Test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

FULL LENGTH TEST (FLT) – 2
40
30/-

Time Allowed: 2 Hours Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS

1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK

THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN or MISSING PAGES OR
ITEMS, ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOKLET.

2. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English Only. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on the
Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the response
which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.

3. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet (OMR sheet) provided.
Read the directions in the Answer Sheet.

4. All items carry equal marks.

5. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test booklet,
you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions contained therein.

6. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination has
concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are permitted to
take away with you the Test Booklet.

7. Penalty for wrong answers:

THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE

OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.

(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a
wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.

(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of
the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to that
question.

(iii) If a question is left blank, i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for
that question.

This test is part of Rau’s IAS Test series for Preliminary Exam 2023
1. With reference to the script and the weights Select the correct answer using the code
used in the Indus Valley Civilization, given below:
consider the following statements: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. The script of this period was
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
pictographic, written in the
boustrophedon mode. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

2. The weights were used in the (d) 1, 3 and 4 only

denomination of sixteen or its multiple.
3. Bronze sticks were used to measure
4. With reference to the Mahajanapadas,
length. consider the following statements:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Rajasuya Yajna was important before
correct?
taking the seat of the king.
(a) 1 only
2. Kingship was hereditary, as well as
(b) 1 and 3 only elected.
(c) 2 and 3 only
3. The medium of exchange was copper
(d) 1, 2 and 3 and silver Rupiya.
Which of the statements given above are
2. With reference to the Vedic culture in correct?
ancient India, which of the following
(a) 1 and 2 only
functions were performed by the people?
1. Use of fire for religious purpose. (b) 2 and 3 only

2. Ritual of horse sacrifice. (c) 1 and 3 only

3. Using the symbol of Swastika for (d) 1, 2 and 3
worshiping.
Select the correct answer using the code
5. With reference to the Ashokan inscriptions,
given below:
consider the following statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only
1. These were written in Prakrit and
(b) 2 and 3 only
Aramaic languages, using the Brahmi
(c) 1 and 3 only script only.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The name of Ashoka could be read on
the inscriptions found in the North
3. Which of the following were the reasons Indian plains.
behind the rise of the new heterodox 3. The objective behind the inscription was
religions in the early ancient Indian to spread the ideas of Dharma, policies
history? of empire and royal orders.
1. Presence of extreme form of the Varna Which of the statements given above is/are
system. correct?
2. The Kshatriyas promoting the
(a) 1 and 2 only
Brahmanical way of living.
(b) 2 and 3 only
3. Spread of a new agricultural economy
in North-eastern India. (c) 3 only
4. Expansion of trade and commerce. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1040 1
6. With reference to the Gupta dynasty of Which of the statements given above is/are
ancient India, consider the following correct?
statements: (a) 1 only
1. The republics belonging to the Mauryan (b) 2 only
Empire flourished even under the (c) 1 and 3 only
Gupta rulers.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Mathura and Sarnath were the second
order capitals of the Gupta Empire.
9. Consider the following statements with
3. Kalidasa and Amarasimha were the
reference to the First Battle of Panipat:
scholars of Chandragupta I period.
1. The battle was fought between Babur
Which of the statements given above is/are
and Sikandar Lodhi in 1526 AD.
incorrect?
2. This was one of the earliest battles
(a) 2 only
involving gunpowder firearms and field
(b) 2 and 3 only artillery.
(c) 1 and 3 only 3. The battle laid the foundation of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Mughal Empire, by ending the rule of
the Delhi Sultanate.
7. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Pala kingdom: correct?
1. Gopala unified Bengal and brought (a) 1 and 3 only
Magadha under his control. (b) 2 only
2. The Pala rulers were great patrons of (c) 2 and 3 only
Jainism. (d) 1, 2 and 3
3. Dharmapala founded the Vikramasila
University.
10. With reference to the Mansabdari system
Which of the statements given above is/are under the Mughals, consider the following
correct? statements:
(a) 1 and 2 only 1. The Mansabdari system was a grading
(b) 2 only system, where the Mansabdars held
(c) 1 and 3 only dual ranks.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Under the system, separate military
contingents were organized, based on
8. Consider the following statements: individual’s ethnicity.

1. Rajendra I defeated the Pandyas and 3. The institutional framework of

the Cheras, and included their Mansabdari did not exist in civil
territories in the Chola Empire. administration.

2. Rajaraja I built a new capital, Which of the statements given above is/are
Gangaikondacholapuram, near the correct?
mouth of the Kaveri River. (a) 1 only
3. The Chola rulers marked their victories (b) 2 and 3 only
by erecting several Shiva and Vishnu (c) 1 and 3 only
temples. (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1040 2
11. Consider the following pairs: Which of the statements given above is/are
S.N. Architecture Built by correct?

1. Charminar Ibrahim Adil Shah (a) 1 only

II (b) 2 only
2. Gol Gumbaz Muhammad Quli (c) Both 1 and 2
Qutb Shah (d) Neither 1 nor 2
3. Bibi ka Aurangzeb
Maqbara 15. Consider the following events with
How many pairs given above is/are reference to the Indian Freedom Struggle:
correctly matched? 1. Meerut Conspiracy Case
(a) Only one pair 2. Issuance of the Delhi Manifesto
(b) Only two pairs 3. Issuance of the Cunningham Circular
(c) Only three pairs 4. Formation of the Independence for India
(d) None of the pairs League
Which of the following is the correct
12. The Treaty of Purandar of 1665 was signed chronological sequence of the above
between which of the following? events?
(a) Shivaji - Jai Singh (a) 1-4-2-3
(b) Aurangzeb - Sambhaji
(b) 4-1-2-3
(c) Shivaji – The British East India
(c) 1-3-2-4
Company
(d) 4-3-1-2
(d) Peshwa Baji Rao - Aurangzeb

13. With reference to the Kheda Satyagraha of 16. With reference to the provisions of the
1918, which of the following statements is Government of India Act of 1935, consider
correct? the following statements:
(a) The movement was organized by 1. It provided for fully responsible
Gandhi against the imposition of the government in the provinces, doing
Tinkathia system. away with the discretionary powers of
(b) Anasuya Sarabhai was an important the Governor.
personality related to the movement. 2. The Act introduced dyarchy at the
(c) One demand of the peasants was the Centre, with the subjects divided under
implementation of the Revenue Code by the Reserved and the Transferred Lists.
the authorities.
3. It accepted the demand for financial
(d) The Government agreed for a 25%
autonomy, by transferring the financial
remission in the taxes, that the
control from London to New Delhi.
peasants were required to pay.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
14. Consider the following statements:
1. The Kalipraj tribes were related to the (a) 1 and 3 only
Bardoli Satyagraha. (b) 3 only
2. K.M. Munshi and Indulal Yaknik (c) 2 only
resigned from the Legislative Council in (d) 2 and 3 only
support of the Bardoli Satyagraha.

RAUSIAS-1040 3
17. Consider the following Movements / Which of the statements given above is/are
Satyagraha: correct?
1. Vokkaliga Sangha’s Anti-Brahmin (a) 1 only
Movement (b) 2 only
2. Vaikom Satyagraha (c) Both 1 and 2
3. Aruvippuram Movement (d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Self-Respect Movement
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker is associated 20. Consider the following pairs:
with which of the above S.N. Association / Related
Movements/Satyagraha? Newspaper personalities
(a) 1 and 4 only 1. Bombay Mill Set up by Narain
(b) 2 and 4 only and Mill-hands Meghajee
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only Association Lokhanday
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only 2. All-India Trade Dewan Chaman
Union Lal was the first
Congress President
18. With reference to the Rajah-Munje Pact of
1932, consider the following statements: 3. Bharat Published by
1. It was an agreement reached between Sramjeevi and Sasipada
the leaders of the All-India Scheduled Deenbandhu Bannerjea
Caste Federation and the All-India Which of the pairs given above is/are
Hindu Mahasabha. correctly matched?
2. The Pact was endorsed by Dr. B.R. (a) 1 only
Ambedkar. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. The Pact was an agreement over joint (c) 2 and 3 only
electorate with the Hindus, with the (d) 1, 2 and 3
provision of reservation of seats.
Which of the statements given above are 21. Consider the following statements about
incorrect? ‘Raising and Accelerating MSME
(a) 1 and 2 only Performance’ (RAMP) scheme:
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. It is a World Bank-assisted central
(c) 1 and 3 only government program.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 2. The scheme includes the preparation of
Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs).
3. The monetary support will be routed
19. With reference to the evolution of the
into the MSME Ministry’s budget
Planning Programme in India, consider the
against ‘Disbursement Linked
following statements:
Indicators’ (DLIs).
1. The Karachi Session of the Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are
National Congress, in 1931, was
correct?
instrumental, as the First National
(a) 1 only
Planning Committee was set up.
(b) 2 only
2. Due to its focus on social and economic
(c) 1 and 3 only
goals based on socialist lines, the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
business community expressed
disapproval to the Committee.

RAUSIAS-1040 4
22. Which of the following was the feature of
the New Economic Policy of 1991, which
India adopted after the Balance of Payment
crisis?
1. India adopted full convertibility on both
the current account and the capital
account.
2. Rupee was revalued to boost the Indian
exports in the global market.
3. Industrial licensing was abolished for
almost all, but product categories -
hazardous chemicals and explosives.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) None of the above
23. With reference to the Business Enabling
Environment (BEE) Project, which of the
following statements is correct?
(a) It is a World Bank Project to launch a
new system to gauge the business
climate of various countries.
(b) It is an initiative launched by the
International Monetary Fund (IMF) to
foster economic activities in the
developing countries.
(c) It is a project launched by the G20
countries to reverse the trends of global
economic slowdown.
(d) None of the above.
24. With reference to the Ways and Means
Advances, consider the following
statements:
1. It is a temporary loan facility given by
the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to the
Central and the State governments.
2. The limits for the Ways and Means
Advances are decided by the RBI
exclusively.
RAUSIAS-1040
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
25. With reference to the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI), which of the following statements are
correct?
1. It promotes the orderly development
and maintenance of the foreign
exchange market in India.
2. It formulates and implements the
monetary policy of the country.
3. It issues, exchanges and destroys the
currency notes, as well as puts into
circulation the coins minted by the
Government of India.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
26. With reference to the Asian Infrastructure
Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the
following statements:
1. It was established in 2017 as a
multilateral developmental bank.
2. India is a founding member of the Asian
Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB),
with the second-highest voting share.
3. The AIIB was granted the Permanent
Observer status in the deliberations of
both the United Nations General
Assembly and the Economic & Social
Council.
Which of the statements given above are
correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
5
27. With reference to liquidity management,
which of the following is/are the
difference(s) between the Liquidity
Adjustment Facility (LAF) and the Marginal
Standing Facility (MSF)?
1. The LAF is extended by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) to the Scheduled
Commercial Banks and the Regional
Rural Banks, whereas the MSF is
extended only to the Scheduled
Commercial Banks.
30. With reference to the International
2. The banks cannot sell securities that
are part of the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
(SLR) quota under the LAF and the
MSF.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Italy
5. France
6. The United Kingdom
Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 6 only
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(c) 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC),
which of the following statements is/are
correct?
1. The IMFC has provided formal decision-
making powers and it has become a key
instrument for providing strategic
direction to the work and policies of the
International Monetary Fund.
2. The IMFC usually meets twice a year
and operates by consensus.
3. India is a member of the IMFC.

28. Consider the following statements with Select the correct answer using the code
reference to Decoupling: given below:
(a) 1 only
1. Decoupling refers to a disconnect
between a country's investment market (b) 2 only
performance and the state of its (c) 1 and 3 only
underlying economy. (d) 2 and 3 only
2. Decoupling takes place when different
asset classes, that typically rise and fall 31. Consider the following statements with
together, start to move in opposite reference to the Gross Value Added (GVA):
directions. 1. GVA is the sum of a country’s GDP and
Which of the statements given above is/are the net of subsidies and taxes in the
correct? economy.
(a) 1 only 2. It can provide a sector-specific measure
of growth in an area or industry of an
(b) 2 only
economy.
(c) Both 1 and 2
3. It gives a picture of the state of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 economic activity from the demand side.
Which of the statements given above is/are
29. Which of the following countries are the correct?
members of the Schengen Area? (a) 1 and 2 only
1. Croatia (b) 2 and 3 only
2. Austria (c) 3 only
3. Malta (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1040 6
32. Consider the following statements with 3. Under the National Food Security Act
reference to Green GDP: (NFSA), 2013, eligible beneficiaries are
1. Green GDP is a term used for legally entitled to receive 5 kg. of food
expressing the GDP after adjusting for grains at highly subsidized prices from
environmental damage. the TPDS.
2. Green GDP is less than the Which of the statements given above is/are
conventionally calculated GDP, if correct?
economic growth is eco-friendly. (a) 1 and 2 only
3. India’s trajectory of Green GDP has (b) 2 only
displayed a downward movement since
(c) 1 and 3 only
2012.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
(a) 1 only 35. Consider the following statements with
(b) 2 and 3 only reference to the International Development
Association (IDA):
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 1. The International Development
Association is a part of the World Bank
Group.
33. Consider the following statements with
reference to the Pradhan Mantri MUDRA 2. The IDA grants low-interest short-
Yojana: duration loans to the world's poorest
developing countries.
1. It aims to bring small micro-units and
entrepreneurs into the formal financing 3. The IDA is headquartered in Geneva,
system by extending them affordable Switzerland.
credit. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The Indian citizens, who need credit correct?
upto Rs. 5 lakhs for any non-farm (a) 1 only
sector income-generating activities, are (b) 2 and 3 only
eligible for the MUDRA loans.
(c) 1 and 3 only
3. Foreign Banks and Non-Banking
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Finance Companies are not eligible to
extend the MUDRA loans.
Which of the statements given above is/are 36. Consider the following statements with
correct? reference to the Certificate of Deposits
(a) 1 only (CDs):
(b) 2 and 3 only 1. Banks and financial institutions can
provide low-interest loans against the
(c) 1 and 3 only
CDs.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. The CDs can be issued in India for a
minimum denomination of ₹5 lakhs and
34. Consider the following statements with
in multiples of ₹5 lakhs thereafter.
reference to the Targeted Public
Distribution System (TPDS): Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. The TPDS replaced the universal Public
Distribution System to narrow its (a) 1 only
coverage to a focused group of the poor. (b) 2 only
2. The TPDS sells major food grains from (c) Both 1 and 2
the Fair Price Shops at significantly (d) Neither 1 nor 2
lower prices than the market.

