Aimcat 2216

DIRECTIONS
for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four

questions. Choose the best answer to each question.
In 1924, Edwin Hubble had deduced that the universe was expanding with distant galaxies moving
away at a faster rate. But, will the universe ever stop expanding? Today, density of the universe —
luminous matter in the form of galaxies — is only a fraction of the critical density of matter (three
hydrogen atoms per cubic meter) required to stop universe expansion, which also requires that
invisible (dark) matter exceeds the luminous matter in density by a factor of 70.
Galaxies are classified into three main types: spiral or disc shaped galaxies, elliptical galaxies, and
irregular galaxies. Spiral galaxies, like the Milky Way, Andromeda and sombrero galaxies, consist of
a flat disk with a bulging center and surrounding spiral arms. Older stars, planets, dust, gas and
possibly black holes make up the center. These galaxies rotate at speeds of hundreds of kilometers
per second, which causes matter in the disk to take on a distinctive spiral shape like a cosmic
pinwheel. Spiral galaxies are divided into barred and unbarred spirals. In barred spirals, a thick bar
of stars crosses the center of the galaxy.
If galactic luminosity were a true measure of mass, the mass should be concentrated at the center of
the galaxy and rotational velocity outside the nucleus should decrease geometrically with distance
from the center. However, outside the bright nucleus of a spiral galaxy, with increasing distance from
the center, luminosity falls and rotational velocity either remains constant or increases slightly. This
proves that reduction in luminous mass is balanced by increase in nonluminous mass (dark matter)
represented by dim stars of low mass, large planets like Jupiter, or small and massive black holes.
Today, the stars in spiral arms of disk shaped or spiral galaxies are known to result from density
waves induced by gravitational fluctuations at the galactic center. These waves function as lines
along which scattered clouds of interstellar gas and dust collect into much larger clouds, which then
coalesce or compress into clumps of high concentration, out of which different types of stars,
including O-stars, which are a million times brighter than the sun, eventually emerge. O-stars are
usually found in glowing nebulas that astronomers have labelled H II regions.
Elliptical galaxies stretch longer along one axis than along the other. They may be round or oval,
flattened or spherical or elongated like a cigar, with upto one trillion stars but little dust and other
interstellar matter. … Elliptical galaxies may be dwarfs or giants. The latter are two million light-years
long.
Irregular galaxies such as the Large and Small Magellanic Clouds don't have a distinct form,
because they are pulled by the gravitational field of neighboring galaxies or there are new stars
formed in them. Irregular galaxies are much smaller than spiral galaxies.
Some galaxies are variations of these types. There are bright elliptical galaxies of super-giants that
often consume other galaxies; dim galaxies; and active galaxies like quasars that emit far more
energy than a normal galaxy. Dim or low-surface-brightness galaxies are as numerous as and with
similar shape and number of stars as conventional galaxies like spiral galaxies. But they have far
fewer stars per unit volume than do conventional galaxies because their mass is spread over larger
areas. They evolve more slowly than conventional galaxies taking longer to condense their
primordial gas and convert it to stars.
Q1. As compared to the outermost regions of the Milky Way or sombrero galaxies, the region just
outside the nucleus has
a) its rotational velocity greater than its galactic luminosity.
b) lower rotational velocity, less primordial gas and higher low-surface brightness.
c) similar or slightly lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity.
d) lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity.
Q2. The author would agree with which of the following statements?
a) O-stars are a major factor contributing to dark matter in spiral galaxies.
b) If density of the universe were equivalent to two hydrogen atoms per cubic meter, luminosity
would be a true indicator of mass and the density of the invisible matter in the universe would have
to be more than 70 times the density of the luminous matter.
c) The light from a quasar has been traveling toward Earth for billions of years, from the very
beginning of the universe.
d) The Andromeda galaxy and the unbarred spiral galaxy are larger than the Large Magellanic
Clouds.
Q3. According to the passage, interstellar gas and dust in disk shaped galaxies coalesce into
“clumps of high concentration”
a) after the release of a lot of energy and after glowing nebulas use up their gas and dust.
b) and this is followed by the formation of new stars.
c) when O-stars move out of H II regions and consume their fuel quickly.
d) due to gravitational fluctuations in the galactic arms.
Q4. Which of the following statements applies to dim galaxies?
a) They have fewer stars per unit volume and they occupy a larger volume of space than spiral
galaxies do.
b) They are less diffuse, two million light-years long and evolve more quickly than conventional
galaxies.
c) They take longer to condense their primordial gas. They are a subset of irregular galaxies
and emit far more energy than a conventional galaxy.
d) They are spiral in shape with more number of stars as compared to spiral galaxies.
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four

