1.

Article 262 of the Constitution provides Additional Information:

for the adjudication of inter-state water
• The Inter-State Water Disputes Act
disputes by a separate tribunal. The need for
empowers the Central government to set
extrajudicial machinery to settle inter-state
up an ad hoc tribunal to adjudicate a
water disputes is because:
dispute between two or more states about
A. The courts being overburdened with an inter-state river or river valley's
litigations and adjudicating slowly are waters.
incapable of adjudicating sensitive
• The decision of the tribunal would be final
water disputes
and binding on the parties to the dispute.
B. Water resources are not private
• Neither the Supreme Court nor any other
property, and so the rule of law
court is to have jurisdiction regarding any
applied by ordinary courts is not
water dispute that may be referred to such
appropriate to deal with its
a tribunal under this Act.
distribution
C. Division and distribution of any
natural resources is out of judicial 2. The Indian Constitution has provisions
scrutiny in India related to which of the following?

D. The courts cannot employ technical 1. Adjudication of inter-state water

committees to ascertain the disputes
distribution of water resource 2. Coordination between Centre and
Answer: B State through inter-state councils

Explanation: 3. Freedom of inter-state trade,

commerce and intercourse
Option B is correct:
Select the correct answer using the codes
The need for extra judicial machinery to settle
below:
inter-state water disputes is as follows:
A. 1 and 2 only
• The Supreme Court would indeed have
jurisdiction to decide any dispute between B. 3 only
states in connection with water supplies if C. 2 and 3 only
legal rights or interests are concerned, but
D. 1, 2 and 3
the experience of most countries has
shown that rules of law based upon the Answer: D
analogy of private proprietary interests in
water do not afford a satisfactory basis
for settling disputes between the states
where the interests of the public at large in
the proper use of water supplies are
involved.
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Article 262 of the
Constitution provides for the adjudication
of interstate water disputes.
o It makes the provision that
Parliament may by law provide for
the adjudication of any dispute or
complaint concerning the use,
distribution and control of waters of
any inter-state river and river valley.
• Statement 2 is correct: Article 263
contemplates establishing an Inter-State
Council to affect coordination between the
states and between Centre and states.
• Statement 3 is correct: Articles 301 to 307
in Part XIII of the Constitution deal with
the trade, commerce, and intercourse
within India's territory. Article 301
declares that trade, commerce and
intercourse throughout the territory of
India shall be free.
3. Which of the following statements with
reference to the Zonal Councils in India is
incorrect?
A. Provision for Zonal Councils has been
provided under Part XIII of the
constitution
B. There are five zonal councils formed
under States Reorganisation Act 1956
C. The North Eastern Zonal Council was
not created under States
Reorganisation Act 1956
D. Zonal councils are advisory bodies that
make recommendations with regard to
any matter of common interest
Answer: A
• Option a is incorrect: The Zonal Councils
are the statutory (and not the
constitutional) bodies. They are
Established by an Act of the Parliament,
that is, States Reorganisation Act of 1956.
Additional Information:
• The act divided the country into five zones
Northern, Central, Eastern, Western and
Southern and provided a zonal council for
each zone.
• In addition to the above-mentioned Zonal
Councils, a North-Eastern Council was
created by a separate Act of Parliament,
the North-Eastern Council Act of 1971.
• These councils are advisory bodies that
make recommendations with regard to
any matter of common interest in the field
of economic and social planning between
the Centre and States border disputes,
linguistic minorities, inter-State transport
or matters connected with the
reorganization of States.
4. Consider the following statements:
1. The President can delegate executive
functions of the Centre to the State,
without the consent of the State.
2. The Governor of State can delegate
executive functions of State to the
Centre, with the consent of the Central
Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The President can
delegate executive functions of the Centre
to the State, with the consent of the State.
• Statement 2 is correct: The Governor of a
state may (with the consent of the Central
govt.) entrust to that govt. any of the
executive functions of the state.
Additional Information:
• Mutual Delegation of Functions
o The distribution of executive
powers between Centre and State is
rigid and many times lead to
conflicts, hence the Constitution
provides for inter-government
delegation of executive functions to
mitigate rigidity & avoid a situation
of deadlock.
o Accordingly, the President may
(with the consent of the state govt.)
entrust to that govt. any of the
executive functions of the Centre.
o Conversely, Constitution also
makes a provision for the
entrustment of the executive
functions of the Centre to a state
(without the consent of that state)
here, the delegation is by Parliament
(not by President)
o Mutual delegation of functions
between the Centre and State can
take place either under an
agreement or by legislation. (Centre
can use both the methods but a state
can use only the agreement method)
5. The Chairman of the interstate council is:
A. Prime Minister
B. Chief Ministers of different states on
rotation
C. President
D. Chairman of the Planning Commission
Answer: A
Explanation:
Option a is correct:
• Article 263 provides establishment of
Inter-State Council
• Sarkaria Commission on centre-state
relations recommended establishment of a
permanent interstate council.
• Therefore, in 1990 Inter-State Council was
established with Prime Minister as its
chairman
6. The North Eastern Council is headed by
which of the following?
A. President of India
B. Prime Minister
C. Union Home Minister
D. Minister of State, Ministry for
Development of North Eastern Region
(DoNER)
Answer: C
Explanation:
Recent amendments: C. Part XIII
• The Union Cabinet, in June 2018, D. Part X
approved the proposal of the Ministry of Answer: C
Development of North Eastern Region
(DoNER) for the nomination of the union Explanation:
home minister as ex-officio Chairman of • Option c is correct: Part XIII (Articles 301-
North Eastern Council (NEC). 307) deals with freedom of trade,
commerce and intercourse. The articles in
• The Cabinet has also approved that the
this part provide for power of Parliament
Minister of State (Independent Charge),
to impose restrictions on trade, commerce
Ministry of DoNER would serve as Vice
and intercourse and restrictions on the
Chairman of the Council.
legislative powers of the Union and of the
Option c is correct: Under the new arrangement, States with regard to trade and commerce.
the Home Minister shall be the Chairman and
Minister of DoNER as Vice Chairman, NEC and all
the Governors and Chief Ministers of North 8. Consider the following statements with
Eastern States will be Members. reference to parliamentary form of democracy:
Additional Information: 1. President is the head of the state and
the real executive.
• NEC was established under the North
Eastern Council Act, 1971 as an apex level 2. Prime minister is the head of the
body for securing balanced and government and the nominal
coordinated development and facilitating executive.
coordination with the States. 3. Collective responsibility is the
• Subsequent to the Amendment of 2002, fundamental principle of
NEC has been mandated to function as a parliamentary form of democracy.
regional planning body for the North Which of the statements given above is/are
Eastern Area and while formulating a incorrect?
regional plan for this area, shall give
A. 1 and 2 only
priority to the schemes and projects
benefiting two or more states provided B. 2 and 3 only
that in the case of Sikkim, the Council shall C. 1 and 3 only
formulate specific projects and schemes
D. 1, 2 and 3
for that State.
Answer: A
Explanation:
7. Which part of the Indian constitution
deals with Trade, Commerce and Inter Statement 1 and 2 are incorrect:
Course within the territories of India?
• The President is the nominal executive (de
A. Part XI jure executive or titular executive) while
B. Part XII the Prime Minister is the real executive (de
 facto executive).
• Thus, the President is head of the State,
while the Prime Minister is head of the
government.
• Hence, statement 1 and statement 2 are
incorrect.
Statement 3 is correct:
• Article 74 provides for a council of
ministers headed by the Prime Minister to
aid and advise the President in the
exercise of his functions.
• The advice so tendered is binding on the
President.
• The ministers are collectively responsible
to the Parliament in general and to the Lok
Sabha in particular (Article 75).
• They act as a team, and swim and sink
together.
• The principle of collective responsibility
implies that the Lok Sabha can remove the
ministry (i.e., council of ministers headed
by the prime minister) from office by
passing a vote of no confidence.
• Hence, statement 3 is correct.
Source: Laxmikant (Parliamentary System).
9. Which of the following are some of the
drawbacks of the Parliamentary System?
1. Wide Representation
2. Dictatorship of the Cabinet
3. Government by amateurs
4. Responsible Government
How many of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 2 and 3 are correct:
In spite of the above merits, the parliamentary
system suffers from the following demerits:
• Unstable Government: The parliamentary
system does not provide a stable
government. There is no guarantee that a
government can survive its tenure.
o The ministers depend on the mercy
of the majority legislators for their
continuity and survival in office.
The Government headed by Morarji
Desai, Charan Singh, V.P. Singh,
Chandra Sekhar, Deva Gowda and
I.K. Gujral are some such examples.
• No Continuity of Policies: The
parliamentary system is not conducive for
the formulation and implementation of
long-term policies. This is due to the
uncertainty of the tenure of the
government. For example, the Janata
Government headed by Morarji Desai in
1977 reversed a large number of policies of
the previous Congress Government.
• Dictatorship of the Cabinet: When the
ruling party enjoys absolute majority in
the Parliament, the cabinet becomes
autocratic and exercises nearly unlimited
powers.
• Against Separation of Powers: In the
parliamentary system, the legislature and
the executive are together and
inseparable. The cabinet acts as the leader
of the legislature as well as the executive.
• Government by Amateurs: The
parliamentary system is not conducive to
administrative efficiency as the ministers
are not experts in their fields. The Prime
Minister has a limited choice in the
selection of ministers; his choice is
restricted to the members of Parliament
alone and does not extend to external
talent.
Hence, option B is correct.
The parliamentary system of government has the
following merits:
• Harmony Between Legislature and
Executive: The executive is a part of the
legislature and both are interdependent at
work. As a result, there is less scope for
disputes and conflicts between the two
organs.
• Responsible Government: By its very
nature, the parliamentary system
establishes a responsible government. The
ministers are responsible to the Parliament
for all their acts of omission and
commission.
• Prevents Despotism: Under this system,
the executive authority is vested in a
group of individuals (council of ministers)
and not in a single person. This dispersal
of authority checks the dictatorial
tendencies of the executive.
• Ready Alternative Government: In case
the ruling party loses its majority, the
Head of the State can invite the opposition
party to form the government. This means
an alternative government can be formed
without fresh elections.
• Wide Representation: In a parliamentary
system, the executive consists of a group
of individuals (i.e., ministers who are
representatives of the people). Hence, it is
possible to provide representation to all
sections and regions in the government.
Source: Laxmikant (Parliamentary System).
10. Consider the following with reference to the
effect of the National emergency on fundamental
rights:
1. When a proclamation of National
emergency is made 6 rights under
article 19 are automatically suspended.
2. In case National emergency is
proclaimed on the ground of external
aggression, fundamental rights under
article 19 are not suspended.
3. The President in such times is also
empowered to suspend the right to
move any court for enforcement of any
fundamental rights except article 20
and article 21.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: According to
Article 358, when a proclamation of
national emergency is made, the six
Fundamental Rights under Article 19
are automatically suspended. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The 44th
 Amendment Act of 1978 restricted the
scope of Article 358. The six
Fundamental Rights under Article 19
can be suspended only when the
National Emergency is declared on the
ground of war or external aggression
and not on the ground of armed
rebellion. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
• Statement 3 is correct: Article 359
authorizes the president to suspend
the right to move any court for the
enforcement of Fundamental Rights
during a National Emergency. The
44th Amendment Act of 1978 restricted
the scope of Article 359 in two ways.
Firstly, the President cannot suspend
the right to move the Court for the
enforcement of fundamental rights
guaranteed by Articles 20 to 21. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
Source: Laxmikant(Emergency Provisions)
11. Which of the following is a proper condition
for use of the President's Rule as per the Bommai
case judgment of the Supreme Court?
A. Where the ruling party enjoying
majority support in the assembly has
suffered a massive defeat in the
general elections to the Lok Sabha.
B. Maladministration in the state or
allegations of corruption against the
ministry or stringent financial
exigencies of the state.
C. Where a constitutional direction of the
Central government is disregarded by
the state government
D. Where the governor makes his own
assessment of the support of a ministry
in the assembly and recommends
imposition of President’s Rule without
allowing the ministry to prove its
majority on the floor of the Assembly.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Option C is correct:
Based on the report of the Sarkaria Commission on
Centre-state Relations (1988), the Supreme Court in
Bommai case (1994) enlisted the situations where
the exercise of power under Article 356 could be
proper or improper. Imposition of President’s
Rule in a state would be proper in the following
situations:
• Where after general elections to the
assembly, no party secures a majority,
that is, ‘Hung Assembly’.
• Where the party having a majority in
the assembly declines to form a
ministry and the governor cannot find
a coalition ministry commanding a
majority in the assembly.
• Where a ministry resigns after its
defeat in the assembly and no other
party is willing or able to form a
ministry commanding a majority in the
assembly.
• Where the constitutional direction of
the Central government is
disregarded by the state government.
Hence, option C is correct.
• Internal subversion where, for
example, a government is deliberately
acting against the Constitution and the
law or is fomenting a violent revolt.
• Physical breakdown where the
government wilfully refuses to
discharge its constitutional obligations
 endangering the security of the state.
Option A, B and D are incorrect:
• The imposition of President’s Rule in a
state would be improper under the
following situations:
• Where a ministry resigns or is
dismissed on losing majority support
in the assembly and the governor
recommends imposition of President’s
Rule without probing the possibility of
forming an alternative ministry.
• Where the governor makes his own
assessment of the support of a ministry
in the assembly and recommends
imposition of President’s Rule without
allowing the ministry to prove its
majority on the floor of the Assembly.
• Where the ruling party enjoying
majority support in the assembly has
suffered a massive defeat in the
general elections to the Lok Sabha such
as in 1977 and 1980.
• Internal disturbances not amounting to
internal subversion or physical
breakdown.
• Maladministration in the state or
allegations of corruption against the
minis-tryor stringent financial
exigencies of the state.
• Where the state government is not
given prior warning to rectify itself
except in case of extreme urgency
leading to disastrous consequences.
• Where the power is used to sort out
intraparty problems of the ruling
party, or for a purpose extraneous or
irrelevant to the one for which it has
been conferred by the Constitution.
Source: Laxmikant (Emergency
Provisions).
12. Consider the following with reference to
Financial Emergency:
1. A proclamation declaring financial
emergency must be approved by both
the Houses of Parliament within two
months from the date of its issue.
2. Once approved by both the Houses of
Parliament, the Financial Emergency
continues indefinitely till it is revoked.
3. When a financial emergency is
proclaimed, the President may issue
directions for the reduction of salaries
and allowances of the judges of the
Supreme Court and the high court.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Article 360 empowers the president to
proclaim a Financial Emergency if he is
satisfied that a situation has arisen due to
which the financial stability or credit of
India or any part of its territory is
threatened.
• Statement 1 is correct: A proclamation
declaring financial emergency must be
approved by both the Houses of
Parliament within two months from the
date of its issue. Hence, statement 1 is
correct.
• Statement 2 is correct:
 o Once approved by both the Houses
of Parliament, the Financial
Emergency continues indefinitely
till it is revoked. Hence, statement 2
is correct.
• Statement 3 is correct: The President may
issue directions for the reduction of
salaries and allowances of
o all or any class of persons serving
the Union;
o the judges of the Supreme Court and
the high court. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Additional Information:
This implies two things:
• there is no maximum period prescribed
for its operation; and
• repeated parliamentary approval is not
required for its continuation.
A proclamation of Financial Emergency may be
revoked by the president at any time by a
subsequent proclamation. Such a proclamation
does not require parliamentary approval.
The consequences of the proclamation of a
Financial Emergency are as follows:
• The executive authority of the Centre
extends to the giving of
o directions to any state to observe
such canons of financial propriety as
may be specified in the directions;
o such other directions to any state as
the President may deem necessary
and adequate for the purpose.
• Any such direction may include a
provision requiring
o the reduction of salaries and
allowances of all or any class of
persons serving in the state;
o the reservation of all money bills or
other financial bills for the
consideration of the President after
they are passed by the legislature of
the state.
Source: Laxmikant (Emergency Provisions).
13. Consider the following statements with
reference to the 73rd Constitutional
Amendment Act.
1. The act gives a constitutional status to
the Panchayati Raj Institutions.
2. The act has given a practical shape to
Article 40 of the Constitution.
3. The act added the 11th schedule to the
constitution.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
73RD AMENDMENT ACT OF 1992
Statement 1 is correct: This act has added a
new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This
part is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and
consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243
O.
Statement 3 is correct: In addition, the act has
also added a new Eleventh Schedule to the
Constitution. This schedule contains 29
functional items of the panchayats. It deals
with Article 243-G. Hence, statement 3 is
correct.
Statement 2 is correct: The act has given a
practical shape to Article 40 of the
Constitution which says that, “The State shall
take steps to organize village panchayats and
endow them with such powers and authority
as may be necessary to enable them to
function as units of self-government.” This
article forms a part of the Directive Principles
of State Policy. Hence, statement 2 is correct.
Additional info:
The act gives a constitutional status to the
panchayati raj institutions. It has brought
them under the purview of the justiciable part
of the Constitution. In other words, the state
governments are under constitutional
obligation to adopt the new panchayati raj
system in accordance with the provisions of
the act. Consequently, neither the formation
of panchayats nor the holding of elections at
regular intervals depend on the will of the
state government any more. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
Source: Laxmi Kant (73rd CAA).
14. Which of the following is correct
regarding 'Gram Sabha'?
A. It is a body consisting of people
registered in electoral rolls of the
village.
B. It is a body consisting of people who
are residents of the village.
C. It is a body of representatives elected
by people registered in electoral rolls
of the village.
D. It is a body of representatives elected
by people who are residents of the
village.
Answer: A
Explanation:
• The 73rd CAA is a significant
landmark in the evolution of grassroot
democratic institutions in the country.
• It transfers representative democracy
into participatory democracy. It is a
revolutionary concept to build
democracy at the grassroot level in the
country.
• The act provides for a Gram Sabha as
the foundation of the panchayati raj
system.
• It is a body consisting of persons
registered in the electoral rolls of a
village within the area of Panchayat at
the village level.
• Thus, it is a village assembly consisting
of all the registered voters in the area
of a panchayat. It may exercise such
powers and perform such functions at
the village level as the legislature of a
state determines. Hence, option A is
correct.
Source: Laxmi kant (73rd CAA).
15. Consider the following with reference to
Finances of Rural Local Bodies:
1. Governor of the state is obliged to set
up a state finance commission every 5
years to review the financial position of
panchayats.
2. The central finance commission is not
allowed to look into the distribution of
 finances between State Government
and local governments.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: The governor of a state
shall, after every five years, constitute a
finance commission to review the financial
position of the panchayats. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Central Finance
Commission shall also suggest the measures
needed to augment the consolidated fund of a
state to supplement the resources of the
panchayats in the states (on the basis of the
recommendations made by the finance
commission of the state). Hence, statement 2
is incorrect.
Additional info:
According to 73rd constitutional amendment
act, the state legislature may (a) authorise a
panchayat to levy, collect and appropriate
taxes, duties, tolls and fees; (b) assign to a
panchayat taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied
and collected by the state government; (c)
provide for making grants-in-aid to the
panchayats from the consolidated fund of the
state; and (d) provide for constitution of
funds for crediting all money of the
panchayats.
It shall make the following
recommendations to the Governor:
The principles that should govern:
• The distribution between the state and
the panchayats of the net proceeds of
the taxes, duties, tolls and fees levied
by the state and allocation of shares
• amongst the panchay-ats at all levels.
• The determination of taxes, duties,
tolls and fees that may be assigned to
the panchayats.
• The grants-in-aid to the panchayats
from the consolidated fund of the
state.
The measures needed to improve the financial
position of the panchayats.
Any other matter referred to by the governor
in the interests of sound finance of the
panchayats. The state legislature may provide
for the composition of the commission, the
required qualifications of its members and the
manner of their selection. The governor shall
place the recommendations of the
commission along with the action taken
report before the state legislature.
Source: Laxmikant (73rd CAA)
16. Which of the following factors are
considered by the governor to decide the
type of urban local government for a
particular area?
1. Density of the population
2. Economic importance
3. Revenue generated for local
government
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
 B. 2 and 3 only 17. Which of the following functional items
are placed under the purview of
C. 1 and 3 only
municipalities under 12th schedule?
D. 1, 2 and 3
1. Planning for economic and social
Answer: D development.
Explanation: 2. Safeguarding the interests of weaker
The 74th constitutional amendment act sections of society
provides for the constitution of the following 3. Cattle ponds
three types of municipalities in every state.
4. Libraries
• A nagar panchayat (by whatever name
How many of the above items are correct?
called) for a transitional area.
A. 1 only
• A municipal council for a smaller
urban area. B. 2 only