RAUSIAS-1040 7
37. The World Competitiveness Index, an 40. With respect to the “Madrid Conference of
annual report, is released by which of the 1991”, consider the following statements:
following institutions/organizations? 1. The Madrid Conference of 1991 was
(a) The World Trade Organization hosted by Spain and co-sponsored by
(b) The International Finance Corporation the United Kingdom and France.
(c) The Institute for Management 2. It was an attempt by the international
Development community to revive the Israeli–
(d) The World Economic Forum Palestinian peace process through
negotiations.
38. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Committee on Content correct?
Regulation in Government Advertising (a) 1 only
(CCRGA): (b) 2 only
1. The CCRGA was set up to regulate the
(c) Both 1 and 2
content of government and private-
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
funded advertisements on all media
platforms.
2. The nine-membered body was formed 41. Which of the following statements are
by the Union Ministry of Information correct regarding the Citizenship
and Broadcasting. (Amendment) Act, 2019?
3. It can take suo-moto cognizance of any 1. The requirement for the minimum stay
violation of the Supreme Court in India has been reduced.
guidelines and recommend corrective 2. The Act is applicable to all the tribal
actions. areas of the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The areas falling under the Inner Limit
correct? are kept outside the purview of the Act.
(a) 1 and 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(b) 2 and 3 only given below:
(c) 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
39. With respect to the “Quadrilateral Security
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Dialogue' (Quad)”, consider the following
statements:
1. It is an informal strategic forum, 42. Which of the following statements
comprising four nations, namely the reflects/reflect the right to equality, as
United States of America (USA), India, provided in the Indian Constitution?
Australia and New Zealand. 1. The provision of free legal aid to the
2. The group met for the first time in weaker sections.
2018, on the side-lines of the 2. The provision of reservation under the
Association of Southeast Asian Nations Indian Constitution.
(ASEAN). Select the correct answer using the code
Which of the statements given above is/are given below:
correct? (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 8
43. Consider the following statements 2. There is no maximum period prescribed
regarding Basic Structure: for its operation.
1. The Indian Constitution, under Article 3. A Money Bill can be reserved for the
32, provides for the Doctrine of Basic consideration of the President.
Structure.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. The Supreme Court derives its authority
for judicial review from the Doctrine of given below:
Basic Structure. (a) 1 and 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) 2 and 3 only
correct? (c) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
47. Which of the following statements is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct regarding the position of the Rajya
Sabha?
44. Which of the following features
highlights/highlight the federal set-up in 1. It cannot vote on the demands for
India? grants under budget.
1. Independent judiciary 2. Its position is equal to the Lok Sabha in
2. Emergency provisions regard with the Financial Bills,
3. Unequal representation of the states in involving expenditure from the
the Rajya Sabha Consolidated Fund of India.
Select the correct answer using the code 3. The Council of Ministers is collectively
given below: responsible to both the Rajya Sabha
(a) 1 only and the Lok Sabha.
(b) 2 only Select the correct answer using the code
(c) 2 and 3 only given below:
(d) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
45. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding the financial relations (c) 1 and 3 only
between the Centre and the states? (d) 1, 2 and 3
1. The Parliament can levy surcharges on
taxes and duties. 48. Consider the following statements
2. The surcharge can be levied on the regarding the relations between the Chief
Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Minister and the Governor:
3. The proceeds of the surcharge are to be
shared between the Centre and the 1. The Chief Minister is the principal
states. channel of communication between the
Select the correct answer using the code Governor and the Council of Ministers.
given below: 2. The Chief Minister furnishes
(a) 1 and 2 only information relating to the
(b) 2 only administration of the affairs of the
(c) 1 only state.
(d) 2 and 3 only Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
46. Which of the following statements are (a) 1 only
correct regarding the Financial Emergency? (b) 2 only
1. The resolution approving its
(c) Both 1 and 2
proclamation is passed by either House
of the Parliament by a special majority. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 9
49. Consider the following statements Which of the statements given above is/ are
regarding the Legislative Council: correct?
1. The Council has equal say in the (a) 2 only
ratification of a Constitutional (b) 1 and 2 only
Amendment Bill.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. The position of the Council is similar to
(d) 1 and 3 only
that of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 52. Under Section 12 of the Legal Services
Authorities Act of 1987, which of the
(a) 1 only
following can receive legal services?
(b) 2 only
1. A woman or a child.
(c) Both 1 and 2
2. A member of a Scheduled Caste or a
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Scheduled Tribe or an Other Backward
Class.
50. Which of the following statements is/are
3. A person in receipt of annual income
correct regarding the High Courts?
less than rupees nine thousand.
1. The High Court can issue writs within
4. A mentally ill or disabled person or
its territorial jurisdiction only.
begar, as referred to in Article 23 of the
2. The writ jurisdiction of the High Court
Constitution.
is exclusive in nature.
Select the correct answer using the code
3. The High Courts have suo-moto powers
of administrative superintendence over given below:
the subordinate courts. (a) 1 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
given below: (c) 2 and 4 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only 53. With respect to the “Delimitation
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Commission”, consider the following
statements:
51. With respect to the “Comptroller and 1. Under Article 82, the Parliament is to
Auditor-General of India”, consider the enact a Delimitation Act after every
following statements: Census.
1. He shall only be removed from the office 2. The Commission’s orders are final and
in like manner and on like grounds as a cannot be questioned before any court,
Judge of the Supreme Court. as it would hold up an election
2. He shall not be eligible for further office, indefinitely.
either under the Government of India, Which of the statements given above is/ are
or under the Government of any State,
correct?
after he has ceased to hold his office.
(a) 1 only
3. The salary and other conditions of
(b) 2 only
service of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General shall be such, as may be (c) Both 1 and 2
determined by the President. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 10
54. With respect to the “Conjugal Rights”, 3. The Policy outlines the formation of an
consider the following statements: apex body at the national level, as the
1. They refer to the concept of allowing a Geospatial Data Promotion and
prisoner to spend some time in privacy Development Committee (GDPDC).
with his/her spouse within the Which of the statements given above are
precincts of a jail. correct?
2. They form part of the right to life and (a) 1 and 2 only
personal liberty guaranteed by Article (b) 2 and 3 only
21. (c) 1 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/ are (d) 1, 2 and 3
correct?
(a) 1 only
57. Which of the following comes/come under
(b) 2 only the qualifications for becoming a National
(c) Both 1 and 2 Party?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 1. A State Party in at least three states.
2. At least 6% vote share in the previous
55. With respect to “Circular Trading”, consider Assembly or General Election from at
the following statements: least four states, in addition to four Lok
1. It refers to the practice in which the Sabha MPs.
traders issue invoices without availing 3. At least 12 Lok Sabha MPs from not
any real goods or services. less than three states.
2. This practice is done to avail input tax Select the correct answer using the code
credit in the GST regime. given below:
Which of the statements given above is/ are (a) 1 only
correct? (b) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only (c) 2 only
(b) 2 only (d) 1 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 58. With respect to the “Flag Code of India,
2002”, consider the following statements:
56. With respect to the “National Geospatial 1. It allowed the National Flags made of
Policy, 2022 “, consider the following hand-spun, hand-woven wool, silk only.
statements: 2. It allowed the National Flag to be flown
1. It seeks to establish a high-resolution both during the day, as well as at night,
topographical survey and mapping, and if it is displayed in the open or on the
a high-accuracy digital elevation model house of a member of the public.
for the entire country by 2050. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. It would also support the use of the correct?
National Digital Twin, which is an (a) 1 only
ecosystem of high-resolution data used (b) 2 only
to promote connected digital twins
(c) Both 1 and 2
among the private enterprises.
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 11
59. Which of the following comes/come under 62. Which of the following statements are
the ‘constitutional discretion’ of the correct regarding the Intellectual Property
Governor? Rights (IPRs)?
1. Seeking information from the Chief 1. India has ratified the International
Minister with regard to the Accords governing the Intellectual
administrative and legislative matters of Property (IP), the Berne Convention and
the state. The Hague Agreement.
2. Dissolution of the State Legislative 2. The IPRs are outlined in the Universal
Assembly, if the Council of Ministers Declaration of Human Rights.
has lost its majority. Select the correct answer using the code
3. Recommendation for the imposition of given below:
the President’s Rule in the state. (a) 1 only
Select the correct answer using the code (b) 2 only
given below: (c) Both 1 and 2
(a) 1 only (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 63. Which of the following statements are
(d) 1 and 3 only correct regarding Bryophytes?
1. The earliest extant relative of the
60. With respect to the “Pension Fund terrestrial plants are the seedless
Regulatory and Development Authority”, plants, known as bryophytes.
consider the following statements: 2. Because of their thick growth,
bryophytes are effective soil binder
1. It aims to promote old-age income
plants that prevent soil erosion.
security and protect the interests of the
National Pension System’s subscribers. 3. Liverworts and mosses are the types of
bryophytes.
2. It is under the jurisdiction of the
Ministry of Finance. Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
64. Which of the following statements is/are
correct regarding Triclosan?
61. Consider the following statements:
1. Triclosan is used in the pharmaceutical
1. In blockchain, the miners create new
and personal care industries as an anti-
blocks on the chain.
bacterial.
2. Every block in a blockchain has its own 2. It can affect the genes and enzymes
nonce and hash. involved in neurotransmission.
Which of the statements given above is/are Select the correct answer using the code
correct? given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 12
65. Consider the following statements 68. Consider the following statements
regarding the Biorock technology: regarding the Samudrayaan Mission:
1. This method strengthens the coral reefs 1. The Samudrayaan Mission is aimed to
by building calcium carbonate develop a self-propelled manned
structures in the water, to protect submersible.
fragile corals from pollutants and global
warming. 2. The Defence Research and Development
Organization is designing and
2. It is a technique through which
developing the "MATSYA 6000" vehicle
seawater is passed via a very low
for conducting deep ocean exploration.
voltage electric current.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
66. With reference to the Recirculatory
Aquaculture System (RAS), which of the
69. Consider the following statements:
following statements is/are correct?
1. It is a technology where water is 1. Polymeric nanoparticle drug delivery
recycled and reused after mechanical methods are highly biocompatible and
and biological filtration, and removal of biodegradable.
suspended matter and metabolites. 2. Lipid nanoparticles have applications in
2. In this system, fish are typically reared the biomedical field as drug carriers
in indoor/outdoor tanks in a controlled and RNA release in cancer therapy.
environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code
correct?
given below:
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

67. Which of the following statements is/are

correct regarding Probiotic? 70. Consider the following statements:
1. Probiotic foods contain healthy, living 1. Keystone species have high functional
bacteria or yeast that are naturally redundancy.
found in the human body.
2. Yogurt and kimchi are the source of 2. Ochre Sea Star is a keystone species.
probiotic food. Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code correct?
given below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

RAUSIAS-1040 13
71. With reference to Holocene extinction, 2. It fosters collaboration between the
which of the following statements is/are National Meteorological and
correct? Hydrological Services of its members.
1. The Holocene extinction includes the Which of the statements given above is/are
disappearance of large land animals,
correct?
known as megafauna.
(a) 1 only
2. It is affecting just the terrestrial species
only. (b) 2 only
Select the correct answer using the code (c) Both 1 and 2
given below: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
75. With reference to Red Sanders (Red
(c) Both 1 and 2
Sandalwood), which of the following
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 statements is/are correct?
1. It has been listed as ‘critically
72. The Global Climate Risk Index is released
endangered’ in the International Union
by which of the following institutions?
for Conservation of Nature Nature’s
(a) The Intergovernmental Panel on Climate
(IUCN) Red List.
Change
(b) The World Economic Forum 2. In India, it is restricted to the Eastern
(c) The Sustainable Development Solutions Ghats only.
Network 3. It is listed under Appendix II of CITES.
(d) Germanwatch Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
73. Which of the following can be considered as (a) 1 only
the basic principles of the Canopy (b) 2 and 3 only
Management?
(c) 1 and 2 only
1. Maximum utilization of light.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Convenience in carrying out the
cultural practices.
3. Maximizing productivity with quality 76. With reference to Cryptogamae, which of
fruit production. the following statements are correct?
4. Economy in obtaining required canopy 1. The term Cryptogamae denotes "hidden
architecture. reproduction".
Select the correct answer using the code
2. Cryptogams represent the non-seed-
given below:
bearing plants only.
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
3. Only algae, lichens and fungi are the
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
best-known groups of cryptogams.
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only
4. India's first cryptogamic garden was
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
inaugurated in Uttarakhand.

74. Consider the following statements Select the correct answer using the code
regarding the World Meteorological given below:
Organization (WMO): (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
1. It is the UN system's authoritative voice (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
on the state and behaviour of the
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
Earth's atmosphere, its interaction with
the oceans and the climate it produces. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

RAUSIAS-1040 14
77. Consider the following pairs: 2. It is an initiative led by Sweden and the
United Kingdom to phase out oil and
S.N. Protected Area State gas production.
3. India is a signatory to this Alliance.
1. Dihing Patkai Assam
National Park Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
2. Valmiki Tiger Uttar Pradesh (a) 1 only
Reserve
(b) 3 only
3. Kuno National Madhya (c) 1 and 2 only
Park Pradesh (d) 2 and 3 only

4. Nagarhole National Karnataka

Park 80. With reference to the Clydebank
Declaration, which of the following
How many pairs given above is/are statements is incorrect?
correctly matched?
(a) It was launched at the UN Climate
(a) Only one pair Change Conference COP 26 in Glasgow.

(b) Only two pairs (b) The primary aim of the Declaration is to
put the maritime sector on track to
(c) Only three pairs
achieve net-zero by 2050.
(d) All four pairs (c) India signed the Declaration and
committed to establish six “Green
Corridors” by 2025.
78. Consider the following statements:
(d) Participation in the Declaration is
1. The Koronivia Joint Work on voluntary.
Agriculture (KJWA) recognizes the
unique potential of agriculture in
tackling climate change. 81. With reference to the Kigali Amendment,
consider the following statements:
2. Methane is the primary contributor to
the formation of ground-level ozone. 1. It is an amendment made to the
Montreal Protocol in 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. All the members of the United Nations
correct?
have ratified it.
(a) 1 only
3. The countries signatory to the
(b) 2 only Amendment will phase down production
(c) Both 1 and 2 and consumption of
hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 as HFCs.
Which of the statements given above is/are
79. With reference to the Beyond Oil and Gas correct?
Alliance (BOGA), which of the following (a) 1 only
statements is/are correct? (b) 2 only
1. It was launched at the UN Climate (c) 1 and 3 only
Change Conference (COP 26) in
(d) 2 and 3 only
Glasgow.

