NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code QQ

DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code
QQ
LAACH
Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

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Time : 3 hrs.
Answers & Solutions Max. Marks : 720
for
NEET (UG) - 2018
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1
NEET (UG) - 2018 (Code-QQ) LAACH
1. Which of the following statements is not true 5 2 0 –3

for halogens? S o l . H N O , N O, N2 , NH Cl
3 4
(1) All form monobasic oxyacids
Hence, the correct option is (1).
(2) Chlorine has the highest electron-gain
enthalpy 5. Which one of the following elements is unable
(3) All but fluorine show positive oxidation to form MF63– ion?
states (1) Ga (2) In
(4) All are oxidizing agents
(3) B (4) Al
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 3 )
S o l . Due to high electronegativity and small size,
F forms only one oxoacid, HOF known as S o l . ∵ 'B' has no vacant d-orbitals in its valence
Fluoric (I) acid. Oxidation number of F is +1 in shell, so it can't extend its covalency beyond
HOF. 4. i.e. 'B' cannot form the ion like MF6 3(–) i.e.
2. The correct order of atomic radii in group 13 BF63(–).
elements is
Hence, the correct option is (3).
(1) B < Al < In < Ga < Tl
6. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the
(2) B < Ga < Al < In < Tl
following metals can be used to reduce
(3) B < Ga < Al < Tl < In alumina?
(4) B < Al < Ga < In < Tl
(1) Fe (2) Cu
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Mg (4) Zn
Sol.
Answer ( 3 )
Elements B Ga Al In Tl
Atomic radii (pm) 85 135 143 167 170 S o l . The metal which is more reactive than 'Al'
can reduce alumina i.e. 'Mg' should be the
3. In the structure of ClF3, the number of lone
correct option.
pair of electrons on central atom ‘Cl’ is
(1) One (2) Three 7. The compound A on treatment with Na gives
B, and with PCl 5 gives C. B and C react
(3) Four (4) Two
together to give diethyl ether. A, B and C are
Answer ( 4 ) in the order
S o l . The structure of ClF3 is
(1) C2H5OH, C2H6, C2H5Cl
 
 
 
F (2) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl

 
(3) C2H5Cl, C2H6, C2H5OH
 
F Cl
 
(4) C2H5OH, C2H5Cl, C2H5ONa
 
 
F Answer ( 2 )
 
C2H5O Na+
The number of lone pair of electrons on Na
S o l . C2H5OH
central Cl is 2. (B)
(A)
4. The correct order of N-compounds in its
decreasing order of oxidation states is
PCl5
(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl C2H5Cl

(2) NH4Cl, N2, NO, HNO3 (C)
C2H5O Na+ + C2H5Cl
SN2
(3) HNO3, NH4Cl, NO, N2 C2H5OC2 H5
(4) HNO3, NO, NH4Cl, N2 (B) (C)
Answer ( 1 ) So the correct option is (2)
2
8. Hydrocarbon (A) reacts with bromine by 11. Following solutions were prepared by mixing
substitution to form an alkyl bromide which by different volumes of NaOH and HCl of
Wurtz reaction is converted to gaseous different concentrations :
hydrocarbon containing less than four carbon
atoms. (A) is M M
a. 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
(1) CH  CH (2) CH4
(3) CH3 – CH3 (4) CH2  CH2 M M
b. 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
Answer ( 2 ) 10 10
Br2/h
S o l . CH4 CH3Br M M
(A) c. 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
Na/dry ether 5 5
Wurtz reaction
M M
CH3 — CH3 d. 100 mL HCl + 100 mL NaOH
10 10
Hence the correct option is (2)
pH of which one of them will be equal to 1?
9. The compound C7H8 undergoes the following
(1) b (2) c
reactions:
(3) d (4) a
3Cl /  Br /Fe Zn/HCl
C7H8 
2
 A 
2
 B 
C Answer ( 2 )
The product 'C' is 1
Sol. • Meq of HCl = 75   1 = 15
(1) m-bromotoluene 5
(2) p-bromotoluene 1
• Meq of NaOH = 25   1 = 5
(3) 3-bromo-2,4,6-trichlorotoluene 5
(4) o-bromotoluene • Meq of HCl in resulting solution = 10
Answer ( 1 ) • Molarity of [H+] in resulting mixture
CH3 CCl3 CCl3 10 1
= 
3Cl 2 Br2
100 10
Sol.  Fe
Br  1
(C7H8) (A) (B) pH = –log[H+] =  log   = 1.0
 10 
Zn HCl
12. On which of the following properties does the
coagulating power of an ion depend?
CH3
(1) The magnitude of the charge on the ion
alone
Br (2) The sign of charge on the ion alone
(C)
(3) Both magnitude and sign of the charge on
So, the correct option is (1)
the ion
10. Which oxide of nitrogen is not a common
(4) Size of the ion alone
pollutant introduced into the atmosphere both
due to natural and human activity? Answer ( 3 )
(1) N2O5 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

an electrolyte depends on the charge
(2) NO
present (positive or negative) on colloidal
(3) N2O
particles as well as on its size.
(4) NO2
• Coagulating power of an electrolyte
Answer ( 1 ) depends on the magnitude of charge
S o l . Fact present on effective ion of electrolyte.
3
13. The solubility of BaSO4 in water is 2.42 × 10–3 gL–1 S o l . Co3+ = [Ar] 3d6, Unpaired e–(n) = 4
at 298 K. The value of its solubility product
(Ksp) will be Spin magnetic moment = 4(4  2)  24 BM
(Given molar mass of BaSO4 = 233 g mol–1) Cr3+ = [Ar] 3d3, Unpaired e–(n) = 3
(1) 1.08 × 10–10 mol2L–2
Spin magnetic moment = 3(3  2)  15 BM
(2) 1.08 × 10–8 mol2L–2
(3) 1.08 × 10–14 mol2L–2 Fe3+ = [Ar] 3d5, Unpaired e–(n) = 5
(4) 1.08 × 10–12 mol2L–2
Spin magnetic moment = 5(5  2)  35 BM
Answer ( 1 )
Ni2+ = [Ar] 3d8, Unpaired e–(n) = 2
2.42  103
S o l . Solubility of BaSO4, s = (mol L–1)
233 Spin magnetic moment = 2(2  2)  8 BM
= 1.04 × 10–5 (mol L–1)
16. Iron carbonyl, Fe(CO)5 is
2
Ba
BaSO 4 (s) (aq)  SO 24(aq) (1) Tetranuclear (2) Dinuclear
s s
(3) Trinuclear (4) Mononuclear
Ksp = [Ba2+] [SO42–]= s2
Answer ( 4 )
= (1.04 × 10–5)2
S o l . • Based on the number of metal atoms
= 1.08 × 10–10 mol2 L–2
present in a complex, they are classified
14. Given van der Waals constant for NH3, H2, O2 into mononuclear, dinuclear, trinuclear and
and CO2 are respectively 4.17, 0.244, 1.36 and so on.
3.59, which one of the following gases is most
easily liquefied? eg: Fe(CO)5 : mononuclear
(1) NH3 (2) CO2 Co2(CO)8 : dinuclear
(3) O2 (4) H2 Fe3(CO)12: trinuclear
Answer ( 1 ) Hence, option (4) should be the right
Sol. • van der waal constant ‘a’, signifies answer.
intermolecular forces of attraction.
17. The geometry and magnetic behaviour of the
• Higher is the value of ‘a’, easier will be complex [Ni(CO)4] are
the liquefaction of gas.
(1) Square planar geometry and diamagnetic
15. Match the metal ions given in Column I with
the spin magnetic moments of the ions given (2) Tetrahedral geometry and paramagnetic
in Column II and assign the correct code :
(3) Square planar geometry and
Column I Column II paramagnetic
a. Co3+ i. 8 BM (4) Tetrahedral geometry and diamagnetic
b. Cr3+ ii. 35 BM Answer ( 4 )
c. Fe3+ S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2

iii. 3 BM
∵ CO is a strong field ligand
d. Ni2+ iv. 24 BM
Configuration would be :
v. 15 BM 3
sp -hybridisation
a b c d
(1) iv v ii i ×× ×× ×× ××
(2) iii v i ii CO CO CO CO
(3) iv i ii iii For, four ‘CO’-ligands hybridisation would be
sp 3 and thus the complex would be
(4) i ii iii iv
diamagnetic and of tetrahedral geometry.
Answer ( 1 )
4
CO P Q R
CH 2CH 2CH3 CHO
Ni (1) , , CH3CH2 – OH
CO
OC
OH
CO CH(CH3)2
18. Which one of the following ions exhibits d-d (2) , , CH3 – CO – CH3
transition and paramagnetism as well?
(1) CrO42– (2) MnO42– CH(CH3)2 OH
(3) , , CH3CH(OH)CH3
(3) MnO4– (4) Cr2O72–
Answer ( 2 ) CH2CH2CH3 CHO COOH
S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar] (4) , ,

Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
Answer ( 2 )
Cr2O72–  Cr6+ = [Ar]
Cl
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic
S o l . CH CH CH – Cl + Al
3 2 2
MnO42– = Mn6+ = [Ar] 3d1
Cl Cl
Unpaired electron (n) = 1; Paramagnetic
+ 1, 2–H + –
MnO4– = Mn7+ = [Ar] Shift
CH3 – CH – CH3 CH3CH2CH2 Cl AlCl3
Unpaired electron (n) = 0; Diamagnetic (Incipient carbocation)
Cl
19. The type of isomerism shown by the complex
[CoCl2(en)2] is –
AlCl3
(1) Geometrical isomerism
Now,
(2) Linkage isomerism CH3
(3) Ionization isomerism
CH – CH3
(4) Coordination isomerism
CH3 – CH – CH3 O2
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In [CoCl2(en)2], Coordination number of Co (P)
is 6 and this compound has octahedral CH3
geometry.
OH HC
3 –C – O– O –H
O
+
H /H2O
CH3 – C – CH3 + Hydroperoxide
Rearrangement
(R) (Q)
21. Which of the following compounds can form a
zwitterion?
• As per given option, type of isomerism is (1) Aniline (2) Glycine
geometrical isomerism.
(3) Benzoic acid (4) Acetanilide
20. Identify the major products P, Q and R in the
Answer ( 2 )
following sequence of reactions:
 
Anhydrous Sol. H3N – CH2 – COOH H3N – CH2 – COO
–
AlCl3 (Zwitterion form)

