Q.
1) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct : Trade restrictions can be
imposed by parliament to safeguard public
interest howeve, no discrimination can be made
between states while imposing restrictions .
o The free flow of trade, commerce, and
intercourse within and across inter-State
borders is an important prerequisite for
ensuring economic unity, stability, and
prosperity in a two-tier polity country.
o The Indian Constitution includes provisions that
guarantee freedom of inter-state trade and
commerce throughout India's territory.
● Statement 2 is incorrect : The State legislature
can impose reasonable restrictions on the
freedom afforded by Art 301 to safeguard public
interests. A bill for this purpose can be introduced
in the legislature only after prior
recommendation of the president .
Q.2) Ans: b
Exp:
● Article 1 of the Indian Constitution declares that
India, that is, Bharat is a Union of states and not
federation of states. This article deals with two
things - Name of the country and type of polity.
● There were various opinions in the Constituent
Assembly with regard to the name of the country.
Some members suggested the traditional name
(Bharat), while others advocated the modern
name (India). Hence, the Constituent Assembly
had to adopt a mix of both (‘India, that is,
Bharat’)
● The country is described as ‘Union’ although its
Constitution is federal in structure.
● According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the phrase
‘Union of States’ has been preferred to
‘Federation of States’ for two reasons:
1. The Indian Federation is not the result of an
agreement among the states like the American
Federation
2. The states have no right to secede from the
federation.
● The federation is an Union because it is
indestructible. The country is an integral whole
and divided into different states only for the
convenience of administration.
● Thus, Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 2
and statement 3 is correct.
Q.3) Ans: a
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State Council
was established under Article 263 of the
Constitution of India through a Presidential Order
dated 28th May 1990. The Council consists of -
▪ Prime Minister – Chairman
▪ Chief Ministers of all States – Members
▪ Chief Ministers of Union Territories having a
Legislative Assembly and Administrators of UTs
not having a Legislative Assembly – Members
▪ Six Ministers of Cabinet rank in the Union
Council of Ministers to be nominated by the
Prime Minister – Members
• A Standing Committee of the Inter-State Council
has been constituted for continuous consultation
and processing of matters for the consideration of
the Council.
o The Standing Committee comprises Union Home
Minister as Chairman and 5 Union Ministers of
Cabinet Rank and 9 Chief Ministers of States as
Members nominated by the Chairman of the
Inter-State Council.
• Statement 2 is Incorrect : Five union cabinet
ministers and nine chief ministers are part of this
committee. Main function of this committee to
promote center state relations and to ensure
better coordination among states.
Q.4) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter state council
was established by presidential order on the
recommendation of the Sarkaria committee in
1990.
o Inter-State Council is a recommendatory body
with duties to investigate and discuss the
subjects of common interest between the Union
and State(s) or among the States, making
recommendations particularly for better
coordination of policy and action on these
subjects and deliberating upon such other
matters of general interest to the States which
may be referred to it by its Chairman.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Ten members (including
the chairman) shall form the quorum for a
meeting of the council. The Constitution of India
in Article 263, provided that an Inter-State
Council may be established ,if at any time it
appears to the President that the public interests
would be served by the establishment of a
Council.
Q.5) Ans: c
Exp:
● Pair 1 is correct : Cauvery Water Dispute dispute
occurred between Karnataka, Tamil nadu and
Kerala. It involves 3 states and one Union
Territory i.e. Puducherry. It entailed the principle
that the upper riparian state must obtain consent
of the lower riparian state for any construction
activity.
● Pairs 2 and 3 are also correct : Narmada
dispute occurred between Rajasthan and
Madhya pradesh and the Godavari water
dispute is between Maharashtra and Andhra
pradesh.
o Major inter state river water disputes are :
o Ravi and beas - Punjab ,Haryana ,Rajasthan
. n to the waters of an inter-
o Narmada -Madhya pradesh ,Gujrat
,Maharashtra ,Rajasthan .
o Krishna - Maharashtra, Karnataka and
Andhra pradesh.
o Cauvery-Karnataka ,Kerala, Tamil nadu.
o Godavari -Maharashtra, Karnataka,Andhra
pradesh, Madhya pradesh and Odisha.
Q.6) Ans: a
Exp:
Water sharing is one of the most contentious issues in
Indian federal political setup which has time and again
challenged the principle of cooperative federalism.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 262: It makes
two provisions w.r.t. adjudication of inter- state
water disputes.
o Parliament may by law provide for the
adjudication of any dispute or complaint with
respect to the use, distribution and control of
waters of any inter-state river and river valley.
o Parliament may also provide that neither the
Supreme Court nor any other court is to
exercise jurisdiction in respect of any such
dispute or complaint
● Statement 2 is correct: Parliament enacted two
laws under these provisions:
o River Boards Act 1956: A river board is
established by the Centre on the request of the
state to advise them.
o Inter-State Water Disputes Act 1956:
Empowers Centre to set up an ad hoc tribunal
for the adjudication of an inter-state water
dispute between two or more states; Decisions
of the tribunal are binding.
● Statement 3 is correct: Water is in the State List,
however the Central government has the power
to regulate and develop inter-state rivers and
river valleys. The very first inter-state water
disputes tribunal was the Krishna Water Disputes
Tribunal formed in 1969. The states involved were
Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Maharashtra.
Q.7) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter-
State Water Disputes Act empowers the Centr
al
government to set up an ad hoc tribunal for t
he adjudication of a
dispute between two or more states in relatio
state river or river valley.
● Statement 2 is correct:
The decision of the tribunal would be
final and binding on the parties to the dispute
. Neither the Supreme
Court nor any other court is to have jurisdicti
on in respect of any
water dispute which may be referred to such
a tribunal under this Act.
Q.8) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Article 263 of the
Constitution of India provides for the
establishment of an Inter-State Council. The
Council is a recommendatory body to investigate
and discuss subjects, in which some or all of the
states or the union government have a common
interest, recommendations for the better
coordination of policy and action, matters of
general interest to the states.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The inter-state council is
not a permanent constitutional body for
coordination between the states and union
government. It can be established ‘at any time’ if
it appears to the President that the public
interests would be served by the establishment of
such a council.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Council shall consist
of the prime minister who is the chairman, chief
ministers of all states who are members, chief
ministers of union territories and administrators
of UTs as members, and six union ministers of
cabinet rank in the union council of ministers
 nominated by the prime minister are also
members.
Article 263 specifies the duties that can be
assigned to it in the following manner:
● enquiring into and advising upon disputes whic
h may arise between states
● investigating and discussing subjects in which
the states or the
● Centre and the states have a common interest in
making
recommendations upon any such subject, and
particularly for the better coordination of policy
and action on it.
● Under the above provisions of Article 263, the
president has established the following councils
to make recommendations for the better
coordination of policy and action in the related
subjects:
o Central Council of Health and FamilyWelfare.
o Central Council of LocalGovernment
o Four Regional Councils for Sales Tax for the
Northern, Eastern, Western and
SouthernZones.
Q.9) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
The Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not
the constitutional)
bodies. They are established by an Act of the
Parliament, that is, the
States Reorganisation Act of 1956. The act div
ided the country into
five zones (Northern, Central, Eastern, Western
and Southern) and provided a zonal council for
each zone. There is North-Eastern Council in
addition to the above Zonal Councils, was
created by a separate Act of Parliament, the
North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:
Each zonal council consists of the following m
embers
o Home minister of the Central government
o chief ministers of all the States in the zone.
o Two other ministers from each state in the
zone.
o Administrator of each union territory in the
zone.
● The home minister of the Central government
is the common
chairman of the five zonal councils. Each chief
minister acts as a vice-chairman of the council
by rotation, holding office for a period of one year
at a time.
● Statement 3 is correct:
The objectives (or the functions) of the zonal
councils, are as follows:
o To achieve an emotional integration of the
country.
o To help in arresting the growth of acute sta
te-consciousness, regionalism, linguism and
particularistic trends.
o To help in removing the after-
effects of separation in some
cases so that the process of
reorganisation, integration and economic
advancement may synchronise.
o To enable the Centre and states to cooperate
with each other in
social and economic matters and exchange i
deas and Exp:erience in order to evolve
uniform policies.
Q.10) Ans: d
Exp:
The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-
State Relations :
● The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-
State Relations (1983–88) made a strong case for
the establishment of a permanent Inter-State
Council under Article 263 of the Constitution.
● It recommended that in
order to differentiate the Inter-
State Council from other bodies
established under the same Article 263, it mus
t be called as the Inter-Governmental Council.
The Commission recommended that the Council
should be charged with the duties laid down in
Article 263
o enquiring into and advising upon disputes w
hich may arise between states;
o investigating and discussing subjects in which
the states or the Centre and the states have a
common interest;and
o making recommendations upon any such sub
ject, and particularly for the better
coordination of policy and action on it
Q.11) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: Public Account Committee
(PAC) scrutinizes the Audit Report on
Appropriation Account and the Audit Report on
Finance Account as submitted by Comptroller and
 Auditor General of India (CAG). On the other
hand, the Committee on Public Undertaking (CPA)
scrutinizes the Audit Report on Public
Undertaking as submitted by the CAG. PAC
examines the accounts showing the appropriation
of the sums granted by the House to meet the
Exp:enditure, the annual Finance Accounts of the
government and, Such other accounts laid before
the House as the Committee may think fit.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Both PAC and CPA do
submit reports to Parliament but directly and not
via the President.
● Statement 3 is correct: Both PAC and CPA consist
of 22 members of which not more than 15 belong
to Lok Sabha and not more than 7 belong to the
Rajya Sabha. Further members are elected by the
respective houses on the basis of proportional
representation by means of a single transferable
vote. Thus, all parties get due representation in it.
The term of office of the members is One year.
Q.12) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The State legislative
council does not participate in the election of the
president. Only the elected members of both the
Houses of Parliament, the elected members of the
legislative assemblies of the states and the
elected members of the legislative assemblies of
the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry
participate in the election of the president.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. The council has no
effective say in the ratification of a constitutional
amendment bill. In this respect also, the will of
the assembly prevails over that of the council.
● Statements 3 and 4 are correct. The council has
equal powers like that of the assembly with
respect to;
o Introduction and passage of ordinary bills
o Selection of ministers, including the chief
minister
o Consideration of the reports of the
constitutional bodies like the State Finance
Commission, State Public Service Commission
o Enlargement of jurisdiction of the state public
service commission, approval of ordinances
issued by the governor.
Q.13) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: India has a bicameral
system of legislature. Just as Parliament has two
Houses, the states can also have a Legislative
Council in addition to the Legislative Assembly
through Article 169 of the Constitution. The
resolution for creation or abolition of legislative
council must be passed by the state assembly by
a special majority i.e., by a majority of the total
membership of the assembly and a majority of
not less than two-thirds of the members of the
assembly present and voting. At present, only six
states have legislative councils. These are
Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Karnataka, Bihar and Uttar Pradesh.
● Statement 2 is incorrect. Parliament can pass
such an act by a simple majority i.e., by a majority
of the members present and voting in both the
houses.
● Composition of the council: Under Article 171 of
the Constitution, the Legislative Council of a state
shall not have more than one-third of the total
strength of the State Assembly, and not less than
40 members.
● Like the Rajya Sabha, the legislative council is a
continuing chamber, that is, it is a permanent
body and is not subject to dissolution. The tenure
of a Member of the Legislative Council is six years,
with one-third of the members retiring every two
years.
● Statement 3 is correct. This Act of Parliament is
not deemed as an amendment of the Constitution
for the purposes of Article 368. Hence, it is passed
like ordinary legislation.
Q.14) Ans: b
Exp:
About Adjournment Motion:
● Adjournment motion is introduced only in the
Lok Sabha to draw attention of the house to a
definite matter of urgent public matter. It is an
extraordinary device as it interrupts the normal
business of the House and needs the support of
50 members to be admitted.
● The discussion on an adjournment motion should
last not for less than two hours and thirty
minutes.
● The adjournment motion should not raise a
question of privilege. It should not revive
discussion on a matter that has been discussed in
the same session. It should not deal with any
matter that is under adjudication by court
● It involves an element of censure against the
government and hence Rajya Sabha is not
permitted to make use of this device.
Q.15) Ans: c
Exp:
About Censure Motion
● It can be moved against any individual minister or
a group of ministers or the entire council of
ministers. A censure means an Exp:ression of
strong disapproval or harsh criticism. A censure
motion can be moved in the lower house of the
parliament or in a state assembly in India.