RAUSIAS-1040 15
82. Consider the following statements with Which of the statements given above is/are
reference to the Climate Action and Finance correct?
Mobilization Dialogue:
(a) 1 only
1. It was launched by India and the United
(b) 2 only
States at the Leaders’ Summit on
Climate, 2021. (c) Both 1 and 2
2. It will demonstrate the climate action (d) Neither 1 nor 2
with inclusive and resilient economic
development.
85. With reference to the Bonn Challenge,
3. It is one of the two tracks of the India-
US Climate and Clean Energy Agenda which of the following statements is/are
2030 partnership. correct?
Which of the statements given above are 1. It is a global effort to bring 350 million
correct? hectares of deforested and degraded
(a) 1 and 2 only land into restoration by 2030.
(b) 1 and 3 only 2. It was launched by the Government of
(c) 2 and 3 only Norway and the United Nations
(d) 1, 2 and 3 Environment Programme (UNEP).
3. The Government of India made a Bonn
83. With reference to Permafrost, consider the Challenge pledge to bring under
following statements: restoration 13 million hectares of
1. Permafrost is found in Canada, Russia degraded land by 2030.
and Alaska.
Select the correct answer using the code
2. It can be found on land and below the
given below:
ocean floor.
3. It is generally poor in minerals and (a) 1 only
organic matter. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) 2 and 3 only
correct?
(d) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only 86. With reference to ‘Project BOLD’, consider
(d) 1 and 2 only the following statements:
1. It was launched by the Khadi and
84. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Village Industries Commission (KVIC).
Climate Change brings out a 2. It seeks to create bamboo-based green
comprehensive framework for ash patches in the arid and semi-arid land
utilization. With reference to the New Rules zones.
for Fly Ash Utilization, 2021, consider the
following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
1. They include a system of environmental
compensation, based on ‘the polluter- (a) 1 only
pays principle’. (b) 2 only
2. Thermal power plants must utilize
(c) Both 1 and 2
100% of their yearly fly ash output
within a three-year cycle to avoid (d) Neither 1 nor 2
penalties.

RAUSIAS-1040 16
87. With respect to the “Sakteng Wildlife 90. Consider the following pairs:
Sanctuary”, consider the following S.N. Islands / Ocean
statements:
Archipelago
1. The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is
1. Chagos Pacific Ocean
located in Sikkim.
Archipelago
2. It is a part of the Eastern Himalayan
sub-alpine conifer forests eco-region. 2. Agalega Islands Indian Ocean
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the pairs given above is/are
correct? correctly matched?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. With respect to the ‘Taiwan Strait’, consider

91. Consider the following statements:
the following statements:
1. The trees of the Amazon rainforest
1. It is a part of the South China Sea and
pump vast quantities of water vapor
connects to the East China Sea to the
north. into the atmosphere every day via
transpiration.
2. The chief ports are Kao-hsiung in
mainland China and Amoy on Taiwan. 2. Pantanal is a desert area of Brazil.

Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only (a) 1 only
(b) 2 only (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2

89. With respect to the “National Clean Air 92. Consider the following statements with
Programme (NCAP)”, consider the following reference to Tectonic plates:
statements: 1. Subduction zone occur along the
1. It aims to achieve 40% to 50% reduction divergent plate boundaries.
in Particulate Matter concentrations by
2. Nazca plate is situated between South
2030, keeping 2020 as the base-year for
America and Pacific Plate.
the comparison of concentration.
3. The Arctic ridge has the slowest rate of
2. The air quality of the cities is monitored
plate movement.
by the State Pollution Control Boards.
Which of the statements given above are
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 (c) 1 and 2 only

(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (d) 1, 2 and 3

RAUSIAS-1040 17
93. With reference to properties of Earth quake 4. When the cold air mass moves towards
waves, consider the following statements: the warm air mass, its contact zone is
called the warm front.
1. The direction of Earth quake waves vary
according to the variations in the Select the correct answer using the code
density of materials. given below:
2. Rayleigh waves are destructive waves, (a) 1 and 2 only
giving rise to an elliptical motion in the
(b) 2 and 4 only
vertical plane.
(c) 1 and 4 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? (d) 2 and 3 only

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only 96. Consider the following pairs:

(c) Both 1 and 2 S.N. Passes Location

(d) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Bolan pass Ladakh

94. With reference to features of Karst 2. Shipki La Himachal Pradesh

topography, consider the following
statements: 3. Nathu La Sikkim

1. All the sinkholes are formed due to 4. Bomdi La Arunachal Pradesh

solution action only.
How many pairs given above is/are
2. Result of the work of groundwater can
correctly matched?
be seen in some types of rocks only.
(a) Only one pair
3. Lapies, doline and uvalas are
depositional landforms produced by the (b) Only two pairs
action of groundwater.
(c) Only three pairs
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) All the four pairs
incorrect?
(a) 1 only
97. Consider the following statements:
(b) 2 and 3 only
1. Western Ghats are known as Sahyadri
(c) 1 and 2 only
in Karnataka and Tamil Nadu.
(d) 1 and 3 only
2. Anaimudi is the highest peak of Eastern
Ghats.
95. Consider the following statements: 3. Eastern Ghats and Western Ghats meet
each other at Nilgiri hills.
1. The process involved in the creation of a
new front is called frontogenesis. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
2. An important condition for formation of
a front is the presence of two opposing (a) 1 only
air masses.
(b) 3 only
3. Warm fronts are associated with
(c) 1 and 3 only
cumulonimbus clouds and heavy
precipitation. (d) 2 and 3 only

RAUSIAS-1040 18
98. With reference to Pindar River, consider the Select the correct answer using the code
following statements: given below:
1. It originates from the Kumaon region in (a) 1 only
Himachal Pradesh. (b) 2 only
2. It meets Alaknanda River at (c) 1 and 3 only
Karnaprayag. (d) 2 and 3 only
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
100. Consider the following statements with
(a) 1 only reference to Black Soil in India:
(b) 2 only 1. It is found in Maharashtra, Madhya
(c) Both 1 and 2 Pradesh, Gujarat, and some parts of
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 Tamil Nadu.
2. It is generally clayey, deep, and
99. With reference to the monsoon winds of the impermeable.
Arabian Sea of the south-west monsoon, 3. It is rich in lime, calcium, phosphorous
which of the following statements is/are and nitrogen.
correct? Which of the statements given above is/are
1. These winds cause extensive rainfall in correct?
the east of the Western Ghats. (a) 1 only
2. Chotanagpur plateau receives rainfall (b) 3 only
from these winds. (c) 1 and 2 only
3. Tamil Nadu coast lies in the rain (d) 2 and 3 only
shadow area of the Arabian Sea branch
of monsoon of the south-west monsoon.

RAUSIAS-1040 19
Answers &
Explanations
of

TEST ID: 1040

GENERAL STUDIES (PAPER–I)