+ CH3CH2CH2Cl
pKa = 9.60 pKa = 2.34
(i) O2
P Q+R H2N – CH2 – COO–
(ii) H3O+/
5
22. Which of the following molecules represents (1) Mg2X3
the order of hybridisation sp2, sp2, sp, sp from (2) Mg3X2
left to right atoms?
(3) Mg2X
(1) HC  C – C  CH (4) MgX2
(2) CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 Answer ( 2 )
(3) CH2 = CH – CH = CH2 S o l . Element (X) electronic configuration
(4) CH2 = CH – C  CH 1s2 2s2 2p3
Answer ( 4 ) So, valency of X will be 3.
Valency of Mg is 2.
sp2 sp2 sp sp
S o l . CH2  CH – C  CH Formula of compound formed by Mg and X will
be Mg3X2.
Number of orbital require in hybridization
26. Iron exhibits bcc structure at room
= Number of -bonds around each carbon temperature. Above 900°C, it transforms to
atom. fcc structure. The ratio of density of iron at
23. Which of the following carbocations is room temperature to that at 900°C (assuming
expected to be most stable? molar mass and atomic radii of iron remains
NO2 constant with temperature) is
NO2
3 1
H (1) (2)
 2 2
(1) (2) Y
 3 3 4 3
(3) (4)
4 2 3 2
Y H
Answer ( 3 )
NO2
NO2 4r
 S o l . For BCC lattice : Z = 2, a 
3
(3) H (4) For FCC lattice : Z = 4, a = 2 2 r
Y  ZM 
 Y H  N a3 
d25C  A  BCC
Answer ( 3 )  
d900C  ZM 
S o l . –NO2 group exhibit –I effect and it decreases  N a3 
with increase in distance. In option (3)  A  FCC
positive charge present on C-atom at 3
maximum distance so –I effect reaching to it 2  2 2 r 3 3
 
is minimum and stability is maximum. 4  4r   4 2 
 
24. Which of the following is correct with respect  3 
to – I effect of the substituents? (R = alkyl) 27. Which one is a wrong statement?
(1) – NH2 < – OR < – F (1) Total orbital angular momentum of
(2) – NR2 > – OR > – F electron in 's' orbital is equal to zero
(3) – NH2 > – OR > – F (2) The value of m for dz2 is zero
(4) – NR2 < – OR < – F (3) The electronic configuration of N atom is

1 1 1
Answer ( 1 * ) 1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz
S o l . –I effect increases on increasing

electronegativity of atom. So, correct order of
–I effect is –NH2 < – OR < – F. (4) An orbital is designated by three quantum
*Most appropriate Answer is option (1), numbers while an electron in an atom is
however option (4) may also be correct answer. designated by four quantum numbers
25. Magnesium reacts with an element (X) to form Answer ( 3 )
an ionic compound. If the ground state S o l . According to Hund's Rule of maximum
electronic configuration of (X) is 1s2 2s2 2p3, multiplicity, the correct electronic
the simplest formula for this compound is configuration of N-atom is
6
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile

1s2 2s2 2p3
formed is :CCl2 (Dichlorocarbene) according to
OR the following reaction
.–.
CHCl3  OH–
CCl3  H2 O
2 2 3
1s 2s 2p
 Option (3) violates Hund's Rule. .–.
 : CCl2  Cl–
CCl3 
28. Consider the following species : Electrophile
CN+, CN–, NO and CN
Which one of these will have the highest bond 30. Carboxylic acids have higher boiling points
order? than aldehydes, ketones and even alcohols of
(1) NO (2) CN comparable molecular mass. It is due to their
(3) CN+ (4) CN– (1) Formation of intramolecular H-bonding
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . NO : (1s) 2 , ( 1s) 2 , (2s) 2,( 2s) 2,(2p z) 2 , (2) Formation of intermolecular H-bonding
(2px)2 = (2py)2,(2px)1 = (2py)0
(3) More extensive association of carboxylic
10  5
BO =  2.5 acid via van der Waals force of attraction
2
CN– : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 (4) Formation of carboxylate ion
= (2py)2,(2pz)2
10  4 Answer ( 2 )
BO = 3
2
S o l . Due to formation of intermolecular H-bonding
CN : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2
in carboxylic acid, association occurs. Hence
= (2py)2,(2pz)1
boiling point increases and become more
9 4
BO =  2.5 than the boiling point of aldehydes, ketones
2 and alcohols of comparable molecular
CN+ : (1s)2, (1s)2, (2s)2,(2s)2, (2px)2 masses.
= (2py)2
31. Compound A, C8H10O, is found to react with
8 4
BO = 2 NaOI (produced by reacting Y with NaOH) and
2
yields a yellow precipitate with characteristic
Hence, option(4) should be the right answer.
smell.
29. In the reaction
A and Y are respectively
OH O–Na+
CHO (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2

+ CHCl3 + NaOH
CH3
The electrophile involved is
(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

 (2) CH3 OH and I2
(2) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 
 

CH – CH3 and I2
(3)
(3) Dichloromethyl anion CHCl2
OH
(4) Formyl cation CHO  

 (4) CH2 – CH2 – OH and I2
7
Answer ( 3 ) Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Option (3) is secondary alcohol which on S o l . For 2nd group hydrides, on moving down the
oxidation gives phenylmethyl ketone group metallic character of metals increases
(Acetophenone). This on reaction with I2 and so ionic character of metal hydride increases.
NaOH form iodoform and sodium benzoate.
Hence the option (1) should be correct option.
2NaOH  I2  NaOI  NaI  H2 O 34. Consider the change in oxidation state of
Bromine corresponding to different emf values
CH – CH3 NaOI
C – CH3 as shown in the diagram below :
OH O – 1.82 V – 1.5 V
Acetophenone BrO4 BrO3 HBrO
(A)
–
I2 Br Br2
COONa + CHI3 NaOH
1.0652 V 1.595 V
Iodoform Then the species undergoing
Sodium benzoate (Yellow PPt)
disproportionation is
32. The correct difference between first and
second order reactions is that (1) BrO3
(1) The rate of a first-order reaction does not
depend on reactant concentrations; the (2) HBrO
rate of a second-order reaction does (3) Br2
depend on reactant concentrations
(4) BrO4
(2) The rate of a first-order reaction does
depend on reactant concentrations; the Answer ( 2 )
rate of a second-order reaction does not
1 0
depend on reactant concentrations o
S o l . HBrO 
 Br2 , EHBrO/Br  1.595 V
2
(3) A first-order reaction can catalyzed; a
second-order reaction cannot be 1 5
 BrO3 , Eo
HBrO   1.5 V
catalyzed BrO3 /HBrO
(4) The half-life of a first-order reaction does
o
not depend on [A] 0 ; the half-life of a Ecell for the disproportionation of HBrO,
second-order reaction does depend on o o
Ecell  EHBrO/Br  Eo
[A]0 2 BrO3 /HBrO
Answer ( 4 ) = 1.595 – 1.5

= 0.095 V = + ve
0.693
Sol.  For first order reaction, t 1/2  , Hence, option (2) is correct answer.
k
35. In which case is number of molecules of
which is independent of initial
water maximum?
concentration of reactant.
(1) 18 mL of water
1
 For second order reaction, t 1/2  , (2) 10–3 mol of water
k[A0 ]
(3) 0.00224 L of water vapours at 1 atm and
which depends on initial concentration of 273 K
reactant.
(4) 0.18 g of water
33. Among CaH2, BeH2, BaH2, the order of ionic
character is Answer ( 1 )
(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g
(2) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 18

Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA
18
(3) BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
= NA
(4) CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
(2) Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–3 NA
8
Answer ( 4 )
0.00224
(3) Moles of water = = 10–4 S o l . BeO < MgO < CaO < BaO
22.4

Molecules of water = mole × NA = 10–4 NA Basic character increases.
0.18 So, the most acidic should be BeO. In fact,
(4) Molecules of water = mole × NA = NA BeO is amphoteric oxide while other given
18
oxides are basic.
= 10–2 NA
39. The difference between amylose and
36. Regarding cross-linked or network polymers, amylopectin is
which of the following statements is
(1) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
incorrect?
1 6 -linkage
(1) They contain covalent bonds between
(2) Amylose is made up of glucose and
various linear polymer chains.
galactose
(2) They contain strong covalents bonds in
their polymer chains. (3) Amylopectin have 1  4 -linkage and
1  6 -linkage
(3) Examples are bakelite and melamine.
(4) They are formed from bi- and tri-functional (4) Amylose have 1  4 -linkage and 1  6
monomers. -linkage
S o l . Cross linked or network polymers are formed S o l . Amylose and Amylopectin are polymers of -
from bi-functional and tri-functional monomers D-glucose, so -link is not possible. Amylose is
and contain strong covalent bonds between linear with 1  4 -linkage whereas
various linear polymer chains, e.g. bakelite, Amylopectin is branched and has both 1  4
melamine etc. Option (2) is not related to and 1  6 -linkages.
cross-linking. So option (1) should be the correct option.
So option (2) should be the correct option.
40. A mixture of 2.3 g formic acid and 4.5 g oxalic
37. Nitration of aniline in strong acidic medium acid is treated with conc. H2SO4. The evolved
also gives m-nitroaniline because gaseous mixture is passed through KOH
(1) Inspite of substituents nitro group always pellets. Weight (in g) of the remaining product
goes to only m-position. at STP will be
(2) In acidic (strong) medium aniline is (1) 1.4 (2) 4.4
present as anilinium ion.
(3) 2.8 (4) 3.0
(3) In absence of substituents nitro group
always goes to m-position. Answer ( 3 )
Conc.H2 SO4
(4) In electrophilic substitution reactions S o l . HCOOH   CO(g)  H2 O(l)
amino group is meta directive.  1  1
2.3 g or  mol  mol
Answer ( 2 )  20  20
Conc.H2SO4
NH2 COOH CO(g) + CO2 (g) + H2O(l)
NH3 1 1
mol mol
COOH 20 20
H  1 
Sol. 4.5 g or  mol 
 20 
Anilinium ion
Gaseous mixture formed is CO and CO2 when
–NH3 is m-directing, hence besides para it is passed through KOH, only CO 2 is
absorbed. So the remaining gas is CO.
(51%) and ortho (2%), meta product (47%) is
also formed in significant yield. So, weight of remaining gaseous product CO
38. Which of the following oxides is most acidic in is
nature? 2
 28  2.8 g
(1) MgO (2) CaO 20
(3) BaO (4) BeO So, the correct option is (3)
9
41. For the redox reaction Answer ( 1 )
MnO4  C2 O24  H 
 Mn2   CO2  H2 O X2 (g); H  x kJ
S o l . A2 (g)  B2 (g)
The correct coefficients of the reactants for
On increasing pressure equilibrium shifts in a
the balanced equation are
direction where pressure decreases i.e.
MnO4 C2 O24 H+ forward direction.
On decreasing temperature, equilibrium shifts
(1) 16 5 2
in exothermic direction i.e., forward direction.
(2) 5 16 2
So, high pressure and low temperature
(3) 2 16 5 favours maximum formation of product.
(4) 2 5 16 44. The bond dissociation energies of X2, Y2 and
Answer ( 4 ) XY are in the ratio of 1 : 0.5 : 1. H for the
Reduction formation of XY is –200 kJ mol–1. The bond
+7 +3 +4
dissociation energy of X2 will be
S o l . MnO4– + C2O42– + H+ 2+
Mn + CO2 + H2O
(1) 200 kJ mol–1
Oxidation (2) 400 kJ mol–1
n-factor of MnO4 5 (3) 800 kJ mol–1
n-factor of C2 O24  2 (4) 100 kJ mol–1
 Answer ( 3 )
Ratio of n-factors of MnO4 and C2 O24 is 5 : 2
So, molar ratio in balanced reaction is 2 : 5 S o l . The reaction for fH°(XY)
 The balanced equation is 1 1

