12th Biology NCERT Microassignments All Chapters - Final PDF

Aakash NCERT (XII) Micro Assignment
S.No.
ContentChapter Name Page No.
1. Reproduction in Organisms .............................................................................3
2. Sexual Reproduction in Flowering Plants.......................................................4
3. Human Reproduction.......................................................................................6
4. Reproductive Health ........................................................................................9
5. Principles of Inheritance and Variation ........................................................10
6. Molecular Basis of Inheritance ......................................................................12
7. Evolution .........................................................................................................15
8. Human Health and Disease ............................................................................17
9. Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production ........................................19
10. Microbes in Human Welfare ..........................................................................21
11. Biotechnology : Principles and Processes.....................................................22
12. Biotechnology and its Applications ..............................................................24
13. Organisms and Populations...........................................................................25
14. Ecosystem........................................................................................................27
15. Biodiversity and Conservation ......................................................................28
16. Environmental Issues......................................................................................29
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Chapter 1
Reproduction in Organisms
Please fill in the blank of following questions :-
1. The period from birth to the natural death of an organism represents its _______________ .
2. _______________ is defined as biological process in which an organism give rise to offspring.
3. When offspring is produced by single parent or without the involvement of gamete formation, the reproduction
is _______________ .
4. When offspring is produced by involvement of two parents and also fusion of male and female gamete the
reproduction is _______________ .
5. The term _______________ is used for morphologically and genetically similar individuals.
6. Many single-celled organisms reproduce by _______________ .
7. In yeast, the division is _______________ and small _______________ is produced that remain attached
initially to parent cell.
8. The asexual reproductive structures in Penicillium is _______________ ; in Hydra buds and in Sponge is
_______________ .
9. In plants, the structures such as runner, rhizome, sucker, tuber, offset, bulb are capable of giving rise to
new offspring and these structures are called _______________ .
10. Adventitious buds arises from the notches present at margins of leaves of _______________ .
11. The period of growth in life of organisms before they can reproduce sexually is called _______________
in animal and _______________ in plants.
12. In non-primate female mammals, cyclical changes during reproductive life are called _______________
whereas in primates, it is called _______________ .
13. In sexual reproduction, two main prefertilization events are _______________ and _______________.
14. _______________ refers to the process of formation of two types gamete - male and female.
15. In sexually reproducing organism, if two gametes are similar in appearance, then gametes are called
______________and when gametes produced are morphologically distinct, it is called _______________.
16. In several fungi and plants, terms such as _______________ and _______________ are used to denote
bisexual condition and term _______________ and _______________ are used to describe unisexual
condition.
17. In flowering plants, the unisexual male flower is _______________ i.e. bearing stamens, while the female
is _______________ i.e. bearing pistils.
18. In diploid organism specialised cell, gamete mother cell called _______________ undergo meiosis.
19. In plants, specialised event called _______________ facilitates transfer of pollen grains to the stigma.
20. The process of fusion of gametes is called _______________ and results in formation of diploid
_______________ . The whole process is also called as _______________ .
21. In _______________ , the female gamete undergoes development to form new organism without fertilization.
22. _______________ refers to the process of development of embryo from the zygote. During this process,
zygote undergoes _______________ and _______________ .
23. Animals are categorised into _______________ and _______________ based on whether the development
of zygote takes place outside or inside the body of female.
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24. In flowering plants, _______________ develops into embryo and _______________ develops into seeds.
25. In plants, _______________ develops fruit which develops a thick wall called _______________ that is
protective in function.
26. Under favourable condition the Amoeba withdraws its pseudopodia and secretes a _______________
layered hard covering or cyst around itself.
27. The phenomenon _______________ occurs during unfavourable condition in Amoeba.
28. After encystation when favourable condition return, the encysted Amoeba divides by ______________.
29. In _______________ phenomenon in Amoeba the cyst wall burst out and spores are liberated in surrounding
medium to grow up into many amoebae.
30. In Hydra, the mode of asexual reproduction in which the body breaks into distinct pieces and each piece
grows into adult is known as _______________ .
Chapter 2
Sexual reproduction in Flowering plants
1. Androecium consists of a whorl of _______________ representing the male reproductive organ and the
gynoecium represents the female reproductive organ.
2. The two parts of a typical stamen are the long and slender stalk called _______________ , and the
terminal generally bilobed structure called the _______________ .
3. The proximal end of the filament of stamen is attached to the _______________ or the _______________
of the flower.
4. The bilobed anther consist of four _______________ located at the corners. They develop further and
become _______________ .
5. In microsporangium, cells of the _______________ possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more
than one nucleus.
6. When anther is young, a group of compactly arranged homogenous cells called _______________ tissue
occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
7. The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
_______________ .
8. The _______________ represent the male gametophytes.
9. The hard outer layer of pollen grain called _______________ is made up of _______________ .
10. Pollen grain exine has prominent apertures called _______________ where sporopollenin is absent.
Pollen grains are well-preserved as fossils because of presence of _______________ .
11. The inner wall of the pollen grains is called _______________ . It is a thin and continous layer made up of
_______________ and _______________ .
12. When the pollen grain is mature it contains two cells, the _______________ cell and _______________
cell.
13. In over 60% of angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at _______________ -celled stage.
14. It is possible to store pollen grains of a large number of species for years in a liquid nitrogen at
_______________ oC.
15. Each pistil has three parts _______________ , _______________ and _______________ .
_______________ serve as a landing platform for pollen grains.
16. The _______________ is elongated slender part beneath the stigma. The basal bulged part of the pistil is
the _______________ .
17. Arising from the _______________ are the megasporangia commonly called ovules.
18. The body of the ovule fuses with _______________ in the region called hilum.
19. Each ovule has one or two protective envelopes called _______________ .
20. Opposite the micropylar end, is the _______________ , representing the basal part of the ovule.
21. Enclosed within the integuments in a mass of cells is called the _______________ .
22. An ovule generally has a single embryo sac formed from a _______________ .
23. Ovules generally differentiate into a single megaspore mother cell in the _______________ region.
24. The method of embryo sac formation from a single megaspore is termed _______________ development.
25. The two nuclei in embryo sac called polar nuclei are situated below the egg apparatus in the large
_______________ .
26. Three cells are grouped together at the _______________ end and constitute egg apparatus.
27. The synergids have special cellular thickenings at the micropylar tip called _______________ apparatus.
28. Three cells are at the chalazal end and are called _______________ .
29. A typical angiosperm embryo sac at maturity, though _______________ nucleate is _______________
celled.
30. Some plants such as Viola, Oxalis and Commelina produce two types of flowers- _______________
flower which are similar to flowers of other species with exposed anther and stigma and _______________
flowers which do not open at all.
31. The _______________ flowers are invariably autogamous as there is no chance of cross-pollen landing
on stigma.
32. _______________ is transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of another flower of the same
plant.
33. Pollination by water is quite rare in flowering plants and is limited to about 30 genera, mostly
_______________ .
34. In _______________ , the female flower reach the surface of water by the long stalk and the male
flowers or pollen grains are released onto the surface of water.
35. In most of the water-pollinated species, pollen grains are protected from wetting by _______________
covering.
36. To sustain animal visits, the flowers provide rewards to animal, _______________ and _______________
are the usual floral rewards.
37. In some species floral rewards are in providing safe places to lay eggs; an example for this is
tallest flower of _______________ .
38. Continued self-pollination result in _______________ .
39. If both male and female flowers are present on the same plant such as castor and maize, it prevents
_______________ , but not _______________ .
40. The _______________ has the ability to recognise the pollen, whether it is compatible or incompatible.
41. The pollen grain germinates on the stigma to produce a pollen tube through one of the _______________.
42. Pollen tube, after reaching the ovary enters the ovule through the _______________ and the enters
one of the _______________ through the filiform apparatus.
43. All the events- from pollen deposition on the stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule-are together referred
to as _______________ interaction.
44. If the female parent bears bisexual flowers, removal of anthers from the flower bud is necessary, before the
anther dehisces. It is done by using a pair of forceps. This step is referred to as _______________ .
45. After entering one of the _______________ , pollen tube releases two male gametes into the cytoplasm
of _______________ .
46. The male gamete fuses with two polar nuclei located in the central cell produce a triploid _______________.
47. The formation of PEN involves fusion of 3 haploid nuclei, which is termed _______________ .
48. The central cell after triple fusion becomes _______________ and develops into _______________ .
49. The coconut water from tender coconut is _______________ endosperm and the surrounding white ker-
nel is _______________ endosperm.
50. Embryo develops at the _______________ end of the embryo sac where zygote is situated.
51. The portion of embryonal axis above the level of cotyledons is the _______________ , which terminates
with the _______________ or shoot tip.
52. In the grass family, the cotyledon is called _______________ that is situated towards one side of the
embryonal axis.
53. Epicotyl has a shoot apex and a few leaf primordia enclosed in a hollow foliar structure the ______________.
54. In some seeds such as black pepper and beet, the residual persistent nucellus is _________________ .
55. As the seed mature, it becomes relatively dry and contain _______________ % moisture by mass.
56. The wall of the ovary develops into the wall of fruit called _______________ .
57. In a species like apple, cashew etc the _______________ contributes to fruit formation which are false
fruits.
58. The oldest viable seed is that of Lupinus arcticus excavated from _______________ .
59. A 2000 years old viable seed Phoenix dactylifera was discovered at King Herod’s palace near
_______________ .
60. _______________ is a form of asexual reproduction that mimics sexual reproduction.
Chapter 3
Human Reproduction
1. The male reproductive system is located in the _______________ region in human.
2. The testes are situated outside the male abdominal cavity within a pouch called _______________
which maintain the temperature of testes _______________ 0C lower than the normal body temperature
necessary for process called _______________ .
3. Each testes has about _______________ compartments called _______________ .Each compartment
contains _______________ highly coiled _______________ in which sperms are produced.
4. In testes, each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by two types of cells called _______________
and _______________ .
5. In testes, _______________ cells provide nutrition to the germ cells.
6. The region outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small blood vessels and
are known as _______________ .
7. The male sex accessory ducts include _______________ , _______________ , _______________ and
vas deferens.
8. The vasa efferentia leave the testis and open into _______________ located along the _______________
surface of each testis.
9. In male, the urethra originates from the urinary bladder and extends through the penis to its external
opening called _______________ .
10. The enlarged end of penis is called _______________ which is covered by a loose fold of skin called
_______________ .
11. The male accessory gland include paired _______________ , paired _______________ and a
_______________ gland.
12. The secretion of male accessory glands constitute seminal plasma which is rich in _______________,
_______________ and certain enzymes. The secretion of _______________ glands also helps in
the lubrication of penis.
13. In female, each ovary is about _______________ cm in length and is connected to _______________
and _______________ by ligaments.
14. In each ovary, ovarian stroma is divided into two zones _______________ and _______________ .
15. Each fallopian tube is about _______________ cm long. It has three parts, funnel-shaped
______________, wider part _______________ and last part _______________ .
16. The shape of the uterus is like _______________ .
17. The cavity of cervix is called _______________ , which along with _______________ forms birth canal.
18. The three layer of tissues in wall of uterus are _______________ , _______________ and
_______________.
19. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which is a cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin
and pubic hair.
20. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which are paired folds of tissue under the labia
majora.
21. _______________ is a part of female external genitalia which are fleshy folds of tissue, which extend
down from mons pubis and surround vaginal opening.
22. The opening of vagina is often covered partially by a membrane called _______________ .
23. _______________ is a tiny finger-like structure which lies at the upper junction of two labia minora above
urethral opening.
24. The glandular tissue of each breast is divided into _______________ mammary lobes containing clusters
of cells called _______________ which secrete milk and store in its cavities.
25. In mammary glands, mammary tubules of each mammary lobes join to form ______________which
further joins to form wider mammary ampulla which is connected to_______________ through w h i c h
milk is sucked out.
26. The process of spermatogenesis begins at _______________ due to significant increase in
_______________ hormone.
27. The spermatogonia is a _______________ cell containing _______________ chromosome.
28. During spermatogenesis, the secondary spermatocytes undergo the second meiotic division to produce
four equal haploid _______________ which are transformed into spermatozoa by the process, called
_______________ .
29. The process in which sperms are finally released from seminiferous tubules is known as _______________.
30. In male, LH acts on _______________ and stimulate synthesis and secretion of _______________ ,
whereas FSH acts on _______________ and stimulate secretion of factors which help in process of
_______________ .
31. The sperm head contains an elongated _______________ nucleus, the anterior portion of which is
covered by a cap-like structure _______________ .
32. The human male ejaculates about _______________ million sperms during a coitus of which, for normal
fertility, at least _______% sperms must have normal shape and size and at least _______% of them
must show vigorous motility.