Full Length Test (FLT)–2

 ANSWERS & EXPLANATIONS OF
Full Length Test (FLT)–2
GS Paper-I: (1040)
1. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Harappans invented the art of writing,
like the people of the ancient Mesopotamia.
As the script has not been deciphered, we
can neither judge the Harappan
contribution to literature, nor say anything
about their ideas and beliefs. The
Harappan script is not alphabetical, but
largely pictographic, written in the
boustrophedon mode (at each successive
line, the direction of writing in changed).
Numerous articles used as weights have
been found. They show that in weighing,
largely 16 or its multiples were used, for
instance, 16, 64, 160, 320 and 640.
The Harappans also knew the art of
measurement. Sticks inscribed with
measure marks have been found, and one
of these is made of bronze.
2. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The fire cult is considered to be a special
trait of both the Indo-Aryans and the Indo-
Iranians. We may note that some
structures, not exactly similar to the Vedic
fire altars, but indicative of fire worship,
dating to 4000–3500 BC, have been found
in Ukraine. The Aryans are believed to have
come from Central Asia.
Animal sacrifice may have prevailed among
many tribal people, but the horse sacrifice
was typical of the Indo-Europeans,
particularly of the Aryan people. In Ukraine
and South Russia, many cemeteries testify
to the sacrifice of more than one horse.
Though, two hymns are devoted to the
horse sacrifice in the tenth book of the Rig
Veda, the later Vedic texts transform the
sacrifice into Asvamedha.
RAUSIAS-1040
Sometimes, the Swastika, an ancient
symbol formed by a cross with equal arms,
is conceived of as a mark of Aryanism.
According to John Henry Mackay (British
archaeologist), the Swastika symbol
originated in Elam much earlier than 2000
BC, when it figured in the Harappan
culture. In South Tajikistan, it figured
around 1200 BC. It appears that by this
time, it had been adopted by the Aryans,
and in the early centuries of the Christian
era, it came to be regarded a symbol of the
Brahmanical culture. But, evidence on
worshipping purpose of this symbol came
in the later Vedic age.
3. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Causes for the rise of heterodox
religions, such as Buddhism and
Jainism: The post-Vedic society was
clearly divided into four Varnas:
Brahmanas, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas and
Shudras. Two higher Varnas captured
power, prestige and privileges at the cost of
the lower Varnas. The higher the Varna,
the more privileged a person was, the lower
the Varna of an offender, the more severe
was the punishment prescribed for him.
New religions came as a counter force to
the Varna system.
The Kshatriya reaction against the
domination of the Brahmanas, who
claimed various privileges, was one of
the causes of the origin of the new
religions. Vardhamana Mahavira, who
really founded Jainism, and Gautama
Buddha, who founded Buddhism,
belonged to the Kshatriya clan, and both
disputed the authority of the
Brahmanas.
1
 Another cause for the rise of these new
religions lay in the spread of a new
agricultural economy in North-eastern
India. The agricultural economy, based on
the iron ploughshare, required the use of
bullocks, and could not flourish without
animal husbandry. However, the Vedic
practice of killing cattle indiscriminately in
sacrifices hampered the progress of the
new agriculture. So, if the new agrarian
economy was to stabilize, this killing had to
be halted.
Around 500 BC, we see the rise of a large
number of cities in North-eastern India.
The use of coins naturally facilitated trade
and commerce, which added to the
importance of the Vaishyas. In the
Brahmanical society, the Vaishyas, as we
have noted, ranked third, after the
Brahmanas and the Kshatriyas. Naturally,
they sought a religion that would improve
their position.
4. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Political conditions during the
Mahajanapadas: The person who ascended
the throne after holding Rajasuya Yajna
was called the ‘king’. He might assume the
title of Emperor by performing the
Rajasuya Yajna again.
The king had to consult the Brahmana, the
Council of Ministers (Mantri-Parishad) and
the Rajsabha before taking important
decisions. He would always be obedience to
the Brahmanas.
Kingship was hereditary, as well as elected
(through the republican framework).
The Samitis enjoyed absolute powers. There
are instances where a despotic ruler had to
abdicate according to the wishes of the
Assembly.
Currency during the Mahajanapadas:
The medium of exchange was copper and
silver Karshapana. The silver Karshapana
was also known as Dharan. A silver
Karshapana was one-tenth in value of the
Vedic Niska.
The term Rupiya is of medieval origin.
RAUSIAS-1040
5. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The history of Ashoka is reconstructed on
the basis of his inscriptions, thirty-nine, in
number, that are classified into Major Rock
Edicts; Minor Rock Edicts; Separate Rock
Edicts; Major Pillar Edicts; and Minor Pillar
Edicts. The name Ashoka occurs in the
copies of Minor Rock Edict I, found at
three places in Karnataka and at one
place in Madhya Pradesh (Not the North
Indian plains).
Composed in Prakrit, they were written
in the Brahmi script in greater part of
the sub-continent. However, in the
North-western part of the sub-continent,
they appeared in Aramaic language and
Kharoshthi script, and in Afghanistan,
they were written in both Aramaic and
Greek scripts and languages.
Ashok was the first Indian king to speak
directly to the people through his
inscriptions, which carry royal orders. The
inscriptions throw light on Ashoka’s career,
his external and domestic polices, and the
extent of his empire.
6. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Gupta kingdom was enlarged
enormously by Chandragupta’s son and
successor Samudragupta (AD 335–80). He
was the opposite of Ashoka.
Ashoka believed in a policy of peace and
non-aggression, but Samudragupta
delighted in violence and conquest.
The republics (e.g., Shakya), which
flickered on the ruins of the Maurya
empire, were finally crushed by
Samudragupta.
Chandragupta II (Vikramaditya) occupied
Western Malwa and
Gujarat, which had for about four
centuries been under the rule of the Shaka
Kshatrapas. The conquest gave
Chandragupta control over the Western sea
coast, famous for trade and commerce.
2
 This contributed to the prosperity of Malwa
and its chief city Ujjain. Ujjain seems to
have been made the second capital by
Chandragupta II.
The court of Chandragupta II at Ujjain
was adorned by numerous scholars,
including Kalidasa and Amarasimha.
7. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The Pala Empire was founded by
Gopala, probably in 750 AD. He unified
Bengal and even brought Magadha
(Bihar) under his control. Gopala was
succeeded in 770 by his son
Dharmapala (770-810 AD).
 The Pala rulers were great patrons of
Buddhist learning and religion.
Dharmapala revived the Nalanda
University and also founded the
Vikramasila University.
 The Pala rulers built many Viharas, in
which a large number of Buddhist
monks lived. The Pala rulers also had
close cultural relations with Tibet. The
noted Buddhist scholars, Santarakshita
and Dipankara (called Atisa), were
invited to Tibet, and they introduced a
new form of Buddhism there. Although
the Palas were the supporters of
Buddhism, they also extended their
patronage to Shaivism and
Vaishnavism.
8. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The greatest Chola rulers were Rajaraja
(985–1014) and his son Rajendra I
(1014–1044 AD).
 Rajaraja destroyed the Chera navy at
Trivandrum and attacked Quilon. He
then conquered Madurai and captured
the Pandyan king. He invaded Sri
Lanka and annexed its northern part to
his empire. These moves were partly
motivated to bring trade with the south-
east Asian countries under his control.
RAUSIAS-1040
He annexed the north-western parts of
the Ganga kingdom in Karnataka and
overran Vengi.
 Rajendra I carried forward the
annexationist policy of Rajaraja by
completely overrunning the Pandya and
the Chera countries, and including
them in his empire and conquested Sri
Lanka.
 Rajaraja and Rajendra I marked their
victories by erecting several Shiva and
Vishnu temples, e.g., the Brihadishwara
temple at Tanjore.
 Rajendra I marched across Kalinga to
Bengal, where the Chola armies crossed
the Ganga River and defeated two local
kings. To commemorate this
occasion, Rajendra I assumed the
title of Gangaikondachola (The Chola
who conquered the Ganga). He built a
new capital near the mouth of the
Kaveri River and called it
Gangaikondacholapuram.
9. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The First Battle of Panipat, in 1526
AD, was fought between Babur and
Ibrahim Lodhi.
 This was one of the earliest battles
involving gunpowder firearms and field
artillery.
 The battle broke the back of the Lodhi
power, laid the foundation of the
Mughal Empire, by ending the rule of
the Delhi Sultanate and brought the
entire area, upto Delhi and Agra, under
Babur’s control. Ibrahim Lodhi died on
the battle field.
 The new war tactics introduced by
Babur were Tulughma and Araba,
which made Babur’s artillery lethal.
o Tulughma meant dividing the whole
army into various units, viz., the
left, the right and the centre. The
left and the right divisions were
further sub-divided. Through this, a
3
 small army could be used to
surround the enemy from all sides.
o The centre forward division was
provided with carts (Araba), which
were placed in the rows facing the
enemy and tied to each other with
animal hide ropes. Behind them
were placed cannons, protected and
supported by Mantelets, which could
be used to easily manoeuvre the
cannons.
10. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Mansabdari system was a grading
system used by the Mughals to fix rank,
salary and military responsibilities. The
Mansabdar refers to an individual
who holds a Mansab, meaning a
position or rank. The Mansabdars
held dual ranks - Zat and Sawar, the
former indicated the status of the
officer in the administrative
hierarchy and the latter denoted the
contingent they were expected to
maintain.
 The Mughals favoured mixed
contingent, with men drawn from
Irani (Iran) and Turani Mughals
(Turkish), Indian Muslims, Afghans,
Rajputs, Marathas etc.
 Rank and salary were determined by a
numerical value, called Zat. The higher
the Zat, the more prestigious was the
noble’s position in the court and the
larger his salary.
 The institutional framework of
Mansabdari existed in both military
organization and civil
administration.
 The Mansabdar brought his cavalrymen
for review, got them registered, their
horses branded (Dagh) and then
received money to pay them as salary.
The Mansabdars received their salaries
as revenue assignments, called Jagirs,
which were somewhat like the Iqtas.
RAUSIAS-1040
11. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 Charminar is a monument and mosque
located in Hyderabad. It was completed
in 1591–92 and built by Muhammad
Quli Qutb Shah. Its chief beauty is the
four minarets, which are four-storeyed
and 48 metres high.
 Gol Gumbaz is the largest dome in
India, built in 1656 AD, by
Mohammed Adil Shah, who was the
Sultan of Bijapur and the ruler of the
Adil Shahi dynasty.
 Bibi ka Maqbara is a mausoleum,
located in Aurangabad (Maharashtra).
It was built in the 17th century by
Aurangzeb, as a tribute to his wife,
Rabia-ud-Daurani. It is often referred to
as the "Taj Mahal of the Deccan”.
12. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
 The Treaty of Purandar was signed in
1665, between Jai Singh I, the
commander of the Mughal Empire,
and Shivaji.
 After hard bargaining, the following
terms were agreed upon:
(i) Out of the 35 forts held by Shivaji,
23 forts, with the surrounding
territories, which yielded a revenue
of four lakhs of Huns every year,
were to be surrendered to the
Mughals, while the remaining 12
forts, with an annual income of one
lakh of Huns, were to be left to
Shivaji, ‘on the condition of service
and loyalty to the throne’.
(ii) Territory worth four lakhs of Huns a
year in the Bijapuri Konkan, which
Shivaji had already held, was
granted to him. In addition, Bijapur
territory worth five lakhs of Huns a
year in the uplands (Balaghat),
which Shivaji was to conquer, was
also granted to him. In return for
these, he was to pay 40 lakhs Huns,
in instalments, to the Mughals.
4
  Shivaji asked to be excused from
personal service. Hence, a Mansab of
5,000 was granted in his place to his
minor son, Sambhaji. Shivaji promised,
however, to join personally in any
Mughal campaign in the Deccan.
13. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In 1918, in the Kheda district of Gujarat, a
variety of factors, such as destruction of
crops by late rains, sudden rise in
agricultural wages, high rate of inflation
and the outbreak of the bubonic plague,
contributed to unusual hardship for the
peasants. The Gujarat Sabha, consisting of
the peasants, submitted petitions to the
highest governing authorities for the
implementation of the Revenue Code,
according to which, if the yield was 1/4th
the normal produce, the farmers were
entitled to remission.
Gandhi asked the farmers not to pay taxes.
Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and a group of
devoted Gandhians, namely Narahari
Parikh, Mohanlal Pandya and Ravi
Shankar Vyas, were the other important
personalities of the movement. At the end,
the Government agreed to suspend the
tax for the year and return the
confiscated properties.
It was in Champaran Movement that the
peasants were organized against the
Tinkathia system, in which the
European planters forced the peasants
to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total
land.
Anasuya Sarabhai, an important figure
of the Ahmedabad Mill strike, went to
Gandhi for intervention and presented
the workers’ cause to him. She also
formed the Ahmedabad Textile Labour
Association in 1920.
14. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Bombay Government raised the land
revenue by 30%, which sparked off the
protests in January, 1926, in Bardoli
RAUSIAS-1040
Taluka in Gujarat. The Congress leaders
considered the revenue hike to be
unjustified.
Vallabhbhai Patel was the real leader and
he officially launched the movement in
February, 1928. He was given the title
‘Sardar’ during this movement. K.M.
Munshi and Lalji Naranji resigned from
the Bombay Legislative Council in
support of the movement.
The Mehta brothers, Kunvarji and Kalyanji
Mehta, during their constructive
programme, also mobilized the Kalipraj
tribes through skilful use of tribal religious
symbols, who later actively participated in
the Bardoli Satyagraha.
In the end, a Committee recommended that
the revenue rise should not be more than
6.03%
15. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The younger section of the Congress
considered the idea of the Dominion
Status, mentioned in the Nehru Report, as
a step backward. Jawahar Lal Nehru and
Subhash Chandra Bose rejected the
Congress’ goal and set up the
Independence for India League in April,
1928. It forth the demand for complete
independence.
Important developments, like the Meerut
Conspiracy Case, kept the political
temperature high during 1929. In March,
1929, the Government arrested 31 labour
leaders, and the three-and-a-half-year trial
resulted in the conviction of Muzaffar
Ahmed, S.A. Dange, Philip Spratt, Shaukat
Usmani and others. The trial got worldwide
publicity.
In November, 1929, a conference of
prominent national leaders issued a ‘Delhi
Manifesto’, which put forward certain
conditions for attending the Round Table
Conference, which included the demand for
the formulation of Constitution for the
implementation of the Dominion Status
and its basic principle should be accepted
immediately.
5
 When the whole country was preparing for
the start of the Civil Disobedience
Movement in 1930, the students in Assam
also played a key role. To discourage and
stop the students to participate in the Civil
Disobedience Movement, J.R.
Cunningham, the then powerful Director of
Public Information of Assam, issued the
Cunningham Circular in 1930, imposing a
blanket ban on any anti-British and pro-
Swadeshi activity by the students.
16. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The recommendations of Third Round
Table Conference were published in a
White Paper in 1930. The
recommendations were debated and finally
enacted as the Government of India Act of
1935.
Some of the important provisions of the
Act were:
 In the provinces, in place of diarchy, the
Act of 1935 provided for responsible
government in all the departments.
But, this was balanced-off by wide
discretionary powers given to the
Governors about summoning the
legislatures, giving assent to the Bills
and administering tribal regions. The
Governors were also given special
power to safeguard minority rights,
privileges of the civil servants and
British business interests. And
finally, they could take over and run
the administration of a province
indefinitely under a special
provision.
 At the Centre, the Act provided for a
federal structure, but it would come
into effect only if more than 50% of the
Princely States formally acceded to it by
signing the Instruments of Accession,
which would override their previous
treaties with the British Crown.
 The Act introduced dyarchy at the
centre, with the subjects divided into
the Reserved List and the Transferred
RAUSIAS-1040
List, but subject to various safeguards,
and departments like foreign affairs,
defence and internal security remained
completely under the control of the
Viceroy.
 Another feature of this Act was the
transfer of financial control from
London to New Delhi, in response to a
long-standing demand of the
Government of India for fiscal
autonomy.
 The electorate was enlarged to 30
million, but the high property
qualifications only enfranchised 10% of
the Indian population.
17. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker was born in
1879 in Erode district of Tamil Nadu. He
resigned from the Congress Party in 1925
and associated himself with the Justice
Party, which opposed the dominance of the
Brahmins in social life, especially the
bureaucracy.
Vaikom Satyagraha: In Tamil Nadu, it is
related with Periyar E.V. Ramasamy.
(Vaikom is a metaphor for social justice —
when scores of Satyagrahis from the Tamil
country joined hands with their brethren in
a heroic struggle). Periyar presided over the
Satyagraha in the face of untold violence
and indignity inflicted by the orthodox, and
the repression of the police. To mobilize
support, he visited villages in and around
Vaikom and delivered public speeches in
several towns. His campaign tour stretched
to Thiruvananthapuram and even further
to Nagercoil.
Self-Respect Movement: This Movement
was started by E.V. Ramaswamy Naicker in
the mid-1920s. It aimed at the rejection of
the Brahminical religion and culture, which
he considered was the prime instrument of
exploitation of the lower castes. He sought
to undermine the position of the Brahmin
priests, by formalizing weddings without
the Brahmin priests.
6
 Vokkaliga Sangha: The Sangha in Mysore 19. Answer: (d)
launched an anti-Brahmin Movement in Explanation:
1905. The Vokkaligas formed the Two resolutions were adopted at the
Kokkaligara Sangha in 1906. Karachi Session of the Indian National
Aruvippuram Movement: The Movement Congress, which was held in 1931. One on
was started by Sree Narayana Guru the Fundamental Rights and the other on
the National Economic Programme.
Swamy, among the Ezhavas of Kerala, in
1888. Sri Narayana Guru defied the At the Congress meeting in Haripura
(Gujarat), in 1938, Bose was elected the
religious restrictions traditionally placed on
President of the Session. He talked of
the Ezhava community, and consecrated
economic development of the country
an idol of Shiva at Aravipuram.
through planning and was instrumental in
The Aravipuram Pratistha was a historic setting up a National Planning Committee
event, because a member of a lower caste, under the Chairmanship of Jawahar Lal
forbidden from entering the temple, had Nehru.
himself consecrated the Shiva image in a It included prominent business leaders,
temple. like Purushottamdas Thakurdas, A.D.
Shroff, Ambalal Sarabhai and Walchand
18. Answer: (a) Hirachand. Interestingly, two of them—
Thakurdas and Hirachand—were the
Explanation:
signatories to the ‘Bombay Manifesto’ of
The Rajah-Munje Pact of 1932: There was 1936, that had expressed serious
no consensus even among the Dalits over disapprobation of Nehru’s socialist ideals.
the questions of separate electorates. The
M.C. Rajah group was staunchly in favour 20. Answer: (a)
of joint electorate and the Working Explanation:
Committee of the All-India Depressed
The gradual industrialization of India did
Classes Association, in February, 1932, not only bring the Indian capitalists into
deplored Ambedkar’s demand for separate the foreground of public life, it also created
electorate and unanimously supported an industrial working class. The Indian
joint electorate with the Hindus, with a working class had to face two basic
provision of reservation of the seats on the antagonistic forces - an imperialist political
basis of population. An agreement, known rule and economic exploitation at the
as the ‘Rajah-Munje Pact’, was also hands of both foreign and native capitalist
reached to this effect, between Rajah classes.
and Dr. B.S. Munje, the President of the The earlier efforts for the cause of the
All-India Hindu Mahasabha. working class were isolated, sporadic and
aimed at specific local grievances. In 1870,
B.R Ambedkar did not endorse the Pact,
Sasipada Bannerjea started a Working
as he was a staunch protagonist of a
Men’s Club and a newspaper, Bharat
separate electorate. Dr. B.R Sramjeevi. In 1880, Narain Meghajee
Ambedkar actively supported the rights of Lokhanday started the newspaper,
the Dalits. He established the All-India Deenbandhu, and set up the Bombay
Scheduled Castes Federation in 1942, to Mill and Mill-hands Association.
put forth the issues of the Dalits in an International events, like the establishment
effective manner. of a Socialist Republic in the Soviet Union,
and setting up of the International Labour