X2 (g)  Y2 (g) 
 XY(g)
2 2
2MnO4  5C2 O24  16H  2Mn2   10CO2  8H2 O
42. The correction factor ‘a’ to the ideal gas X
Bond energies of X2, Y2 and XY are X, , X
equation corresponds to 2
(1) Density of the gas molecules respectively
(2) Forces of attraction between the gas X X
 H      X  200
molecules 2 4
(3) Electric field present between the gas On solving, we get
molecules
X X
(4) Volume of the gas molecules    200  X = 800 kJ/mole
2 4
Answer ( 2 )
45. When initial concentration of the reactant is
2  doubled, the half-life period of a zero order

S o l . In real gas equation,  P  an  (V  nb)  nRT reaction
 V2 

van der Waal’s constant, ‘a’ signifies (1) Is halved
intermolecular forces of attraction. (2) Remains unchanged
43. Which one of the following conditions will (3) Is tripled
favour maximum formation of the product in (4) Is doubled
the reaction,
Answer ( 4 )
X2 (g) r H   X kJ?
A2 (g)  B2 (g) S o l . Half life of zero order
(1) Low temperature and high pressure [A0 ]
t 1/2 
(2) High temperature and low pressure 2K
(3) High temperature and high pressure
t 1/2 will be doubled on doubling the initial
(4) Low temperature and low pressure concentration.
10
46. Which of the following is an occupational S o l . Parietal or oxyntic cell is a source of HCl and
respiratory disorder? intrinsic factor. HCl converts iron present in
diet from ferric to ferrous form so that it can
(1) Anthracis (2) Emphysema
be absorbed easily and used during
(3) Botulism (4) Silicosis erythropoiesis.
Answer ( 4 ) Intrinsic factor is essential for the absorption
S o l . Silicosis is due to excess inhalation of silica of vitamin B 12 and its deficiency causes
dust in the workers involved grinding or stone pernicious anaemia.
breaking industries. 49. Match the items given in Column I with those
Long exposure can give rise to inflammation in Column II and select the correct option
leading to fibrosis and thus causing serious given below :
lung damage. Column I Column II
Anthrax is a serious infectious disease caused
a. Fibrinogen (i) Osmotic balance
by Bacillus anthracis. It commonly affects
domestic and wild animals. Emphysema is a b. Globulin (ii) Blood clotting
chronic disorder in which alveolar walls are c. Albumin (iii) Defence
damaged due to which respiratory surface is mechanism
decreased.
a b c
Botulism is a form of food poisoning caused
by Clostridium botulinum. (1) (iii) (ii) (i)
47. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (2) (ii) (iii) (i)

contraction because it (3) (i) (iii) (ii)
(1) Binds to troponin to remove the masking (4) (i) (ii) (iii)
of active sites on actin for myosin.
Answer ( 2 )
(2) Prevents the formation of bonds between
the myosin cross bridges and the actin S o l . Fibrinogen forms fibrin strands during
filament. coagulation. These strands forms a network
and the meshes of which are occupied by
(3) Detaches the myosin head from the actin
blood cells, this structure finally forms a clot.
filament.
(4) Activates the myosin ATPase by binding Antibodies are derived from -Globulin fraction
to it. of plasma proteins which means globulins are
involved in defence mechanisms.
Answer ( 1 )
Albumin is a plasma protein mainly
Sol.  Signal for contraction increase Ca++ level
responsible for BCOP.
many folds in the sarcoplasm.
50. Which of the following hormones can play a
 Ca++ now binds with sub-unit of troponin
significant role in osteoporosis?
(troponin "C") which is masking the active
site on actin filament and displaces the (1) Aldosterone and Prolactin
sub-unit of troponin. (2) Parathyroid hormone and Prolactin
 Once the active site is exposed, head of (3) Estrogen and Parathyroid hormone
the myosin attaches and initiate (4) Progesterone and Aldosterone
contraction by sliding the actin over
Answer ( 3 )
myosin.
S o l . Estrogen promotes the activity of osteoblast
48. Which of the following gastric cells indirectly
and inhibits osteoclast. In an ageing female
help in erythropoiesis?
osteoporosis occurs due to deficiency of
(1) Chief cells (2) Parietal cells estrogen. Parathormone promotes
mobilisation of calcium from bone into blood.
(3) Goblet cells (4) Mucous cells
Excessive activity of parathormone causes
Answer ( 2 ) demineralisation leading to osteoporosis.
11
51. Which of the following is an amino acid 54. Among the following sets of examples for
derived hormone? divergent evolution, select the incorrect
option :
(1) Epinephrine
(1) Forelimbs of man, bat and cheetah
(2) Estriol (2) Eye of octopus, bat and man
(3) Estradiol (3) Brain of bat, man and cheetah
(4) Ecdysone (4) Heart of bat, man and cheetah
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Divergent evolution occurs in the same
S o l . Epinephrine is derived from tyrosine amino structure, example - forelimbs, heart, brain of
acid by the removal of carboxyl group. It is a vertebrates which have developed along
catecholamine. different directions due to adaptation to
different needs whereas eye of octopus, bat
52. Which of the following structures or regions is
and man are examples of analogous organs
incorrectly paired with its functions?
showing convergent evolution.
(1) Medulla oblongata : controls respiration 55. In which disease does mosquito transmitted
and cardiovascular pathogen cause chronic inflammation of
reflexes. lymphatic vessels?
(2) Corpus callosum : band of fibers (1) Elephantiasis
connecting left and (2) Amoebiasis
right cerebral
(3) Ringworm disease
hemispheres.
(4) Ascariasis
(3) Hypothalamus : production of
Answer ( 1 )
releasing hormones
and regulation of S o l . Elephantiasis is caused by roundworm,
temperature, Wuchereria bancrofti and it is transmitted by
hunger and thirst. Culex mosquito.
56. Which of the following is not an autoimmune
(4) Limbic system : consists of fibre
disease?
tracts that
interconnect (1) Psoriasis
different regions of (2) Vitiligo
brain; controls (3) Alzheimer's disease
movement. (4) Rheumatoid arthritis
S o l . Limbic system is emotional brain. It controls S o l . Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune
all emotions in our body but not movements. disorder in which antibodies are produced
against the synovial membrane and cartilage.
53. The transparent lens in the human eye is held
Vitiligo causes white patches on skin also
in its place by
characterised as autoimmune disorder.
(1) ligaments attached to the ciliary body Psoriasis is a skin disease that causes itchy
(2) smooth muscles attached to the ciliary or sore patches of thick red skin and is also
body autoimmune whereas Alzheimer's disease is
due to deficiency of neurotransmitter
(3) smooth muscles attached to the iris
acetylcholine.
(4) ligaments attached to the iris 57. Conversion of milk to curd improves its
Answer ( 1 ) nutritional value by increasing the amount of
(1) Vitamin D (2) Vitamin E
S o l . Lens in the human eye is held in its place by
suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary (3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin A
body. Answer ( 3 )
12
Sol.  Curd is more nourishing than milk. 61. Which one of these animals is not a
 It has enriched presence of vitamins homeotherm?
specially Vit-B12. (1) Macropus (2) Psittacula
58. Which of the following characteristics (3) Camelus (4) Chelone
represent ‘Inheritance of blood groups’ in
Answer ( 4 )
humans?
S o l . Homeotherm are animals that maintain
a. Dominance
constant body temperature, irrespective of
b. Co-dominance surrounding temperature.
c. Multiple allele Birds and mammals are homeotherm.
d. Incomplete dominance Chelone (Turtle) belongs to class reptilia
e. Polygenic inheritance which is Poikilotherm or cold blood.
(1) b, c and e (2) a, c and e 62. Which of the following features is used to
identify a male cockroach from a female
(3) b, d and e (4) a, b and c
cockroach?
Answer ( 4 )
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the
Sol.  IAIO, IBIO - Dominant–recessive 9th abdominal segment
relationship
(2) Presence of anal cerci
 IAIB - Codominance
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina
 IA, IB & IO - 3-different allelic
(4) Presence of caudal styles
forms of a gene
(multiple allelism) Answer ( 4 )
59. The similarity of bone structure in the S o l . Males bear a pair of short, thread like anal
forelimbs of many vertebrates is an example styles which are absent in females.
of Anal/caudal styles arise from 9th abdominal
(1) Homology segment in male cockroach.
(2) Adaptive radiation 63. Which of the following organisms are known
as chief producers in the oceans?
(3) Convergent evolution
(1) Dinoflagellates
(4) Analogy
(2) Euglenoids
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . In different vertebrates, bones of forelimbs (3) Cyanobacteria
are similar but their forelimbs are adapted in (4) Diatoms
different way as per their adaptation, hence
Answer ( 4 )
example of homology.
S o l . Diatoms are chief producers of the ocean.
60. Which of the following animals does not
undergo metamorphosis? 64. Ciliates differ from all other protozoans in
(1) Earthworm (2) Starfish (1) using flagella for locomotion
(3) Moth (4) Tunicate (2) having two types of nuclei

