golden Revolution: Honey electric motors, transformers and generators.
Production It is alloy-able, malleable and ductile. It is
(d). Silver Revolution: Egg also mixed with gold to provide strength to
Production / Poultry jewelry
Production
(a). Iron
Q78. Operation Flood was related to? (b). Copper
(c). Steel
(a). Disaster management (d). Lead
(b). Water harvesting
(c). Building of dams Q83. The following mineral occurs in rock
(d). Milk production sequences mainly of two geological ages,
namely Gondwana and tertiary deposits
Q79. Deep Sea fishing is characterized by:
1. Generally, at an average sea depth of (a). Iron
200m. (b). Copper
2. Large mechanized fishing vessel (c). Gold
3. Technologically advance and large (d). Coal
net/ gears
4. On –board Refrigeration facilities CHAPTER 8
Choose the correct options
Q84. An optimum location for Iron and
(a). Only 1 and 2 Steel Industries is near
(b). Only 1 and 3
(c). Only 1, 2 and 3 (a). Near raw material sources
(d). ALL of the above (b). Near the sea coast
(c). Near the market

Geography through NCERT MCQs| Revise Prelims syllabus through 3000+ MCQs| Sunya IAS Page 39
 (d). Anywhere in the supply chain (c). Tea
(d). Sugarcane
Q85. Ideal place for locating petroleum
refineries is Q90. Petrochemical Industries is divided
into the following groups
(a). Near the market 1. Polymers,
(b). Near the ports 2. Synthetic fibers
(c). Both A and B 3. Elastomers
(d). Neither A and B 4. Surfactant intermediate
Choose the correct options
Q86. During the Second Five Year Plan
(1956-61), which new integrated steel (a). Only 1 and 2
plants were set up with foreign (b). Only 1 and 3
collaboration: (c). Only 1,2 and 3
1. Rourkela in Orissa (d). All of the above
2. Bhilai in Chhattisgarh
3. Durgapur in West Bengal Q91. 1991 Industrial Policy initiated
4. Bokaro steel plant measures such as
Choose the correct options 1. Abolition of industrial licensing,
2. Free entry to foreign technology,
(a). Only 1,2 and 3 3. Foreign investment policy,
(b). Only 1 and 4 4. Access to capital market,
(c). Only 1 and 3 Choose the correct options
(d). All of the above
(a). Only 1 and 2
Q87. Which of the following is a major (b). Only 1 and 3
Industrial region (c). Only 1, 2 and 3
(d). All of the above
(a). Ambala- Amritsar
(b). Gurgaon- Delhi- Meerut CHAPTER 9
(c). Durg- Raipur
(d). Bilaspur- Korba Q92. The publication of ‘The Population
Bomb’ by Ehrlich in 1968 and ‘The Limits
Q88. In 1854, the first modern cotton mill to Growth’ by Meadows and others in 1972
was established in led to development of

(a). Mumbai (a). Sustainable planning

(b). Chennai (b). Rapid economic development
(c). Kolkata (c). Focus on ozone layer
(d). Goa repletion
(d). Decreasing greenhouse gases
Q89. Khandsari, Gur, Jaggery, are by Q93. Indira Gandhi Canal is situated in
products of
(a). Haryana
(a). Jute (b). Rajasthan
(b). Coffee (c). Punjab

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 (d). Gujarat (b). Kandla
CHAPTER 10 (c). Mumbai
(d). Paradwip
Q94. Golden Quadrilateral connects

(a). Delhi- Mumbai- Chennai- CHAPTER 12

Kolkata
(b). Delhi- Mumbai- Pune- Q99. Which of the following pollutants are
Chennai involved in air pollution
(c). Agra- Delhi- Mumbai- 1. Oxides of sulphur (SO2 , SO3 ),
Chennai 2. Oxides of nitrogen,
(d). Srinagar- Delhi- Mumbai- 3. Carbon monoxide,
Chennai 4. Hydro-carbon, ammonia
Choose the correct options
Q95. Khardung la pass is situated in
(a). Only 1 and 2
(a). Himachal Pradesh (b). Only 1 and 3
(b). Uttrakhand (c). Only 1,2 and 3
(c). Ladakh (d). All of the above
(d). Sikkim
Q100. Which of the following are sources of
Q96. Konkan Railway connects the land pollution
following areas
(a). Improper human activities
(a). Roha in Maharashtra to (b). Disposal of untreated
Mangalore in Karnataka industrial waste,
(b). Thane in Maharashtra to (c). Use of pesticides and
Mangalore in Karnataka fertilizers.
(c). Pune in Maharashtra to (d). All of the above
Chennai
(d). Pune to Goa

CHAPTER 11

Q97. The following port is a natural harbour

and the biggest port of the country

(a). Kandla
(b). Kochi
(c). Mumbai
(d). Kolkata

Q98. Which of the following port has a land

locked harbour

(a). Visakhapatnam

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