33. The seminal plasma along with the sperms constitute _______________ .
34. The process of formation of a mature female gamete is called _______________ .
35. Oogonia cells start division and gets temporarily arrested at _______________ stage of meiotic division
and are called _______________ .
36. At puberty, _______________ primary follicles are left in each ovary in female.
37. The primary follicles get surrounded by more layers of granulosa cells and a new theca and are called
_______________ .
38. During oogenesis, the tertiary follicle is characterized by a fluid filled cavity called _______________ .
39. During oogenesis, the secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called _______________ surrounding
it. After this, Graafian follicle ruptures to release secondary oocyte from ovary by the process called
_______________ .
40. The first menstruation begins at puberty and is called _______________ and it ceases around
_______________ years of age which is termed as _______________ .
41. During follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the _______________ follicles in the ovary grows to become
a fully mature _______________ follicle and simultaneously endometrium of uterus regenerates through
proliferation.
42. During follicular phase of menstrual cycle, the secretion of gonadotropins increases gradually and
stimulates follicular development as well as secretion of _______________ by growing follicles.Both LH
and FSH attain a peak in the _______________ of cycle at about _______________ day in 28 day
cycle.
43. In the middle of menstrual cycle, _______________ induces rupture of graafian follicle and thereby the
release of ovum, a process called _______________ .
44. _______________ secretes large amount of progesterone which is essential for maintaince of
endometrium.
45. The normal reproductive phase in female extends between _______________ and _______________ .
46. The process of release of sperm by penis into the vagina is called _______________ .
47. In _______________ region of fallopian tube, fertilization takes place.
48. During fertilization, a sperm comes in contact with the _______________ layer of ovum and induces
changes in it and block the entry of additional sperms.
49. The zygote carrying _______________ sex chromosomes would develop into a female baby and
_______________ would form a male.
50. The 1st mitotic division of zygote is called _______________ and starts as zygote moves towards uterus
and forms 2, 4, 8, 16, daughter cells called _______________ .
51. The embryo with 8 to 16 blastomeres is called _______________ which continue to divide and transforms
into _______________ .
52. The blastomeres in the blastocyst are arranged into an outer layer called _______________ and an
inner group of cells attached to it called _______________ .
53. _______________ is the process in which blastocyst become embedded in endometrium of the uterus
and leads to pregnancy.
54. After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called _______________ which are
surrounded by the uterine tissue and maternal blood.
55. _______________ facilitates the supply of oxygen and nutrients and removal of CO2 and excretory
material produced by embryo. It is connected through _______________ to the embryo.
56. Placenta acts as endocrine tissue as it produces hormones like _______________ , hPL,
_______________, progestogens, etc.
57. In later phase of pregnancy, a hormone called _______________ is also secreted by ovary.
58. After implantation, the inner cell mass differentiates into an outer layer _______________ , inner layer
_______________ and middle layer _______________ .
59. The inner cell mass contains certain cells called _______________ cells which have the potency to give
rise to all the tissues and organs.
60. By the end of _______________ month, foetus develops limbs and digit and by end of _______________
trimester, most of major organ systems are formed.
61. The first movement of the foetus and the appearance of hair on the head are usually observed during
_______________ month of pregnancy.
62. The average duration of human pregnancy is about _______________ months which is called
_______________ period.
63. Parturition is induced by a complex _______________ mechanism. The signals for parturition originate
from _________________ and __________________ which induces mild uterine contraction called
_______________ reflex.
64. _______________ hormone acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contraction.
65. The milk produced during the initial few days of lactation is called _______________ which contains
Chapter 4
several antibodies.
Reproductive Health
1. The programmes at a national level to attain total reproductive health as a social goal are called
_______________ and were initiated in India in _______________ .
2. _______________ is a new oral contraceptive for the females once a week pill developed by scientist at
_______________ in Lucknow, India.
3. The population of India was approximately _______________ million during time of independence and
crossed 1 billion in _______________ . It means every _______ person in the world is an Indian.
4. According to the 2001 census report, the population growth rate in India was around _________% .
5. The marriageable age of the female is ______ years and that of males is ______ years in India.
6. _______________ is the natural method of contraceptive in which couples avoid coitus from day _____
to _____ of the menstrual cycle when ovulation could be expected.
7. _______________ method of contraceptive is based on the fact that ovulation and therefore the menstrual
cycle do not occur during the period of intense lactation following parturition.
8. Condoms are barriers made of _______________ that are used to cover penis in male or vagina and
cervix in female. _______________ is a popular brand of condom for male.
9. _______________ , _______________ and _______________ are the physical barriers of contraceptive
made up of rubber that are used by female.
10. The method of contraceptive which uses Lippes loop are included under _______________ IUDs; Multiload
375 under _______________ IUDs and LNG-20 under _______________ IUDs.
11. IUDs increase _______________ of sperms within uterus and Cu ions released suppress
_______________ and fertilizing capacity of sperm.
12. _______________ are ideal contraceptives for female who want to delay pregnancy and/or space children
and is one of most widely accepted method of contraception in India.
13. Oral administration of small doses of either progestogens or _______________ combination is one of
the contraceptive method used by female.

14. The pills have to be taken daily for a period of _______________ days by female, starting preferably
within _______________ days of menstrual cycle.
15. _______________ inhibits ovulation and implantation as well as alter the quality of cervical mucus to
prevent/retard entry of sperms.
16. _______________ is the new oral contraceptive for the females containing a non-steroidal preparation
and it has to be taken _______________ in a week.
17. Administration of progestogens or progestogen-estrogen combination or IUDs within _______________
hours of coitus acts as emergency contraceptives.
18. Sterilization procedure in male is called _______________ and in female it is callled ______________ .
19. Intentional or voluntary termination of pregnancy before full term is called _______________ or induced
abortion.
20. Nearly _______________ million MTPs are performed in a year all over world which accounts to
_______________ of total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
21. Government of India legalised MTP in _______________ with some strict conditions to avoid its misuse.
22. MTPs are considered relatively safe during the _______________ trimester i.e. upto _______________
weeks of pregnancy.
23. Sexually transmitted diseases(STDs) are also called _______________ or _______________ .
24. _______________ techniques assist infertile couple to have children .
25. In-vitro fertilization followed by embryo transfer are commonly known as _______________ .
26. After IVF, the embryo upto 8 blastomeres is transfered into _______________ and technique is known
as _______________ .
27. After IVF, the embryo more than 8 blastomeres is transfered into _______________ and technique is
known as _______________ .
28. The ART _______________ is used for female who cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable
environment for fertilization and development.
29. _______________ is a specialised procedure to form an embryo in the laboratory in which a sperm is
directly injected into the ovum.
30. In _______________ technique the semen collected either from husband or a healthy donor is artifi
cially introduced into vagina. When semen is artificially introduced into uterus of female it is called
Chapter 5
_______________ .
Principles of Inheritance and Variation

