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ANSWER KEY
1. (a) 7. (a) 13. (a) 19. (b) 25. (a) 31. (b) 37. (a) 43. (d)
2. (b) 8. (d) 14. (b) 20. (a) 26. (c) 32. (c) 38. (b) 44. (a)
3. (d) 9. (d) 15. (b) 21. (d) 27. (a) 33. (a) 39. (a) 45. (a)
4. (c) 10. (d) 16. (d) 22. (c) 28. (c) 34. (c) 40. (d) 46. (b)
5. (a) 11. (d) 17. (c) 23. (b) 29. (d) 35. (a) 41. (c) 47. (c)
6. (c) 12. (d) 18. (a) 24. (c) 30. (a) 36. (a) 42. (a) 48. (a)
10. (d) The twinkling of a star is due to the atmospheric an extra full moon that appears in a subdivision of a
refraction of starlight. The scientific name for year, either the third of four full moons in a season
the twinkling of stars is stellar scintillation (or or, recently, a second full moon in a month of the
astronomical scintillation). Stars twinkle when we see common calendar. The phrase has nothing to do with
them from the Earth’s surface because we are viewing the actual color of the moon, although a literal “blue
them through thick layers of turbulent (moving) air moon” (the moon appearing with a tinge of blue) may
in the Earth’s atmosphere. occur in certain atmospheric conditions; e.g., when
11. (d) All the given phenomena are the effect of the there are volcanic eruptions or when exceptionally
rotation of the earth. The Earth rotates from the west large fires leave particles in the atmosphere.
towards the east. As viewed from the North Star or 19. (b) Comets revolve round the sun only in long
polestar Polaris, the Earth turns counter-clockwise. elliptical orbit. A comet develops a tail when it gets
12. (d) Eclipse of moon occurs when the moon comes close to the sun.
between the sun and the earth and it causes the 20. (a) The eclipse of sun occurs when the moon comes
shadow of the moon to fall on earth. A lunar eclipse between the sun and the earth.
occurs when the Moon passes directly behind the 21. (d) The black color on the sun is because the planet
Earth into its umbra (shadow). This can occur only behaved as a black hole during its transit. A transit
when the Sun, Earth, and Moon are aligned (in of Venus across the Sun takes place when the planet
“SYZYGY”) exactly, or very closely so, with the Venus passes directly between the Sun and Earth (or
Earth in the middle. Hence, a lunar eclipse can only
another planet), becoming visible against (and hence
occur the night of a full moon.
obscuring a small portion of) the solar disk. During
13. (a) The albedo of an object determines its visual a transit, Venus can be seen from Earth as a small
brightness when viewed with reflected light. Albedo black disk moving across the face of the Sun. The
is the fraction of solar energy (shortwave radiation) duration of such transits is usually measured in hours
reflected from the Earth back into space. It is a (the transit of 2012 lasted 6 hours and 40 minutes).
measure of the reflectivity of the earth’s surface.
22. (c) The earth is nearest to the sun on about January
14. (b) We always see the same face of moon because
3rd. Earth is farthest from the sun on about 4th July.
it takes equal time for revolution around the earth
23. (b) Deimos is the satellite of Mars. Europa is the
and rotation on its own axis.
satellite of Jupiter. Tethys is the satellite of Saturn.
15. (b) The inexhaustible source of energy of the
Titan is the satellite of Uranus.
stars is due to conversion of Hydrogen to Helium.
In the interior of a star, the particles move rapidly 24. (c) The nearest large galaxy of Milky Way is the
in every direction because of the high temperatures Andromeda galaxy. The Andromeda Galaxy is a
present. Every so often a proton moves close enough spiral galaxy approximately 2.5 million light years
to a nucleus to be captured, and a nuclear reaction from Earth in the Andromeda constellation. Also
takes place. Only protons of extremely high energy known as Messier 31, M31, or NGC 224, the sun’s
(many times the average energy in a star such as the nearest known star is a red dwarf star called proxima
Sun) are capable of producing nuclear events of this centauri. Proxima Centauri is a red dwarf about 4.24
kind. A minimum temperature required for fusion is light years from the Sun, inside the G-cloud, in the
roughly 10 million K. Since the energies of protons constellation of Centaurus.
are proportional to temperature, the rate of energy 25. (a) The planet Neptune appears blue in colour.
production rises steeply as temperature increases. The presence of methane gas in the atmosphere of
17. (c) Asteroids are small rocky planetoids, while Neptune is responsible for its colour. Neptune is the
comets are formed of frozen gases held together eighth and farthest planet from the Sun in the Solar
by rocky and metallic material. Comets show a System. It is the fourth largest planet by diameter
perceptible growing tail, while asteroids do not. and the third largest by mass. Among the gaseous
18. (a) The Blue Moon phenomenon occurs, when two planets in the solar system, Neptune is the most dense.
full moons occur in the same month. A blue moon is Neptune is 17 times the mass of Earth.
B-10 || Astronomy
26. (c) The earth looks blue when seen from the space investigate Mars, Venus and Mercury from 1962
due to the presence of large amount of water. to 1973. The program included a number of firsts,
27. (a) Venus is the brightest object in the sky after the including the first planetary flyby, the first pictures
sun. Venus is the second planet from the sun in our from another planet, the first planetary orbiter, and
solar system. the first gravity assist maneuver.
28. (c) Our solar system is located in the orion arm of 34. (c) Only two planets Venus and Uranus revolve
the milky way galaxy, about two-third of the way out around the sun from east to west while other planets
from the centre. The sun is about 26,000 light-years revolve around the sun from west to east.
from the center of the Milky Way Galaxy, which is 35. (a) The sun is the heart spot of the solar system
about 80,000 to 120,000 light-years across (and less which is the source of energy of all organism of
than 7,000 light-years thick). We are located on one of the earth. The Sun produces energy by the nuclear
its spiral arms, out towards the edge. It takes the sun fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core. It means
(and our solar system) roughly 200-250 million years that, since there is a huge amount of hydrogen in the
to orbit once around the Milky Way. In this orbit, we core, these atoms stick together and fuse into a helium
(and the rest of the Solar System) are traveling at a atom. This energy is then radiated out from the core
velocity of about 155 miles/sec (250 km/sec). and moves across the solar system.
31. (b) According to Nova hypothesis, Solar planets 36. (a) These measurements confirm geophysical
were formed because of explosion of Super Nova. A models that say that the temperature difference
star becomes Super Nova in that stage when it has between the solid core and the mantle above must
lack of hydrogen elements. A supernova happens be at least 1,500° C to explain why the earth has
where there is a change in the core, or center, of a a magnetic field. The research team, which was
star. A change can occur in two different ways, with led by Agnes Dewaele from the CEA, a French
both resulting in a supernova. technological research organisation, used X-rays
The first type of supernova happens in binary from the European Synchrotron Radiation Facility
star systems. Binary stars are two stars that orbit (ESRF) in Grenoble, France, as a key investigating
the same point. One of the stars, a carbon-oxygen tool.
white dwarf, steals matter from its companion star. 37. (a) As Earth revolves around the Sun, there are two
Eventually, the white dwarf accumulates too much moments each year when the Sun is exactly above
matter. Having too much matter causes the star to the equator. These moments — called equinoxes
explode, resulting in a supernova. — occur around March 20 or 21 and September 22
or 23. Equinox literally means “equal night,” since
The second type of supernova occurs at the
the length of day and night is nearly equal in all
end of a single star’s lifetime. As the star runs out
parts of the world during the equinoxes. When the
of nuclear fuel, some of its mass flows into its
Northern Hemisphere starts to tilt toward the sun in
core. Eventually, the core is so heavy that it cannot
spring, the Southern Hemisphere starts to tilt away
withstand its own gravitational force. The core
from the sun, signaling the start of fall. Thus, in the
collapses, which results in the giant explosion of a
Southern Hemisphere, the March equinox is called
supernova. The sun is a single star, but it does not
the autumnal equinox, and the September equinox is
have enough mass to become a supernova.
called the vernal equinox.
32. (c) Moon is the satellite of Earth. Ganymede is the The summer solstice occurs when the tilt of
satellite of Jupiter. Tritan is the satellite of Saturn. a planet’s semi-axis, in either the northern or the
Titan is the satellite of Neptune. southern hemisphere, is most inclined toward the
33. (a) Uranus is a planet. Moon is a satellite. Halley star (sun) that it orbits. Earth’s maximum axial tilt
is a comet. Mariner is a artificial satellite. The toward the sun is 23° 26’. This happens twice each
Mariner program was a program conducted by the year, at which times the sun reaches its highest
American space agency NASA in conjunction with position in the sky as seen from the north or the
Jet Propulsion Laboratory (JPL) that launched a south pole.
series of robotic interplanetary probes designed to The summer solstice occurs during a
Geography || B-11
hemisphere’s summer. This is the northern solstice C. The planet second from the sun in the
in the northern hemisphere and thesouthern solstice solar system is – Venus
in the southern hemisphere. Depending on the shift D. Planet nearest to the sun – Mercury
of the calendar, the summer solstice occurs some 41. (c) A galaxy is a huge system of billions of stars
time between June 20 and June 22 in the northern and clouds of dust and gases.
hemisphere[2][3] and between December 20 and 43. (d) The Global Positioning System (GPS) is a
December 23 each year in the southern hemisphere. space-based satellite navigation systems that
Winter solstice is an astronomical phenomenon provides and time information in all weather,
which marks the shortest day and the longest night anywhere in the Earth.
of the year. Winter solstice occurs for the Northern GPS Country
Hemisphere in December and for the Southern 1. GPS USA
Hemisphere in June. The point at which the Sun’s 2. GLONASS Russia
path crosses the celestial equator moving from 3. Galileo Europe
north to south is called the autumnal equinox. the 4. Compass China
equinox in autumn, on about 22 September in the 5. Gagan India
northern hemisphere and 20 March in the southern 44. (a) The shape of the Earth is very close to that of
hemisphere. an oblate spheroid, a sphere flattered along the axis
38. (b) A prime meridian is a meridian (a line of from pole to pole such that there is bulge around
longitude) in a geographical coordinate system equator. This bulge results from the rotation of the
at which longitude is defined to be 0°. A prime Earth and causes the diameter at the equator to be 43
meridian and its opposite in a 360°-system, the km large than the pole to pole diameter.
180th meridian (at 180° longitude), form a great 45. (a) Kapler’s law give a description of the motion
circle. This great circle divides the sphere, e.g., the of planets around the Sun. Kepler’s are laws
Earth, into two hemispheres. are
The Tropic of Cancer, also referred to as the 1. The orbit of every planet is an ellipse with the
Northern Tropic, is the most northerly circle of Sun at one of two faces.
latitude on the Earth at which the Sun may appear
2. A line joining a planet and the Sun sweeps out
directly overhead at its culmination.
equal areas during intervals of time.
The International Date Line (IDL) is an
46. (b) A ocean current is a continuous, directed
imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface
movement of ocean water generated by the forces
located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the
acting upon this mean flow, such as breaking
Greenwich Meridian.
waves, wind, coriolis effect, cabbeling, temperature
ArcticCircle is an imaginary circle round the
and salinity differences and tides caused by the
earth, parallel to the equator, at latitude66° 32′ N;
gravitational pull of the Moon and the Sun.
it marks the northernmost point at which the sun
appearsabove the level of the horizon on the winter 47. (c) The Milky Way glaxy is the home of our solar
solstice. system. It is very difficult to study this glaxy because
ROPIC OF CAPRICORN is the parallel of the solar system is located within it. It seems to be a
latitude that is approximately 231⁄2 degrees south spiral glaxy.
of the equator and that is the southernmost latitude 48. (a) Lunar eclipse takes place when the Earth comes
reached by the overhead sun directly between the Sun and the Moon. Solar eclipse
40. (d) A. The smallest planet of the solar system is happens when the Moon comes directly between the
– Pluto Sun and the Earth. Lunar eclipse takes place when the
B. The largest planet of the solar system is – Sun comes directly between the Earth and the Moon.
Jupiter
2 Physical Geography
23. Consider the following statements: (c) There is sudden increase in the velocity of P
1. The axis of the Earth’s magnetic field is waves along the mantle core boundary.
1ϒ (d) The inner core of the earth is in molten
inclined at 23 and half to the geographic
2 state.
axis of the Earth. Codes:
2. The Earth’s magnetic pole in the Northern (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in (c) 1 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
northern Canada. 28. Which one of the following characteristics of
3. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through the earth is not explained by the tetrahedral
Thumba in South India. hypothesis?
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) Drifting of the continents.
correct? (b) Location of chain of Fold Mountains around
(a) 2 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the Pacific Ocean.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, and 3
24. Which one of the following is the correct sequence (c) Antipodal arrangement of the continents and
of the descending order of the latitudinal zones oceans.
of ocean salinity? Use the codes given below to (d) Triangular shape of the continents and the
select the correct answer: oceans.
1. 10°N — 15°N 29. Which of the following is the correct order of
2. 15°N — 40°N current of the South Atlantic Ocean from Equator
3. 40°N — 50°N and back?
4. 50°N — 70°N 1. Benguela
Codes: 2. Brazil
(a) 1, 3, 2, 4 (b) 2, 1, 3, 4 3. South Atlantic Drift
(c) 2, 1, 4, 3 (d) 1, 4, 3, 2 4. South Equatorial
25. The correct chronological order of the following
Codes:
geological epochs is
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 3, 2, 1, 4
(a) Pleistocene, Pliocene, Holocene, Miocene.
(b) Miocene, Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene. (c) 4, 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 4, 1
(c) Holocene, Miocene, Pleistocene, Pliocene. 30. Which one of the following is not a correct
(d) Pliocene, Pleistocene, Holocene, Miocene. statement about Coriolis force?
26. The formation of the Mid-Atlantic Ridge is a (a) It affects wind direction.
typical example of the process of (b) It is an effect of the rotational movement of
1. Convergence 2. Divergence the earth.
3. Shear 4. Sea floor spreading (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and
Select the correct answer from the following maximum at the equator.
codes: (d) The magnitude of Coriolis Effect is
Codes: determined by the wind speed, mass of the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 moving body and sine of latitude.
(c) 2 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
31. Consider the following statements and select the
27. Study the following statements about the interior
correct answer from codes given below:
of the earth and select the correct answer from the
codes given below: Assertion (A): Tropical areas get more
(a) The average density of the outer crust is insolation than the temperate
2.8. area.
(b) The crust is separated from the mantle by Reason (R): Tropical areas have larger length
the Gutenberg discontinuity. of day than the temperate areas.
B-16 || Physical Geography
Codes: 35. In an Anticyclone
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (a) Barometric pressure is high towards centre
explanation of A. of the system.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (b) Winds blow in clockwise direction in
explanation of A. southern hemisphere.
(c) A is true, but R is false. (c) Weather remains moist and sky is cloudy.
(d) A is false, but R is true. (d) Situation of calm prevails and weather
32. Consider the following statements regarding the changes rapidly.
Tidal hypothesis: 36. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct
1. It is a monistic hypothesis. answer with the help of the codes:
2. It was propounded by the British scientist List-I List-II
James Jeans. (Land forms) (Agents of formation)
3. It holds filament responsible for the origin of A. Faults 1. Glacial activity
the solar system. B. Flood plains 2. Fluvial effects
Which of the statements given above are C. Coral reefs 3. Organic activity
correct? D. Moraines 4. Earth movement
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only Codes:
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 A B C D
33. With reference to Kober’s Theory of Geosyncline, (a) 1 3 2 4
consider the following: (b) 4 2 3 1
Term Meaning (c) 3 1 4 2
1. Orogen : Geosyncline (d) 2 3 1 4
2. Kratogen : Foreland 37. Study the following statements and select the
3. Randketten : Marginal ranges correct answer from the codes given below:
Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly 1. The average density of rocks in the lower
crust of the earth is 3.
matched?
2. There is a gradual decrease in the velocity of
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only
the seismic waves through the lower crust.
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The mantle-core boundary is marked by
34. Consider the following statements and select the
Moho-discontinuity.
correct answer using the codes given below:
4. The outer core of the earth is in molten
Assertion (A): Basalt is a dark coloured and fine
form.
grained igneous rock formed by
Codes:
magma.
(a) 1 and 2 are correct
Reason (R): Magma inside of the earth are
(b) 2 and 3 are correct
cooled very slowly because of
(c) 3 and 4 are correct
higher temperature prevailing
(d) 1 and 4 are correct
there. 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A (Era) (Epoch)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Palaeozoic 1. Jurassic
explanation of A. B. Mesozoic 2. Archean
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Pre Cambrian 3. Oligocene
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Cainozoic 4. Silurian
Geography || B-17
97. Match list I with list II and select the correct 1. The point of origin of Earthquake is called
answer using the codes given below the lists: epicenter.
List I List II 2. The lines joining the places which were
(Minerals) (Distribution) affected Earthquake at the same point of
(A) Iron-ore (i) South Africa time are called homoseismal lines.
(B) Manganese (ii) France Select the correct answer using the codes given
(C) Limestone (iii) North Sweden below
(D) Platinum (iv) Georgia (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Codes: (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) A - iii, B - iv, C - ii, D - i 102. What would be the influence on the weather
(b) A - i, B - ii, C - iii, D - iv conditions when in mid-winter a feeble high
(c) A - ii, B - iii, C - iv, D - i pressure develops over the North-Western part of
(d) A - i, B - iii, C - ii, D - i India?
98. Which of the following pairs is not correct? 1. High and dry winds would blow outward
I. Kalpakkam – Tamil Nadu from this high pressure area.
II. Tarapur – Uttar Pradesh 2. The Northern plain would become cold.
III. Rana Pratap Sagar– Rajasthan 3. Scorching winds (locally called loo) would
IV. Kaiga – Karnataka blow during the day time.
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. There would be torrential rains brought by
below: thunderstorms.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, III and IV Select the correct answer using the codes given
(c) I and IV (d) Only IV below
99. Match list I with list II and select the correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (c) 3 and 4 (d) All of these
List I List II 103. Which of the following gases in the atmosphere
(water bodies) (Distribution of water in %) is/are responsible for acid rains ?
(A) Oceans (i) 0.0001 1. Oxides of sulphur
(B) Ice caps (ii) 0.0019 2. Oxides of nitrogen
(C) Atmosphere (iii) 97.3 3. Oxides of carbon
(D) Rivers (iv) 2.0 Select the correct answer using the codes given
Codes: below
(a) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i) (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) (c) Only 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) A - (iii), B -(i), C - (ii), D - (iv) 104. Which among the following phenomenas can
(d) A - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) occur when very warm and humid air is rising
100. Which of the following is/are West flowing over a mass of a very cold air?
river(s) of India? 1. Calm weather
1. Mahanadi 2. Krishna 2. Snowfall
3. Narmada 4. Kavery 3. Storms and cyclonic storms
Select the correct answer using the codes given 4. Intense rain and hail
below Select the correct answer using the codes given
(a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 2 and 3 below
(c) Only 3 (d) 1 and 3 (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
101. Which of the following statements relating to (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
Earthquakes is/are correct?
B-26 || Physical Geography
105. Consider the following statements (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 3 and 4
1. Ozone is mostly found in the stratosphere (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 2 and 4
2. Ozone layer lies 25 to 30 km above the 109. Consider the following statements
surface of the Earth 1. National parks are a special category of
3. Ozone absorbs ultraviolet radiation from the protected areas of land and sea coasts where
Sun. people are an integral part of the system.
4. Ozone layer has no significance for life on 2. Sanctuaries are concerned with conservation
the Earth of particular species.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Biosphere reserves are connected with the
correct? habitat of a particular wild animal.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 Which of the statement given above is/are
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 correct?
106. Which of the following statement regarding (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) Only 2
ozone layer within the atmosphere is/are correct? (c) 1 and 2 (d) 1 and 3
1. It absorbs most of the ultraviolet radiation 110. Consider the following statements :
found in the Sun’s rays. 1. Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere
2. Chlorofluorocarbons are serious threat to the lies below an altitude of 1000 m.
ozone layer. 2. The amount of precipitable water in the
Select the correct answer using the codes given atmosphere increases from the equator to the
below poles.
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
107. Which of the following statements regarding red
111. Consider the following statements :
soils of India is/are correct?