• A municipal corporation for a larger C. 3 only

urban area. D. 4 only
But there is one exception. If there is an urban Answer: C
area where municipal services are being
Explanation:
provided by an industrial establishment, then
the governor may specify that area to be an Eleventh Schedule
industrial township. In such a case, a It contains the following 29 functional items
municipality may not be constituted. placed within the purview of panchayats:
The governor has to specify a transitional 1. Agriculture, including agricultural
area, a smaller urban area or a larger urban extension
area, keeping in view the following factors:
2. Land improvement, implementation
• Population of the area. of land reforms, land consolidation
• Density of the population therein. and soil conservation

• Revenue generated for local 3. Minor irrigation, water management

administration. and watershed development

• Percentage of employment in non- 4. Animal husbandry, dairying and

agricultural activities. poultry

• Economic importance. 5. Fisheries

• Such other factors as he may deem fit. 6. Social forestry and farm forestry

Hence, option D is correct. 7. Minor forest produce

Source: Laxmikant (74rd CAA). 8. Small-scale industries, including food

processing industries
9. Khadi, village and cottage industries
 10. Rural housing
11. Drinking water
12. Fuel and fodder
13. Roads, culverts, bridges, ferries,
waterways and other means of
communication
14. Rural electrification, including
distribution of electricity
15. Non-conventional energy sources
16. Poverty alleviation programme
17. Education, including primary and
secondary schools
18. Technical training and vocational
education
19. Adult and non-formal education
20. Libraries (Falls under 11th schedule)
21. Cultural activities
22. Markets and fairs
23. Health and sanitation including
hospitals, primary health centres and
dispensaries
24. Family welfare
25. Women and child development
26. Social welfare, including welfare of the
handicapped and mentally retarded
27. Welfare of the weaker sections, and in
particular, of the scheduled castes and
the scheduled tribes
28. Public distribution system
29. Maintenance of community assets.
18. Which of the following articles find a
mention of “budget” in the Constitution of
India?
A. Article 112
B. Article 111
C. Article 110
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The term "budget" is not explicitly
mentioned in the Indian Constitution.
The term used in the Constitution is
"Annual Financial Statement," which
refers to the budget.
Additional info:
• The Annual Financial Statement, also
known as the Union Budget, is a
critical document that outlines the
government's plans for revenue
collection and expenditure for the
upcoming financial year.
• It is an important tool for the
government to plan its spending and
to allocate resources for various
development programs and initiatives.
• In India, the Annual Financial
Statement is presented by the Union
Finance Minister in the Parliament on
the last working day of February each
year.
• The Statement provides a
comprehensive picture of the
government's estimated revenue and
expenditure for the next financial year,
starting from April 1 and ending on
March 31 of the following year.
• The Annual Financial Statement is a
detailed document that provides
information on the government's
revenue sources, such as taxes, duties,
 and fees, and its estimated
expenditure, including spending on
defense, education, healthcare, and
other social and economic programs.
• It also provides information on the
government's plans for borrowing,
both domestically and internationally,
and its plans for investment in
infrastructure development and other
key sectors.
• The Union Budget is an important
document that guides the
government's financial policies and
plans and provides a roadmap for the
country's economic development.
19. Which article of the Indian Constitution
provides for the “Public Account of India”?
A. Article 265
B. Article 266
C. Article 267
D. Article 268
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Public Account of India refers to a
set of accounts maintained by the
government of India, where all non-
budgetary receipts and expenditures
are recorded. The Public Account is
maintained under the provisions of the
Constitution of India and is governed
by the rules and regulations specified
in the Public Account (India) Rules,
1950.
• The Public Account consists of two
sub-accounts: the Consolidated Fund
of India and the Contingency Fund of
India.
• The Consolidated Fund of India is the
main account where all government
revenues, including taxes, duties, and
fees, are credited. The Contingency
Fund of India is a reserve fund created
to meet unforeseen expenditures and
emergencies.
• All money credited to the Public
Account is kept in the custody of the
President of India and can be
withdrawn only with the
authorization of the Parliament.
• The money in the Public Account
cannot be used for day-to-day
operations of the government without
the prior approval of the Parliament.
• The Public Account of India plays a
crucial role in maintaining the financial
stability of the government and
ensuring accountability and
transparency in the use of public
funds.
• The government's management of the
Public Account is subject to regular
audits by the Comptroller and Auditor
General of India (CAG), who reports to
the Parliament on the utilization of
funds from the Public Account.
20. Which of the following statements is
correct regarding the Joint sitting of Indian
Parliament?
A. The President can summon a joint
sitting only in case the bill has not
elapsed because of the Lok Sabha’s
dissolution.
B. Article 107 of the Indian Constitution
provides for a joint sitting of both
Houses of Parliament.
C. The President can summon a joint
sitting in case of a Constitutional
Amendment Bill.
D. The first joint sitting was conducted to
resolve the deadlock arising due to the
Banking Service Commission Act
(Repeal), 1978.
Answer: A
Option B is incorrect: Article 108 of the
Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting
of both Houses of Parliament.
Option C is incorrect: The President can
summon a joint sitting only in case the bill has
not elapsed because of the Lok Sabha’s
dissolution. The President cannot summon a
joint sitting in case of a Constitutional
Amendment Bill and a Money Bill.
Option D is incorrect: The first joint sitting
was conducted to resolve the deadlock that
arose due to the Dowry Prohibition Bill 1961.
21. Consider the following statements
regarding joint sitting of Indian Parliament.
1. The quorum to constitute a joint sitting
is 1/10th of the total membership of
Parliament.
2. Article 109 of the Indian Constitution
provides for a joint sitting of both
Houses of Parliament.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 & 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct: The quorum to
constitute a joint sitting is 1/10th of the total
membership of Parliament.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 108 of the
Indian Constitution provides for a joint sitting
of both Houses of Parliament.
Additional info:
• A Joint Sitting in Indian Parliament
refers to a rare and extraordinary
legislative procedure in which both
Houses of Parliament, the Lok Sabha
(House of the People) and the Rajya
Sabha (Council of States), sit together
to resolve a deadlock on the passage of
a bill.
• Joint Sittings are authorized by Article
108 of the Constitution of India and can
be called by the President of India on
the recommendation of the Prime
Minister.
• Joint Sittings are called when the Lok
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha are unable
to agree on the passage of a bill, and
the bill is returned by the Rajya Sabha
to the Lok Sabha with
recommendations for changes.
 • In a Joint Sitting, the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha sit together as a single
legislative body, with Members of
Parliament (MPs) from both Houses
participating in the proceedings.
• The bill is discussed and debated by
the MPs, and a vote is taken on its
passage. In a Joint Sitting, a bill is
considered to have been passed if it
receives the support of a majority of
the total membership of both Houses
of Parliament.
• Joint Sittings are a rare occurrence in
Indian parliamentary history, and
have only been held three times since
the adoption of the Constitution in
1950. Joint Sittings are considered to be
a measure of last resort, and are used
only when the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
Sabha are unable to resolve their
differences through normal legislative
procedures.
22. Consider the following statements
regarding Parliamentary privileges.
1. The 44th Amendment Act allowed the
media to publish the true reports of the
parliamentary proceedings except the
same related to the house’s secret
sitting.
2. No person (either a member or
outsider) can be arrested, and no legal
process (except other than criminal)
can be served within the precincts of
the House without the permission of
the presiding officer.
3. Members of Parliament are not
exempted from jury service in civil
cases.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Statement 1 is correct: The 44th Amendment
Act allowed the media to publish the true
reports of the parliamentary proceedings
except the same related to the house’s secret
sitting.
Statement 2 is incorrect: No person (either a
member or outsider) can be arrested, and no
legal process (civil or criminal) can be served
within the precincts of the House without the
permission of the presiding officer
Statement 3 is incorrect: Members of
Parliament are exempted from jury service in
civil cases.
23. Consider the following statements
regarding the Sansad Nidhi Yojana.
1. The scheme is administered by the
Ministry of Rural Development.
2. The district authority must inspect at
least 10% of all works under
implementation every year.
3. The funds under Yojana are sanctioned
on an yearly basis and the unused
funds cannot be carried forward to the
next year.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
 C. 3 only • Communication
D. All of the above State List Subjects:
Answer: B • Some of the important subjects are:
Explanation: • Public order
Statement 1 is incorrect: The scheme was • Police
administered by the Ministry of Rural
• Public health and sanitation
Development, but now it is administered by
the Ministry of Statistics and Programme • Hospitals and dispensaries
Implementation. • Betting and gambling
Statement 2 is correct: The district authority
must inspect at least 10% of all works under
25. Which of the following committees made a
implementation every year.
pitch for the establishment of a permanent Inter-
Statement 3 is incorrect: Funds are non- State Council?
lapsable in nature i.e. in case of non-release of
A. Arun Goel Committee
funds in a particular year it is carried forward
to the next year. B. Rajiv Mehrishi
C. Sarkaria Commission