● Censure motion is moved for censuring the
council of ministers for specific policies and
motions. No one from the council of ministers
needs to resign if the motion is passed in the
parliament.
● Other important motions in Parliament:
o No-Confidence Motion: The Council of
Ministers stays in office so long as it enjoys the
confidence of the majority of the members of
the Lok Sabha (Article 75). The Lok Sabha can
remove the ministry from office by passing a no-
confidence motion. The motion needs the
support of 50 members to be approved. It can
be moved against the entire council of
ministers only.
o Privilege Motion: It is concerned with the
breach of parliamentary privileges by a minister.
It is moved by a member when he feels that a
minister has committed a breach of privilege of
the House or one or more of its members by
withholding facts of a case or by giving wrong or
distorted facts. Its purpose is to censure the
concerned minister.
o Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in the
Parliament by a member to call the attention of
a minister to a matter of urgent public
importance and to seek an authoritative
statement from him on that matter. It is an
Indian innovation in the parliamentary
procedure and has been in existence since
1954. It is mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Q.16) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Parliamentary forums
are constituted for sharing of knowledge and
providing a platform of discussions and dialogue
between parliament members and government
officials and key Exp:erts. The Parliamentary
Forum on Water Conservation and Management
was the first to be constituted in 2005.
Subsequently, seven more Parliamentary forums
were constituted. At present, there are eight
Parliamentary forums. They are -
o Parliamentary Forum on Water Conservation
and Management
o Parliamentary Forum on Youth
o Parliamentary Forum on Children
o Parliamentary Forum on Population and Public
Health
o Parliamentary Forum on Global Warming and
Climate Change
o Parliamentary Forum on Disaster Management
o Parliamentary Forum on Artisans and Crafts-
people
o Parliamentary Forum on Millenium
Development Goals.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Speaker of the Lok
Sabha is the ex-officio President of all the Forums
except the Parliamentary Forum on Population
and Public Health wherein the Chairman of Rajya
Sabha is the ex-officio President and the Speaker
is the ex-officio, Co-President.
Q.17) Ans: d
Exp:
About disqualifications under the Tenth Schedule:
● The Anti-Defection Law was passed through the
52nd amendment in 1985 to the Constitution. It
added the 10th Schedule to the Indian
Constitution with the main intent of the law being
to combat “the evil of political defections”.
● Tenth Schedule states that a person who has been
elected to the office of -
o the Speaker or
o the Deputy Speaker of the House of the People
or
o the Deputy Chairman of the Council of States or
o the Chairman or the Deputy Chairman of the
Legislative Council of a State or
o the Speaker or the Deputy Speaker of the
Legislative Assembly of a State shall not be
disqualified under this Schedule if
● If he, by reason of his election to such office,
voluntarily gives up the membership of the
political party to which he belonged immediately
before such election and does not, so long as he
continues to hold such office thereafter, re-join
that political party or become a member of
another political party; or
● if he, having given up by reason of his election to
such office his membership of the political party
to which he belonged immediately before such
 election, re-joins such political party after he
ceases to hold such office.
Q.18) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Indian Parliamentary
Group is an autonomous body formed in the year
1949 in pursuance of a motion adopted by the
Constituent Assembly
● Statement 2 is correct: Membership of IPG is
open to all members of Parliament. Former
members of Parliament can also become
associate members of the Group, but are entitled
to limited rights only. For example, they are not
entitled to representation at meetings and
conferences of the IPU and the CPA and they are
also not entitled to the travel concessions
provided to members by certain branches of the
CPA
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Speaker of The Lok
Sabha is the ex officio president of the Group.
The Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the
Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are the ex
officio vice-presidents of the Group. The
Secretary-general of the Lok Sabha acts as the ex
officio Secretary-General of the Group.
● Statement 4 is correct. The aims and objectives of
the Group are mentioned below:
o Promoting personal contacts between members
of the Parliament of India.
o Studying questions of public importance that
are likely to come up before the Parliament;
arrange seminars, discussions and orientation
courses; and bring out publications for the
dissemination of information to the members of
the Group.
o Arranging lectures on political, defense,
economic, social and educational problems by
the members of the Parliament and
distinguished persons.
o Arranging visits to foreign countries with a view
to develop contacts with members of other
parliaments.
Q.19) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Under the Constitution,
it is the President not the Prime Minister who
makes the rules for the allocation of the business
of the Government of India among the Ministers.
According to Article 77 of the Constitution, “The
President shall make the rules for the convenient
transaction of the business of the Government of
India, and for the allocation among the Ministers
of the said business”.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The total number of the
Council of Ministers cannot exceed 15%, and not
10%, of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This
provision was added to the Constitution by the
91st Amendment Act of 2003.
● Statement 3 is incorrect. Under Article 74 of the
Constitution, the question whether any, and if so
what, advice was tendered by Ministers to the
President shall not be inquired into in any court.
Thus, the Supreme court too cannot enquire into
any advice given by the Council of Ministers to the
President.
Q.20) Ans: c
Exp:
About Cabinet Committees:
● Cabinet committees are extra-constitutional
bodies, i.e., they are not mentioned in the
Constitution. However, the Rules of Business
provide for their establishment.
● At present there are 8 functional cabinet
committees. Committees headed by the Prime
Minister:
o Cabinet committee on Political affairs
o Cabinet committee on Economic affairs
o Appointment committee of the cabinet
o Cabinet committee on Investment and growth
o Cabinet committee on Security
o Cabinet committee on Employment and Skill
Development
● Committees headed by the home minister:
Cabinet committee on Accommodation
● Committee Headed by the defence minister:
Cabinet committee on Parliamentary affairs
Q.21) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The representatives of
each community were to be elected by members
of that community in the provincial legislative
assembly and voting was to be by the method of
proportional representation by means of single
transferable vote.The representatives of princely
states were to be nominated by the heads of the
princely states. It is thus clear that the
Constituent Assembly was to be a partly elected
and partly nominated body. Moreover, the
members were to be indirectly elected by the
 members of the provincial assemblies, who
themselves were elected on a limited franchise.
● Statement 2 is correct: Although the Constituent
Assembly was not directly elected by the people
of India on the basis of adult franchise, the
Assembly comprised representatives of all
sections of Indian Society—Hindus, Muslims,
Sikhs, Parsis, Anglo–Indians, Indian Christians,
SCs, STs including women of all these sections.
The Assembly included all important
personalities of India at that time, with the
exception of Mahatma Gandhi.
Q.22) Ans: c
Exp:
For the purpose of holding direct elections to the Lok
Sabha, each
state is divided into territorial constituencies. In th
is respect, the Constitution makes the following two
provisions:
● Statement 1 is correct: Each state is allotted a
number of seats in the Lok Sabha in
such a manner that the ratio between that nu
mber and its population is the same for all
states. This provision does not apply to a state
having a population of less than six millions.
Constitution ensures that there is uniformity o
f representation between the different states
● Statement 2 is correct:
Each state is divided into territorial constituen
cies in such a
manner that the ratio between the population
of each
constituency and the number of seats allotted
to it is the same throughout the state. The
Constitution ensures that there is uniformity
between the different constituencies in the same
state.
Q.23) Ans: d
Exp:
About the Rajya Sabha
● Duration of
The Rajya Sabha (first constituted in 1952) is
a continuing
chamber, that is, it is a permanent body and
not subject to dissolution. However, one-third of
its members retire every second year.
● Their seats are filled up by fresh elections and
presidential
nominations at the beginning of every third ye
ar.
● The retiring members are eligible for re-election
and renomination any number of times.
● The Constitution has not fixed the term of office
of members of
the Rajya Sabha and left it to the Parliament.
● Accordingly, the
Parliament in the Representation of the People
Act (1951)
provided that the term of office of a member
of the Rajya Sabha shall be six years. The act
also empowered the president of India to curtail
the term of members chosen in the first Rajya
Sabha. In
the first batch, it was decided by lottery as to
who should retire.
● Further, the act also authorised the
President to make provisions
to govern the order of retirement of the mem
bers of the Rajya Sabha.
Q.24) Ans: a
Exp:
About No-Confidence Motion
● Art. 75: Council of Ministers shall be collectively
responsible to the Lok Sabha. This principle is the
bedrock of parliamentary democracy. Ministry
stays in office till they enjoy confidence of the
majority of the members of the Lok Sabha
● No-Confidence Motion is not mentioned in the
Constitution, is moved under Rule 198 of rules of
procedure and can be moved only in Lok Sabha.
● Needs support of 50 members, no need to state
the reasons for its adoption.
● The governments formed with wafer-
thin majority have been called upon by the
President to prove their majority on the floor of
the House. The government of the day,
sometimes, on
its own, seeks to prove its majority by moving
a motion of
confidence and winning the confidence of the
House. If the
confidence motion is negative, it results in the
fall of the government.
● No-Confidence Motion is moved only against the
entire CoM (Not against individual/ group of
ministers) and if passed, the CoM must resign
from office.
Q.25) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: According to the
Constitution, the Speaker of the last Lok Sabha
vacates his office immediately before the first
meeting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha. Speaker
pro-Tem institution facilitates the transition of the
institution from old ones to newly elected
members. He also enables the House to elect the
new Speaker. Therefore, the President appoints a
member of the Lok Sabha as the Speaker Pro-
Tem. Usually, the senior most member is selected
for this.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The President himself
administers the oath to the Speaker Pro Tem. He
presided over the first sitting of the newly-elected
Lok Sabha. Main onus of Speaker Pro-Tem is to
administer oaths to the new members. The
Speaker Pro Tem has all the powers of the
Speaker. This office is a temporary office, when
the new Speaker is elected by the House, the
office of the Speaker Pro Tem ceases to exist.
Q.26) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The
state judiciary consists of a high court and a
hierarchy of subordinate courts, also
known as lower courts.
Articles 233 to 237 in Part VI of the Constituti
on make the following
provisions to regulate the organization of subo
rdinate courts and to
ensure their independence from the executive.
The appointment, posting and promotion of di
strict judges in a state are
made by the governor of the state in consulta
tion with the high court.
● Statement 2 is correct:
Appointment of persons (other than district ju
dges) to the judicial
service of a state are made by the governor o
f the state after
consultation with the State Public Service Com
mission and the high court.
The control over posting, promotion and
leave of persons belonging to the judicial
service of a state is vested in the high court.
Q.27) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
The organizational structure, jurisdiction and n
omenclature of the
subordinate judiciary are laid down by the stat
es. Below the District and Sessions Court stands
the Court of
Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Co
urt of Chief Judicial
Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordina
te judge exercises
unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The chief judicial
magistrate decides criminal cases which are pu
nishable with
imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the C
ourt of Munsiff and on
the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magi
strate. The munsiff possesses
limited jurisdiction and decides civil cases of
small
Q.28) Ans: d
Exp:
Statement 4 is incorrect:
● The NALSA lays down policies, principles, guide
lines and frames
effective and economical schemes for the Stat
e Legal Services
Authorities to implement the Legal Services Pr
ogrammes throughout the country.
Primarily, the State Legal Services Authorities,
District Legal
Services Authorities, Taluk Legal Services Com
mittees, etc. have been
asked to discharge the following main function
s on a regular basis:
o To provide free and competent legal
services to the eligible persons.
o To
organise Lok Adalats for amicable settlement
of disputes.
o To organise legal awareness camps
in the rural areas.
● Act also provide for the free legal services which
include:
o Payment of court fee, process
fees and all other charges payable
or incurred in connection with any legal
proceedings.
o Providing service of lawyers in legal
proceedings.
o Obtaining and supply of certified copies of o
rders and other documents in legal
proceedings.
 o Preparation of appeal, paper book including
printing and translation of documents in legal
proceedings.
● There is provision for free legal services.
The persons eligible for getting free legal
services include:
o Women and children
o Members of SC/ST
o Industrial Workmen
o Victims
of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, ea
rthquake industrial disaster
o Disabled persons
o Persons in custody
o Persons whose annual
income does not exceed ₹1 lakh (in the
Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the
limit ₹1,25,000/-)
o Victims of trafficking in human beings
orbegar.
Q.29) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:
The organizational structure, jurisdiction and n
omenclature of the
subordinate judiciary are laid down by the stat
es. Below the District and Sessions Court stands
the Court of
Subordinate Judge on the civil side and the Co
urt of Chief Judicial
Magistrate on the criminal side. The subordina
te judge exercises
unlimited pecuniary jurisdiction over civil suits
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The chief judicial
magistrate decides criminal cases which are pu
nishable with
imprisonment for a term up to seven years.