1. Coal is a sedimentary rock.
1. The colour of the soil is red due to ferric 2. Basalt is an igneous rock.
oxide content. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Red soils are rich in lime, humous and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
potash. 112. Which of the following statements characterize
3. They are porous and have friable structure. the anticyclones?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Anticyclones are low pressure systems.
below 2. They are characterized by divergent wind
(a) Only 1 (b) 1 and 3 circulation.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. They are indicative of dry weather
108. Which of the following best explain why the conditions.
lower course of a river is sometimes chocked
Select the correct answer using the code given
with sediments?
below?
1. The valley of a river is widest in its lower
(a) 2 and 3 only (b) 1 and 3 only
course.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 only
2. The velocity of a river in its lower course is
low. 113. Consider the following statements related to
3. The delta sometimes develops in a river’s stratification of atmospheric layers
lower course. 1. All storms and cloudiness are restricted to
4. Much of the river water is drawn for stratosphere.
irrigation in the lower course. 2. Cirrus clouds are formed on the top layers of
Select the correct answer using the codes given troposphere.
below 3. Stratosphere is also an ‘isoclinal layer’.
Geography || B-27
Which of the statements given above are correct? radiations from the Earth’s surface exceeds
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 the energy received from the Sun at 4:00 p.m.
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 3. Energy received by the Earth from solar
114. Which among the following statements radiations continues to exceed the energy lost
characterized EI Nino? by outgoing long-wave radiations from the
I. It occurs at irregular intervals Earth’s surface up to 4:00 p.m.
II. It carriers warmer water Select the correct answer using the code given
III. It carries less saline water below :
IV. Its atmospheric equivalent is southern Code :
oscillation. (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
Select the correct, answer using the code given (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
below 118. Arrange the following tropical forest groups in the
(a) I and II only (b) II and III only correct order of sequence based on area covered in
(c) III and IV only (d) I, II, III and IV
India beginning from the largest covered area:
115. Consider the following statements regarding
1. Moist deciduous 2. Dry deciduous
Andaman and Nicobar Islands
I. It enjoys equatorial climate 3. Wet evergreen 4. Semi-evergreen
II. This is the only place in India where a volcano Select the correct answer using the code given
is located below :
III. This is the only place in India where coral Code :
bed is found (a) 1-2-3-4 (b) 3-4-2-1
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 1-3-2-4 (d) 4-3-2-1
correct? 119. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only 1. The angle of the axis in relation to the plane
(c) II and III only (d) I only in which the earth revolves around the sun is
116. Match list I with list II and select the correct answer not constant.
using the code given below the lists : 2. The amount of energy given off by the
List I List II sun changes with the transparency of the
(Agents of erosion) (Topographical feature) atmosphere. Select the correct answer using
(A) Running water 1. Cirque the code given below.
(B) Glacier 2. Barchan (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(C) Wind 3. Rift Valley
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(D) Underground 4. Doline
120. Which of the following statements relating to
Water 5. Gorge
tsunami is/are correct?
Codes : As the tsunamis leave the deep water of the open
(a) A-5; B-1; C-2; D-4 sea and travel towards shallow water
(b) A-5; B-2; C-1; D-3 1. the speed considerably
(c) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-5 2. they attain enormous height is reduced
(d) A-3; B-4; C-1; D-2 3. they appear as a gentle rise and fall of the sea
117. The Earth’s surface receives maximum energy Select the correct answer using the code given
at 12 noon but the maximum temperature never below.
occurs at 12 noon. State which of the following (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
reasons are correct. (c) 1 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. Transformation of solar energy into heat 121. Consider the following statements :
requires some time. 1. In the coastal regions, the land breeze blows
2. The loss of energy through long-wave over to the sea during night.
B-28 || Physical Geography
2. In the coastal regions, during night, the air 124. Assertion (A) : Granite has larger crystals than
over the sea is warmer than the air over land. basalt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Reason (R) : Basalt has larger content of metallic
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 minerals.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 125. Assertion (A) : Most of the weather changes are
122. Which of the following statements is/are confined to troposphere.
correct? Reason (R) : Most of the atmospheric mass is
1. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone is a low contained in this layer.
pressure belt which forms an important zone 126. Assertion (A): Trees in Mediterranean region
have thick bark.
of contact over Northern India and Pakistan.
Reason (R) : It is an adaptation to long summer
2. Inter-Tropical Convergence Zone invites drought.
inflow of winds from different directions. 127. Assertion (A) : Within the equatorial regions
Select the correct answer using the code given the highlands have experienced the maximum
below : economic development.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only Reason (R) : These have been the areas settle by
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Europeans.
123. Match list I with list II and select the correct 128. Assertion (A) : USA grows sugarcane in the Gulf
answer using the codes given below the lists: coast region.
List I List II Reason (R) : The climate of this region is warm
(A) Mahogany (i) Tropical Deciduous and moist.
forests 129. Assertion (A) : Yak is an important animal of
(B) Shisham (ii) Mediterranean Tibetan Highlands.
vegetation Reason (R) : This is a small animal requiring less
(C) Eucalyptus (iii) Tropical Evergreen grazing.
forests 130. Assertion (A) : China is a leading producer of
(D) Citrus fruits (iv) Temperate Evergree Rice but does not export rice.
forests Reason (R) : Chinese rice is of inferior quality
Codes: and there is no demand for it in the international
(a) A-(iii), B- (i), C- (iv), D- (ii) market.
(b) A - (i), B - (ii), C- (iii), D- (iv) 131. Assertion(A) : Mercator’s projection has been
(c) A- (ii), B- (iii), C- (iv), D- (i) used for making navigational charts.
(d) A- (iii), B- (iv), C- (ii), D- (i) Reason (R) : Loxodromes are shown as straight
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 124-131): Consider the following lines on this.
statements and select the correct answer with the help
of codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R Explains A
(b) Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Geography || B-29
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 15. (a) 29. (c) 43. (c) 57. (d) 71. (b) 85. (b) 99. (a) 113. (d) 127. (a)
2. (d) 16. (a) 30. (c) 44. (c) 58. (c) 72. (c) 86. (d) 100. (c) 114. (d) 128. (a)
3. (a) 17. (b) 31. (c) 45. (d) 59. (a) 73. (a) 87. (a) 101. (b) 115. (c) 129. (c)
4. (c) 18. (a) 32. (c) 46. (c) 60. (b) 74. (a) 88. (b) 102. (a) 116. (a) 130. (c)
5. (c) 19. (b) 33. (d) 47. (a) 61. (c) 75. (d) 89. (a) 103. (a) 117. (c) 131. (a)
6. (b) 20. (c) 34. (a) 48. (a) 62. (d) 76. (d) 90. (c) 104. (d) 118. (a)
7. (a) 21. (d) 35. (a) 49. (a) 63. (c) 77. (a) 91. (c) 105. (b) 119. (a)
8. (d) 22. (d) 36. (b) 50. (c) 64. (c) 78. (d) 92. (b) 106. (c) 120. (b)
9. (a) 23. (c) 37. (d) 51. (c) 65. (b) 79. (a) 93. (b) 107. (b) 121. (c)
10. (a) 24. (b) 38. (b) 52. (c) 66. (b) 80. (c) 94. (d) 108. (c) 122. (b)
11. (a) 25. (b) 39. (b) 53. (d) 67. (c) 81. (b) 95. (c) 109. (b) 123. (a)
12. (c) 26. (c) 40. (a) 54. (d) 68. (b) 82. (c) 96. (a) 110. (d) 124. (b)
13. (c) 27. (c) 41. (c) 55. (b) 69. (b) 83. (a) 97. (a) 111. (c) 125. (b)
14. (b) 28. (a) 42. (a) 56. (b) 70. (a) 84. (b) 98. (b) 112. (a) 126. (a)
globe. The concept of plate tectonics propounded by 33. (d) Orogen means geosyncline, Kratogen means
Hary Hess. Hess described how hot magma would foreland, Randkettan means marginal ranges.
rise from under the crust at the Great Global Rift. Leopold Kober (21 September 1883 – 6. September
When the magma cooled, it would expand and push 1970) was an influential Austrian geologist
the tectonic plates apart. responsible for a number of now largely discredited
21. (d) The correct sequence of terrigenous deposits theories of orogeny and for coining the term kraton
are: sand, silt, clay and mud. to describe stable continental platforms. Kober,
22. (d) The correct order of the geological periods are: developing geosyncline theory, posited that stable
pliocene, miocene, oligocene, ecocene. blocks known as forelands move toward each other,
23. (c) The Earth’s magnetic pole in the northern forcing the sediments of the intervening geosynclinal
hemisphere is located on a peninsula in northern region to move over the forelands, forming marginal
Canada. Earth’s magnetic equator passes through mountain ranges known as Randketten, while
Thumba in South India. leaving an intervening median mass known as the
Zwischengebirge.
24. (b) (15°N – 40° N > 10° N – 15° N > 40° N – 50°
34. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
N > 50° N – 70° N)
the true explanation of A.
25. (b) The correct order of the geological epochs is: 35. (a) In an anticyclone barometric pressure is high
(miocene, pliocene, pleistocene, pliocene). towards centre of the system. An anti-cyclone -- also
26. (c) The formation of mid-Atlantic ridge is a typical known as a high pressure area -- is a large atmospheric
example of the process of Divergence and sea floor circulation system with the wind flowing clockwise
spreading. around it in the Northern Hemisphere, and counter-
27. (c) The average density of the outer crust is 2.8. clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
There is sudden increase in the velocity of P waves 36. (b) Earth movements create faults. Fluvial effects
along the mantle core boundary. create flood plains. Organic activity creates coral
28. (a) Drifting of the continents is not explained reefs. Earth movements create moraines.
by the tetrahedral hypothesis. The Tetrahedral
37. (d) The average density of rocks in the lower crust
hypothesis is an obsolete scientific theory
attempting to explain the arrangement of the Earth’s of the earth is 3. The outer core of the earth is in
continents and oceans by referring to the geometry molten form.
of a tetrahedron. 38. (b) Palaeozoic Silurian
29. (c) The correct order is: (South Equatorial — Mesozoic Jurassic
Brazil — South Atlantic drift — Benguela) Pre cambrian Archean
30. (c) It becomes minimum at the poles and Cainozoic Oligocene
maximum at the equator. 39. (b) Agulhas current Indian ocean
31. (c) Tropical areas get more insolation than Kuroshio current North Pacific
the temperature area. The intensity of albedo Florida current North Atlantic
temperature effects depend on the amount of albedo
Falkland current South Atlantic
and the level of local insolation; high albedo areas
in the arctic and antarctic regions are cold due to 40. (a) Both the given statements are correct and R is
low insolation, where areas such as the Sahara the correct explanation of A.
Desert, which also have a relatively high albedo, 41. (c) (Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere, Iono-
will be hotter due to high insolation. Tropical and sphere)
sub-tropical rain forest areas have low albedo, 42. (a) Either of the two belts over the oceans of
and are much hotter than their temperate forest about 30° to 35° N and S latitudes is known as
counterparts, which have lower insolation. Horse Latitude. This region, under a ridge of high
32. (c) It was propounded by the British Scientist pressure called the subtropical high, is an area which
James Jeans. It holds filament responsible for the receives little precipitation and has variable winds
origin of the solar system. The tidal or near-collision
mixed with calm. The horse latitudes are associated
hypothesis was put forward by James Jeans in 1917,
in which the planets were considered to have been with the subtropical anticyclone and the large-scale
formed due to the approach of some other star to the descent of air from high-altitude currents moving
Sun. toward the poles.
B-32 || Physical Geography
43. (c) Rotation of the earth, air pressure and wind, 59. (a) The Santa Ana winds are strong, very dry
density of ocean water are the factors which offshore winds that impact Southern California and
influence the ocean currents. northern Baja California from late fall through early
44. (c) The atmosphere can be heated upwards only winter.
from the earth’s surface. The air is less dense in the Along the eastern slopes of the Rockies, the
upper atmosphere. Chinook wind provides a welcome respite from the
45. (d) The atmospheric conditions should be high in long winter chill
relative humidity, warm oceanic temperature and A warm dry wind coming off the lee slopes of a
region lying between the Tropics of Cancer and mountain range, especially off the northern slopes
Capricorn. A tropical cyclone is a rapidly-rotating of the Alps.
storm system characterized by a low-pressure Zonda wind (in Spanish, viento zonda) is a regional
center, strong winds, and a spiral arrangement of term for the foehn wind that often occurs on the
thunderstorms that produce heavy rain. Tropical eastern slope of the Andes, in Argentina. The Zonda
is a dry wind (often carrying dust) which comes
cyclones typically form over large bodies of
from the polar maritime air, warmed by descent
relatively warm water. They derive their energy
from the crest, which is approximately 6,000 m
from the evaporation of water from the ocean
(20,000 ft) above sea level. It may exceed a velocity
surface, which ultimately recondenses into clouds
of 40 km/h (25 mph)
and rain when moist air rises and cools to saturation.
60. (b) Isobar is a line drawn on a weather map or
46. (c) Aluminium is the third most abundant element chart that connectspoints at which the barometric
in the earth crust after oxygen and silicon. pressure is the same.
53. (d) Igneous rock is formed through the cooling Isotherms are lines connecting areas of the same
and solidification of magma or lava. Igneous rock temperature, Isohyet is a line drawn on a map
may form with or without crystallization, either connecting points having equal rainfall at acertain
below the surface as intrusive (plutonic) rocks or on time or for a stated period.
the surface as extrusive (volcanic) rocks. Isohel is a line on a weather map connecting points
Rock that has formed through the deposition that receive equal amountsof sunshine.
and solidification of sediment, especially sediment 61. (c) Cyclone is a large-scale, atmospheric
transported by water (rivers, lakes, and oceans), ice wind-and-pressure system characterized bylow
(glaciers), and wind. Sedimentary rocks are often pressure at its center and by circular wind motion,
deposited in layers, and frequently contain fossils. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere,
Note: Limestone and shale are common clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere.
sedimentary rocks. Tornado is a localized, violently destructive
58. (c) Stratosphere is an atmospheric layer lying windstorm occurring over land,especially in the
between the troposphere and themesosphere, in Middle West, and characterized by a long, funnel-
which temperature generally increases with height. shaped cloud extending toward the ground and
Troposphere is the lowest atmospheric layer, about made visible by condensation and debris.
18 kilometres (11 miles) thick atthe equator to about 62. (d) Shifting cultivation is a land-use system, esp in
6 km (4 miles) at the Poles, in which airtemperature tropical Africa, in which a tract of land is cultivated
decreases normally with height at about 6.5°C per until its fertility diminishes, when it is abandoned
km. until this is restored naturally.It is often used by
Tropopause is the boundary, or transitional layer, tropical-forest root-crop farmers in various parts of
between the troposphere and the stratosphere. the world and by dry-rice cultivators of the forested
Ionosphere is a region of the earth’s atmosphere, hill country of Southeast Asia. Areas of the forest
extending from about 60kilometres to 1000 km are burned and cleared for planting; the ash provides
above the earth’s surface, in which there is ahigh some fertilization, and the plot is relatively free of
concentration of free electrons formed as a result weeds. After several years of cultivation, fertility
of ionizingradiation entering the atmosphere from declines and weeds increase. Traditionally, the area
space. was left fallow and reverted to a secondary forest
Geography || B-33
of bush. Cultivation would then shift to a new plot; Sea. It is around 160 kilometres (100 miles)
after about a decade the old site could be reused. in length and spreads out over 240 kilometres
63. (c) Double cropping is to raise two consecutive (149 miles) of coastline. It is rich in agriculture
crops on the same land within a singlegrowing and has been farmed for thousands of years.
season. An example of double cropping might be • Around 40 million people (half of Egypt’s
to harvest a wheat crop by early summer and then population) live in the Nile Delta region.
plant corn or soybeans on that acreage for harvest • In 1787, the famous Rosetta stone was found
in the fall. This practice is only possible in regions in the Nile Delta in the city of Rosetta. This
with long growing seasons. Ancient Egyptian artifact played a key
64. (c) Tea grows only in a warm environment. For role in modern understanding of Egyptian
this reason this plant is mainly found in regions hieroglyphics.
between 16 degrees south latitude and 20 degrees • The Aswan High Dam was built in 1970
north latitude. India is the largest producer and to help regulate flooding of the Nile River.
exporter of tea in the world. The ideal climatic Before the Aswan Dam was built, years that
conditions for the production and growing of tea are featured high levels of water could wipe out
as follows: crops while years of low level water could
• Temperature: 21°C to 29°C is ideal for the produce famines and drought. The dam helps
production of tea. High temperature is required control these water levels.
in summer. The lowest temperature for the 69. (b) The low productivity in India is a result of the
growth of tea is 16°C. following factors:
• Rainfall: 150-250 cm of rainfall is required for • The average size of land holdings is very
tea cultivation. small (less than 2 hectares) and is subject to
• Soil: Tea shrubs require fertile mountain soil fragmentation due to land ceiling acts, and in
mixed with lime and iron. The soil should be some cases, family disputes
rich in humus. • Adoption of modern agricultural practices and
• Land: Tea cultivation needs well drained land. use of technology is inadequate
Stagnation of water is not good for tea plants. • India has inadequate infrastructure and
Heavy rainfall but no stagnancy of water, such
services.
mountain slopes are good for tea cultivation.
• lliteracy, general socio-economic backwardness,
67. (c)
slow progress in implementing land reforms
• The length of the Nile River is approximately
6650 kilometres (4132 miles). It is believed to and inadequate or inefficient finance and
be the longest river in the world. marketing services.
• Located in Africa, the Nile River lies in the • nconsistent government policy.
following countries: Kenya, Eritrea, Congo, • Irrigation facilities are inadequate,
Burundi, Uganda, Tanzania, Rwanda, Egypt, 72. (c) In an agricultural country, the fertility of soil
Sudan and Ethiopia. and rainfall are the most important determinants of
• The Nile River has huge significance in regards density of population. In case of industrial country
to Ancient Egypt. Most of Ancient Egypt’s the density of population may be influenced by such
historical sites are located along the banks of factors as the availability of minerals, industrial
the Nile River including cities such as Luxor development and levels of urbanization etc.
and Cairo. 75. (d) India lies in the Northern hemisphere.
• In 2004, the White Nile Expedition became the 84. (b) Alfa-Alfa is a grass, not medicine
first to navigate the entire length of the Nile 85. (b) Veld tropical grasslands are found in south
River. The expedition began in Uganda and Africa.
finished in Rosetta, taking four months and 91. (c) The Sahara desert has scanty rainfall.
two weeks to complete. 93. (b) Russia has about 1/3rd of coal reserves and
• The Nile Delta in Northern Egypt is where 2/3rd of the world’s reserves of petroleum. Water
the Nile River drains in to the Mediterranean
B-34 || Physical Geography
energy has been harnessed by Norway. Wind energy of water vapour lies below an altitude of 5 kilometer.
has been utilized in Southern California. Amount of precipitable water in atmosphere increases
98. (b) Tarapur power plant is located in Maharashtra, from the poles to the equator.
whereas Narora in Uttar Pradesh. 111. (c) Sedimentary rocks are formed from sediments
100. (c) Mahanadi, Krishna and Kavery are East that have been pressed together. Sediments may come
flowing rivers. While Narmada, Tapi, Luni and
from plant or animal remains, from minerals that were
Payaswani are West flowing rivers.
once dissolved in water, or form large rocks that have
101. (b) The point of origin of an Earthquake is called
been broken up into smaller pieces by water, wind or
focus or hypocenter. Epicenter is the point at ground
level directly above the hypocenter. ice.