No historian would deny that the achievement of the Greeks was one of the most remarkable in the
history of the world. With no great expanse of fertile soil or abundance of mineral resources they
succeeded in developing a higher and more varied civilization than any of the most richly favoured
nations of the Near East. With only a limited cultural inheritance from the past to build upon, they
produced intellectual and artistic achievements which have served ever since as models of
perfection for the culture of the West. It may be argued as well that the Greeks achieved a more
leisured and rational mode of living than most other peoples. The infrequence of brutal crimes and
the contentment with simple amusements and modest wealth all point to a comparatively happy and
satisfied experience.
It is necessary to be on guard, however, against uncritical adulation of the ancient Greeks. We must
not assume that all of the natives of Hellas were as cultured, wise, and free as the citizens of Athens
and of the Ionian states across the Aegean. … Further, Athenian civilization itself was not without its
defects. It permitted some exploitation of the weak, especially of the slaves who toiled in the mines.
[T]he attitude of its citizens was not always tolerant and just. Socrates was put to death for his
opinions, and two other philosophers, Anaxagoras and Protagoras, were forced to leave the city. It
must be conceded, however, that the record of the Athenians for tolerance was better than that of
most other nations, both ancient and modern.
Nor is it true that the Greek influence has been as great as is often supposed. … Our laws do not
really have their roots in Greece but chiefly in Hellenistic and Roman sources. Our religion is no
more than partly Greek except, as it was influenced by Plato and the Romans, it reflects primarily the
spirit of the Near East. …
In spite of all this, the Hellenic adventure was of profound significance for the history of the world.
For the Greeks were the founders of nearly all those ideals commonly thought of as peculiar to the
West. Culture in the Near Eastern empires served mainly as an instrument to magnify the power of
the state and to enhance the prestige of rulers and priests. The civilizations of the ancient Near East,
with the exception, to a certain extent, of the Hebrew and Egyptian, were dominated by absolutism,
supernaturalism, ecclesiasticism, the denial of both body and mind, and the subjection of the
individual to the group. In contrast, the civilization of Greece, was founded upon ideals of freedom,
optimism, secularism, rationalism, the glorification of both body and mind, and a high regard for the
dignity and worth of the individual. The culture of the Greeks was the first to be based upon the
primacy of intellect – upon the supremacy of the spirit of free inquiry.
The supreme tragedy of the Greeks was, of course, their failure to solve the problem of political
conflict. [T]he war that finally broke out between Athens and Sparta sealed the doom of Hellenic
civilization even though Greece remained undefeated by foreigners.
Q5. Which of the following is NOT an assumption made by the author in commending the
achievements of the Greeks?
a) A civilization can be successful only when its citizens can afford leisure.
b) Intellectual and artistic achievements without a cultural inheritance are indicators of a

remarkable civilization.
c) It is difficult to build a diverse civilization without mineral resources and fertile soil.
d) The hallmark of an accomplished civilization is how happy and satisfied its citizens are.
Q6. The author mentions Anaxagoras and Protagoras in the passage to drive home which of the
following ideas?
a) To show that the record of Athenians for tolerance was at least better than most other
nations.
b) To demonstrate that most of the inhabitants were denied political rights owing to their
lineage.
c) To show that while Socrates was put to death, some thinkers escaped a similar fate.
d) To suggest that Athenians intermittently demonstrated intolerance.
Q7. Which of the following differences between the Greeks and the Near East can be inferred as
per the evidence given in the passage?
a) Intellect was more important amongst the Greeks than it was amongst their Near Eastern
counterparts.
b) The Greeks veered away from rationalisation, while their Near Eastern counterparts
digressed from supernaturalism and absolutism.
c) The Greeks utilised their natural resources well unlike their counterparts from the richly
favoured regions of the Near East.
d) Unlike the nations of the Near East, the Greeks were doomed not because of foreign attacks
but because of internal strife.
Q8. All the following can be inferred to be ‘ideals commonly thought of as peculiar to the West’
EXCEPT:
a) Treating an individual’s sense of freedom with a high level of respect
b) Encouraging a questioning attitude that arose from an adulation for reason.
c) Avoiding a condescending approach towards the flesh while elevating the significance of the
mind.
d) Cultivating a sense of obeisance towards figures of higher authority.
DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 13: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of five