Answer ( 1 ) (3) using pseudopodia for capturing prey
S o l . Metamorphosis refers to transformation of (4) having a contractile vacuole for removing
larva into adult. excess water
Animal that perform metamorphosis are said Answer ( 2 )
to have indirect development. S o l . Ciliates differs from other protozoans in
In earthworm development is direct which having two types of nuclei.
means no larval stage and hence no eg. Paramoecium have two types of nuclei i.e.
metamorphosis. macronucleus & micronucleus.
13
65. Identify the vertebrate group of animals 68. The contraceptive ‘SAHELI’
characterized by crop and gizzard in its (1) blocks estrogen receptors in the uterus,
digestive system preventing eggs from getting implanted.
(1) Amphibia (2) Osteichthyes (2) is a post-coital contraceptive.
(3) Aves (4) Reptilia (3) is an IUD.
Answer ( 3 ) (4) increases the concentration of estrogen
S o l . The digestive tract of Aves has additional and prevents ovulation in females.
chambers in their digestive system as crop Answer ( 1 )
and Gizzard. S o l . Saheli is the first non-steroidal, once a week
Crop is concerned with storage of food grains. pill. It contains centchroman and its
functioning is based upon selective Estrogen
Gizzard is a masticatory organ in birds used to
Receptor modulation.
crush food grain.
69. The difference between spermiogenesis and
66. The amnion of mammalian embryo is derived
spermiation is
from
(1) In spermiogenesis spermatids are formed,
(1) ectoderm and mesoderm
while in spermiation spermatozoa are
(2) ectoderm and endoderm formed.
(3) mesoderm and trophoblast (2) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
(4) endoderm and mesoderm formed, while in spermiation spermatozoa
are released from sertoli cells into the
Answer ( 1 ) cavity of seminiferous tubules.
S o l . The extraembryonic or foetal membranes are (3) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa from
amnion, chorion, allantois and Yolk sac. sertoli cells are released into the cavity of
Amnion is formed from mesoderm on outer seminiferous tubules, while in spermiation
side and ectoderm on inner side. spermatozoa are formed.
Chorion is formed from trophoectoderm and (4) In spermiogenesis spermatozoa are
mesoderm whereas allantois and Yolk sac formed, while in spermiation spermatids
membrane have mesoderm on outerside and are formed.
endoderm in inner side. Answer ( 2 )
67. Hormones secreted by the placenta to S o l . Spermiogenesis is transformation of
maintain pregnancy are spermatids into spermatozoa whereas
(1) hCG, hPL, progestogens, prolactin spermiation is the release of the sperms from
sertoli cells into the lumen of seminiferous
(2) hCG, progestogens, estrogens, tubule.
glucocorticoids
70. In a growing population of a country,
(3) hCG, hPL, progestogens, estrogens
(1) pre-reproductive individuals are more
(4) hCG, hPL, estrogens, relaxin, oxytocin than the reproductive individuals.
Answer ( 3 ) (2) pre-reproductive individuals are less than
S o l . Placenta releases human chorionic the reproductive individuals.
gonadotropic hormone (hCG) which (3) reproductive and pre-reproductive
stimulates the Corpus luteum during individuals are equal in number.
pregnancy to release estrogen and (4) reproductive individuals are less than the
progesterone and also rescues corpus post-reproductive individuals.
luteum from regression. Human placental
Answer ( 1 )
lactogen (hPL) is involved in growth of body of
mother and breast. Progesterone maintains S o l . Whenever the pre-reproductive individuals or
pregnancy, keeps the uterus silent by the younger population size is larger than the
increasing uterine threshold to contractile reproductive group, the population will be an
stimuli. increasing population.
14
71. Match the items given in Column I with those  It has no effect on Penicillium or the
in Column II and select the correct option organism which produces it.
given below :
74. All of the following are included in ‘ex-situ
Column-I Column-II conservation’ except
a. Eutrophication i. UV-B radiation (1) Wildlife safari parks
b. Sanitary landfill ii. Deforestation
(2) Seed banks
c. Snow blindness iii. Nutrient
enrichment (3) Botanical gardens
d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (4) Sacred groves

a b c d Answer ( 4 )
(1) ii i iii iv Sol.  Sacred groves – in-situ conservation.
(2) i ii iv iii  Represent pristine forest patch as
(3) iii iv i ii protected by Tribal groups.
(4) i iii iv ii 75. Match the items given in Column I with those
Answer ( 3 ) in Column II and select the correct option
given below :
S o l . a. Eutrophication iii. Nutrient
enrichment Column I Column II
b. Sanitary landfill iv. Waste disposal a. Glycosuria i. Accumulation of
c. Snow blindness i. UV-B radiation uric acid in joints
d. Jhum cultivation ii. Deforestation b. Gout ii. Mass of crystallised
salts within the
72. Which part of poppy plant is used to obtain
kidney
the drug “Smack”?
(1) Flowers c. Renal calculi iii. Inflammation in
glomeruli
(2) Leaves
d. Glomerular iv. Presence of in
(3) Roots
nephritis glucose urine
(4) Latex
a b c d
Answer ( 4 )
(1) iii ii iv i
S o l . ‘Smack’ also called as brown sugar/Heroin is
formed by acetylation of morphine. It is (2) iv i ii iii
obtained from the latex of unripe capsule of (3) ii iii i iv
Poppy plant.
(4) i ii iii iv
73. Which one of the following population
interactions is widely used in medical science Answer ( 2 )
for the production of antibiotics? S o l . Glycosuria denotes presence of glucose in the
(1) Commensalism urine. This is observed when blood glucose
(2) Amensalism level rises above 180 mg/100 ml of blood, this
is called renal threshold value for glucose.
(3) Parasitism Gout is due to deposition of uric acid crystals
(4) Mutualism in the joint.
Answer ( 2 ) Renal calculi are precipitates of calcium
S o l . Amensalism/Antibiosis (0, –) phosphate produced in the pelvis of the
kidney.
 Antibiotics are chemicals secreted by one
microbial group (eg : Penicillium) which Glomerular nephritis is the inflammatory
harm other microbes (eg : condition of glomerulus characterised by
Staphylococcus) proteinuria and haematuria.
15
76. Match the items given in Column I with those 78. AGGTATCGCAT is a sequence from the coding
in Column II and select the correct option strand of a gene. What will be the
given below: corresponding sequence of the transcribed
Column I Column II mRNA?
(1) AGGUAUCGCAU
(Function) (Part of Excretory
system) (2) UCCAUAGCGUA
a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop (3) ACCUAUGCGAU

(4) UGGTUTCGCAT
b. Concentration ii. Ureter
Answer ( 1 )
of urine
S o l . Coding strand and mRNA has same nucleotide
c. Transport of iii. Urinary bladder sequence except, ‘T’ – Thymine is replaced by
urine ‘U’–Uracil in mRNA.
d. Storage of iv. Malpighian 79. Match the items given in Column I with those
in Column II and select the correct option
urine corpuscle
given below :
v. Proximal Column I Column II
convoluted tubule a. Proliferative Phase i. Breakdown of
a b c d endometrial
(1) iv v ii iii lining
(2) v iv i iii b. Secretory Phase ii. Follicular Phase
(3) v iv i ii c. Menstruation iii. Luteal Phase
(4) iv i ii iii a b c
(1) iii ii i
Answer ( 4 )
(2) iii i ii
S o l . Ultrafiltration refers to filtration of very fine
(3) ii iii i
particles having molecular weight less than
68,000 daltons through malpighian corpuscle. (4) i iii ii
Concentration of urine refers to water Answer ( 3 )
absorption from glomerular filtrate as a result S o l . During proliferative phase, the follicles start
of hyperosmolarity in the medulla created by developing, hence, called follicular phase.
counter-current mechanism in Henle's loop. Secretory phase is also called as luteal phase
Urine is carried from kidney to bladder mainly controlled by progesterone secreted
through ureter. by corpus luteum. Estrogen further thickens
the endometrium maintained by
Urinary bladder is concerned with storage of
progesterone.
urine.
Menstruation occurs due to decline in
77. A woman has an X-linked condition on one of progesterone level and involves breakdown of
her X chromosomes. This chromosome can be overgrown endometrial lining.
inherited by
80. According to Hugo de Vries, the mechanism
(1) Only daughters of evolution is
(2) Both sons and daughters (1) Multiple step mutations
(3) Only grandchildren (2) Minor mutations
(4) Only sons (3) Phenotypic variations
Answer ( 2 ) (4) Saltation
Sol. • Woman is a carrier Answer ( 4 )
• Both son & daughter inherit S o l . As per mutation theory given by Hugo de
X–chromosome Vries, the evolution is a discontinuous
phenomenon or saltatory phenomenon/
• Although only son be the diseased saltation.
16
81. All of the following are part of an operon 85. Which of the following terms describe human
except dentition?
(1) an operator (1) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Homodont
(2) a promoter (2) Pleurodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
(3) an enhancer (3) Pleurodont, Monophyodont, Homodont
(4) structural genes
(4) Thecodont, Diphyodont, Heterodont
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
Sol. • Enhancer sequences are present in
eukaryotes. S o l . In humans, dentition is
• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.  Thecodont : Teeth are present in the

sockets of the jaw bone called alveoli.
82. Which of the following events does not occur
in rough endoplasmic reticulum?  Diphyodont : Teeth erupts twice,
temporary milk or deciduous teeth are
(1) Protein folding
replaced by a set of permanent or adult
(2) Phospholipid synthesis teeth.
(3) Cleavage of signal peptide  Heterodont dentition : Dentition consists
(4) Protein glycosylation of different types of teeth namely incisors,
canine, premolars and molars.
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Phospholipid synthesis does not take place in 86. Nissl bodies are mainly composed of
RER. Smooth endoplasmic reticulum are (1) Proteins and lipids
involved in lipid synthesis.
(2) Free ribosomes and RER
83. Which of these statements is incorrect?
(3) Nucleic acids and SER
(1) Enzymes of TCA cycle are present in
mitochondrial matrix (4) DNA and RNA
(2) Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in Answer ( 2 )
outer mitochondrial membrane
S o l . Nissl granules are present in the cyton and
(3) Glycolysis operates as long as it is even extend into the dendrite but absent in
supplied with NAD that can pick up axon and rest of the neuron.
hydrogen atoms
Nissl granules are in fact composed of free
(4) Glycolysis occurs in cytosol ribosomes and RER. They are responsible for
Answer ( 2 ) protein synthesis.
S o l . Oxidative phosphorylation takes place in inner 87. Many ribosomes may associate with a single
mitochondrial membrane. mRNA to form multiple copies of a polypeptide
84. Select the incorrect match : simultaneously. Such strings of ribosomes are
termed as
(1) Lampbrush – Diplotene bivalents
(1) Polysome
chromosomes
(2) Nucleosome
(2) Polytene – Oocytes of
chromosomes amphibians (3) Plastidome
(3) Submetacentric – L-shaped (4) Polyhedral bodies
chromosomes chromosomes
Answer ( 1 )
(4) Allosomes – Sex chromosomes
S o l . The phenomenon of association of many
Answer ( 2 ) ribosomes with single m-RNA leads to
S o l . Polytene chromosomes are found in salivary formation of polyribosomes or polysomes or
glands of insects of order Diptera. ergasomes.
17
88. Match the items given in Column I with those S o l . Tidal volume is volume of air inspired or
in Column II and select the correct option expired during normal respiration. It is
given below : approximately 500 mL. Inspiratory reserve
Column I Column II volume is additional volume of air a person
can inspire by a forceful inspiration. It is
a. Tricuspid valve i. Between left atrium
around 2500 – 3000 mL. Expiratory reserve
and left ventricle
volume is additional volume of air a person
b. Bicuspid valve ii. Between right can be expired by a forceful expiration. This
ventricle and averages 1000 – 1100 mL.
pulmonary artery
Residual volume is volume of air remaining in
c. Semilunar valve iii. Between right
lungs even after forceful expiration. This
atrium and right
averages 1100 – 1200 mL.
ventricle
a b c 90. Which of the following options correctly
represents the lung conditions in asthma and
(1) iii i ii
emphysema, respectively?
(2) ii i iii
(1) Inflammation of bronchioles; Decreased
(3) i ii iii respiratory surface
(4) i iii ii (2) Decreased respiratory surface;
Answer ( 1 ) Inflammation of bronchioles
S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present (3) Increased respiratory surface;

between right atrium and right ventricle. Inflammation of bronchioles
Bicuspid valves are AV valve present between (4) Increased number of bronchioles;
left atrium and left ventricle. Semilunar valves Increased respiratory surface
are present at the openings of aortic and
Answer ( 1 )
pulmonary aorta.
S o l . Asthma is a difficulty in breathing causing
89. Match the items given in Column I with those wheezing due to inflammation of bronchi and
in Column II and select the correct option bronchioles. Emphysema is a chronic disorder
given below: in which alveolar walls are damaged due to
which respiratory surface is decreased.
Column I Column II
91. The stage during which separation of the
a. Tidal volume i. 2500 – 3000 mL paired homologous chromosomes begins is
b. Inspiratory Reserve ii. 1100 – 1200 mL (1) Pachytene (2) Zygotene
volume (3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene

Answer ( 4 )
c. Expiratory Reserve iii. 500 – 550 mL
S o l . Synaptonemal complex disintegrates.
volume Terminalisation begins at diplotene stage i.e.
chiasmata start to shift towards end.
d. Residual volume iv. 1000 – 1100 mL
92. Which of the following is true for nucleolus?
a b c d (1) Larger nucleoli are present in dividing
cells
(1) iii ii i iv
(2) It is a site for active ribosomal RNA
(2) iv iii ii i synthesis
(3) It takes part in spindle formation
(3) i iv ii iii
(4) It is a membrane-bound structure
(4) iii i iv ii Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 ) S o l . Nucleolus is a non membranous structure
and is a site of r-RNA synthesis.
18
93. Stomatal movement is not affected by S o l . Sugar is a common term used to denote
(1) Temperature carbohydrate.
(2) CO2 concentration Carbohydrates are polyhydroxy aldehyde,
ketone or their derivatives, which means they
(3) O2 concentration
have carbonyl and hydroxyl groups.
(4) Light
99. A ‘new’ variety of rice was patented by a
Answer ( 3 )
foreign company, though such varieties have
S o l . Light, temperature and concentration of CO2 been present in India for a long time. This is
affect opening and closing of stomata while related to
they are not affected by O2 concentration.
(1) Co-667
94. Which among the following is not a
prokaryote? (2) Basmati
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Oscillatoria (3) Lerma Rojo

(3) Nostoc (4) Mycobacterium (4) Sharbati Sonora
S o l . Saccharomyces i.e. yeast is an eukaryote S o l . In 1997, an American company got patent
(unicellular fungi) rights on Basmati rice through the US patent
Mycobacterium – a bacterium and trademark office that was actually been
derived from Indian farmer’s varieties.
Oscillatoria and Nostoc are cyanobacteria.
The diversity of rice in India is one of the
95. Which of the following is not a product of light
richest in the world, 27 documented varieties
reaction of photosynthesis?
of Basmati are grown in India.
(1) ATP (2) Oxygen
Indian basmati was crossed with semi-dwarf
(3) NADPH (4) NADH
varieties and claimed as an invention or a
Answer ( 4 ) novelty.
S o l . ATP, NADPH and oxygen are products of light
Sharbati Sonora and Lerma Rojo are varieties
reaction, while NADH is a product of
of wheat.
respiration process.
96. Stomata in grass leaf are 100. Select the correct match
(1) Dumb-bell shaped (2) Barrel shaped (1) Ribozyme - Nucleic acid
(3) Rectangular (4) Kidney shaped (2) G. Mendel - Transformation
Answer ( 1 ) (3) T.H. Morgan - Transduction
S o l . Grass being a monocot, has Dumb-bell (4) F2 × Recessive parent - Dihybrid cross
shaped stomata in their leaves. Answer ( 1 )
97. The Golgi complex participates in S o l . Ribozyme is a catalytic RNA, which is nucleic
(1) Fatty acid breakdown acid.
(2) Activation of amino acid 101. Which of the following is commonly used as a
(3) Respiration in bacteria vector for introducing a DNA fragment in
(4) Formation of secretory vesicles human lymphocytes?
Answer ( 4 ) (1) Retrovirus (2) pBR 322
S o l . Golgi complex, after processing releases (3)  phage (4) Ti plasmid
secretory vesicles from their trans-face.
Answer ( 1 )
98. The two functional groups characteristic of
sugars are S o l . Retrovirus is commonly used as vector for
introducing a DNA fragment in human
(1) Hydroxyl and methyl
lymphocyte.
(2) Carbonyl and hydroxyl
Gene therapy : Lymphocyte from blood of
(3) Carbonyl and phosphate
patient are grown in culture outside the body,
(4) Carbonyl and methyl a functional gene is introduced by using a
Answer ( 2 ) retroviral vector, into these lymphocyte.
19
102. In India, the organisation responsible for 105. Winged pollen grains are present in
assessing the safety of introducing
(1) Mustard
genetically modified organisms for public
use is (2) Pinus
(1) Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) (3) Mango
(2) Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee
(4) Cycas
(GEAC)
(3) Research Committee on Genetic Answer ( 2 )
Manipulation (RCGM) S o l . In Pinus, winged pollen grains are present. It
(4) Council for Scientific and Industrial is extended outer exine on two lateral sides to
Research (CSIR) form the wings of pollen. It is the
Answer ( 2 ) characteristic feature, only in Pinus.
S o l . Indian Government has setup organisation Pollen grains of Mustard, Cycas & Mango are
such as GEAC (Genetic Engineering Appraisal not winged shaped.
Committee) which will make decisions
106. After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores
regarding the validity of GM research and
are produced exogenously in
safety of introducing GM-organism for public
services. (Direct from NCERT). (1) Neurospora
103. The correct order of steps in Polymerase (2) Saccharomyces
Chain Reaction (PCR) is
(3) Agaricus
(1) Extension, Denaturation, Annealing
(4) Alternaria
(2) Denaturation, Annealing, Extension
(3) Denaturation, Extension, Annealing Answer ( 3 )
(4) Annealing, Extension, Denaturation Sol.  In Agaricus (a genus of basidiomycetes),
Answer ( 2 ) basidiospores or meiospores are
produced exogenously.
S o l . This technique is used for making multiple
copies of gene (or DNA) of interest in vitro.  Neurospora (a genus of ascomycetes)
Each cycle has three steps produces ascospores as meiospores but
endogenously inside the ascus.)
(i) Denaturation
(ii) Primer annealing  Alternaria (a genus of deuteromycetes)
does not produce sexual spores.
(iii) Extension of primer
 Saccharomyces (Unicellular
104. Use of bioresources by multinational
ascomycetes) produces ascospores,
companies and organisations without
endogenously.
authorisation from the concerned country and
its people is called 107. Which one is wrongly matched?
(1) Bio-infringement (1) Uniflagellate gametes – Polysiphonia
(2) Bioexploitation (2) Unicellular organism – Chlorella
(3) Biodegradation
(3) Gemma cups – Marchantia
(4) Biopiracy
(4) Biflagellate zoospores – Brown algae
Answer ( 4 )
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Biopiracy is term used for or refer to the use
of bioresources by multinational companies Sol. • Polysiphonia is a genus of red algae,
and other organisation without proper where asexual spores and gametes are
authorisation from the countries and people non-motile or non-flagellated.
concerned with compensatory payment • Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly
(definition of biopiracy given in NCERT). matched
20
108. Match the items given in Column I with those 110. Oxygen is not produced during photosynthesis
in Column II and select the correct option by
given below: (1) Green sulphur bacteria
Column I Column II (2) Chara
a. Herbarium (i) It is a place having a (3) Cycas
collection of preserved (4) Nostoc
plants and animals Answer ( 1 )
b. Key (ii) A list that enumerates S o l . Green sulphur bacteria do not use H 2O as
methodically all the source of proton, therefore they do not evolve
species found in an area O2.
with brief description 111. Double fertilization is
aiding identification (1) Fusion of two male gametes of a pollen
c. Museum (iii) Is a place where dried tube with two different eggs
and pressed plant (2) Syngamy and triple fusion
specimens mounted on (3) Fusion of two male gametes with one egg
sheets are kept
(4) Fusion of one male gamete with two polar
d. Catalogue (iv) A booklet containing a nuclei
list of characters and Answer ( 2 )
their alternates which
S o l . Double fertilization is a unique phenomenon
are helpful in
that occur in angiosperms only.
identification of various
taxa. Syngamy + Triple fusion = Double fertilization
112. In which of the following forms is iron
a b c d
absorbed by plants?
(1) (i) (iv) (iii) (ii) (1) Ferric
(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii) (2) Both ferric and ferrous
(3) (ii) (iv) (iii) (i) (3) Free element
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) (4) Ferrous
Answer ( 1 * )
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Iron is absorbed by plants in the form of ferric
Sol. • Herbarium – Dried and pressed plant ions. (According to NCERT)
specimen
*Plants absorb iron in both form i.e. Fe++ and
• Key – Identification of various Fe+++. (Preferably Fe++)
taxa 113. Which of the following elements is responsible
• Museum – Plant and animal for maintaining turgor in cells?
specimen are preserved (1) Magnesium (2) Calcium
• Catalogue – Alphabetical listing of (3) Potassium (4) Sodium
species Answer ( 3 )
109. What is the role of NAD + in cellular S o l . Potassium helps in maintaining turgidity of
respiration? cells.
(1) It functions as an enzyme. 114. Which one of the following plants shows a
very close relationship with a species of moth,
(2) It is the final electron acceptor for
where none of the two can complete its life
anaerobic respiration.
cycle without the other?
(3) It is a nucleotide source for ATP synthesis. (1) Hydrilla (2) Viola
(4) It functions as an electron carrier. (3) Banana (4) Yucca
S o l . In cellular respiration, NAD+ act as an electron S o l . Yucca have an obligate mutualism with a
carrier. species of moth i.e. Pronuba.
21
115. Pollen grains can be stored for several years 119. In stratosphere, which of the following
in liquid nitrogen having a temperature of elements acts as a catalyst in degradation of
ozone and release of molecular oxygen?
(1) –120°C (2) –160°C
(1) Carbon (2) Oxygen
(3) –196°C (4) –80°C
(3) Fe (4) Cl
Answer ( 3 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Pollen grains can be stored for several years
S o l . UV rays act on CFCs, releasing Cl atoms,
in liquid nitrogen at –196°C
chlorine reacts with ozone in sequential
(Cryopreservation)
method converting into oxygen
116. Niche is
Carbon, oxygen and Fe are not related to
(1) all the biological factors in the organism's ozone layer depletion
environment 120. What type of ecological pyramid would be
(2) the functional role played by the organism obtained with the following data?
where it lives Secondary consumer : 120 g
(3) the range of temperature that the Primary consumer : 60 g
organism needs to live
Primary producer : 10 g
(4) the physical space where an organism
(1) Inverted pyramid of biomass
lives
(2) Upright pyramid of biomass
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Upright pyramid of numbers
S o l . Ecological niche was termed by J. Grinnel. It
(4) Pyramid of energy
refers the functional role played by the
organism where it lives. Answer ( 1 )
117. Which of the following is a secondary Sol. • The given data depicts the inverted
pollutant? pyramid of biomass, usually found in
aquatic ecosystem.
(1) CO (2) O3
• Pyramid of energy is always upright
(3) SO2 (4) CO2
• Upright pyramid of biomass and numbers
Answer ( 2 )
are not possible, as the data depicts
S o l . O3 (ozone) is a secondary pollutant. These are primary producer is less than primary
formed by the reaction of primary pollutant. consumer and this is less than secondary
consumers.
CO – Quantitative pollutant
CO2 – Primary pollutant 121. Natality refers to
SO2 – Primary pollutant (1) Death rate