At the lowest level, on the civil side, is the C
ourt of Munsiff and on
the criminal side, is the Court of Judicial Magi
strate. The munsiff possesses
limited jurisdiction and decides civil cases of
small
Q.30) Ans: d
Exp:
● Civil Jurisdiction of District Judge:-
o The principal Court of Civil Jurisdiction is the
Court of District Judge at the District level.
o It has both original as well as appellate
Jurisdiction.
o In the original Side the District Judge has the
jurisdiction of unlimited valuation .
o In the appellate side the District Judge has the
Jurisdiction of limited valuation , he can hear
the appeals from the order of Civil Judge (SD)
and Civil Judge(JD) of the cases having valuation
up to Rs.5 lacs.
o The District Judge has the revisional Jurisdiction.
o The District Judge can transfer the cases to the
Additional District Judge.
o The District Judge can assign the administrative
power among the Judicial officer
Q.31) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Law Commission of
India, in its 114 th Report, had suggested
establishment of Gram Nyayalayas for providing
affordable and quick access to justice to the
citizens at their doorsteps. The Gram Nyayalayas
Act came into force with effect from 02nd
October, 2009. It is a Statutory and Quasi-judicial
body established by Gram Nyayalayas Act 2008.
The Act extends to the whole of India, except to
the States of Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim
and to the tribal areas specified in the Sixth
Schedule to the Constitution of India within the
States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Mizoram, respectively.
● Statement 2 is correct: Gram Nyayalayas are
aimed at providing inExp:ensive justice to people
in rural areas at their doorsteps; Gram Nyayalayas
are to be established for every Panchayat at
intermediate level or a group of contiguous
Panchayats at intermediate level or for a group of
contiguous Gram Panchayat
● Statement 3 is correct: It ensures the provision
under 39A (Added by 42nd CAA 1976) in Directive
Principle of State Policy (Part IV) of Indian
constitution directs the State to ensure equal
justice on a basis of equal opportunity and shall
provide free legal aid”.
Q.32) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalaya Provide
access to justice to the most marginalized sections
of the society. It reduces barriers to access in
terms of distance, time & associated costs w.r.t.
justice. There are Alternate Dispute redressal
mechanisms- Arbitration-conciliation-mediation It
 ensures cheap, affordable and effective justice to
downtrodden strata of society.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: It is established for
every Panchayat at intermediate level or a group
of contiguous Panchayats at intermediate level in
a district The State Government, in consultation
with the High Court, notified the boundaries of
the area under the jurisdiction of a Gram
Nyayalaya. It can also alter such limits at any time.
It can hold mobile courts in villages falling under
its jurisdiction and the State Government shall
extend all required facilities.
Q.33) Ans: c
Exp:
Jurisdiction Power and Authority:
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and
shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and
Civil Courts.
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil
suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the
First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the
Act.
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall exercise the powers of
a Civil Court with certain modifications and shall
follow the special procedure as provided in the
Act.
● The Gram Nyayalaya shall try to settle the
disputes as far as possible by bringing about
conciliation between the parties and for this
purpose. It shall make use of the conciliators to be
appointed for this purpose.
● Gram Nyayalaya can try criminal cases, civil suits,
claims or disputes which are specified in the Act.
For e.g. Offences not punishable with death,
imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term
exceeding two years.
● Gram Nyayalaya is not bound by the Indian
Evidence Act, 1872 but is guided by the principles
of natural justice and is subject to any rule made
by the HIGH COURT.
● The nature of jurisdiction specified in the Act can
be amended by both the central and state
governments.
Q.34) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The seat of the Gram
Nyayalayas shall be located at the headquarters of
the intermediate Panchayat. The Nyayadhikari
shall periodically visit villages and may hear the
parties and dispose of the cases at the place other
than its headquarters. The State Government
shall appoint a presiding officer called Nyay
Adhikari for every Gram Nyayalaya in consultation
with the High Court
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Nyayalaya
shall be the court of Judicial Magistrate of the first
class. The salary and other allowances along with
the other terms and conditions of service shall be
on the same lines as well. Representation shall be
given to the members of the SC, ST, women and
others.
Q.35) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Gram Nyayalaya is not
bound by the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 but is
guided by the principles of natural justice and is
subject to any rule made by the High Court. The
nature of jurisdiction specified in the Act can be
amended by both the central and state
governments.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Gram Nyayalaya
shall follow summary procedure in criminal
trials.The judgement and order passed by the
Gram Nyayalaya shall be deemed to be a decree
and to avoid delay in its execution. Gram
Nyayalaya shall follow summary procedure for its
execution.
o Meaning of Summary Procedure– It is a legal
procedure used for enforcing a right that takes
effect faster and more efficiently than ordinary
methods.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: For criminal
cases appeal shall be taken to the Court of
Session and for civil cases appeal shall be taken to
District court. Appeals in both cases have to be
heard and disposed of within six months.
Q.36) Ans: a
Exp:
About Lok Adalat
Lok Adalat is an alternative dispute resolution
mechanism. The cases that are pending in courts or
are at the pre-litigation stage are settled in Lok Adalat.
Permanent Lok Adalat is a permanent body
constituted to settle cases relating to Public Utility
Services like transport, postal, telegraph, etc. A
Chairman and two members are appointed for
settling disputes through conciliation.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Lok Adalat has
jurisdiction to attend any case that is pending
before a court of law, and cases that are likely to
 be filed before the court of law. The Permanent
Lok Adalat has jurisdiction to attend cases only
relating to Public Utility Services such as
transport, postal, telegraph sanitation, banking,
education, dispensary, power, light, water,
insurance, housing, and real estate services. The
pecuniary jurisdiction of Permanent Lok Adalats
has increased from Rs. 10 lacs to Rs. One crore.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The disputes before Lok
Adalats are settled by conciliators who don’t have
any judicial role. Thus, the conciliators can only
persuade the parties to settle the dispute, they do
not have the authority to make a decision without
the consent of the parties. This is a major
drawback of Lok Adalats. The whole procedure
becomes futile if one of the parties is not willing
to reach a settlement, even if the conciliators are
of the opinion that the dispute is capable of being
resolved through conciliation.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Legal Services
Authorities Act states that an award made by a
Lok Adalat is deemed to be a decree of a civil
court and no appeal shall lie against such orders.
Thus, the parties cannot file an appeal against the
decision of the Lok Adalats, although the parties’
have the discretion to approach the appropriate
court and file a fresh civil suit if they are aggrieved
by the decision of the Lok Adalat. By doing so, the
parties exercise their right to litigate.
Q.37) Ans: b
Exp:
About the Lok Adalat
● Lok Adalat is an alternative dispute resolution
mechanism. The cases that are pending in courts
or are at the pre-litigation stage are settled in Lok
Adalat. The cases are settled through conciliation,
which is why Lok Adalats are one of the most
important components of the ADR system
operating in India.
● Lok adalats remain the major area of activity of
the LSAA. Section 2(1) (d) of the LSAA defines ‘lok
adalat’ to mean a lok adalat organised under
Chapter VI of the Act. Lok adalats are organised by
legal services authorities at the state, district and
taluka levels in each state.
● A case that is pending in a court can be referred
to a lok adalat by any one of the parties to the
litigation.
● There is no court fee and any fee paid in the court
is refunded provided the dispute is settled in the
lok adalat. Cases in a lok adalat are settled
through conciliation and compromise. In case of
failure of the parties to arrive at a settlement, the
case reverts back to the court from where it is
referred.
● A Lok Adalat was established by the government
to settle the disputes by mutual consent. It is
presided over by a sitting or retired judicial officer
as the chairman with a lawyer and a social worker.
● The decision of a lok adalat is binding on the
parties and the order can be executed like any
decree passed by a court. There is no right of
appeal against the decision of a lok adalat. A lok
adalat has jurisdiction to try all matters except
those relating to non-compoundable offences.
Q.38) Ans: c
Exp:
In each district of India there are various types of
subordinate or lower courts. They are civil courts,
criminal courts and revenue courts. These Courts hear
civil cases, criminal cases and revenue cases,
respectively.
● Statement 1 is correct: Civil cases pertain to
disputes between two or more persons regarding
property, breach of agreement or contract,
divorce or landlord – tenant disputes. Civil Courts
settle these disputes. They do not award any
punishment as violation of law is not involved in
civil cases.
● Statement 2 is correct: Criminal cases relate to
violation of laws. These cases involve theft,
dacoity, rape, pick- pocketing, physical assault,
murder, etc. These cases are filed in the lower
court by the police, on behalf of the state, against
the accused. In such cases the accused, if found
guilty, is awarded punishment like fine,
imprisonment or even death sentence.
Revenue cases relate to land revenue on agricultural
land in the district.
Q.39) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Court of the District
Judge is the highest civil court in a district to deal
with civil cases. Very often the same court is
called the Court of District and Sessions Judge,
when it deals with both civil and criminal cases at
the district level. The judge of this court is
appointed by the Governor of the State.
● Statement 2 is correct: Below the Court of District
Judge, there may be one or more courts of sub
judges in the district. Separate family courts,
 which are equal to sub judge, have been
established in districts to exclusively hear cases of
family disputes, like divorce, custody of children,
etc. Below them there are courts of munsifs and
small causes courts which decide cases involving
petty amounts. No appeal can be made against
the decisions of the small causes courts. All these
courts hear and settle civil disputes.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The Court of the District
Judge (called the District Courts) hears not only
appeals against the decisions of the courts of sub
judges, but also some of the cases begin directly
in the Court of the District Judge itself. Appeals
against the decisions of this court may be heard
by the High Court of the State. Civil Courts deal
with cases pertaining to disputes between two or
more persons regarding property, divorce,
contract, and breach of agreement or landlord –
tenant disputes.
Q.40) Ans: c
Exp:
The National Legal Services Authority (NALSA) has
been constituted under the Legal Services Authorities
Act, 1987 to provide free Legal Services to the weaker
sections of the society and to organize Lok Adalats for
amicable settlement of disputes.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Legal Services includes
providing Free Legal Aid to those weaker sections
of the society who fall within the purview of
Section 12 of the Legal Services Authority Act,
1987. Free legal aid is not confined to cases
before the subordinate Courts. Legal Aid is
provided to the needy from the lowest Court to
the Supreme Court of India. Legal Aid Counsel
represent such needy persons before the lower
Courts, High Courts and also before the Supreme
Court of India.
● Statement 2 is correct: According to Regulation
7(5) of the National Legal Services Authority (Free
and Competent Legal Services) Regulations 2010,
the application for legal services will be
scrutinized by the Member-Secretary or the
Secretary and if any individual is aggrieved by the
decision made upon their application, he/she has
an option to appeal to the Executive Chairman or
Chairman of the Legal Services Institution and the
decision resulting from the appeal would be a
final one.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Besides legal aid, NALSA
also spreads legal literacy and awareness by
o conducting legal awareness camps in rural as
well as urban areas;
o through print media like newspapers, preparing
and publishing legal-aid literature;
o arranging workshops on legal topics for various
functionaries of the legal systems such as
lawyers, students, Non-Governmental
organizations and Government agencies,
o carrying out field surveys,
o creating awareness about the law of the land
amongst the general public by utilizing digital
mass media like Radio, Television, Internet,
social media and the like etc.
o NALSA also facilitates the beneficiaries of
various government schemes, policies to avail
the benefits. It facilitates resolution of disputes
through alternative dispute resolution
mechanisms such as Lok Adalat, Mediation, etc.
Q.41) Ans: d
Exp:
● Option A is incorrect: The council can only
discuss the budget but cannot vote on the
demands for grants. It is the exclusive privilege of
the assembly.
● Option B is incorrect: The council cannot remove
the council of ministers by passing a no-
confidence motion. This is because the council of
ministers is collectively responsible only to the
assembly. But, the council can discuss and
criticize the policies and activities of the
Government.
● Option C is incorrect: The council can be
abolished by the Parliament on the
recommendation of the assembly. The very
existence of the council depends on the will of the
assembly.
● Option D is correct: The council does not
participate in the election of the president of
India and representatives of the state in the
Rajya Sabha. The council has no say in the
ratification of a constitutional amendment bill. In
this respect also, the will of the assembly prevails
over that of the council.
Extra Edge by Only IAS
● India follows a bicameral system at both
the center and state level. Under this
system, the state's legislature is divided
into two parts - Legislative Assembly or
Vidhan Sabha and Legislative Council or
Vidhan Parishad.