The government’s performance of the regulator role in a market can be justified on the basis of any
of the three overarching functions of government in a mixed economy: allowing for the smooth
operation of the price system, promoting health and safety standards and altering market outcomes
to make them equitable. Government’s interventions as a regulator in the market for primary and
secondary education can be distributed among these functions. However, government interventions
in primary and secondary education based on each of these functions are not equally meritorious or
justifiable.
Government’s function as provider of framework that allows for the smooth operation of the price
system is an important one, but it requires no special regulatory intervention in the market for
primary and secondary education. Also, primary and secondary education is not characterized by
natural monopoly conditions or by barriers to entry of the type that merit government regulatory
intervention on the basis of seeking to maintain competition. …
Government’s role as a regulator to promote health and safety in the market for mandatory primary
and secondary education seems well grounded. … The reasons for this conclusion reflect several
factors. First, the principal consumers or participants in the market for primary and secondary
education are children, who would not typically be capable of making the required evaluation of
health and safety trade-offs that an unfettered market approach requires. Second, based on societal
reaction in many similar situations, one would not expect that society is willing to accept the efficient
outcome produced by unfettered markets, one that typically does not eliminate unsafe or unpleasant
conditions. Finally, with mandatory education, the ability to opt out of dangerous or unhealthy
conditions may be greatly reduced. Thus, government performance of the regulator role in the
market for primary and secondary education seems necessary, at least in terms of basic health and
safety issues and concerns.
Government’s role as a regulator to alter market outcomes to make them more just or equitable also
presents some elements that appear to be relatively noncontroversial, well established, and well
accepted. In particular, regulation to guarantee access to education is well grounded in
government’s function of improving market outcomes on the grounds of justice or equity, but it also
can be justified on the basis of facilitating a system of mandatory and free public education. This
may be especially important in protecting the rights of special needs students. The protection of civil
rights in settings such as educational institutions can be expected to remain in the hands of the
federal government, though not through any explicit need to impart special regulations for primary
and secondary education beyond those generally promulgated as enforcement of the Constitution.
…
Government has also performed as a regulator under the status quo in the market for primary and
secondary education on dimensions that are not easily justified.... There does not appear to be any
compelling rationale for government regulation of curriculum, length of school day, or other elements
related to the methods of preparation and education of students. These dimensions of regulation
appear to be aspects of the production and provision of primary and secondary education that can
be effectively regulated through normal market operations.
Q9. Which of the following statements is not presented as an argument in the passage in favour of
the government regulating health and safety standards in primary and secondary education?
a) Children are incapable of understanding and evaluating the importance of health and safety
standards.
b) Markets, in the absence of regulations, produce inefficient outcomes and such outcomes are
usually not acceptable to the society.
c) The outcomes of unfettered markets may not turn out to be acceptable to society as these
outcomes could sometimes create unsafe environments.
d) Students cannot opt out of primary and secondary education as the government mandates
education for all children.
Q10. Considering the functions of a government in a mixed economy mentioned in the passage,

which of the following regulations most likely falls outside these functions of the government?
a) Government issuing a directive to the primary and secondary educational institutions to

provide uncontaminated drinking water to all its students
b) Government making it mandatory to provide a ramp alongside every staircase for the benefit
of physically handicapped students in all primary and secondary educational institutions
c) Government prohibiting the primary and secondary educational institutions from

discriminating between students on the basis of the colour of their skin
d) Government prescribing the number of hours any student must be in a primary or secondary
educational institution to encourage all-round development of the student.
Q11. According to the passage, a shortcoming of an unfettered market with respect to primary and
secondary education is that unfettered markets
a) produce efficient outcomes but fail to eliminate unhealthy conditions.
b) provide students with limited options to opt out of unhealthy conditions.
c) result in high barriers to entry and may eventually result in a monopoly.
d) cannot regulate various operational aspects in primary and secondary education like the
length of the school day and preparing the curriculum.
Q12. The protection of civil rights in primary and secondary education
a) needs additional stringent regulations from the government as children are more susceptible
to discrimination.
b) can be ensured by the efficient functioning of markets in the absence of regulations.

c) can be ensured in the existing framework of regulations without the need for any additional
regulations.
d) cannot be ensured as long as it is the responsibility of the federal government.
Q13. It can be inferred from the passage that the field of primary and secondary education is
characterized by
a) the presence of a single large institution.
b) the presence of competition among institutes.
c) the presence of regulations to allow smooth pricing.
d) the absence of health and safety standards.
DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of five