24. Which of the following is not a State List D. Tarapore Commission

Subject? Answer: C
A. Public order Explanation:
B. Police Option c is correct:
C. Defence • The Sarkaria Commission on Centre-
D. Hospitals and dispensaries State Relations (1983–88) made a pitch
for the establishment of a permanent
Answer: C
Inter-State Council (under Art. 263) of
Explanation: the Constitution.
Union List Subjects: • Commission recommended Inter-State
Some of the important subjects are: Council must be called as the
Intergovernmental Council in order to
• Defence
differentiate from other bodies
• Army established under the same Art. 263.
• International Relations • It recommended that the Council
• Ports should be charged with the duties laid
down in 263 (B) and (C).
• Railways
• Highways
26. The President acquires which of the following
extraordinary powers when the President’s rule is
imposed in a state?
A. He can take up the functions of the
state government and powers vested
in the governor or any other executive
authority in the state.
B. He can declare that the powers of the
state legislature are to be exercised by
the parliament.
C. He can take all other necessary steps
including the suspension of the
constitutional provisions relating to
anybody or authority in the state.
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Option A, B and C all are correct.
Hence Option d is the correct answer.
27. Consider the following statement with
reference to All India Services:
1. Cadre controlling authority for
deputation of Indian Police Service
and Indian Forest Service Officers
(IFoS) is the Ministry of Home Affairs
(MHA) and the Environment Ministry
respectively.
2. In the country, there are twenty-four
cadres, as well as three joint cadres
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Cadre
controlling authority for deputation of
Indian Police Service and Indian Forest
Service Officers (IFoS) is the Ministry
of Home Affairs (MHA) and the
Environment Ministry respectively.
• Statement 2 is correct: In the country,
there are twenty-four cadres, as well as
three joint cadres: Assam-Meghalaya,
Manipur-Tripura, and Arunachal
Pradesh-Goa-Mizoram-Union
Territories (AGMUT).
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Ranks of the
Indian Administrative Service
28. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Territory of India’ and ‘Union of
India’:
1. Parliament may by law admit into the
Union, or establish, new States on such
terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
2. For creation or destruction of a state
the permission from the concerned
state is mandatory under Indian
Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Part I of the Indian Constitution is
titled The Union and its Territory.
 • It includes articles from 1- 4. Part I is a
compilation of laws pertaining to the
constitution of India as a country and
the union of states that it is made of.
• This part of the constitution contains
the law in the establishment, renaming,
merging or altering the borders of the
states. Articles under Part I were
invoked when West Bengal was
renamed, and for formation of
relatively new states such as
Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh or Telangana.
• Statement 1 is correct: Parliament may
by law admit into the Union, or
establish, new States on such terms and
conditions as it thinks fit.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: For creation
or destruction of a state the permission
from the concerned state is not
mandatory under Indian Constitution.
But the bill has to be referred to the
concerned state legislature for
expressing its views.
29. Which of the following bills can be
introduced in the Parliament only on the
recommendation of the President?
1. A bill which imposes or varies any tax
or duty in which states are interested
2. A bill which affects the principles on
which moneys are or may be
distributable to states
3. A which imposes any surcharge on any
specified tax or duty for the purpose of
the centre
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Some bills can be introduced in the Parliament only
on the recommendation of the President so as to
protect the financial interests of the states:
• Statement 1 is correct: A bill which
imposes or varies any tax or duty in
which states are interested
• Statement 2 is correct: A bill which
affects the principles on which moneys
are or may be distributable to states;
and
• Statement 3 is correct: A which
imposes any surcharge on any
specified tax or duty for the purpose of
the centre
Other type:
• A bill which varies the meaning of the
term ‘agricultural income’ as defined
for the purposes of the enactments
relating to the income tax
30. Consider the following statements with
reference to GST Council:
1. Each state can nominate a minister in-
charge of finance or taxation or any
other minister as a member.
2. In the GST council the vote of the
central government shall have a
weightage of one-third of the total
votes cast in the meeting.
Which of the above given statements is/are
correct?
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Each state can
nominate a minister in-charge of
finance or taxation or any other
minister as a member.
• Statement 2 is correct: In the GST
council the vote of the central
government shall have a weightage of
one-third of the total votes cast in the
meeting.
Additional Information:
The decision is taken in accordance with the
following principles:
• The vote of the central government
shall have a weightage of one-third of
the total votes cast in the meeting.
• The votes of all the state governments
combined shall have a weightage of
two-thirds of the total votes cast in that
meeting.
Any act or proceeding of the Council will not
become invalid on the following grounds.
• Any vacancy or deficit in the
constitution of the Council
• Any defect in the appointment of a
person as a member of the Council
• Any procedural irregularity of the
Council not affecting the merits of the
case
31. Which of the following articles in Part 4 of the
constitution provide for “equal justice and free
legal aid to the poor”?
A. Article 38
B. Article 39A
C. Article 43
D. Article 43A
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Option A is incorrect: Article 38 states
that the State shall strive to promote
the welfare of the people by securing
and protecting as effectively as it may
a social order in which justice, social,
economic and political, shall inform all
the institutions of the national life.
• Option B is correct: Article 39A- The
State shall secure that the operation of
the legal system promotes justice, on a
basis of equal opportunity, and shall,
in particular, provide free legal aid, by
suitable legislation or schemes or in
any other way, to ensure that
opportunities for securing justice are
not denied to any citizen by reason of
economic or other disabilities.Hence,
option b is correct.
• Option C is incorrect: Article 43- The
State shall endeavour to secure, by
suitable legislation or economic
organisation or in any other way, to all
workers, agricultural, industrial or
otherwise, work, a living wage,
conditions of work ensuring a decent
standard of life and full enjoyment of
leisure and social and cultural
opportunities and, in particular, the
State shall endeavour to promote
 cottage industries on an individual or
cooperative basis in rural areas
• Option D is incorrect: Article 43A-
The State shall take steps, by suitable
legislation or in any other way, to
secure the participation of workers in
the management of undertakings,
establishments or other organisations
engaged in any industry. The article
was inserted by the Constitution
(Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act,
2011.
32. Which constitutional amendment act made it
obligatory for the President to give assent to a
constitutional amendment bill?
A. 24th amendment act 1971
B. 25th amendment act 1971
C. 42nd amendment act 1976
D. 44th amendment act 1978
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Option A is correct: The 24
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1971
made it obligatory for the President to
give assent to a constitutional
amendment bill.
• Option B is incorrect: The
Constitution (Twenty-Fifth
Amendment) Act 1971 was passed by
Parliament on 20 April 1972. This
aimed to reverse the Supreme Court’s
ruling in R.C. Cooper v. Union of India
(1970), also popularly known as the
bank nationalization case.
o It amended Article 31 and
introduced a new Article 31C,
effectively preventing citizens from
challenging laws relating to the
acquisition of pr
• Option C is incorrect: The 42nd
Amendment changed the description
of India from a "sovereign democratic
republic" to a "sovereign, socialist
secular democratic republic", and also
changed the words "unity of the
nation" to "unity and integrity of the
nation".
• Option D is incorrect: 44th
Amendment Act, 1978 was passed by
the government in the year 1978 to
revoke Some amendments made under
the 42-amendment act, 1976. The 44th
Amendment Act of 1978 was made to
ensure that people also have the equal
rights to decide the form of
government in which they will leave.
The 44th Amendment Act 1978 also
safeguards people against the
tendency of the majority to make rights
in the future.
th
33. Which of the following Directive Principles of
State Policy in Part 4 of the Indian Constitution
were added later by an amendment to the
constitution?
1. “To secure opportunities for the
healthy development of children”.
2. “To promote equal justice and to
provide free legal aid to the poor”.
3. “Make provision for just and humane
conditions of work and maternity
relief”.
4. “Secure a living wage, a decent
standard of living and social and
cultural opportunities for all workers”.
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below; 3. Parliament can amend any
Kesavananda part of the Constitution but it
A. 1 & 2 only
Bharati Case. cannot alter its “Basic
B. 1 & 4 only Structure’’.
C. 2 & 3 only
Which if the above pairs is/are matched correctly?
D. 3 & 4 only
A. 1 & 2
Answer: A
B. 2 & 3
Explanation:
C. 1 & 3
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Pair 1 is incorrect: Champakam
Dorairajan Case (1952) - All
Fundamental Rights are superior over
DPSP. The Parliament can amend the
entire constitution including Part 3.
34. With reference to Supreme Court cases
relating relation between Part 3 and Part 4 of the • Pair 2 is correct: Golaknath case (1967)
constitution, consider the following pairs. - Fundamental Rights cannot be
abridged or diluted for the
Case Supreme Court observation implementation of DPSPs.
• Pair 3 is correct: Kesavananda Bharati
1. Fundamental Rights would Case (1973) - Parliament can amend
Champakam prevail over the DPSP in case any part of Constitution, but could not
Dorairajan of conflict between the two, destroy Basic Structure of the
case. and Fundamental Rights Constitution. The second clause of
cannot be amended by Article 31C was declared as
legislature in any case. unconstitutional and void as it was
against the Basic Structure of the
Constitution propounded in this case
2. Golaknath Fundamental Rights are
itself. However, the SC upheld the first
case. sacrosanct in nature and
provision of Article 31C. The court also
cannot be amended for
held that the power of Judicial review
implementation of DPSP.
cannot be taken out by Parliament.
35. Consider the following Constitutional
Provisions:
1. Admission or establishment of new
states.
2. Election of President and its manner.
3. Supreme Court and High Courts.
4. Number of Puisne judges in the
Supreme Court.
5. Privileges of the Parliament,
members and its committees.
Which of the above provisions can be amended
by a simple majority in the Parliament?
A. 1, 2 & 3 only
B. 1, 3 & 4 only
C. 1, 4 & 5 only
D. 2, 4 & 5 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1, 4 and 5: These are amended through
simple majority.
By Simple Majority of Parliament
• Admission or establishment of new
states.
• Formation of new states and alteration
of areas, boundaries or names of
existing states.
• Abolition or creation of legislative
councils in states.
• Second Schedule-emoluments,
• Allowances, privileges and so on of the
president, the governors, the Speakers,
judges, etc.
• Quorum in Parliament.
• Salaries and allowances of the
members of Parliament.
• Rules of procedure in Parliament.
• Privileges of the Parliament, its
members and its committees.
• Use of the English language in
Parliament.
• Number of puisne judges in the
Supreme Court.
its • Conferment of more jurisdiction on the
Supreme Court.
• Citizenship-acquisition and
termination.
• Elections to Parliament and state
legislatures.
• Delimitation of constituencies.
• Union territories
• Fifth Schedule-administration of
scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
• Sixth Schedule-administration of tribal
areas.
Statement 2 and 3: These are amended by special
majority of parliament.
By Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of
States:
• Election of the President and its
manner.
• Extent of the executive power of the
Union and the states.
• Supreme Court and high courts.
• Distribution of legislative powers
between
• the Union and the states.
• Any of the lists in the Seventh
Schedule.
 • Representation of states in Parliament.
• Power of Parliament to amend the
Constitution and its procedure (Article
368 itself).
36. Consider the following statements with
reference to features of the Indian Council
Act of 1909:
1. The number of members in the
Additional Features:
provincial legislative councils was
uniform.
2. The provincial legislative councils had
an official majority.
3. The elected members were to be
indirectly elected.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: It
considerably increased the size of the
legislative councils, both Central and
provincial. The number of members in
the Central Legislative Council was
raised from 16 to 60. The number of
members in the provincial legislative
councils was not uniform.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The
provincial legislative councils had
official non majority. It retained
official majority in the Central
Legislative Council but allowed the
provincial legislative councils to have
non-official majority.
• Statement 3 is correct: The elected
members were to be indirectly elected.
The local bodies were to elect an
electoral college, which in turn would
elect members of provincial
legislatures, who in turn would elect
members of the central legislature.
• It enlarged the deliberative functions
of the legislative councils at both the
levels. For example, members were
allowed to ask supplementary
questions, move resolutions on the
budget, and so on.
• It provided (for the first time) for the
association of Indians with the
executive Councils of the Viceroy and
Governors. Satyendra Prasad Sinha
became the first Indian to join the
Viceroy’s Executive Council. He was
appointed as the law member. Two
Indians were nominated to the
Council of the Secretary of State for
Indian Affairs.
• It introduced a system of communal
representation for Muslims by
accepting the concept of ‘separate
electorate’. Under this, the Muslim
members were to be elected only by
Muslim voters. Thus, the Act
‘legalized communalism’ and Lord
Minto came to be known as the Father
of Communal Electorate.
• It also provided for the separate
representation of presidency
corporations, chambers of commerce,
universities and zamindars.