118. World Ozone Day is celebrated on (2) Number of individuals entering a habitat
(1) 5th June (3) Number of individuals leaving the habitat
(2) 22nd April
(4) Birth rate
(3) 16th September
Answer ( 4 )
(4) 21st April
Answer ( 3 ) S o l . Natality refers to birth rate.
S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th • Death rate – Mortality

September.
• Number of individual – Immigration
5th June - World Environment Day entering a habitat is
21st April - National Yellow Bat Day • Number of individual – Emigration
22nd April - National Earth Day leaving the habital
22
122. Which of the following has proved helpful in 125. Which of the following flowers only once in its
preserving pollen as fossils? life-time?
(1) Pollenkitt (2) Sporopollenin (1) Bamboo species
(3) Oil content (4) Cellulosic intine (2) Papaya
Answer ( 2 ) (3) Mango
S o l . Sporopollenin cannot be degraded by
(4) Jackfruit
enzyme; strong acids and alkali, therefore it is
helpful in preserving pollen as fossil. Answer ( 1 )
Pollenkitt – Help in insect pollination. S o l . Bamboo species are monocarpic i.e., flower
Cellulosic Intine – Inner sporoderm layer of generally only once in its life-time after 50-
pollen grain known as intine made up 100 years.
cellulose & pectin. Jackfruit, papaya and mango are polycarpic
Oil content – No role is pollen preservation. i.e., produce flowers and fruits many times in
their life-time.
123. Which of the following pairs is wrongly
matched? 126. Select the correct statement
(1) Starch synthesis in pea : Multiple alleles (1) Franklin Stahl coined the term ‘‘linkage’’
(2) T.H. Morgan : Linkage (2) Transduction was discovered by S. Altman
(3) XO type sex : Grasshopper (3) Spliceosomes take part in translation
determination (4) Punnett square was developed by a British
(4) ABO blood grouping : Co-dominance scientist
S o l . Starch synthesis in pea is controlled by S o l . Punnett square was developed by a British
pleiotropic gene. geneticist, Reginald C. Punnett.
Other options (2, 3 & 4) are correctly – Franklin Stahl proved semi-conservative
matched.
mode of replication.
124. Select the correct match
– Transduction was discovered by Zinder
(1) Alec Jeffreys - Streptococcus and Laderberg.
pneumoniae – Spliceosome formation is part of post-
(2) Francois Jacob and - Lac operon transcriptional change in Eukaryotes
Jacques Monod 127. Offsets are produced by
(3) Matthew Meselson - Pisum sativum (1) Meiotic divisions
and F. Stahl (2) Parthenogenesis
(4) Alfred Hershey and - TMV (3) Parthenocarpy
Martha Chase
(4) Mitotic divisions
Answer ( 2 )
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod proposed
model of gene regulation known as operon S o l . Offset is a vegetative part of a plant, formed
by mitosis.
model/lac operon.
– Alec Jeffreys – DNA fingerprinting – Meiotic divisions do not occur in somatic
technique. cells.
– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- – Parthenogenesis is the formation of

conservative DNA replication in E. coli. embryo from ovum or egg without
fertilisation.
– Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase –
Proved DNA as genetic material not – Parthenocarpy is the fruit formed without
protein fertilisation, (generally seedless)
23
128. The experimental proof for semiconservative Sol.  Halophytes like mangrooves have
replication of DNA was first shown in a pneumatophores.
(1) Fungus (2) Virus  Apogeotropic (–vely geotropic) roots
(3) Plant (4) Bacterium having lenticels called pneumathodes to
uptake O2.
Answer ( 4 )
S o l . Semi-conservative DNA replication was first 133. Sweet potato is a modified
shown in Bacterium Escherichia coli by (1) Stem
Matthew Meselson and Franklin Stahl.
(2) Rhizome
129. Select the wrong statement :
(1) Cell wall is present in members of Fungi (3) Tap root
and Plantae (4) Adventitious root
(2) Mitochondria are the powerhouse of the
Answer ( 4 )
cell in all kingdoms except Monera
(3) Pseudopodia are locomotory and feeding S o l . Sweet potato is a modified adventitious root
structures in Sporozoans for storage of food
(4) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes • Rhizomes are underground modified stem

Answer ( 3 ) • Tap root is primary root directly elongated
S o l . Pseudopodia are locomotory structures in from the redicle
sarcodines (Amoeboid) 134. Secondary xylem and phloem in dicot stem
130. Casparian strips occur in are produced by
(1) Epidermis (2) Endodermis (1) Apical meristems
(3) Cortex (4) Pericycle (2) Axillary meristems
Answer ( 2 )
(3) Phellogen
Sol. • Endodermis have casparian strip on radial
and inner tangential wall. (4) Vascular cambium
• It is suberin rich. Answer ( 4 )

131. Which of the following statements is correct? Sol. • Vascular cambium is partially secondary
(1) Ovules are not enclosed by ovary wall in • Form secondary xylem towards its inside
gymnosperms and secondary phloem towards outsides.
(2) Stems are usually unbranched in both
• 4 – 10 times more secondary xylem is
Cycas and Cedrus
produced than secondary phloem.
(3) Horsetails are gymnosperms
135. Plants having little or no secondary growth
(4) Selaginella is heterosporous, while
are
Salvinia is homosporous
Answer ( 1 ) (1) Grasses
Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. (2) Cycads

• Called phanerogams without womb/ovary (3) Conifers
132. Pneumatophores occur in (4) Deciduous angiosperms
(1) Halophytes
Answer ( 1 )
(2) Submerged hydrophytes
S o l . Grasses are monocots and monocots usually
(3) Carnivorous plants do not have secondary growth.
(4) Free-floating hydrophytes
Palm like monocots have anomalous
Answer ( 1 ) secondary growth.
24
136. The power radiated by a black body is P and For wire 2,

it radiates maximum energy at wavelength, 0.
F l
If the temperature of the black body is now Y
changed so that it radiates maximum energy 3A l
3  F 
at wavelength  0 , the power radiated by it  l   l …(ii)
4  3AY 
becomes nP. The value of n is
From equation (i) & (ii),
3 81  F   F 
(1) (2) l  
4 256 AY  3l   3AY  l
   
256 4  F  9F
(3) (4)
81 3
138. A sample of 0.1 g of water at 100°C and
Answer ( 3 )
normal pressure (1.013 × 105 Nm–2) requires
S o l . We know, 54 cal of heat energy to convert to steam at
100°C. If the volume of the steam produced is
max T  constant (Wien's law)
167.1 cc, the change in internal energy of the
sample, is
So, max1 T1  max2 T2
(1) 104.3 J (2) 84.5 J
3 0 (3) 42.2 J (4) 208.7 J
 0 T  T
4
Answer ( 4 )
4
 T  T S o l . Q = U + W
3
4 4
 54 × 4.18 = U + 1.013 × 105(167.1 × 10–6 – 0)
P  T  4 256
So, 2         U = 208.7 J
P1  T  3 81
139. A small sphere of radius 'r' falls from rest in a
137. Two wires are made of the same material and
viscous liquid. As a result, heat is produced
have the same volume. The first wire has
due to viscous force. The rate of production of
cross-sectional area A and the second wire
heat when the sphere attains its terminal
has cross-sectional area 3A. If the length of
velocity, is proportional to
the first wire is increased by l on applying a
force F, how much force is needed to stretch (1) r3 (2) r4
the socond wire by the same amount? (3) r5 (4) r2
(1) 9 F Answer ( 3 )
(2) F 2
S o l . Power = 6 rVT iVT  6 rVT
(3) 4 F
VT  r 2
(4) 6 F
 Power  r 5
Answer ( 1 )
140. An electron falls from rest through a vertical
S o l . Wire 1 :
distance h in a uniform and vertically upward
F directed electric field E. The direction of
A, 3l
electric field is now reversed, keeping its
Wire 2 : magnitude the same. A proton is allowed to
fall from rest in it through the same vertical
F distance h. The time of fall of the electron, in
3A, l
comparison to the time of fall of the proton is
For wire 1,
(1) Smaller (2) Equal
 F  (3) 10 times greater (4) 5 times greater
l    3l …(i)
 AY  Answer ( 1 )
25
1 eE 2 (1) 330 m/s (2) 300 m/s

Sol. h  t
2 m (3) 350 m/s (4) 339 m/s
2hm Answer ( 4 )
 t
eE
S o l . v = 2 () [L2 – L1]
 t  m as ‘e’ is same for electron and = 2 × 320 [73 – 20] × 10–2
proton.
= 339.2 ms–1
∵ Electron has smaller mass so it will take
smaller time. = 339 m/s
141. A pendulum is hung from the roof of a 144. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy
sufficiently high building and is moving freely of an electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen
to and fro like a simple harmonic oscillator. atom, is
The acceleration of the bob of the pendulum (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : –2
is 20 m/s2 at a distance of 5 m from the mean
(3) 2 : –1 (4) 1 : –1
position. The time period of oscillation is
(1) 2 s (2) 1 s Answer ( 4 )
(3) 2 s (4)  s S o l . KE = –(total energy)

Answer ( 4 ) So, Kinetic energy : total energy = 1 : –1
S o l . |a| = 2y 145. When the light of frequency 20 (where 0 is
 20 = 2(5) threshold frequency), is incident on a metal
plate, the maximum velocity of electrons
  = 2 rad/s
emitted is v 1 . When the frequency of the
2 2 incident radiation is increased to 5 0, the
T  s
 2 maximum velocity of electrons emitted from
142. The electrostatic force between the metal the same plate is v2. The ratio of v1 to v2 is
plates of an isolated parallel plate capacitor
(1) 1 : 2
C having a charge Q and area A, is
(2) 2 : 1
(1) Independent of the distance between the
plates (3) 4 : 1
(2) Inversely proportional to the distance (4) 1 : 4
between the plates
Answer ( 1 )
(3) Proportional to the square root of the
distance between the plates 1
S o l . E  W0  mv2
(4) Linearly proportional to the distance 2
between the plates 1
h(20 )  h0  mv12
Answer ( 1 ) 2
S o l . For isolated capacitor Q = Constant 1
2
h 0  mv12 …(i)
Q 2
Fplate 
2A0 1
h(50 )  h0  mv22
F is Independent of the distance between 2
plates. 1
4h0  mv22 …(ii)
143. A tuning fork is used to produce resonance in 2
a glass tube. The length of the air column in
Divide (i) by (ii),
this tube can be adjusted by a variable piston.
At room temperature of 27ºC two successive 1 v12
resonances are produced at 20 cm and 73 cm 
4 v22
of column length. If the frequency of the
tuning fork is 320 Hz, the velocity of sound in v1 1

air at 27ºC is v2 2
26
146. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10  eE0 

minutes. If initially there are 600 number of V   V0  t
 m 
nuclei, the time taken (in minutes) for the
h h
disintegration of 450 nuclei is So,   
mV  eE 
(1) 20 (2) 15 m  V0  0 t
 m 
(3) 30 (4) 10
h 0
Answer ( 1 )   …(ii)
 eE0   eE0 
mV0 1  t 1  t
S o l . Number of nuclei remaining = 600 – 450 = 150  mV0   mV0 
n Divide (ii) by (i),
N  1