Western politics has, it is argued, become more tribal. Tribes are distinguished from other human
groups by their relatively clear social boundaries, often defined by kinship and demarcated territory.
It’s clear that our political groups are increasingly based on single aspects of common identity with
unambiguous boundaries, such as race and educational status.
Equally undeniable, however, is that most commentators vastly misunderstand the nature of tribes.
The mistaken view of tribes as primitive, violent, and insular is already having pernicious effects on
our response to this new era of politics. If we hope to live productively in this new political era, it
helps to understand what tribes actually are — and how, rather than simply being the cause of our
political problems, tribalism can also contribute to the solution.
Our colloquial evocation of tribalism mostly reflects outmoded anthropology. Scientists once believed
that tribes were defined by their rigid social structures which were coercive; tribes were thought to be
able to integrate their individual members only through the stultifying and imposed repetition of social
customs.
But, years of empirical studies of actual tribes show that even as they are defined by relatively
narrow identities, they are also characterized by porous boundaries. Tribes continually sample one
another’s practices and social forms. Speaking about American Indians, James Boon, a Princeton
anthropologist, noted that “each tribal population appears almost to toy with patterns that are
fundamental to its neighbours.”
Tribes also frequently adopt outsiders. … Reciprocity, too, is a central part of traditional tribal life.
Moral or material indebtedness, they know, can serve as the foundation of a strong relationship. It is
common amongst the Berbers of North Africa, for example — for leaders to be chosen or ratified by
the group’s opponents on the theory that one’s current enemy may later be an ally.
Many tribes also share the common practice of marrying members of enemy tribes to reduce the
likelihood of internecine warfare. As a result of intermarriage and trading relations, a high proportion
of tribes are multilingual.
Nor are tribes inherently authoritarian. Tribes often do not like too much power in too few hands for
too long a period of time, and hence, employ a wide variety of practices that redistribute power.
This might sound quite distant from the partisan tribes of our present politics, which seem mostly to
be characterized by their pugnaciousness. But the point is that, anthropologically, narrow identity
groups such as tribes aren’t defined by exclusionary traits. The existence of narrow group identities
doesn’t imply hostility among such groups.
Indeed, there is a reason that tribes historically have not embraced the rigid structural identities and
institutions evident in our politics today. ... Actual tribes know that social isolation limits their
flexibility. But, we can only sustainably avoid paying such costs when we understand that resorting
to defensive boundaries, even when we have gone “tribal,” is not our natural default position.
If politicians and ordinary citizens insist on using tribal metaphors to define our present identity
politics, we need a more apt metaphor to understand tribes themselves. We could do worse than to
think of tribes as amoebas, entities whose very shape adapts to fit changing circumstances.
Q14. Which fundamental distinction between tribalism and present politics does the author allude to
in the first sentence of the eighth para: ‘This might sound … present politics’?
a) Tribes don’t demonstrate the greed for power evident in political hostilities.
b) Tribes are more pugnacious compared to present politics.
c) Narrow group identities in politics doesn’t imply hostility as it does in tribalism.
d) Tribes are fundamentally inclined towards the centralization of power.
Q15. The author has a bone to pick against ‘our colloquial evocation of tribalism’. Which of the
following best captures it?
a) It is based on anthropological methods that are irrelevant for present political era.
b) Tribes are not rigid in the modern-day society unlike in the past.
c) Our colloquial evocation of tribalism is laced with misconceptions.
d) Tribalism involves imposed repetition of social customs, inapt for liberal societies.
Q16. The attribute about tribalism that the author demonstrates by citing James Boon is
a) their strong rejection of the fundamental principles of their neighbours.
b) their boycott of one another’s practices and social patterns.
c) their relatively narrow identities.
d) their willingness to try extrinsic principles and patterns.
Q17. The author mentions the Berbers of North Africa to highlight that
a) tribes believed in adopting outsiders harmoniously.
b) primitivism and insularity are characteristic traits of ancient tribes and not the modern
ones.
c) tribes value a two-way relationship with their opponents.
d) tribes avoided internecine conflict as much as possible.
Q18. Which of the following best captures the essence of the author’s exhortation in the last para of
the passage, ‘We could do worse … circumstances’?
a) We should stop thinking of tribes as trivial entities.
b) Amoebas are an apt metaphor for tribes.
c) The present identity politics should avoid using tribal metaphors.
d) The social adaptability of tribes is questionable, a trap present politics must avoid.
Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: The sentences given in the question, when properly

sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide on the
proper order for the four sentences and key in the sequence of four numbers as your answer, in the
input box given below the question.
1. He writes that in 1982, a new boss had shocked the then-editor with a plan to computerise
the dictionary's ways: both the lexicographic work itself, with digital research files, and its
outcome, an OED on compact disc.
2. Lexicographers prefer to think they are a different kind of cop: the kind in the title of John
Simpson's “The Word Detective”, published in October 2016, a memoir of his time as editor-
in-chief of the Oxford English Dictionary (OED).
3. But that wasn't the final shape either: by the end of Mr. Simpson's tenure in 2013, the OED's
flagship product was a website with entries richly linked to one another and updated at
regular intervals.
4. While many readers think that something is a “real word” if it's “in the dictionary”,
lexicographers don't like to regard themselves as letting the trusty words in and keeping the
bad guys out.
Q20. DIRECTIONS for question 20: Each of the following questions has a paragraph which is

followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the essence of the
paragraph.
Some authors push the analogy between cultural evolution and biological evolution very far. Within
biology, the most celebrated evolutionary process is natural selection: traits that increase fitness are
more likely than others to get passed on from one generation to the next. 20th century evolutionary
theory supplements this Darwinian idea with the principle that traits are transmitted genetically.
Genes produce traits (or phenotypes), which impact reproductive success, and thereby impact which
genes will be copied into the next generation. Richard Dawkins, who helped popularize this idea,
characterizes cultural items as “memes” – a term that echoes “gene” while emphasizing the idea that
culture is passed on mimetically – that is, by imitation. Like a gene, a meme will spread if it is
successful.
a) The analogy between cultural and biological evolution is farfetched as cultural traits can be
spread in ways that differ significantly from genes.
b) Richard Dawkins propounded the idea that genes produce characteristics which impact
reproductive success, and thereby determine their genetic transmission from one generation to the
next. He thinks that culture can also be passed on by imitation.
c) Just as genetic traits, such as those that increase fitness, are transmitted from one
generation to the next, cultural traits get reproduced in an analogous way, according to some
authors.
d) The analogy between biological evolution, in which traits that increase reproductive success
are perpetuated, and cultural evolution, where elements that are successful are imitated, is
extrapolated very far by some authors.
Q21. DIRECTIONS for question 21: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide
on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of four numbers as your answer, in
the input box given below the question.
1. Daenerys Targaryen, from Game of Thrones, is no stranger to consequences.
2. Decision-making is another managerial process that involves social, political, emotional, and
organizational factors, as well as analytics, reason, and fact-based analysis.
3. Along her journey from exile to Queen of Meereen, she learns that decision making is a
delicate balance that requires not only finding the greatest good for all the parties involved,
but also planning for the future.
4. Good managers must recognize the pros and cons of each option and take into account all
of these factors when evaluating which path will result in the best outcome.
Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 and 23: Each of the questions given below has a paragraph