RAUSIAS-1040 7
 Organization (ILO), lent a new dimension to
the movement of the working class in India.
The All-India Trade Union Congress
(AITUC) was founded in 1920. The Indian
National Congress President for the
year, Lala Lajpat Rai, was elected the
first President of the AITUC and Dewan
Chaman Lal as the first General
Secretary.
21. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Prime Minister launched the five-year
‘Raising and Accelerating MSME
Performance’ (RAMP) scheme to strengthen
India’s Micro Small and Medium
Enterprises (MSME) sector.
The scheme includes the preparation of
Strategic Investment Plans (SIPs), in which
all states and union territories will be
invited. Monitoring and policy review of the
scheme would be undertaken by an apex
National MSME Council headed by the
Minister for MSME.
The monetary support will be routed into
the MSME Ministry’s budget against
‘Disbursement Linked Indicators’ (DLIs) to
support the ministry’s ongoing MSME
programmes. The DLIs would include
implementing the National MSME Reform
Agenda, accelerating MSME sector centre-
state collaboration, strengthening the
receivable financing market for MSMEs,
enhancing the effectiveness of the Credit
Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small
Enterprises (CGTMSE) scheme, and
reducing the incidence of delayed
payments.
It will address the generic and Covid-
related problems in the MSME sector and
foster generation of employment. It also
aims to complement the Aatmanirbhar
Bharat Abhiyan by fostering innovation.
22. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
India has not adopted full convertibility on
the capital account.
RAUSIAS-1040
Components of the New Economic Policy
1991:
 Rupee was devalued against dollar,
which led to the rise in exports and
foreign inflows started to pick up.
 Industrial licensing was abolished for
almost all, but product categories -
hazardous chemicals, drugs, alcohol,
cigarettes, electronics, aerospace and
explosives.
 The immediate measure to resolve the
Balance of Payment crisis, rupee was
devalued against foreign currencies.
This led to an increase in the inflow of
foreign exchange.
23. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Just over a year after discontinuing the
controversial ‘Ease of Doing Business’
series, the World Bank is planning to
launch a new system to gauge the
business climate of various countries.
The first report of the new “Business
Enabling Environment” (BEE) Project will
be released in 2024. The new BEE report,
however, will have limited coverage of only
40-50 countries in its first edition, a
Washington-based spokesperson of the
World Bank has said. “The second report
will add a similar number of countries, as
will the third report, reaching 120-150
countries going forward”.
24. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) gives
temporary loan facilities to the Central and
the State governments. This loan facility is
called the Ways and Means Advances
(WMA).
The Ways and Means Advances scheme
was introduced in 1997. The Ways and
Means Advances scheme was introduced to
meet mismatches in the receipts and
payments of the government. The
government can avail of immediate cash
8
 from the RBI, if required. But, it has to
return the amount within 90 days. Interest
is charged at the existing repo rate.
The limits for the Ways and Means
Advances are decided by the government
and the RBI mutually, and revised
periodically.
25. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Functions of the Reserve Bank of India
(RBI)
Monetary Authority:
 Formulates, implements and monitors
the monetary policy.
 Objective: Maintaining price stability,
while keeping in mind the objective of
growth.
Manager of Foreign Exchange:
 Manages the Foreign Exchange
Management Act, 1999.
 Objective: To facilitate external trade
and payment, and promote orderly
development and maintenance of the
foreign exchange market in India.
Issuer of Currency:
 Issues, exchanges and destroys the
currency notes, as well as puts into
circulation the coins minted by the
Government of India.
 Objective: To give the public adequate
quantity of supplies of the currency
notes and the coins, and in good
quality.
26. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Asian Infrastructure Investment
Bank (AIIB) began operations in 2016,
with 57 founding members (37 regional
and 20 non-regional). By the end of 2020,
we had 103 approved members,
representing approximately 79% of the
global population and 65% of the global
GDP.
India is a founding member of the AIIB,
RAUSIAS-1040
with the second-highest voting share. India
holds 7.74% equity in the multilateral
bank, next only to China (29.9%).
In 2018, the AIIB was granted the
Permanent Observer status in the
deliberations of both the United Nations
General Assembly and the Economic &
Social Council, the two development-
focused principal organs of the global body.
27. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF)
is a facility extended by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) to the Scheduled
Commercial Banks [excluding the
Regional Rural Banks (RRBs)] and the
Primary Dealers, to avail of liquidity in
case of requirement or park excess funds
with the RBI in case of excess liquidity on
an overnight basis against the collateral of
G-Secs, including the SDLs (The State
Development Loans). Basically, the LAF
enables liquidity management on a day-to-
day basis. The operations of the LAF are
conducted by way of repurchase
agreements, i.e., repos and reverse repos.
The banks cannot sell government
securities to the RBI that are part of the
SLR (Statutory Liquidity Ratio) quota to
avail the LAF. Whereas, in the MSF
(Marginal Standing Facility), only the
Scheduled Commercial Banks can
borrow money from the RBI, and the
securities from the SLR quota can be
used to borrow money.
28. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
In financial markets, decoupling occurs
when the returns of one asset class diverge
from their expected or normal pattern of
correlation with others. Decoupling, thus,
takes place when different asset classes
that typically rise and fall together, start to
move in opposite directions, such as one
increasing and the other decreasing.
9
 Decoupling is when the returns of an asset
class that have been correlated with other
assets in the past, no longer move in-step
according to the expectations. Decoupling
may also refer to a disconnect between a
country's investment market performance
and the state of its underlying economy.
term limits, since 2007, the IMFC Chairs
have been appointed for a term of three
years. A number of international
institutions, including the World Bank,
participate as observers in the IMFC’s
meetings. India is currently a member of
the IMFC.

29. Answer: (d) 31. Answer: (a)

Explanation: Explanation:
The Schengen Area is an area comprising  Gross Value Added (GVA) is a measure
27 European countries that have officially of total output and income in the
abolished all passport and all other types of economy. It provides the rupee value for
border control at their mutual borders. the amount of goods and services
Being an element within the wider area of produced in an economy, after
freedom, security and justice policy of the deducting the cost of inputs and raw
European Union (EU), it mostly functions materials, that have gone into the
as a single jurisdiction under a common production of those goods and services.
visa policy for international travel  At the macro level, from the national
purposes. accounting perspective, it is the sum of
Austria, Belgium, the Czech Republic, a country’s GDP and net of subsidies
Croatia, Denmark, Estonia, Finland, and taxes in the economy. When
France, Germany, Greece, Hungary, measured from the production side, it is
Iceland, Italy, Latvia, Lithuania, a balancing item of the national
Luxembourg, Malta, the Netherlands, accounts.
Norway, Poland, Portugal, Slovakia,  It also gives sector-specific picture, like
Slovenia, Spain, Sweden, Switzerland and what is the growth in an area, industry
Liechtenstein are its members. or sector of an economy. A sector-wise
breakdown provided by the GVA
30. Answer: (d) measure helps the policy-makers
Explanation: formulate sector-specific policies.
The International Monetary and Financial  GVA gives a picture of the state of
Committee (IMFC) advises and reports to economic activity from the
the IMF Board of Governors on the producers’ side or supply side, while
supervision and management of the the GDP gives the picture from the
international monetary and financial consumers’ side or demand
system, including on responses to perspective.
unfolding events that may disrupt the
system. Although the IMFC has no 32. Answer: (a)
formal decision-making powers, in Explanation:
practice, it has become a key
Green GDP:
instrument for providing strategic
 Green GDP is a term used generally for
direction to the work and policies of the
expressing the GDP after adjusting for
Fund. The IMFC usually meets twice a
environmental damage. It takes into
year, at the Bank-Fund Annual and Spring
account estimates for environmental
Meetings. The IMFC operates by
degradation, depletion of natural
consensus, including on the selection of its
resources, and savings of resources and
Chair. While there are no formal rules on

RAUSIAS-1040 10
 environment into the national income
accounts.
 If economic growth is not eco-
friendly, Green GDP is less than the
conventionally calculated GDP.
 In India, Green GDP formula starts with
the annual GDP at 2015 prices, from
which it subtracts various damage
costs to the environment each year,
while adding the expenditure by the
government on environmental
protection. But, since data is not
available for all years, there are three
different estimates: G1, G2 and G3.
o G1 = GDP - (Carbon dioxide
damage) - (Opportunity cost of
energy depletion + mineral depletion
+ net forest depletion); Data
availability: 1971-2019.
o G2 = G1 - Particulate emission
damage; Data availability: 1990-
2019.
o G3 = G2 + Expenditure on
environmental protection; Data
availability: 2006-2019.
 Green GDP (G3) of India in 2019
stood at ₹165.9 trillion, while the
conventional GDP at 2015 constant
prices was ₹175.8 trillion. India’s
trajectory of Green GDP has
displayed an upward movement with
visible improvements, particularly
since 2012, suggesting that India has
been able to cut down on
environmental losses.
33. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana:
 The MUDRA (Micro Units Development
and Refinance Agency) scheme was
launched in 2015.
 Aim: To bring the unfunded
enterprises, i.e., the small micro-units
and entrepreneurs into formal financing
system and extend affordable credit to
them.
RAUSIAS-1040
 The scheme enables the small
borrowers to borrow from:
o Public Sector Banks
o Regional Rural Banks
o Co-operative Banks
o Private Sector Banks
o Foreign Banks
o Micro-Finance Institutions
o Non-Banking Finance Companies
Eligibility:
 Any Indian citizen, who plans to
undertake any non-farm sector
income-generating activity and needs
credit up to Rs. 10 lakhs.
 The non-farm sector income-
generating activities include:
o Manufacturing
o Processing
o Trading
o Service sector
o Allied agricultural activities, like
bee-keeping, poultry etc.
Types of loans issued:
 Shishu: Loans up to Rs. 50,000.
 Kishor: Loans above Rs. 50,000 and
upto Rs. 5 lakhs.
 Tarun: Loans above Rs. 5 lakhs and
upto Rs. 10 lakhs.
34. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Targeted Public Distribution System
(TPDS):
 The Targeted Public Distribution
System (TPDS) was launched in 1997. It
replaced the almost universal PDS
(Public Distribution System) to narrow
its coverage to a focused group of the
poor.
 The TPDS sells major food grains,
mainly rice and wheat, from the Fair
Price Shops at significantly lower prices
than the market.
 Essential features of the TPDS:
o The Government of India is
committed to making available food
grains to the states to meet the
11
 requirement of food grains at the International Bank for Reconstruction
scale of 10 kg. per month per family and Development (IBRD).
at specially subsidized prices for the  Headquarters: Washington, the
population falling below the officially United States.
estimated poverty line (The BPL
families).
36. Answer: (b)
o The states would also receive the
Explanation:
quantity needed for transitory
Certificate of Deposits:
allocation to the Above Poverty Line
 The Certificate of Deposits (CDs) is a
(APL) population.
product that is offered by the banks
o The state governments were to
and credit unions that give an interest
streamline the PDS by issuing
rate premium in exchange for the
special cards to the BPL families
customer agreeing to lock-in an amount
and selling essential articles under
for a pre-determined period.
the TPDS to them at specially
 The CDs provide a clear and predictable
subsidized prices, with better
return to the deposit over some time,
monitoring of the delivery system.
making it a guaranteed return.
 Under the National Food Security Act
 The CDs may be issued by:
(NFSA), 2013, eligible beneficiaries are
legally entitled to receive 5 kg. of food o Scheduled Commercial Banks
grains at highly subsidized prices from o Regional Rural Banks
the TPDS. o Small Finance Banks
 The CDs can be issued in India for a
35. Answer: (a) minimum denomination of ₹5 lakhs and
in multiples of ₹5 lakhs thereafter.
Explanation:
Banks and financial institutions
The International Development
cannot provide loans against the
Association (IDA):
CDs, unless specifically permitted by
 The International Development the Reserve Bank of India.
Association (IDA) is an international
 The CDs are issued to individuals,
financial institution established in
corporations, companies, and funds,
1960.
among others. The CDs may be issued
 It offers concessional loans and grants to all people resident in India. The CDs
to the world's poorest developing could also be issued to the NRIs, but on
countries that suffer from the lowest a non-repatriable basis only.
gross national income, troubled
creditworthiness or have the lowest per
37. Answer: (c)
capita income.
Explanation:
 Aim: To reduce poverty by providing
 The World Competitiveness Index is
zero to low-interest loans (for long-
an annual report compiled by the
term) (called “credits”) and grants for
Institute for Management
the programmes that boost economic
Development.
growth, reduce inequalities and
 India has witnessed the sharpest rise
improve people’s living conditions.
among the Asian economies, with a six-
 The IDA is a part of the World Bank
position jump, from 43rd to 37th rank
Group and complements the World in 2022, largely due to gains in
Bank’s original lending arm—the economic performance.

RAUSIAS-1040 12
  It analyzes and ranks the countries United States of America (USA), India,
according to how they manage their Australia and Japan. One of the primary
competencies to achieve long-term objectives of the Quad is to work for a free,
value creation. open, prosperous and inclusive Indo-Pacific
 Indicators used: Economic region. The group met for the first time
Performance; Government Efficiency; in 2007, on the side-lines of the
Business Efficiency; and Infrastructure. Association of Southeast Asian Nations
(ASEAN).
 Top 3 countries (2022): Denmark,
Switzerland and Singapore.
40. Answer: (b)
38. Answer: (c) Explanation:
Explanation: The Madrid Conference was a peace
 The Committee on Content Regulation conference, held in 1991 in Madrid,
in Government Advertising (CCRGA) hosted by Spain and co-sponsored by the
was set up in 2016, in accordance with United States and the erstwhile Soviet
the directions of the Supreme Court in Union.
2015. It was an attempt by the international
 The three-membered body was community to revive the Israeli–Palestinian
formed by the Union Ministry of peace process through negotiations,
Information and Broadcasting, to involving Israel and the Palestinians, as
regulate the content of Central and well as the Arab countries, including
State government-funded Jordan, Lebanon and Syria.
advertisements on all media
platforms.
41. Answer: (c)
 The states are mandated to set up their
Explanation:
own respective three-member
The Citizenship (Amendment) Act (2019)
committees on the Content Regulation
of Government Advertisements. grants citizenship to the Hindus,
Christians, Sikhs, Buddhist, Jains and
 Powers:
Parsis — from Afghanistan, Pakistan and
o It is empowered to address
Bangladesh, who had arrived in India
complaints from the general public
before 31st December, 2014.
and can also take suo-moto
cognizance of any violation of the The requirement for them to stay in India
Supreme Court guidelines and for at least 11 years before applying for the
recommend corrective actions. Indian citizenship has been reduced to five
o The Committee may, if necessary, years.
also decide to summon the Those belonging to these religions, coming
concerned official of the government in from the three countries, stand a chance
agencies dealing with the release of to become Indian, even if they do not have
advertisements in the event of requisite documents. Moreover, they will
undue delay in responding to the not be deported for not having documents.
Committee’s notices. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act does
not apply to the tribal areas of Tripura,
39. Answer: (d) Mizoram, Assam and Meghalaya, because
Explanation: of being included in the Sixth Schedule
The Quadrilateral Security Dialogue to the Constitution.
(Quad) is an informal strategic forum, Also the areas that fall under the ‘Inner
comprising four nations, namely the Limit’, notified under the Bengal Eastern