The line on Earth’s surface connecting points Igneous rocks are rocks formed from molten rock
which are affected by Earthquake at same time are material as it cools and hardens.
called homoseismal lines. 112. (a) Areas that have higher air pressure than the
103. (a) Acid rain is caused by emissions of sulphur surrounding area are called anticyclones.
dioxide and nitrogen oxide, which react with the 113. (d) All the given statements are correct.
water molecules in the atmosphere to produce acids. 114. (d) El Nino, an unusual warning of surface ocean
104. (d) Calm weather and intense rain and hail waters in the eastern tropical Pacific is the part of
phenomena can occur when very warm and humid southern oscillation. Scientists do not know exactly
air is rising over a mass of a very cold air. how El Nino forms. It is said that El Nino may
105. (b) The ozone layer is a layer in Earth’s atmosphere have contributed to the 1993 Mississipi and 1995
which contains relatively high concentration of California floods. The average period length of EL
ozone. This layer absorbs 97.99% of the sun’s
Nino is 5 years.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which potentially
115. (c) Barren Island (Andaman sea) is the only active
damages the life forms on Earth. It is mainly
volcano Island in even south Asia. It is the part of
located the lower portion of stratosphere from
approximately 20 to 30 km above Earth. Indian Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar
106. (c) The ozone layer contains 97–99% of the Sun’s Islands.
high frequency ultraviolet light, which is potentially 116. (a) Agents of erosion Topographical
damaging to the life on Earth. Chlorofluorocarbons, features
along with nitric oxide, nitrous oxide, hydroxyl, Running water - Gorge
chlorine, bomotenorocarbon etc. are serious treat to Glacier - Cirque
the ozone layer. Wind - Barchan
107. (b) The presence of good concentration of Underground water - Delive
iron (ferric) oxide is responsible for giving this 117. (c) Transformation of solar energy into heat requires
soil its redish colour. These soils are found in some time, energy received by the earth from solar
Chhotanagpur Plateau, Telangana, Nilgiris, Tamil radiations continues to exceed the energy lost by
Nadu, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and periophering
outgoing long-wave radiations from the earth’s
area of Deccan Plateau. Red soils have traces of
surface from 4.00p.m.
time and humous but they can’t be rich of the same.
108. (c) The river is chocked because the valley of a 118. (a) The main areas of tropical forest are found
river is widest in its lower course and the velocity of in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands; the Western
a river in its lower course is low. Ghats, which fringe the Arabian Sea coastline of
109. (b) National parks are large areas of public land peninsular India; and the greater Assam region in the
set aside for native plants, animals and places north-east. Small remnants of rain forest are found
where they live. Sanctuaries are concerned with in Orissa state. Semi-evergreen rain forest is more
conservation of particular species. extensive than the evergreen formation partly because
110. (d) Half the water vapour in the air in atmosphere evergreen forests tend to degrade to semi-evergreen
lies below an altitude of 2 kilometer and 90 per cent with human interference. There are substantial
Geography || B-35
differences in both the flora and fauna between the and the basaltic lava having a higher content of
three major rain forest regions. metallic minerals solidifies rapidly once it reaches
119. (a) For the poles latitude = 90° and for equator the surface.
latitude = 0°. Latitude at a point on the surface of the 125. (b) There is no relationship between the mass of
earth is defined as the angle, which the line joining the atmosphere accounted for by the troposphere
that point to the centre of earth makes with equatorial and the weather changes here. Most of the weather
plane. changes are associated with the presence of moisture
120. (b) Tsunami waves do not resemble normal sea in the troposphere. Also most of the influence of the
waves, because their wavelength is far longer. Rather solar energy entering the earth’s atmosphere is felt
than appearing as a breaking wave, a tsunami may in this layer itself.
instead initially resemble a rapidly rising tide, and for 126. (a) Long roots, thick bark and small sized thick
this reason they are often referred to as tidal waves. leaves are some of the adaptations among the plants
Tsunamis generally consist of a series of waves with to withstand a long dry season. Thick bark and
periods ranging from minutes to hours, arriving in a small sized leaves reduce the rate of transpiration.
so-called “wave train”.[4] Wave heights of tens of Long roots enable the plants to obtain moisture
metres can be generated by large events. Although from greater depth. The Mediterranean regions do
the impact of tsunamis is limited to coastal areas, not receive rainfall during the summer as the pole-
their destructive power can be enormous and they ward shift of the pressure belts during the respective
can affect entire ocean basins. summer, brings these regions under the influence of
121. (c) Land heats and cools more rapidly than the the trade winds which blow from east to west thus
sea. During the day the land gets heated and the air causing no rainfall in these western margins of the
over the land being hotter and lighter than that over continents. During winter when the pressure and
the sea, a low pressure area is created over the land. wind belts shift towards the equator, these regions
The hot air rises and cool air from the see ruches in come under the influence of the westerlies which
blowing from oceans to land, cause rainfall along
towards the land, which is referred as sea breeze.At
these western margins.
night the land rapidly loses its heat faster than the sea. 127. (a) For the purpose of settlement in the tropical
The air over the sea is therefore warmer and lighter regions, the Europeans always selected the highlands
than over the land and a breeze blows but from the as these areas offered comparatively cooler and less
land towards the sea. humid climatic conditions. In the tropical lowlands
122. (b) The Intertropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ), the hot and humid climate was a deterring factor to
known by sailors as the doldrums, is the area the European settlements.
128. (a) The warm Gulf Stream keeps the temperatures
encircling the earth near the equator where the
higher than the normal temperature of the latitude.
northeast and southeast trade winds come together. 129. (c) Yak is a rather large bodies animal. It is reared in
The ITCZ appears as a band of clouds, usually the cold regions as it can withstand cold climate.
thunderstorms that circle the globe near the equator. 130. (c) China does not export rice as the country has a
In the Northern Hemisphere, the trade winds move in large population and consequently a large domestic
a south-western direction from the northeast, while in consumption of rice. There is no relation between
the Southern Hemisphere, they move north-westward the quality of rice produced in China and the country
from the southeast. not being an exporter of rice.
124. (b) The crystal size in the igneous rocks is more a 131. (a) Mercator’s projection is used for political
function of the quickness of the process of cooling maps due to its property of orthomorphism and not
rather than of the mineral content. The mineral due to the fact that it shows loxodromes as straight
content determines the melting point of the rocks lines.
3 Economic Geography
6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 9. Consider the following statements and select the
answer by using the codes given below: correct answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II Assertion (A): Commercial fishing industry has
(Country) (Coal fields) developed in temperate zones.
A. China 1. Pennsylvania Reason (R): These temperate areas have wide
B. Germany 2. Saar extension of continental shelf
C. Ukraine 3. Shensi areas and favourable climate.
D. U.S.A. 4. Donetz Basin Codes:
Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(a) 4 2 1 3
explanation of A.
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) A is false, but R is true.
(d) 4 3 2 1
10. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
7. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
answer from the codes given below: List-I List-II
List-I List-II A. Tin 1. Mexico
(Mineral) (Leading producer) B. Silver 2. Zambia
A. Tin 1. Zambia C. Mica 3. Malaysia
B. Thorium 2. India D. Copper 4. India
C. Uranium 3. Malaysia Codes:
D. Copper 4. Canada A B C D
Codes: (a) 4 2 1 3
A B C D (b) 1 3 2 4
(a) 3 4 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(b) 1 2 4 3 (d) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 2 4 1 11. Which of the following are not the examples of
(d) 4 3 2 1 shifting cultivation?
8. Consider the following statements and select the Select the correct answer from the codes given
correct answer from the codes given below: below:
1. Ladang 2. Hacienda
Assertion (A): New economic geography deals
3. Fazenda 4. Pondu
with the spatial economy of 21st
Codes:
century.
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Reason (R): It attempts to meet the new (c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4
economic challenges. 12. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer from the codes given below:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct List-I List-II
explanation of A. (Crops) (Main producing area)
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A. Coconut 1. Kenya
explanation of A. B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea
(c) A is true, but R is false. C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador
(d) A is false, but R is true. D. Tea 4. Senegal
B-38 || Economic Geography
Codes: (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
A B C D explanation of A.
(a) 2 3 4 1 (c) A is true, but R is false.
(b) 1 4 3 2 (d) A is false, but R is true.
(c) 3 2 1 4 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 4 1 2 3 answer from the codes given below:
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below: (Industrial region) (Country)
List-I List-II A. Kinki 1. France
(Country) (Oil field) B. Lorraine 2. U.S.A.
A. Iran 1. Bargan C. Midlands 3. Japan
B. Iraq 2. Damam D. New England 4. U.K.
C. Kuwait 3. Kirkuk Codes:
D. Saudi Arabia 4. Masjid Sulaiman A B C D
Codes: (a) 3 2 1 4
A B C D (b) 3 1 4 2
(a) 4 3 2 1 (c) 1 2 4 3
(b) 3 4 1 2 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 2 3 4 1 17. Consider the following statements and select the
(d) 4 3 1 2 correct answer from the codes given below:
14. Consider the following statements and select the Assertion (A): Brazil is a leading producer of
correct answer from the codes given below: ethanol.
Assertion (A): The growth rate of population Reason (R): It is the largest producer of
in developing countries is sugarcane in the world.
higher than that of developed Codes:
countries. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
Reason (R): Low level of economic explanation of A.
development leads to high total (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
fertility rate. explanation of A.
Codes: (c) A is true, but R is false.
(a) Both A and R are ture and R is the correct (d) A is false, but R is true.
explanation of A. 18. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct answer from the codes given below:
explanation of A. List-I List-II
(c) A is true, but R is false. (Industry) (Centre)
(d) A is false, but R is true. A. Iron and steel 1. Turin
15. Consider the following statements and select the B. Ship building 2. Taipei
correct answer from the codes given below: C. Electronics 3. Montreal
Assertion (A): The south east Asian countries D. Automobile 4. Pittsburgh
export timber on a large scale. Codes:
Reason (R): These countries have large A B C D
ports. (a) 1 2 3 4
Codes: (b) 4 3 2 1
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (c) 3 4 1 2
explanation of A. (d) 2 4 1 3
Geography || B-39
19. Consider the following statements and select the 22. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
Assertion (A): There are disparities in regional List-I List-II
development on a global scale A. Saar Industrial Region 1. China
and within each country too. B. New England 2. Germany
Reason (R): Such disparities are mainly due Industrial Region
to the lack of adequate skilled C. South Transvaal 3. U.S.A.
labour. Industrial Region
Codes: D. Canton Industrial 4. South Africa
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct Region
explanation of A. Codes:
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct A B C D
explanation of A. (a) 2 3 4 1
(c) A is true, but R is false. (b) 1 3 2 4
(d) A is false, but R is true. (c) 3 2 4 1
20. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) 4 1 3 2
answer from the codes given below: 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
(Iron and steel centre) (Country) List-I List-II
A. Cleveland 1. Canada (Mineral) (Mine)
B. Essen 2. Russia A. Diamond 1. Butte
C. Hamilton 3. U.S.A. B. Coal 2. Kimberley
D. Tula 4. Germany C. Cobalt 3. Katanga
Codes: D. Silver 4. Saar
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 4 2 3 A B C D
(b) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 3 2 1
(c) 3 1 2 3 (b) 2 4 3 1
(d) 4 3 1 2 (c) 3 4 1 2
21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (d) 2 1 3 4
answer from the codes given below the lists: 24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer from the codes given below:
(City) (Important industry) List-I List-II
A. Shanghai 1. Ship building A. Detroit 1. Cutlery
B. Chicago 2. Iron and steel B. Pittsburgh 2. Ship building
C. Shefield 3. Cotton textile C. Plymouth 3. Iron and steel
D. Yokohama 4. Engineering D. Sheffield 4. Automobile
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 3 2 1 4 (a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2 (b) 2 3 1 4
(c) 4 3 2 1 (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 3 2 4 1 (d) 4 3 2 1
B-40 || Economic Geography
25. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below: A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 1 2 4 3
(Crops) (Largest producer) (b) 2 3 4 1
A. Wheat 1. Brazil (c) 3 4 2 1
B. Cotton 2. China (d) 1 3 2 4
C. Sugarcane 3. U.S.A. 29. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
D. Tea 4. India answer from the codes given below:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D A. Iron and steel 1. Atlanta
(a) 1 2 3 4 B. Ship building 2. Bradford
(b) 2 3 1 4 C. Automobile 3. Cleveland
(c) 2 4 3 1 D. Woollen textile 4. Yakohama
(d) 4 1 2 3 Codes:
26. Which of the following are fund resources? A B C D
1. Coal 2. Copper (a) 3 4 1 2
3. Petroleum 4. Forest (b) 1 2 4 3
Select the correct answer from the codes given (c) 2 4 1 3
below: (d) 3 2 1 4
Codes: 30. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 3 and 4 List-I List-II
27. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct A. Hydropower 1. France
answer from the codes given below; B. Coal 2. Congo Democratic
List-I List-II Republic
A. Shifting cultivation 1. Mongolia C. Petroleum 3. Poland
B. Nomadic herding 2. Australia D. Nuclear power 4. Iraq
C. Livestock ranching 3. Tundra Region Codes:
D. Fishing and hunting 4. Amazon Basin A B C D
Codes: (a) 2 3 4 1
A B C D (b) 3 4 1 2
(a) 1 3 2 4 (c) 1 3 2 4
(b) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 2 1 4 31. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) 4 1 3 2 answer from the codes given below:
28. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct List-I List-II
answer from the codes given below: (Industrial region) (Name of country)
List-I List-II A. Ruhr 1. U.S.A.
A. Largest producer of 1. U.S.A. B. New England 2. Brazil
wheat in the world C. Kinki 3. Germany
B. Largest producer of 2. China D. Belo Horizontal 4. Japan
milk in the world Codes:
C. Largest producer of 3. India A B C D
sugarcane in the (a) 3 1 4 2
world (b) 2 3 1 4
D. Largest producer of 4. Brazil (c) 4 2 3 1
maize in the world (d) 1 4 2 3
Geography || B-41
32. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer using the codes given below the lists: A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 3 1 4 2
(Coal field) (Country) (b) 3 1 2 4
A. Donetz 1. Germany (c) 1 3 2 4
B. Kuznatsk 2. U.K. (d) 1 3 4 2
C. Lancashire 3. Russia 36. Which of the following is accredited with the
D. Saar 4. Ukrain Geographical Indication (GI) mark?
1. Handwoven Pashmina shawls of Kashmir.
Codes:
2. Bhagalpur Silk, Bihar.
A B C D
3. Madurai Idly, Tamil Nadu.
(a) 1 2 3 4 4. Darjeeling Tea, West Bengal.
(b) 4 3 2 1 Select the answer from the codes given below:
(c) 3 4 1 2 (a) 1, 2, and 3
(d) 1 3 2 4 (b) 2, 3, and 4
33. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (c) 1, 3, and 4
answer by using the codes given below the lists: (d) All of the above
List-I List-II 37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(Minerals) (Important centres) answer using the codes given below.
A. Copper 1. Butte List-I List-II
B. Diamond 2. Katanga (Iron ore areas) (States)
C. Gold 3. Kimberley A. Dhalli Rajhara 1. Odisha
D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand B. Kudremukh 2. Jharkhand
Codes: C. Badam Pahar 3. Karnataka
A B C D D. Noamundi 4. Chhattisgarh
Codes:
(a) 2 4 3 1
A B C D
(b) 2 3 4 1
(a) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 3 2 4 (b) 3 2 4 1
(d) 3 1 4 2 (c) 4 3 1 2
34. Arrange the following countries in the descending (d) 1 4 2 3
order of their wheat production and select the 38. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below.
1. China 2. India List-I List-II
3. Russia 4. U.S.A. (Industrial (Place of
Codes: production) production)
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, (b) 1, 2, 4, 3 A. Brassware 1. Kanchipuram
(c) 2, 3, 4, 1 (d) 4, 1, 2, 3 B. Silk Sarees 2. Lucknow
35. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct C. Chikkan 3. Moradabad
answer using the codes given below the lists: Embroidery
List-I List-II D. Sports Goods 4. Jalandhar
(Minerals) (Major producer) Codes:
A. Mineral oil 1. Zambia A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
B. Copper 2. Guyana
(b) 3 2 1 4
C. Manganese 3. Venezuela
(c) 4 2 1 3
D. Bauxite 4. Gabon
(d) 4 1 2 3
B-42 || Economic Geography
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 42. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
(Sectors) (Economic Column I Column II
activities) (A) Sericulture (i) Breeding of fish
A. Primary sector 1. Business (B) Pisciculture (ii) Commercial rearing
organisation of silk worms
B. Secondary sector 2. Cultivation (C) Viticulture (iii) Growing vegetables,
C. Tertiary sector 3. Handloom textiles flowers and fruits
D. Quarternary 4. Transport services (D) Horticulture (iv) Cultivation of
Codes: grapes
A B C D Codes:
(a) 1 2 3 4 (a) (A) – (ii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (iii)
(b) 2 3 4 1 (b) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
(c) 2 3 1 4 (c) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
(d) 4 3 2 1 (d) (A) – (iii), (B) – (ii), (C) – (i), (D) – (iv)
40. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 43. Match column I with column II and select the
answer from the codes given below: correct answer using the code given below the
List-I List-II columns:
(Industrial (Explanations) Column I Column II
activities) (Names of shifting) (Areas Associated)
A. Processing 1. Inputs are processed Cultivation)
activities goods (A) Ladang (i) Mexico
B. Fabricating 2. Major inputs (B) Milpa (ii) North-East India
activities are raw material (C) Roca (iii) Malaysia
C. Integrative 3. Involve neither (D) Jhumming (iv) Brazil
activities inputs nor outputs Codes:
D. Administrative 4. Inputs are processed (a) (A) – (iv), (B) – (iii), (C) – (ii), (D) – (i)
activities goods undergoing little (b) (A) – (iii), (B) – (i), (C) – (iv), (D) – (ii)
change (c) (A) – (ii), (B) – (iii), (C) – (iv), (D) – (i)
Codes: (d) (A) – (i), (B) – (ii), (C) – (iii), (D) – (iv)
A B C D 44. In which countries is the shipbuilding industry
(a) 1 2 3 4 concentrated?
(b) 2 1 4 3 1. Japan 2. Hong Kong
(c) 1 4 3 2 3. Russia 4. South Korea
(d) 3 2 4 1 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
41. Match column I with column II and select the (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
correct answer using the code given below the 45. Consider the following statements:
columns: Industry refers to an economic activity that is
Column I Column II concerned with the
A. Rice (i) 30-40ºC I. Production of goods
B. Tea (ii) 15-25ºC II. Extraction of minerals
C. Cotton (iii) 20ºC III. Provision of services
D. Coffee (iv) 25ºC Of these statements
(a) A (i), B (ii), C (iii), D (iv) (a) II and III are correct
(b) A (iii), B (iv), C (i), D (ii) (b) I and II are correct
(c) A (ii), B (i), C (iv), D (iii) (c) I, II and III are correct
(d) A (i), B (iii), C (iv), D (ii) (d) Only I is correct
Geography || B-43
46. Consider the following statements: Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
The factors affecting the location of industries are correct?
the availability of : (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(i) raw material (ii) labour (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(iii) transport (iv) market 52. Which of the following are responsible for the
(a) (i) and (ii) are correct decrease of per capita holding of cultivated land
(b) (iii) and (i) are correct in India ?
(c) only (iv) is correct 1. Low per capita income.
(d) All the above are correct 2. Rapid rate of increase of population
47. Which of following methods is/are suitable for 3. Practice of dividing land equally among the
soil conservation in hilly region? heirs.
1. Terracing and contour bunding
4. Use of traditional techniques of ploughing.
2. Shifting cultivation
Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. Contour ploughing
below :
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below : (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 2 (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
(c) Only 3 (d) All of these 53. Consider the following statements about black
48. Which one of the following is the example of soil of India
subsistence farming? 1. Black soil becomes sticky when it is wet.
(a) Shifting cultivation 2. Black soil contains adequate nitrogen as
(b) Commercial farming well as phosphorus required for the growth
(c) Extensive and intensive farming of plants
(d) Organic farming Which of the statements given above is/are
49. Arrange the locations of four oil refineries of correct?
India from west to East. (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(a) Koyali, Kochi, Panipat, Mathura (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) Kochi, Koyali, Panipat, Mathura 54. Consider the following statements with regard to
(c) Koyali, Panipat, Kochi, Mathura the mining industry of India
(d) Koyali, Panipat, Mathura, Kochi 1. The spatial distribution of minerals is
50. Tank irrigation is practised mainly in Peninsular uneven.
India because 2. The mining industry since colonial days has
1. undulating relief and hard rocks make it been export-oriented.
difficult to dig canals and wells Which of the statements given above is/are
2. rives are rainfed correct?
3. of compact nature of population and
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
agricultural field
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Select the correct answer using the codes given
55. Which of the following is/are the chief
below :
characteristics of commercial grain farming of
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
the middle latitude grasslands?