37. Consider the following statements:
1. Charter act of 1813 legalized the British
colonization of India
2. The charter act of 1833 ended the
monopoly of the East India Company
in India
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Charter act of
1813 ended the monopoly of the East
India Company in India, the
company’s monopoly in trade with
China and trade in tea with India was
kept intact.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The charter
act of 1833 legalized the British
colonization of India. It ended the
activities of the East India Company
as a commercial body, it became an
administrative body. It provided that
the company’s territories in India
were held by the government ‘in trust
for His Majesty, His heirs and
successors’.
38. Which of the following statements is
incorrect with reference to the Charter act of
1853?
A. This Act was passed during the
governor-generalship of Lord
Dalhousie.
B. It separated the legislative and
executive functions of the Governor-
General’s council.
C. It introduced an open competition
system of selection and recruitment of
civil servants.
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Option A is correct: This Act was
passed when Lord Dalhousie was the
Governor-General of India.
• Option B is correct: It separated, for
the first time, the legislative and
executive functions of the Governor-
General’s council.
• Option C is correct: It introduced an
open competition system of selection
and recruitment of civil servants. The
covenanted civil service was thus
thrown open to the Indians also.
Accordingly, the Macaulay
Committee (the Committee on the
Indian Civil Service) was appointed in
1854.
Additional information:
Charter act of 1853: Other Features:
• The Charter Act of 1853 empowered
the British East India Company to
retain the territories and the revenues
in India in trust for the crown not for
any specified period, Unlike the
previous charter acts of 1793, 1813 and
1833 which renewed the charter for 20
years.
 • This Act was passed when Lord
Dalhousie was the Governor-General
of India.
Governor-General’s office:
• It provided for the addition of six new
members called legislative councilors
to the council {12 in total}. The
Governor-General could nominate a
• vice president to the council and his
assent is required for all legislative
actions. It established a separate
Governor-General’s legislative
council which came to be known as
the Indian (Central) Legislative
Council. This legislative wing of the
council functioned as a mini-
Parliament, adopting the same
procedures as the British Parliament.
• The Law member (fourth member)
became a full member with the right
to vote.
• The 12 members were – 1 Governor-
General, 1 Commander-in-Chief, 4
members of the Governor-General’s
Council, 1 Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court at Calcutta, 1 regular
judge of the Supreme Court at
Calcutta, and 4 representative
members drawn from
company’s servants with at least 10
years tenure, appointed by the local
governments of Bengal, Bombay,
Madras and North Western Provinces.
• The number of Board of Directors was
reduced from 24 to 18 out of which 6
people were to be nominated by the
British Crown.
• This act served as the foundation of
the modern parliamentary form of
government. The legislative wing of
the Governor-General’s Council acted
as a parliament on the model of the
British Parliament.
39. Consider the following statements with
reference to Pitt’s India Act 1784:
1. It recognized the political and
administrative functions of the
Company
2. It laid the foundations of central
administration in India.
3. It designated the Governor of Bengal
as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It recognized
the political and administrative
functions of the Company
• Statement 2 is correct: It laid the
foundations of central administration
in India.
• Statement 3 is correct: It designated
the Governor of Bengal as the
‘Governor-General of Bengal’
Additional Information:
Pitt’s India Act 1784: Features
• It was the Pitts India Act which
 distinguished between the
commercial and political functions of
the Company.
• It was the first step taken by the British
Government to control and regulate
the affairs of the East India Company
in India
• It designated the Governor of Bengal
as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’
and created an Executive Council of
four members to assist him. The first
such Governor-General was Lord
Warren Hastings.
• It provided for the establishment of a
Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774)
comprising one chief justice and three
other judges.
• It prohibited the servants of the
Company from engaging in any
private trade or accepting presents or
bribes from the ‘natives’.
• It strengthened the control of the
British Government over the
Company by requiring the Court of
Directors (governing body of the
Company) to report on its revenue,
civil, and military affairs in India.
• It made the governors of Bombay and
Madras presidencies subordinate to
the Governor General of Bengal,
unlike earlier, when the three
presidencies were independent of one
another.
• It was the Pitt's India Act which
distinguished between the
commercial and political functions of
the Company
40. Which of the following Acts gave
recognition to the ‘portfolio system’ of Lord
Canning?
A. Indian Councils Act 1861
B. Indian Councils Act 1892
C. Indian Councils Act 1909
D. Government of India Act 1919
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Indian Councils Act 1861 gave
recognition to the ‘portfolio system’ of
Lord Canning
• The Indian Councils Act 1861 was an
Act of the Parliament of the United
Kingdom that transformed India’s
executive council to function as a
cabinet run on the portfolio system.
• It was introduced because the British
Government wanted to involve the
Indian people with the process of law
making. This Act was passed on 1st
August 1861.
• Main provisions of the Act:
o It made a beginning of
representative institutions by
associating Indians with law-
making
o Viceroy nominated some Indians as
non-official members of his
expanded council
▪ Lord Canning nominated- Raja
of Benaras, the maharaja of
Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao
o Restored legislative making
powers of Bombay and Madras
o Establishment of new Legislative
 councils for Bengal, North-Western
Frontier Province and Punjab
o Viceroy could make provisions for
convenient transactions of business
in the council.
o It gave recognition to the ‘portfolio
system’ of Lord Canning
o Ordinances could be issued by the
Viceroy without the concurrence of
the council during an emergency.
However, the life of such an
ordinance was six months.
41. Consider the following statement with
reference to Indian Councils Act, 1892:
1. It increased the engagement of Indians
with respect to the administration in
British India.
2. The act created the stage for the
development of revolutionary forces in
India
3. It was the first step towards
representative government in modern
India.
4. The Indian members were not eligible
to oppose any bill
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 2 and 3 only
D. 4 only
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: It increased the
engagement of Indians with respect to
the administration in British India.
• Statement 2 is correct: The act created
the stage for the development of
revolutionary forces in India
• Statement 3 is correct: It was the first
step towards the representative
government in modern India.
• Statement 4 is incorrect: Under India
Councils Act 1861 the Indian
members were not eligible to oppose
any bill and most often the bills were
passed in one sitting without
discussion.
Additional Information:
Indian Councils Act 1892:
• The Indian Councils Act 1892 was an
Act of British Parliament that
introduced various amendments to the
composition and function of legislative
councils in British India.
• Most notably, the act expanded the
number of members in the central and
provincial councils.
• Main provisions of the Act:
o Increased non-official members in
the council
▪ Bombay – 8
▪ Madras – 20
▪ Bengal – 20
▪ North-Western province -15
▪ Oudh – 15
▪ Central Legislative Council
minimum – 10, maximum 16
o Members could now debate the
 budget without having the ability to Answer: D
vote on it also barred from asking Explanation:
follow-up questions.
• The Government of India Act, 1935
o The Governor-General in Council derived material from four key
was given the authority to set rules sources viz. Report of the Simon
for member nomination, subject to Commission, discussions at the Third
the approval of the Secretary of State Round Table Conference, the White
for India. Paper of 1933 and the reports of the
o Made a limited and indirect Joint select committees.
provision for the use of election in
filling up non-official seats both in
43. With reference to the renunciation
central and provincial councils
of Indian citizenship, consider the
o Nomination for non-official following statements:
members to central legislative
1. An Indian Citizen of full age and
council (Bengal chamber of
capacity can renounce his Indian
commerce, governors for provincial
citizenship by making a declaration to
legislative council based on
that effect and having it registered.
recommendation of district boards,
municipalities, universities, trade 2. When a male person renounces
associations, zamindars and his citizenship every minor child of his
chambers) ceases to be an Indian citizen.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
42. Government of India Act, 1935 derived
its material from which of the following A. 1 only
sources? B. 2 only
1. Report of the Simon Commission C. Both 1 and 2
2. Discussions at the Third Round Table D. Neither 1 nor 2
Conference
Answer: C
3. White Paper of 1933
Explanation:
4. Reports of the Joint select committees.
Statement 1 is correct: Declaration
Select the correct answer using the codes of Renunciation of Citizenship is made under
given below: Section 8 of the Citizenship Act, 1955: An
A. 1 and 2 only Indian Citizen of full age and capacity can
renounce his Indian citizenship by making a
B. 3 and 4 only
declaration to that effect and having it
C. 4 only registered. But
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
if such a declaration is made during any war
in which India is engaged, the registration
shall be withheld until the Central
Government otherwise directs.
Statement 2 is correct: Where a person ceases
to be a citizen of India on renunciation of
citizenship under section 8 (1), every minor
child of that person shall there upon ceases to
be a citizen of India However, such
child may, within one year after attaining
full age, can make a declaration in
the prescribed form and the manner that
he wishes to resume Indian citizenship.
44. Consider the following
statements regarding to the Citizenship Act
(1955):
1. The children of foreign diplomats
posted in India and enemy aliens can
acquire Indian citizenship by birth.
2. According to the Citizenship Act of
1955, from December 3, 2004 onwards,
a person born outside India shall not
be a citizen of India by descent.
Which of the statements given above
is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Citizenship Act (1955) provides
for the acquisition and loss of
citizenship after the commencement of
the Indian Constitution. Originally,
the Citizenship Act (1955) also
provided for Commonwealth
Citizenship. But, this provision was
repealed by the
Acquisition of Indian Citizenship
• The Citizenship Act of 1955
prescribes five ways of acquiring
citizenship, viz, birth, descent,
registration, naturalisation and
incorporation of territory:
• Statement 1 is incorrect: i) By Birth
A person born in India on or after
January 26, 1950 but before July 1, 1987
is a citizen of India by birth
irrespective of the nationality of his
parents. A person born in India on or
after July 1, 1987 is considered as a
citizen of India only if either of his
parents is a citizen of India at the time
of his birth. Further, those born in
India on or after December 3, 2004 are
considered citizens of India only if
both of their parents are citizens of
India or one of whose parents is
a citizen of India and the other is not
an illegal migrant at the time of their
birth. The children of foreign
diplomats posted in India and enemy
aliens cannot acquire Indian
citizenship by birth.
Acquisition of Indian Citizenship by
Descent
• Statement 2 is correct: A person
born outside India on or after January
26, 1950 but before December 10, 1992
is a citizen of India by descent, if his
father was a citizen of India at the time
of his birth. A person born outside
India on or after December 10, 1992 is
considered as a citizen of India if
 either of his parents is a citizen of Conferment of Rights on Overseas Citizen
India at the time of his birth. of India Cardholder

• December 3, 2004 onwards, a • An overseas citizen of

person born outside India shall not be India cardholder shall be entitled to
a citizen of India by descent, unless his such rights, as the Central
birth is registered at an Indian Government may specify on this
consulate within one year of the date behalf.
of birth or with the permission of the • An overseas citizen of
Central Government, after the expiry India cardholder shall not be entitled
of the said period. to the following rights (which are
delivered on a citizen of India)
45. Consider the following • OCI cardholder shall not be entitled to
statements regarding to the Overseas the right to equality of opportunity in
Citizen of India (OCI) Cardholder: matters of public employment.
1. OCI shall not be eligible for election as • He shall not be eligible for election as
Vice President. President.
2. OCI can be eligible for appointment as • He shall not be eligible for election as
a Judge of the High Court. Vice-President.
3. OCI shall not be eligible for being a • He shall not be eligible
member of the State Legislative for appointment as a Judge of
Assembly or the State Legislative the Supreme Court.
Council.
• He shall not be eligible
He can be entitled for registration as a voter. for appointment as a Judge of
Which of the statements given above the High Court.
is/are incorrect? • He shall not be entitled for registration
A. 2 and 4 only as a voter.

B. 1 and 3 only • He shall not be eligible for being a

member of the House of the People of
C. 2 and 4 only
the Council of States.
D. 1, 2 and 3
• He shall not be eligible for being a
Answer: A member of the State
Explanation: Legislative Assembly or the
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2003, State Legislative Council.
made provision for acquisition of Overseas • He shall not be eligible
Citizenship of India (OCI) by the PIOs of for appointment to public
sixteen specified countries other than services and posts in connection
Pakistan and Bangladesh. with affairs of the Union or of
 any State except for appointment
in such services and posts as
the Central Government
may specify.
Hence option A is correct.
46. Which of the following are the features
of the Indian Constitution?
1. Federal System with Unitary Bias
2. It is the lengthiest Written Constitution
3. It provides for a Dual Citizenship
4. Envisages an integrated Judiciary
Select the correct answer using the code
given below.
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
Explanation: Constitutionalism is specific
limitations on general governmental powers
to prevent exercise of arbitrary decision-
making. In one word ‘Limited Governance’ is
the Constitutionalism, which is supposed to
reflect in the Constitutional Law of a
democratic state.
• Statement 1 is correct: The
Constitution of India establishes a
federal system of Government.
However, the Indian Constitution also
contains a large number of unitary or
non-federal features, viz., a strong
Centre, single Constitution, single
citizenship, flexibility of Constitution,
integrated judiciary, appointment of
state governor by the Centre, all-India
services, emergency provisions and so
on.
Statement 2 is correct: Originally
(1949), the Constitution contained a
Preamble, 395 Articles (divided into 22
Parts) and 8 Schedules. Presently
(2019), it consists of a Preamble, about
470 Articles (divided into 25 Parts) and
12 Schedules. No other Constitution in
the world has so many Articles and
Schedules.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Indian polity
(Centre and states) provides for only a
single citizenship, that is, the Indian
citizenship. In India, all citizens
irrespective of the state in which they
are born or reside enjoy the same
political and civil rights of citizenship
all over the country and no
discrimination is made between them.
• Statement 4 is correct: The Indian
Constitution establishes a judicial
system that is integrated as well as
independent. The Supreme Court
stands at the top of the integrated
judicial system in the country. Below it,
there are high courts at the state level.
Under a high court, there is a hierarchy
of subordinate courts, that is, district
courts and other lower courts.
47. Consider the following statements
regarding the features of the Constituent
Assembly:
1. It was totally an indirectly elected
body.
2. Each Province and each Princely State
or group of States were allotted seats
 proportional to their respective
population.
3. The seats in each Province were
distributed among the three main
communities - Muslims, Hindus and
General.
4. Members of each community in the
Provincial Legislative Assembly
elected their own representatives by
the method of proportional
representation with single transferable
vote
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 2 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
• The Constituent Assembly was
expected to work within the
framework of the Cabinet Mission
scheme alone. However, these
limitations were removed by the
Indian Independence Act, 1947 under
which it was made free to frame any
constitution it pleased.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: The total
strength of the Constituent Assembly
was to be 389. Of these, 296 seats were
to be allotted to British India and 93
seats to the princely states. Out of 296
seats allotted to the British India, 292
members were to be drawn from the
eleven governors’ provinces and four
from the four Chief Commissioners’
provinces, one from each.
• The representatives from the Princely
states were to be elected by indirect
election by the members of the
Provincial Legislative Assemblies that
had been established under the
Government of India Act, 1935. While
the method of selection in the case of
representatives of Princely States was
to be determined by consultation. In
most of the princely states, the
representatives were nominated by the
heads of the princely states.
• Statement 2 is correct: Each province
and princely state (or group of states in
case of small states) were to be allotted
seats in proportion to their respective
population. Roughly, one seat was to
be allotted for every million
population.
• Statement 3 is correct: Seats allocated
to each British province were to be
divided among the three principal
communities–Muslims, Sikhs and
General (all except Muslims and
Sikhs), in proportion to their
population.
Statement 4 is correct: Members of each
community in the Provincial Legislative
Assembly elected their own representatives
by the method of proportional representation
with single transferable vote.
48. Which of the following functions were
performed by the Constituent Assembly of
India?
1. It passed the ‘Indian Independence
Act’.
2. It terminated India’s membership of
the Commonwealth.
 3. It adopted the national flag. • Statement 4 is correct: It adopted the
national song on January 24, 1950.
4. It adopted the national song.
Select the correct answer using the code • Additional Information: Other
given below. functions performed by it were:

A. 1 only • It adopted the national anthem on

January 24, 1950.
B. 3 and 4 only
• It elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
first President of India on January 24,
D. 2 and 3 only 1950.
Answer: B
Explanation: 49. Consider the following pairs of various
• The Constituent Assembly held its first committees of the Constituent Assembly and
their chairman:
meeting on December 9, 1946. The
Muslim League boycotted the meeting Name of the
and insisted on a separate state of Chairman
Committees
Pakistan. The meeting was, thus,
attended by only 211 members. In Union Constitution Dr. B.R.
addition to the making of the Committee Ambedkar
Constitution and enacting of ordinary
laws, the Constituent Assembly also Sardar
Provincial Constitution
performed many other functions. Vallabhbhai
Committee
Patel
• Statement 1 is incorrect: On 1st July,
1947, the British Parliament passed the Advisory Committee on
‘Indian Independence Act’, to divide Fundamental Rights, Jawaharlal
British India into India and Pakistan. Minorities and Tribal Nehru
As a consequence of the Partition and Excluded Areas
under the plan of 3 June 1947 those
members who were elected from Which of the above pairs is/are correctly
territories which fell under Pakistan matched?
ceased to be members of the A. 1 and 3 only
Constituent Assembly. The number of
B. 2 only
members in the Assembly was reduced
to 299. C. 2 and 3 only