which is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the
essence of the paragraph.
What attitude should we take to our situation or ourselves, once we recognise that it is absurd? One
option is to shake our noble fists at the cosmos, cursing its silent coldness and slippery stairs. This
stance appeals to a certain kind of guy in college. But some of us – women, the disabled, ethnic and
gender minorities, etc – got the memo pretty early on that we weren’t plausibly the centre of the
Universe. So, when our adolescent attention was directed to life’s disappointments and farcicality,
we were more inclined to shrug and get back to what we were doing than get theatrical about it.
a) When faced with the absurd, we could sulk and complain about the disappointments of life,
or just get back to what we were doing.
b) Life’s disappointments can be dealt in two ways: curse the cosmos or realise we aren’t the
centre of the universe.
c) Those who understood their place in the universe early in life are more likely to adapt to a
disappointment than a privileged guy.
d) When faced with a disappointment, some resist, but those who have understood that
the world doesn’t revolve around them, simply get on with it. Your answer is correct
Q23. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 and 23: Each of the questions given below has a paragraph
which is followed by four alternative summaries. Choose the alternative that best captures the
essence of the paragraph.
Our cultural backgrounds influence not only how we marry but how we make choices in nearly every
area of our lives. From early on, members of individualistic societies are taught the special
importance of personal choice. Even a walk through the grocery store becomes an opportunity to
teach lessons about choosing, particularly in the United States, where stores routinely offer
hundreds of options. A parent will probably narrow down the number of choices and explain the
differences between this cereal and that one, or that toy and this one, but the child would be
encouraged to express a preference. By contrast, members of collectivist societies place greater
emphasis on duty. Children are often told, “If you are a good child, you'll do what your parents tell
you,” and the parents need not explain themselves. From what you eat to what you wear, the toys
you play with to what you study, it is what you are supposed to do that is most important.
a) Individualist societies have greater dialogue with their children whereas collectivist societies
mostly talk down to their children.
b) Individualistic societies stress more on the individual and are more self-centred, whereas
collectivist societies stress more on social units such as families and are unselfish.
c) Children of individualist societies become accustomed to making their own decisions

whereas children in collectivist societies such as India prefer to let their elders decide for them.
d) Culture influences choice making. Individualistic societies emphasize personal choice

while collectivist societies emphasize duty. Your answer is correct
Q24. DIRECTIONS for question 24: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when

properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each sentence is labelled with a number. Decide
on the proper order for the sentences and key in the sequence of four numbers as your answer, in
the input box given below the question.
1. The letter is written in the brain, sparked to life by some sudden chemical reaction, two
compounds arcing across synapses and reacting like lead and acid in an automobile battery.
2. Nobody knows how long it takes thoughts to form.
3. But, instead of sending twelve dumb volts to a turn signal, the brain floods the body with all
kinds of subtle adjustments all at once because thoughts don’t necessarily happen one at a
time.
4. People talk about electrical impulses racing through the nerves at a fraction of the speed of
light, but that's mere transmission, like mail delivery.
Q25. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four
of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one
out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
1. However, Golden Rice is not produced by a corporate behemoth but by the public sector
whose aim is to double food production; and reduce the number of deaths and cases of
blindness caused by vitamin A deficiency.
2. If the green revolution had never happened, and yields had stayed at 1960 levels, the world
could not produce its current food output even if it ploughed up every last acre of cultivable
land.
3. In August 2014, environmentalists in the Philippines vandalised a field of Golden Rice – an

experimental grain whose genes had been modified to carry beta-carotene, a chemical
precursor of vitamin A.
4. Hence, vandalising Golden Rice (GM) field trials is a bit like the campaign of some religious
leaders to prevent smallpox inoculations: it causes misery, even death, in the name of
obscurantism and unscientific belief.
5. The environmentalists claimed that genetically modified (GM) crops pose health risks.
Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four

of them can be put together to form a meaningful and coherent short paragraph. Identify the odd one
out. Choose its number as your answer and key it in.
1. The year 2050 is closer to us in time than the Great Depression
2. If it were possible to pry from their brains their collective image of the economy of, say, the
year 2035, it would look very much like that of 1970 - only more so.
3. Only by stepping outside the framework of orthodox economic thought and examining these
possibilities can we begin to prepare for tomorrow.
4. Economists, even those who talk the language of revolution, are peculiarly conservative
creatures.
5. Yet the world's economists, traumatized by that historic disaster, remain frozen in the
attitudes of the past.
LRDI
DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

In a country, there were exactly four states – LN, OP, WN and CB. The area chart given below
provides the GDP of each of the four states as a percentage of the total GDP of the country, for five
years, from 2016 to 2020. Further, it is known the GDP of CB remained constant over the five years.
Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

In how many years, from 2017 to 2020, did the GDP of LN increase as compared to the previous
year?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3 Your answer is incorrect
d) 4

What is the ratio of the GDP of WN in 2018 to that of OP in 2016?
a) 0.32
b) 0.64
c) 0.2
d) 0.4