1. _______________ is the process by which characters are passed on from parents to progeny.
2. _______________ conducted hybridisation experiment on garden peas for seven years and proposed
the laws of inheritance in living organisms.
3. The first hybrid generation is also called _______________ progeny or F1.
4. In a monohybrid cross, the phenotypic and genotypic ratio in F2 generation is _______________ and
_______________ respectively.
5. According to Mendel, characters are controlled by discrete units called _______________ and now we
call them _______________ .
6. Genes which code for a pair of contrasting traits are known as _______________ .
7. For a character like height, TT and tt are called _______________ of organism while descriptive terms
tall and dwarf are _______________ .
8. Both the alleles can be similar in case of _______________ (eg. TT or tt) or can be dissimilar as in the
case of _______________ (eg. Tt) for a particular trait (eg. height).
9. During the process of meiosis, the segregation of alleles is a random process and so there is a
_______________ % chance of a gamete containing either allele.
10. The symbols _______________ and _______________ are used to denote female (egg) and male (pol-
len) respectively.
11. For a trait height, the genotype of Tt has the phenotypic character _______________ .
12. When an organism showing a dominant phenotype is crossed with the recessive parent instead of self-
crossing, then the cross is called _______________ .
13. If the result of test cross shows half of the progeny with dominant trait and half recessive trait, then the
unknown genotype of parent is interpreted to be _______________ .
14. In _______________ , the F1 had a phenotype that did not resemble either of the two parents and is
between the two.
15. In incomplete dominance, the phenotypic ratio is _______________ and the genotypic ratio is
_______________ .
16. The study on plant Antirrhinum sp. is good example of _______________ dominance and that on ABO
blood group in human being is an example of _______________ dominance.
17. In case of _______________ , F1 generation resembles both parents.
18. The phenotypic ratio of dihybrid cross is _______________ .
19. In 1900, three scientist _______________ , _______________ and Von Tschermak independently
discovered Mendel’s result on the inheritance of character.
20. _______________ united the knowledge of chromosomal segregation with Mendelian principle and called
it the chromosomal theory of inheritance.
21. Morgan coined the term _______________ to describe physical association of genes on a chromosome
and the term _______________ to describe the generation of non-parental gene combination.
22. The chromosomes involved in the determination of sex is designated as _______________ and the rest
of chromosomes is called _______________ .
23. Grasshopper is an example of _______________ type of sex determination in which males have only
X-chromosome besides autosomes, whereas female have a pair of X-chromosome.
24. In mammals including man, _______________ type of sex determination is seen where both male and
female have same number of chromosome.
25. The XO and XY sex determination mechanism are designated to be example of _______________
heterogamety whereas ZW sex determination mechanism are designated to be example of
_______________ heterogamety.
26. In birds the female have _______________ chromosome whereas males have _______________
chromosome besides autosomes.
27. The mutation arising due to change in a single base pair of DNA is known as _______________ mutation.
28. The chemical and physical factors that induce mutation are reffered to as _______________ .
29. An analysis of traits in a several generation of a family is called _______________ analysis.
30. In pedigree analysis the symbol represents _______________ and the symbol
represents _______________ .
31. Sickle-cell anaemia and phenylketonuria are example of _______________ trait.
32. Myotonic dystrophy is example of _______________ trait.
33. Haemophilia is _______________ disease in which heterozygous female may transmit the diseases to
_______________ .
34. Sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the substitution of _______________ by _______________ at 6th
position of the _______________ globin chain of Haemoglobin.
35. In phenylketonuria, the individual lacks an enzyme that converts the amino acid phenylamine into
_______________ .
36. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in the gain or loss of a chromosome
called _______________ .
37. In _______________ , there is an increase in a whole set of chromosome in an organism.
38. Down’s syndrome is genetic disorder because of presence of an additional copy of chromosome number
_______________ .
39. In _______________ syndrome, there is an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting into a karyotype
of 47, XXY.
40. In _______________ syndrome, there is an absence of one of the X-chromosome, i.e. 45 with XO.
41. The traits that are generally controlled by 3 or more genes are called _______________ traits.
42. When single gene exhibit multiple phenotypic expression, it is called _______________ gene.
43. In honey bee, females are _______________ having _______________ chromosome and males are
_______________ having 16 chromosome. This is called _______________ sex-determination system.
44. Colour blindness is _______________-linked _______________ disorder. This defect is due to mutation
in certain genes present in _______________ chromosome.
45. Thalassemia is _______________-linked _______________ disease. It is controlled by two closely
linked genes _______________ and _______________ on chromosome _______________ of each parent.
Chapter 6
Molecular Basis of Inheritance
1. A bacteriophage 174 has 5386 nucleotides, bacteriophage lambda has _______________ bp,
Escherichia coli has _______________ bp and haploid content of human DNA is _______________ bp.
2. _______________ nitrogenous base is present in RNA at the place of _______________ .
3. A nitrogenous base is linked to the pentose sugar through a _______________ linkage to form a
_______________ .
4. In nucleotide, a phosphate group is linked to 5’-OH of a nucleotide through _______________ linkage.
5. The backbone of polynucleotide chain is formed due to _______________ and _______________ .
6. 5-methyl uracil is another chemical name for _______________ .
7. _______________ and _______________ proposed Double Helix model for the structure of DNA based
on the _______________ data produced by Wilkins and Franklin.
8. Adenine forms _______________ hydrogen bonds with Thymine and Guanine forms _______________
hydrogen bonds with cytosine.
9. The two chains of DNA are coiled in a _______________ handed fashion. The pitch of helix is
_______________nm and there are roughly _______________ bp in each turn.
10. Francis Crick proposed the central dogma, which states that genetic information flows from
DNA  _______________  _______________ .
11. In prokaryotes, DNA being _______________ charged is held with some protein that have
_______________ charges in a region termed as _______________ .
12. In eukaryotes, DNA is held with set of positively charged, basic proteins called _______________ .They
are organised to form a unit of eight molecules called _______________ .
13. The DNA is wrapped around histome octamer to form structure called _______________ . It contains
_______________ bp of DNA helix.
14. Nucleosomes constitute the repeating unit of a structure in nucleus called _______________ . They are
seen as _______________ structure when viewed under electron microscope.
15. The chromatin fibres, coiled and condensed at _______________ stage of cell division to form
chromosome. The packaging of chromatin at higher level requires proteins called _______________
proteins.
16. In nucleus, region of chromatin that are loosely packed and stains light are reffered as _______________
and chromatin that is densely packed and stains dark are called _______________.
17. _______________ chromatin is transcriptionally active and _______________ chromatin is inactive.
18. In Griffith’s experiment, _______________ bacteria was used. S-stain of bacteria produces smooth
colonies because it has _______________ coat that was absent in R-stain.
19. In Griffith’s experiment, mice infected with _______________ strain die from pneumonia infection.
20. _______________ and _______________ worked together to discover the nature of transforming principle.
They grew virus on medium containing radioactive _______________ and some on medium containing
radioactive _______________ .
21. In Hershey-Chase experiment, the sequence of stages was infection, blending and centrifugation. At the
end radioactive _______________ was detected in supernatant and radioactive _______________ was
detected in cell.
22. _______________ group present at every nucleotide in RNA is a reactive group and makes RNA liable
and easily degradable.
23. _______________ nucleic acid is preferred for storage of genetic information and _______________
nucleic acid for transmission.
24. _______________ nucleic acid was the 1st genetic material.
25. The replication of DNA is _______________ as each DNA molecule have one parental and one newly
synthesized strand.
26. In 1958, _______________ and _______________ had prove that DNA replicates semiconservatively.
27. In Meselson and Stahl’s experiments, the heavy DNA molecule was distinguished from normal DNA by
centrifugation in _______________ density gradient.
28. The main enzyme for replication of DNA is _______________-dependent _______________ polymerase.
29. In E.coli, the average rate of polymerisation is _______________ bp per second.
30. The replication of DNA occur within a small opening of DNA helix, referred to as _______________ . The
polymerisation occur in one direction that is _______________
31. The DNA replication in the template with 5'  3' polarity is discontinuous and the discontinously
synthesized fragment are joined by enzyme _______________ .
32. The process of copying genetic information from one strand of the DNA into RNA is termed as
_______________ .
33. A transcription unit in DNA is defined primarily by three regions in DNA : _______________ , structural
gene and _______________ .
34. During transcription, the DNA strand having polarity _______________ is reffered to as template strand.
35. _______________ strand of DNA is used as reference point while defining transcription and its polarity
is _______________ .
36. _______________ is a DNA sequence that provides binding site for RNA polymerase and is located
_______________ stream of structural gene.
37. _______________ is a DNA sequence that defines the end of the process of transcription and is located
_______________ stream of coding strand.
38. In eukaryotes, the coding sequence are called _______________ that appears in mature RNA. They are
interrupted by _______________ .
39. In bacteria, during transpiration _______________ facilitates opening of the helix and continues elongation.
40. RNA polymerase is associated transiently with ‘  ’ which is called _______________ factor and with
‘  ’ which is called _______________ factor..
41. In eukaryotes, RNA polymerase _______________ transcribes rRNAs ; RNA polymerase ______________
transcribes tRNA, 5srRNA and snRNAs ; and RNA polymerase _______________ transcribes mRNA.
42. _______________ is the process where introns are removed and exons are joined in a defined order.
43. In capping an unusual nucleotide _______________ is added to the _______________ end of hnRNA
and in tailing, _______________ residues are added at _______________ end in template independent
manner.
44. _______________ , a physicist, suggested that in order, to code for all the 20 amino acid, the code is
should be made up of 3 nucleotide.
45. The codon for amino acid is _______________ . The number of codons that code for amino acid is
_______________ and _______________ codons code for stop codons.
46. One codon codes only for one amino acid, hence it is _______________ and specific. Some amino
acids are coded by more than one codon, hence the code is _______________ .
47. _______________ code has dual function i.e. codes for Methionine and also acts as initiator codon.
48. Insertion or deletion of one or two bases in a gene changes the reading frame. Such mutation are
referred to as _______________ insertion.
49. _______________ RNA acts as an adapter molecule.
50. There are _______________ tRNA for stop codons.
51. The secondary structure of tRNA looks like a _______________ but in actual structure the tRNA is a
compact molecule which looks like _______________ .
52. The process of charging of tRNA is also called _______________ of tRNA.
53. The cellular factory responsible for synthesizing proteins is _______________ . It consists of structural
RNAs and about _______________ different proteins.
54. 23S rRNA in bacteria is the enzyme called _______________ .
55. Some additional sequence in mRNA that are not translated are referred as _______________ .
56. For initiation of translation, the ribosome binds to the mRNA at the start codon that is recognised only
by the _______________ .
57. At the end of translation, _______________ binds to stop codon, terminating translation and releasing
the complete polypeptide from the ribosome.
58. The accessibility of promoter region of prokaryotic DNA is regulated by the interaction of proteins with
DNA sequence termed _______________ .
59. In bacteria, the arrangement of DNA sequence in which polycistronic structural gene is regulated by a
common promoter and regulatory genes is called _______________ .
60. The lac operon consists of one regulatory gene - i gene, where ‘i’ refer to _______________ .
61. In lac operon, ‘z’ gene codes for _______________ , ‘y’ gene codes for _______________ and ‘a’ gene
codes for _______________ .
62. Regulation of lac operon by repressor is referred to as _______________ regulation.
63. Human Genome Project was launched in year _______________ and completed in year ______________.
64. The genes that are expressed as RNA is referred to as _______________ .
65. Assigning different regions in the DNA sequence with function is called _______________ .
66. In Human Genome Project, the fragments were sequenced using automated DNA sequences that work
on the principle of a method developed by _______________ .
67. In human genome, less than _______________ % of genome codes for proteins. The chromosome
_______________ has most genes (2968) and chromosome _______________ has the fewest (231).
68. DNA fingerprinting involves identifying differences in some specific regions in DNA sequence called as
_______________ .
69. If an inheritable mutation is observed in a population at high frequency, it is referred to as _______________.
70. The technique of DNA fingerprinting was initially developed by _______________ . In this, a satellite
DNA used as probe shows very high degree of polymorphism refer to as _______________. Its size
varies from _______________ to _______________ kb.
Chapter 7
Evolution
1. Stellar distances are measured in _______________ .
2. The universe is _______________ billion years old.
3. _______________ theory explain origin of universe.
4. The earth was supposed to have been formed about _______________ billion years back.
5. Life on earth appeared about _______________ billion years back.
6. According to _______________ theory, life came out of decaying and rotting matter.
7. _______________ demonstrated that life comes only from pre-existing life.
8. _______________ of Russia and _______________ of England proposed that formation of life was preceded
by chemical evolution.
9. Miller in his experiment observed the formation of _______________ .
10. According to _______________ theory, earth is about 4000 years old.
11. In Miller’s experiment _______________ were used as energy source and temperature inside spark
chamber was ______0C.
12. _______________ gave the idea of natural selection based on his observations made during a sea
voyage in a sail ship called _______________ .
13. According to Darwin, fitness of individual or population ultimately refers to _______________ fitness.
14. Alfred Wallace who worked in _______________ had also come to similar conclusion as drawn by
Darwin.
15. _______________ evidence show that different-aged rock sediment contain fossils of different life form.
16. One of the main method of determining the age of the fossils is _______________ .
17. Homology is based on _______________ evolution.
18. _______________ structures indicates common ancestry.