● The Legislative Council is the upper house
of the state. Its institution is outlined in
Article 169 of the Constitution of India.
● The members of the Council are either
nominated by the Governor of the state or
are indirectly elected.
Q.42) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: A Money Bill cannot be
introduced in the legislative council. It can be
introduced only in the legislative assembly.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The speaker of the
house decides whether a bill is a money bill or
not and his decision on this question is final.
Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative
assembly only on the recommendation of the
governor.
● Statement 3 is correct: After a Money Bill is
passed by the legislative assembly, it is
transmitted to the legislative council for its
consideration.
o The Legislative Council cannot reject or amend
a money bill. It can only make the
recommendations. It must return the bill to the
assembly within 14 days, with or without
recommendations.
o The Legislative assembly can either
accept/reject all or any of the
recommendations of the Legislative Council.
o If the Legislative assembly accepts any
recommendation, the bill is considered to have
been passed by both the Houses.
o If the Legislative assembly does not accept any
recommendation, the bill is then considered to
be passed by both the Houses in the form
originally approved by the Legislative
assembly.
o There is no provision of holding a joint sitting in
case of disagreement between the two houses.
o If the Legislative Council fails to return the bill
to the Legislative assembly within 14 days, the
bill is considered to have been accepted by
both the Houses in the form originally
approved by the Legislative assembly.
Q.43) Ans: d
Exp:
● Option A is correct: When a Money Bill is
presented to the governor, he may either give
his assent, withhold his assent or reserve the bill
for presidential assent. He cannot return the bill
for reconsideration of the state legislature.
Normally, the governor gives his assent to a
money bill as it is introduced in the state
legislature with his prior permission.
● Option B is correct: The president can either give
his assent to the bill or withhold his assent to the
bill. He cannot return the bill for reconsideration
of the Houses.
● Option C is correct: The decision of the Speaker
of assembly whether a bill is a money bill or not
is final. His decision cannot be questioned in any
court of law or in either the House of State
Legislature or even the governor. When the bill is
sent to the Legislative Council for review and
submitted to the Governor for approval, the
speaker confirms it as a Money bill.
● Option D is incorrect: After a Money Bill is passed
by the legislative assembly, it is transmitted to the
legislative council for its consideration.
o The Legislative Council cannot reject or amend
a money bill. It can only make the
recommendations. It must return the bill to the
assembly within 14 days, with or without
recommendations.
o The Legislative assembly can either
accept/reject all or any of the
recommendations of the Legislative Council.
o If the Legislative assembly accepts any
recommendation, the bill is then considered to
have been passed by both the Houses.
o If the Legislative assembly does not accept any
recommendation, the bill is then considered to
be passed by both the Houses in the form
originally approved by the Legislative
assembly.
o There is no provision of holding a joint sitting
in case of disagreement between the two
houses.
o If the Legislative Council fails to return the bill
to the Legislative assembly within 14 days, the
bill is deemed to have been accepted by both
the Houses in the form originally approved by
the Legislative assembly.
Q.44) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: An ordinary bill can
originate in either House of the state legislature.
It can be introduced by a minister or any other
member. The bill passes through 3 stages in the
 originating House: First reading, Second reading,
Third reading.
Once the bill is passed by the originating House, it
is transferred to the second House for
consideration and passage.
● Statement 2 is correct: Here also, the bill passes
through all the 3 stages, that is, first reading,
second reading and third reading.
o Case 1: Council passes the bill without
amendments or Assembly accepts the
amendments suggested by the council: The bill
is considered to be passed by both the Houses
and is sent to the governor for his assent.
o Case 2: Assembly rejects the amendments
suggested by the council or Council rejects the
bill altogether or Council does not take any
action for 3 months: Assembly may pass the bill
again and transmit the same to the council.
o Case 3: Council rejects the bill again or Passes
the bill with amendments which are not
acceptable to the assembly or Council does not
pass the bill within 1 month: The bill is
considered adopted by both houses in the form
in which it was approved a second time by the
assembly. Therefore, the ultimate power of
passing an ordinary bill resides with the
assembly.
● Statement 3 is correct: The Council can retain or
postpone the bill for a maximum of four months:
three months in the first instance and one month
in the second instance. The Constitution does not
provide a mechanism for both houses to meet
together to resolve differences of opinion
between the two houses on a bill.
Q.45) Ans: c
Exp:
● Option A is correct: If a bill that originates from
the council and has been sent to the assembly is
rejected by the assembly, the bill ends and dies.
Therefore, the council has received much less
importance, position and authority than the Rajya
Sabha in the Center.
● Option B is correct but c is incorrect: Every bill,
after it is passed by the assembly or by both the
Houses is presented to the governor for his
assent. There are four alternatives before the
governor:
o He may give his assent to the bill: the bill
becomes an act and is placed on the Statute
Book
o He may withhold his assent to the bill: the bill
ends and does not become an Act.
o He may return the bill for reconsideration of
the House or Houses: It becomes obligatory for
the Governor to give his assent to the bill, if it
is passed by both the Houses again (with or
without amendments) and presented to him.
o He may reserve the bill for the consideration of
the President.
● Option D is correct: Case 1: Council passes the
bill without amendments or Assembly accepts
the amendments suggested by the council: The
bill is considered to be passed by both the Houses
and is sent to the governor for his assent.
o Case 2: Assembly rejects the amendments
suggested by the council or Council rejects the
bill altogether or Council does not take any
action for 3 months: Assembly may pass the bill
again and transmit the same to the council.
o Case 3: Council rejects the bill again or Passes
the bill with amendments which are not
acceptable to the assembly or Council does not
pass the bill within 1 month: The bill is
considered adopted by both houses in the form
in which it was approved a second time by the
assembly.
Q.46) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Members of the state
legislature have freedom of speech. In court
proceedings, no member can be held liable for
his declaration or vote in Parliament or its
committees. During the meeting of the state
legislature, they can refuse to testify in pending
court cases and appear in court as a witness.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: Members cannot be
arrested during the session of state legislature
and 40 days before the beginning and 40 days
after the end of a session (only in civil cases)
Q.47) Ans: d
Exp:
● Option A is incorrect: Collective Privileges are the
privileges enjoyed by each House of Parliament
collectively. They are:
o Right to publish its reports, debates and
proceedings and also prohibit others from
publishing the same. It can punish members as
well as outsiders for breach of its privileges or
its contempt.
 o It has the right to receive immediate
information of the arrest, detention,
conviction, imprisonment and release of a
member.
o It can institute inquiries and order the
attendance of witnesses and send for relevant
papers and records.
o It can make rules to regulate its own procedure
and the conduct of its business and to arbitrate
such matters.
● Option B is incorrect: The courts are prohibited
to inquire into the proceedings of a House or its
committees.
● Option C is incorrect: Press does not require prior
permission of the House to publish true reports
of parliamentary proceedings but it cannot do so
in the case of a secret sitting of the House. The
house can exclude strangers from secret sittings
to discuss some important matters.
● Option D is correct: No person
(member/outsider) can be arrested, and no legal
process (civil or criminal) can be served within
the boundaries of the House without the
permission of the Speaker/Chairman.
Q.48) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Quorum is the
minimum number of members required to be
present in the House before it can conduct any
business. It is 1/10th of the total number of
members in each House including the presiding
officer.
● Statement 2 is correct: If there is no quorum
during a meeting of the House, it is the duty of
the presiding officer either to adjourn the House
or to suspend the meeting until there is a
quorum.
Q.49) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Office of the Speaker
of Legislative Assembly is a constitutional one.
Under Article 178 of the Indian Constitution every
Legislative Assembly of a State shall choose one of
its Members as Speaker. A speaker is responsible
for presiding assembly debates and maintains
order and discipline of the house during legislative
sessions.
● Statement 2 is correct: If the Speaker certifies a
Bill as a Money Bill, his decision is final. Under
the Constitution, the Speaker exercises only a
casting vote in the case of equality of votes in
any matter.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: He decides the
questions of disqualification of a member of the
assembly, arising on the ground of defection
(Tenth Schedule). This decision is subject to
judicial review. The Speaker is the principal
spokesman of the House. He represents its
collective voice and is its sole representative to
the world. The Speaker holds the Office from the
date of his election till immediately before the
first meeting of the Legislative Assembly after the
dissolution of the one to which he was elected,
unless he ceases to be a member by any of the
reasons specified in Article 179 of the Indian
Constitution.
Q.50) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Office of the Speaker
of Legislative Assembly is a constitutional one.
Under Article 178 of the Indian Constitution every
Legislative Assembly of a State shall choose one of
its Members as Speaker. A speaker is responsible
for presiding assembly debates and maintains
order and discipline of the house during legislative
sessions.
● Statement 2 is correct: If the Speaker certifies a
Bill as a Money Bill, his decision is final. Under
the Constitution, the Speaker exercises only a
casting vote in the case of equality of votes in
any matter.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: He decides the
questions of disqualification of a member of the
assembly, arising on the ground of defection
(Tenth Schedule). This decision is subject to
judicial review. The Speaker is the principal
spokesman of the House. He represents its
collective voice and is its sole representative to
the world. The Speaker holds the Office from the
date of his election till immediately before the
first meeting of the Legislative Assembly after the
dissolution of the one to which he was elected,
unless he ceases to be a member by any of the
reasons specified in Article 179 of the Indian
Constitution.
Q.51) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: Constitution of India
contain the rule of 'immunity from mutual
 taxation' and makes the following provisions in
this regard:
● The Center's property is exempted from taxation
imposed by state or any authority within a state
like municipalities, district boards, panchayats and
so on.
o The term 'property' includes lands, buildings,
chattels, shares, debts, everything that has a
money value, and every kind of property-
movable or immovable and tangible or
intangible.
o Moreover, the property may be used for
sovereign (like armed forces) or commercial
purposes.
● statement 2 is incorrect: The Parliament (not
President) is empowered to remove the ban
which restricts property of the center from
taxation.
● The corporations or the companies which were
formed by the Central government are not
immune from state taxation or local taxation.
This is because a corporation or a company is a
separate legal entity.
● The state's property and income of a state is
exempted from Central taxation. Such income
may be derived from sovereign functions or
commercial functions.(But the Center can tax the
commercial operations of a state (if Parliament so
provides. However, the Parliament can declare
that any particular trade or business as incidental
to the ordinary functions of the government and
it would then not be taxable.
o However, the property and income of local
authorities situated within a state are not
exempted from the Central taxation.
o Similarly, the center can impose taxes on the
property or income of corporations and
companies owned by a state.
o In an advisory opinion in 1963, the Supreme
court held that the immunity granted to a state
in respect of Central taxation does not extend
to the duties of customs or duties of excise. In
other words, the Center can impose customs
duty on goods imported or Exp:orted by a state,
or an excise duty on goods produced or
manufactured by a state.
Q.52) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution has
divided the taxing powers between the Center
and the states in the following way:
● The exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects
enumerated in the Union List (which are 15 in
number) are vested with Parliament.
● The power to levy taxes on subjects enumerated
in the Concurrent List (which are 3 in number) are
vested with both the Parliament and the state
legislature.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The state legislature has
exclusive power to levy taxes on subjects
enumerated in the State List (which are 20 in
number). Parliament is empowered to impose
residuary taxes (that is, the power to impose
taxes not enumerated in any of the three lists).
Under this provision, the Parliament has imposed
gift tax, wealth tax and Exp:enditure tax. The
Constitution also makes a distinction between
the power to levy and collect a tax and the power
to appropriate the proceeds of the tax so levied
and collected. For example, the income-tax is
levied and collected by the Center but its
proceeds are distributed between the Center and
the states.
Q.53) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The distribution of
legislative powers between the Center and the
states is rigid. Consequently, the legislative
powers of state cannot be delegated to the
states and a single state cannot request the
Parliament to make a law on a state subject. The
distribution of executive power in general follows
the distribution of legislative powers. But,
sometimes conflicts arise between center and
states due to rigid division in the executive
sphere. Hence, inter-government delegation is
provided by the Constitution of executive
functions in order to mitigate rigidity and avoid a
situation of deadlock.
o The President, with the consent of the state
government, entrusts to that government any
of the executive functions of the Center.
o Conversely, the governor of a state with the
consent of the Central government, entrusts to
that government any of the executive functions
of the state. This mutual delegation of
administrative functions may be conditional or
unconditional.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The Constitution also
makes a provision for the entrustment of the
executive functions of the Center to a state
without the consent of that state. But, the
 delegation is by the Parliament and not by the
president.
o Thus, a law made by the Parliament on a
subject of the Union List can confer powers and
impose duties on a state, or authorize the
conferring of powers and imposition of duties
by the Center upon a state (irrespective of the
consent of the state concerned). Notably, the
same thing cannot be done by the state
legislature.