RAUSIAS-1040 13
 Frontier Regulation, 1873, will also be
outside the Act's purview. This keeps
almost the entire Arunachal Pradesh,
Mizoram and Nagaland out of the ambit of
the Act.
42. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Article 38 of the Indian Constitution: It
directs the State to promote the welfare of
the people by creating a social order, where
there is social, political and economic
justice. It says that the State shall strive to
minimise income inequalities, and those in
status and opportunities among the people
and the regions.
The Constitution (42nd Amendment) Act,
1976, inserted Article 39A to provide “equal
justice and free legal aid”. To this end, the
Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, was
enacted by the Parliament and it came into
force in 1995, “to provide free and
competent legal services to the weaker
sections of the society” and to “organize
Lok Adalats (literally, the ‘People’s Court’)
to secure justice on the basis of equal
opportunity”.
43. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Supreme Court of India derives its
authority for judicial review from the
Doctrine of 'Basic Structure of the
Constitution'. In simple words, the concept
of Basic Structure limits the Parliament’s
power to introduce drastic amendments
that may affect the core values of
the Indian Constitution.
The Basic Structure Doctrine came into
being in the 1973 landmark judgement
of the Supreme Court in the
Keshavananda Bharati case.
The Indira Gandhi government, in 1976,
enacted the 42nd Amendment Act that
declared that there is no limitation to the
constituent power of the Parliament under
Article 368. The Amendment, which was
RAUSIAS-1040
also called the "Mini-Constitution" for
introducing wide-ranging changes to the
Constitution, barred the courts from
questioning the Constitutional
Amendments.
However, in the Minerva Mills Ltd & Ors.
v/s the Union of India & Ors. case, 1980
the Supreme Court invalidated this
Amendment by observing that the
Parliament cannot take away the power to
‘judicial review’, as it is a part of the ‘Basic
Structure Doctrine’.
In the S. R. Bommai case of 1994, the apex
court upheld the dismissal of BJP
governments by the President of India
following the demolition of the Babri
Masjid, sighting a threat to secularism by
these governments.
44. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Indian Federation is “an indestructible
Union of destructible states”. The American
Federation, on the other hand, is described
as “an indestructible Union of
indestructible states”.
The states are given representation in
the Rajya Sabha on the basis of
population. Hence, the membership
varies from 1 to 31. In the US, on the
other hand, the principle of equality of
representation of the states in the Upper
House is fully recognised. Thus, the
American Senate has 100 members, two
from each state. This principle is regarded
as a safeguard for the smaller states.
The Indian Parliament is empowered to
legislate on any subject of the State List, if
the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that
effect in the national interest. This means
that the legislative competence of the
Parliament can be extended without
amending the Constitution. Notably, this
can be done when there is no emergency of
any kind.
The Constitution establishes an
independent judiciary, headed by the
Supreme Court, for two purposes: One, to
14
 protect the supremacy of the Constitution
by exercising the power of judicial review;
and two, to settle the disputes between the
Centre and the states or between the
states. The Constitution contains various
measures, like the security of the tenure
to the judges, fixed service conditions
and so on, to make the judiciary
independent of the government.
45. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Articles 268 to 293, in Part XII of the
Constitution, deal with the Centre- state
financial relations.
The Parliament has exclusive power to levy
taxes on the subjects enumerated in the
Union List (which are 13 in number).
• The State Legislature has exclusive
power to levy taxes on the subjects
enumerated in the State List (which are
18 in number).
• There are no tax entries in the
Concurrent List.
The 101st Amendment Act of 2016 has
made an exception by making a special
provision with respect to the Goods and
Services Tax. This Amendment has
conferred concurrent power upon the
Parliament and the State Legislatures to
make laws governing the Goods and
Services Tax.
The Parliament can, at any time, levy the
surcharges on taxes and duties referred to
in Articles 269 and 270 (mentioned above).
The proceeds of such surcharges go to
the Centre exclusively.
The Goods and Services Tax (GST) is
exempted from this surcharge. In other
words, this surcharge cannot be imposed
on the GST.
Statutory Grants: Article 275 empowers
the Parliament to make grants to the
states, which are in need of financial
assistance, and not to every state. Also,
different sums may be fixed for different
states. These sums are charged on the
Consolidated Fund of India every year.
RAUSIAS-1040
46. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Once approved by both the Houses of the
Parliament, the Financial Emergency
continues indefinitely till it is revoked. This
implies two things:
1. There is no maximum period prescribed
for its operation; and
2. Repeated Parliamentary approval is not
required for its continuation.
A resolution approving the proclamation
of the Financial Emergency can be
passed by either House of the
Parliament only by a simple majority,
i.e., a majority of the members of that
House present and voting.
Any such direction may include a provision
requiring
(a) the reduction of salaries and allowances
of all or any class of persons serving in
the state;
(b) the reservation of all Money Bills or
other Financial Bills for the
consideration of the President, after
they are passed by the legislature of the
state.
The President may issue directions for the
reduction of salaries and allowances of (a)
all or any class of persons serving the
Union; and (b) the judges of the Supreme
Court and the High Courts. Thus, during
the operation of a Financial Emergency, the
Centre acquires full control over the states
in financial matters.
The financial autonomy of the state is
nullified.
47. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In the following matters, the powers and
status of the Rajya Sabha are unequal to
that of the Lok Sabha: A Money Bill can
be introduced only in the Lok Sabha and
not in the Rajya Sabha.
In the following matters, the powers and
status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to
that of the Lok Sabha: Introduction and
15
 passage of the Financial Bills, involving
expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of
India.
The Rajya Sabha can only discuss the
budget, but cannot vote on the demands
for grants (which is the exclusive privilege
of the Lok Sabha).
A resolution for the discontinuance of the
National Emergency can be passed only by
the Lok Sabha and not by the Rajya Sabha.
The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the
Council of Ministers by passing a No-
Confidence Motion.
48. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Chief Minister is the principal channel
of communication between the Governor
and the Council of Ministers.
1. To communicate to the Governor of the
state all decisions of the Council of
Ministers relating to the administration
of the affairs of the state and proposals
for legislation;
2. To furnish such information relating to
the administration of the affairs of the
state and proposals for legislation as
the Governor may call for; and
3. If the Governor so requires, to submit
for the consideration of the Council of
Ministers, any matter on which a
decision has be taken by a Minister, but
which has not been considered by the
Council.
4. The Chief Minister advises the Governor
with regard to the appointment of
important officials, like the Advocate
General, the Chairman and the
members of the State Public Service
Commission, the State Election
Commissioner, and so on.
49. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Council does not participate in the
election of the President of India and the
representatives of the state in the Rajya
Sabha.
RAUSIAS-1040
The Council has no effective say in the
ratification of a Constitutional
Amendment Bill. In this respect also,
the will of the Assembly prevails over
that of the Council.
The very existence of the Council depends
on the will of the Assembly. The Council
can be abolished by the Parliament, on the
recommendation of the Assembly.
It is clear that the position of the
Council vis-a-vis the Assembly is much
weaker than the position of the Rajya
Sabha vis-a-vis the Lok Sabha. The Rajya
Sabha has equal powers with the Lok
Sabha in all spheres, except the
financial matters and with regard to the
control over the government. On the
other hand, the Council is subordinate
to the Assembly in all respects. Thus,
the predominance of the Assembly over
the Council is fully established.
50. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The High Court is the highest court of
appeal in the state. It is the protector of the
Fundamental Rights of the citizens. It is
vested with the power to interpret the
Constitution. Besides, it has supervisory
and consultative roles.
The High Court can issue writs to any
person, authority and government, not
only within its territorial jurisdiction,
but also outside its territorial
jurisdiction, if the cause of action arises
within its territorial jurisdiction.
The writ jurisdiction of the High Court
(under Article 226) is not exclusive, but
concurrent with the writ jurisdiction of
the Supreme Court (under Article 32). It
means that when the Fundamental Rights
of a citizen are violated, the aggrieved party
has the option of moving either the High
Court or the Supreme Court directly.
However, the writ jurisdiction of the High
Court is wider than that of the Supreme
Court. This is because, the Supreme Court
can issue writs only for the enforcement of
16
 the Fundamental Rights and not for any
other purpose, i.e., it does not extend to a
case where the breach of an ordinary legal
right is alleged.
This power of superintendence of a High
Court is very broad because
 it extends to all courts and tribunals,
whether they are subject to the
appellate jurisdiction of the High Court
or not;
 it covers not only administrative
superintendence, but also judicial
superintendence;
 it is a revisional jurisdiction; and
 it can be suo-motu (on its own) and not
necessarily on the application of a
party.
51. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
There shall be a Comptroller and Auditor-
General of India, who shall be appointed by
the President, by warrant under his hand
and seal, and shall only be removed from
the office in like manner and on like
grounds as a Judge of the Supreme Court.
Every person appointed to be the
Comptroller and Auditor-General of India
shall, before he enters upon his office,
make and subscribe before the President,
or some person appointed in that behalf by
him, an oath or affirmation, according to
the form set out for the purpose in the
Third Schedule.
The salary and other conditions of
service of the Comptroller and Auditor-
General shall be such, as may be
determined by the Parliament by law
and, until they are so determined, shall be
as specified in the Second Schedule:
Provided that neither the salary of a
Comptroller and Auditor-General, nor his
rights in respect of leave of absence,
pension or age of retirement shall be varied
to his disadvantage after his appointment.
The Comptroller and Auditor-General shall
not be eligible for further office, either
RAUSIAS-1040
under the Government of India, or under
the Government of any State, after he has
ceased to hold his office.
52. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Section 12 of the Legal Services
Authorities Act, 1987, prescribes the
criteria for giving legal services to the
eligible persons. Section 12 of the Act
reads as under: Every person, who has to
file or defend a case, shall be entitled to
legal services under this Act if that person
is –
(a) a member of a Scheduled Caste or a
Scheduled Tribe;
(b) a victim of trafficking in human beings
or begar, as referred to in Article 23 of
the Constitution;
(c) a woman or a child;
(d) a mentally ill or otherwise disabled
person;
(e) a person under circumstances of
undeserved want, such as being a
victim of a mass disaster, ethnic
violence, caste atrocity, flood, drought,
earthquake or industrial disaster; or
(f) an industrial workman; or
(g) in custody, including custody in a
protective home within the meaning of
Clause (g) of Section 2 of the Immoral
Traffic (Prevention) Act, 1956; or in a
juvenile home within the meaning of the
Clause
(j) of Section 2 of the Juvenile Justice Act,
1986, or in a psychiatric hospital or
psychiatric nursing home within the
meaning of Clause (g) of Section 2 of the
Mental Health Act, 1987; or
(h) in receipt of annual income less than
rupees nine thousand or such other
higher amount as may be prescribed by
the State Government, if the case is
before a court other than the Supreme
Court, and less than rupees twelve
thousand or such other higher amount
as may be prescribed by the Central
Government, if the case is before the
Supreme Court.
17
 (The Rules have already been amended
to enhance this income ceiling).
According to Section 2(1) (a) of the Act,
legal aid can be provided to a person for a
'case' which includes a suit or any
proceeding before a court. Section 2(1)
(aaa) defines the 'court' as a civil, criminal
or revenue court and includes any tribunal
or any other authority constituted under
any law for the time being in force, to
exercise judicial or quasi-judicial functions.
As per Section 2(1)(c) 'legal service' includes
the rendering of any service in the conduct
of any case or other legal proceeding before
any court or other authority or tribunal
and the giving of advice on any legal
matter.
53. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Delimitation is the act of redrawing the
boundaries of the Lok Sabha and the State
Assembly seats to represent changes in
population. The main objective of
delimitation is to provide equal
representation to equal segments of a
population.
The Delimitation Commission is appointed
by the President of India and it works in
collaboration with the Election Commission
of India. It is composed of the following:
A retired Supreme Court judge, the Chief
Election Commissioner of India and
respective State Election
Commissioners. The Constitution
mandates that the Commission’s orders are
final and cannot be questioned before any
court, as it would hold up an election
indefinitely. Under Article 82, the
Parliament is to enact a Delimitation Act
after every Census. Once the Act is in force,
the Union Government sets up the
Delimitation Commission.
54. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Conjugal rights are the rights created by
marriage, i.e., the right of the husband or
the wife to the company of his/her spouse.
RAUSIAS-1040
Prisoner’s rights are internationally
recognised through the United Nations
Standard Minimum Rules for the
Treatment of Prisoners, the Universal
Declaration of Human Rights, the
International Covenant on Civil and
Political Rights etc. Through such
instruments, the prisoners are guaranteed
the right to life and inherent dignity. The
right to maintain family relations, including
conjugal visits, are included in these
treaties.
In the case of Meharaj v/s State (2022),
the Madras High Court, while
considering the question of whether the
conjugal rights form part of the right to
life and personal liberty guaranteed by
Article 21, observed that there have to
be differential standards in enforcement
of Article 21 for the law abiders and the
law violators. The Court observed that
even though conjugal visits could not be
held as a Fundamental Right, the prisoner
would still be eligible to avail leave for
conjugal visits, if there are ‘extraordinary
reasons’, such as ‘infertility treatments.’
55. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Circular trading refers to fraudulently
availing input tax credit by the traders by
issuing of invoices without availing any real
goods or services. This is done to use input
tax credit in the GST regime, meaning
‘circular trading’ is a type of cycle that
takes place when a company tries to create
a flow of fake sales transaction with its
collusioned parties by producing fake
invoices.
56. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The National Geospatial Policy 2022:
1. The Policy seeks to establish a high-
resolution topographical survey and
mapping, and a high-accuracy digital
elevation model for the entire
country by 2030, in addition to
18
 developing geospatial infrastructures,
skills and knowledge, standards and
enterprises.
2. The initiative would create a National
Geospatial Data Framework and make
data “affordably available” to the
enterprises and the general public.
3. The government intends to create an
Integrated Data and Information
Framework (IDIF), through which a
Geospatial Knowledge Infrastructure
(GKI) will be built by 2030.
4. The National Geospatial Policy outlines
the construction and promotion of
“geospatial data infrastructure” through
a “well-defined custodianship model
and data supply chain” to achieve these
goals.
In addition, the Policy outlines the
formation of an apex body at the
national level, to be known as the
Geospatial Data Promotion and
Development Committee (GDPDC). The
GDPDC will be responsible for providing
details on the use of geospatial data in
governance across specific ministries,
and for enabling the development of
private start-ups and companies to
work on specific projects.
5. It would also support the use of the
National Digital Twin, which is an
ecosystem of high-resolution data used
to promote connected digital twins
among the private enterprises with the
commercial sector, which needs to be
revised to capture a large share of this
industry.
57. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) has qualified to
become India’s ninth National Party, within
a decade of its formation.
The Elections Symbols (Reservation and
Allotment) Order, 1968, recognises a party
as a State Party if it fulfils any one of the
following conditions:
RAUSIAS-1040
 6% vote share and two MLAs or one MP
in the respective election;
 3% of Assembly seats or three MLAs,
whichever is higher;
 One MP for every 25 allotted to the state
or any fraction thereof;
 8% vote share in the last Assembly
election.
The qualifications for becoming a
National Party are any of the following:
 A State Party in at least four states;
or
 At least 6% vote share in the previous
Assembly or General Election from at
least four states, in addition to four Lok
Sabha MPs; or
 At least 11 Lok Sabha MPs from not
less than three states.
58. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Flag Code of India states that a
member of the public, private organization
or educational institute is allowed to hoist
the National Flag on all days and
occasions, ceremonial or otherwise,
consistent with the dignity and honour of
the Tricolour.
The Centre amended the Flag Code of
India, 2002, to allow the manufacture and
use of machine-made and polyester
National Flags. These were not allowed
earlier under the Code. As per the
amended Flag Code, the National Flags
made of hand-spun, hand-woven or
machine-made cotton, polyester, wool,
silk, khadi bunting, can also be used.
In another amendment, the Centre allowed
the National Flag to be flown both during
the day, as well as at night, if it is
displayed in the open or on the house of a
member of the public. Under earlier rules,
the Tricolour could only be hoisted between
sunrise and sunset.
19
59. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The Governor has constitutional
discretion in the following cases:
1. Reservation of a Bill for the
consideration of the President.
2. Recommendation for the imposition of
the President’s Rule in the state.
3. While exercising his functions as the
Administrator of an adjoining Union
Territory (in case of additional charge).
4. Determining the amount payable by the
Governments of Assam, Meghalaya,
Tripura and Mizoram to an
Autonomous Tribal District Council as
royalty, accruing from licenses for
mineral exploration.
5. Seeking information from the Chief
Minister with regard to the
administrative and legislative matters of
the state.
In addition to the above constitutional
discretion (i.e., the express discretion
mentioned in the Constitution), the
Governor, like the President, also has
situational discretion (i.e., the hidden
discretion derived from the exigencies of
a prevailing political situation) in the
following cases:
1. Appointment of the Chief Minister when
no party has a clear-cut majority in the
State Legislative Assembly, or when the
Chief Minister in the office dies
suddenly and there is no obvious
successor.
2. Dismissal of the Council of Ministers,
when it cannot prove the confidence of
the State Legislative Assembly.
3. Dissolution of the State Legislative
Assembly, if the Council of Ministers
has lost its majority.
PFRDA Act, enacted in 2014, under
the jurisdiction of the Ministry of
Finance, Government of India. It aims to
promote old-age income security and
protect the interests of the NPS (National
Pension System) subscribers.
61. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 The blockchain technology consists of
three important concepts: blocks, nodes
and miners.
 Each block in a chain consists of many
blocks, and each block has three
fundamental components:
 The data in the block.
 "Number used just once" is the nonce.
A nonce is a whole integer that is
produced at random when a block is
formed in a blockchain, and it produces
the block header hash.
 A hash is a number that is inextricably
linked to the nonce on a blockchain.
These numbers must have a large
number of zeroes at the beginning for
Bitcoin hashes (i.e., be extremely
small).
 A nonce creates the cryptographic hash,
when the first block of a chain is
formed. Unless it is mined, the data
contained in the block is thought to be
signed and permanently bound to the
nonce and hash.
 Miners create new blocks on the chain
through a process called mining.
 In a blockchain, every block has its own
unique nonce and hash, but also
references the hash of the previous
block in the chain, so mining a block is
not easy, especially on large chains.