N0  2  0

t  eE0 
150  1  t 1/2 1  t
  mV0 
600  2 
148. An inductor 20 mH, a capacitor 100 F and a
2
t resistor 50  are connected in series across
 1  1  t 1/2
2  2 a source of emf, V = 10 sin 314 t. The power
    loss in the circuit is
t = 2t1/2 = 2 × 10 (1) 0.79 W (2) 1.13 W
= 20 minute (3) 2.74 W (4) 0.43 W
147. An electron of mass m with an initial velocity Answer ( 1 )
 2
V  V0 î (V 0 > 0) enters an electric field V 
S o l . Pav   RMS  R
 Z 

E  –E0 î (E0 = constant > 0) at t = 0. If 0 is its  1 
2
Z  R2   L   56 
de-Broglie wavelength initially, then its de-  C 
Broglie wavelength at time t is
2
 
0 10 
 Pav    50  0.79 W
 
(1)  2 56 
 eE0 
1 t  
 mV0  149. A metallic rod of mass per unit length
(2) 0 0.5 kg m–1 is lying horizontally on a smooth
inclined plane which makes an angle of 30°
(3) 0t with the horizontal. The rod is not allowed to
 eE0  slide down by flowing a current through it
(4) 0  1  t when a magnetic field of induction 0.25 T is
 mV0  acting on it in the vertical direction. The
Answer ( 1 ) current flowing in the rod to keep it stationary
S o l . Initial de-Broglie wavelength is
(1) 7.14 A (2) 11.32 A
h
0  ...(i) (3) 14.76 A (4) 5.98 A
mV0
Answer ( 2 )
E0
S o l . For equilibrium, °
F
V0 B 30
mg sin30  Il Bcos 30 s
co
llB
Acceleration of electron mg
I tan30 ° 30° llB
lB 30
eE0 n
a si
m 0.5  9.8 g
  11.32 A m 30°
Velocity after time ‘t’ 0.25  3
27
150. A thin diamagnetic rod is placed vertically 153. The kinetic energies of a planet in an
between the poles of an electromagnet. When elliptical orbit about the Sun, at positions A, B
the current in the electromagnet is switched and C are KA, KB and KC, respectively. AC is
on, then the diamagnetic rod is pushed up, out the major axis and SB is perpendicular to AC
of the horizontal magnetic field. Hence the at the position of the Sun S as shown in the
rod gains gravitational potential energy. The figure. Then
work required to do this comes from
(1) The current source B
(2) The induced electric field due to the
A C
changing magnetic field S
(3) The lattice structure of the material of the
rod
(1) KA < KB < KC (2) KB > KA > KC
(4) The magnetic field
(3) KB < KA < KC (4) KA > KB > KC
Answer ( 1 )
S o l . Energy of current source will be converted Answer ( 4 )
into potential energy of the rod. Sol. B
VC
151. Current sensitivity of a moving coil perihelion
galvanometer is 5 div/mA and its voltage A C
S
sensitivity (angular deflection per unit voltage aphelion
applied) is 20 div/V. The resistance of the VA
galvanometer is Point A is perihelion and C is aphelion.
(1) 40  (2) 500  So, VA > VB > VC
(3) 250  (4) 25 
So, KA > KB > KC
Answer ( 3 )
154. If the mass of the Sun were ten times smaller
S o l . Current sensitivity
and the universal gravitational constant were
NBA
IS  ten times larger in magnitude, which of the
C following is not correct?
Voltage sensitivity
(1) Raindrops will fall faster
NBA
VS  (2) ‘g’ on the Earth will not change
CRG
So, resistance of galvanometer (3) Time period of a simple pendulum on the
I 51 5000 Earth would decrease
RG  S  3
  250 
VS 20  10 20 (4) Walking on the ground would become
152. A solid sphere is in rolling motion. In rolling more difficult
motion a body possesses translational kinetic Answer ( 2 )
energy (K t ) as well as rotational kinetic
S o l . If Universal Gravitational constant becomes
energy (K r ) simultaneously. The ratio
ten times, then G = 10 G
Kt : (Kt + Kr) for the sphere is
(1) 7 : 10 (2) 2 : 5 So, acceleration due to gravity increases.
(3) 10 : 7 (4) 5 : 7 i.e. (2) is wrong option.
Answer ( 4 ) 155. A solid sphere is rotating freely about its
1 symmetry axis in free space. The radius of the
S o l . Kt  mv 2 sphere is increased keeping its mass same.
2
2 Which of the following physical quantities
1 1 1 1 2  v 
Kt  Kr  mv2  I2  mv2   mr 2   would remain constant for the sphere?
2 2 2 25  r 
(1) Angular velocity
7
 mv2 (2) Angular momentum
10
Kt 5 (3) Rotational kinetic energy
So, 
Kt  Kr 7 (4) Moment of inertia
28
S o l . ex = 0

S o l . Angular width 
dL d
So, 0
dt
i.e. L = constant 
0.20  …(i)
So angular momentum remains constant. 2 mm
156. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a


plane surface of a material of refractive index 0.21  …(ii)
''. At a particular angle of incidence 'i', it is d
found that the reflected and refracted rays are
perpendicular to each other. Which of the 0.20 d
following options is correct for this situation? Dividing we get, 0.21  2 mm
(1) Reflected light is polarised with its

 d = 1.9 mm
electric vector parallel to the plane of
incidence 158. An astronomical refracting telescope will
have large angular magnification and high
 1
(2) i  tan1   angular resolution, when it has an objective
 lens of
 1
(3) i  sin1   (1) Small focal length and large diameter

(2) Small focal length and small diameter
(4) Reflected light is polarised with its
electric vector perpendicular to the plane (3) Large focal length and large diameter
of incidence (4) Large focal length and small diameter
S o l . When reflected light rays and refracted rays
are perpendicular, reflected light is polarised f0
S o l . For telescope, angular magnification =
with electric field vector perpendicular to the fE
plane of incidence.
So, focal length of objective lens should be
large.
i D
Angular resolution = should be large.
1.22
So, objective should have large focal length


(f0) and large diameter D.
159. A carbon resistor of (47 ± 4.7) k is to be
Also, tan i =  (Brewster angle) marked with rings of different colours for its
identification. The colour code sequence will
157. In Young's double slit experiment the
be
separation d between the slits is 2 mm, the
wavelength  of the light used is 5896 Å and (1) Violet – Yellow – Orange – Silver
distance D between the screen and slits is
(2) Green – Orange – Violet – Gold
100 cm. It is found that the angular width of
the fringes is 0.20°. To increase the fringe (3) Yellow – Green – Violet – Gold
angular width to 0.21° (with same  and D) the (4) Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
separation between the slits needs to be
changed to Answer ( 4 )
(1) 1.8 mm (2) 1.7 mm S o l . (47 ± 4.7) k = 47 × 103 ± 10%
(3) 2.1 mm (4) 1.9 mm  Yellow – Violet – Orange – Silver
29
160. A set of 'n' equal resistors, of value 'R' each, 162. A body initially at rest and sliding along a
are connected in series to a battery of emf 'E' frictionless track from a height h (as shown in
and internal resistance 'R'. The current drawn the figure) just completes a vertical circle of
is I. Now, the 'n' resistors are connected in diameter AB = D. The height h is equal to
parallel to the same battery. Then the current
drawn from battery becomes 10 I. The value of
'n' is
h B
(1) 10 (2) 9
(3) 20 (4) 11
Answer ( 1 ) A
E 3 5
Sol. I  ...(i) D D
nR  R (1)
2
(2)
4
E
10 I  ...(ii)
R 7
R (3) D (4) D
n 5
Dividing (ii) by (i),
Answer ( 2 )
(n  1)R
10 
1  Sol.
 n  1 R
 
After solving the equation, n = 10 h
B
161. A battery consists of a variable number 'n' of
identical cells (having internal resistance 'r' vL
each) which are connected in series. The A
terminals of the battery are short-circuited As track is frictionless, so total mechanical
and the current I is measured. Which of the energy will remain constant
graphs shows the correct relationship T.M.EI =T.M.EF
between I and n?
1
0  mgh  mvL2  0
2
I I
vL2
h
(1) (2) 2g
O O For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR

n n
5gR 5 5
h  R D
I I 2g 2 4
(3) (4) 163. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin

circular disk) and C : (a circular ring), each
O O have the same mass M and radius R. They all
n n
Answer ( 1 ) spin with the same angular speed  about
their own symmetry axes. The amounts of
n 
Sol. I   work (W) required to bring them to rest, would
nr r satisfy the relation
So, I is independent of n and I is constant.
(1) WC > WB > WA
 I
(2) WA > WC > WB
(3) WB > WA > WC
(4) WA > WB > WC
O Answer ( 1 )
n
30
S o l . Work done required to bring them rest S o l . According to law of conservation of linear
momentum,
W = KE
mv  4m  0  4mv  0
1 2 v
W  I v 
2 4
v
W  I for same 
Relative velocity of separation 4
e 
Relative velocity of approach v
2 1
WA : WB : WC  MR2 : MR2 : MR2
5 2 1
e  0.25
4
2 1 166. An em wave is propagating in a medium with
= : :1 
5 2 a velocity V  Viˆ . The instantaneous
oscillating electric field of this em wave is
= 4 : 5 : 10
along +y axis. Then the direction of oscillating
 WC > WB > WA magnetic field of the em wave will be along
164. Which one of the following statements is (1) –z direction (2) –x direction
incorrect? (3) –y direction (4) +z direction
(1) Rolling friction is smaller than sliding Answer ( 4 )
friction.   
Sol. E  B  V
(2) Coefficient of sliding friction has

dimensions of length. ˆ  (B)  Viˆ
(Ej)
(3) Frictional force opposes the relative 
motion. So, B  Bkˆ
Direction of propagation is along +z direction.
(4) Limiting value of static friction is directly
proportional to normal reaction. 167. The refractive index of the material of a
prism is 2 and the angle of the prism is 30°.
Answer ( 2 )
One of the two refracting surfaces of the
S o l . Coefficient of sliding friction has no prism is made a mirror inwards, by silver
dimension. coating. A beam of monochromatic light
entering the prism from the other face will
f = sN
retrace its path (after reflection from the
silvered surface) if its angle of incidence on
f
 s  the prism is
N
(1) 60° (2) Zero
165. A moving block having mass m, collides with (3) 30° (4) 45°
another stationary block having mass 4m. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision. Answer ( 4 )
When the initial velocity of the lighter block is S o l . For retracing its path, light ray should be
v, then the value of coefficient of restitution normally incident on silvered face.
(e) will be
(1) 0.5 30°
(2) 0.4 M 60°

i 30°
(3) 0.8
(4) 0.25
Answer ( 4 )  2
31
Applying Snell's law at M, 1 1 1

 
f v1 u
sin i 2

sin30 1 1 1 1
–  –
15 v1 40
1
 sin i  2 
2 1 1 1
  
v1 –15 40
1
sin i  i.e. i = 45°
2 v1 = –24 cm
168. The magnetic potential energy stored in a When object is displaced by 20 cm towards
certain inductor is 25 mJ, when the current in mirror.
the inductor is 60 mA. This inductor is of Now,
inductance
u2 = –20
(1) 0.138 H
1 1 1
(2) 13.89 H  
f v2 u2
(3) 1.389 H
(4) 138.88 H 1 1 1
 –
–15 v2 20
Answer ( 2 )
S o l . Energy stored in inductor 1 1 1
 –
1 2 v2 20 15
U Ll
2 v2 = –60 cm
1
25  10 –3   L  (60  10 –3 )2 So, image shifts away from mirror by
2 = 60 – 24 = 36 cm.
25  2  106  10–3
L 170. In the circuit shown in the figure, the input
3600 voltage Vi is 20 V, VBE = 0 and VCE = 0. The
500 values of IB, IC and  are given by

