CDN POST-TEST

1. Which of the following is the exact order of the infection chain?

1. Susceptible host
2. Portal of entry
3. Portal of exit
4. Etiologic agent
5. Reservoir
6. Mode of transmission

a. 1,2,3,4,5,6
b. 5,4,2,3,6,1
c. 4,5,3,6,2,1
d. 6,5,4,3,2,1

2. Transmission occurs when an infected person sneezes, coughs or laugh that is usually
projected at a distance of 3 feet.
a. Droplet transmission
b. Airborne transmission
c. Vehicle transmission
d. Vector borne transmission

3. According to evidence-based practice, what is the most important nursing action in preventing
neonatal infection?
A. Isolating infected infants.
B. Using separate gown technique.
C. Practicing standard precautions.
D. Washing hands.

4. A client is exposed to an antigen through illness or vaccination. What is developed in the

client's body due to this exposure?
a. Macrophages.
b. Eosinophils.
c. Erythrocytes.
d. Antibodies.

5. A child has chicken pox. What type of immunity will this child have on his recovery?
a. Actively acquired immunity.
b. Artificially acquired immunity.
c. Natural passive immunity.
d. Naturally acquired active immunity

6. Immunity attained by giving immmunoglobulin, antiserum and antitoxins:

a. natural active immunity
b. artificial active immunity
c. natural passive immunity
d. artificial passive immunity

7. Which of the following stages of infectious process is the period wherein the patient's signs
and symptoms started to abate until the client returns to normal state of health?
a. incubation period
b. prodromal period
c. illness/ invasion stage
d. convalescent stage

Situation: Kenneth John is a nurse and loves outdoor activities. He came to see his doctor
because he seems to have a difficulty in opening his mouth. He informed his doctor that he
stepped on a rusty nail attached to a wood while gardening a week ago.

8. Based on the complaints and history of Kenneth, he is most likely suffering from?
a. Leptospirosis
b. Rabies
c. Tetanus
d. Poliomyelitis

9. What is the pathognomonic sign of Tetanus?

A. Trismus
B. Opisthotonus
C. RisusSardonicus
D. Convulsion

10. What is the drug of choice for tetanus?

A. Metronidazole (Flagyl)
B. Oseltamivir (Tamiflu)
C. Dexamethasone (Decadron)
D. Lactulose (Duphalac)

11. This is considered as the most common strain of polio virus?

a. Brunhilde
b. Lansing
c. Leon
d. Legiodebilitans

Situation: Christine, a nursing student was bitten by a dog 3 days ago while they were having
their community immersion. She was brought to the emergency room with headache, fever,
vomiting and pain and numbness in the site where she was bitten. The admitting physician
diagnosed her as a case Rabies.

12. Christine’s mother asked you what rabies is. Which of the following statements is not
correct about rabies?
a. it is caused by a bullet shaped virus
b. it is fatal once signs and symptoms appear
c. it affects the nervous system ( encephalomyelitis )
d. the causative agent is only found in dogs

13. Modes of transmission of Rabies except:

a. bite of infected animals
b. scratch of infected cats
c. insect bites
d. licking of infected dogs

14. Pathognomonic sign of rabies:

a. hydrophobia
b. presence of negri bodies
c. seizure
d. drooling of saliva

15. What is the causative agent of Dengue infection?

a. Dengue Virus 1,2,3,4
b. AedesAegyptii mosquito
c. Anopheles Mosquito
d. WuchereriaBancrofti’

16. How many petechiaeis considered positive in a 1” square for tourniquet test of dengue?
a. 20 or more
b. 10 or more
c. 15 or more
d. 30 or more

17. What is the most common causative agent of Malaria in the Philippines?
a. Plasmodium Vivax- most common in the world
b. Plasmodium Ovale
c. Plasmodium Malariae
d. Plasmodium Falcifarum

18. When is the best time to take the Malarial Smear?

a. During the start of fever
b. During the peak of fever
c. During the dissipation of fever
d. Anytime during febrile stage