19. The pattern of bones of forelimbs of whales, bats , cheetah and human have the same structure developed
along different direction due to adaptations to different needs. This is _______________ evolution.
20. Wings of butterfly and birds show _______________ evolution whereas eye of octopus and of mammals
show _______________ evolution.
21. In 1920, i.e. post industrialization period population of _______________ winged moth increases because
the predators can easily spot a moth against a contrasting background.
22. _______________ does not grow in polluted area, so can be used as industrial pollution indicator.
23. During his journey Darwin visited _______________ islands and observed amazing diversity of creatures.
24. The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a point and
literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called _______________ .
25. When more than one adaptive radiation appeared to have occured in an isolated geographical area, it
can be called as _______________ evolution.
26. _______________ evolution is shown by Bobcat, a placental mammal and _______________ , an
australian marpusial.
27. _______________ and _______________ are two key concepts of Darwinian Theory of Evolution.
28. _______________ gave the concept that evolution is driven by use and disuse of organ by taking example
of Giraffe.
29. The work of _______________ on population had influenced Darwin.
30. The work of _______________ was based on evening primrose and gave idea of mutation.
31. Single step large mutation is called _______________ which caused speciation.
32. _______________ principle states the concept that frequency of occurence of alleles of a gene in a
population remains constant from generation to generation .
33. The total genes and their alleles in a population constitute _______________ .
34. According to Hardy-Weinberg principle, sum total of all the allelic frequencies is _______________ .
35. If in a diploid organism, p and q represent the frequency of allele A and a, then probability that allele ‘A’
will appear on one chromosome and allele ‘a’ on another chromosome is _______________ .
36. The five factors that affect Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium are gene migration, genetic drift, _______________,
_______________ and _______________ .
37. When original drifted population becomes founders by any chance event, then effect is called
_______________ .
38. When natural selection causes more individuals to acquire value other than mean character value it is
called _______________ and when it causes more individuals to acquire peripheral character value at
both ends of the distribution curve, it is called _______________ .
39. Jawless fish probably evolved around _______________ mya.
40. The first organisms to invade land were _______________ .
41. The sequence of periods in geological time sequence :
Silurian  Devonian  Carboniferous  _______________ 
Triassic  _______________  Cretaceous  _______________  Quaternary
42. Around 200 mya, some of land reptiles e.g. _______________ went back into water to evolve into fish
like reptiles.
43. The biggest dinosaur was _______________ which was about 20 feet in height and had huge fearsome
dagger like teeth.
44. Due to _______________ pouched mammals of Australia survived because of lack of competition from
any other mammals.
45. About 15 mya, primates called _______________ (which was more ape-like) and _______________
(which was more man-like) were existing.
46. Around 2 mya, primates called _______________ lived in East African grasslands, ate fruit and hunted
with stone weapon.
47. The first human-like being the hominid was called _______________ , whose brain capacity was
_______________ cc.
48. The _______________ with brain size of 1400cc lived in near East and Central Asia between
1,00,000 - 40,000 years back. They used hides to protect their body and buried their dead.
49. Homo sapiens arose in _______________ and moved across continents and developed into distinct
races.
50. Agriculture came around _______________ years back and human settlements started.
Chapter 8
Human Health & Disease
1. _______________ discovered blood circulation and disproved _______________ hypothesis of health.
2. _______________ is defined as a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being.
3. Disease causing organisms are called _______________ .
4. _______________ bacterium causes typhoid fever in humans.
5. Sustained high fever, weakness, stomach pain, constipation, headache and loss of appetite are common
symptom of _______________ disease.
6. Typhoid fever is confirmed by _______________ test.
7. A classical case in medicine in spread of typhoid by a female named _______________ nicknamed
Typhoid Mary has been reported.
8. Bacteria like _______________ and _______________ are responsible for the disease pneumonia in
humans infects _______________ .
9. Rhino viruses cause most common infectious human ailments _______________ , which usually last
for _______________ days.
10. Different species of Plasmodium : _______________ , _______________ and _______________ are
responsible for causing malaria. Malignant malaria is caused by _______________ .
11. Plasmodium enters human body as _______________ through bite of infected female _______________
mosquito.
12. During malaria, the rupture of RBCs is associated with release of toxic subastance ______________.
13. In malaria the Plasmodium parasite reproduces asexually in _______________ and forms gametocytes
(sexual stage) in _______________ in humans.
14. Entamoeba histolytica is a protozoan parasite in large intestine of human which causes _______________
and _______________ act as mechanical carriers for spread of this disease.
15. _______________ and _______________ causes elephantiasis or filariasis.
16. Many fungi belong to genera _______________ , _______________ and _______________ are responsible
for ringworms. _______________ and _______________ conditions help these fungi to grow in groin or
between toes.
17. Fishes like _______________ feed on the mosquito larvae in ponds.

18. The overall ability of host to fight the disease is called _______________ .
19. In cellular barriers of innate immunity, certain types of WBC of our body like _______________ and
_______________ and _______________ in body as well as macrophages in tissue can
phagocytose and destroy microbe.
20. The response produce by body when it encounter pathogen for the first time is called _______________.
21. The secondary response due to encounter with same pathogen is called _______________ .
22. Two types of lymphocyte present in our body are _______________ and _______________ lymphocyte.
23. _______________ lymphocyte produces army of protein in response to pathogen called _______________.
24. Each antibody molecule has _______________ peptide chains.
25. Antibody molecule has _______________ light chains and _______________ heavy chains and hence
antibody is represented as _______________ .
26. The immune response mediated byB-lymphocyte is called _______________ and by T-lymphocyte is
called _______________ .
27. The _______________ immune response is responsible for graft rejection.
28. When immunity develops in host due to exposure to antigen, it is called _______________ and when
immunity develops due to administration of ready-made antibodies, it is called _______________ .
29. The yellowish fluid _______________ secreted by mother during initial days of lactation has abundant
antibodies _______________ to protect infant.
30. The principle of vaccination is based on the property of _______________ of immune system.
31. Using recombinant DNA technology, hepatitis B vaccine is produced from _______________ .
32. The exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens called _______________ in the
environment is known as _______________ . The antibody produced in such response are
_______________ type.
33. Allergy is due to release of chemicals like _______________ and _______________ from the mast
cells.
34. The use of drug like anti-histamine, _______________ and _______________ quickly reduces symptoms
of allergy.
35. Memory based acquired immunity is evolved in _______________ .
36. Rheumatoid arthritis is an example of _______________ immune response.
37. The primary lymphoid organs in our body are _______________ and _______________ .
38. After maturation, the lymphocyte migrates to _______________ organs where interaction of lymphocyte
with antigen occur.
39. _______________ organ has a large reservoir of erthrocytes.
40. The lymphoid tissue located within the lining of major tracts in body is called _______________ and
constitute _______________ % of lymphoid tissue in human body.
41. AIDS stands for _______________ and it was first reported in _______________ (year).
42. AIDS is caused by HIV, a member of a group of viruses called _______________ that has
_______________ genome.
43. The incubation period for AIDS is _______________ years.
44. Once HIV gets inside body, virus enters _______________ where RNA genome replicates to form viral
DNA with help of enzyme _______________ .
45. _______________ in our body act as HIV factory.
46. HIV attacks _______________ lymphocyte.
47. A widely used diagnostic test for AIDS is _______________ .
48. NACO stands for _______________ .

49. Normal cell shows a property of _______________ by virtue of which contact with other cells inhibit
their uncontrolled growth.
50. _______________ tumors normally remain confined to original location and causes little damage.
51. Malignant tumors are mass of proliferating cells called _______________ or tumor cells.
52. The _______________ is property of malignant tumors by which it reach different sites of the body.
53. Cancer causing agents are called _______________ and cancer causing viruses are called
_______________ which have genes called _______________ .
54. _______________ or _______________ genes present in normal cells when activated under certain
conditions lead to oncogenic transformation of cells.
55. In treatment of cancer, patients are given substances called biological response modifier such as
_______________ which activates their immune system & helps in destroying tumor.
56. Heroin commonly called _______________ is chemically _______________ which is obtained from
morphine by _______________ reaction and is extracted from latex of poppy plant _______________
(Scientific name).
57. Cannabinoids are obtained from the infloroscence of the plant _______________. They are known for
their effects on _______________ system of body.
58. Cocaine is obtanied from coca plant _______________ native to _______________ . It interferes with
transport of neuro-transmitter _______________ .
59. Morphine is very effective _______________ and _______________ and is very useful in patients who
have undergone surgery.
60. _______________ is a chemical substance in tobacco that stimulates adrenal gland to release adrenaline
and nor-adrenaline into blood.
61. Adolescence means both _______________ and _______________ during which a child becomes mature.
The period between _______________ and _______________ years of age is adolescence period.
62. Dependence is the tendency of the body to manifest a characteristic and unpleasant _______________
syndrome.
63. Excessive doses of drugs may lead to coma and death due to respiratory failure, heart failure or
_______________ .
64. The chronic use of drugs and alcohol damages nervous system and _______________ .
65. The damage to liver due to excessive use of drugs and alcohol is called _______________ .
Chapter 9
Strategies for Enchancement in Food
Production
1. _______________ is the agricultural practice of breeding and raising livestock.
2. It is estimated than more than _______% of the world livestock population is in India and China.
3. Milk yield is primarily dependent upon the _______________ in the farm.
4. _______________ is the class of the domesticated fowl used for food or for their eggs.
5. When breeding is between animals of the same breed it is called _______________ , while cross
between different breeds is called _______________ .
6. _______________ breeding increases homozygosity.
7. _______________ breeding exposes harmful recessive genes that are eliminated by selection.
8. _______________ is caused due to continued inbreeding that reduces fertility and even productivity.
9. Outbreeding may be breeding between individual of same breed but having no common ancestors for
_______________ generation.
10. _______________ is the practice of mating the animals within the same breed, but having no common
ancestors for 4-6 generation on either side of their pedigree .
11. In _______________ method,superior males of one breed are mated with superior females of another
breed.
12. _______________ is a new breed of sheep developed in Punjab by crossing Bikaneri ewes and Marino
rams.
13. Controlled breeding experiments are carried out using _______________ .
14. The fertilized eggs at _______________ cell stages are recovered non-surgically and transferred to
surrogate mothers in MOET.
15. Keeping beehives in crop fields during flowering period increases _______________ efficiency and
improves yield.
16. _______________ revolution is for increasing productivity in fishes.
17. The recorded evidence of plant breeding dates back to _______________ years ago.
18. _______________ variability is the root of any breeding programme.
19. The entire collection of plants/seeds having all the diverse alleles for all genes in a given crop is called
_______________ .
20. Agricultural accounts for approximately ______% of India’s GDP and employs nearly ______% of the
populations.
21. During the period 1960-2000, wheat production increased from 11 million tonnes to _______________
million tonnes while rice production went from ______________ million tonnes to 89.5 million tonnes.
22. Nornam. E. Borlaug, at International Centre for Wheat and Maize Improvement in _______________ ,
developed semi-dwarf wheat.
23. In 1963, several wheat varieties such as _______________ and _______________ , which were high
yielding and disease resistant were introduced all over wheat growing belt of India.
24. Semi-dwarf rice varieties were derived from _______________ and _______________ .
25. Better-yielding semidwarf varieties of rice _______________ and _______________ were developed in
India.
26. Saccharum barberi was originally grown in _______________ India, but had poor sugar content and yield.
27. Tropical canes grown in _______________ India Saccharum officinarum had thicker stems and higher
sugar content.
28. Brown rust of wheat, red rot of sugarcane, late blight of potato are caused by _______________ .
29. In mung bean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and powdery mildew were induced by _______________.
30. Resistance to yellow mosaic virus in Abelmoschus esculentus was transferred from wild species and
resulted in a new variety called _______________ .
31. Pusa komal is the variety of _______________ crop.
32. _______________ variety of wheat is resistant to leaf and stripe rust.
33. Brassica resistant to white rust is _______________ .
34. Hairy leaves in several plants are associated with resistant to insects pests, eg. resistance to
_______________ in cotton and _______________ in wheat.
35. High aspartic acid, low nitrogen and sugar content in maize leads to resistance to maize _______________.
36. Pusa sawani and pusa A-4 are variety of _______________ crop.
37. Brassica resistant to _______________ is Pusa Gaurav.
38. In 2000, maize hybrid developed have twice the amount of amino acid _______________ and
_______________ compare to existing maize hybrid.
39. Wheat variety, _______________ , having a high protein content has been used as donor for improving
cultivated wheat.
40. The shift from grain to meat diets also creates more demands for cereals as it takes _____kg of grain to
produce 1kg of meat by animal farming.
41. More than ________% of human population is suffering from hunger and malnutrition.
42. The capacity to generate a whole plant from any cell/plant is called _______________ .
43. The methods of producing thousands of plants through tissue culture is called _______________ .
44. _______________ part of plant is free of virus even if plant is infected with virus.
45. Somatic hybridisation of potato and tomato results in formation of _______________ .
Chapter 10
Microbes in Human Welfare
1. Microorganism such as ___________ and others commonly called ___________ grow in milk and convert
it to curd.
2. In the dough used for making dosa and idli, the puffed-up appearance of it is due to the production of
___________
3. The dough used for making bread is fermented using ___________
4. The scientific name of Baker’s yeast is ___________
5. ___________ is a traditional drink in some parts of southern India that is made by fermenting sap from
palms.
6. The large holes in ‘Swiss cheese’ are due to production of large amount of ___________ by a bacterium
named ___________
7. The ‘Rouefort cheese’ is ripened by growing specific ___________ on them which gives them a particular
flavor.
8. The alcoholic drink ___________ and beer are produced without distillation whereas ___________,
___________ and rum are produced by distillation of fermented broth.
9. ___________ was the first antibiotic to be discovered by ___________.
10. Alexander Fleming while working on ___________ observed that the mould named ___________
growing in unwashed plate produced penicillin because of which bacteria was not able to grow around
mould.
11. Fill the correct acid producer of respective acid: citric acid by ___________ , acetic acid by ___________,
butyric acid by ___________ , and lactic acid by ___________ .
12. ___________ enzymes are used in detergent formulations and are helpful in removing oily stains from
the laundry.
13. Streptokinase is produced by bacterium ___________.
14. Cyclosporin A is used as immunosuppressive agent in organ transplant patients is produced by fungus
___________.
15. ___________ produced by the yeast ___________ have been commercialized as blood-cholesterol
lowering agents.
16. In primary treatment of waste water, all the solids that settle form the ___________, and the supernatant
forms effluent.
17. Secondary treatment of waste water is also known as ___________.