(c) 1 and 3 (d) All of these
1. The size of farms are generally large.
51. Consider the following statements
2. Cultivation is highly mechanized.
1. Rural forestry aims to raise the trees on
3. It is a type of extensive farming.
community land and on privately owned
land. Select the correct answer using the code given
2. Farm forestry encourages individual farmers below:
to plant trees on their own farmland to meet (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
the domestic need of the family. (c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 only
B-44 || Economic Geography
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 8. (a) 15. (c) 22. (a) 29. (a) 36. (d) 43. (b) 50. (a)
2. (d) 9. (a) 16. (b) 23. (b) 30. (a) 37. (c) 44. (d) 51. (c)
3. (b) 10. (c) 17. (a) 24. (a) 31. (a) 38. (a) 45. (c) 52. (b)
4. (b) 11. (c) 18. (b) 25. (b) 32. (b) 39. (b) 46. (d) 53. (a)
5. (b) 12. (a) 19. (c) 26. (b) 33. (b) 40. (b) 47. (a) 54. (c)
6. (b) 13. (d) 20. (b) 27. (b) 34. (b) 41. (b) 48. (a) 55. (c)
7. (c) 14. (a) 21. (d) 28. (b) 35. (a) 42. (a) 49. (b)
7. (c) Malaysia is the leading producer of tin. India England is a region in the northeastern corner of the
is the leading producer of thorium. Canada is the United States consisting of the six states of Maine,
leading producer of uranium. Zambia is the leading Massachusetts, New Hampshire, Vermont, Rhode
producer of copper. Island, and Connecticut.
8. (a) New Economic Geography deals with the 17. (a) Brazil is the leading producer of ethanol
spatial economy of 21st century because it attempts because it is the largest producer of sugarcane in the
to meet the new economic challenges. world. Sugarcane ethanol is an alcohol-based fuel
9. (a) Commercial fishing industry has developed in produced by the fermentation of sugarcane juice
temperature zones because these temperate areas and molasses. Because it is a clean, affordable and
have wide extension of continental shelf areas and low-carbon biofuel, sugarcane ethanol has emerged
favourable climate. as a leading renewable fuel for the transportation
10. (c) Malaysia is known for tin production. Mexico sector. Brazil is the world’s largest sugarcane
is known for silver production. India is known ethanol producer and a pioneer in using ethanol as a
for mica production. Zambia is known for copper motor fuel. In 2012/13, Brazilian ethanol production
production. reached 23.2 billion litres (6.1 billion gallons).
11. (c) Hacienda and Pondu are not the examples of 18. (b) Turin is the centre of automobile industry.Turin
shifting cultivation. Shifting cultivation is known is a city and an important business and cultural centre
as ladang cultivation in south east Asia. Fazendas in northern Italy, capital of the Piedmont region.
(meaning “farms”) were plantations found Pittsburgh is the centre of iron and steel industry.
throughout Brazil; during the colonial period (16th - Pittsburgh is the seat of Allegheny County and with
18th centuries), they were concentrated primarily in a population of 306,211 is the second-largest city
the northeastern region, where sugar was produced. in the U.S. state of Pennsylvania. Montreal is the
12. (a) The main producing country of coconut is centre of ship-building. Montreal is a city in the
Papua New Guinea. The main producing country of Canadian province of Quebec. It is the largest city
banana is Ecuador. The main producing country of in the province. Taipai is the centre of electronics.
groundnut is Senegal. The main producing country Taipei, officially known as Taipei City, is the capital
of tea is Kenya. of Taiwan. Situated at the northern tip of Taiwan,
13. (d) Masjid-e-Suleiman is the oil field of Iran. Taipei is located on the Tamsui river.
Kirkuk is the oil field of Iraq. Bargan is the oil field 19. (c) Disparities in regional development on a global
of Kuwait. Deman is the oil field of Saudi Arabia. scale are not mainly due to the lack of adequate
14. (a) The growth rate of population in developing skilled labour.
countries is higher than that of developed countries 20. (b) Regarding to the Iron and steel centre,
because law level of economic development leads Cleveland is located in U.S.A. Essen is located in
to high total fertility rate. Germany. Hamilton is located in Canada. Tula is
15. (c) The south east Asia countries export timber located in Russia.
on a large scale but these countries have no large 21. (d) Cotton textile industry belongs to Shanghai.
ports. Iron and steel industry belongs to Chicago.
16. (b) Kinki is the industrial region of Japan. Engineering industry belongs to Shefield. Ship
The Kansai region or the Kinki region lies in the building industry belongs to Tokohama.
southern-central region of Japan’s main island 22. (a) Saar industrial region is located in Germany.
Honshu. Lorraine is the industrial region of France. New England industrial region is located in U.S.A.
Lorraine is one of the 27 regions of France. The South Transval industrial region is located in
administrative region has two cities of equal South Africa. Canton industrial region is located in
importance: Metz, the regional prefecture and China.
Nancy. Midlands is the industrial region of U.K. 23. (b) Diamond extracts from the Kimberley mines.
The Midlands is an area comprising central England The first diamond found in South Africa, was
that broadly corresponds to the early medieval discovered less than 30 miles away and within a few
Kingdom of Mercia. It borders southern England, years, the mining town of Kimberley. Coal founded
northern England, East Anglia and Wales. New in Saar region. In the past, a coal mining was an
England is the industrial region of U.S.A. New important branch of industry. Cobalt founded in
B-46 || Economic Geography
Katanga region. Katanga is one of the provinces of Automobile industry belongs to Atlanta. Woollen
the Democratic Republic of the Congo. The eastern textile industry belongs to Bradford.
part of the province is a rich mining region, which 30. (a) Hydropower associated with Congo Democratic
supplies cobalt, copper, tin, radium, uranium, and
Republic. The Democratic Republic of the Congo
diamonds. The region’s capital, Lubumbashi, is the
second largest city in the Congo. Silver founded in has reserves of petroleum, natural gas, coal, and a
Butte. Butte is a census-designated place (CDP) potential hydroelectric power generating capacity
in Matanuska-Susitna Borough, Alaska, United of around 100,000 MW. The Inga Dam, alone
States. on the Congo River, has the potential capacity to
24. (a) Cutlery industry located in Plymouth. Ship generate 40,000 to 45,000 MW of electric power,
building industry located in Shefield. Iron and steel sufficient to supply the electricity needs of the
industry located in Pittsburgh. Automobile industry whole southern Africa region. Coal associated with
located in Detroit. Poland. Today Poland’s coal industry is among
25. (b) China is the largest producer of wheat. Roughly the most competitive in Europe, providing jobs to
two-thirds of the total wheat production came from over 100,000 people in the country. Poland is now
the north China plain and nearly another third from the 9th largest hard coal producer in the world
the central provinces. Winter wheat accounts for and the largest coal producer in the EU. It is also
about 94% of China’s total wheat output. U.S.A. the 8th largest coking coal exporter in the world.
is the largest producer of cotton. In its January Petroleum associated with Iraq. In 2006, Iraq’s oil
report, USDA estimated a ‘13-14 US crop of 13.19 production averaged 2.0 million barrels per day
million bales. Upland production was estimated at (320×103 m3/d), down from around 2.6 Mbbl/d
12.55 million bales and extra-long staple production (410×103 m3/d) of production prior to the coalition
at 636,000 bales. Brazil is the largest producer of invasion in 2003. Iraq’s reserve to production ratio
sugarcane. Brazil’s sugarcane industry association is 158 years. Nuclear power associated with France.
UNICA estimates Brazil’s sugar cane production in France derives over 75% of its electricity from
2012/13 at 531.4 million ton which is 8% up from nuclear energy. This is due to a long-standing policy
the 493.2 million ton produced in 2011/12. India based on energy security.
is the largest producer of tea. Tea Board of India 31. (a) Ruhr industrial region belongs to Germany.
shows that during January to August, tea production New England industrial region belongs to U.S.A.
has risen by 6.2% to 705 million kg in 2013. Kinki industrial region belongs to Japan. Belo
26. (b) Coal and petroleum are the fund resource Horizonte industrial region belongs to Brazil.
minerals. Because they are of the highest value in 32. (b) Donetz coal field belongs to Ukrain. Kuznatsk
the foreign world market due to demand and also for coal field belongs to Russia. Lancashire coal field
scarcity. belongs to U.K. Saar coal field belongs to Germany.
27. (b) Shifting cultivation practices in Amazon Basin. 33. (b) Copper mineral located in Katanga. Diamond
Nomadic herding practices in Mangolia. Live stock mineral located in Kimberley. Gold mineral located
ranching belongs to Australia. Fishing and hunting in Wit watersrand. The Witwatersrand Gold Rush
belongs to Tundra region. was a gold rush in 1886 that led to the establishment
28. (b) Largest producer of wheat in the world is of Johannesburg, South Africa. It was part of the
China. Largest producer of milk in the world is Mineral Revolution. Silver located in Butte.
India. Largest producer of sugarcane in the world 34. (b) The countries in the descending order of their
is Brazil. Largest producer of maize in the world is wheat production are; China, India, U.S.A. and
U.S.A. Russia.
29. (a) Iron and steel industry belongs to Cleveland. 35. (a) Venezuela is the major producer of mineral
Ship building industry belongs to Yakohama. oil.With 77,800,000,000 barrels (1.237×1010 m3)
Geography || B-47
of proven oil reserves in 2004 Venezuela has the farming in which the farmers clear a patch of forest
largest proven oil reserves in South America and land by feeling and burning of trees and then crops
the sixth largest in the world. Zambia is the major are grown.
producer of Copper. Zambia’s copper output is 49. (b) Kochi is the Western most while Mathura is
expected to hit 1.5 million tonnes by 2017 as foreign Eastern most. Also among these Panipat is most
companies pour $3 billion into sector. Gabon is North while Koyali is most South.
the major producer of Manganese. The high-grade 50. (a) The tank irrigation is practised mainly in the
manganese deposits at Moanda, near Franceville, peninsular India due to the following reasons
are among the world’s richest. Reserves were 1. The undulating relief and hard rocks makes it
estimated at 250 million tons with a metal content of difficult to dig canals and wells.
48–52%. Guyana is the major producer of Bauxite. 2. There is little percolation of rain water due to
Linden is the second largest town in Guyana after hard rock structure and ground water is not
Georgetown. It is primarily a bauxite mining town, available in large quantity.
containing many mines 60–90 metres deep. 3. Most of the rivers of this region are seasonal
36. (d) Geographical Indications of Goods are defined and dry up in summer season. Therefore, they
as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the cannot supply water to canals throughout the
geographical indication referring to a country or to a year.
place situated therein as being the country or place 4. The scattered nature of population and
of origin of that product. Typically, such a name agricultural fields also favours tank irrigation.
conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness 51. (c) Rural forestry (also known as community
which is essentially attributable to the fact of its forestry) aims to raise the trees on community land
origin in that defined geographical locality, region and on privately owned land as in farm forestry.
or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Farm forestry encouraged individual farmers
Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, to plant trees on their own farmland to meet the
geographical indications are covered as an element domestic needs of the family.
of IPRs. They are also covered under Articles 22 All these schemes are taken up under the social
to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual forestry programme.
Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was 52. (b) The factors responsible for the decrease of per
part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay capita holding of cultivated land in India are
Round of GATT negotiations. India, as a member of 1. Rapid rate of increase of population.
the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the 2. Practice of dividing land equally among the
Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration heirs.
& Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with 53. (a) Black soils retain moisture, so they becomes
effect from 15th September 2003. sticky and getting wet. They contain iron, lime,
45. (c) Industry refers to an economic activity that is magnesium, alumina and potosh but lack phoshorous
concerned with the production of goods, extraction and nitrogen.
of minerals or the provision of services. 54. (c) Mining is removal of valuable raw material
47. (a) Level terrace or contour bunding involves from the Earth, this terms includes removal of soil.
construction of bind passing through the points India adds very little value to the minerals, it exports
having same elevation ploughing and/or planting most of the mined minerals.
across a slope following its elevation contour lines. Indian Mining Industry has been a major mineral
48. (a) Subsistance farming is self-sufficiency producer in Asia and globally as well.
farming in which the farmers grow enough food to 55. (c) Middle latitude grassland farming have very
feed themselves and families. It is mostly practised large farms, are mechanised and fall in the category of
in developing countries. extensive cultivation. Grassland are found all across
Shifting cultivation is a type/example of subsistence the globe.
4 World Geography
8. Consider the following statements and select the 12. Which one of the followiing pairs correctly
correct answer from the codes given below: matched?
Assertion (A): Japan is known for its fisheries (a) Black forest — Germany
in the world. (b) Pennines — France
Reason (R): The continental shelf is wide all (c) Sierra Nevada — Canada
around Japan. (d) Vorges — Haly
Select the correct answer from the codes given 13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
below: answer from the codes:
Codes: List-I List-II
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct A. Cape Horn 1. India
explanation of A. B. Cape Comorin 2. Australia
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct C. Cape of Good Hope 3. Argentina
explanation of A. D. Cape Yark 4. South Africa
(c) A is true, but R is false. Codes:
(d) A is false, but R is true. A B C D
9. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly (a) 1 3 4 2
matched? (b) 3 1 2 4
(a) Davis strait — Baffin Sea and Atlantic (c) 1 2 4 3
Ocean (d) 3 1 4 2
(b) Dover strait — Arctic Sea and N. Atlantic 14. Which one of the following is not correctly
Ocean matched?
(c) Palk strait — Mannar Gulf and Bay of (a) Blizzard — Canada
Bengal (b) Brickfielder — France
(d) Sunda strait — Java Sea and Indian Ocean (c) Harmattan — Niger
10. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct (d) Pampers — Argentina
answer from the codes given below: 15. Consider the following statements:
1. A desert is a barren area of land where little
List-I List-II
precipitation occurs.
(Type of winds) (Region)
2. The Sahara desert is the largest singles
A. Blizzard 1. Pairie Plains
stretch desert.
B. Chinook 2. Siberian Plains 3. The next biggest desert is the Great
C. Bora 3. Greenland Australian desert.
D. Khamsin 4. Egypt Which of the statement(s) given is/are correct?
Codes: (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
A B C D (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
(a) 3 1 4 2 16. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(b) 1 2 3 4 answer using the code given below:
(c) 2 1 3 4 List-I List-II
(d) 4 3 1 2 (Current) (Feature)
11. Arrange the following continents in the ascending A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in
order of their areal size and select the correct Atlantic Ocean
answer from the codes given below: B. Peru 2. Cold current in the
1. Antarctica 2. Australia current Atlantic Ocean
3. Europe 4. South America C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the
Codes: current Pacific Ocean
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 2, 4, 1, 3 D. Florida current 4. Cold current in
(c) 2, 3, 1, 4 (d) 1, 3, 4, 2 the Pacific Ocean
B-50 || World Geography
Codes: Codes:
A B C D (a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(a) 3 4 2 1 (b) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) 3 2 4 1 (c) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1 4 2 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(d) 1 2 4 3
17. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct 21. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Tribe) (Region) (Continent) (Desert)
A. Semang 1. Congo Basin A. Asia 1. Atacama
B. Kirghiz 2. Malaysia B. Africa 2. Great Sandy Desert
C. Bushman 3. Central Asia C. Australia 3. Kalahari
D. Pygmies 4. Kalahari desert D. South America 4. Gobi
Codes:
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 3 1 A B C D
(b) 1 3 2 4 (a) 4 2 3 1
(c) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 1 4 3 2
18. Japan is one of the leading industrial countries in (d) 1 2 3 4
the world because it has: 22. Which of the following are temperate grasslands?
1. developed hydel power Select the correct answer from the codes given
2. large deposits of metallic mineral below:
3. high technological capability
1. Campos
4. insular location
Of these statements: 2. Llanoes
(a) 1, 2 and 4 are correct 3. Downs
(b) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 4. Pampas
(c) 1 and 3 are correct Codes:
(d) 2 and 4 are correct (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
19. The correct decreasing order of the population of (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
the various continents is 23. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) Asia, Europe, America, Africa, Australia. answer from the codes given below:
(b) Asia, America, Europe, Africa, Australia.
List-I List-II
(c) Asia, Eruope, Africa, America, Australia.
(d) Asia, America, Africa, Europe, Australia. A. Tin 1. Mexico
20. Examine the following statements and select the B. Silver 2. Zambia
correct answer using the codes given below: C. Mica 3. Malaysia
1. The greater part of Russia is having cold D. Copper 4. India
climate. Codes:
2. Development of Russia is largely concentrated A B C D
west of Ural mountains. (a) 4 2 1 3
3. Siberia is an important agricultural region of (b) 1 3 2 4
Russia.
(c) 3 1 4 1
4. In Russia, Ural mountains separate the two
extensive plains. (d) 4 3 2 2
Geography || B-51
24. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 28. Match List-I and List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below: answer from the codes given below:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Crops) (Main producing area) (Country) (River)
A. Coconut 1. Kenya A. Brazil 1. Orinoco
B. Banana 2. Papua New Guinea B. Argentina 2. Maranon
C. Groundnut 3. Ecuador C. Peru 3. Araguaia
D. Tea 4. Senegal D. Venezuela 4. Colorado
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 3 4 1 (a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 4 3 2 (b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 3 2 1 4 (c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 4 1 2 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
25. Arrange the following islands of Japan in 29. Consider the following statements and select the
ascending order of their areal size and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
correct answer from the codes: Assertion (A): Japan has developed hydro-
1. Hokkaido electric power on a large-scale.
2. Honshu Reason (R): Japan lacks adequate coal and
3. Shikoku oil deposits.
4. Kyushu Codes:
Codes: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(a) 4, 3, 2, 1 (b) 1, 2, 3, 4
explanation of A.
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
26. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
explanation of A.
answer from the codes:
(c) A is true, but R is false.
List-I List-II
(d) A is false, but R is true.
(City) (River)
30. Which of the following pairs of straights and the
A. St. Paul-Minneapolis 1. Danube
countries they separate is wrongly matched?
B. Khartoum 2. Mekong
(a) Gibraltar strait — Spain and Morocoo
C. Budapest 3. Mississippi
(b) Bering strait — Sumatra and Malaysia
D. Phnom Penh 4. Nile
(c) Magellan strait — Chile and Tiera del
Codes:
fuego
A B C D
(d) Bass strait — Australia and Tasmania
(a) 3 2 1 4
(b) 2 4 3 1 31. Consider the following areas:
(c) 4 2 3 1 1. Central Africa
(d) 3 4 1 2 2. Borneo and Papua New Guinea
27. Which one of the following is not correctly 3. Amazon Basin
matched? In which of the above areas is the primitive
(a) Duluth — Lake Superior agriculture, such as shifting cultivation or bush-
(b) Detroit — Lake Huron fallow type of cultivation, found?
(c) Chicago — Lake Michigan (a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2
(d) Ottawa — Lake Ontario (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
B-52 || World Geography
32. Currently half of the world’s population lives 37. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
in just six countries. Identify them from the matched?
following. Tribes — Countries
(a) India, China, Pakistan, Brazil, Bangladesh, (a) Berber — Morocco
Indonesia. (b) Inuits — Canada
(b) India, China, Brazil, Pakistan, Bhutan, (c) Semangs — Indonesia
United State. (d) Veddas — Sri Lanka
(c) China, India, United State, Indonesia, Brazil, 38. Match List-I with List-II. Select the correct
Pakistan. answer from the codes:
(d) China, India, Bangladesh, United State, List-I List-II
Pakistan, Brazil. (Minerals) (Important centres)
33. The expression ‘South Asia’ usually includes: A. Copper 1. Butte
(a) Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, B. Diamond 2. Katanga
Pakistan and Sri Lanka C. Gold 3. Kimberley
(b) Nepal, Bhutan, India, Afghanistan, China D. Silver 4. Witwatersrand
and Pakistan Codes:
(c) Bangladesh, Bhutan, China, Maldives, A B C D
Nepal and Pakistan (a) 2 4 3 1
(d) Sri Lanka, Afghanistan, Bhutan, India, (b) 2 3 4 1
China, Nepal and Bangladesh (c) 1 3 2 4
34. Consider the following countries: (d) 3 1 4 2
1. Australia 39. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly
2. Namibia matched?
3. Brazil Countries — Capital
4. Chile (a) Hungary — Budapest
Through which of the above does the tropic of (b) Zaire — Kinshasa
Capricorn pass? (c) Kenya — Nairobi
(a) 1 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (d) New Zealand — Christ Church
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 40. Consider the following statements and select the
35. Which of the following is not correctly correct answer from the codes given below:
matched? Assertion (A): The production of rubber is
(a) Indonesia — Jakarta decreasing in the Amazon.