62. Answer: (b)

60. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Explanation:
 Intellectual Property (IP) is a term
The Pension Fund Regulatory and
referring to a brand, invention, design
Development Authority (PFRDA) is a
or other kind of creation, which a
statutory regulatory body set up under the

RAUSIAS-1040 20
 person or business has legal rights
over. Almost all businesses own some
form of IP, which could be a business
asset.
 Common types of IP include:
o Copyright: This protects written or
published works, such as books,
songs, films, web content and
artistic works;
o Patents: This protects commercial
inventions, for example, a new
business product or process;
o Designs: This protects designs,
such as drawings or computer
models;
o Trademarks: This protects signs,
symbols, logos, words or sounds
that distinguish your products and
services from those of your
competitors.
 India is also a signatory to the following
International IP Agreements:
o The Paris Convention: Under this,
any person from a signatory state
can apply for a patent or trade mark
in any other signatory state, and will
be given the same enforcement
rights and status as a national of
that country would be.
o The Berne Convention: Under this,
each member state recognises the
copyright of authors from other
member states in the same way as
the copyright of its own nationals.
o The Madrid Protocol: Under this, a
person can file a single trade mark
application at their national office
that will provide protection in
multiple countries.
o The Patent Cooperation Treaty:
This is a central system for
obtaining a ‘bundle’ of national
patent applications in different
jurisdictions through a single
application.
 India is not a signatory to The Hague
Agreement, which allows the
RAUSIAS-1040
protection of designs in multiple
countries through a single filing.
 These rights are outlined in Article 27 of
the Universal Declaration of Human
Rights, which provides for the right to
benefit from the protection of moral and
material interests, resulting from the
authorship of scientific, literary or
artistic productions.
63. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
 The seedless plants, called bryophytes,
are the modern descendants of the first
land plants.
 About 450 million years ago, during the
Ordovician era, the first bryophytes
(liverworts) emerged.
 Lack of lignin and other hard structures
makes it unlikely that bryophyte fossils
would ever occur. Because of this,
fossils are scarce.
 It is believed that the first bryophytes
relied on sporopollenin to ensure the
viability of their spores.
 However, by the Silurian period,
vascular plants had colonized all of the
continents. According to this conclusive
evidence, non-vascular plants must
have existed prior to the Silurian epoch.
 Differentiation of the plant body into
stems and leaves is a frequent
morphological feature. However, the
plants lack the specialized tissue
needed to transport water and other
chemicals throughout their bodies.
 The many mosses (funaria), marchantia
and liverworts, that are often seen
growing in moist, muggy and shady
environments, are considered
bryophytes. On bare rocks or soil, they
are crucial to plant succession.
 Because they were the first plants to
grow and colonize arid rocks and
plains, bryophytes are referred to as the
‘land pioneers’.
21
  Bryophytes aid in preventing soil
erosion. They serve as soil binders,
since they grow so thickly. When
mosses grow in thick threads, the
texture takes on the appearance of a
mat or carpet.
64. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Triclosan is widely used in the
pharmaceutical and personal care
industries as an anti-bacterial.
 A little quantity of triclosan may be
absorbed via the skin or stomach, while
using a product that contains it.
 Triclosan in toothpaste has been found
to reduce the risk of gingivitis.
 Inflammation, redness and irritation of
the gingiva (gum) at the base of the
teeth characterise gingivitis, a frequent
and mild type of gum disease.
 The anti-bacterial agent triclosan will
be used to coat food storage containers,
lids and chopping boards.
 A study reveals that triclosan in minute
amounts cannot only affect the genes
and enzymes involved in
neurotransmission, but it can also
damage the neurons. Overall this can
affect the motor function of an
organism.
65. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 By constructing materials under the sea
that resemble rocks, biorock technology
is utilized to save the coral reefs.
 It is a technique through which
seawater is passed via a very low
voltage electric current.
 Crystalline salts of minerals dissolved
in water are deposited as a result.
 The deposited crystals, which are
mostly calcium carbonate, create a
structure on the waterbed that is
reminiscent of the coral reefs that are
formed naturally.
RAUSIAS-1040
 The resulting structure, known as
biorock, is incredibly durable and
sturdy, and it offers corals an ideal
home.
 The corals adhere to the biorock, so
they may use their structure to develop
much quicker than the actual growth.
 With the aid of this technique, calcium
carbonate structures are created in the
ocean, strengthening the coral reefs and
enabling the growth of delicate corals,
without putting them in risk from
pollution and climate change.
66. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Recirculatory Aquaculture System
(RAS) is a technology where water is
recycled and reused after mechanical and
biological filtration, and removal of
suspended matter and metabolites. This
method is used for high-density culture of
various species of fish, utilizing minimum
land area and water. It is an intensive
high-density fish culture, unlike other
aquaculture production systems. Instead of
the traditional method of growing fish
outdoors in open ponds and raceways, in
this system, the fish are typically reared in
indoor/outdoor tanks in a controlled
environment. Recirculating systems filter
and clean the water by recycling it back to
the fish culture tanks. The technology is
based on the use of mechanical and
biological filters, and the method can be
used for any species grown in aquaculture.
67. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Probiotics are the meals that contain
beneficial bacteria or yeasts that the
human body already has.
 The human body is home to both
beneficial and harmful germs. When a
person has an illness, harmful micro-
organisms proliferate.
 Supplementing with friendly bacteria
with a probiotic is a healthy choice.
22
  The human digestive tract is where  For the protection of the people, it can
good micro-organisms are most often operate for 12 hours normally and 96
found. hours in an emergency.
 The big intestine is a common example  It is a part of the Rs. 6,000-crore Deep
of this. Many other parts of the body Ocean Mission and is India's first
also play home to beneficial micro- original manned ocean mission.
organisms.
 One can find probiotics in:
69. Answer: (c)
o Gut
Explanation:
o Mouth
 Polymeric nanoparticles are organic-
o Vagina
based nanoparticles. Depending upon
o Urinary tract the preparation method, polymeric
o Skin nanoparticles have structures shaped
o Lungs like nanocapsules or nanospheres.
 One of the most common is  A nanosphere nanoparticle has a
lactobacillus, which has been linked to matrix-like structure, whereas
improved immunity, blood sugar nanocapsules have core-shell
regulation, gastrointestinal health and morphology. In nanosphere polymeric
the prevention of yeast infections. nanoparticles, the active compounds
 Bifidobacterium is another kind of and the polymer are uniformly
bacteria that is often used to treat a dispersed, while in nanocapsule
range of conditions, including IBS, nanoparticles, the active compounds
mental health issues and eczema in are confined and surrounded by a
infants.
polymer shell.
 Food containing Probiotics: Yogurt,
 Some of the advantages of polymeric
buttermilk, sourdough bread, cottage
nanoparticles include controlled
cheese, kombucha, tempeh, pickles,
release, protection of drug molecules, as
fermented sauerkraut, kimchi and
they travel within the internal and
soups.
external environment, the ability to
combine therapy and imaging, and
68. Answer: (a)
specific targeting.
Explanation:
 Polymeric nanoparticles have
 The Samudrayaan Mission is aimed to applications in drug delivery and
develop a self-propelled manned
diagnostics. Drug delivery systems with
submersible, which will allow the
polymeric nanoparticles are also highly
scientific personnel to observe and
biodegradable and biocompatible.
understand unexplored deep-sea areas
by direct interventions.  Lipid nanoparticles are generally
spherical with a diameter ranging from
 The goal of the expedition is to deploy
10 to 100 nm. Their structure consists
three people in the "MATSYA 6000"
vehicle to a depth of 6,000 metres to of a solid core made of lipid and a
explore deep-sea resources, including matrix containing soluble lipophilic
minerals. molecules, and the external core is
stabilized by surfactants and
 The National Institute of Ocean
emulsifiers.
Technology (NIOT), Chennai, is
designing and developing the  Lipid nanoparticles have applications in
"MATSYA 6000" vehicle for the the biomedical field as drug carriers
Ministry of Earth Sciences. and RNA release in cancer therapy.

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70. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Keystone species have low functional
redundancy. This means that if the species
were to disappear from the ecosystem, no
other species would be able to fill its
ecological niche. The ecosystem would be
forced to radically change, allowing new
and possibly invasive species to populate
the habitat.
Any organism, from plants to fungi, may be
a keystone species. They are not always the
largest or most abundant species in an
ecosystem. However, almost all examples of
keystone species are the animals that have
a huge influence on food webs. The way
these animals influence food webs varies
from habitat to habitat.
Ochre Sea Star, a keystone species, is an
organism that helps define an entire
ecosystem. By keeping the populations of
mussels and barnacles in check, this Sea
Star helps ensure healthy populations of
seaweeds and the communities that feed
on them.
71. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Holocene extinction, or the
Anthropocene extinction, is the ongoing
extinction event during the Holocene
epoch. The extinctions span numerous
families of bacteria, fungi, plants and
animals, including mammals, birds,
reptiles, amphibians, fish, invertebrates,
and affecting not just the terrestrial
species, but also large sectors of marine
life.
It includes the disappearance of large land
animals, known as megafauna, starting at
the end of the last glacial period.
Megafauna outside of the African
mainland, which did not evolve alongside
humans, proved highly sensitive to the
introduction of human predation, and
many died out shortly after early humans
began spreading and hunting across the
Earth.
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The current rate of extinction of species is
estimated at 100 to 1,000 times higher
than the natural background extinction
rates.
It is affecting not just the terrestrial
species, but also large sectors of marine
life.
72. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Environmental think tank and
sustainable development lobbyist
Germanwatch releases the Global
Climate Risk Index.
India was ranked the seventh worst-hit
country in 2019 in the Global Climate Risk
Index 2021.
According to the Index, which ranked the
countries according to their vulnerability to
extreme weather events, floods caused by
heavy rain in 2019 took 1,800 lives across
14 states in India and displaced 1.8 million
people.
As per the report, the poorer countries are
hit the hardest, because they are more
vulnerable to the damaging effects of a
hazard and have lower coping capacity.
73. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Canopy management is the manipulation
of tree canopies to optimize the production
of quality fruits. The canopy management,
particularly its components like tree,
training and pruning, affects the quantity
of sunlight intercepted by the trees, as tree
shape determines the presentation of leaf
area to incoming radiation.
Some of the basic principles in canopy
management are:
 Maximum utilization of light.
 Convenience in carrying out the
cultural practices.
 Maximizing productivity with quality
fruit production.
 Economy in obtaining required canopy
architecture.
24
  Avoidance of built-up microclimate 76. Answer: (c)
congenial for diseases and pest Explanation:
infestation. Cryptogamae means "hidden reproduction",
referring to the fact that no seed, no flowers
74. Answer: (c) are produced. Thus, cryptogams represent
Explanation: the non-seed-bearing plants.
The World Meteorological Organization Algae, bryophytes (moss, liverworts),
(WMO) is a specialized agency of the United lichens, ferns and fungi are the best-
Nations. It is the UN system's authoritative known groups of cryptogams that
voice on the state and behaviour of the require moist conditions to survive.
Earth's atmosphere, its interaction with the
India's first cryptogamic garden, housing
oceans, the climate it produces and the
nearly 50 species of lichens, ferns and
resulting distribution of water resources.
fungi, was inaugurated in Uttarakhand's
The WMO promotes co-operation in the
Dehradun district. Deoban has pristine
establishment of networks for making
majestic forests of Deodar and Oak, which
meteorological, climatological, hydrological
create a natural habitat for the cryptogamic
and geophysical observations, as well as
species.
the exchange, processing and
standardization of related data, and assists
technology transfer, training and research. 77. Answer: (c)
It also fosters collaboration between the Explanation:
National Meteorological and Hydrological S.N. Protected Area State
Services of its members and furthers the
1. Dihing Patkai Assam
application of meteorology to public
weather services, agriculture, aviation, National Park
shipping, the environment, water issues 2. Valmiki Tiger Bihar
and the mitigation of the impacts of natural Reserve
disasters.
3. Kuno National Madhya
Park Pradesh
75. Answer: (b)
4. Nagarhole National Karnataka
Explanation:
Park
Red Sanders (Red Sandalwood) has fallen
back into the ‘endangered’ category in
the International Union for Conservation 78. Answer: (c)
of Nature’s (IUCN) Red List. The Explanation:
species, Pterocarpus santalinus, is an A recent assessment from the United
Indian endemic tree species, with a Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
restricted geographical range in the and the Climate & Clean Air Coalition
Eastern Ghats.
found that cutting farming-related methane
The species is endemic to a distinct tract of emissions would be the key in the battle
forests in Andhra Pradesh. against climate change.
It is listed under Appendix II of CITES Agriculture is the predominant source.
(The Convention on International Trade in
Livestock emissions from manure and
Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and
gastroenteric releases account for roughly
Flora) and is banned from international
trade. The harvest of the tree is also 32% of human-caused methane emissions.
restricted at the state level, but despite Population growth, economic development
this, its illegal trade continues. and urban migration have stimulated
unprecedented demand for animal protein