36
20 V
= 13.89 H
169. An object is placed at a distance of 40 cm RC 4 k
from a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. C
If the object is displaced through a distance RB
Vi
of 20 cm towards the mirror, the 500 k B
displacement of the image will be E
(1) 30 cm away from the mirror

(2) 36 cm towards the mirror
(3) 30 cm towards the mirror (1) IB = 40 A, IC = 10 mA,  = 250
(4) 36 cm away from the mirror (2) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125
Answer ( 4 ) (3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250
Sol. (4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200

f = 15 cm Answer ( 2 )
O 40 cm
S o l . VBE = 0
VCE = 0
Vb = 0
32
20 V A
Sol. A AB
IC RC = 4 k B
B Y
RB A
Vi Vb
Ib 500 k AB
B
Y  (A  B  A  B)
173. A toy car with charge q moves on a
(20  0) frictionless horizontal plane surface under
IC 
4  103 the influence of a uniform
electric field E .
IC = 5 × 10–3 = 5 mA Due to the force q E , its velocity increases
Vi = VBE + IBRB from 0 to 6 m/s in one second duration. At
that instant the direction of the field is
Vi = 0 + IBRB reversed. The car continues to move for two
20 = IB × 500 × 103 more seconds under the influence of this field.
The average velocity and the average speed
20
IB   40 A of the toy car between 0 to 3 seconds are
500  103
respectively
IC 25  103
   125 (1) 2 m/s, 4 m/s (2) 1.5 m/s, 3 m/s
Ib 40  106
(3) 1 m/s, 3.5 m/s (4) 1 m/s, 3 m/s
171. In a p-n junction diode, change in temperature
due to heating Answer ( 4 )
(1) Affects only reverse resistance Sol. t = 0 a t=1 –a
t=2
(2) Affects the overall V - I characteristics of A –1 B
v=0 v = 6 ms v=0
p-n junction C
t=3 –a
(3) Does not affect resistance of p-n junction
–1
v = –6 ms
(4) Affects only forward resistance
Answer ( 2 ) 60
Acceleration a   6 ms2
S o l . Due to heating, number of electron-hole pairs 1
will increase, so overall resistance of diode For t = 0 to t = 1 s,
will change.
1
Due to which forward biasing and reversed S1   6(1)2 = 3 m ...(i)
biasing both are changed. 2
172. In the combination of the following gates the For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,

output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
1
and B as S2  6.1   6(1)2  3 m ...(ii)
2
A
For t = 2 s to t = 3 s,
B
Y 1
S3  0   6(1)2  3 m ...(iii)
2
Total displacement S = S1 + S2 + S3 = 3 m
(1) A  B
3
Average velocity   1 ms 1
(2) A  B 3
(3) A  B  A  B Total distance travelled = 9 m
(4) A  B  A  B 9
Average speed   3 ms 1
Answer ( 4 ) 3
33
174. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth S o l . Diameter of the ball

inclined wedge ABC of inclination  as shown = MSR + CSR × (Least count) – Zero error
in the figure. The wedge is given an
acceleration 'a' towards the right. The = 0.5 cm + 25 × 0.001 – (–0.004)
relation between a and  for the block to = 0.5 + 0.025 + 0.004
remain stationary on the wedge is = 0.529 cm
A
176. The moment of the force, F  4iˆ  5 ˆj  6kˆ at
m
(2, 0, –3), about the point (2, –2, –2), is given
by
a
 (1) 8iˆ  4 ˆj  7kˆ (2) 7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
C B
(3) 7iˆ  8ˆj  4kˆ (4) 4iˆ  ˆj  8kˆ
g
(1) a  (2) a = g tan 
cosec  Answer ( 2 )
Sol. Y
g
(3) a = g cos  (4) a 
sin 
Answer ( 2 ) F
Sol. N cos A r  r0
P
N
r0
r

ma N sin
O X
(pseudo) 

  (r  r0 )  F ...(i)
ˆ  (2iˆ  2 ˆj  2k)
ˆ
mg 
a r  r0  (2iˆ  0ˆj  3k)
In non-inertial frame,  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ

N sin  = ma ...(i) î ˆj kˆ

N cos  = mg ...(ii)   0 2 1  7iˆ  4 ˆj  8kˆ
4 5 6
a
tan  
g 177. The volume (V) of a monatomic gas varies
with its temperature (T), as shown in the
a = g tan  graph. The ratio of work done by the gas, to
175. A student measured the diameter of a small the heat absorbed by it, when it undergoes a
steel ball using a screw gauge of least count change from state A to state B, is
0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
zero of circular scale division coincides with
25 divisions above the reference level. If
screw gauge has a zero error of –0.004 cm,
the correct diameter of the ball is
(1) 0.521 cm
(2) 0.529 cm 2 2
(1) (2)
(3) 0.053 cm 5 7
(4) 0.525 cm 1 2
(3) (4)
Answer ( 2 ) 3 3
34
Answer ( 1 ) 179. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

between the freezing point and boiling point of
S o l . Given process is isobaric
water, is
dQ  n Cp dT (1) 26.8%
(2) 12.5%
5 
dQ  n  R  dT (3) 6.25%
2 
(4) 20%
dW  P dV = n RdT
Answer ( 1 )
dW nRdT 2 T 
Required ratio    
dQ 5  5 S o l . Efficiency of ideal heat engine,    1 2 
n  R  dT  T1 
2 
T2 : Sink temperature
178. The fundamental frequency in an open organ T1 : Source temperature
pipe is equal to the third harmonic of a closed
organ pipe. If the length of the closed organ  T 
%   1  2   100
pipe is 20 cm, the length of the open organ  T1 
pipe is
 273 
(1) 13.2 cm   1   100
 373 
(2) 16 cm
 100 
   100  26.8%
(3) 12.5 cm  373 
(4) 8 cm 180. At what temperature will the rms speed of
oxygen molecules become just sufficient for
Answer ( 1 )
escaping from the Earth's atmosphere?
S o l . For closed organ pipe, third harmonic
(Given :
3v Mass of oxygen molecule (m) = 2.76 × 10–26 kg

4l
Boltzmann's constant kB = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1)
For open organ pipe, fundamental frequency (1) 2.508 × 104 K (2) 1.254 × 104 K
v (3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 8.360 × 104 K


2l  Answer ( 4 )
Given, S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s
3v v Say at temperature T it attains Vescape


4 l 2l  3kB T
So,  11200 m/s
4l 2l mO2
 l  
32 3
On solving,
2  20
  13.33 cm
3 T = 8.360 × 104 K

35

NEET 2018 Aakash Solution Code QQ

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DATE : 06/05/2018 Test Booklet Code

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005

1. Which of the following statements is not true 5 2 0 –3

F (2) C2H5OH, C2H5ONa, C2H5Cl

(1) HNO3, NO, N2, NH4Cl C2H5Cl

Answer ( 1 ) So the correct option is (2)

(1) N2O5 Sol. • Coagulation of colloidal solution by using

c. Fe3+ S o l . Ni(28) : [Ar]3d8 4s2

S o l . CrO42–  Cr6+ = [Ar] (4) , ,

AlCl3 (Zwitterion form)

(4) – NR2 < – OR < – F (3) The electronic configuration of N atom is

Answer ( 1 * ) 1s2 2s2 2px 2py 2pz

S o l . –I effect increases on increasing

S o l . It is Reimer-Tiemann reaction. The electrophile

CHO (1) H3C CH2 – OH and I2

(1) Dichloromethyl cation CHCl2  

(2) Dichlorocarbene : CCl2 

(4) Formyl cation CHO  

Answer ( 4 ) = 1.595 – 1.5

(1) BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2 S o l . (1) Mass of water = 18 × 1 = 18 g

(2) BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2 18

41. For the redox reaction Answer ( 1 )

 The balanced equation is 1 1

47. Calcium is important in skeletal muscle (2) (ii) (iii) (i)

(1) Earthworm (2) Starfish (1) using flagella for locomotion

(3) Moth (4) Tunicate (2) having two types of nuclei

d. Jhum cultivation iv. Waste disposal (4) Sacred groves

a. Ultrafiltration i. Henle's loop (3) ACCUAUGCGAU

• Operon concept is for prokaryotes.  Thecodont : Teeth are present in the

S o l . Tricuspid valves are AV valve present (3) Increased respiratory surface;

volume (3) Diakinesis (4) Diplotene

(1) Saccharomyces (2) Oscillatoria (3) Lerma Rojo

SO2 – Primary pollutant (1) Death rate

S o l . World Ozone day is celebrated on 16 th • Death rate – Mortality

– Matthew Meselson and F. Stahl – Semi- – Parthenogenesis is the formation of

(4) Mushrooms belong to Basidiomycetes • Rhizomes are underground modified stem

• It is suberin rich. Answer ( 4 )

Sol. • Gymnosperms have naked ovule. (2) Cycads

136. The power radiated by a black body is P and For wire 2,

1 eE 2 (1) 330 m/s (2) 300 m/s

(3) 2 s (4)  s S o l . KE = –(total energy)

146. For a radioactive material, half-life is 10  eE0 

156. Unpolarised light is incident from air on a

(1) Reflected light is polarised with its

So, objective should have large focal length

O O For completing the vertical circle, vL  5gR

(3) (4) 163. Three objects, A : (a solid sphere), B : (a thin

(1) 0.5 30°

(2) 0.4 M 60°

Applying Snell's law at M, 1 1 1

(1) 30 cm away from the mirror

(4) 36 cm away from the mirror (2) IB = 40 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 125

Answer ( 4 ) (3) IB = 20 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 250

Sol. (4) IB = 25 A, IC = 5 mA,  = 200

172. In the combination of the following gates the For t = 1 s to t = 2 s,

(3) A  B  A  B Total distance travelled = 9 m

174. A block of mass m is placed on a smooth S o l . Diameter of the ball

In non-inertial frame,  0iˆ  2 ˆj  kˆ

Answer ( 1 ) 179. The efficiency of an ideal heat engine working

v (3) 5.016 × 104 K (4) 8.360 × 104 K

Given, S o l . Vescape = 11200 m/s

3v v Say at temperature T it attains Vescape