• Statement 2 is incorrect: It ratified the D. 1, 2 and 3

India’s membership of the Answer: B
Commonwealth in May 1949
Explanation: The Constituent Assembly
• Statement 3 is correct: It adopted the appointed a number of committees to deal
national flag on July 22, 1947. with different tasks of constitution-making.
Out of these, eight were major committees
and the others were minor committees.
• Pair 1 is incorrect: Union Constitution
Committee was headed by Jawaharlal
Nehru.
• Pair 2 is correct: Provincial
Constitution Committee was headed
by Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
• Pair 3 is incorrect: Advisory
Committee on Fundamental Rights,
Minorities and Tribal and Excluded
Areas was headed by Sardar
Vallabhbhai Patel.
Additional Information: Other committees
were:
• Union Powers Committee - Jawaharlal
Nehru
• Drafting Committee - Dr. B.R.
Ambedkar
• Rules of Procedure Committee - Dr.
Rajendra Prasad
• States Committee (Committee for
Negotiating with States) - Jawaharlal
Nehru
• Steering Committee - Dr. Rajendra
Prasad
50. Which of the following was regarded as
the ‘novel feature’ of Indian Constitution by
Dr. BR Ambedkar?
A. Constitutional Remedies
B. Provisions of reservation
Constitution itself
C. Directive Principles of State Policy
D. Preamble
Answer: C
Explanation:
According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the
Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel
feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are
enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution.
Additional Information:
• The Directive Principles are meant for
promoting the ideal of social and
economic democracy. They seek to
establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.
However, unlike the Fundamental
Rights, the directives are non-
justiciable in nature, that is, they are
not enforceable by the courts for their
violation.
• They impose a moral obligation on the
state authorities for their application.
But, the real force (sanction) behind
them is political, that is, public
opinion.
• B.R. Ambedkar said in the Constituent
Assembly that ‘a government which
rests on popular vote can hardly ignore
the Directive Principles while shaping
its policy. If any government ignores
them, it will certainly have to answer
for that before the electorate at the
election time’
51. Consider the following statements
regarding the idea of popular sovereignty:
1. It means that the authority of a state
and its government are created and
in sustained by the consent of its people.
2. Indian Democracy is based on the idea
of popular sovereignty.
Which of the above statements is/are
correct?
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: Popular
sovereignty is the principle that the
authority of a state and its government
are created and sustained by the
consent of its people, through their
elected representatives (rule by the
people), who are the source of all
political power.
• It is closely associated with social
contract philosophers such as Thomas
Hobbes, John Locke and Jean-Jacques
Rousseau.
• Statement 2 is correct: Democracy is of
two types–direct and indirect. In direct
democracy, the people exercise their
supreme power directly. In indirect
democracy, on the other hand, the
representatives elected by the people
exercise the supreme power and thus
carry on the government and make the
laws.
• The Indian Constitution provides for
representative parliamentary
democracy under which the executive
is responsible to the legislature for all
its policies and actions. Indian
democratic polity, as stipulated in the
Preamble, is based on the doctrine of
popular sovereignty, that is,
possession of supreme power by the
people.
52. A constitutional government by
definition is a [UPSC 2020]
A. government by legislature
B. popular government
C. multi-party government
D. limited government
Answer: D
Explanation:
A constitutional government is the one that is
defined by the constitution of the country.
Constitution of a country is supreme law of
the land, it is empowered with the sovereign
authority of the people (we the people) by the
framers and the consent of the legislatures of
the states, it is the source of all government
powers, and also provides important
limitations on the government that protect the
fundamental rights of citizens.
53. Consider the following objectives:
1. Liberty of Faith
2. Dignity of the nation
3. Equality of Opportunity
4. Political justices
Which of the above-given objectives are
stated in the Preamble to the Constitution of
India?
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
C. 2 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
The Preamble in its present form reads:
• “We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having
solemnly resolved to constitute India
into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST
SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC
IN and to secure to all its citizens:
• JUSTICE, Social, Economic
Political;
• LIBERTY of thought, expression,
belief, faith and worship;
• EQUALITY of status and of
opportunity; and to promote among
them all;
• FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of
the individual and the unity and
integrity of the Nation;
• OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this
twenty-sixth day of November, 1949,
do HEREBY
ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE
OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.
Dignity of the Nation is not mentioned in the
Preamble.
Hence option B is the correct answer.
54. Which of the following parts of the
constitution is/are non-justiciable by
the courts?
1. Fundamental Rights
2. Preamble
3. Directive Principles of State Policy
4. Fundamental duties
Select the correct answer using
code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 2, 3 and 4 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
and • Option 1 is incorrect: Fundamental
Rights are justiciable and the
aggrieved person can move to the
courts for the violation of his/her
rights. They are defended by Supreme
Court and the aggrieved person can
move directly to Supreme Court.
• Option 2 is correct: The Preamble is
neither a source of power to legislature
nor a prohibition upon the powers of
legislature and is non-justiciable, that
is, its provisions are not enforceable in
courts of law.
• Option 3 is correct: Directive
TO Principles of State Policy are non
justiciable in nature. They are not
legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation. This means that the
government cannot be compelled to
implement them. However, Article 37
says that these principles are
fundamental in the governance of the
country and the State shall apply these
while making laws.
• Option 4 is correct: Fundamental
Duties are non-justiciable in nature as
there is no legal sanction against their
violation. Moreover, the constitution
does not provide for their direct
enforcement by the courts. However,
the Parliament is free to enforce them by
suitable legislation.
55. Which of the following words was/were A. 1 and 2 only
added to the Preamble of the Indian
B. 2 and 3 only
Constitution by the 42nd Constitutional
Amendment Act, 1976? C. 1 and 3 only

1. Fraternity D. 1, 2 and 3

2. Equality Answer: A

3. Republic Explanation:

4. Socialist • Article 22 grants protection to persons

who are arrested or detained.
5. Secular
Detention is of two types, namely,
Select the correct answer using the code punitive and preventive. Punitive
given below. detention is to punish a person for an
A. 1, 2 and 5 only offense committed by him after trial
and conviction in a court. Preventive
B. 1, 3 and 4 only
detention, on the other hand, means
C. 4 and 5 only detention of a person without trial and
D. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only conviction by a court. Its purpose is not
to punish a person for a past offence
Answer: C
but to prevent him from committing an
Explanation: offence in the near future. Thus,
Preamble has been amended by the 42nd preventive detention is only a
Constitutional Amendment Act of 1976, precautionary measure and based on
which added three new words—socialist, suspicion.
secular and integrity. • Article 22 has two parts–the first part
deals with the cases of ordinary law
and the second part deals with the
56. Consider the following with reference to
cases of preventive detention law.
protection against preventive detention in
The second part of Article 22 grants
the constitution.
protection to persons who are arrested
1. It is available to both citizens as well as or detained under a preventive
aliens. detention law. This protection is
2. The grounds for detention shall available to both citizens as well as
invariably be communicated with the aliens and includes the following:
person detained. • The detention of a person cannot
3. The detention cannot exceed 3 months exceed three months unless the
unless extended by the advisory board. advisory board reports sufficient cause
for extended detention. The board is to
Which of the statements given above is/are
consist of judges of a high court.
correct?
Hence, statement 3 is correct.
 • The grounds of detention should be
communicated to the deten However,
the facts considered to be against the
public interest need not be disclosed.
Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• The detenu should be afforded an
opportunity to make representation
against the detention order.
Additional information:
Preventive Detention
• Article 22 also authorizes the
Parliament to prescribethe
circumstances and the classes of cases
in which a person can be detained for
more than three months under a
preventive detention law without
obtaining the opinion of an advisory
board;
• the maximum period for which a
person can be detained in any classes
of cases under a preventive detention
law; and
the procedure to be followed by an
advisory board in an inquiry.
• The 44th Amendment Act of 1978 has
reduced the period of detention
without obtaining the opinion of an
advisory board from three to two
months. However, this provision has
not yet been brought into force, hence,
the original period of three months still
continues.
• The Constitution has divided the
legislative power with regard to
preventive detention between the
Parliament and the state legislatures.
The Parliament has exclusive authority
to make a law of preventive detention
for reasons connected with defence,
foreign affairs and the security of
India. Both the Parliament as well as
the state legislatures can concurrently
make a law of preventive detention for
reasons connected with the security of
a state, the maintenance of public order
and the maintenance of supplies and
services essential to the community.
57. Consider the following with reference to
Prohibition of child labour in India.
1. Article 24 prohibits employment of
children below the age of 14 in any
occupation.
2. The article also provides for the
establishment of the National
Commission for Protection of Child
Rights (NCPCR).
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Article 24 prohibits the employment of
children below the age of 14 years in
any factory, mine or other hazardous
activities like construction work or
railway. But it does not prohibit their
employment in any harmless or
innocent work. Hence, statement 1 is
incorrect.
• The Commissions for Protection of
Child Rights Act, 2005 was enacted to
provide for the establishment of a
 National Commission and State
Commissions for Protection of Child
Rights and Children’s Courts for
providing speedy trial of offences
against children or of violation of child
rights. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.
• In 2006, the government banned the
employment of children as domestic
servants or workers in business
establishments like hotels, dhabas,
restaurants, shops, factories, resorts,
spas, tea-shops and so on. It warned
that anyone employing children below
14 years of age would be liable for
prosecution and penal action.
58. Consider the following with reference to
Indian secularism.
1. The Indian constitution provides for
freedom of conscience.
2. The freedom of conscience of a person
can be restricted on the basis that it
goes against public morality.
3. The state can make a law to regulate
any secular activity associated with
religious practice related to such a
conscience.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Article 25 says that all persons are
equally entitled to freedom of
conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate
religion. Hence, statement 1 is correct.
• However, these rights are subject to
public order, morality, health and
other provisions relating to
fundamental rights. Hence, statement
2 is correct.
• Further, the State is permitted
to: regulate or restrict any economic,
financial, political or other secular
activity associated with religious
practice; and provide for social welfare
and reform or throw open Hindu
religious institutions of a public
character to all classes and sections of
Hindus.
• Hence, statement 3 is correct.
• Also, this does not include a right to
convert another person to one’s own
religion. Forcible conversions impinge
on the ‘freedom of conscience’
guaranteed to all the persons alike.
59. Which of the following is an accurate
difference between rights under Article 25
and Article 26?
1. Article 25 protects individual religious
rights while Article 26 protects
collective religious rights.
2. Rights under Article 25 can be
restricted on the basis of public
morality while that is not the case for
Article 26.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
 A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
• Article 25 says that all persons are
equally entitled to freedom of
conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate
religion.
According to Article 26, every religious
denomination or any of its section shall
have the following rights:Right to
establish and maintain institutions for
religious and charitable purposes;
• Right to manage its own affairs in
matters of religion;
• Right to own and acquire movable and
immovable property; and
• Right to administer such property in
accordance with law.
• Article 25 guarantees rights of individuals,
while Article 26 guarantees rights of
religious denominations or their sections.
In other words, Article 26 protects
collective freedom of religion. Hence,
statement 1 is correct.
• Like the rights under Article 25, the rights
under Article 26 are also subject to public
order, morality and health but not subject
to other provisions relating to the
Fundamental Rights. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
60. Consider the following with reference to
right to property in the Indian Constitution.
1. It is a constitutional right.
2. It is part of the basic structure of the
constitution.
3. Article 31B can be said to be against the
right of private property.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Originally, the right to property was
one of the seven fundamental rights
under Part III of the Constitution. It
was dealt by Article 19(1) (f) and
Article 31.
Since the commencement of the
Constitution, the Fundamental Right
to Property has been the most
controversial. It has caused
confrontations between the Supreme
Court and the Parliament. It has led to
a number of Constitutional
amendments, that is, 1st, 4th, 7th, 25th,
39th, 40th and 42nd Amendments.
• Through these amendments, Articles
31A, 31B and 31C have been added and
modified from time to time to nullify
the effect of Supreme Court
judgements and to protect certain laws
from being challenged on the grounds
of contravention of Fundamental
Rights (i.e. right to property). Most of
the litigation centered around the
obligation of the state to pay
compensation for acquisition or
 requisition of private property. Hence,
statement 3 is correct.
• Therefore, the 44th Amendment Act of Answer: B
1978 abolished the right to property as
a Fundamental Right by repealing Explanation:
Article 19(1) (f) and Article 31 from EXCEPTIONS
Part III. Instead, the Act inserted a new RIGHTS
Article 300A in Part XII under the
heading ‘Right to Property’. It
provides that no person shall be
deprived of his property except by
authority of law. Thus, the right to
property still remains a legal right or a
constitutional right, though no longer
a fundamental right. Hence, statement
1 is correct.
• It is not a part of the basic structure of
the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is
incorrect.
61. Match the following.
Article Purpose
1. Article i. Saving Laws added in 9th
31A schedule
2. Article ii. Saving Laws providing
31B for acquisition of estates
3. Article iii. Saving laws giving effect
31C to directive principles in the
constitution
Choose the correct answer
A. 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii
B. 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iii
C. 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i
D. 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii
TO FUNDAMENTAL
• Saving of Laws Providing for
Acquisition of Estates, etc. Article
31A16 saves five categories of laws
from being challenged and invalidated
on the ground of contravention of the
fundamental rights conferred by
Article 14 (equality before law and
equal protection of laws) and Article 19
(protection of six rights in respect of
speech, assembly, movement, etc.).
They are related to agricultural land
reforms, industry and commerce and
include the following:
• Acquisition of estates17 and related
rights by the State;
Taking over the management of
properties by the State;
Amalgamation of corporations;
Extinguishment or modification of
rights of directors or shareholders of
corporations; and
• Extinguishment or modification of
mining leases.
Validation of Certain Acts and
Regulations Article 31B saves the acts
and regulations included in the Ninth
Schedule18 from being challenged and
invalidated on the ground of
contravention of any of the
fundamental rights. Thus, the scope of
Article 31B is wider than Article 31A.
Article 31B immunizes any law
included in the Ninth Schedule from
 all the fundamental rights whether or
not the law falls under any of the five
categories specified in Article 31A.
• Saving of Laws Giving Effect to
Certain Directive PrinciplesArticle
31C, as inserted by the 25th
Amendment Act of 1971, contained the
following two provisions:
No law that seeks to implement the
socialistic directive principles specified
in Article 39(b) or c) shall be void on
the ground of contravention of the
fundamental rights conferred by
Article 14 (equality before law and
equal protection of laws) or Article 19
(protection of six rights in respect of
speech, assembly, movement, etc.)
Hence, option B is the correct one.
62. Which of the following is not a criticism
generally done of fundamental rights in the
Indian constitution?
A. Excessive Limitations
B. Broad scope
C. Suspension during Emergency
D. Expensive Remedy
Answer: B
Explanation:
• The Fundamental Rights enshrined in
Part III of the Constitution have met
with a wide and varied criticism. The
arguments of the critics are
Excessive Limitations: They are
subjected to innumerable exceptions,
restrictions, qualifications and
explanations.
• No Social and Economic Rights The list
is not comprehensive as it mainly
consists of political rights. It makes no
provision for important social and
economic rights like right to social
security, right to work, right to
employment, right to rest and leisure
and so on
No Clarity: They are stated in a vague,
indefinite and ambiguous manner. The
various phrases and words used in the
chapter like ‘public order’, ‘minorities’,
‘reasonable restriction’, ‘public
interest’ and so on are not clearly
defined.
• No Permanency: They are not
sacrosanct or immutable as the
Parliament can curtail or abolish them,
as for example, the abolition of the
fundamental right to property in 1978.
Suspension During Emergency: The
suspension of their enforcement
during the operation of National
Emergency (except Articles 20 and 21)
is another blot on the efficacy of these
rights.
• Expensive Remedy: The judiciary has
been made responsible for defending
and protecting these rights against the
interference of the legislatures and
executives.
Preventive Detention: The critics assert
that the provision for preventive
detention (Article 22) takes away the
spirit and substance of the chapter on
fundamental rights.
• No Consistent: Philosophy According
to some critics, the chapter on
fundamental rights is not the product
of any philosophical principle
Hence, option B is the correct one.
63. Consider the following with reference to
the right to constitutional remedies under
article 32.
1. It empowers supreme court and high
court to issue writs for enforcement of
the fundamental rights.
2. The right to move to any court for the
enforcement of fundamental rights can
be suspended by the president during
a national emergency.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
• A mere declaration of fundamental
rights in the Constitution is
meaningless, useless and worthless
without providing an effective
machinery for their enforcement, if
and when they are violated.
• Hence, Article 32 confers the right to
remedies for the enforcement of the
fundamental rights of an aggrieved
citizen. In other words, the right to get
the Fundamental Rights protected is in
itself a fundamental right. This makes
the fundamental rights real. That is
why Dr. Ambedkar called Article 32 as
the most important article of the
Constitution – ‘an article without
which this constitution would be a
nullity. It is the very soul of the
Constitution and the very heart of it’.
The Supreme Court has ruled that
Article 32 is a basic feature of the
Constitution. Hence, it cannot be
abridged or taken away even by way
of an amendment to the Constitution.
• It contains the following four
provisions:
o The right to move the Supreme
Court by appropriate
proceedings for the
enforcement of the
Fundamental Rights is
guaranteed. Hence, statement 1
is incorrect. The right to move
the High court for enforcement
of fundamental rights is
guaranteed under Article 226.
• The Supreme Court shall have power
to issue directions or orders or writs for
the enforcement of any of the
fundamental rights. The writs issued
may include habeas corpus,
mandamus, prohibition, certiorari and
quo-warranto.
• Parliament can empower any other
court to issue directions, orders and
writs of all kinds. However, this can be
done without prejudice to the above
powers conferred on the Supreme
Court. Any other court here does not
include high courts because Article 226
has already conferred these powers on
the high courts. (d) The right to move
the Supreme Court shall not be
suspended except as otherwise
provided for by the Constitution. Thus
the Constitution provides that the
President can suspend the right to
 move any court for the enforcement of
fundamental rights during a national
emergency (Article 359). Hence,
statement 2 is correct.
64. The Constitution of India provides for
six Fundamental Rights. Consider the
following FRs and the associated articles:
1. Fundamental Rights are absolute
2. Positive FRs entail limitations on the
government
3. FRs are justiciable in nature
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 2 only