(b) Maldives — Male Reason (R): Equatorial climate is favourable
(c) North Korea — Seoul for rubber plantation.
(d) Zimbabwe — Harare Codes:
36. Which of the following countries are landlocked (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
countries? explanation of A.
1. Afghanistan (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct
2. Hungary explanation of A.
3. Malaysia (c) A is true, but R is false.
4. Switzerland (d) A is false, but R is true.
Select the correct answer from the codes given 41. Consider the following pairs:
below: 1. St. Petersburg — Gulf of Finland
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3 2. Stockholm — Baltic Sea
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4 3. Washington D.C. — Colorado
Geography || B-53
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 64. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 1. In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at
(c) Both1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 the centre surrounded by the areas of high
60. Consider the following statements:
pressure
1. International Date Line lies on the Greenwich
Meridian. 2. In a cyclone, the areas of low pressure
2. The date of Alaska is ahead of the date of surround the area of high pressure
Siberia. 3. In an anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? is surrounded by the areas of low pressure
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
4. In an anti-cyclone, the area of low pressure
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
61. Consider the following statements: is surrounded by the areas of high pressure
1. In tropical grassland regions, rainfall mainly Select the correct answer using the code given
occurs in the short summer season with a long below:
dry season. Code:
2. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall (a) 1 and 2 (b) 1and 3
is caused by the passage of cyclones in the (c) 1 and 4 (d) 2 and 4
westerly wind belt which lies over this area.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 65. Which among the following statements about the
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only North Atlantic Drift is/are correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 I. It keeps the west coast of Northern Europe
62. Match List I with List II and select the correct ice free
answer using the codes given below the lists: II. It is responsible for the warm air mass which
List I List II interacts with the cold air mass from the Polar
(Volcano) (Country) region and causes rainfall in Western Europe
A. Mount Etna 1. India III. It meets the Labrador current near Vancouver
B. Kilinanajaro 2. USA Island and causes dense fog
C. Katmai 3. Tanzania Select the correct answer using the code given
D. Barren Island 4. Italy below
(a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
Codes:
A B C D (c) II only (d) I and III only
(a) 1 3 2 4 66. Match List I with List II and select the correct
(b) 4 2 3 1 answer using the code given below the lists:
(c) 1 2 3 4 List I List II
(d) 4 3 2 1
(Desert) (Country)
63. Consider the following statements
1. International Date Line is drawn zigzag to A. Kalahari 1. Angola
avoid landmass. B. Namib 2. Sudan
2. International Date Line is 180° W as well as C. Nubian 3. Botswana
180° E of Greenwich. D. Atacama 4. Chile
3. A ship sailing westward from Greenwich when Code:
crossing International Date Line would put back
(a) A-4; B-2; C-1; D-3
the date by a day.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (b) A-3; B-2; C-1; D-4
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) A-4; B-1; C-2; D-3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 only (d) A-3; B-1; C-2; D-4
B-56 || World Geography
67. Match List I with List II and select the correct 2. They are almost absent in the South Atlantic
answer using the code given below the lists: Ocean.
List I List II 3. They do not develop close to the equator.
(Current) (Feature) Select the correct answer using the code given
A. Kuroshio current 1. Warm current in below.
Atlantic Ocean (a) 1 only (b) 2 and 3 only
B. Peru 2. Cold current in the (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
current Atlantic Ocean 69. Consider the following statements regarding El
C. Labrador 3. Warm current in the Nino effect on Indian Monsoon :
current Pacific Ocean 1. The surface temperature goes up in the
D. Florida current 4. Cold current in Southern Pacific Ocean and there is deficient
the Pacific Ocean rainfall in India.
Code: 2. The Walker Circulation shifts eastward from
(a) A-3; B-4; C-2; D-1 its normal position and reduces monsoon
(b) A-3; B-2 C-4; D-1 rainfall in India.
(c) A-1; B-4; C-2; D-3 Which of the statements given above is are correct?
(d) A-1; B-2; C-4; D-3
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
68. Which of the following statements regarding
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
hurricanes is/are correct?
1. They develop over the ocean between 8° – 15°
N.
Geography || B-57
ANSWER KEY
1. (d) 10. (c) 19. (c) 28. (d) 37. (c) 46. (d) 55. (a) 64. (b)
2. (b) 11. (c) 20. (c) 29. (a) 38. (b) 47. (d) 56. (b) 65. (b)
3. (b) 12. (a) 21. (b) 30. (b) 39. (d) 48. (a) 57. (a) 66. (d)
4. (d) 13. (d) 22. (c) 31. (d) 40. (b) 49. (c) 58. (a) 67. (a)
5. (a) 14. (b) 23. (c) 32. (c) 41. (b) 50. (b) 59. (c) 68. (a)
6. (d) 15. (d) 24. (a) 33. (a) 42. (a) 51. (c) 60. (d) 69. (c)
7. (a) 16. (a) 25. (d) 34. (d) 43. (a) 52. (d) 61. (c)
8. (c) 17. (d) 26. (d) 35. (c) 44. (d) 53. (c) 62. (d)
9. (b) 18. (c) 27. (b) 36. (d) 45. (a) 54. (b) 63. (c)
Hokkaido – Hokkaido is the second largest island mainstem source of the Amazon river, arising about
of Japan with a total area of 32,221 square miles 160 km to the northeast of Lima, Peru, and flowing
(83,453 sq km). through a deeply eroded Andean valley.
Kyushu – It has a total area of 13,761 square miles Venezuela – Orinoco. The Orinoco is one of the
(35,640 sq km). longest rivers in South America at 2,140 km. Its
Shikoku – Shikoku is the smallest of Japan’s main drainage basin, sometimes called the Orinoquia,
islands with a total area of 7,260 square miles covers 880,000 square kilometres, with 76.3% of it
(18,800 sq km). in Venezuela and the remainder in Colombia.
26. (d) St. Paul-Minneapolis – Mississippi. The 29. (a) Hydroelectricity is Japan’s main renewable
Mississippi river is the chief river of the largest
energy source, with an installed capacity of about 27
drainage system in North America. Flowing entirely
GW and a production of 69.2 TWh of electricity in
in the United States (though its drainage basin
2009, making Japan one of the biggest hydroelectricity
reaches into Canada), it rises in northern Minnesota
producers in the world.
and meanders slowly southwards for 2,320 miles
30. (b) Bering strait divides Alaska and Russia.
(3,730 km) to the Mississippi river delta at the Gulf
of Mexico. 32. (c) China – India – United State – Indonesia – Brazil
Khartoum – Nile. The Nile is a major north-flowing – Pakistan
river in northeastern Africa, generally regarded as the 33. (a) South Asia or southern Asia is the southern
longest river in the world. It is 6,853 km long. region of the Asian continent, which comprises the
Budapest – Danube. The Danube is a river in central sub-Himalayan countries and for some authorities,
Europe, the European Union’s longest and the also includes the adjoining countries to the west
continent’s second longest. and the east. South Asia includes 10 countries and
Phnom Penh – Mekong. The Mekong is a trans- 2 territories:
boundary river in south east Asia. It is the world’s Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Iran,
12th longest river and the 7th longest in Asia. Its Maldives, Myanmar, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri
estimated length is 4,350 km, and it drains an area Lanka.
of 795,000 km2, discharging 457 km3 of water Two territories: British Indian Ocean Territory and
annually. Tibet (China).
27. (b) Detroit is situated lake Erie. Detroit is the 35. (c) North Korea – Pyong-Yong (It is the capital of
most populous city in the U.S. state of Michigan, North Korea.)
and is the seat of Wayne County, the most populous
37. (c) Semang – Malaysia
county in the state and the largest city on the United
38. (b) A. Copper – Katanga
States – Canada border.
B. Diamond – Kimberley
28. (d) Brazil – Araguaia. The Araguaia river is one of
C. Gold – Witwatersrand
the major rivers of Brazil, and the principal tributary
D. Silver – Butte
of the Tocantins, though it is almost equal in volume
40. (b) Cultivation of rubber in Brazil, its native
at its confluence with the Tocantins. It has a total
habitat, was severely hindered by blight in the early
length of approximately 2,627 km.
20th century. At present, most of the world’s natural
Argentina – Colorado. The Colorado river is the
rubber is produced by rubber trees descended from
principal river of the southwestern United States and
rubber seedlings transplanted from South America to
northwest Mexico. The 1,450-mile river drains an
south and south east Asia. The most severe disease is
expansive, arid watershed that encompasses parts of
South American Leaf Blight (SALB). This disease is
seven U.S. and two Mexican states.
endemic throughout the rubber growing areas in the
Peru – Maranon. The Marañón river is the principal or
Americas. It also poses a major global threat. The
B-60 || World Geography
fungus can be controlled by a number of fungicides. 51. (c) From the Equator to Pole the idealised global
Some species are not susceptible to the disease, and pattern of surface wind is
some strains of susceptible species are resistant. Doldrum > Trade wind > Westerlies > Easterlies
Crown budding or grafting of resistant plants onto 52. (d) A hurricane is a tropical cyclone, occurring in
productive trees can be used to control spread. the North Atlantic ocean or the North-East Pacific
43. (a) Mt. Everest – Nepal ocean, East of International Date Line.
K2 – India 53. (c) Arab sea is a sea that lay between Kazakhstan
Mt. McKinley – USA in North and Uzbekistan in South. The sea of Azov
Mt. Aconcagua – South America is a sea on the South of Eastern Europe.
All these are the names of highest mountain peaks
54. (b) The suez canal joins the mediterrahean sea
located in the countries respectively.
with the Red sea, it is an artificial sea level waterway
44. (d) Baffin – North Atlantic Ocean. Baffin Island,
in Egypt also known as ‘The highway to India’. It
in the Canadian territory of Nunavut, is the largest
was opened in 1869.
island in Canada and the fifth largest island in the
55. (a) A. Semeru Volcano is situated in Indonesia.
world. Its area is 507,451 km2 and its population is
B. Cotopaxi Volcano is situated in Equador.
about 11,000.
45. (a) 1. Thailand – Siam C. Etma Voplcano is situated in Italy.
2. Ghana – Gold Coast D. Kilomanjaro Vaolcano is situated in Kenya.
3. Zambia – Northern Rhodesia 56. (b) Temperatre cyclone rises in middle latitude
4. Japan – Nippon. between 35° and 65° latitudes. This region is the belt
47. (d) Demographic transition refers to the transition of western winds.
from high death rate and high birth rate to low death 57. (a) The Falkand current is a cold current. It flows
and birth rates, as a country develops from a pre- along the Argentina’s coast in South Atlantic Ocean.
industrial to industrialised economic system. 58. (a) At the centre of a cyclone is an area of calm
48. (a) Local Wind Area of Prevalence called the eye. The eye is usually about 40 km in
1. Chinook Rocky mountain slopes diameter.
of the USA Air in the centre of a cyclone is less dense than air
2. Foehn Northern slopes of Alps around it because the temperature inside the eye is
3. Sirocco North African desert greater than that of the surroundings.
4. Mistral Sourthern slops of Alps 59. (c) Cyclone is a mass of air whose isobars form an
49. (c) oval or circular shape, with low pressure at the centre.
List-I List-II
The air converge at the centre and rises to disposed
(Natural Vegetation of (Annual Rainfall
off. In a dipression, the winds rotate anticlockwise
India) Received)
A. Tropical evergreen 1. Above 200 cm in northern hemisphere. While in the southern
forests hemisphere, the circular movement of winds is in
B. Tropical deciduous 2. 100-200 cm clockwise direction.
forests 60. (d) Meridian is 0° longitude and international date
C. Tropical dry forests 3. 50-100 cm line is 180° longitude. A person travelling wastwards
D. Arid forests 4. Less than 50 cm
of the Prime Meridian up to 180° W will put his watch
50. (b) The labrador current is a cold current in the back by 12 hours and the other person eastwards upto
North Atlantic ocean which flows form the Arctic 180° will have to put his watch 12 hours forward.
ocean South along with the coast of labrador and
Alaska is in west and Siberia is in East. So, the date
passes around New Foundland continuing South
of Siberia is head of the date of Alaska.
along the East coast of Nova Satia.
Geography || B-61
61. (c) Tropical grassland located mainly in the 67. (a) a. Kuroshio current - warm Pacific current
continental areas of tropical latitudes where rains fall b. Peru current - cold current in
during the summer season which lasts for about five Pacific ocean
months. In Mediterranean region, the winter rainfall c. Labrador current - cold current in
Atlantic ocean
due to middle latitude fronts and cyclones.
d. Florida current - Warm current in
62. (d) Mount Etna (Italy), Kilimanjaro (Tanzania),
Atlantic ocean
Katmai (USA) and Barren Island (India-Andaman 68. (a) Hurricanes develop over the oceans between
& Nicobar island) 8°-15° N. The term “tropical” refers to the
63. (c) International date line lies between 180°W and geographical origin of these systems, which usually
180ºE of Greenwitch. It is drawn zigzag to avoid form over the tropical oceans. The term “cyclone”
landmass. There is a difference in 1 day if a ship sails refers to their cyclonic nature, with wind blowing
westward from Greenwitch by crossing the date line. counterclockwise in the Northern Hemisphere and
64. (b) In a cyclone, the area of low pressure is at the clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere. The opposite
centre surrounded by the areas of high pressure. In an direction of circulation is due to the Coriolis force.
Depending on its location and strength, a tropical
anti-cyclone, the area of high pressure is surrounded
cyclone is referred to by names such as hurricane,
by the areas of high pressure.
typhoon, tropical storm, cyclonic storm, tropical
65. (b) The North Atlantic current or Drift or sea depression and simply cyclone.
movement is a powerful warm ocean current that 69. (c) El Nino is a shift in ocean temperatures and
continues the gulf stream northeast, which stretches atmospheric conditions in the tropical Pacific that
from Florida to north- western Europe. It moderates
disrupts weather around the world. It is a poorly
the chilled climate of western Europe.
understood recurrent climatic phenomenon that
66. (d) A. Kalahari – Botswana
primarily affects the Pacific coast of South America,
B. Namib – Angola
but has dramatic impacts on weather patterns all
C. Nubian – Sudan
D. Atacama – Chile. over the world. In the Indian Ocean, it affects the
movement of the monsoon winds.
5 Geography of India
1. Which of the following statements are correct? 5. Which one of the following is the correct
1. Assam shares a border with Bangladesh and descending order of the three most populous
Bhutan. states of India (2011)?
2. West Bengal shares a border with Bhutan (a) Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Bihar
(b) Maharashtra, Bihar, West Bengal
and Nepal.
(c) Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal
3. Meghalaya shares a border with Bangladesh (d) Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Bihar
and Myanmar. 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 answer from the codes given below:
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
2. The Himalayan range is very rich in species (Tribe) (State)
diversity. Which one among the following is most A. Lepcha 1. Madhya Pradesh
appropriate reason for this phenomenon? B. Malpaharia 2. Rajasthan
C. Gond 3. Sikkim
(a) It has high rainfall that supports luxuriant
D. Bhill 4. Jharkhand
vegetative growth Codes :
(b) It is a confluence of different bio-geographical A B C D
zones. (a) 3 4 1 2
(c) Exotic and invasive species have not been (b) 3 4 2 1
introduced in this region. (c) 4 3 1 2
(d) It has less human interference. (d) 1 4 3 2
3. Which one of the following is correctly matched? 7. Which one of the following statements is true?
(a) Bauxite – Rajasthan (a) The Tungabhadra Project serves the states of
Kerla and Tamil Nadu.
(b) Copper – Madhya Pradesh
(b) The Kundoh Project lies in Karnataka.
(c) Iron ore – Uttar Pradesh (c) The Salal Project serves the states of
(d) Mica – Jharkhand Himachal Pradesh.
4. Which of the following factors are responsible (d) The Sharavathy Project is located at the Jog
for the rapid growth of sugar production in south falls.
India as compared to north India? 8. Consider the following statements and select the
1. Higher per acre field of sugarcane correct answer by using the codes given below:
2. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane Assertion (A): There has been some decline
3. Lower labour cost in the growth rate of India’s
4. Longer crushing period population in recent years.
Reason (R): According to 2011 census,
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1, 2 and 3
about 3/4 of Indian’s population
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
is literate.
Geography || B-63
26. Consider the following statements: 31. Arrange the following languages in decreasing
1. As per census 2011, the population growth order of their speakers in India.
rate of Nagaland during 2001–2011 was the (a) Hindi, Bengali, Telugu, Marathi, Tamil, Urdu.
lowest among the states of India. (b) Urdu, Tamil, Marathi, Telugu, Bengali,
2. As per census 2011, the population growth Hindi.
rate of Dadra and Nagar Haveli was the (c) Hindi, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu, Telugu,
highest among the states of India/Union Tamil.
territory. (d) Hindi, Tamil Telugu, Marathi, Bengali, Urdu.
Which of the statements given above is/are 32. Which one of the following statements is not
correct? correct regarding tank irrigation in peninsular
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only India?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Percolation of rainwater is less due to hard
27. Arrange the following states in the descending rock.
order of literacy as per census report of 2011 and (b) Most of the rivers are seasonal and dry up in
select the correct answer from the codes given at summer reason.
the end. (c) Underground water level is higher
1. Kerala 2. Manipur (d) Rainwater can be easily stored by
3. Tamil Nadu 4. Himachal Pradesh constructing tanks.
Codes: 33. Examine the following statements and select the
(a) 1, 4, 3, 2 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 correct answer using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 4, 1, 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 1. Rihand Dam is on a tributary of the Son river.
28. A state in India has the following characteristics: 2. Hirakund Dam is on the Mahanadi river.
1. It northern part is arid and semiarid. 3. Tungabhadra Project is a joint venture of the
2. Its central part produces cotton. Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka states.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant 4. Kosi is known as the ‘Sorrow of Bihar’.
over food crops.
Codes:
Which one of the following states has all of the
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
above characteristics?
(b) 2, 3, and 4 are correct.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Gujarat
(c) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(c) Karnataka (d) Tamil Nadu
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
29. As per geological periods the correct sequence of
34. Consider the following statements and select the
order of the following is
correct answer by using the codes given below:
1. Aravalli 2. Himalayas
Assertion (A): India enjoys tropical monsoon
3. Deccan plateau 4. Eastern Ghat
climate.
Codes:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 (b) 4, 3, 2, 1 Reason (R): India is located within the
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 2, 1, 4, 3 tropics.
30. Which of the following reasons is responsible for Select the correct answer from the following
the protests against the Tehri Dam Project? codes:
(a) The vulnerability of the dam region to Codes:
earthquakes. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(b) The environmental distance caused by the explanation of A.
project. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
(c) The problem of displacement of the local explanation of A.
people. (c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) All of the above (d) A is false, but R is true.
B-66 || Geography of India
35. Arrange the following mountain ranges from 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
north to south order and select the correct answer answer using the codes given below:
from the codes: List-I List-II
1. Dholadhar A. Vikram Sarabhai 1. Bangalore
2. Ladakh Space Centre
3. Pirpanjal B. SHAR Centre 2. Thumba
4. Zaskar C. Space Application 3. Sri Harikota
Codes: Centre
(a) 2, 4, 1, 3 (b) 4, 2, 1, 3 D. ISRO Satellite 4. Ahmedabad
(c) 2, 4, 3, 1 (d) 4, 2, 3, 1 Centre
36. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer from the codes given below: A B C D
List-I List-II (a) 1 2 3 4
A. Valley town 1. Mussoorie (b) 2 3 4 1
B. Confluence town 2. Rishikesh (c) 2 3 1 4
C. Gate town 3. Tehri (d) 3 2 4 1
D. Ridge town 4. Dehradun 40. Consider the following statements:
Codes: 1. In India, natural rubber is produced in
A B C D southern India only.
(a) 1 3 2 4 2. Among the coffee growing states of India,
(b) 2 3 4 1 the lowest average yield per hectare of
(c) 4 3 2 1 plucked coffee is in Kerala.