It means the mutual delegation of functions
between the Center and the state can take
place either under an agreement or by
legislation. While both the methods can be
used by the centre, however a state can use
only the first method.
Q.54) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution
contains the provisions which enable the Center
to exercise control over the state administration:
o Article 355 (not 365) imposes two duties on the
Center: (a) to protect every state against
external aggression and internal disturbance;
and (b) to ensure that the government of every
state is carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution.
o The governor of a state is appointed by the
president. He holds office during the pleasure
of the President. Apart from being the
Constitutional head of the state, the governor
also acts as an agent of the Center in the state.
The periodical reports about the administrative
affairs of the state are submitted by the
governor to the Center.
o Though the governor of the state appoints
state election commissioner but he can be
removed only by the President.
● Statement 2 is correct: Two restrictions have
been placed by the Constitution on the executive
power of the states in order to give ample scope
to the Center for exercising its executive power in
an unrestricted manner.
● Thus, the executive power of every state is to be
exercised in such a way
a) that ensure compliance with the laws made by
the Parliament and any existing law which apply
in the state
b) as not to impede or prejudice the exercise of
executive power of the Center in the state.
c) The former provision lays down a general
obligation upon the state, but the latter
provision imposes a specific obligation on the
state not to hamper the executive power of the
Center.
● In both the cases, the executive power of the
Center extends to giving of such directions to the
state as are necessary for the purpose. The
purpose behind these directions of the Center is
coercive in nature.
● Thus, Article 365 says that whenever any state
has failed to comply with (or to give effect to)
any directions given by the Center, it will be
lawful for the President to hold that a situation
has arisen in which the government of the state
cannot be carried on in accordance with the
provisions of the Constitution. It means that, in
such a situation, the President's rule can be
imposed in the state under Article 356.
Q.55) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of India
provides for grants-in-aid to the states from the
Central resources.
o Article 275 (not 282) empowers the Parliament
to make grants to the states which are in need
of financial assistance and not to every state.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Finance Commission
recommends the statutory grants under Article
275 (both general and specific) which are given to
the states. On the other hand, Article 282
empowers both the Center and the states to
make any grants for any public purpose, even if it
is not within their respective legislative
competence. Under this provision, the Center
makes grants to the states.
Q.56) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: In the US, only the powers
of the Federal Government are enumerated in the
Constitution and the residuary powers are left to
the states. The Australian Constitution followed
the American pattern of single enumeration of
powers. In Canada, on the other hand, there is a
double enumeration—Federal and Provincial, and
the residuary powers are vested in the Centre.
o The Constitution provides for a three-fold
distribution of legislative subjects between the
Centre and the states, viz., List-I (the Union
 List), List-II (the State List) and List-III (the
Concurrent List) in the Seventh Schedule.
● Statement 2 is correct: The Government of India
(GoI) Act of 1935 provided for a three-fold
enumeration, viz., federal, provincial and
concurrent. The present Constitution follows the
scheme of this act but with one difference, that is,
under this act, the residuary powers were given
neither to the federal legislature nor to the
provincial legislature but to the governor-general
of India. In this respect, India follows the
Canadian precedent.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: The power to make laws
with respect to residuary subjects (i.e., matters
which are not enumerated in any of the three
lists) are vested in the Parliament. This residuary
power of legislation includes the power to levy
residuary taxes.
Q.57) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: In the first place, items
generating revenue are under the control of the
central government. Thus, the central
government has many revenue sources and the
States are mostly dependent on the grants and
financial assistance from the centre. Secondly,
India adopted planning as the instrument of rapid
economic progress and development after
independence. Planning led to considerable
centralisation of economic decision making.
Planning commission appointed by the union
government is the coordinating machinery that
controls and supervises the resources
management of the States. Besides, the Union
government uses its discretion to give grants and
loans to States.
● Statement 2 is correct: The all-India services are
common to the entire territory of India and
officers chosen for these services serve in the
administration of the States. Thus, an IAS officer
who becomes the collector or an IPS officer who
serves as the Commissioner of Police, are under
the control of the central government. States can
neither take disciplinary action nor can they
remove these officers from service.
Q.58) Ans: d
Exp:
● The Constitution empowers the Parliament to
make laws on any matter enumerated in the State
List under the following five extraordinary
circumstances:
o When Rajya Sabha Passes a Resolution
o During a National Emergency
o When States Make a Request
o To Implement International Agreements
o During President’s Rule
● If the Rajya Sabha declares that it is necessary in
the national interest that Parliament should make
laws on a matter in the State List, then the
Parliament becomes competent to make laws on
that matter. Such a resolution must be supported
by two-thirds of the members present and
voting. The resolution remains in force for one
year; it can be renewed any number of times but
not exceeding one year at a time.
● The Parliament acquires the power to legislate
with respect to matters in the State List, while a
proclamation of national emergency is in
operation. The laws become inoperative on the
Exp:iration of six months after the emergency has
ceased to operate.
● The Parliament can make laws on any matter in
the State List for implementing the international
treaties, agreements or conventions. This
provision enables the Central government to fulfil
its international obligations and commitments.
● When the President’s rule is imposed in a state,
the Parliament becomes empowered to make
laws with respect to any matter in the State List
in relation to that state. A law made so by the
Parliament continues to be operative even after
the president’s rule.
Q.59) Ans: b
Exp:
● The Constitution empowers the Centre to
exercise control over the state’s legislative
matters in the following ways:
● The governor can reserve certain types of bills
passed by the state legislature for the
consideration of the President. The president
enjoys absolute veto over them.
● Bills on certain matters enumerated in the State
List can be introduced in the state legislature only
with the previous sanction of the president. (For
example, the bills imposing restrictions on the
freedom of trade and commerce).
● The President can direct the states to reserve
money bills and other financial bills passed by the
state legislature for his consideration during a
financial emergency.
● The state legislature has “in normal
circumstances” exclusive powers to make laws
with respect to any of the matters enumerated in
the State List.
● This has at present 61 subjects (originally 662
subjects) like public order, police, public health
and sanitation, agriculture, prisons, local
government, fisheries, markets, theaters,
gambling and so on. Hence, statement 3 is
incorrect.
Q.60) Ans: d
Exp:
● Federalism is a system of government in which
the power is divided between a central authority
and various constituent units of the country.
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Constitution of
India, being federal in structure, divides all powers
(legislative, executive and financial) between the
Centre and the states. However, there is no
division of judicial power as the Constitution has
established an integrated judicial system to
enforce both the Central laws as well as state
laws.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The US Model of
federalism is called as coming together as all the
states have come together to form a federation.
However, when a large country, like India,
chooses to divide its authority between
the member states and the central government,
it is regarded as holding together federalism.
● In this case, power is shared among various social
groups to accommodate a huge diversity. Here
the central government is more powerful than the
state government. Different constituents of the
federation may have unequal powers.
Q.61) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The process of
constitutional amendment is less rigid than what
is found in other federations. The bulk of the
Constitution can be amended by the unilateral
action of the Parliament, either by simple majority
or by special majority. Further, the power to
initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies
only with the Centre. In the US, the states can
also propose an amendment to the Constitution.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The division of powers is
in favour of the Centre and highly inequitable
from the federal angle. Firstly, the Union List
contains more subjects than the State List.
Secondly, the more important subjects have been
included in the Union List.
● Thirdly, the Centre has overriding authority over
the Concurrent List. Finally, the residuary powers
have also been left with the Centre, while in the
US, they are vested in the states. Thus, the
Constitution has made the Centre very strong.
Q.62) Ans: c
Exp:
● Articles 268 to 293 in Part XII of the Constitution
deal with Centre–state financial relations. Besides
these, there are other provisions dealing with the
same subject.
● Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution also
draws a distinction between the power to levy
and collect a tax and the power to appropriate
the proceeds of the tax so levied and collected.
For example, the income-tax is levied and
collected by the Centre but its proceeds are
distributed between the Centre and the states.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: A state legislature can
impose taxes on the sale or purchase of goods
(other than newspapers). But, this power of the
states to impose sales tax is subjected to the four
restrictions: (a) no tax can be imposed on the sale
or purchase taking place outside the states; (b) no
tax can be imposed on the sale or purchase
taking place in the course of import or Exp:ort; (c)
no tax can be imposed on the sale or purchase
taking place in the course of inter-state trade and
commerce.
● Statement 3 is correct: A state legislature can
impose a tax in respect of any water or electricity
stored, generated, consumed, distributed or sold
by any authority established by Parliament for
regulating or developing any inter-state river or
river valley. But, such a law, to be effective,
should be reserved for the president’s
consideration and receive his assent.
Q.63) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Constitution
established an integrated judicial system with the
Supreme Court at the top and the state high
courts below it. This single system of courts
enforces both the Central laws as well as the
state laws. This is done to eliminate diversities in
the remedial procedure. The judges of a state high
court are appointed by the president in
consultation with the Chief Justice of India and
 the governor of the state. They can also be
transferred and removed by the president.
● Statement 2 is correct: During the operation of a
national emergency (under Article 352), the
Centre becomes entitled to give executive
directions to a state on ‘any’ matter. Thus, the
state governments are brought under the
complete control of the Centre, though they are
not suspended.
Q.64) Ans: a
Exp:
Centre is empowered to give directions to the States
in the execution of following matters:
● The construction and maintenance of the means
of communication of national or military
importance by the state. Hence statement 1 is
correct.
● The measures to be taken for the protection of
the railways within the State. Hence statement 3
is correct.
● Providing adequate facilities for instruction in the
mother-tongue at the primary stage of education
to children of linguistic minority groups in the
State.
● The drawing up and execution of the schemes
essential for the welfare of the Scheduled Tribes
in the State. Hence statement 2 is not correct.
● The coercive sanction behind the Central
directions is Article 365 of Indian Constitution.
Q.65) Ans: b
Exp:
● Pair 1 is incorrect: According to Article 268 Taxes
Levied by the Centre but Collected and
Appropriated by the States includes the following
taxes and duties:
o Stamp duties on bills of exchange, cheques,
promissory notes, policies of insurance, transfer
of shares and others.
o Excise duties on medicinal and toilet
preparations containing alcohol and narcotics.
● Pair 2 is correct: The taxes belonging to the states
exclusively are enumerated in the state list and
are 20 in number. These are following:
I. land revenue;
II. taxes on agricultural income, succession and
estate duties in respect of agricultural land;
III. taxes on lands and buildings, on mineral
rights, on animals and boats, on road
vehicles, on luxuries, on entertainments,
and on gambling; Hence, Pair 3 is incorrect.
IV. excise duties on alcoholic liquors for human
consumption and narcotics;
V. taxes on the entry of goods into a local area,
on advertisements (except newspapers), on
consumption or sale of electricity, and on
goods and passengers carried by road or on
inland waterways;
VI. taxes on professions, trades, callings and
employments not exceeding Rs. 2,500 per
annum;
VII. capitation taxes;
VIII. tolls;
IX. stamp duty on documents (except those
specified in the Union List);
X. sales tax (other than newspaper); and
XI. fees on the matters enumerated in the
State List (except court fees).
Q.66) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: River Board act 1956
provides for the establishment of river boards to
regulate and develop the interstate river and river
valley
o The River Boards Act provides for the
establishment of river boards by the Central
government for the regulation and
development of inter-state river and river
valley
o The River Board is established on the request
of state governments concerned to advise
them.
o The Inter-State Water Disputes Act empowers
the Central government to set up an ad hoc
tribunal for the adjudication of a dispute
between two or more states in relation to the
waters of an inter-state river or river valley
● Statement 2 is incorrect: AS the river boards are
established by the central governments on
request of the state governments.
o River Board for advising the Governments
interested in relation to such matters
concerning the regulation or development of an
inter- State river or river.