18. The masses of bacteria associated with fungal filaments to form mesh like structures in secondary
treatment of waste water is called ___________.
19. ___________is the measure of organic matter present in water. The more it is, ___________is its polluting
potential of waste water.
20. In biological treatment of waste water, a small part of ___________is pumped back into aeration tank to
serve as inoculum and remaining part is pumped into larger tanks called ___________.
21. During the digestion in anaerobic sludge digester, bacteria produce a mixture of gases such as
___________, hydrogen sulphide and carbon dioxide. These gases forms ___________.
22. The Ministry of Environment and Forests has initiated ___________and ___________to save the major
rivers of our country from pollution.
23. The technology of biogas production was developed in India mainly due to efforts of ___________and
Khadi and ___________.
24. The microbial biocontrol agents used to control butterfly caterpillars is the bacteria ___________. When
insect eats spore of this bacterium, the toxin is released in ___________of larvae and larva is killed.
25. ___________are pathogens that attack insects and other arthropods. The majority of them used as
biological control agents are in the genus ___________.
26. In paddy fields, ___________serve as an important biofertilizer.
27. The nodules on the roots of leguminous plants are formed by the symbiotic association of ___________.
28. Microbes can also be used to kill harmful pests, a process called as ___________.
29. The symbiotic association form between some fungi and plants are called ___________.
30. Many members of the genus ___________form mycorrhiza.
Chapter 11
Biotechnology : Principles & Processes
1. _______________ deals with techniques of using live organisms or enzymes from organisms to produce
products and processes useful to humans.
2. _______________ has given a definition of biotechnology that encompasses both traditional view and
modern molecular biotechnology.
3. The techniques of genetic engineering include creation of _______________ DNA molecule, by use of
gene cloning and gene transfer.
4. Making multiple identical copies of any template DNA is called _______________ .
5. The autonomously replicating circular extra-chromosomal DNA in bacteria is _______________ .
6. The first recombinant DNA was made by linking gene encoding antibiotic resistance with native plasmid
of _______________ .
7. _______________ and _______________ made first recombinant DNA molecule in _______________ .
8. Molecular scissors in rDNA technology are the enzyme _______________ .
9. _______________ enzyme acts on cut DNA molecules and join their ends.
10. The two enzymes responsible for restricting the growth of bactriophage in E.coli are _______________
and _______________ .
11. The first restriction endonuclease was _______________ .
12. Today more than _______________ restriction enzymes that has been isolated from over
_______________ strains of bacteria.
13. Restriction enzyme belongs to larger class of enzymes called _______________ . These are of two
kind; _______________ and _______________ .
14. _______________ enzymes remove nucleotide from ends of DNA whereas _______________ make cut
at specific points within DNA.
15. Restriction endonuclease cut each of two DNA strands of double helix at specific points in their
_______________ .
16. Each restriction enzyme recognises specific _______________ sequence in DNA.
17. When restriction enzymes cut the strand of DNA away from centre of palindrome sites, it produces
overhanging stretches known as _______________ .
18. The DNA fragments can be separated by technique known as _______________ based on
_______________ .
19. DNA fragments being _______________ charged move towards _______________ under electric field
through matrix in gel electrophoresis.
20. The most common used matrix in gel electrophoresis is _______________ , which is natural polymer
extracted from _______________ .
21. The separated DNA fragments in gel electrophoresis can be visualed after staining the DNA with compound
_______________ followed by exposure to _______________ . It is seen as _______________ coloured
band.
22. The process wherein the separated bands of DNA in gel electrophoresis are cut out from agarose gel and
extracted from the gel piece is called _______________ .
23. _______________ is a sequence from where replication starts and any piece of DNA when linked to this
sequence can be made to replicate within the host cell.
24. _______________ is a procedure through which a piece of DNA is introduced in a host bacterium.
25. When pBR322 vector is used for transforming recombinant DNA molecule using Bam HI as restriction
enzyme, then recombinant cell will grow on _______________ antibiotic containing medium, but not on
medium containing _______________ .
26. When a recombinant DNA is inserted within the coding sequence of an enzyme , it
β - galactosidase
results into inactivation of enzyme, which is referred to as ______________ .
27. In insertional inactivation of coding sequence of , the presence of chromogenic
β - galactosidase
substrate gives ______________ coloured colonies if the plasmid in bacteria does not have an insert.
28. ______________ , a pathogen of several dicot plants is able to deliver a piece of DNA called
______________ to transform normal plant cells into a ______________ .
29. Since DNA is ______________ molecule, it cannot pass through cell membranes.
30. Bacterial cells can be made to take recombinant DNA by incubating it with DNA on ice, followed by
______________ at _____0C and then again putting them on ice.
31. In ______________ method, recombinant DNA is directly injected into the nucleus of an animal cell.
32. In biolistics method, the cells are bombarded with high velocity micro-particles of ______________ or
______________ coated with DNA.
33. ______________ can be used to break bacterial cell; ______________ to break plant cell and
______________ to break fungal cell.
34. PCR stands for ______________ .
35. Primers used in PCR are small chemically synthesized ______________ that are complementary to the
regions of DNA.
36. The thermostable DNA polymerase used in PCR is isolated from bacteria ______________ .
37. If any protein encoding gene is expressed in a heterologous host, it is called ______________ protein.
38. In a continuous culture system, the used medium is drained out from one side while fresh medium is
added from the other to maintain cells in ______________ phase.
39. ______________ are used for large volumes (100-1000 litres) of culture and provide optimal conditions
for achieving desired product.
40. The most commonly used bioreactors are ______________ .
41. The strirer in stirred-tank reactor facilitates even mixing and ______________ throughout the bioreactor.
42. In sparged stirred-tank reactor, sterile air bubbles increases area for ______________ .
43. The bioreactors have ______________ so that small volumes of the culture can be withdrawn periodically.
44. After the biosynthetic stage of fermentation, further process includes separation and purification, which
are collectively referred to as ______________ .
45. The palindromic sequence of EcoRI is ______________ .
Chapter 12
Biotechnology and its Application
1. ___________Revolution succeeded in tripling the food supply.
2. Organisms (plants, animal, bacteria) whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
___________.
3. Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium called ___________.
4. Some strains of Bacillus thuringiensis produce protein that kills certain insects such as lepidopterans,
___________and ___________.
5. Once Bt toxin is ingested by insect, the protoxins is converted into active form due to ___________pH
of gut and binds to ___________cells and create pores.
6. The Bt toxin is coded by a gene named ___________.
7. The Bt toxin protein encoded by genes ___________and ___________controls cotton bollworms, and
that of ___________controls corn borer.
8. A nematode ___________infects the roots of tobacco plants and causes a great reduction in yield.
9. ___________method involves silencing of specific mRNA due to complementary dsRNA molecule that
binds to and prevents translation of the mRNA.
10. Using ___________vectors, nematode-specific genes were introduced into the host plant tobacco.
11. At present, about ___________recombinant therapeutics have been approved for human-use world over.
In India, ___________of these are presently being marketed.
12. Insulin used for diabetes was earlier extracted from ___________of slaughtered cattle and ___________.
13. Insulin consists of two short polypeptide chains ___________and ___________, that are linked together
by ___________.
14. In humans, the pro-hormone of insulin contains an extra stretch called ___________and so needs to be
processed before it becomes a fully mature and functional hormone.
15. In 1983,___________an American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to chainA and
chainB of human insulin and introduced them in plasmid of bacterium ___________to produce insulin
chains.
16. The first clinical gene therapy was given in ___________ to a 4-year old girl with ___________deficiency.
17. In some children ADA deficiency can be cured by ___________transplantation; in others it can be
treated by enzyme replacement therapy.
18. In gene therapy for ADA deficiency, a functional ADA cDNA using a ___________vector is introduced in
lymphocytes.
19. In ADA deficiency, if the gene isolated from marrow cells producing ADA is introduced into cells at
___________stages, it could be a permanent cure.
20. Some important techniques that serve the purpose of early diagnosis of disease are recombinant DNA
technology, ___________and ___________.
21. A single stranded RNA or DNA molecule tagged with a radioactive molecule is called ___________.
22. ELISA is based on the principle of ___________interaction.
23. ___________protein is used to treat emphysema.
24. In 1997, first transgenic cow, ___________, produced human protein-enriched milk. The milk contained
the human ___________and was nutritionally a more balanced product for human babies than natural
cow-milk.
25. Transgenic ___________ are being developed for use in testing the safety of vaccines before they are
used on humans.
26. The Indian government has set up organization, ___________, which makes decision regarding the
validity of GM research and safety of introducing GM-organisms for public services.
27. There are an estimated ___________varieties of rice in India alone and ___________documented varieties
of Basmati are grown in India.
28. In 1997, ___________ Company got patent rights on Basmati rice through the US Patent and Trademark
Office.
29. ___________is the term used to refer to the use of bio-resources by multinational companies and other
organizations without proper authorization from the countries and people concerned without compensatory
payment.
30. The Indian Parliament has recently cleared the ___________of Indian Patents Bill, that takes biopiracy
issues into consideration including patent term emergency provisions and research and development
initiative.
Chapter 13
Organisms and Populations
1. _______________ is revered as Father of Ecology in India.
2. The key elements that lead to variatiom in the physical and chemical conditions of different habitats are
temperature, _______________ , _______________ and _______________ .
3. The organisms that can tolerate and thrive in a wide range of temperature are called _______________
and those that are restricted to a narrow range of temperature are called
_______________ .
4. The salinity in parts per thousand is _______________ in inland water, _______________ in the sea
and > 100 in some hypersaline lagoons.
5. The organisms that are tolerant of a wide range of salinities are called _______________ and those that
are restricted to a narrow range are called _______________ .
6. The process by which some organisms try to maintain the constancy of its internal environment is
_______________ .
7. The aquatic organism whose osmotic concentration of body fluids change with that of ambient water
osmotic concentration are referred as _______________ .
8. Every winter the famous _______________ National park in Rajasthan host thousands of migratory birds
coming from _______________ and other extremely cold northern regions.
9. Under unfavourable conditions many zooplankton species in lakes and ponds are known to enter
_______________ a stage of suspended development.
10. _______________ is any attribute of of the organism that enables the organism to survive and reproduce
in its habitat.
11. Many desert plants have a photosynthetic pathway, _______________ that enables their stomata to
remain close during day time.
12. According to _______________ rule, mammals from colder climates generally have shorter ears and
limbs to minimize hear loss.
13. The thick layer of fat called _______________ in aquatic mammals like seal below their skin acts as an
insulator.
14. _______________ refers to the number of birth during a given period in population and _______________
refers to the number of death.
15. _______________ is the number of individuals of same species that have come into the habitat from
elsewhere during the time period under consideration and _______________ is the number of individuals
who left the habitat.
16. When resources are unlimited, the growth is usually _______________ but when resources become
progressively limiting, the growth pattern turns _______________ .
17. In any growth pattern, growth is ultimately limited by the _______________ of the environment.
18. The _______________ is a measure of the inherent potential of a population to grow.
19. A plot of N in relation to time(t) results in a sigmoid curve. This type of population growth is called
_______________ Logistic growth.
20. The mathematical equation describing the increase or decrease in N during time(t) is
_______________ in exponential growth & _______________ in Logistic growth.
21. Both the species benefit in _______________ and both lose in _______________ in their interaction
with each other.
22. The interaction where one species is benefitted and the other is neither benefitted nor harmed is
_______________ and when one is harmed & other is unaffected is _______________ .
23. The interactions in which interacting species live closely together are _______________ ,
_______________ and commensalism.
24. The animals that feed on plant sap and other parts of plants are _______________ .
25. The common weed in abandoned field is _______________ . Cattle never browsed on this plant because
it produces highly poisonous _______________ .
26. The fitness of one species is measured in terms of its _______________ .
27. _______________ Principle state that two closely related species competing for the same resources
cannot co-exist indefinetly and competitively inferior one will be eliminated eventually.
28. In _______________ , two species competing for the same resources avoid competition by choosing
different times for feeding or different foraging period.
29. Parasites that feed on the external surface of host organism are called _______________ and that
those live inside host body are called _______________ .
30. An example of commensalism is the interaction between sea anemone that has stinging tentacles and
_______________ that lives among them.
31. Lichens represent mutualistic relationship between a _______________ and autotrophic