Which of the pairs given above is/are B. 2 only

correctly matched? C. 1 and 3 only
A. 1 and 2 only D. 3 only
B. 3 and 4 only Answer: D
C. 1 and 3 only Explanation:
D. 2 and 4 only • Fundamental rights are different from
Answer: A ordinary legal rights in the manner in
which they are enforced. If a legal right
Explanation:
is violated, the aggrieved person
• The Fundamental Rights: The cannot directly approach the SC
Constitution of India provides for six bypassing the lower courts. He or she
Fundamental Rights: should first approach the lower courts.
o Right to equality (Articles 14– • Some of the fundamental rights are
18) available to all citizens while the rest
o Right to freedom (Articles 19– are for all persons (citizens and
22) foreigners).
Fundamental rights are not absolute
o Right against exploitation
rights. They have reasonable
(Articles 23–24)
restrictions, which means they are
o Right to freedom of religion subject to the conditions of state
(Articles 25–28) security, public morality and decency
o Cultural and educational rights and friendly relations with foreign
(Articles 29–30) countries.

o Right to constitutional remedies • They are justiciable, implying they are

(Article 32) enforceable by courts. People can
approach the SC directly in case of
violation of fundamental rights.
65. Consider the following statements
• Fundamental rights can be amended
regarding characteristics of Fundamental
by the Parliament by a constitutional
Rights:
amendment but only if the amendment
 does not alter the basic structure of the
Constitution.
• Fundamental rights can be suspended
during a national emergency. But, the
rights guaranteed under Articles 20
and 21 cannot be suspended.
The application of fundamental rights
can be restricted in an area that has
been placed under martial law or
military rule.
Statement 1 is incorrect: Fundamental
Rights are not absolute but qualified.
Reasonable restrictions can be
imposed on FRs. The reasonability of
such restrictions is decided by the SC.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: Some FRs is
negative in character while others are
positive. Negative FRs entail
limitations on the government, while
positive FRs imposes an obligation on
the government to take measures.
• Statement 3 is correct: FRs are
justiciable in nature
66. According to Article 12 of the
Constitution, State includes which of the
following?
1. Both executive and legislative part of
the Union and of each state
2. District boards
3. Improvement trusts
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1,2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
• According to Article 12 of the
Constitution, State includes the
following:
The Government and Parliament of
India (both executive and legislative
part of the Union);
• The Government and legislative of
states (both executive and legislative of
each of the state);
• All local authorities within the
territory of India (municipalities,
panchayats, district boards,
improvement trusts, etc.); and
• All other authorities under the control
of the Government of India (both
statutory or non-statutory authorities
like LIC, ONGC, SAIL, etc.).
67. Consider the following statements with
reference to Article 22:
1. Punitive and Preventive detention
provisions are applicable to both
citizens and aliens
2. Legislative power with regard to
preventive detention exclusively for
defence, foreign affairs and security of
India is with the Parliament.
3. Preventive detention is applicable to
those acts which are of a criminal or
quasi-criminal nature
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 3 only
D. 1 and 2 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
• Article 22: Protection against arrest
and detention: Two types of detention:
punitive and preventive
• First part of article 22Right to be
informed on the grounds of arrest
• Right to consult and be defended by a
legal practitioner
• Right to be produced before a
magistrate within 24 hours
• Right to be released after 24 hours
unless the magistrate authorizes
further detention
• These are applicable to those acts
which are of a criminal or quasi-
criminal nature
• These safeguards are not available to a
person detained under preventive
detention law and also to an alien
• Preventive detection provisions are
applicable to both citizens as well as
aliens Detention of a person cannot
exceed three months unless an
advisory board recommends the same
(the board is to consist of judges of a
high court)
• Ground of detention should be
communicated to Detenu. However,
facts considered important may not be
communicated Opportunity for
representation should be provided.
• Constitution has divided the
legislative power with regard to
preventive detention between
Parliament (exclusively for defence,
foreign affairs and security of India)
and the state legislatures
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Preventive
detection provisions are applicable to
both citizens as well as aliens
• Statement 2 is correct: Legislative
power with regard to preventive
detention exclusively for defence,
foreign affairs and security of India is
with the Parliament.
• Statement 3 is correct: Preventive
detention is applicable to those acts
which are of a criminal or quasi-
criminal nature.
68. Consider the following with reference to
Regulating Act, 1773:
1. The act provided for the appointment
of a Governor-General along with four
Councillors.
2. A Supreme Court of Judicature was to
be established at Calcutta with Sir
Elijah Impey as the first Chief Justice.
3. Governors-in-Council of Bombay and
Madras were required to pay due
obedience to the orders of the
Governor - General of Bengal.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1, 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3 only
Answer: C
• Statement 1 is correct as the act
 provided for the appointment of a
Governor-General along with four
Councillors.
• Statement 2 is correct as a Supreme
Court of Judicature was to be
established at Calcutta with Sir Elijah
Impey as the first Chief Justice.
• Statement 3 is correct as Governors-in-
Council of Bombay and Madras were
required to pay due obedience to the
orders of Governor -General of Bengal.
69. Consider the following statements with
respect to Kesavananda Bharati case:
1. It held that the preamble can be
amended.
2. It was subject to the condition that no
amendment is done to the Basic
Features.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
In the historic case of Kesavananda Bharati (1973),
the Supreme Court held that the Preamble can be
amended, subject to the condition that no
amendment is done to the basic features ‘. In other
words, the Court held that the basic elements or the
fundamental features of the Constitution as
contained in the Preamble cannot be altered by an
amendment under Article 368 The Court stated
that the opinion tendered by it in the Berubari
Union (1960) in this regard was wrong.
70. Consider the following statements with
respect to Right to Constitutional Remedies:
1. The right to move the Supreme Court
under this is guaranteed by the
Constitution.
2. It is said to be the very soul of the
Constitution.
3. This remedy is mentioned under the
Article 32 of Indian Constitution.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
All of the above statements are correct.
Additional Information
Part III of the Constitution provides for legal
remedies for the protection of these rights
against their violation by the State or other
institutions/individuals. It entitles the
citizens of India to move the Supreme Court
or High Courts for the enforcement of these
rights. The State is forbidden from making
any law that may conflict with the
Fundamental Rights.
71. Consider the following statements with
respect to the Writ of Certiorari:
1. It is issued by a lower court to a higher
court.
2. Like prohibition, it is both preventive
as well as curative.
3. It is not available against legislative
 bodies and private individuals or advertisement.
bodies. 3. Right to know about Government
Which of the above statements is/are correct? activities.
A. 1 and 2 4. Right against imposition of pre
B. 2 only censorship on a newspaper.