(d) 2 4 3 1 Which of the statements given above is/are
37. Consider the following specific stages of correct?
demographic transition associated with economic (a) 1 only
development: (b) 2 only
1. Low birth rate with low death rate. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. High birth rate with high death rate. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. High birth rate with low death rate. 41. Among the following states, which one has
Select the correct order of the above stages using the most suitable climatic conditions for the
the codes given below: cultivation of a large variety of orchids with
Codes: minimum cost of production and can develop an
(a) 1, 2, 3 (b) 2, 1, 3 export oriented industry in this field?
(c) 2, 3, 1 (d) 3, 2, 1 (a) Goa
38. Which one of the following years is known as (b) U.P.
the ‘Year of the Great Divide’ with regard to (c) M.P
population, after which there has been a continuous (d) Arunachal Pradesh
and rapid growth in India’s population? 42. Which of the following shows the correct
(a) 1911 geographical spread of the plateaus?
(b) 1921 1. Chota Nagpur Plateau – much of Jharkhand,
(c) 1941 West Bengal and adjacent parts of Orissa,
(d) 1951 Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
Geography || B-67
2. Deccan Plateau – Vindhyas to the north and 4. To provide insights into the mass extinction,
flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. thermal structure and state of stress in the
3. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh lithosphere and geothermal potential of the
and Gujarat. West Coast Belt as well as the geothermal
4. Malwa Plateau – Rajasthan, Maharashtra record of climate change in the region.
and Gujarat. Select the answer from the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (a) 1, 2, and 3 (b) 2, 3, and 4
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 3, and 4 (d) All of the above
43. Which of the following shows the correct match 46. Which of the following National Park’s
of India’s natural resource with their world-wide uniqueness lies in its man-made lakes and ancient
production rank? reservoirs, which have merged into the natural
(a) Rank 1 - barites and chromites; Rank 2 - iron system as vital sources of water? It also has a
ore; Rank 3 - mica blocks and mica splitting; large populaton of panthers, the second largest
predators of the forest.
Rank 4 - coal; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel
(a) Ranthambore National Park
(b) Rank 1 - bauxite and crude steel; Rank 2 - mica
(b) Bandavgarh National Park
blocks and mica splitting; Rank 3 - coal; Rank (c) Bharatpur National Park
4 - barites and chromites; Rank 5 - iron ore (d) Kanha National Park
(c) Rank 1 - coal; Rank 2 - mica blocks and mica 47. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
splitting; Rank 3 - iron ore; Rank 4 - bauxite and answer using the codes given below.
crude steel; Rank 5 - barites and chromites List-I List-II
(d) Rank 1 - mica blocks and mica splitting; Rank (Lakes) (States)
2 - barites and chromites; Rank 3 - coal; Rank A. Loktak 1. Maharashtra
4 - iron ore; Rank 5 - bauxite and crude steel B. Pulicut 2. Jammu-Kashmir
44. Which of the following statements about alluvial C. Lonar 3. Tamil Nadu
soils of India are correct? D. Wular 4. Manipur
Codes:
1. These are mostly clay soils and form deep
A B C D
cracks during dry season.
(a) 4 3 1 2
2. Usually they are very productive soils. (b) 3 2 4 1
3. These soils occur at high elevations as well (c) 2 3 1 4
as at low elevations. (d) 1 4 3 2
4. Many of these soils are deficient in nitrogen, 48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
humus and phosphorus. answer using the codes given below the Lists:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4 List-I List-II
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (Tribes) (States)
45. Which of the following are aims of scientific deep A. Oraon 1. Kerala
drilling project in the Koyna intra-plate seismic B. Khond 2. Gujarat
zone? C. Chenchu 3. Jharkhand
D. Todai 4. Odisha
1. To provide an opportunity to understand
Codes:
the mechanism of reservoir-triggered
A B C D
earthquakes. (a) 3 4 1 2
2. To develop measures to prevent earthquake (b) 4 3 2 1
in a stable continental region. (c) 3 2 4 1
3. To give insights into Deccan volcanism. (d) 2 1 3 4
B-68 || Geography of India
49. Consider the following statements and choose the 53. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
1. Jhum cultivation is adopted in North-Eastern List-I List-II
State of India. A. Gulf Stream 1. Pacific Ocean
2. Jhum cultivation is a process of afforestation. B. West Wind Drift 2. A slow eastward
(a) 1 only movement of water
(b) 2 only over the zone of
(c) Both 1 and 2 westerly wind
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 C. Peru Current 3. Indian Ocean
50. Which one among the following is the correct D. West Australian 4. Warm current
sequence of the rivers from north to south? Current
(a) Damodar-Brahmani-Mahanadi-Tungabhadra Codes:
(b) Damodar-Mahanadi-Brahmani- Tungabhadra A B C D
(c) Brahmani-Tungabhadra-Damodar- Mahanadi
(a) 4 2 1 3
(d) Damodar-Brahmani-Tungabhadra- Mahanadi
(b) 1 3 4 2
51. Consider the following sanctuaries of India:
(c) 4 3 1 2
1. Periyar
(d) 1 2 4 3
2. Dachigam
54. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
3. Sariska
answer from the codes given below:
4. Kanha
List-I List-II
Which one among the following is the correct
sequence of locations of the above sanctuaries (Times of climate) (Region)
from south to north? A. Aw 1. Rain shadow
(a) 1, 4, 2, 3 (b) 4, 1, 3, 2 zone of
(c) 1, 4, 3, 2 (d) 3, 1, 4, 2 Karnataka
52. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct B. Amw 2. Thar Desert
answer using the codes given below. C. BShw 3. W. Bengal and
List-I List-II Bihar
(Hydroelectric (Location in map) D. BWhw 4. Malabar Coast
power station) Codes:
A B C D
A. Nagarjuna Sagar
(a) 3 4 1 2
B. Mettur 4 (b) 3 1 4 2
3 (c) 2 1 4 3
C. Hirakud
2
(d) 2 4 1 3
D. Sileru
1
55. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer from the codes given below:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D (Rivers) (Their Tributaries)
(a) 3 4 1 2 A. Krishna 1. Chambal
(b) 3 1 4 2
B. Brahamaputra 2. Indravati
(c) 2 1 4 3
C. Godavari 3. Tista
(d) 2 4 1 3
D. Yamuna 4. Bhima
Geography || B-69
Codes : Codes :
A B C D A B C D A B C D A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1 (b) 1 3 4 2 (a) 4 1 3 2 (b) 2 1 3 4
(c) 1 4 3 2 (d) 2 3 4 1 (c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4
88. Match List I with List II and select the correct 92. Which of the following has/have been declared as
answer using the code given below the Lists: national waterways in India ?
List-I List-II I. The Allahabad-Haldia stretch of river Ganga
(National Highway No.) (Cities connected) II. The Sadiya-Dhubri stretch of river
A. NH 5 1. Bhopal-Jaipur Brahmaputra
B. NH 7 2. Bhubaneswar- III. The Cherla-Rajamundry stretch of river
Chennai Godavari
C. NH 9 3. Nagpur-Varanasi Select the correct answer using the code given
D. NH 12 4. Pune-Hyderabad below
Codes :
(a) I and II oniy (b) II and III only
A B C D A B C D
(c) I only (d) I, II and III
(a) 2 1 4 3 (b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 2 3 4 1 (d) 4 1 2 3 93. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
89. Consider the following statements : I. Mumbai receives more rainfall than Pune
1. Alamatti dam is on the Cauvery river. because it is located at the windward side of
2. Mettur dam in on the Krishna river. Western Ghats
3. Gandhi Sagar Reservoir is on the Chambal II. Vidarbha region experiences semi-arid
river. climate as it is located in a rain shadow region
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? III. In India monsoon reaches Kashmir valley at
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only the last
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 3 only Select the correct answer using the code given
90. Consider the following statements : below :
1. Kandla port is situated at the head of Gulf of (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
khambhat.
(c) II and III only (d) I only
2. Paradeep Port is situated in the Mahanadi
Delta. 94. Which of the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? south-west monsoon in India is/are correct?
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only I. Monsoon reaches the Malabar coast first
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 II. Rajasthan does not get rainfall from south
91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct west monsoon
answer using the code given below the Lists : III. South-west monsoon retreats when the
List-I List-II permanent wind belts start shifting to the
(Type of vegetation) (State) south
A. Mangrove 1 Madhya Pradesh Select the correct answer using the code given
B. Scrub 2 Karnataka below :
C. Teak 3 Rajasthan (a) I, II and III (b) I and II only
D. Coniferous 4 Arunachal Pradesh (c) III only (d) I and III only
B-74 || Geography of India
95. Consider the following statements (a) 1-3-4-2 (b) 3-1-4-2
I. In India, the largest concentration of roads is (c) 3-1-2-4 (d) 1-3-2-4
found in the northern plains 99. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
II. The ratio of surfaced road to the total road answer using the code given below the Lists :
length is lower in the northern plains. List-I List-II
(Mountain pass) (State)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. Zoji La 1. Himachal Pradesh
(a) I only (b) II only
B. Lipulekh 2. Sikkim
(c) Both I and II (d) Neither I nor II
C. Shipki La 3. Uttarakhand
96. Match List I with List II and select the correct D. Nathu La 4. Jammu and Kashmir
answer using the code given below the lists: Codes :
List I List II A B C D A B C D
(Mineral) (State) (a) 2 1 3 4 (b) 2 3 1 4
A. Bauxite 1. Andhra Pradesh (c) 4 1 3 2 (d) 4 3 1 2
B. Mica 2. Orissa 100. Match List I with List II and select the correct
C. Copper 3. Madhya Pradesh answer using the code given below the Lists :
List I List II
D. Zinc 4. Rajasthan
(Himalayan Peak) (State)
Codes :
A B C D A B C D A. K2 1. Uttarakhand
(a) 4 1 3 3 (b) 2 1 3 4 B. Nanda Devi 2. Jammu & Kashmir
(c) 4 3 1 2 (d) 2 3 1 4 C. Tara Pahar 3. Sikkim
97. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct D. Kanchenjunga 4. Himachal Pradesh
answer using the code given below the Lists : Codes :
List-I List-II A B C D A B C D
(Port) (Special feature) (a) 2 4 1 3 (b) 2 1 4 3
A. Kandla 1. Deepest landlocked (c) 3 1 4 2 (d) 3 4 1 2
protected port 101. Which of the following statements is/are correct ?
B. Kochi 2. Located at mouth 1. The local time of Itanagar (Arunachal
of lagoon Pradesh) is about two hours ahead than
C. Vishakhapatnam 3. Tidal port Dwarka (Gujarat).
D. Kolkata 4. Inland riverine port 2. The local time at Chennai (Tamil Nadu) and
Codes : Lucknow (Uttar Pradesh) is almost same.
A B C D A B C D 3. The local time of Mumbai (Maharashtra)
(a) 3 1 2 4 (b) 3 2 1 4 is one hour ahead than Kolkata (West
(c) 4 1 2 3 (d) 4 2 1 3
Bengal).
98. Consider the following coal mines of India :
Select the correct answer using the code given
1. Bokaro 2. Adilabad
below :
3. Raniganj 4. Bishrampur
Select the correct sequence of the above from east (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only
to west. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
Geography || B-75
ANSWER KEY
1. (b) 12. (c) 23. (b) 34. (c) 45. (c) 56. (c) 67. (c) 78. (c) 89. (d) 100. (b)
2. (b) 13. (d) 24. (a) 35. (c) 46. (a) 57. (a) 68. (a) 79. (a) 90. (b) 101. (a)
3. (d) 14. (d) 25. (d) 36. (c) 47. (a) 58. (b) 69. (c) 80. (b) 91. (c)
4. (d) 15. (a) 26. (c) 37. (c) 48. (a) 59. (c) 70. (c) 81. (b) 92. (a)
5. (a) 16. (c) 27. (a) 38. (b) 49. (a) 60. (a) 71. (a) 82. (c) 93. (a)
6. (b) 17. (d) 28. (b) 39. (b) 50. (a) 61. (c) 72. (b) 83. (c) 94. (a)
7. (d) 18. (c) 29. (c) 40. (a) 51. (c) 62. (b) 73. (a) 84. (a) 95. (c)
8. (a) 19. (c) 30. (d) 41. (d) 52. (c) 63. (b) 74. (b) 85. (d) 96. (b)
9. (b) 20. (c) 31. (a) 42. (b) 53. (a) 64. (b) 75. (b) 86. (b) 97. (b)
10. (c) 21. (a) 32. (c) 43. (d) 54. (a) 65. (b) 76. (c) 87. (a) 98. (b)
11. (b) 22. (a) 33. (d) 44. (b) 55. (a) 66. (d) 77. (b) 88. (c) 99. (d)
20. (c) Dalhousie – Himachal Pradesh 35. (c) North to South – Ladakh – Zaskar – Pirpanjal
Darjeeling – West Bengal – Dholadhar
Mussoorie – Uttarakhand 36. (c) Valley town – Dehradun. Dehradun, a capital
Pahalgam – Jammu and Kashmir city of Uttarakhand situated in the northern part
All these are the names of famous hill stations of India. Dehradun is called a beautiful town
located in these states respectively. that is located in the Doon Valley surrounded by
21. (a) Assam tea is a black tea named after the region the Shivalik hills, a mountain range of the outer
of its production, Assam, in India. Assam tea is Himalayas. The Doon city is world famous for its
manufactured specifically from the plant Camellia natural scenic beauty, which includes some visually
sinensis var. assamica (Masters). attractive landscapes and enjoyable climate.
22. (a) Arranged their real size in ascending order – Confluence town – Tehri. Tehri is a beautiful
U.P. – Andhra Pradesh – Maharashtra – Madhya town in the state of Uttarakhand. It is also known
Pradesh. as the municipal board of Tehri Garhwal District
23. (b) South west monsoon occurs from June to in Uttarakhand. It is one of the largest districts in
September and gives maximum rainfall as compared Uttarakhand. It is considered as one of the holiest
to other monsoon. Its direction is south-west.
places of the state as it has numerous temples and is
24. (a) It is a rain shadow zone. A rain shadow is an located at the confluence of the holy rivers, Ganga
area of dry land on the leeward side of a mountain.
and Yamuna.
25. (d) Coal – Karanpura.
Gate town – Rishikesh. Rishikesh is called the main
Gold – Bhander.
gate to heaven as the most holy Char Dham Yatra
Mica – Nellore as specified in Hindu mythology begins from here.
Manganese – Hutti The buses and taxies are available at Rishikesh
All these are names of mines of different minerals in for this Yatra of Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri,
different places in India. and Yamunotri. Rishikesh is a small town, having
26. (c) Reference-Census 2011. Final data. population of around 80,000 people. It is located
27. (a) Descending order of literacy census report of very close to Haridwar at a distance of around 15
2011 – Kerala – Himachal Pradesh – Tamil Nadu – miles.
Manipur.
Ridge town – Mussoorie. Located on a 15 km
28. (b) Gujarat. The total geographical area of Gujarat
long horseshoe ridge with the grand Himalayas as
is 19,602,400 hectares, of which crops take up
a backdrop, the colonial hill resort of Mussoorie
10,630,700 hectares. The three main sources of
spreads across at a height of 2,005.5 m above sea
growth in Gujarat’s agriculture are from cotton
production, the rapid growth of high-value foods level. From this vantage point, Mussoorie offers
such as livestock, fruits and vegetables, and from superb scenic view of peaks of the Himalayas in
wheat production, which saw an annual average western Garhwal.
growth rate of 28% between 2000 and 2008. 38. (b) ‘1921’ is the year of great divide. The year
29. (c) Aravalli – Eastern Ghat – Deccan plateau – 1921 is taken as the demographic divide for the
Himalaya. reason that before this year, the population was not
31. (a) Hindi–Bengali–Telugu–Marathi–Tamil–Urdu. stable, sometimes it increased and at other times
32. (c) Underground water level is less in peninsular it decreased. The growth rate of population was
region of India and high in north region of India. generally low before 1921. But after this year, there
34. (c) India is located in the middle of tropic of has been considerable and continuous increase in
cancer. the population.
B-78 || Geography of India
39. (b) Vikram Sarabhai space centre – Thumba Black soils are mostly clay soils and form deep
SHAR – Sri Harikota cracks during dry season. An accumulation of lime
is generally noticed of varying depths. They are
Space application centre – Ahmedabad
popularly known as “Black cotton soils” because of
ISRO Satellite Centre – Bangalore
their dark brown colour and suitability for growing
All these are names of space centers in different cotton. These are also known as Indian regurs.
places of India, respectively. These soils are deficient in nitrogen, phosphoric
40. (a) During 2012-13, India produced 912,200 tons acid and organic matter but rich in calcium, potash
of rubber registering 0.9% rise over the previous and magnesium
financial year. 45. (c) The objective of the project is to undertake the
investigations of 6-8 kilometers in a deep borehole
41. (d) Arunachal Pradesh. Arunachal is endowed
in the Koyna-Warna region of Maharashtra. For past
with rich variety of orchids found in almost all
five decade, the earthquakes have been occurring
parts of the state. Number of them are ornamentals in the restricted area of 20×30 square kilometer,
with exquisite beauty. The Orchid Society of India which includes the earthquake of magnitude of 6.3
(established in 1984) decided to open regional in December 1967. Koyna–Warna area is the best
chapters to spread the message of conservation site in the world, which acts as a natural laboratory
and promotion of orchids throughout the country. to study reservoir-triggered earthquakes. A research
The chapter for Arunachal, Assam and Tripura was laboratory will be set up at Karad as a part of the
entrusted to Dr. S. N. Hegde, Orchidologist. project, which will serve as the operational center
42. (b) The correct geographical spread of the plateaus for carrying out the research activities related to
seismic, deep drilling, borehole investigations, core
is as follows:
analysis and research in associated fields.
1. Chota Nagpur Plateau - Jharkhand and adjacent
46. (a) The Ranthambore National Park, set against
parts of Odisha, Bihar and Chhattisgarh.
the backdrop of the historic 1000-year-old
2. Deccan Plateau - Vindhyas to the north and
Ranthambore Fort, lies in the area where the ancient
flanked by the Eastern and Western Ghats. ranges of the Vindhyas’ flat-topped hills merge
3. Malwa Plateau - Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh with the sharp ridges of the Aravalis. Ranthambore
and Gujarat. also has a large populaton of panthers, the second
43. (d) India is the world’s biggest producer of mica largest predators of the forest. Marsh Crocodiles
blocks and mica splittings. India ranks second abound in the lakes and Gharial can be spotted close
amongst the world’s largest producers of barites and by in the Chambal River, which also harbors the
chromites. India is the third-largest coal producer in Gangetic Dolphin. An open jeep safari also affords a
the world and ranks fourth in the production of iron glimpse of the spectacular ruins of mosques, tombs,
ore. It is the fifth-largest producer of bauxite and watchtowers and palaces scattered within the park.
crude steel. 50. (a) Damodar (West Bengal, Bihar), Brahamani
44. (b) Alluvial soils occur along rivers and represent (Jharkhand), Mahanadi (Odisha), Tungabhadra
the soil materials that have been deposited by the (Andhra Pradesh) and Karnataka.
rivers during flood. Usually they are very productive 51. (c) Periyar (Kerala), Kanha (M.P.), Sariska
soils but many are deficient in nitrogen, humus and (Rajasthan), Dachigam (J.K.) is the correct sequence
phosphorus. from south to north.
Geography || B-79
NH 4 Thane and Chennai 91. (c) Mangrove, Scrub, teak and coniferous are the
Zinc - Rajasthan
Section c : iNDIAN pOLITY & gOVERNANCE
1
Indian
Constitution
1. Which of the following statements regarding the 4. Who among the following are mentioned in the
directive Principles of State Policy, mentioned in constitution of India, as the part of the Electoral
the constitution of India? College to elect the members of the Legislative
1. They require legislation for their implemen- Council of a State?
tation. 1. Members of local bodies in the state
2. Their exclusive aim is to establish political 2. Members of chambers of commerce in the
democracy in the country. state.
3. Apart from the part IV, there are other 3. Graduates of three years and residing within
directives also mentioned in other parts of the state
the constitution. 4. All the teachers of three years in the state.