_______________ .
32. Mycorrhizae are association between _______________ and roots of higher plants.
33. The Mediterranean orchid _______________ employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get pollination done by a species
of bee.
34. _______________ is the study of relationships of organisms with abiotic and biotic components of their
environment.
35. _______________ is a group of individuals of a given species sharing or competing for similiar resources
in a defined geographical area.
Chapter 14
Ecosystem
1. _______________ is a functional unit of nature and comprises abiotic and biotic components.
2. Vertical distribution of different species occupying different levels is called _______________ . In forest,
_______________ occupy top vertical part, _______________ the second and herbs and grasses occupy
the bottom layer.
3. There is _______________ movement of energy.
4. _______________ is defined as the amount of biomass or organic matter produced per unit area over a
time period by plants during phosynthesis. It is expressed in terms of _______________ or
_______________ .
5. The rate of biomass production is called _______________ . It is expressed in terms of _______________
or _______________ .
6. _______________ productivity of an ecosystem is the rate of production of organic matter during
photosynthesis.
7. Gross primary productivity minus respiration losses (R) is the _______________ productivity (NPP).
8. _______________ productivity is defened as the rate of formation of new organic matter by consumers.
9. The annual net primary productivity of whole biosphere is approximately _______________ billion
tons of organic matter.
10. The important steps in the process of decomposition are fragmentation, leaching _______________ ,
_______________ and _______________ .
11. By the process of _______________ , water-soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon
and get precipated as unavailable salts.
12. _______________ leads to accumulation of a dark coloured amourphous substance called
_______________ that is highly resistant to microbial action and increases fertility of soil.
13. Plants capture only _______________ % of PAR.
14. Animals are heterotrophs and also _______________ as they depend directly or indirectly on plants
for food. If they feed only on producer they are called _______________ and if they eat other animals,
they are called _______________ .
15. The natural interconnection of food chain makes _______________ .
16. Decomposers are also known as _______________ .
17. Producers belong to _______________ trophic levels, herbivores to _______________ and carnivores
to _______________ .
18. The amount of energy _______________ at successive trophic levels.

19. Each trophic level has a certain mass of living material at a particular time called as _______________.
20. Only _______________ % of the energy is transferred to each trophic level from the lower trophic level.
21. The pyramid of biomass in sea is _______________ because the biomass of fishes _______________
that of phytoplankton.
22. Pyramid of _______________ is always upright.
23. _______________ are not given place in ecological pyramids even though they play a vital role in the
ecosystem.
24. The community that is in near equillibrium with the environment is called _______________ community.
25. The gradual and predictable change in the species composition of a given area is called
_______________ community.
26. The entire sequence of communities that successively change in a given area are called _____________.
27. The ecological succession in a place where there no living organism ever existed is called
_______________ succession and in a place which lost all living organism that existed there is called
_______________ succession.
28. _______________ succession takes place in wetter areas and _______________ succession in
dry areas. Both succession lead to medium water condition called _______________ .
29. The species that invade a bare area are called _______________ species. In primary succession on
rocks these are usually _______________ and in water these are usually _______________ .
30. The amount of nutrients present in the soil at any given time is reffered to as _______________ .
31. Another name of nutrient cyclic is _______________ cycles.
32. The reservoir for gaseous type of nutrient cycle is _______________ and for the sedimentary cycle
is _______________ .
33. Carbon constitutes _______________ % of dry weight of organism.
34. The products of ecosystem processes are named as _______________ .
35. _______________ and his colleagues have tried to put price tags on nature life-support services and is
estimated to be _______________ a year.
Chapter 15
Biodiversity and Conservation
1. ______________ refers to the sum total of diversity that exists at all levels of biological organisation.
2. Of the named species, > 70% are animals of which _______________ % are insects.
3. Species diversity decreases as we move away from _______________ towards _______________ region
of earth.
4. The graph showing relation between species richness and area for a wide variety of taxa gives
_______________ curve.
5. Dodo from Mauritius, quagga from _______________ , thylacine from _______________ ,
_______________ from Russia and three subspecies (Bali , Java, _______________ ) of tiger are example
of recent extinct organism.
6. Since the origin and diversification of life on earth, there were _______________ episodes of mass
extinction of species.
7. _______________ is the sobriquet used to describe the four major causes of accelerated rates of species
extinction.
8. The amazon rain forest is so huge that it is called _______________ of the planet.
9. The _______________ introduced into Lake Victoria in east Africa led eventually to the extinction of
more than 200 species of _______________ fish in the lake.
10. The illegal introduction of African catfish _______________ for aquaculture purpose is a posing threat to
the indigenous catfishes in our rivers.
11. _______________ is exploring molecular, genetic and species-level diversity for product of economic
importance.
12. In _______________ conservation, the endangered species are protected in their natural habitat so that
the entire ecosystem is protected.
13. _______________ conservation is desireable approach when an animal or plant is threatened and
needs urgent measures to save it from extinction.
14. The species that are confined to one region and not found anyhwhere else is called _______________
species.
15. The total number of biodiversity hotspots in the world is _______________ .
16. India has _______________ biosphere, _______________ national parks and _______________ wildlife
sanctuaries.
17. The historic Convention on Biological Diversity _______________ held in Rio De Janerio in 1992, called
upon all nations to take appropriate measures for conservation of biodiversity & sustainable utilization of
its benefits.
18. _______________ convention on sustainable Development in 2002 in Johannesburg, South Africa,
190 countries pledged their commitment to achieve by 2010.
19. When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in an obligatory way
also become extinct. This is termed as _______________ .
20. A proper perspective to question ‘does it really matter to us if a few species become extinct ? ’ can be
explain through analogy i.e. _______________ hyphothesis by Stanford ecologist _______________ .
Chapter 16
Environmental Issues
1. ______________ is any undesireable change in physical, chemical or biological characteristic of air,
land, water or soil. Agents that bring about such an undesireable change are called as ______________.
2. In order to control environmental pollution, the Government of India has passed ______________ in
______________ to protect and improve the quality of our environment.
3. The most widely used method to remove particulate matter is ______________ which can remove
______________% particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
4. CPCB stands for ______________. According to CPCB, particulate size ______________  m are
responsible for causing greatest harm to human health.
5. Noise of level ______________ dB or more can damage ear drums thus permanently impairing hearing
quality.
6. According to Euro III norms, concentration of sulphur ______________ ppm in diesel and ______________
ppm in petrol. Aromatic hydrocarbon is ______________% of concerned fuel.
7. The Government of India has passed the ______________ Act in ______________ to safeguard our
water resources.
8. The amount of biodegradable organic matter in sewage water can be estimated by measuring ___________.
9. Presence of large amount of nutrients in water causes excessive growth of______________ , called an
______________ which imparts a distinct colour to the water bodies.
10. The plant of water hyacinth ______________ is the world’s most problematic aquatic weed, also called
‘Terror of Bengal’.
11. ______________ refers to increase in concentration of the toxicant at successive trophic level because
the toxic substance gets accumulated by an organism as it cannot be metabolized or excreted.
12. ______________ is the natural ageing of a lake by nutrient enrichment of its water.
13. Eutrophication due to pollutants from man’s activities like effluents from industries and homes is called
______________ eutrophication.
14. In Integrated Waste Water Treatment project initiated in town of Arcata, California; the biologist developed
a series of ______________ connected marshes over 60 hectares of marshland and citizen group called
______________ are responsible for the upkeep & safeguarding of this project.
15. In ______________ ,wastes are dumped in a depression or trench after compaction and covered with
dirt everyday.
16. Irreparable computers and other electronic goods are known as ______________ wastes.
17. ______________ produced polyblend, a fine powder of recycled modified plastic. He proved that blend of
polyblend and bitumen enhanced bitumen’s ______________ repellant properties.
18. ______________ created the Haryana Kisan Welfare Club, with a current membership of ______________
farmers.
19. The storage of nuclear waste, after pre-treatment in shielded containers is done about ______m deep
below the earth’s surface.
20. Without greenhouse effect the average temperature of surface of earth would be _____0C rather than the
present average of ______0C.
21. ______________ effect means odd climatic changes due to rise in temperature.
22. The upper part of atmosphere called ______________ contain ozone layer that absorbs UV radiation
from the sun.
23. The thickness of ozone in a column of air from the ground to the top of atmosphere is measured in terms
of ______________ units.
24. High dose of UV-B causes inflammation of cornea, called ______________ .
25. An international treaty ______________ was signed at Montreal, Canada in ______________ to control
the emission of ozone depleting substance.
26. In India, the forest cover was ______________ % of land in beginning of 20th century and shrunk to
______________ % by end of century. According to National Forest Policy, forest cover for plain should
be ______________ % and for hill its ______________ %.
27. Slash and burn agriculture is commonly called ______________ .
28. The Government of India instituted ______________ Award for individuals or communities from rural
areas that shows extraordinary courage and dedication in protecting wildlife.
29. In 1974, ______________ of Garhwal Himalayas started in which local women hug trees for protecting
them from axe of contractor.
30. The Government of India in 1980s introduced the concept of ______________ so as to work closely with
local communities for protecting and managing forests.
   