In how many years, from 2017 to 2020, did the GDP of at least two states decrease as compared to
the previous year?
a) 0
b) 1 Your answer is incorrect
c) 2
d) 3

What is the highest percentage increase in the GDP of any state in any year, from 2017 to 2020, as
compared to the previous year?
a) 140%
b) 240%
c) 373.33%
d) 273.33%
DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given

below.
Four actresses, Amy, Charlotte, Denise and Nicole, acted in a certain number of films such that no
two actresses ever acted in the same film. It is known that, by the end of the year 2017, the four
actresses had acted in a total of exactly 18 films and, by the end of 2019, the four of them had acted
in a total of exactly 35 films.
The following information is known about the number of films that they acted in:
i. The number of films in which Charlotte acted during 2018 was the same as the number of
films in which Amy acted during 2019, which, in turn, was more than the number of films in which
Denise acted during 2019.
ii. By the end of 2017, Amy and Nicole had acted in 3 and 5 films respectively.
iii. Even though Denise did not act in any film during 2019, each of Denise, Amy and Nicole had
acted in the same number of films by the end of 2019.
iv. The number of films in which Nicole acted during 2019 was the same as that during 2018,
which, in turn, was twice the number of films in which Amy acted during 2019.
v. The number of films in which Denise acted during 2018 was the same as the number of films
in which Charlotte acted during 2019.
Q5. DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 7: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
In how many films did Amy act during 2018?

question.
What is the total number of films in which the four actresses acted during 2019?

question.
In how many films did Denise act by the end of 2017?
Q8. DIRECTIONS for question 8 and 9: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Which of the four actresses acted in the highest number of films during 2019?
a) Charlotte
b) Nicole
c) Amy
d) Cannot be determined

Which of the four actresses acted in the lowest number of films by the end of 2018?
a) Amy
b) Charlotte
c) Nicole
d) Denise
Q10. DIRECTIONS for question 10: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
In how many films did Nicole act by the end of 2018?

below.
Anusha, a college student, studied the financials of twelve companies, A through L, for the year
2018. She plotted the twelve companies in a graph with the Revenue along the horizontal axis and
the Profit along the vertical axis. She, then, used certain criteria to classify each company as either
High Revenue or Low Revenue and as either High Profit or Low Profit. Using these criteria, she
divided the graph in to four quadrants such that the top right quadrant has High Revenue-High Profit
(HRHP) companies, the top left quadrant has Low Revenue-High Profit (LRHP) companies, the
bottom right quadrant has High Revenue-Low Profit (HRLP) companies, and the bottom left
quadrant has Low Revenue-Low Profit (LRLP) companies.
The graph that she made is provided below.

In 2020, Anusha repeated the same exercise for the same twelve companies. She used the same
criteria as she did in 2018 for classifying the companies and plotted a similar graph with the four
quadrants. She found that
i. exactly 7 companies were in a different quadrant in 2020 as compared to 2018.
ii. only C, E, G, H, J and K had a higher profit in 2020 as compared to that in 2018.
iii. only A, C, G, H, K and L had a higher revenue in 2020 as compared to that in 2018.

In which quadrant was F in the year 2020?
a) High Revenue Low Profit
b) Low Revenue Low Profit
c) High Revenue High Profit
d) Low Revenue High Profit

For which of the following companies is its quadrant in 2020 the same as that in 2018?
a) D
b) K
c) L
d) F

If D and L were in the same quadrant in 2020, in which of the following quadrant will the number of
companies in that quadrant in 2020 be not more than that in 2018?
a) High Revenue High Profit
b) Low Revenue High Profit

c) High Revenue Low Profit
d) Low Revenue Low Profit

question.
It is known that, for exactly four pairs of companies, the quadrant to which the two companies in the
pair belonged was the same in 2018 and 2020. Further, in 2020, H was in the same quadrant as A.
How many companies would have been in High Revenue High Profit quadrant in 2020?
Q15. DIRECTIONS for question 15: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

It is known that, for exactly four pairs of companies, the quadrant to which the two companies in
each pair belonged was the same in 2018 and 2020. Further, in 2020, H was in the same quadrant
as A.
Which of the following pairs of companies belong to the same quadrant in 2020?
a) (K, L)
b) (D, F)
c) (C, F)
d) None of the above

question.
It is known that, for exactly four pairs of companies, the quadrant to which the two companies in
each pair belonged was the same in 2018 and 2020. Further, in 2020, H was in the same quadrant
as A.
Of the companies that were in Low Revenue Low Profit quadrant in 2018, how many companies
were in Low Revenue High Profit quadrant in 2020?

below.
In a family, there are nine persons, namely R, S, T, U, V, W, X, Y and Z. In the family, there are two
married couples viz., R and U; W and Z, while all the remaining persons are unmarried. These nine
persons are to be seated for a family photograph in a row, such that no two unmarried persons can
be next to each other.

Which of the following cannot be true about the seating arrangement of the family?
a) W is in the fourth position from left.
b) R is seven places to the left of the right most person. Your answer is incorrect
c) Z is three places to the right of the person in the center.
d) S is in the eighth position from right.