C. 3 only Choose the correct answer using the codes given

below:
D. 2 and 3
A. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
B. 2, 3 and 4
• Certiorari In the literal sense, it means
C. 1, 3 and 4
‘to be certified’ or ‘to be informed’.
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
• It is issued by a higher court to a lower
court or tribunal either to transfer a Answer: D
case pending with the latter to itself or All of the above are included under the right of
to squash the order of the latter in a speech and expression.
case.
It is issued on the grounds of excess of
jurisdiction or lack of jurisdiction or 73. Consider the following with regard to
error of law. Thus, unlike prohibition, Fundamental Rights:
which is only preventive, certiorari is 1. President, on the advice of the council
both preventive as well as curative. of ministers, can impose reasonable
• Previously, the writ of certiorari could restrictions on fundamental rights of
be issued only against judicial and the citizens.
quasi-judicial authorities and not 2. Judiciary decides upon the
against administrative authories. reasonableness of the restrictions
However, in 1991, the Supreme Court placed on fundamental rights of the
ruled that the certiorari can be issued citizens.
even against administrative authorities
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
affecting rights of individuals. Like
prohibition, certiorari is also not A. 1 only
available against— legislative bodies B. 2 only
and private individuals or bodies.
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
72. Which of the following fundamental rights
Answer: B
are included under the Right to Speech and
Expression: Parliament can impose reasonable restrictions on
fundamental rights of the citizens. Judiciary
1. Freedom of press
2. Freedom of commercial
decides upon the reasonableness of the restrictions
placed on fundamental rights of the citizens
74. Which Article of the Constitution of India
safeguards one’s right to marry the person of
one’s choice?
A. Article 19
B. Article 21
C. Article 25
D. Article 29A
Answer: B
Article 21 is at the heart of the Constitution. It is our
living Constitution's most organic and progressive
provision. It can only be invoked when a person's
'life or 'personal liberty' is taken away by the 'State,'
as defined in Article 12. As a result, private
individuals' violations of the right are not covered
by Article 21. Two rights are guaranteed under it
i.e., the right to life and the right to personal liberty.
75. Which of the following statements best
describe the phrase "Dignity of Individual",
enshrined in the Preamble?
A. Recognition of the personality of every
individual as sacred in a democratic
setup.
B. Duty of every citizen to promote
harmony and the spirit of common
brotherhood.
C. Overcoming hindrances to national
integration like communalism,
regionalism, casteism, secessionism
etc.
D. Securing all citizens equality of status
and opportunity in the political,
economic and social arena.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement A is correct: Recognition of personality
of every individual as sacred in a democratic setup.
Additional Info:
According to K.M Munshi, the phrase 'dignity of
the individual' signifies that the Constitution not
only ensures material betterment and maintains a
democratic set-up, but that it also recognises that
the personality of every individual is sacred. So,
Statement 1 is correct.
The Preamble and Article 38 of the Constitution
envision social justice as the arch to ensure life to
be meaningful and liveable with human dignity.
76. Consider the following statements with
reference to Fundamental Duties:
1. It was added by the 42nd
Constitutional Amendment Act
adding Part IV to the Constitution.
2. It was inspired by the Constitution of
erstwhile USSR, the necessity of which
was felt during the emergency of 1975-
77.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Fundamental
Duties are dealt with Article 51A under Part-
IV A of the Indian Constitution.
Additional Info:
The Constitution of erstwhile USSR inspires
the Fundamental Duties in the Indian
Constitution.
Notably, none of the Constitutions of major
democratic countries like USA, Canada,
France, Germany, Australia and so on
specifically contain a list of citizens' duties.
Perhaps, the Japanese Constitution is the only
democratic Constitution in world which
contains a list of citizens' duties.
On the contrary, the socialist countries gave
equal importance to the fundamental rights
and duties of their citizens. So, the
Constitution of erstwhile USSR declared that
the citizen's exercise of their rights and
freedoms was inseparable from the
performance of their duties and obligations.
So, Statement (2) is correct.
The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added 10
Fundamental Duties to the Indian
Constitution.
6th Amendment Act 2002 later added 11th
Fundamental Duty to the list. Swaran Singh
Committee in 1976 recommended
Fundamental Duties, the necessity of which
was felt during the internal emergency of
1975-77.
77. Which of the following statements is/are
correct with reference to the right to freedom of
religion under the Indian Constitution?
1. Article 25 covers both religious beliefs
and religious practices.
2. Article 25 guarantees collective
freedom of religion, while Article 26
protects rights of individuals.
3. Article 27 does not prohibit the state to
collect taxes for the promotion or
maintenance of all religions.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: C
Statement 2 is incorrect: Article 25 guarantees
rights of individuals, while Article 26 guarantees
rights of religious denominations or their sections.
In other words, Article 26 protects collective
freedom of religion. Like the rights under Article
25, the rights under Article 26 are also subject to
public order, morality and health but not subject to
other provisions relating to the Fundamental
Rights.
Additional Info:
Article 25 says that all persons are equally entitled
to freedom of conscience and the right to freely
profess, practice and propagate religion. It covers
not only religious beliefs(doctrines) but also
religious practices (rituals). Moreover, these rights
are available to all persons—citizens as well as
non-citizens. So, statement 1 is correct.
Article 27 lays down that no person shall be
compelled to pay any taxes for the promotion or
maintenance of any particular religion or religious
denomination. In other words, the State should not
spend the public money collected by way of tax for
the promotion or maintenance of any particular
religion. This provision prohibits the State from
favouring, patronising and supporting one religion
over the other. This means that the taxes can be
used for the promotion or maintenance of all
religions. So, statement 3 is correct.
78. Consider the following statements about sitting of two Houses of Parliament
the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha: and the Chairman of Rajya Sabha
cannot preside over a joint sitting of
1. Presiding officer of the Rajya Sabha is
the two Houses of Parliament under
the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya
any circumstances.
Sabha.
Statement 3 is correct: Unlike the Speaker
2. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha can
(who is a member of the House), the
preside over a joint sitting of the two
Chairman is not a member of the House. The
Houses of Parliament under special
Chairman cannot vote in the first instance.
circumstances.
However, he can cast a vote in the case of an
3. The Chairman cannot vote in the first equality of votes.
instance but can cast a vote in the case
Reference: M. Laxmikant.
of an equality of votes.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 79. Consider the following statements about
the Leader of the Opposition:
A. 1 and 2 only
1. The office of the leader of the
B. 3 only
Opposition is mentioned in the
C. 1 and 3 only Constitution of India.
D. 1, 2 and 3 2. The leader of the largest Opposition
Answer: B party having not less than one-tenth
seats of the total strength of the House.
Explanation:
3. They are entitled to the salary,
Statement 1 is not correct: The presiding
allowances and other facilities
officer of the Rajya Sabha is known as the
equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
Chairman. The vice-president of India is the
ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are
During any period when the Vice-President correct?
acts as President or discharges the functions A. 2 and 3 only
of the President, He does not perform the
B. 2 only
duties of the office of the Chairman of Rajya
Sabha. The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha can C. 1 and 2 only
be removed from his office only if he is D. 1, 2 and 3
removed from the office of the Vice-President.
Answer: A
Statement 2 is not correct:
Explanation:
• As a presiding officer, the powers, and
Statement 1 is not correct: The offices of the
functions of the Chairman in the Rajya
leader of the House and the leader of the
Sabha are similar to those of the
Opposition are not mentioned in the
Speaker in the Lok Sabha. However,
Constitution of India, they are mentioned in
the Speaker presides over a joint
the Rules of the House and Parliamentary
Statute respectively.
Leader of the House:
• Under the Rules of Lok Sabha, the
‘Leader of the House’ means the prime
minister, if he is a member of the Lok
Sabha or a minister who is a member
of the Lok Sabha and is nominated by
the prime minister to function as the
Leader of the House.
• There is also a ‘Leader of the House’ in
the Rajya Sabha. He is a minister and a
member of the Rajya Sabha and is
nominated by the prime minister to
function as such.
Statement 2 is correct: Leader of the
Opposition: In each House of Parliament,
there is the ‘Leader of the Opposition’. The
leader of the largest Opposition party having
not less than one-tenth seats of the total
strength of the House is recognized as the
leader of the Opposition in that House.
Statement 3 is correct: His main functions are
to provide constructive criticism of the
policies of the government and to provide an
alternative government. They are also entitled
to the salary, allowances, and other facilities
equivalent to that of a cabinet minister.
Reference: M. Laxmikant.
80. Consider the following statements about
the Speaker Pro Tem:
1. She/He is elected by the Lok Sabha
from amongst its members.
2. Chief minister administers the oath to
the Speaker Pro Tem.
3. She/he presides over the first sitting
of the newly-elected Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: As per the
provisions of the Constitution, the Speaker of
the last Lok Sabha vacates his office
immediately before the first meeting of the
newly-elected Lok Sabha. Therefore, the
President appoints a member of the Lok
Sabha as the Speaker Pro Tem. Usually, the
senior most member is selected for this.
Statement 2 is not correct: The President
himself administers the oath to the Speaker
Pro Tem. The Speaker Pro Tem has all the
powers of the Speaker.
• He also enables the House to elect the
new Speaker. The date of the election
of the Speaker is fixed by the President.
He also administers the floor test.
Statement 3 is correct: He presided over the
first sitting of the newly-elected Lok Sabha.
His main duty is to administer the oath to the
new members.
• When the new Speaker is elected by
the House, the office of the Speaker Pro
Tem ceases to exist. Hence, this office
is a temporary office, existing for a few
dates.
Reference: M. Laxmikant
81. Consider the following statements:
 1. The zero hour is mentioned in the
Indian Constitution and Rules of
Procedure.
2. A starred question requires an oral
answer and hence supplementary
questions can follow.
3. An unstarred question, on the other
hand, requires a written answer.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 and 3 only
B. 2, 3 only
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct: The zero hour is
not mentioned in the Indian Constitution and
Rules of Procedure. Thus it is an informal
device available to the members of the
Parliament to raise matters without any prior
notice.
Statement 2 is correct: The questions are of
three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and
short notice. A starred question
(distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral
answer and hence supplementary questions
can follow.
Statement 3 is correct: An unstarred question,
on the other hand, requires a written answer
and hence, supplementary questions cannot
follow. A short notice question is one that is
asked by giving a notice of fewer than ten
days. It is answered orally.
• In addition to the ministers, the
questions can also be asked to the
private members. Thus, a question
may be addressed to a private member
if the subject matter of the question
relates to some Bill, resolution, or other
matter connected with the business of
the House for which that member is
responsible. The procedure in regard
to such questions is the same as that
followed in the case of questions
addressed to a minister.
• The list of starred, unstarred, short
notice questions and questions to
private members are printed in green,
white, light pink, and yellow colour,
respectively, to distinguish them from
one another.
Reference: M. Laxmikant.
82. Consider the following statements in the
context of Calling attention motion:
1. It is introduced to deal with very
important matters like the
impeachment of the President.
2. A member can give more than two
calling attention notices for any one
sitting.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct:
Calling Attention Motion: It is introduced in
the Parliament by a member to call the
attention of a minister to a matter of urgent
public importance and to seek an
authoritative statement from him on that
matter, for example, disturbances in any part
of the country, border troubles, railway
accidents, shutting down of public
undertakings.
Statement 2 is correct: It is an Indian
innovation in the parliamentary procedure
and has been in existence since 1954.
However, unlike the zero hour, it is
mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. A
member can not give more than two calling
attention notices for any one sitting.
Reference: M. Laxmikant.
83. Consider the following statements with
reference to Council of Ministers:
1. Council of Ministers are appointed by
the President on the advice of Prime
Minister
2. Prime Minister decides the salary and
allowances of the council of ministers
3. Council of Ministers along with the
Prime Minister of India form 15% of
the total strength of the Parliament.
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Council of Ministers
are appointed by the President on the advice
of Prime Minister
Statement 2 is incorrect: Parliament decides
the salary and allowances of the council of
ministers
Statement 3 is incorrect: Council of Ministers
along with the Prime Minister of India form
15% of the total strength of the lower house
i.e. Lok Sabha. (The number cannot exceed
15%).
84. Consider the following statements with
reference to Council of Ministers and the
President:
1. The advice tendered by the Council of
Ministers’ is binding on the President
2. This provision was introduced by the
42nd Amendment Act 1976 and 44th
Amendment Act 1978.
3. The advice given by the council cannot
be inquired into by any court was
provided by 42nd and 44th
amendment acts.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Statement 1 is correct: The advice tendered
by the Council of Ministers’ is binding on the
President
Statement 2 is correct: This provision was
introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976
and 44th Amendment Act 1978.
Statement 3 is incorrect: the advice is binding
on the President, and this provision was
introduced by the 42nd Amendment Act 1976
and 44th Amendment Act 1978. The acts also
mentioned that the advice given by the
council cannot be inquired into by any court.
85. Consider the following statements with
reference to difference between Cabinet
Committees and Council of Ministers
(COMs):
1. Council of Ministers are vested with all
powers but only in theory.
2. Cabinet committees are collectively
responsible to the Council of Ministers
3. Cabinet Committees is a statutory
body
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Council of Ministers
(COMs) are vested with all powers but only
in theory. It implements the decisions taken
by the cabinet while Cabinet Committees help
the cabinet in decision making.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Council of Ministers
(COMs) are collectively responsible to the
Lower House of the Parliament while there is
no such clause for cabinet committees.
Statement 3 is incorrect: Cabinet Committee
is not a statutory body and is rather an extra-
constitutional body, which means they are
not mentioned in the constitution.
86. Council of Ministers includes which of
the following?
1. cabinet ministers
2. Ministers of state
3. Deputy ministers
4. Cabinet Secretary
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Answer: D
Explanation:
The Council of Ministers is a wider body of 60
to 70 ministers including all 3 categories of
ministers, namely, cabinet ministers,
ministers of state, and deputy ministers.
87. Consider the following statements with
reference to cabinet secretary:
1. A cabinet secretary is appointed for a
fixed tenure of two years.
2. The cabinet secretariat is under the
direct charge of the prime minister.
3. Cabinet secretary is the ex-officio
chairman of the civil services board.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
 C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A cabinet secretary is
appointed for a fixed tenure of two years.
Statement 2 is correct: The cabinet secretariat
is under the direct charge of the prime
minister.
Statement 3 is correct: Cabinet secretary is the
ex-officio chairman of the civil services board.
Additional info:
• A cabinet secretary is appointed for a
fixed tenure of two years.
• According to All India Services (Death-
Cum-Retirement-Benefits) Rules, 1958,
the government can give extension in
service to a cabinet secretary provided
the total tenure does not exceed four
years.
• As per the modified rules, the central
government may give an extension in
service for a further period not
exceeding three months, beyond the
period of four years to a cabinet
secretary.
Role of the cabinet secretary:
• The cabinet secretariat is under the
direct charge of the prime minister.
• The administrative head of the
secretariat is the cabinet secretary who
is also the ex-officio chairman of the
civil services board.
Functions:
• The cabinet secretariat assists in
decision-making in government by
ensuring inter-ministerial
coordination, ironing out differences
amongst ministries or departments
and evolving consensus through the
instrumentality of the standing or ad
hoc committees of secretaries.
• Management of major crisis situations
in the country and coordinating
activities of various ministries in such
a situation is also one of the functions
of the cabinet secretariat.
• Cabinet Secretariat is responsible for
the administration of the Government
of India (Transaction of Business)
Rules, 1961 and the Government of
India (Allocation of Business) Rules
1961, facilitating smooth transaction of
business in Ministries/ Departments
of the Government.
88. The State Executive is made up of which
of the following?
1. Governor
2. Chief Minister
3. Council of Ministers
4. Advocate General of the State
5. Non-Political Permanent Executive -
Civil Servants
Select the correct code:
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3, 4 and 5 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Answer: D
Explanation:
What is a State Executive?
• The government is based on the
separation of powers and consists of
three organs such as the Legislature,
Executive and the Judiciary.
• The state executive is envisaged with
the role of enforcing the laws made by
the legislature and looking after the
governance in the state.
• The State Executive is made up of the
following:
o Governor
o Chief Minister
o Council of Ministers
o Advocate General of the State
o Non-Political Permanent
Executive - Civil Servants
89. Which of the following States does not
have a State Legislative Council?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Telangana
Answer: C
Explanation:
• As of 2022, 6 out of 28 states have a
State Legislative Council.
• These are Andhra Pradesh,
Karnataka, Telangana, Maharashtra,
Bihar, and Uttar Pradesh.
90. Which of the following Statements is
incorrect with reference to the composition
of the Legislative Council?
A. One-third of the Members of
Legislative Councils are elected by the
state’s MLAs
B. Another 1/3rd by a special electorate
comprising sitting members of local
governments such as municipalities
and district boards,
C. 1/12th by an electorate of teachers and
another 1/12th by registered
graduates.
D. The remaining members are appointed
by the Chief Minister for distinguished
services in various fields
Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: One-third of the MLCs
are elected by the state’s MLAs
Statement 2 is correct: Another 1/3rd by a
special electorate comprising sitting members
of local governments such as municipalities
and district boards
Statement 3 is correct: 1/12th by an electorate
of teachers and another 1/12th by registered
graduates.
Statement 4 is incorrect: The remaining
members are appointed by the Governor for
distinguished services in various fields
namely, literature, science, art, cooperative
movement, and social service.
Additional info:
• India has a bicameral parliamentary
system, which means it has two houses
of parliament: the Lok Sabha (House of
the People) and the Rajya Sabha
 (Council of States). The Legislative
Council, on the other hand, is the
upper house of the state legislature in
certain states of India.
• Currently, six states in India have
Legislative Councils, not seven. These
states are Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Jammu and Kashmir, Karnataka,
Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh.
Telangana Legislative Council was
abolished in 2019. Thank you for
bringing this to my attention.
• The members of the Legislative
Council are not directly elected by the
people. Instead, they are elected by
different methods, including indirect
elections by members of local bodies,
teachers, graduates, and others, as well
as by appointment by the Governor of
the state.
• The powers and functions of the
Legislative Council are similar to those
of the Rajya Sabha at the national level.
They include scrutinizing and
approving legislation, debating issues
of public importance, and examining
the work of the government. However,
in the event of a disagreement between
the two houses of the state legislature,
the Legislative Assembly, being the
lower house, has the final say.
91. Consider the following statements with
reference to Money Bill In State Legislature:
1. A money bill can only be introduced in
the Vidhan Sabha.
2. Money bills cannot be introduced by a
private member.
Which of the above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: A money bill can only
be introduced in the Vidhan Sabha.
Statement 2 is correct: Money bills cannot be
introduced by a private member.
Additional info:
Money bill is passed in State Legislature in the
following ways:
• A money bill can only be introduced in
the Vidhan Sabha. The Money bill is
inclusive of expenditure that is
authorized by the government,
imposition or abolition of taxes,
borrowing, etc.
• Money bills cannot be introduced by a
private member. It has to be
introduced by a Minister on the
recommendations of the Governor. In
case of any confusion with regards to
the certification of that particular bill
being a money bill, the Speaker of the
Vidhan Sabha would determine the
same.
• This money bill after being passed by
the Vidhan Sabha needs to be sent to
the Vidhan Parishad. This bill needs to
be returned within the time span of 14
days, with, or without any
recommendations. The Vidhan Sabha
may accept or reject these
recommendations. After these stages
 are completed, this bill is sent to the between this two w.r.t. Ordinance making is
Governor for his assent. given below:

Ordinance
92. Consider the following statements with Ordinance Making
Making Power of
reference to Ordinance Making Power of Power of Governor
President
Governor:
1. Governor can roll-out an ordinance
He can promulgate
for only those matters on which state
ordinance when the
legislature can make laws
He can Legislative Assembly
2. His power to promulgate ordinance is promulgate is not in session in
a discretionary power. ordinance when case of the
3. His ordinances have the same effect on either Lok Sabha unicameral
policies as state’s acts will have or Rajya Sabha is legislature or when
not in session or both Legislative
Which of the above is/are correct?
if both are not in assembly and council
A. 1 only session are not in session in
B. 2 and 3 only case of a bicameral
legislature
C. 2 only
D. 1 and 3 only
He can roll-out an
Answer: D ordinance for He can roll-out an
Explanation: only those ordinance for only
matters on which those matters on
Statement 1 is correct: Governor can roll-out
Parliament (Lok which state
an ordinance for only those matters on which
Sabha & Rajya legislature can make
state legislature can make laws
Sabha) can make laws
Statement 2 is incorrect: His power to laws
promulgate ordinance is not a discretionary
power. Council of Ministers’ (headed by CM)
His ordinances have
advice is a prerequisite
the same effect on
Statement 3 is correct: His ordinances have policies as state’s acts
the same effect on policies as state’s acts will His ordinances
will have. If his
have. have the same
ordinance legislates
effect on policies
Additional info: on matters which
as parliament’s
state government has
Article 213 deals with the power of the acts will have
no power on, the
Governor to legislate through ordinances. His
ordinance stands null
power of ordinance making is quite similar to
and void
the President’s power. The comparisons
 The ordinance
The ordinance 93. Consider the following statements regarding
introduced by
introduced by him fifth schedule of the Indian Constitution:
him can be
can be withdrawn
withdrawn 1. It is valid for every state
anytime
anytime 2. It deals with tribals areas and scheduled
tribes
His power to Which of the statements is/are correct?
His power to
promulgate
promulgate A. 1 only
ordinance is not a
ordinance is not a B. 2 only
discretionary
discretionary power.
power. Council of C. both the statements
Council of Ministers’
Ministers’
(headed by CM) D. none of the above
(headed by PM)
advice is a pre- Answer: D
advice is a pre-
requisite
requisite Explanation:
• Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution
President’s envisages a special system of
instructions on the administration for certain areas designated
following three cases as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
are must:
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
If a bill containing the deals with the administration and control
same provisions of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in
would have required
any state except the four states of Assam,
the previous sanction
of the President for its Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus
introduction into the both the statement are incorrect
No instructions
state legislature Additional info:
are needed by
If he would have
President’s when • The Sixth Schedule of the Constitution, on
deemed it necessary
he promulgates the other hand, deals with the
to reserve a bill
an ordinance containing the same administration of the tribal areas in the four
provisions for the northeastern states of Assam, Meghalaya,
consideration of the Tripura and Mizoram
President
Fifth Schedule
If an act of the state
legislature containing • Declaration of Scheduled Areas: The
the same provisions president is empowered to declare an area
would have been to be a scheduled area. He can also increase
invalid without or decrease its area, alter its boundary lines,
receiving the rescind such designation, or make fresh
President’s assent
orders for such designation on an area in
 consultation with the governor of the state
concerned.
• Executive Power of State and Centre: The
executive power of a state extends to the
scheduled areas therein. But the governor
has a special responsibility regarding such
areas. He has to submit a report to the
president regarding the administration of
such areas, annually or whenever so
required by the President.
• Tribes Advisory Council: Each state having
scheduled areas has to establish a tribes
advisory council to advise on welfare and
advancement of the scheduled tribes.
• A similar council can also be established in
a state having scheduled tribes but not
scheduled areas therein, if the president so
directs.
• Law applicable to Scheduled Areas: The
governor is empowered to direct that any
particular act of Parliament or the state
legislature does not apply to a scheduled
area or apply with specified modifications
and exceptions. He can also make
regulations for the peace and good
government of a scheduled area after
consulting the tribes advisory council.
• The Constitution requires the president to
appoint a commission to report on the
administration of the scheduled areas and
the welfare of the scheduled tribes in the
states
Source – Notes, Laxmikanth.
94. Who/Which of the following is empowered to
direct that a law of Parliament does not apply to a
scheduled area?
A. President of India
B. Ministry of Home Affairs
C. Parliament
D. Governor of the State
Answer: D
Explanation:
Law applicable to Scheduled Areas under Fifth
Schedule : The governor is empowered to direct
that any particular act of Parliament or the state
legislature does not apply to a scheduled area or
apply with specified modifications. Thus option D
is correct
Additional info:
• Article 244 in Part X of the Constitution
envisages a special system of
administration for certain areas designated
as ‘scheduled areas’ and ‘tribal areas’.
• The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution
deals with the administration and control
of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in
any state except the four states of Assam,
Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram. Thus
both the statement are incorrect
• Fifth Schedule
o Declaration of Scheduled Areas:
The president is empowered to
declare an area to be a scheduled
area. He can also increase or
decrease its area, alter its boundary
lines, rescind such designation or
make fresh orders for such
designation on an area in
consultation with the governor of
the state concerned.
o Executive Power of State and
Centre: The executive power of a
state extends to the scheduled areas
therein. But the governor has a
 special responsibility regarding
such areas. He has to submit a
report to the president regarding
the administration of such areas,
annually or whenever so required
by the President.
o Tribes Advisory Council: Each state
having scheduled areas has to
establish a tribes advisory council
to advise on welfare and
advancement of the scheduled
tribes.
▪ A similar council can also be
established in a state having
scheduled tribes but not
scheduled areas therein, if
the president so directs.
o and exceptions. He can also make
regulations for the peace and good
government of a scheduled area
after consulting the tribes advisory
council.
o The Constitution requires the
president to appoint a commission
to report on the administration of
the scheduled areas and the welfare
of the scheduled tribes in the states
Source – Notes, Laxmikanth.
95. Consider the following statements
1. Federal Court of India established under
Government of India Act, 1935 functioned
till 15th August, 1947
2. The Federal court was renamed as Supreme
Court of India on 26th January, 1950 after
enforcement of Indian Constitution
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. both the statements
D. none of the above
Answer: D
Statement 1 is incorrect as the Government of
India Act of 1935 set up the Federal Court of India
to act as an intermediate appellate between High
courts and the Privy Council. The Federal Court
continued to function till 26th January 1950, when
independent India’s Constitution came into force
Statement 2 is incorrect as the Supreme Court of
India was inaugurated on January 28, 1950 and
replaced the Federal Court. It was not renamed as
his jurisdiction was greater as it also replaced the
Privy Council. It is the apex court and the highest
court of appeal in the country.
Additional info:
Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution
deals with its organisation, independence,
jurisdiction, powers, procedures
Source – Notes.
96. Consider the following statements:
1. A retired Supreme Court Judge can act as a
Judge of the Supreme Court
2. President can appoint a judge of a High
Court as an ad hoc judge of SC for a
temporary period
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct: Retired Judge - At any time,
the CJI can request a retired judge of the SC or a
retired judge of a HC (who is duly qualified for
appointment as a judge of SC) to act as a judge of
SC for a temporary period. He can do so only with
the previous consent of the President and also of
the person to be so appointed. Such a judge is
entitled to such allowances as the President may
determine
Statement 2 is incorrect: Ad hoc Judge - When
there is a lack of quorum of the permanent judges,
the CJI can appoint a judge of a High Court as an
ad hoc judge of SC for a temporary period. He can
do so only after consultation with the chief justice
of the High Court concerned and with the previous
consent of the President. The judge so appointed
should be qualified for appointment as a judge of
the Supreme Court.
Additional info: Acting CJI - A judge of the SC can
be appointed as an acting CJI by the President in
case of temporary vacancy, absence or inability of
CJI to perform his duties.
Source – Notes, Laxmikanth.
97. Consider the following statements regarding
removal of judge:
1. Process of impeachment has been framed
under Judges Enquiry Act, 1968
2. Judge can be removed only if collegium of
supreme court recommend government to
start the process
3. Judge of Supreme court is removed by
President
Which of the statements is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation:
• Statement 3 is correct: A judge of the
Supreme Court can be removed from his
Office by an order of the president.
• Statement 2 is incorrect: The President can
issue the removal order only after an
address by Parliament has been presented
to him in the same session for such
removal.
• The address must be supported by a special
majority of each House of Parliament (ie, a
majority of the total membership of that
House and a majority of not less than two-
thirds of the members of that House
present and voting). The grounds of
• removal are two–proved misbehaviour or
incapacity
• Statement 1 is correct: The Judges Enquiry
Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating
to the removal of a judge of the Supreme
Court by the process of impeachment:
o A removal motion signed by 100
members (in the case of Lok Sabha)
or 50 members (in the case of Rajya
Sabha) is to be given to the
Speaker/Chairman.
o The Speaker/Chairman may admit
the motion or refuse to admit it.
o If it is admitted, then the
Speaker/Chairman is to constitute
a three-member committee to
investigate into the charges.The
committee should consist of
 ▪ (a) the chief justice or a
judge of the Supreme Court,
▪ (b) a chief justice of a high
court, and
Strength of HC –
▪ (c) a distinguished jurist
o If the committee finds the judge to
be guilty of misbehaviour or
suffering from an incapacity, the
House can take up the
consideration of the motion.
o After the motion is passed by each
House of Parliament by special
majority, an address is presented to
the President for removal of the
judge.
o Finally, the President passes an
order removing the judge.
Source – Notes, Laxmikanth.
98. Consider the following statements:
1. The strength of High Court are specified by
the Ministry of Legal Affairs
2. High court also has a power to punish over
contempt of court
Which of the statements given above is / are
correct?
Additional info:
A. Only 1
Other power of HC
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
• In the Indian single integrated judicial
system, the high court operates below the
Supreme Court but above the subordinate
courts. The judiciary in a state consists of a
high court and a hierarchy of subordinate
courts. The high court occupies the top
position in the judicial administration of a
state.
• Statement 1 is incorrect: Every high
court (whether exclusive or common)
consists of a chief justice and such
other judges as the President may
from time to time deem necessary to
appoint. (In case of SC, Parliament
decides). Also note their is no such
ministry with name Ministry of Legal
Affairs, it's ministry of law and justice
• Thus, the Constitution does not
specify the strength of a high court
• Statement 2 is correct: Under Original
Jurisdiction, HC has power to punish for
contempt of court. Under Contempt of
Courts Act, 1971, a High Court shall have
jurisdiction to inquire into or try a
contempt of itself or of any court
subordinate to it, whether the contempt is
alleged to have been committed within or
outside the local limits of its jurisdiction,
and whether the person alleged to be guilty
of contempt is within or outside such
limits.
• Matters of admiralty, will, marriage,
divorce, company laws and contempt
of court.
• Disputes relating to the election of
members of Parliament and state
legislatures.
• Regarding revenue matters or an act
ordered or done in revenue collection.
 • Enforcement of fundamental rights of
citizens.
• Cases ordered to be transferred from a
subordinate court involving the
interpretation of the Constitution to
its own file.
• The four high courts (i.e., Calcutta,
Bombay, Madras and Delhi High
Courts) have original civil jurisdiction
in cases of higher value.
Writ Jurisdiction
• Article 226 empowers HC to issue
writs for the enforcement of FRs of
citizens and for any other purpose.
• Writ jurisdiction of HC is co-terminus
with SC and in fact extends beyond
fundamental rights to include
ordinary legal right as well.
Appellate Jurisdiction
• A high court is primarily a court of
appeal. It hears appeals against the
judgments of subordinate courts
functioning in its territorial
jurisdiction. It has appellate
jurisdiction in both civil and criminal
matters. Hence, the appellate
jurisdiction of a high court is wider
than its original jurisdiction.
• Appeals from the decisions of the
administrative and other tribunals lie
to the division bench of the state high
court.
Supervisory Jurisdiction
• HC has power of superintendence
over all courts and tribunals
functioning in its territorial
jurisdiction (except military courts or
tribunals)
• This power of superintendence of a
high court is very broad because –
• It extends to all courts and tribunals
whether they are subject to appellate
• jurisdiction of HC or not
• It covers not only administrative
superintendence but also judicial
superintendence;
• It is a revisional jurisdiction; and
• It can be suo-motu (on its own) and
not necessarily on the application of a
party
99. The writ jurisdiction of High Courts is wider
than Supreme court as per constitution as it
expands to which matters:
A. Civil and criminal matters
B. Fundamental and other legal rights
C. Fundamental rights and matters in appeals
D. Fundamental rights and stay matters
Answer: B
Explanation:
Option B is correct: However, the writ jurisdiction
of the high court is wider than that of the Supreme
Court. This is because the Supreme Court can issue
writs only for the enforcement of fundamental
rights and not for any other purpose, that is, it does
not extend to a case where the breach of an
ordinary legal right is alleged.
Additional Info:
• Article 226 of the Constitution empowers a
high court to issue writs including habeas
corpus, mandamus, certiorari, prohibition
and quo warranto for the enforcement of
the fundamental rights of the citizens and
for any other purpose.
 • The phrase ‘for any other purpose’ refers to
the enforcement of an ordinary legal right.
Thus writ jurisdiction extends to both
fundamental and legal rights of citizens
• The high court can issue writs to any
person, authority and government not only
within its territorial jurisdiction but also
outside its territorial jurisdiction if the
cause of action arises within its territorial
jurisdiction
• The writ jurisdiction of the high court
(under Article 226) is not exclusive but
concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court (under Article 32). It
means, when the fundamental rights of a
citizen are violated, the aggrieved party has
the option of moving either the high court
or the Supreme Court directly.
Various Writs
• Habeas Corpus
• Latin term meaning “to have the
body of”
• issued against both public and
private
• order issued by a court to a person
who has detained another to
produce the body of the latter
before it.
• Mandamus – means “we command”
• issued by the court to make a
public official perform his official
duties that he has failed or refuse
to perform
• issued against any public body,
Corp, inferior court, tribunal, or
government.
• Prohibition – means “to forbid”
• issued by a higher court to a lower
court
• prevent the latter from exceeding
jurisdiction or usurping a
jurisdiction that it does not
possess
• unlike mandamus that directs
activity it prohibits and directs
inactivity
• Certiorari – means “to be certified”
• issued by higher court to a lower
court to transfer a case pending or
squash order
• grounds: excess of jurisdiction or
lack or error of law
• Quo Warranto – means “by what
authority or warrant”
• issued by the court to enquire into
legality of claim of a person to a
public office
• prevent illegal assassination of
public office by person
• unlike other four can be sought by
any interested person and not only
aggrieved
Source - Laxmikanth
100. Consider the following statements regarding
Sedition Law:
1. Proceedings under sedition law has been
suspended by Supreme Court as of now
2. Sedition is a non-bailable offense
3. Section 124A was not part of original law of
IPC enacted in 1860
Which of the statements is/are correct?
 A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation:
• Statement 1 is correct: The Supreme Court
suspended pending criminal trials and
court proceedings under Section 124A
(sedition) of the Indian Penal Code, while
allowing the Union of India to reconsider
the British-era law.
• Statement 3 is correct: Although Thomas
Macaulay, who drafted the Indian Penal
Code, had included the law on sedition, it
was not added in the code enacted in 1860.
Legal experts believe this omission was
accidental. In 1890, sedition was included
as an offence under section 124A IPC
through the Special Act XVII
• All pending trials, appeals and proceedings
with respect to the charge framed under
Section 124A of the IPC be kept in
temporary suspension.
o The court also restrained centre and
states from registering FIRs,
continuing investigations or taking
coercive measures under Section
124A.
• This judgement is seen as judicial activism
by many experts as the article indirectly
violated article 19 and 21 of the
Constitution.
• About Judicial Activism
o Judicial activism is a dynamic
process of judicial outlook in a
changing society. It is a " judicial
philosophy which motivates judges
to depart from the traditional
precedents in favour of progressive
and new social policies”.
• About Sedition Law
o Section 124A of the Indian Penal
Code lays down the punishment for
sedition. The IPC was enacted in
1860, under the British Raj.
o Throughout the Raj, this section
was used to suppress activists in
favor of national independence,
including Tilak and Mahatma
Gandhi, both of whom were found
guilty and imprisoned.
o Section 124A defines sedition as:
▪ An offence committed
when “any person by
words, either spoken or
written, or by signs, or by
visible representation, or
otherwise, brings or
attempts to bring into
hatred or contempt, or
excites or attempts to excite
disaffection towards the
government established by
law in India”.
▪ Disaffection includes
disloyalty and all feelings of
enmity.
o However, comments without
exciting or attempting to excite
hatred, contempt or disaffection,
will not constitute an offense.
o Statement 2 is correct: Sedition is a
non-bailable offense.
o Punishment under Section 124A
ranges from imprisonment up to
three years to a life term
with/without a fine.