Chapter 1: Reproduction in Organism

ANSWER
1. life span cycle 21. parthenogenesis
2. reproduction 13. gametogenesis; 22. embryogenesis; cell division;
gamete transfer
3. asexual cell differentiation
4. sexual 14. gametogenesis 23. oviparous; viviparous
5. clone 15. homogametes 24. zygote; ovules
(isogametes); hetero-
6. binary fission gametes 25. ovary; pericap
7. unequal; buds 16. homothallic; monoe 26. 3
8. conidia; gemmules cious; heterothallic; 27. encystation
dioecious
9. vegetative propagules 28. multiple fission
17. staminate, pistillate
10. Bryophyllum 29. sporulation
18. meiocytes
11. juvenile phase; vegetative 30. fragmentation
phase 19. Pollination
12. oestrus cycle; menstrual 20. syngamy; zygote; fertilisation
Chapter 2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants

ANSWER
1. stamens 26. micropylar 50. micropylar
2. filament; anther 27. filiform 51. epicotyl; plumule
3. thalamus; petal 28. antipodals 52. scutellum
4. microsporangia; pollen sacs 29. 8; 7 53. coleoptile
5. tapetum 30. chasmogamous; 54. perisperm
cleistogamous
6. sporogenous 55. 10-15
31. cliestogamous
7. microsporogenesis 56. pericarp
8. pollen grains 32. geitonogamy 57. thalamus
9. exine; sopopollenin 33. monocotyledons 58. Arctic Tundra
34. Vallisneria
10. germ pores; sporopollenin 59. Dead Sea
35. mucilaginous
11. intine; cellulose; pectin 60. apomixis
12. vegetative; generative 36. Nectar; pollen grains
13. 2 37. Amorphophallus
14. -1960C 38. inbreeding depression

39. autogamy; geitonogamy
15. stigma; style; ovary; stigma
16. style; ovary 40. pistil
17. placenta 41. germ pore

42. micropyle; synergids
18. funicle
19. integuments 43. pollen-pistil
20. chalaza 44. emasculation

45. synergids; synergid
21. nucellus
22. megaspore 46. primary endosperm nucleus
23. micropylar 47. triple fusion

48. PEC; endosperm
24. monosporic
49. free-nuclear; nuclear
25. central cell
Chapter 3: Human Reproduction

ANSWER
1. pelvis 20. labia minora 43. LH surge; ovulation
2. scrotum; 2-25; 21. labia majora 44. corpus luteum
spermatogenesis
22. hymen 45. menarche; menopause
3. 250; testicular lobules; 1-3; 23. clitoris 46. insemination
seminiferous tubules
24. 15-20 ; alveoli 47. ampullary
4. male germ cell
(spermatogonia); sertoli cell 25. mammary duct; lactiferous 48. zona pellucida
duct 49. XX ; XY
5. sertoli cell
26. puberty; gonadotrophin
6. Leydig cell 50. cleavage; blasotmere
releasing hormone(GnRH)
7. rete testis; vasa efferntia; 51. morula; blastocyst
27. diploid; 46
epididymis 52. trophoblast; inner cell mass
28. spermatid; spermiogenesis
8. epidydymis; posterior 53. implantation
29. spermiation
9. urethral meatus 54. chorionic villi
30. Leydig cell; androgen; sertoli
10. glans penis; foreskin 55. placenta; umbilical cord
cell;spermiogenesis
11. seminal vesicle; 31. hapliod; acrosome 56. hCG; estrogen
bulbourethral; prostate
32. 200-300; 60; 40 57. relaxin
12. fructose; calcium;
bulbourethral 33. semen 58. ectoderm; endoderm;
mesoderm
13. 2-4; pelvic wall; uterus 34. oogenesis
59. stem
14. peripheral cortex; inner 35. prophase-1; primary oocytes
medulla 60. 2nd ; 1st
36. 60000-80000
15. 10-12; infundibulum; ampulla; 61. 5th
37. secondary follicles
isthmus 62. 9; gestation period
38. antrum
16. inverted pear 63. neuroendocrine; fully
39. zona pellucida; ovulation developed foetus; placenta ;
17. cervical canal; vagina
40. menarche; 50; menopause
18. perimetrium; myometrium; foetal-ejection
endometrium 41. primary; graafian
64. oxytocin
19. mons pubis 42. estrogen; middle; 14th 65. colostrum
Chapter 4: Reproductive health

ANSWER
1. Family planning; 1951 11. phagocytosis; sperm motility 23. veneral diseases;
2. Saheli; Central Drug 12. IUDs reproductive tract infections
Research Institute 13. progestogen-estrogen 24. Assisted Reproductive
3. 350; May 2000; 6 th Technologies(ART)
14. 21; first-five
4. 1.7 25. test tube baby programme
15. Pills
5. 18 ; 21 26. fallopian tube; ZIFT
16. Saheli; one
6. periodic abstinence; 10; 17 27. uterus; IUT
17. 72
7. Lactational amenorrhea 28. GIFT
18. Vasectomy; tubectomy
8. thin rubber/latex sheath; 29. ICSI
19. Medical termination of
Nirodh 30. AI; IUI
Pregnancy (MTP)
9. Diaphragms; cervical caps;
20. 45 to 50 ; 1/5th
vaults
10. non-medicated; copper 21. 1971
releasing; hormone releasing 22. first; 12
Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

ANSWER
1. Inheritance 16. incomplete; Co 32. autosomal dominant
2. Mendel 17. Co-dominance 33. sex-linked recessive; sons
3. Filial 18. 9:3:3:1 34. glutamic acid; valine; beta()
4. 3:1; 1:2:1 19. de Vries; Correns 35. tyrosine
5. Factors; genes 20. Sutton 36. aneuploidy
6. alleles 21. linkage; recombination 37. Polyploidy
7. genotype; phenotype 22. sex chromosome; autosome 38. 21
8. homozygotes; 23. XO 39. Klinefelter’s
heterozygote 24. XY 40. Turner’s
9. 50% 25. Male; Female 41. polygenic
26. ZW; ZZ 42. pleiotropic
10. ;
27. point 43. diploid; 32; haploid;
11. tall
28. mutagens haplodiploid
12. test cross
29. pedigree 44. sex; recessive; X
13. heterozygous
30. affected individuals; 45. autosome; recessive;
14. incomplete dominance
consanguineous mating HBA1; HBA2 ; 16
15. 1:2:1 ; 1:2:1
31. autosomal recessive
Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

ANSWER
1. 48502; 4.6 X 106 ; 3.3 x 109 23. DNA; RNA 48. frameshift
2. uracil; thymine 24. RNA 49. t-RNa
3. N-glycosidic; nucleoside 25. semiconservative 50. no
4. phosphoester 26. Meselson; Stal 51. clover-leaf; inverted-L
5. sugar; phosphate 27. cesium chloride(CsCl) 52. aminoacylation
6. thymine 28. DNA; DNA 53. ribosome; 80
7. Watson; Crick; X-ray 29. 2000 54. ribozyme
diffraction 30. replication fork; 5’ --> 3’ 55. untranslated regions (UTR)
8. 2;3 31. DNA ligase
56. initiator tRNA
9. right; 3.4; 10 32. transcription
57. release factor
10. RNA; protein 33. promoter; terminator
11. negatively; positively; 58. operators
34. 3’ --> 5’
nucleoid 59. operon
35. coding ; 5 ’ --> 3’
12. histones; histone octamer 60. inhibitor
36.. Promoter; up-
13. nucleosome; 200 61. beta-galactosidase;
37. Terminator; down
14. chromatin; beads-on-string permease; transacetylase
38. exons; introns
15. metaphase; non-histone 62. negative
39. RNA polymerase
chromosomal (NHC) 63. 1990; 2003
40. inititation; termination
16. euchromatin; 64. Expressed Sequence Tags
heterochromatin 41. I , III , II
(ESTs)
17. eu; hetero 42. splicing
65. Sequence Annotation
18. Streptococcus pneumoniae; 43. methyl guanosine
66. Frederick Sanger
mucous(polysaccharide) triphosphate; 5’ ; adenylate ;
3’ 67. 2% ; 1 ; Y
19. S
44. George Gamow 68. repetitive DNA
20. Hershey; Chase;
Phosphorous; Sulphur 45. triplet; 61; 3 69. DNA polymorphism
21. sulphur; phosphorous 46. unambiguous; degenerate 70. Alec Jeffreys; VNTR; 0.1 ; 20
22. 2’-OH 47. AUG
Chapter 7: Evolution
ANSWER
1. Light year 18. Homologous 34. one
2. 20 19. divergent 35. 2pq
3. Big Bang 20. divergent; convergent 36. mutation; genetic
4. 4.5 21. dark recombination; natural
5. 4 22. lichens selection
6. Spontaneous generation 23. Galapagos 37. founder effect
7. Louis Pasteur 24. adaptive radiation 38. directional change; disruptive
8. Oparin ; Haldane 25. convergent 39. 350
9. amino-acid 26. convergent; Tasmanian tiger 40. plants
10. special creation cat 41. permian; jurassic; tertiary
11. electrodes; 8000C 27. Branching descent; natural 42. Ichthyosaurs
12. Charles Darwin; H.M.S selection 43. Tyrannosaurus rex
Beagle 28. Lamarck 44. continental drift
13. reproductive 29. Thomas Malthus 45. Dryopithecus ; Ramapithecus
14. Malay Archipelago 30. Hugo de Vries 46. Australopithecines
15. paleontological 31. Saltation 47. Homo habilis ; 650-800
16. radioactive-dating 32. Hardy-Weinberg 48. Neanderthal man
17. divergent 33. gene pool 49. Africa
50. 10,000
Chapter 8: Human health & Disease
ANSWER
1. William Harvey ;‘good humor’ 21. anamestic 45. macrophage
2. Health 22. B- ; T- 46. helper T-
3. pathogen 23. B-; antibodies 47. ELISA
4. Salmonella typhi 24. 4 48. National AIDS Control
5. typhoid 25. 2; 2; H2L2 Organization
6. Widal 26.humoral immune response; 49. contact inhibition
7. Mary Mallon cell-mediated response 50. Benign
8. Streptococcus pneumoniae ; 27. cell-mediated 51. neoplastic
Haemophilus influenzae ; 28. active immunity; passive 52. metastatis
lungs immunity
53. carcinogens; oncogenic
9. common cold 29. colostrum; IgA viruses; viral oncogenes
10. P. vivax ; P.malaria ; 30. memory
54. cellular oncogenes; proto
P.falciparum ; P.falciparum 31. yeast oncogenes
11. sporozoites; Anopheles 32. allergens; allergy; IgE 55. interferon
12. haemozoin 33. histamine; serotonin
56. smack; diacetylmorphine;
13. liver cells; RBCs 34. adrenalin; steroids acetylation; Papaver
14. amoebiasis (amoebic 35. vertebrate somniferum
dysentery); houseflies 36. auto 57. Cannabis sativa;
15. Wuchereria bancrofti 37. bone marrow, thymus cardiovascular
;W.malayi 38. secondary lymphoid 58. Erythroxylum coca ;
16. Microsporum ; Trichophyton ; 39. spleen dopamine
Epidermophyton; Heat; 40. mucosa associated lymphoid 59. sedative; painkiller
Mositure tissue (MALT); 50 60. Nicotine
17. Gambusia 41. Acquired immuno Deficiency 61. period; process; 12; 18
18. immunity Syndrome; 1981
62. withdrawal
19. polymorpho-nuclear 42. retrovirus; RNA
63. cerebral hemorrhage
leukocyte; monocytes; 43. 5-10
natural killer 64. liver
44. macrophage; reverse
20. primary response transcriptase 65. cirrhosis
Chapter 9: Strategies for enhancement in food production