Which of the following persons CANNOT be adjacent to Z?
a) X
b) U Your answer is correct
c) S
d) T

Which of the following persons can sit next to R?
a) W
b) U
c) X Your answer is correct
d) Any one of the above

Which of the following statements is true about the seating arrangement of the family?
a) W and U have an odd number of persons sitting between them.
b) V and X have an even number of persons sitting between them. Your answer is
incorrect
c) Z and T have an odd number of persons sitting between them.

below.
The stock exchange in a certain country has two stock indices, TENSEX and T10. Each of the stock
indices is measured by calculating the simple average of the stock prices of ten companies which
comprise the respective index. Among these ten companies comprising each index, exactly one
company, Tata Inc., is common to both the indices, while the remaining nine companies are different
for each of these indices. The following graph shows the values of the stock indices for each month
from October 2017 to March 2020.
question.
For how many months during the given period was the value of TENSEX greater than that of T10?
22. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 to 24: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

In which month did T10 show a maximum percentage increase in its value compared to its value in
the previous month?
a) November 2018
b) October 2018
c) May 2019 Your answer is incorrect
d) February 2019

If in November 2018, the stock prices of all the ten companies comprising T10 were equal, what is
the average stock price of the nine companies, excluding Tata Inc., in TENSEX during November
2018?
a) 2020.3
b) 2161.2
c) 2080
d) 2071.1

In which of the given months was the value of one of the two indices the highest as a percentage of
the value of the other index?
a) November 2019
b) May 2018
c) January 2020

QA
The sum (S) of the squares of the first n natural numbers is equal to the sum of the first 2n natural
numbers. What is the remainder when S is divided by 2n?
a) 8
b) 7
c) 6
d) 5

question.

question.
A trader marked a book 36% above its cost price and then gave a discount of 10% on it. If the trader
made a net profit of ₹238 after paying a tax of 15% on the gross profit, find the cost price (in ₹) of
the watch.

question.
Akhil took a loan of ₹10,000 from Bharat at a simple interest rate of 10% per annum. Three people
Pasha, Quadir and Robert approached him for a loan, offering to pay 7%, 8% and 12% simple
interest per annum respectively. If Akhil lent the money in such a way that he will make a profit of 1%
on the borrowed sum per year, what is the maximum possible sum (in ₹) that he might have lent to
Robert?

In how many ways can 60060 be written as a product of two factors?
a) 16 ways
b) 32 ways
c) 48 ways Your answer is correct

d) 96 ways
Q6. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
Q7. DIRECTIONS for questions 6 and 7: Type in your answer in the input box provided below the

question.
The number of males in village A is 4372 less than that in village B. In village B, the number of males
is less than the number of females by 4634. In village A, the number of females is double the
number of males. Find the number of males in village A, if village B has 1632 females more than that
in village A.
. DIRECTIONS for question 8 and 9: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If 2x + 3 + 3y – 2 = 145 and 22x + 1 + 32y – 7 = 371, where x and y are whole numbers, find the value of 23x – 5 +
3y – 1.
a) 259
b) 275
c) 307
d) 283
a) 1 : 2
b) 2 : 3
c) 3 : 4
d) 4 : 5
Q10. DIRECTIONS for questions 10 and 11: Type your answer in the text box provided below the

question.
If log1001 = 3.000434, find the number of digits in 1001101.
Q11. DIRECTIONS for questions 10 and 11: Type your answer in the text box provided below the
question.
If three consecutive vertices of a rectangle are (3, 5), (3, 8) and (5, 8), find the area (in sq.units) of
the rectangle.

If the area of the base of a right circular cone, of volume 1232 cu.cm., is 154 sq.cm., find the curved
surface area of the cone.
a) 550 sq.cm.
b) 575 sq.cm.
c) 600 sq.cm.
d) 625 sq.cm.

How many three-letter words can be formed using the letters of the word “EDUCATION”, such that
no letter is repeated?
a) 729
b) 624
c) 512
d) 504
a) P1, P2
b) P2, P3
c) P3, P4
d) P4, P5

Which of the following expressions best represents the graph shown below?
a) |x + 4| – |x – 6|
b) |x + 4| – |x + 6|
c) |x – 4| – |x – 6|
d) |x – 4| – |x + 6|

If (625)n = 5 × (137) n, for n > 2, then in which of the following ranges does ‘n’ lie?
a) 3 ≤ n ≤ 7
b) 13 ≤ n ≤ 17
c) 8 ≤ n ≤ 12
d) 18 ≤ n ≤ 22

A graph is defined as a set of points connected by lines called edges. Each edge connects a pair of
points. It is possible to reach any point from any other point through a sequence of edges. Consider
a graph with 15 points. If the number of edges in the graph is denoted by e, then which of the
following best describes e?
a) 13 ≤ e ≤ 104
b) 14 ≤ e ≤ 104
c) 13 ≤ e ≤ 105
d) 14 ≤ e ≤ 105