Q.67) Ans: d
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect : Disputes Resolution
Committee: Under the Bill, when a state puts in a
request regarding any water dispute, the central
government will set up a Disputes Resolution
Committee (DRC), to resolve the dispute. DRC
 should be set up by the central government not
by parliament to resolve disputes amicably.
o The DRC will comprise a Chairperson, and
Exp:erts with at least 15 years of Exp:erience in
relevant sectors, to be nominated by the central
government. It will also comprise one member
from each state (at Joint Secretary level), who
are party to the dispute, to be nominated by the
concerned state government.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: DRC will seek to resolve
the dispute through negotiations ,within one
year (extended by six months ,) and submit its
report to the central government .
o The DRC will seek to resolve the dispute
through negotiations, within one year
(extendable by six months), and submit its
report to the central government.
o If a dispute cannot be settled by the DRC, the
central government will refer it to the Inter-
State River Water Disputes Tribunal. Such
referral must be made within three months
from the receipt of the report from the DRC.
Q.68) Ans: c
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect : Dispute Resolution
Committee (DRC) will comprise a chairperson and
does not consist of vice chairperson .The DRC will
comprise a Chairperson, and Exp:erts with at
least 15 years of Exp:erience in relevant sectors,
to be nominated by the central government.
● Statement 2 is incorrect : Dispute Resolution
Committee (DRC) DRC does not comprise any
judicial member.
● Statement 3 is correct : Exp:erts with at least 15
years of Exp:erience in relevant sectors,to be
nominated by a Central Government are present
in DRC.
• And one member from each state who will be
nominated by the concerned State Government
,party to the dispute.
Q.69) Ans: a
Exp:
● Statement 1 is correct: The Inter-State River
Water Disputes (Amendment) Bill, 2019 was
introduced in Lok Sabha on July 25, 2019 by the
Minister of Jal Shakti, Mr. Gajendra Singh
Shekhawat. It amends the Inter-State River Water
Disputes Act, 1956. The Act provides for the
adjudication of disputes relating to waters of
inter-state rivers and river valleys. The central
government will set up an Inter-State River
Water Disputes Tribunal, for the adjudication of
water disputes. This Tribunal can have multiple
benches. All existing Tribunals will be dissolved,
and the water disputes pending adjudication
before such existing Tribunals will be transferred
to the new Tribunal.
o Composition of the Tribunal: The Tribunal will
consist of a Chairperson, Vice-Chairperson,
three judicial members, and three Exp:ert
members.
o They will be appointed by the central
government on the recommendation of a
Selection Committee.
o Each Tribunal Bench will consist of a
Chairperson or Vice-Chairperson, a judicial
member, and an Exp:ert member.
o The central government may also appoint two
Exp:erts serving in the Central Water
Engineering Service as assessors to advise the
Bench in its proceedings.
o The assessor should not be from the state which
is a party to the dispute.
● Statement 2 is correct : Three judicial members
and three Exp:ert members are part of the
tribunal.
● Statement 3 is Incorrect : Tribunal members are
appointed by the central government on the
recommendation of the selection committee.
Q.70) Ans: b
Exp:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council
is a non-permanent constitutional body enshrined
in Article 263 of the Constitution of India. It can
set up the President based on the provisions of
Article 263. First, such a body was established in
1990 on the recommendation of the Government
Commission under the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Inter state council (ISC ) does not interrupt in
court proceedings regarding all india services.
o It is important to note that the very first reason
the Constitution gives for setting up the
institution is that it will be useful when it comes
to inquiring into and advising upon disputes
which may have arisen between states.
o The other two are to discuss subjects for which
the components of the Indian union have
common interests and to figure out how to
coordinate policy
● Statement 2 is correct: Duties to investigate and
discuss the subjects of common interest between
 union and states and better coordination of policy
. • Pair 1 is incorrect: Following days of violent
o Deliberate on such matters of general interest protests across Kazakhstan, a significant and
to the States referred by the Chairman to the
Council. It shall have its own Secretariat.
o Inquiring into and advising upon disputes which
may have arisen between states;
o Investigating and discussing subjects in which
some or all of the States or the Union and one
or more of the states, have a common interest.

Q.71) Ans: b
Exp:
• The ambitious Creating Opportunities for
Manufacturing, Preeminence in Technology, and
Economic Strength (COMPETES) Act of 2022,
which seeks to open up new vistas for brilliant
individuals from around the world with a new
start-up visa, has been launched by the United
States. It aspires to strengthen supply chains and
re-energize the country's innovation engine so
that it can compete with China and the rest of the
globe for decades to come.
• The Act exempts STEM (science, technology,
engineering, or mathematics) PhDs from the
green card cap and creates a special green card
specifically for entrepreneurs. A Green Card
holder (permanent resident) is a person who has
been granted permission to live and work
permanently in the United States. The act
allocates USD 600 million per year to create
manufacturing facilities in the United States,
reducing the country's reliance on solar
components made in Xinjiang, China.
• It introduces a new "W" nonimmigrant
classification for entrepreneurs with a stake in a
startup, vital employees of a startup, and their
spouses and children.
sudden increase in fuel prices caused a national
crisis, with the government officially stepping
down. Angry Kazakhs initially flocked to the
streets after the government loosened price
limitations on LPG, causing gasoline prices to
quadruple in the oil-rich Central Asian nation. The
demonstrations began in the oil city of
Zhanaozen, where police killed at least 16 oil
employees protesting bad working conditions in
2011.
• Pair 2 is correct: According to satellite pictures,
North Korea appears to have begun renovating a
decommissioned nuclear test site. After leader
Kim Jong-un committed to stop all nuclear tests,
the Punggye-ri site was shut down in 2018 and
some components were blown up. The new
conclusion by US analysts comes amid speculation
that the country may resume nuclear and long-
range missile testing. However, analysts estimate
that Punggye-ri will take years to complete.

Q.72) Ans: b
Exp:
• Pair 3 is correct: Thousands of people came to the and Central Asia would be established in New
streets of Sudan's capital and other cities in a Delhi to support the new structure.
continuation of the country's unending protests
that have rocked the country since a military coup Q.74) Ans: d
in October 2021. Since the military took over on Exp:
October 25, 2021, at least 76 people have died as
a result of the protests. The new crackdown is
Exp:ected to make it more difficult for the United
Nations to find a way out of the country's
predicament. According to the pro-democracy
movement, protesters, largely young people,
marched through the streets of Khartoum and its
sister city, Omdurman. Protests were also held in • Pair 1 is correct: The India-assisted Social
other parts of the country, including Kassala, Red Housing Units project in Mauritius was virtually
Sea, Jazira, and the already tense Darfur region, inaugurated on January 20 by Prime Minister
according to the organization. Narendra Modi and his Mauritius counterpart
Pravind Kumar Jugnauth. The Social Housing
Q.73) Ans: d Project at Dagotiere and Mare Tabac was
Exp: established with the intention of providing low-

cost housing for Mauritius' disadvantaged

households. The Government of India supported
the 956 housing units project, which was finished
on time and on budget at a cost of 45 million
dollars. Roads, water supply, sewerage, drains,
• The first India-Central Asia Summit in virtual and other public services are all part of the
format was recently convened by India's Prime project's infrastructure.
Minister. Presidents of Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan,
Tajikistan, Turkmenistan, and Uzbekistan were
among those who attended.
• This was the first India-Central Asia summit,
which took place on the 30th anniversary of the
two nations' diplomatic relations. They talked
about how to take India-Central Asia relations to
new heights in the future. The Leaders decided in
a historic move to institutionalize the Summit
process by deciding to conduct it every two years.
They also decided to hold regular meetings of
Foreign Ministers, Trade Ministers, Culture
Ministers, and Security Council Secretaries to lay
the basis for the Summits. A secretariat for India
• Pair 2 is correct: An alleged drone strike in Abu
Dhabi, the capital of the United Arab Emirates
(UAE), recently resulted in numerous Exp:losions,
killing two Indians. The strike was claimed by
Yemen's Shia Houthi rebels, who have been in
charge of the country's northern regions,
including the capital Sana'a, for seven years. In
the face of such heinous atrocities, India has
Exp:ressed its sympathy with the UAE. The
Houthis launched a ballistic missile attack on
Riyadh, Saudi Arabia's capital, earlier in 2021.
• Pair 3 is correct: Burkina Faso's army recently
stated that President Roch Kabore had been
deposed, that the constitution had been
suspended, that the government and national
legislature had been dissolved, and that the
country's borders had been blocked. In Mali and
Guinea, the army has overthrown administrations
in the last 18 months. After President Idriss Deby
died fighting insurgents on the battlefield in
Chad's north last year (2021), the military took
command.
Q.75) Ans: c
Exp:
• Option C is correct: Conservation Assured | Tiger
Standards (CA|TS) has been agreed upon as an
accreditation tool by the global coalition of Tiger
Range Countries (TRCs) and has been developed
by tiger and protected area Exp:erts. Officially
launched in 2013, it sets minimum standards for
effective management of target species and
encourages assessment of these standards in
relevant conservation areas. CA|TS is a set of
criteria which allows tiger sites to check if their
management will lead to successful tiger
conservation. There are currently 13 tiger range
countries - India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Cambodia,
China, Indonesia, Lao PDR, Malaysia, Myanmar,
Nepal, Russia, Thailand and Vietnam.
• CA|TS is a globally accepted conservation tool
that sets best practice and standards to manage
tigers and encourages assessments to benchmark
progress. Habitats which support tiger
populations are the building blocks of wild tiger
conservation and effectively managing them is
essential for long-term survival of wild tigers.
• The 14 tiger reserves, which have been accredited
are:
o Manas, Kaziranga and Orang in Assam
o Satpura, Kanha and Panna in Madhya Pradesh
o Pench in Maharashtra
o Valmiki Tiger Reserve in Bihar
o Dudhwa in Uttar Pradesh
o Sunderbans in West Bengal
o Parambikulam in Kerala
o Bandipur Tiger Reserve in Karnataka
o Mudumalai and Anamalai Tiger Reserves in
Tamil Nadu.
Q.76) Ans: b
Exp:
• Option A is incorrect: The Beijing Declaration and
Platform for Action is an agenda for women’s
empowerment. It seeks to promote equality
between women and men as a matter of human
rights and a condition for social justice and is also
a necessary and fundamental prerequisite for
equality, development and peace.
• Option B is correct: During the St. Petersburg
Declaration in 2010, the countries agreed to a
Global Tiger Recovery Program and pledged to
double the global tiger population by 2022.
• Option C is incorrect: On 30 January 2012,
pharmaceutical companies, donors, endemic
countries and non-government organizations
came together to sign the London Declaration on
Neglected Tropical Diseases. Together, they
committed to control, eliminate or eradicate 10
diseases by 2020 and improve the lives of over a
billion people.
• Option D is incorrect: The Brazzaville Declaration
aims to implement coordination and cooperation
between different government sectors to protect
the benefits provided by peatland ecosystems.
The Brazzaville Declaration promotes better
management and conservation of the peatlands,
which represent one of the biggest carbon stores
on the planet, for climate mitigation and other
benefits.
Q.77) Ans: b
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: 'India State of Forest
Report 2021’ is prepared by the Forest Survey of
India (FSI) which has been mandated to assess the
forest and tree resources of the country. In 2021,
the total forest and tree cover in India is 80.9
million hectares, which is 24.62% of the
geographical area of the country. As compared to
the assessment of 2019, there is an increase of
2,261 sq km in the total forest and tree cover of
the country. Out of this, the increase in the forest
cover has been observed as 1,540 sq km and that
in tree cover is 721 sq km.
o 17 states/UTs have above 33% of the
geographical area under forest cover. Out of
these states and UT’s, five states/UTs namely
Lakshadweep, Mizoram, Andaman & Nicobar
Islands, Arunachal Pradesh and Meghalaya have
more than 75 percent forest cover while 12
states/UTs namely Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura,
Goa, Kerala, Sikkim, Uttarakhand, Chhattisgarh,
Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu, Assam,
Odisha, have forest cover between 33 percent
to 75 percent.
• Statement 2 is correct: Increase in forest cover
has been observed in open forest followed by
very dense forest. Top three states showing
increase in forest cover are Andhra Pradesh (647
sq km) followed by Telangana (632 sq km) and
Odisha (537 sq km).
o Total mangrove cover in the country is 4,992 sq
km. An increase of 17 sq Km in mangrove cover
has been observed as compared to the previous
assessment of 2019. Top three states showing
mangrove cover increase are Odisha (8 sq km)
followed by Maharashtra (4 sq km) and
Karnataka (3 sq km).
o Total carbon stock in country’s forest is
estimated to be 7,204 million tonnes and there
an increase of 79.4 million tonnes in the carbon
stock of country as compared to the last
assessment of 2019. The annual increase in the
carbon stock is 39.7 million tonnes.
o Area-wise Madhya Pradesh has the largest
forest cover in the country followed by
Arunachal Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha and
Maharashtra.