ANSWER
1. Animal husbandry 16. Blue 31. cowpea
2. 70 17. 9000-11000 32. Himgiri
3. quality of breeds 18. Genetic 33. Pusa swarnim
4. Poultry 19. germplasm collection 34. jassids; cereal leaf beetle
5. inbreeding; outbreeding 20. 33; 62 35. stem borers
6. Inbreeding 21. 75; 35 36. okra
7. Inbreeding 22. Mexico 37. aphids
8. Inbreeding depression 23. Sonalika ; Kalyan Sona 38. lysine; tryptophan
9. 4-6 24. IR-8 ; Taichung Native - 1 39. Atlas 66
10. out-crossing 25. Jaya; Ratna 40. 3-10
11. cross-breeding 26. north 41. 25
12. Hisardale 27. south 42. totipotency
13. artificial insemination 28. fungi 43. micro-propogation
14. 8-32 29. mutation 44. meristem
15. pollination 30. Parbhani Kranti 45. pomato
Chapter 10: Microbes in human welfare

ANSWER
1. Lactobacillus ; Lactic Acid 12. Liapase 24. Bacillus thuringiensis ; gut
Bacteria (LAB) 13. Streptococcus 25. Baculoviruses ;
2. CO2 gas 14. Trichoderma polysporum Nucleopolyhedrovirus
3. Baker’s yeast 15. Statins ; Monascus 26. Cynobacteria
4. Saccharomyces cerevisiae purpureus 27. Rhizobium
5. Toddy 16. Primary sludge 28. Biocontrol
6. CO2; Propinobacterium 17. Biological treatment 29. Mycorrhiza
sharmanii 18. Flocs 30. Glomus
7. Fungi 19. BOD ; more
8. Wine ; whisky ; brandy 20. Activated sludge ; anaerobic
9. Penicillin ; Alexander Fleming sludge digester
10. Staphylococci ; Penicillium 21. Methane ; biogas
notatum 22. Ganga Action Plan ; Yamuna
11. Aspergillus niger; Action Plan
Acetobacter aceti ; 23. Indian Agricultural Research
Institute (IARI) ; Village
Clostridium butylicum ;
Industries Commission
Lactobacillus
(KVIC)
Chapter 11: Biotechnology : Principles & Processes

ANSWER
1. Biotechnology 8. restriction enzymes 14. exonuclease; endonuclease
2. EFB 9. DNA ligase 15. sugar-phosphate backbone
3. recombinant 10. restriction endonuclease; 16. palindromic nucleotide
4. cloning methylase enzyme
17. sticky ends
5. plasmid 11. Hind II
18. gel elctrophoresis; size
6. Salmonella typhimurium 12. 900; 230
13. nucleases; exonucleases; 19. negatively; anode
7. Stanley Cohen; Herbert
Boyer; 1972 endonucleases 20. agarose; sea weeds
21. ethidium bromide; UV 29. hydrophilic 38. log/exponential phase

radiation; orange
30. heat shock; 42 39. Bioreactors
22. elution
31. micro-injection 40. Stirred-tank
23. origin of replication(ori) 32. gold; tungsten 41. oxygen availability
24. Transformation 33. lysozyme; cellulase; 42. oxygen transfer
25. ampicillin; tetracycline chitinase
43. sampling ports
26. insertional inactivation 34. Polymerase chain reaction
44. downstreaming processing
27. blue 35. oligonucleotide
45. 5 ’ - - - - - - - - - - GAATTC - - - - - - - - - - 3 ’
28. Agrobacterium tumifaciens ; 36. Thermus aquaticus
3 ’ - - - - - - - - - - CTTAAG - - - - - - - - - - 5 ’
T-DNA; tumor 37. recombinant
Chapter 12: Biotechnology & its Application

ANSWER
1. Green 11. 30 ; 12 21. Probe
2. Genetically Modified 12. Pancreas ; pigs 22. Antigen-antibody
Organism (GMO) 13. chainA ; chainB ; disulphide 23. α-1-antitrypsin
3. Bacillus thuringiensis bridges 24. Rosie ; α-lactalbumin
4. Coleopterans ; dipterans 14. C peptide 25. Mice
5. Alkaline ; midgut epithelial 15. Eli lilly ; E.coli 26. Genetic Engineering Approval
16. 1990 ; adenosine deaminase Committee (GEAC)
6. Cry
(ADA) 27. 200,000 ; 27
7. cryIAc ; cryIIAb ; cryIAb
17. Bone marrow 28. American
8. Meloidegyne incognitia 18. Retroviral 29. Biopiracy
9. RNA interference 19. Early embryonic 30. Second amendment
10. Agrobacterium 20. PCR ; ELISA
Chapter 13: Organism & Populations

ANSWER
1. Ramdeo misra 16. exponential; logistic 28. Resource partitioning
2. water; light; soil 17. carrying capacity 29. ectoparasite; endoparasites
3. eurythermal; stenothermal 18. intrinsic rate of natural 30. clown fish
increase
4. < 5; 30-35 31. fungus; algae
19. Verhulst-Pearl
5. euryhaline; stenohaline 32. fungi
6. homeostatis   33. Ophrys
20. dN = rN ; dN = rN  K - N 
7. conformers dt dt  K 34. Ecology
8. Keolada; Siberia 21. mutualism; competition 35. Population
9. diapause 22. commensalism; amensalism
10. adaptation 23. predation; parasitism
11. CAM 24. phytophagous
12. Allen’s 25. Calotropis ; cardiac
glycosides
13. blubber
26. ‘r’ (intrinsic rate of increase)
14. Natality; mortality
27. Gause’s competitive
15. Immigration; Emigration
exclusion
Chapter 14: Ecosystem

ANSWER
1. Ecosystem 12. humification; humus 24. climax
2. stratification; trees ; shrubs 13. 2-10 25. ecological succession
3. unidirectional 14. consumers; primary 26. sere
4. primary production; weight(g- consumers; secondary 27. primary; secondary
2
); energy(kcal m-2) consumer
28. Hydrach; xerarch ; mesic
5. productivity; g-2 yr-1; kcal m-2 15. food web
29. pioneer; lichens;
yr-1 16. saprotrophs phytoplanktons
6. gross primary 17. 1st ; 2nd ; 3rd 30. standing state
7. net primary 18. decreases 31. biogeochemical
8. second 19. standing crop 32. atmosphere; earth’s crust
9. 170 20. 10 33. 49
10. catabolism; humification; 21. inverted; exceeds 34. ecosystem services
mineralisation 22. energy 35. Robert Constanza; US$
11. leaching 23. saprophytes 33trillion
Chapter 15: Biodiversity and Conservation

ANSWER
1. Biodiversity 8. lungs 16. 14; 90; 448
2. 70 9. Nile perch; cichlid 17. The Earth Summit
3. equator; pole 10. Clarias gariepinus 18. World Summit
4. rectangular hyperbola 11. bioprospecting 19. Co-extinction
5. Africa; Australia; Steller’s 12. insitu 20. rivet-popper; Paul Ehrlich
Sea Cow; Caspian 13. exsitu
6. 5 14. endemic
7. The Evil Quartet 15. 34
Chapter 16: Environmental Issues

ANSWER
1. Pollution; pollutants 10. Eichhornia crassipes 20. -18; 15
2. Environment(protection) Act; 11. Biomagnification 21. El Nino
1986 12. Eutrophication 22. Stratoshphere
3. Electrostatic precipitator; 99 13. Cultural or Accelerated 23. Dobson
4. Central Pollution Control 14. Six; FOAM (Friends of the 24. snow-blindness
Board; 2.5 Arcata Marsh) 25. Montreal Protocol; 1987
5. 150 15. sanitary landfill 26. 30; 19.4; 33; 67
6. 350; 150; 42 16. electronic (e) 27. Jhum cultivation
7. Water (Prevention & Control 17. Ahmed khan; water
of Pollution); 1974 28. Amrita Devi Bishnoi Wildlife
18. Ramesh Chandra Dagar; Protection
8. BOD (Biochemical Oxygen 5000
Demand) 29. Chipko Movement
19. 500 30. Joint Forest Management
9. planktonic algae; algal bloom
(JFM)0
   

12th Biology NCERT Microassignments All Chapters - Final PDF

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Aakash NCERT (XII) Micro Assignment

must show vigorous motility.

the contraceptive method used by female.

Principles of Inheritance and Variation

18. _______________ structures indicates common ancestry.

17. Fishes like _______________ feed on the mosquito larvae in ponds.

48. NACO stands for _______________ .

17. Secondary treatment of waste water is also known as ___________.

31. Lichens represent mutualistic relationship between a _______________ and autotrophic

18. The amount of energy _______________ at successive trophic levels.

Chapter 1: Reproduction in Organism

Chapter 2: Sexual Reproduction in Flowering plants

13. 2 37. Amorphophallus

14. -1960C 38. inbreeding depression

17. placenta 41. germ pore

20. chalaza 44. emasculation

23. micropylar 47. triple fusion

Chapter 3: Human Reproduction

Chapter 4: Reproductive health

Chapter 5: Principles of Inheritance and Variation

Chapter 6: Molecular Basis of Inheritance

Chapter 9: Strategies for enhancement in food production

Chapter 10: Microbes in human welfare

Chapter 11: Biotechnology : Principles & Processes

21. ethidium bromide; UV 29. hydrophilic 38. log/exponential phase

Chapter 12: Biotechnology & its Application

Chapter 13: Organism & Populations

Chapter 14: Ecosystem

Chapter 15: Biodiversity and Conservation

Chapter 16: Environmental Issues

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