Q17. DIRECTIONS for question 17: Type your answer in the text box provided below the question.
Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: Type in your answer in the input box provided below
the question.
Two persons, A and B, have 120 apples between them. If C, their friend, gave exactly 35 apples to B, the
number of apples that B has will be a multiple of 12. If C gave exactly 26 apples to A, the number of
apples that A has will be a multiple of 11. How many apples does A have?
Fresh dates contain 80% water by weight, whereas dry dates contain 10% water by weight. A trader
purchases fresh dates at ₹100 per kg and makes a profit of 10% by selling them after drying. Find
the selling price per kg at which the trader sells the dry dates.
a) ₹495
b) ₹550
c) ₹590
d) ₹367

Find the distance between the lines 3x + 2y + 7 = 0 and 6x + 4y + 15 = 0.
22. DIRECTIONS for questions 20 to 22: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

If set A contains five elements and set B contains four elements, how many different onto mappings
from A to B are possible?
a) 216
b) 240
c) 625
d) 288

question.
If x2 + y2 + z2 = xy + yz + zx, and the product of x, y and z is 27, find the value of x3 + y3 + z3.

Each of A, B and C have some chocolates with them, such that the ratio of the total number of
chocolates with A and C to those with A and B is 5 : 4. If the ratio of the total number of chocolates
with B and C to those with C and A is 6 : 5, which of the following is the ratio of the number of
chocolates with B and C?
a) 5 : 7 Your answer is correct
b) 3 : 5
c) 1 : 3
d) 5 : 6

In a certain class, there are two sections – A and B – with equal number of students in each section.
The average height of the students of section A is 155 cms and that of section B is 160 cms. One-
fourth of the students from section B move to section A, thereby increasing the average height of
section A by 1 cm. What happens to the average height of section B after this movement of students
to section A?
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Does not change
d) Cannot be determined

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DIRECTIONS

for questions 1 to 4: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four

a) its rotational velocity greater than its galactic luminosity.

c) similar or slightly lower rotational velocity and higher luminosity.

d) lower rotational velocity and lower luminosity.

Q2. The author would agree with which of the following statements?

a) O-stars are a major factor contributing to dark matter in spiral galaxies.

b) and this is followed by the formation of new stars.

Q4. Which of the following statements applies to dim galaxies?

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 8: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of four

b) Intellectual and artistic achievements without a cultural inheritance are indicators of a

d) To suggest that Athenians intermittently demonstrated intolerance.

a) Treating an individual’s sense of freedom with a high level of respect

b) Encouraging a questioning attitude that arose from an adulation for reason.

d) Cultivating a sense of obeisance towards figures of higher authority.

DIRECTIONS for questions 9 to 13: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of five

Q10. Considering the functions of a government in a mixed economy mentioned in the passage,

a) Government issuing a directive to the primary and secondary educational institutions to

c) Government prohibiting the primary and secondary educational institutions from

a) produce efficient outcomes but fail to eliminate unhealthy conditions.

b) provide students with limited options to opt out of unhealthy conditions.

c) result in high barriers to entry and may eventually result in a monopoly.

Q12. The protection of civil rights in primary and secondary education

b) can be ensured by the efficient functioning of markets in the absence of regulations.

d) cannot be ensured as long as it is the responsibility of the federal government.

a) the presence of a single large institution.

b) the presence of competition among institutes.

c) the presence of regulations to allow smooth pricing.

d) the absence of health and safety standards.

DIRECTIONS for questions 14 to 18: The passage given below is accompanied by a set of five

b) Tribes are more pugnacious compared to present politics.

c) Narrow group identities in politics doesn’t imply hostility as it does in tribalism.

d) Tribes are fundamentally inclined towards the centralization of power.

c) Our colloquial evocation of tribalism is laced with misconceptions.

a) their strong rejection of the fundamental principles of their neighbours.

b) their boycott of one another’s practices and social patterns.

c) their relatively narrow identities.

d) their willingness to try extrinsic principles and patterns.

Q17. The author mentions the Berbers of North Africa to highlight that

a) tribes believed in adopting outsiders harmoniously.

c) tribes value a two-way relationship with their opponents.

d) tribes avoided internecine conflict as much as possible.

a) We should stop thinking of tribes as trivial entities.

b) Amoebas are an apt metaphor for tribes.

c) The present identity politics should avoid using tribal metaphors.

Q19. DIRECTIONS for question 19: The sentences given in the question, when properly

Q20. DIRECTIONS for question 20: Each of the following questions has a paragraph which is

Q21. DIRECTIONS for question 21: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when

Q22. DIRECTIONS for questions 22 and 23: Each of the questions given below has a paragraph

c) Children of individualist societies become accustomed to making their own decisions

d) Culture influences choice making. Individualistic societies emphasize personal choice

Q24. DIRECTIONS for question 24: The sentences given in each of the following questions, when

2. Nobody knows how long it takes thoughts to form.

3. In August 2014, environmentalists in the Philippines vandalised a field of Golden Rice – an

Q26. DIRECTIONS for questions 25 and 26: Five sentences related to a topic are given below. Four

DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.

Q1. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

c) 3 Your answer is incorrect

Q2. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

Q3. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

b) 1 Your answer is incorrect

Q4. DIRECTIONS for questions 1 to 4: Select the correct alternative from the given choices.

DIRECTIONS for questions 5 to 10: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given