Select the correct answer using the codes given Select the correct answer using the codes given
below: below:
(a) 1 only (b) 1 and 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
2. Before entering upon his office the President of 5. Consider the following bodies of India.
India has to make and subscribe to an oath or 1. The National Commission for scheduled
affirmation. In this oath or affirmation he swears: castes
1. To faithfully execute the office 2. The National Commission for women
2. To preserve, protect and defend the 3. The National Commission for Backward
constitution and the law classes
3. To devote himself to the service and well- 4. The National Human Rights Commission
being of the people of India. Which of the bodies given above is/are established
Which one of the contents of the oath or by the constitution of India?
affirmation given above is correct? (a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 6. Which of the following statements regarding
3. Consider the following officials of India; the Preamble of the Constitution of India is/are
1. The State election commissioner correct ?
2. Chairman of the State Public Service 1. The Preamble is an integral part of the
Commission Constitution.
3. A judge of the High Court 2. The words 'secular' and 'socialist' have been
4. The Advocate General of the State. a part of the Preamble since its inception.
Which of the officials given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code given
appointed by the governor of the concerned state? below :
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 2 and 4 only (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C-2 || Indian Constitution
7. Consider the following statements in regard to the (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
fundamental duties mentioned in the constitution (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
of India. 11. The forms of oaths or affirmations for which of
1. Some of them, such as cherishing noble the following officials are mentioned in the third
ideals of freedom struggle, are moral schedule of the Indian constitution?
percepts and other, such as to respect the 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General
constitution, are civic duties. 2. The Chief Election Commissioner
2. They are confined to citizens only and none 3. The Chief Justice of a High Court
of them extend to foreigners. 4. The Attorney General
3. There is not legal sanction against their Select the correct answer using the codes given
violation below:
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only (b) 1, 2 only 12. Consider the following statements in regard to the
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 fundamental right for the protection of a person
8. The President of India has no power to in respect to conviction for offences, guaranteed
1. Proclaim a financial emergency in the state in the Indian constitution
2. Proclaim the future of the constitutional 1. The government can’t enact any criminal or
machinery in the state. civil law with the retrospective effect
Which of the statement(s) given above regarding 2. A person, accused of any offence can’t be
the special constitutional status of Jammu and compelled to be a witness against himself
Kashmir is/are correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only correct?
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
9. The constitution of India authorizes the parliament (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
to determine the qualifications of members of the 13. The 42nd amendment added four new directive
Finance Commission of India and the manner principles of state policy in the Indian
in which they should be selected. In this regard Constitution.
consider the following statements : Which of the following is not among them?
1. The commission consists of five members (a) To secure opportunities for healthy
including its chairperson. development of children.
2. Its chairperson necessarily should be an (b) To provide free legal aid to the poor.
economist. (c) To ensure the right, for men and women
3. Its members are appointed from different equality, to have an adequate means of
fields such as finance and accounts, livelihood.
administration, judicial etc. (d) To protect and improve the environment and
Which of the statements given above are correct? to safeguard forest and wild life.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 14. Any amendment in the constitution of India, in
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 regard to which of the following subjects, needs
10. Preamble of the Indian constitution promises only simple majority of the parliament?
fraternity among all the Indian citizens to ensure 1. Directive principles of state policy.
1. Progress of the Nation 2. Election of the president and its manner
2. Unity of the Nation. 3. Quorum in the parliament
3. Integrity of the Nation 4. Creation of the Legislative Council in a
Select the correct answer using the code given State
below:
Indian Polity & Governance || C-3
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Pension payable to judges of High courts.
below: 2. Debt charges for which the Govt. of India is
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only liable.
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 1 and 4 only 3. Salary allowances and pension payable to
15. Consider the following statements in regard to Comptroller and Auditor General of India
the preamble of the constitution of India; Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. It provides equality of opportunity to its all (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
citizens. (c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
2. It provides liberty of faith to its all citizens. 19. As per Constitution (74th amendment) act, the
3. It is given by the citizen of India to state legislature has been conferred power to
themselves. empower municipalities with which of the given
Which of the statements given above are correct? responsibilities:
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only 1. The preparation of plans for economic
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 development and social justice.
16. Which of the following statements in regard to the 2. Conduct elections of Municipalities.
fundamental rights, mentioned in the constitution 3. Management of law and order.
of India are correct? 4. Levy, collection and appropriation of taxes,
1. They are the part of the basic structure of the duties, tolls etc.
constitution.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
2. They are permanent in nature and can’t be
below:
abolished.
(a) 2 and 4 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. They can be suspended partially or
(c) 1 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 3
completely.
20. What is the correct chronological order in which
Select the correct answer using the codes given
the following provisions were incorporated into
below:
the constitution of India?
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 1. Provision relating to free legal aid.
17. Consider the following statements : 2. Twelfth Schedule
When a president is to be impeached for violation 3. Article 51A(K)
of the constitution, no change can be preferred by 4. Provision for reservation in promotion
either House of Parliament unless Select the correct answer using the codes given
1. A resolution containing proposal is moved below:
after seven days notice in writing signed by (a) 1-2-4-3 (b) 4-3-2-1
not less than one fourth of total number of (c) 2-3-1-4 (d) 3-4-2-1
members of that house. 21. Which of the following rights come under Article
2. The resolution is passed by the majority of 21 of the constitution of India?
not less than 2/3 rd of the total membership 1. Right to appropriate life insurance policy
of that house. 2. Right to good health
Which of the statement given above is/are 3. Right of women to be treated with decency
correct? and dignity.
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only 4. Right to go abroad.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 5. Right to work.
18. Consider the following statements : Codes:
The expenditure charged on the consolidated (a) 1, 2 and 5 only (b) 2, 3 and 5 only
fund of India comprises of: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
C-4 || Indian Constitution
22. Which of the following fundamental rights given 1. No Governor can be removed from his office
under part-III of the Constitution of India are not till the completion of this term
self executory and available not only against the 2. No Governor can continue in office beyond
state but also against Private Individuals? a period of five years.
1. Equality in access of public places (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. Prohibition of untouchability (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Prohibition of Acceptance of Foreign title 27. Prohibition of discrimination on groups of
4. Prohibition of Employment of children in religion etc (Article 15 of the constitution of
Hazardous Employment India) is a fundamental Right classifiable under:
Codes: (a) The right to freedom of religion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 (b) The right against exploitation
(c) 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (c) The cultural and educational rights.
23. Which of the following constitution Amendments (d) The right of equality.
are connected with reservation in promotions? 28. Assertions (A): The word minority is not defined
1. Constitution (77th Amendment) act, 1995 in the constitution of India.
2. Constitution (85th Amendment) act, 2001 Reason (R): The Minorities commission is not a
3. Constitution (117th Amendment) act, 2012 constitutional body.
4. Constitution (118th Amendment) act, 2012 Which of the following is correct?
Which of the options given above is/are the (a) Both A and R true and R is the correct
correct code? explanation of A.
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 explanation of A
24. Which of the following is/are extra-constitutional (c) A is true but R is false.
and extra-legal device(s) for securing co- (d) A is false but R is true.
operation and coordination between the states in 29. Which of the following are/is stated in the
India? constitution of India?
1. The National Development Council 1. The President shall not be a member of
2. The Governor’s Conference either House of Parliament.
3. Zonal councils 2. The Parliament shall consist of the President
4. The Inter-state council and two Houses.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 3 and 4 only Choose the correct answer from the codes give
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 4 only below:
25. Which of the following are matters on which a (a) 1 only (b) Both 1and 2
constitutional amendment is possible only with (c) 2 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
the ratification of the legislature of not less than 30. A British citizen staying in India can’t claim right
one half of the states? to:
1. Election of the president (a) Freedom of trade and profession
2. Representation of the states in parliament (b) Equality before the law
3. Any of the lists in the 7th schedule (c) Protection of life and personal liberty
4. Abolition of the Legislative Council of a State. (d) Freedom of religion
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 1, 2 and 4 only 31. The Parliament can make any law for the whole or
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only any part of India for implementing international
26. Article 156 of the constitution of India provides treaties?
that a Governor shall hold office for a term of five (a) With the consent of all the states
years from the date on which he enters upon his (b) With the consent of majority of states
office. Which of the following can be deduced (c) With the consent of state concerned
from this? (d) Without the consent of any state.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-5
32. Consider the following functionaries 38. Which one of the following authorities
1. Cabinet Secretary recommends the principles governing the grants-
2. Chief Election Commissioner in-aid of the revenues to the states out of the
3. Union Cabinet Minister consolidated fund of India?
4. Chief Justice of India (a) Finance Commission
Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence (b) Inter-State-Council
is (c) Union Ministry of Finance
(a) 3, 4, 2, 1 (b) 4, 3, 1, 2 (d) Public Accounts Committee
(c) 4, 3, 2, 1 (d) 3, 4, 1, 2 39. The ninth schedule to the Indian constitution was
33. The primary function of the Finance Commission added by?
in India is to (a) First amendment
(a) Distribute revenue between the centre and (b) Eighth amendment
the state. (c) Ninth amendment
(b) Advise the president on financial matters (d) Forty second amendment
(c) Advise the president on financial matters. 40. Consider the following statements: In India,
(d) Allocate funds to various ministries of the stamp duties on financial transaction are;
Union and state Governments. 1. Levied and collected by the State
34. If a new state of the Indian Union is to be created, Government
which one of the following schedules of the 2. Appropriated by the Union Government
constitution must be amended? Which of the statements is/are correct?
(a) First (b) Second (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Third (d) Fifth (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
35. Which of the following statements correctly 41. Which of the following constitutional
describes the fourth schedule of the constitution amendments are related to raising the number
of India? of members of Lok Sabha to be elected from the
(a) It lists the distribution of powers between states?
the Union and the States. (a) 6th and 22nd (b) 13th and 38th
(b) It contains the language listed in the th
(c) 7 and 31 st (d) 11th and 42nd
constitution. 42. With reference to the constitution of India, which
(c) It contains the provisions regarding the
one of the following pairs is not matched?
administration of tribal areas.
(a) Forests : Concurrent List
(d) It allocates seats in the council of states.
(b) Stock Exchanges : Concurrent list
36. The purpose of the inclusion of directive
(c) Post office saving : Union List
principles of state policy in the Indian constitution
Bank
is to establish?
(d) Public Health : State list
(a) Political Democracy
43. Consider the following statements:
(b) Social Democracy
1. Article 301 pertains to the Right to property
(c) Canadian Democracy
2. Right to property is a legal right but not a
(d) Social and Economic Democracy
fundamental right.
37. Which one of the following rights was described
3. Article 300A was inserted in the constitution
by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as ‘the heart and soul of
of India by the congress government at the
the constitution?’ centre by the 44th constitutional amendment.
(a) Right to freedom of religion Which of the statements given above is/are
(b) Right to property correct?
(c) Right to equality (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 3 only
(d) Right to constitutional remedies (c) 3 only (d) 1 only
C-6 || Indian Constitution
44. Which one among the following commissions 48. Which of the following list 1 with list II and
was set up in pursuance of a definite provision select the correct answer using the codes given
under an Article of the constitution of India? below the list:
(a) University Grants Commission List I List II
(Article of the (Content)
(b) National Human Rights Commission
Constitution)
(c) Election Commission A. Article 54 1. Election of the
(d) Central Vigilance Commission president of India
45. Under which one of the following constitution B. Article 75 2. Appointment of the
amendment act, four languages were added to P.M. and council of
the languages under the eighth schedule of the ministers
C. Article 155 3. Appointment of the
constitution of India thereby, raising their number
governor of state
to 22?
D. Article 164 4. Appointment of the
(a) 90th Amendment Act C.M. and council of
(b) 91st Amendment Act Ministers of a state
(c) 92nd Amendment Act 5. Composition of
(d) 93rd Amendment Act Legislative
46. Which of the following is/are included in the Assemblies
Directive Principle of state policy? Codes:
A B C D
1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
(a) 1 2 3 4
forced labours. (b) 1 2 4 5
2. Prohibition of consumption except for (c) 2 1 3 5
medicinal purposes of intoxicating drinks (d) 2 1 4 3
and of other drugs which are injurious to 49. In what way does the Indian Parliament exercise
health. control over the administration?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Through Parliamentary Committee
(b) Through Consultative Committee of various
below:
ministers
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) By making the administration send periodic
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 reports
47. Consider the following statements : (d) By compelling the executives to issue writs
The constitution of India provides that 50. In the Indian constitution, the right to equality is
1. The legislative Assembly of each state granted by following Articles. They are:
shall consist of not more than 450 members (a) Article 16 to Article 20
(b) Article 15 to Article 19
chosen by direct election from territorial
(c) Article 14 to Article 18
constitution in the state. (d) Article 13 to Article 17
2. A person shall not be qualified to be chosen 51. Which of the following are the correct matching
to fill a seat in the legislative Assembly of a of the countries and the borrowed features of the
state if he/she is less than 25 years of age. Indian constitution from them?
Which of the statements given above is/are 1. UK - Bicameral Parliament
correct? 2. USSR - Independence of Judiciary and
judicial review
(a) 1 only (b) 2 only
3. Australia - Five year Plan
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 4. US - Language of the preamble
Indian Polity & Governance || C-7
5. Japan - Law on which the Supreme Court 3. The Bill provides for a broad based Judicial
function Appointment Commission, for making
6. Ireland - Method of election of President recommendations for selection of judges
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. The Bill proposes to insert a new Article
(c) 1, 5 and 6 (d) 2, 3, 5 and 6 124A, and amend Article 124(2) (a).
52. Which of the following words were added to the Select the answer from the code given below-
Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment in (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
1976? (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
1. SOCIALIST 2. REPUBLIC 55. The Constitution (117th Amendment) Bill,2012
3. SECULAR 4. FRATERNITY provides for –
5. UNITY & INTEGRITY 1. Reservation in promotion for Scheduled
(a) 1, 3 and 5 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Castes and Scheduled Tribes.
(c) 2, 4 and 5 (d) 2, 4 and 5 2. Reservation in promotion for OBCs.
53. Given below are 4 schedules with their Select the answer from the code given below-
amendment mode and what they contain. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
No. Schedule Added by Particulars
56. Which of the following statements are correct
1. Ninth Ist amendment Contains acts & orders
in 1951 related to land tenure,
with regard to the Parliament (Prevention of
land tax, railways, Disqualification) Amendment Act 2013?
industries 1. It makes the Chairperson of the National
2. Tenth 52nd Contains provisions Commission for the Scheduled Castes and
amendment in of disqualification of the Chairperson of the National Commission
1984 grounds of defection for the Scheduled Tribes out of the purview
3. Eleventh 73rd Contains provisions of of the office of profit.
amendment in Municipal Corporation 2. The Act retrospectively came into effect
1990 from February 19, 2004.
4. Twelfth 74th Contains provisions of 3. It amended the Parliament (Prevention of
amendment in Panchayati Raj. Disqualification) Act ,1959.
1992
4. The Act enlists the officials who are out of
Which of the following are correct about the the purview of the office of profit.
4 schedules? Select the answer from the code given below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 only (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) All of the above
54. Which of the above statements are correct 57. The Constitution Scheduled Tribes Order Second
regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and Amendment Bill 2012 provides for –
Twentieth Amendment) Bill, 2013 introduced in 1. Marati community to be included in the list
the Rajya Sabha on August 24, 2013? of Scheduled Tribe in Kerala
1. The Bill seeks to enable equal participation 2. Abujh Maria and Hill Korwa communities
of Judiciary and Executive, make the to be included in the list of Scheduled Tribe
appointment process more accountable and in Chhattisgarh
ensure greater transparency and objectivity Select the answer from the code given below-
in the appointments to the higher judiciary. (a) 1 only (b) 2 only
2. The Bill seeks to a review constitutional (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
provisions providing for the appointment 58. Consider the following statements regarding
and transfer of Judges, and relevant Supreme Article 356 of the Constitution.
Court decisions on the matter, 1. Failure of Constitutional Machinery in States
is an objective reality.
C-8 || Indian Constitution
2. Proclamation under this article can be 62. The preamble to the Indian Constitution serves the
reviewed by Supreme Court. following purpose.
3. Alongwith this Proclamation, State Legislative 1. The Preamble indicates the source from which
Assembly can be dissolved. the Constitution desires its power.
4. This Proclamation has to be approved by each 2. It also states the objects which the Constitution
House of Parliament within two months.
seeks to establish and promote.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
correct? The correct answer is
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only (b) 1, 2 and 3 only (a) 1 only
(c) 3 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only (b) 2 only
59. Consider the following statements regarding (c) Both 1 and 2
Constitutional Amendments. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. In Article 368, two methods of Constitutional 63. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Amendment are mentioned. answer using the codes given below:
2. Constitutional Amendment Bill can be
List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
initiated only in Lok Sabha.
3. In case of any dispute between two Houses A. The Government 1. Transfer of power from
of Parliament on Constitutional Amendment of India Act, the East India Company
Bill, Joint sitting of both houses can be 1935 to the British crown
summoned. B. The Indian 2. Envisaged Dominion
4. The President cannot veto a Constitutional Councils status to India
Amendment Bill. Act, 1909
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are C. The Government 3. Introduction of
correct? of India provincial autonomy
(a) 1 and 3 only (b) 1 and 4 only
Act, 1919
(c) 2 and 4 only (d) 2, 3 and 4 only
D. The Government 4. Introduction of Dyarchy
60. Among the following ideals and philosophy,
identify those enshrined in the Preamble to the of India in provinces
Constitution of India: Act, 1858
1. Sovereign democratic republic 5. Introduction of separate
2. Socialism and secularism electorate for Muslims
3. Capitalism and free trade Codes:
Select the correct answer using the codes given A B C D
below: (a) 1 4 2 3
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 3 5 4 1
(b) 1 and 3 only (c) 1 5 4 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 3 4 2 1
(d) 2 and 3 only 64. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
61. Draft of Indian Constitution was prepared by– answer using the codes given below:
(a) Sir B. N. Rao, “Advisor to the Constituent List-I (Acts) List-II (Provisions)
Assembly A. Government of 1. All-India Federation
(b) Sir Alladi Krishnaswamy Iyer Chairman India Act, 1858 of Provinces and
Constitution Draft Committee Princely States
(c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Union Law Minister B. Indian Councils 2. Appointment of
Act, 1861 Secretary of State
(d) Jawahar Lal Nehru, Prime Minister
for India
Indian Polity & Governance || C-9
88. Which of the following statements are true Reason (R): The Constitution has vested the
with regard to the Fundamental Rights of the legislative power with regard
minorities in educational matters? to preventive detention in the
1. The minority has only the right to administer Parliament only and the State
the educational institutions. Legislatures have no authority in
2. The minority has the right to establish and this regard.
administer educational institutions. Codes:
3. The right is absolute and not subject to any (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
restriction. the correct explanation of A
4. Reasonable restrictions may be imposed (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
to promote efficiency and prevent not the correct explanation of A
maladministration. (c) A is true but R is false
Select the correct answer using the codes given (d) A is false but R is true
below: 91. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 answer using the codes given below:
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3 List-I List-II
89. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (Cases) (Related to)
answer using the codes given below: A. Indra Sawhney Case 1. Power of
List-I List-II Parliament to
amend Part III
(Provisions) (Contained In)
of the
A. Liberty of thought 1. Right to freedom
Constitution
and expression
upheld
B. Freedom of speech 2. Cultural and B. Minerva Mills Case 2. Procedure
and expression educational Established by
rights Law
C. Making special 3. Preamble C. Gopalan Case 3. Reservation for
provision for women Backward
and children Classes
D. Protection of interest 4. Protection of D. Shankari Prasad Case 4. Revival of
of minorities life and liberty Judicial Review
5. Right to equality Codes :
Codes : A B C D
A B C D (a) 3 1 2 4
(a) 3 1 5 2 (b) 2 4 3 1
(b) 2 5 4 1 (c) 3 4 2 1
(c) 3 5 4 2 (d) 2 1 3 4
(d) 2 4 5 1 92. Which of the following are mentioned under
90. Consider the following statements and select the separate Articles in Part III of the Consitution of
correct answer from the codes given below : India pertaining to Fundamental Rights?
1. Abolition of untouchability
Assertion (A): Preventive Detention is included
2. Abolition of titles
in the chapter on Fundamental
3. Freedom as to payment of taxes for
Rights in the Constitution of
promotion of any particular religion
India. 4. Protection of interests of minorities
C-14 || Indian Constitution
Select the correct answer by using the codes the Constituent Assembly,
given below: Dr. Ambedkar described the
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2, 3 and 4 article as the very soul of the
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Constitution.
93. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Reason (R): Article 32 provides effective
answer using the codes given below: remedies against violation of
List-I List-II fundamental rights.
(Writ) (Purpose) Codes:
A. Writ of mandamus 1. Prohibition of (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
an action the correct explanation of A
B. Writ of injunction 2. Direction to the (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
official for the
not the correct explanation of A
performance of
(c) A is true but R is false
a duty
(d) A is false but R is true
C. Writ of certiorari 3. Trial of the right
96. Consider the following statements and select the
to a title or
elective office correct answer from the codes given below :
D. Writ of quo-warranto 4. Transferring Assertion (A): Education is the fundamental
of a case from right of every child between the
lower court to a age of 6 and 14 years.
court of higher Reason (R): The 84th Constitutional
jurisdiction Amendment Act provided for
Codes : right to education.
A B C D Codes:
(a) 2 1 4 3 (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(b) 1 2 3 4 the correct explanation of A
(c) 3 4 2 1 (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
(d) 4 3 1 2 not the correct explanation of A
94. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of (c) A is true but R is false
the Right to Life (Article 21) to include which of (d) A is false but R is true
the following? 97. For which of the following can special provisions
1. Right to life includes the Right to live with be made under Article 15 of the Constitution of
dignity India?
2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood 1. Women and children
3. Right to life includes the Right to receive 2. Scheduled Tribes
minimum wages 3. Economically backward classes
4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed 4. Socially backward classes
employment for 100 days in a year Select the correct answer using the codes given
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
below: (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
(a) Only 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 98. Consider the following statements:
95. Consider the following statements and select the 1. Quo-warranto is a very powerful instrument
correct answer from the codes given below : for safeguarding against the usurpation of
Assertion (A): Speaking on Article 32 in public offices.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-15
2. A High Court can issue a mandamus to Reason (R): The Fundamental Rights in Part
compel a court or judicial tribunal to III of the Constitution have been
exercise its jurisdiction when it has refused superseded by the Directive
to exercise it. Principles.
Which of the statement given above is/are Codes:
correct? (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 the correct explanation of A
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
99. Which of the following statements about a
not the correct explanation of A
uniform civil code is/are correct?
(c) A is true but R is false
1. It is binding on the State that a uniform civil
(d) A is false but R is true
code must be made applicable to all.
2. The provision regarding a uniform civil code 103. Though the Directive Principles of State Policy
is contained in Part III of the Constitution. contained in the Constitution are not enforceable
Select the correct answer using the codes given by any court, yet they are:
below: (a) Fundamental in the governance of the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 country
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (b) Binding on the State
100. Directive Principles of State Policy direct the (c) Enforceable at the instance of the President
State for which of the following? of India
1. To secure a social order of the promotion of (d) Superior to Fundamental Rights
welfare of the people 104. Which of the following are included in the
2. To separate judiciary from executive Directive Principles of State Policy in the
3. To improve public health Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using the codes given 1. Uniform civil code for the citizens
below: 2. Separation of judiciary from executive
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
3. Protection of monuments of national
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2, and 3
importance
101. Consider the following statements:
Select the correct answer using the codes given
Directive Principles of State Policy are:
1. Directives in the nature of ideals of the state below:
2. Directives influencing and shaping the (a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3
policy of State (c) 1 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Non-justiciable rights of the citizens 105. Which one of the following is not a Direct
Which of these statements is/are correct? Principle of State Policy?
(a) Only 1 (b) 2 and 3 (a) The State shall endeavour to secure for the
(c) Only 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 citizens a uniform civil code.
102. Consider the following statements and select the (b) The State shall promote with special care
correct answer from the codes given below : the educational and economic interest of the
Assertion (A): The Directive Principles of weaker sections.
State Policy contained in the (c) The State shall endeavour to promote adult
Constitution of India are relevant education to eliminate illiteracy.
in determining the limits of (d) The State shall endeavour to protect every
reasonable restrictions laid down monument, place or object of artistic or
in Article 19 dealing with the
historic interest.
fundamenal right to Freedom.
C-16 || Indian Constitution
106. Which of the following statements is / are correct? 3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and
1. 42nd Amendment to the Constitution of integrity of India
India gave primacy to Directive Principles 4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s
over Fundamental Rights. composite culture
2. Minerva Mills case ruled that there has to be 5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the
a balance between Part III and Part IV of the society
Constitution. Select the correct answer using the codes given
3. National Commission for Review of below:
the Working of the Constitution has (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
recommended that Directive Principles be (c) 3, 4 and 5 (d) 1, 4 and 5
mad e justiceable. 110. Which of the following statements regarding
Select the correct answer using the codes given the Fundamental Duties contained in the Indian
below: Constitution are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 1. Fundamental duties can be enforced through
(c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only writ jurisdiction.
107. Which of the following is/are among Directive 2. Fundamental duties have formed a part of
Principles of State Policy? the Indian Constitution since its adoption.
1. The State shall strive to promote science and 3. Fundamental duties became a part of
technology for development. the Constitution in accordance with the
2. The State shall endeavour to secure for recommendations of the Swaran Singh
citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout Committee.
India. 4. Fundamental duties are applicable only to
3. The State shall try to develop population citizens of India.
policy and family planning programmes. Select the correct answer using the codes given
4. The State shall take steps to promote below:
tourism. (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
Select the correct answer using the codes given (c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4
below: 111. Which of the following duties have been
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 and 4 prescribed by the Indian Constitution as
(c) 2 only (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 Fundamental Duties?
108. Consider the following statements: 1. To defend the country
Directive principles of State Policy are : 2. To pay income tax
1. Not amendable 3. To preserve the rich heritage of our
2. Not enforceable by any court composite culture
3. Fundamental in the governance of the 4. To safeguard public property
country Select the correct answer using the codes given
Which of the above statements are correct?
below:
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
109. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties
112. Which of the following are included in the list of
of an Indian citizen according to Article 51-A of
fundamental duties in the Constitution?
the Constitution?
1. To abide by the Constitution and respect its
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and
ideas and institutions
democracy
2. To safeguard public property and to abjure
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the
violence
National Flag and the National Anthem
Indian Polity & Governance || C-17
3. To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity 116. Which of the following are considered as parts of
and integrity of India the basic structure of the Indian Constitution ?
4. To uphold and protect secularism 1. Republication and democratic form of
Select the correct answer using the codes given Government
below: 2. Secular character of the Constitution
(a) 1, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 4 3. Division between Fundamental Rights and
(c) 2, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 3 Directive Principles of State Policy
113. Consider the following statements: 4. Federal character of the Constitution
The fundamental duties provided in the Select the correct answer using the codes given
constitution are: below :
1. To protect the sovereignty, unity and (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 1, 2 and 4
integrity of India
117. Which of the following are matters on which the
2. To safeguard private property
Parliament has the power to modify provisions of
3. To protect and improve the natural
the Constitution by a simple majority ?
environment including forests, lakes, rivers 1. Alternation of names, boundaries and areas
and wild life of these statements: of States.
Of these statements: 2. Appointment of additional judges
(a) 1, 2 and 3 are correct 3. Abolition of the second chamber of a State
(b) 1 and 2 are correct Legislature
(c) 2 and 3 are correct 4. Administration of Scheduled Areas
(d) 1 and 3 are correct Select the correct answer using the codes given
114. Consider the following statements: below :
Fundamental duties: (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1, 2 and 4
1. Have always been a part of the Constitution (c) 1, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4
of India 118. Consider the following statements and select the
2. Have been added through an amendment correct answer from the codes given below :
3. Are mandatory on all citizens of India Assertion (A): By amendment, Parliament can-
Which of these statements is/are correct? not destroy the basic features of
(a) 1 and 3 (b) Only 1 the Constitution.
(c) Only 2 (d) 2 and 3 Reason (R) : The power to amend does not
115. Consider the following statements : include the power to abrogate the
1. An amendment of the Constitution of India Constitution.
can be initiated by the introduction of a Bill Codes:
only in the Lok Sabha. (a) Both A and R are individually true and R is
2. The Bill for amendment of the Constitution the correct explanation of A.
of India has to be passed in each House by (b) Both A and R are individually true but R is
not the correct explanation of A.
a majority of the total membership of that
(c) A is true but R is false.
House and by a majority of not less than
(d) A is false but R is true.
two-thirds of the members of that House
119. Consider the following statements related to
Present and voting.
Article 368 of the Constitution:
Which of the statements given above is / are 1. A Constitutional Amendment Bill can be
correct? passed at a joint session of Parliament in
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 case of deadlock between the two Houses.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
C-18 || Indian Constitution
2. It is obligatory for the President of India 123. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
to give his assent to a Constitutional answer by using the codes given below:
Amendment Bill passed under Article 368. List-I List-II
3. To amend 7th Schedule of the Constitution, (Union Territories) (Judiciary)
ratification of more than half of the State A. Andaman and 1. Under Bombay High
legislature is essential. Nicobar Islands Court
4. A proposal to amend the Constitution can B. Dadra and Nagar 2. Under Madras High
only be introduced in the House of the Haveli Court
People. C. Lakshadweep 3. Under Punjab High
Which of these are correct ? Court
D. Puducherry 4. Under Calcutta High
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3
Curt
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 3
5. Under Kerala High
120. Consider the following statements :
Court
1. An administrator of a union territory is an Codes :
agent of the President of India and not head A B C D
of state like a Governor. (a) 2 1 5 4
2. The Parliament can make laws on any (b) 4 1 5 2
subject of the three lists (including the state (c) 4 3 2 1
list) for the Union territories. (d) 2 5 4 3
Which of the statements given above is / are 124. Sixth Schedule to the Constitution of India makes
correct ? special administrative provisions in regard to the
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 tribal areas in :
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram
121. Which of the following is correct regarding the (b) Meghalaya, Assamf, Nagaland and Manipur
union territories ? (c) Tripura, Manipur, Mizoram and Meghalaya
1. Articles 239 to 241 contain provisions (d) Arunanchal Pradesh, Nagaland, Assam and
regarding the union territories. Tripura
2. Part VIII of the Constitution deal with the 125. On which of the following matters, does the
union territories. Finance Commission make recommendations to
3. Part VII of the Constitution deal with the the President of India ?
union territories. 1. The distribution between Union and States
4. Articles 238 to 242 contain provisions of net proceeds of taxes and allocation
regarding the union territories. between the States of their respective share,
Select the correct answer from the codes given of such proceeds.
below : 2. The principles which should govern the
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 grants-in-aid of the revenues of the States
(c) 3 and 4 (d) 2 and 4 out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
122. Which of the following Constitutional Select the correct answer using the codes given
Amendment Acts provides a special status to the below :
Union Territory of Delhi and redesignated it the (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
National Capital Territory of Delhi ? (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 59th Amendment Act 126. Consider the following statements with regard to
(b) 62nd Amendment Act the Finance Commission:
(c) 67th Amendment Act 1. The recommendations of the Finance
(d) 69th Amendment Act Commission cover a period of five years.
Indian Polity & Governance || C-19
2. The Report of the Finance Commission is 130. Consider the following statements :
submitted to the Prime Minister. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
Which of the statements given above is / are has to:
correct ? 1. Audit government expenditure
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 2. Make financial policy
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 3. Sanction grants to various departments
127. Consider the following statements : 4. See that public expenditure are in conformity
1. The National Commission for Scheduled with the government rules
Tribes was constituted under the Constitution Of these statements :
(Eighty-ninth Amendment) Act. (a) 2, 3 and 4 are correct
2. The first National Commission for (b) 1 and 3 are correct
Scheduled Tribes was constituted in 2006. (c) 2 and 3 are correct
Which of the statements given above is/are (d) 1 and 4 are correct
correct ? 131. Who among the following can only be removed
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 from the office in like manner and on the like
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court?
128. Consider the following statements : 1. Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of 2. Chief Election Commissioner
India has no control over the issue of money 3. Chairman, Union Public Service Commission
from the Consolidated Fund of India. 4. Attorney General for India
2. The term of the office of the Comptroller Select the correct answer using the codes given
and Auditor General of India has been fixed below :
by an Act enacted by Parliament. (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
correct ? (c) 1 and 2 only
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(d) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
132. The provision of the Act relating to the duties of
129. Which of the following statements regarding the
the Comptroller and Auditor-General of India are
Comptroller and Auditor General of India is / are
to audit and report on all the expenditure form
true ?
which of the following ?
The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor
1. Consolidated Fund of India
General of India:
2. Consolidated Fund of each State
1. Can be considered by the joint session of
3. Contingency Fund of India
both Houses of Parliament
4. Public Account of India
2. Includes examination of income and
Select the correct answer using the codes given
expenditure of all public sector undertaking
below :
3. Is placed before the Lok Sabha with the
comments of the Estimates Committee (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. Constitutes the basis for scrutiny by (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
the Public Accounts Committee of the 133. Who is the first Law Officer of the Government
Parliament of India?
Select the correct answer using the codes given (a) Chief Justice of India
below : (b) Union Law Minister
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1 and 3 (c) Attorney General of India
(c) 2 and 4 (d) Only 4 (d) Law Secretary
C-20 || Indian Constitution
134. Who among the following holds his office at the 139. Consider the following statements :
pleasure of the President? 1. There was a special provision for the Anglo-
(a) Chairman of the Union Public Service Indian community in certain services.
Commission 2. The Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes
(b) Attorney General of India (Prevention of Atrocities) Act was passed in
(c) Speaker of the Lok Sabha 1955.
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General of India 3. The Untouchability (Offences) Act, was
135. Who among the following can attend the meetings renamed as the Protection of Civil Rights
of both Houses of Parliament while being not a Act.
member of either of the Houses? Which of the statements given above are correct ?
(a) Solicitor-General of India (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2
(b) Vice-President of India (c) 2 and 3 (d) 1 and 3
(c) Comptroller and Auditor-General of India 140. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(d) Attorney General of India answer by using the codes given below:
136. Consider the following statements: List-I List-II
1. The Central Information Commission can (Provisions) (Articles)
order inquiry into any matter if there are A. Prohibition of discrimination 1. Article 22
reasonable grounds. on grounds of religion, race,
2. The Central Information Commission caste, sex, place of birth
has the power to secure compliance of its B. Prohibition of employment of 2. Article 15
decisions from the public authority. children in factories
Which of the statements given above is / are C. Protection against arrest and 3. Article 24
correct ? detention in certain cases
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 D. Abolition of untouchability 4. Article 17
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 Codes :
137. Consider the following statements : A B C D
1. The Central Information Commission is a (a) 1 4 2 3
high-powered independent body. (b) 2 3 1 4
2. The Central Information Commission is a (c) 2 4 1 3
constitutional body. (d) 1 3 2 4
Which of the statements given above is / are
141. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
correct ?
answer by using the codes given below:
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
List-I List-II
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Article) (Matter Dealt With)
138. Consider the following statements : A. Article 39-A 1. Living wage for workers
1. The State Information Commission
B. Article 43 2. Uniform civil code
entertains complaints and appeals pertaining
to offices, financial institutions and public C. Article 44 3. Separation of judiciary
sector undertakings under the concerned D. Article 50 4. Free Legal aid
state government. Codes :
2. The State Information Commission is a A B C D
high-powered independent body. (a) 1 4 2 3
Which of the statements given above is / are (b) 4 1 3 2
correct ? (c) 4 1 2 3
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 (d) 1 4 3 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Indian Polity & Governance || C-21
142. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 145. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer by using the codes given below: answer using the codes given below:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
(Article) (Subject) (Constitutional (Major Subject)
A. Article 50 1. Impeachment of the President Amendment Act)
A. 19th Amendment 1. Reservation of seats for
B. Article 143 2. Separation between judiciary SC/ST in Lok Sabha and
and executive Legislative Assemblies
C. Article 51 3. Functions of Public Service in the States
Commissions B. 25th Amendment 2. Duties of the Election
D. Article 320 4. Advisory Jurisdiction of the Commission
Supreme Court C. 31st Amendment 3. Compensation in the
Codes : acquisition of property
A B C D D. 45th Amendment 4. Increase in the elected
(a) 2 4 1 3 seats in Lok Sabha
(b) 3 1 4 2 Codes :
(c) 2 1 4 3 A B C D
(d) 3 4 1 2 (a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
143. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(c) 4 3 2 1
answer by using the codes given below:
(d) 2 1 4 3
List-I List-II 146. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(Matter) (Article) answer using the codes given below:
A. Right to Equality 1. Article 14
List-I List-II
B. Right to Freedom 2. Article 25 (Amendment) (Nature of Amendment)
C. Right to Freedom of 3. Article 32 A. 42nd 1. Disqualification for defection
Religion Amendment
D. Right to Constitutional 4. Article 19 Act, 1976
Remedies B. 52nd 2. It amended Schedule VIII
5. Article 13 Amendment to the Constitution and
Codes : Act, 1985 added Sindhi as recognised
A B C D language.
C. 62nd 3. This Amendment inserted
(a) 1 3 2 4
Amendment three new words ‘Socialist’,
(b) 2 4 5 3
Act, 1989 ‘Secular’ and ‘Integrity’ in
(c) 1 4 2 3
the Preamble.
(d) 2 3 5 4 D. 21st 4. T h i s A m e n d m e n t h a s
144. Which of the following are the matters covered Amendment extended the reservation of
under List-I of Seventh Schedule of the Act, 1966 seats for SCs and STs in the
Constitution of India ? House of the People and State
1. Foreign loans 2. Atomic energy Legislative Assemblies.
3. Insurance 4. Public health Codes :
Select the correct answer using the codes given A B C D
below : (a) 3 1 2 4
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (b) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 1 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4
C-22 || Indian Constitution
147. Which of the following pairs are correctly 2. Shall cease to operate at the expiration of
matched? two months, unless before the expiration
1. 24th : Asserted the right of the of that period it has been approved by the
Amendment Parliament to amend any part resolution of both Houses of Parliament
of the Constitution including Which of the statements given above is/are
Part III. correct?
2. 39th : Election of President, Vice- (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
Amendment President, Prime Minister and (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Speaker is beyond the purview 150. Consider the following statement :
of the Judiciary. 1. Part III of the Constitution of India dealing
3. 42nd : Political defections made with Fundamental Rights is not applicable
Amendment illegal and reservations for to the state of Jammu & Kashmir
SC/ST extended for another 2. Part IV of the Constitution of India dealing
10 years. with Directive Principles is applicable to
4. 70th : Granting of statehood to the the state of Jammu & Kashmir with some
Amendment Union Territory of Delhi. exceptions and conditions
Select the correct answer using the codes given Which of the statements given above is/are
below : correct ?
(a) 1 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 3 and 4 (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2
148. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 151. The power of the President of India to declare
answer using the codes given below: that Article 370 (under which the state of J & K
List-I List-II enjoys a special status) shall cease to be operative,
(Constitutional (Effects) is subject to :
Amendment) 1. Public notification
A. 37th 1. Tripura in the Sixth Schedule 2. Recommendation of Parliament
Amendment 3. Advice of the Union Council of Ministers
B. 49th 2. Legislature to a UT 4. Recommendation of Constituent Assembly
Amendment of J & K
C. 58th 3. Publication of the Constitution Of these statements :
Amendment in Hindi (a) 1 and 3 are correct
D. 77th 4. National Capital status to (b) 1 and 2 are correct
Amendment Delhi (c) 2 and 4 are correct
5. Reservation in promotions to (d) 1 and 4 are correct
SCs and STs 152. The Constitution of Jammu & Kashmir came into
Codes : force on :
A B C D (a) January 26, 1950 (b) January 26, 1952
(a) 2 1 3 5 (c) January 26, 1955 (d) January 26, 1957
(b) 3 4 2 1 153. Consider the following statement :
(c) 2 4 3 1 1. On the expiry of the term of five years
by the President of India, the outgoing
(d) 3 1 2 5
President must continue to hold office until
149. Consider the following statements :
his successor enters upon his office.
When the financial emergency has been declared
2. The Electoral College for the President’s
by the President under the Article 360, then its
election consists of the elected members
proclamation :
of the Legislative Assemblies of Delhi and
1. May be revoked or varied by a subsequent
Puducherry also.
proclamation