• Statement 3 is correct: In terms of forest cover as
percentage of total geographical area, the top five
States are Mizoram (84.53%), Arunachal Pradesh
(79.33%), Meghalaya (76.00%), Manipur (74.34%)
and Nagaland (73.90%).
Q.78) Ans: c
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct:Recently, the National
Green Tribunal (NGT) has directed Delhi and
Haryana to enforce the Environment
Management Plan (EMP) that the two
governments have prepared for the rejuvenation
and protection of the Najafgarh Jheel, a
transboundary wetland. Najafgarh Jheel is located
in a natural depression in southwest Delhi, close
to the Gurugram-Rajokri border on National
Highway-48. Najafgarh Jheel is a transboundary
wetland. It is located along the borders of Delhi
and Haryana. The Najafgarh lake is under the
control of Delhi.
• Statement 2 is correct: The lake is largely filled
with sewage from Gurugram and surrounding
villages of Delhi. A portion of the lake falls in
Haryana. The presence of 281 bird species,
including several threatened ones such as
Egyptian vulture, Sarus Crane, Steppe Eagle,
Greater Spotted Eagle, Imperial Eagle and those
migrating along the Central Asian Flyway has been
reported at the lake
• Statement 3 is incorrect: The Sahibi river, also
called the Sabi River, is an ephemeral, rain-fed
river flowing through Rajasthan, Haryana and
Delhi states in India. It drains into Yamuna in
Delhi, where its channeled course is also called
the Najafgarh drain, which also serves as
Najafgarh drain bird sanctuary.
Q.79) Ans: d
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Rogue, freak, or killer
waves are often called 'extreme storm waves' by
scientists, are those waves which are greater than
twice the size of surrounding waves. They are very
unpredictable, and often come unExp:ectedly
from directions other than prevailing wind and
waves. They look like "walls of water." They are
often steep-sided with unusually deep troughs.
• Statement 2 is correct: Causes of their
occurrence - Focusing of wave energy: When
waves formed by a storm develop in a water
current against the normal wave direction, an
interaction can take place which results in a
shortening of the wave frequency. This can cause
the waves to dynamically join together, forming
 very big 'rogue' waves. The currents where these
are sometimes seen are the Gulf Stream and
Agulhas current.
• Statement 3 is correct: Constructive interference:
Extreme waves often form because swells, while
traveling across the ocean, do so at different
speeds and directions. As these swells pass
through one another, their crests, troughs, and
lengths sometimes coincide and reinforce each
other. This process can form unusually large,
towering waves that quickly disappear. If the
swells are traveling in the same direction, these
mountainous waves may last for several minutes
before subsiding.
Q.80) Ans: c
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The National Green
Tribunal has been established under the National
Green Tribunal Act, 2010 for effective and
Exp:editious disposal of cases relating to
environmental protection and conservation of
forests and other natural resources including
enforcement of any legal right relating to
environment and giving relief and compensation
for damages to persons and property and for
matters connected therewith or incidental
thereto. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the
procedure laid down under the Code of Civil
Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles
of natural justice. With the establishment of the
NGT, India became the third country in the world
to set up a specialized environmental tribunal,
only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first
developing country to do so.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Members are chosen by
a selection committee (headed by a sitting judge
of the Supreme Court of India) that reviews their
applications and conducts interviews.
The Judicial members are chosen from applicants
who are serving or retired judges of High Courts.
Exp:ert members are chosen from applicants who
are either serving or retired bureaucrats not
below the rank of an Additional Secretary to the
Government of India (not below the rank of
Principal Secretary if serving under a state
government) with a minimum administrative
Exp:erience of five years in dealing with
environmental matters. Or, the Exp:ert members
must have a doctorate in a related field.
• Statement 3 is correct: The Tribunal's dedicated
jurisdiction in environmental matters shall
provide speedy environmental justice and help
reduce the burden of litigation in the higher
courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and
endeavor for disposal of applications or appeals
finally within 6 months of filing of the same. New
Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the
Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai
are the other four places of sitting of the Tribunal.
Q.81) Ans: d
Exp:
• Option D is correct: Recently, the National Green
Tribunal (NGT) directed the constitution of a ‘Fly
Ash Management and Utilisation Mission’. The
Fly Ash Management and Utilisation Mission,
besides monitoring the disposal of annual stock of
unutilised fly ash, will also see how 1,670 million
tonnes of legacy (accumulated) fly ash could be
utilized in the least hazardous manner and how all
safety measures could be taken by the power
plants.
o Fly ash is an unwanted unburnt residue of coal
combustion in a coal thermal power plant. It is
emitted along with flue gases during the
burning of coal in a furnace and collected using
the electrostatic precipitators. The fly ash
collected with the help of precipitators is
converted into a wet slurry to minimise
fugitive dust emissions. It is then transported to
the scientifically designed ash ponds through
slurry pipelines. Fly ash includes substantial
amounts of silicon dioxide (SiO2), aluminium
oxide (Al2O3), ferric oxide (Fe2O3) and calcium
oxide (CaO).
Q.82) Ans: b
Exp:
• Pair 1 is incorrect: The spot-billed pelican
(Pelecanus philippensis) or grey pelican is a
member of the pelican family. It breeds in
southern Asia from southern Iran across India east
to Indonesia. It is a bird of large inland and coastal
waters, especially large lakes. The breeding
population of these pelican species is limited to
India, Sri Lanka and Cambodia. In the non-
breeding season they are recorded in Nepal,
Myanmar, Thailand, Laos and Vietnam.
o Conservation status:
IUCN status: Near Threatened
Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule IV
(Hunting prohibited but the penalty for any
 violation is less compared to the first two
schedules).
• Pair 2 is correct: India has achieved a remarkable
feat by doubling the tiger population four years
ahead of its goal. Conservation Assured |Tiger
Standards (CA|TS) accreditation has already been
awarded to 14 tiger reserves in India. India has
successfully translocated a tiger in the western
part of the Rajaji Tiger Reserve. Similar
reintroduction has been planned for Kanha Tiger
Reserve in Madhya Pradesh.
o Conservation Status of Tiger:
Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972: Schedule
I Ministries/institutions regarding the integration
IUCN status: Endangered.
Convention on International Trade in
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora
(CITES): Appendix I.
• Pair 3 is incorrect: There are three subspecies of
swamp deer found in the Indian Subcontinent.
The western swamp deer (Rucervus duvaucelii)
found in Nepal. Southern swamp deer/Hard
Ground Barasingha (Rucervus duvaucelii branderi)
found in central and north India. Eastern swamp
deer (Rucervus duvaucelii ranjitsinhi) found in the
Kaziranga (Assam) and Dudhwa National Parks
(Uttar Pradesh).
o Protection Status of Swamp Deer:
IUCN Red List: Vulnerable
CITES: Appendix I
Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
Q.83) Ans: d
Exp:
• Option D is correct: Nandankanan Zoological
Park is located in Odisha. It was inaugurated in
1960. It is the first zoo in the country to become a
member of the World Association of Zoos &
Aquariums (WAZA). WAZA is the global alliance of
regional associations, national federations, zoos
and aquariums, dedicated to the care and
conservation of animals and their habitats around
the world. It is recognized as a leading zoo for the
breeding of the Indian pangolin and white tiger.
Leopards, mouse deer, lions, rats and vultures are
also bred here. It was the world’s first captive
crocodile breeding center, where gharials were
bred in captivity in 1980. The State Botanical
Garden of Nandankanan is one of the pioneering
plant conservation and nature education centers
of Odisha.
Q.84) Ans: a
Exp:
• Option A is correct: The creation of an Indian
Environmental Service (IES) was recommended
by a committee headed by former Cabinet
secretary T.S.R Subramanian in 2014. The
committee was established to review
environmental laws in the country and to bring
them in line with the then required needs.
o Observations of TSR Subramanian Committee:
Although India had a strong environmental
policy and legislative framework, there was no
effective coordination amongst various
of environmental concerns. There is a lack of
trained personnel involved in the
administration, policy formulation, and
supervising the implementation of policies of
the state and central governments. Looking at
the current administrative set-up, it can be
inferred that the government servants might
not be able to spare special time for
environmental causes.
• Option B is incorrect: Swaminathan committee
was constituted to find the problems faced by the
farmers. The Swaminathan Report covers key
recommendations and findings related to farmer
competitiveness, productivity of agriculture,
irrigation, employment, food security, credit and
insurance.
• Option C is incorrect: Lodha committee was
constituted to recommend reforms for cricket in
India.
• Option D is incorrect: Arun Goel committee was
constituted to strengthen the Capital Goods(CG)
Sector and contribute more actively in the
national goal of achieving a USD 5 trillion
economy and a USD 1 trillion manufacturing
sector.
Q.85) Ans: b
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: State Environment
Impact Assessment Authority (SEIAAs) is a very
important arm of the Ministry for implementation
of Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA)
Notification at the State level and they have been
delegated powers to consider and grant
environmental clearance (EC) for all proposals
under Category B.
• Statement 2 is correct: There are seven criteria to
rate State Environmental Impact Assessment
 Agencies (SEIAA) on “transparency, efficiency and
accountability”. On a scale of seven, a SEIAA, for
instance, gets two marks for granting a clearance
in less than 80 days, one mark for within 105 days
and no marks for more. If less than 10% of the
projects for scrutiny prompted a site visit by
committee members, to examine ground
conditions, a SEIAA would get one mark. More
than 20%, on the other hand, would be a demerit
or zero marks. SEIAA with a score of seven or
more would be rated ‘five star.’
• Statement 3 is incorrect: There is no negative
marking proposed for not meeting the criteria for
ranking.
Q.86) Ans: c
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Pangolins are scaly
anteater mammals of the order Pholidota. They
have large, protective keratin scales covering their
skin. They are the only known mammals on earth
to have this feature. Pangolins are nocturnal, and
their diet consists of mainly ants and termites,
which they capture using their long tongues.I
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Out of the eight species
of pangolin, the Indian Pangolin and the Chinese
Pangolin are found in India. The distribution of
Indian Pangolin is wide in India, except in the arid
region, high Himalayas and the North-East. The
species also occurs in Bangladesh, Pakistan, Nepal
and Sri Lanka.
• Statement 3 is correct: Indian Pangolin - IUCN
Status: Endangered. Wildlife Protection Act,1972:
under Schedule I.
o Chinese Pangolin - Distribution of Pangolins
happens widely in Vietnam, Thailand, Cambodia
and the northeastern part of India. IUCN Status:
Critically Endangered, Wildlife Protection
Act,1972: Under Schedule I.
Q.87) Ans: d
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Red Sanders(Pterocarpus
santalinus) is an Indian endemic tree species with
a restricted geographical range in the Eastern
Ghats. The species is endemic to a distinct tract of
forests in Andhra Pradesh. Some contiguous
patches in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka also see
some wild growth.
• Statement 2 is correct: Red Sanders usually grow
in the rocky, degraded and fallow lands with Red
Soil and hot and dry climate. Red Sanders is
known for its therapeutic properties and is in high
demand for its cosmetic and medicinal properties.
It is also used to make furniture and demand a
high value in the international market. Its
popularity can be judged from the fact that a
tonne of Red Sanders costs anything between Rs
50 lakh to Rs 1 crore in the international market.
o Threats: Illicit felling for smuggling, forest fires,
cattle grazing and other anthropogenic threats.
• Statement 3 is correct: Protection Status- IUCN
Red List: Endangered, CITES: Appendix II, Wildlife
(Protection) Act 1972: Schedule II
Q.88) Ans: a
Exp:
• Option A is correct: Miss Kerala, also known as
Denison barb, red-line torpedo barb and roseline
shark. It is a fish species with red and black stripes
on its body. Its scientific name is Sahyadria
denisonii. It is found in the States of Kerala and
Karnataka. Its IUCN Status is Endangered. This
species is known to inhabit fast-flowing hill
streams and is often found in rocky pools with
thick vegetation along river banks. The fish
species is being Exp:loited for the aquarium trade.
• Option B is incorrect: It has been named after
plant taxonomist C.N. Sunil, retired professor and
research guide of Botany, SNM College. It is a
perennial plant of the Cyperaceae family. It stands
20-59 cm tall and was collected from an elevation
of 1,100 meters in Western Ghats region. It has
been provisionally assessed as data deficient (DD)
under the IUCN Red List categories.