19. This is the most common prophylactic drug for Malaria?

a. Chloroquine- prophylaxis
b. Artemether-Lumefrantine- Drug of choice
c. Primaquine- Follow up
d. Sulfadoxine

20. What is the causative agent of Schistosomiasis?

a. SchistosomaJaponicum
b. WuchereriaBancrofti- Filariasis
c. Aedespoecillus- Vector
d. BrugiaTimori

21. What is the intermediate host of Schistosomiasis?

a. Snail
b. Human
c. Rats
d. Dogs

Situation: Girlie brought her 2 y.o child to the hospital. Assessment findings showed that she has
rashes all over the face, had fever and redness of the eyes.
22. The disease of Girlie’s child is most likely a case of:
a. Influenza
b. Diptheria
c. Measles- also known as rubeola, rashes starts in face
d. Chicken pox

23. Clinical manifestations of the child’s disease includes fever, coryza, general malaise,
myalgia, and small, irregular red spots with a bluish white specks in the center on the buccal
mucosa is known as:
a. Stimson’s line
b. Macules
c. Koplik’s spots
d. Vesicles

24. A client is for catheterization. The nurse opened a sterile pack for the procedure. While the
supervising nurse who is talking to the patient, the attending nurse inadvertently contaminates
the catheter. The nurse’s appropriate action is to:
A. Boil the catheter for 15 minutes to kill pathogens and use it immediately to prevent exposure
B. Tell the senior nurse about it and request for another sterile catheter
C. Inform the senior nurse and explain how the contamination happened so she can decide
whether to use same catheter or not
D. Use the same catheter since the client is currently taking antibiotics

25. The nurse is to explain to a client and his family about transmission based precautions. It was
verbalized by the client that he felt “unclean and disliked” as a result of the perception that he
was highly communicable. The nurse’s MOST appropriate instructions would include:
1. Protective equipment used by the staff are to protect the client health team and others
2. Precautions are temporary and continuously evaluated
3. Proper hand hygiene before and after visiting the client is very effective in preventing
infection
4. Patient care items like glasses, pitchers, basin must always be in sterile condition to prevent
spread of infection
A. 2, 3, 4
B. 1, 2, 3
C. 1, 3, 4
D. 1, 2, 4

26. The nurse is explaining universal precaution to the client. The primary purpose of
universal precaution as part of maintaining safe environment is to:
A. Reduce the spread of the disease
B. Prevent the spread of communicable diseases
C. Prevent health workers from acquiring communicable diseases
D. Prevent nosocomial infection

27. Where should you put Mr.Alejar, with Category II TB?

A. In a room with positive air pressure and at least 3 air exchanges an hour
B. In a room with positive air pressure and at least 6 air exchanges an hour
C. In a room with negative air pressure and at least 3 air exchanges an hour
D. In a room with negative air pressure and at least 6 air exchanges an hour- 6-12 air
exchange per hour

28. The following are interventions for clients under airborne precaution except:
a. Wear an N95 respirator
b. Wear a mask when working within 3 feet away from the client
c. Place the client in a private room or a client infected with the same organism- called cohorting
d. Instruct family members and caregivers to wear respiratory devices

29. Jane who is recovering from Hepatitis A asks you if should take the vaccine to avoid
contacting the disease again. What is your BEST response?
A. “No, your liver and immune system are too impaired at this time.”
B. “Yes, because the Hepatitis A virus strain changes from year to year.”
C. “No, having had Hepatitis A has done the same thing a vaccination would.”
D. “Yes, because now you are more susceptible to have Hepatitis A.”

30. While you are preparing to administer a tetanus toxoid vaccination for Carlo who had a
punctured wound, he tells you that he had tetanus shot just 1 year ago. What will be your BEST
response?
A.” Antibody production slows down as you age. You need a booster.”
B. “You probably do not need another vaccination now.”
C. it won’t hurt to receive an extra dose of the toxoid.”
D. “you need this vacation because the strain of tetanus changes every year.