• Option C is incorrect: Researchers from Kerala
have identified two new species of fungi from the
genus Ganoderma that are associated with
coconut stem rot disease. They have also
genotyped the two fungi species, named
Ganoderma keralense and G. pseudoapplanatum
and identified genetic biomarkers.
o Butt rot or Basal stem rot of Coconut: The basal
stem rot of coconut is known by several names
in different parts of India: Ganoderma wilt in
Andhra Pradesh, Anaberoga in Karnataka,
Thanjavur wilt in Tamil Nadu. The infection
begins at the roots. The symptoms include
discolouration and rotting of stems and leaves.
A reddish-brown secretion is seen and this
secretion is reported only in India. Once
infected, recovery of the plants is highly
unlikely. In the final stages, the flowering
decreases and the coconut palm dies.
• Option D is incorrect: It is a prostrate perennial
herb named after K.M. Prabhukumar in
recognition of his research on flowering plants of
the Western Ghats. It was discovered in the
Chembra Peak grasslands of Wayanad. It hails
from the family Rubiaceae and grows on high-
altitude grasslands. It grows up to 70 cm in length
and is many-flowered with the petals pale pink in
colour.
Q.89) Ans: b
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Millimetre Wave-Band
is a particular segment of the radio frequency
spectrum that ranges between 24 GHz and 100
GHz. This spectrum has a short wavelength, and is
appropriate to deliver greater speeds and lower
latencies. This in turn makes data transfer
efficient and seamless as the current available
networks work optimally only on lower frequency
bandwidths.
o The current available networks work optimally
well on the shorter wavelengths, but they don’t
work well on the parameter of speed, which is
needed for 5G.
o So for 5G to work at its full potential, and speed
up the mm wave band is very essential.
o The mm-band had been the subject of
controversy due to out-of-band emissions into
the passive satellite band used for weather
satellites at 23.6-24 GHz. Out-of-band emission
is emission on a frequency or frequencies
immediately outside the necessary bandwidth
which results from the modulation process.
• Statement 2 is correct: Millimeter waves are
absorbed by gases and moisture in the
atmosphere, which reduces the range and
strength of the waves. Rain and humidity reduce
their signal strength and propagation distance, a
condition known as rain fade. The propagation
distance at the lower frequencies is up to a
kilometer, while the higher frequencies travel
only a few meters. A millimeter wave travels by
line of sight and is blocked or degraded by
physical objects like trees, walls and buildings. Its
propagation is also affected by proximity to
humans and animals, primarily due to their water
content.
Q.90) Ans: c
Exp:
• Option A is incorrect: In an autologous
transplant, your own blood-forming stem cells are
collected. You are then treated with high doses of
chemotherapy. The high-dose treatment kills the
cancer cells, but it also gets rid of the blood-
producing cells that are left in your bone marrow.
Afterward, the collected stem cells are put back
into your bloodstream, allowing the bone marrow
to produce new blood cells.
• Option B is incorrect: An allogeneic stem cell
transplant uses healthy blood stem cells from a
donor to replace your diseased or damaged bone
marrow. An allogeneic stem cell transplant is also
called an allogeneic bone marrow transplant.
• Option C is correct: Xenotransplantation is “any
procedure that involves the transplantation,
implantation or infusion into a human recipient of
either (a) live cells, tissues, or organs from a
nonhuman animal source, or (b) human body
fluids, cells, tissues or organs that have had ex
vivo contact with live nonhuman animal cells,
tissues or organs”. Xenotransplantation is seen as
an alternative to the clinical transplantation of
human organs whose demand around the world
exceeds supply by a long distance.
• Option D is incorrect: A procedure in which a
patient receives healthy stem cells (blood-forming
cells) to replace their own stem cells that have
been destroyed by treatment with radiation or
high doses of chemotherapy. In a syngeneic bone
marrow transplant, the healthy stem cells come
from the bone marrow of the patient’s healthy
identical twin.
Q.91) Ans: a
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: A solid-state battery has
higher energy density than a Lithium-ion battery
that uses liquid electrolyte solution. It doesn’t
have a risk of Exp:losion or fire, so there is no
need to have components for safety, thus saving
more space. Then we have more space to put
more active materials which increase battery
capacity in the battery. A solid-state battery can
increase energy density per unit area since only a
small number of batteries are needed. The
advantages of the solid-state battery technology
include higher cell energy density (by eliminating
the carbon anode), lower charge time (by
eliminating the need to have lithium diffuse into
the carbon particles in conventional lithium-ion
 cells), ability to undertake more charging cycles
and thereby a longer life, and improved safety.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Solid-state batteries can
provide solutions for many problems of liquid Li-
ion batteries, such as flammability, limited
voltage, unstable solid-electrolyte interphase
formation, poor cycling performance and
strength. In the charging & discharging cycle, ions
transfer to and fro between the anode (negative
electrode generally made of graphite) and
cathode (positive electrode made of lithium).
Q.92) Ans: a
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Dark matter is composed
of particles that do not absorb, reflect, or emit
light, so they cannot be detected by observing
electromagnetic radiation. A dark matter halo is a
basic unit of cosmological structure. It is a
hypothetical region that has decoupled from
cosmic Exp:ansion and contains gravitationally
bound matter. Thought to consist of dark matter,
halos have not been observed directly. Their
existence is inferred through observations of their
effects on the motions of stars and gas in galaxies
and gravitational lensing.
• Statement 2 is correct: Dark matter is material
that cannot be seen directly and it has never been
detected directly. We know that dark matter
exists because of the effect it has on objects that
we can observe directly.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Roughly 68% of the
universe is dark energy. Dark matter makes up
about 27%. The rest - everything on Earth,
everything ever observed with all of our
instruments, all normal matter - adds up to less
than 5% of the universe.
Q.93) Ans: b
Exp:
• Option B is correct: The event horizon of a black
hole is linked to the object's escape velocity - the
speed that one would need to exceed to escape
the black hole's gravitational pull. The closer
someone came to a black hole, the greater the
speed they would need to escape that massive
gravity. The event horizon is the threshold around
the black hole where the escape velocity
surpasses the speed of light. The size of an event
horizon depends on the black hole's mass.
o According to Einstein's theory of special
relativity, nothing can travel faster through
space than the speed of light. This means a
black hole's event horizon is essentially the
point from which nothing can return. The name
refers to the impossibility of witnessing any
event taking place inside that border, the
horizon beyond which one cannot see.
o Within the event horizon, one would find the
black hole's singularity, where previous research
suggests all of the object's mass has collapsed
to an infinitely dense extent. This means the
fabric of space and time around the singularity
has also curved to an infinite degree, so the
laws of physics as we currently know them
break down.
Q.94) Ans: b
Exp:
• Option B is correct: X-ray Polarimeter Satellite
(XPoSat) is an ISRO planned space observatory to
study the polarization of cosmic X-rays. It aims to
study various dynamics of astronomical sources in
extreme conditions. XPoSat will study the 50
brightest known sources in the universe, including
pulsars, black hole X-ray binaries, active galactic
nuclei, and nonthermal supernova remnants.
• The spacecraft will carry two scientific payloads in
a low earth orbit with preference for a low
inclination orbit. The primary payload POLIX
(Polarimeter Instrument in X-rays) will measure
the polarimetry parameters (degree and angle of
polarization) of astronomical sources in medium
X-ray energy of 8-30 keV photons. The XSPECT (X-
ray Spectroscopy and Timing) payload will give
spectroscopic information of soft X-rays in the
energy range of 0.8-15 keV.
• The spacecraft is planned to be launched in 2021
but due to the Chinese Wuhan virus pandemic the
launch may get delayed. XPOSAT will provide a
service time of at least five years. The observatory
will be placed in a circular low Earth orbit of 500
to 700 km.
Q.95) Ans: d
Exp:
• Option A is correct: Open Source Software refers
to publicly accessible software.
• Option B is correct: Source code is the basic code
on which the software is formulated. In open
source softwares, source code is available for
public to manipulate and modify.
• Option C is correct: It includes a license that
allows programmers to modify the software as
 per their needs. It works on the following
underlying Principles: Open exchange,
Collaborative participation, Rapid
prototyping, Transparency, Meritocracy and
Community-oriented development.
• Option D is incorrect: Unlike source code of
closed softwares which are encrypted, OSS code is
publicly available.
Q.96) Ans: c
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: Negative ion technology
embeds negative ions in personal products and is
currently being advertised as a means to maintain
health, balance energy, and improve well-being.
This technology is used in certain silicone
wristbands, quantum or scalar-energy pendants,
and kinesthesiology tape. Negative ions are also
made when sunlight, radiation, air, or water break
down oxygen. The minerals that produce these
negative ions often include naturally occurring
radioactive substances such as uranium and
thorium. It is believed that negative ions create
positive vibes and uplift the mood. They show the
various mental and physical health benefits, such
as stress reduction, better sleeping, respiration
etc. whereas these ions may also act on
pollutants, make them negatively charged and get
them collected on surfaces.
• Statement 2 is correct: Exp:osure to ionizing
radiation can cause adverse health effects and
wearing the products for extended periods could
pose health risks that include tissue and DNA
damage. Exp:osure can also cause severe harmful
effects such as: Skin burns, Acute radiation
sickness that causes cancer and hairfall,
Temporary reduction in white blood cells, Possible
chromosomal damage, Reduction in resistance to
infection.
Q.97) Ans: b
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Web 3.0 is a
decentralized internet to be run on blockchain
technology, which would be different from the
versions in use, Web 1.0 and Web 2.0. The spirit
of Web3 is Decentralized Autonomous
Organization (DAO). DAO is all about the business
rules and governing rules in any transaction are
transparently available for anyone to see and
software will be written conforming to these
rules. There is no need for a central authority to
authenticate or validate.
• Statement 2 is correct: With block chain, the
time and place of the transaction are recorded
permanently. Thus, Web3 enables peer to peer
(seller to buyer) transactions by eliminating the
role of the intermediary.
• Statement 3 is correct: In Web3, users will have
ownership stakes in platforms and applications
unlike now where tech giants control the
platforms. Web3 will deliver a decentralized and
fair internet where users control their own data.
Q.98) Ans: a
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The AT4 is a single-shot,
recoilless smoothbore anti-tank weapon that is
unguided, man-portable, and disposable. It is one
of the world's most widely used light antitank
weapons. They're small, single-shot, and
completely disposable, and they're known for
their ease of use and handling. The weapon is
around 9 kg in weight and has a range of 200
metres. The AT4 is intended to give infantry units
a means to destroy or disable armoured vehicles
and fortifications
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Major Saab, a Swedish
defence company, manufactures the AT4. The
AT4 is designed to allow infantry units to attack or
disable fortifications and armoured vehicles. The
launcher and projectile are packaged together
and issued as a single unit of ammunition, with
the launcher being discarded after each use.
Q.99) Ans: a
Exp:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Multi-Agency Centre
(MAC) is a central location where numerous
agencies can share intelligence inputs. The MAC is
made up of around 28 agencies, and it includes
every organisation that is involved in counter-
terrorism in any form. The Research and Analysis
Wing (R&AW), the armed forces, and state police
are all examples of this. On the MAC, many
security agencies share real-time intelligence
information.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The Intelligence Bureau
(IB) is the MAC's nodal agency. At the MAC level,
a conference of all of these agencies is held
practically every day, during which the
intelligence from the previous 24 hours is brought
 to the table, discussed, and a plan of action
established or agreed upon.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: After the Kargil
invasion, the national-level MAC was established
in Delhi in 2001. Subsidiary MACs exist in the
states as well (SMACs). The MAC headquarters is
connected to around 400 secure sites. There has
also been talk about Exp:anding SMAC
connectivity to the district level.

Q.100) Ans: b
Exp:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: After the assassination
of former Prime Minister Indira Gandhi in 1985,
the Special Protection Group (SPG) was formed. It
was established with the purpose of providing
personal security to the Prime Minister, former
Prime Ministers, and their closest family
members.
• Statement 2 is correct: The law was revised in
2019, and SPG protection is now solely
guaranteed to the Prime Minister of India. Men
and women from the Central Armed Police Forces
(such as the Border Security Force, Central
Reserve Police Force, Central Industrial Security
Force, and the IndoTibetan Border Police) and the
Railway Protection Force Service make up the
SPG. SPG is in charge of the Prime Minister's
safety and security. The Prime Minister is always
protected by the SPG, both in India and overseas.