RAUSIAS-1040 25
 and, with the global population
approaching 10 billion, this hunger is
expected to increase by upto 70% by 2050.
Agricultural methane does not only come
from the animals, though. Paddy rice
cultivation, in which the flooded fields
prevent oxygen from penetrating the soil,
creating ideal conditions for methane-
emitting bacteria, accounts for another 8%
of human-linked emissions.
Methane is the primary contributor to the
formation of ground-level ozone, a
hazardous air pollutant and greenhouse
gas, exposure to which causes 1 million
premature deaths every year. Methane is
also a powerful greenhouse gas. Over a 20-
year period, it is 80 times more potent at
warming than carbon dioxide.
Methane has accounted for roughly 30% of
global warming since the pre-industrial
times and is proliferating faster than at any
other time, since record-keeping began in
the 1980s. In fact, according to the data
from the United States National Oceanic
and Atmospheric Administration, even as
carbon dioxide emissions decelerated
during the pandemic-related lockdowns of
2020, atmospheric methane shot up.
The Koronivia Joint Work on Agriculture
(KJWA) is a landmark decision under the
United Nations Framework Convention on
Climate Change (UNFCCC) that recognizes
the unique potential of agriculture in
tackling climate change. The Koronivia
decision addresses six interrelated topics
on soils, nutrient use, water, livestock,
methods for assessing adaptation, and the
socio-economic and food security
dimensions of climate change across the
agricultural sectors.
79. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
At the UN Climate Change Conference
(COP 26) in Glasgow, the Beyond Oil and
Gas Alliance (BOGA) was launched. It is a
diplomatic initiative led by Denmark
and Costa Rica to bring together
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ambitious governments committed to
phasing out oil and gas production.
In the aftermath of COP 26, India has
been singled out for its resistance to
international pressure on coal.
80. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The Clydebank Declaration was launched
at COP26 in 2021. The signatories have
committed to establish six “Green
Corridors” by 2025 – entirely decarbonized
maritime routes (including land-side
infrastructure and vessels) between two or
more ports – to accelerate the development
of zero-emission fuels, low-carbon enabling
infrastructure, and effective legislation and
regulation.
The primary aim of the Declaration is to
put the maritime sector on track to achieve
net-zero by 2050. The sector is under
increasing pressure to update its current
target of reducing overall greenhouse gas
emissions from ships by at least 50%,
compared to the 2008 levels by 2050.
Participation in the Declaration is
voluntary, meaning that the corridors will
arise from partnerships only between those
ports and operators that are willing to
decarbonize specific, shared maritime
routes.
India has not signed this Declaration
yet.
81. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Under the Kigali Amendment, the Parties to
the Montreal Protocol will phase down
production and consumption of
hydrofluorocarbons, commonly known as
HFCs.
Recognizing the growth in the use of HFCs,
especially in refrigeration and air-
conditioning sector, the Parties to the
Montreal Protocol, reached an agreement at
their 28th Meeting of the Parties (MOP),
held in 2016 in Kigali (Rwanda) to add
26
 HFCs to the list of controlled substances
and approved a timeline for their gradual
reduction by 80%-85% by the late 2040s.
India will complete its phase down of HFCs
in 4 steps from 2032 onwards, with
cumulative reduction of 10% in 2032, 20%
in 2037, 30% in 2042 and 85% in 2047.
All amendments and adjustments of the
Montreal Protocol, prior to the Kigali
Amendment, have universal support.
Only 146 members of the United Nations
have ratified it.
82. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
India and the United States of America
(USA) have launched the “Climate Action
and Finance Mobilization Dialogue
(CAFMD)”. The CAFMD is one of the two
tracks of the India-US Climate and Clean
Energy Agenda 2030 partnership, launched
at the Leaders' Summit on Climate in 2021,
by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi and
the US President Mr. Joseph Biden.
The Dialogue will not only strengthen
India-US bilateral cooperation on climate
and environment, but will also help to
demonstrate how the world can align swift
climate action with inclusive and resilient
economic development, taking into account
national circumstances and sustainable
development priorities.
83. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Permafrost is the perennially frozen soil
that covers about a quarter of the land in
the Northern Hemisphere, particularly in
Canada, Russia and Alaska. It consists of
soil, gravel and sand, usually bound
together by ice. Much of it is rich with
the organic matter of long-dead plants
and animals frozen in time. These frozen
soils maintain the structural integrity of
many northern landscapes, providing
stability to vegetated and unvegetated
surfaces, similar to the load-bearing
RAUSIAS-1040
support beams in the buildings. Permafrost
can be found on land and below the ocean
floor. It is found in the areas where
temperatures rarely rise above the freezing
point.
84. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Fly ash is the residue of coal combustion,
which, if disposed of improperly, is
hazardous. The New Government Rules
include a system of environmental
compensation, based on ‘the polluter-pays
principle’. Thermal power plants and lignite
plants, that do not utilize 100% of the fly
ash they generate in an “eco-friendly” way,
will now face penalties, under a New Set of
Rules notified by the Union Government.
The new Notification will replace the 1999
Notification that had originally set up rules
for fly ash utilization. It will also supersede
various amendments to the 1999
Notification made in 2003, 2009 and 2016,
which have all sought to manage the
generation of fly ash.
85. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In order to tackle the issues that arise as a
consequence of degradation and
deforestation, the principles of forest
landscape restoration are being globally
promoted. The Bonn Challenge is a global
effort to bring 150 million hectares of
deforested and degraded land into
restoration by 2020, and 350 million
hectares by 2030. It was launched by the
Government of Germany and the IUCN
(The International Union for
Conservation of Nature) in 2011. The
Government of India made a Bonn
Challenge pledge to bring under
restoration 13 million hectares of
degraded land by 2020, and an
additional 8 million hectares by 2030.
27
86. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
To reduce land desertification and provide
livelihood, the Khadi and Village Industries
Commission (KVIC) initiated a project by
planting 5,000 saplings of special bamboo
species in Rajasthan.
The project, named ‘Bamboo Oasis on
Lands in Drought’ (BOLD), was launched
from the tribal village Nichla Mandwa in
Udaipur (Rajasthan).
About Project BOLD: Project BOLD seeks
to create bamboo-based green patches in
the arid and semi-arid land zones.
It is aligned with PM Narendra Modi’s call
for reducing land degradation and
preventing desertification in the country.
Under Project BOLD, 5,000 saplings of
special bamboo species – Bambusa Tulda
and Bambusa Polymorpha, brought from
Assam – have been planted over 16 acres of
vacant arid Gram Panchayat land.
87. Answer: (b)
89. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Sakteng Wildlife Sanctuary is a
wildlife sanctuary in Bhutan, located in
Merak and Sakteng Gewogs of
Trashigang district and just crossing the
border into Samdrup Jongkhar district.
It is one of the country's protected areas
and is listed as a tentative site in Bhutan's
Tentative List for UNESCO inclusion.
The sanctuary represents the eastern-most
temperate ecosystems and landscapes of
Bhutan, and is a part of the Eastern
Himalayan sub-alpine conifer forests eco-
region. It protects several endemic species,
including the Eastern Blue Pine, the Black-
Rumped Magpie and the endangered
Himalayan Red Panda.
88. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Taiwan Strait, also called the Formosa
Strait, is an arm of the Pacific Ocean, lying
between the coast of
RAUSIAS-1040
China’s Fukien province and the island
of Taiwan (Formosa).
The Strait is a part of the South China Sea
and connects to the East China Sea to the
north.
The chief ports are Amoy in mainland
China and Kao-hsiung on Taiwan. The
area lies in a typhoon zone.
Note: Under the United Nations
Convention on the Law of the Sea
(UNCLOS), to which China is a party,
China enjoys a 12 nautical mile territorial
sea off its coasts. China does not consider
Taiwan to be a sovereign state, and
therefore, claims the 12 nautical miles off
Taiwan’s coast as its territorial sea as well.
Under UNCLOS, even within China’s 12
nautical mile territorial sea, other nations
may exercise “innocent passage” without
China’s permission, meaning that they can
engage in activities that do not harm “the
peace, good order, or security” of a coastal
state, as defined in the treaty.
Explanation:
The Central Government launched the
National Clean Air Programme (NCAP) as a
long-term, time-bound, national-level
strategy to tackle the air pollution problem
across the country in a comprehensive
manner, with targets to achieve 20% to
30% reduction in Particulate Matter
concentrations by 2024, keeping 2017
as the base-year for the comparison of
concentration. Under the NCAP, 122 non-
attainment cities have been identified
across the country, based on the air quality
data from 2014-2018.
The air quality of the cities is monitored by
the State Pollution Control Boards, which
publish their results from time to time.
Some Smart Cities have established the
Integrated Command and Control Centres
(ICCCs), which are also connected to the
Air Quality Monitors (AQMs) for effective
monitoring.
28
90. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Chagos Archipelago, or the Chagos
Islands, is a group of seven atolls,
comprising more than 60 islands in the
Indian Ocean, about 500 kilometres south
of the Maldives Archipelago. This chain of
islands is the southern-most archipelago of
the Chagos–Laccadive Ridge, a long
submarine mountain range in the Indian
Ocean.
The Agalega Islands, two-island
dependency of Mauritius, in the Western
Indian Ocean. It consists of the North
Island and the South Island.
91. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The Amazon's influence on the movement
of moisture extends beyond the water that
flows down the Amazon River. The trees of
the Amazon rainforest pump vast
quantities of water vapor into the
atmosphere every day via transpiration.
While much of this water falls locally as
rain, some of this moisture is carried by
airflows across other parts of the continent,
including the agricultural heartland of
South America to the south.
In the central-western part of Brazil sits a
flat, swampy area called the Pantanal. This
patchwork of flooded lagoons and small
islands is the world’s largest wetland. Here
live giant anacondas, huge guinea pig
relatives called capybaras, and fierce South
American alligators called caimans.
92. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In 1967, McKenzie and Parker and Morgan,
came out with a concept- Plate Tectonics.
A tectonic plate (also called lithospheric
plate) is a massive, irregularly-shaped slab
of solid rock, generally composed of both
continental and oceanic lithospheres.
Plates move horizontally over the
asthenosphere as rigid units.
RAUSIAS-1040
There are three types of plate
boundaries –
Divergent Boundaries: Where new crust is
generated as the plates pull away from
each other. The sites where the plates move
away from each other are called spreading
sites.
Convergent Boundaries: Where the crust
is destroyed as one plate dived under
another. The location where sinking of a
plate occurs is called a subduction zone.
Transform Boundaries: Where the crust is
neither produced nor destroyed as the
plates slide horizontally past each other.
The strips of normal and reverse magnetic
field that parallel the mid-oceanic ridges
help to determine the rates of plate
movement. The Arctic Ridge has the
slowest rate (less than 2.5 cm/yr), and the
East Pacific Rise, in the South Pacific, has
the fastest rate (more than 15 cm/yr).
Some important minor plates are given:
(i) Cocos plate: Between Central America
and Pacific plate (ii) Nazca plate: Between
South America and Pacific plate (iii)
Arabian plate: Mostly the Saudi Arabian
landmass (iv) Philippine plate: Between the
Asiatic and Pacific plate.
93. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Earthquake waves are basically of two
types — body waves and surface waves.
Body waves are generated due to the
release of energy at the focus and move in
all directions travelling through the body of
the earth. The body waves interact with the
surface rocks and generate new set of
waves called surface waves. These waves
move along the surface. The velocity of
waves changes as they travel through
materials with different densities. Their
direction also changes as they reflect or
refract when coming across materials
with different densities.
Surface waves — Rayleigh (R-wave).
They do by far the most damage. As
29
 opposed to body waves (S and P waves),
they propagate on the surface and carry
the vast majority of the energy felt on the
surface. Rayleigh waves follow the
elliptical motion. They roll around the
ground bringing up and down and forward
and backward motion and works in all
possible directions on the surface.
94. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Physical or mechanical removal of
materials by moving groundwater is
insignificant in developing landforms. The
results of the work of groundwater
cannot be seen in all types of rocks. But
in rocks like limestones or dolomites
rich in calcium carbonate, the surface
water as well as groundwater through
the chemical process of solution and
precipitation deposition develop
varieties of landforms. Any limestone or
dolomitic region showing typical landforms
produced by the action of groundwater
through the processes of solution and
deposition is called Karst topography.
EROSIONAL LANDFORMS: Sinkholes,
collapse sink (doline), valley sinks (uvalas),
lapies, limestone pavements.
Sinkholes are very common in limestone/
karst areas. A sinkhole is an opening more
or less circular at the top and funnel-
shaped towards the bottom.
Some of the sinkholes form solely
through solution action (solution sinks)
and others might start as solution forms
first and if the bottom of a sinkhole
forms the roof of a void or cave
underground, it might collapse leaving a
large hole opening into a cave or a void
below (collapse sinks).
95. Answer: (a)
Explanation:
When two different/opposing air masses
meet, the boundary zone between them
is called a front. The process of formation
of the fronts is known as frontogenesis.
RAUSIAS-1040
There are four types of fronts: (a) Cold; (b)
Warm; (c) Stationary; (d) Occluded.
When the cold air moves towards the
warm air mass, its contact zone is called
the cold front, whereas if the warm air
mass moves towards the cold air mass, the
contact zone is a warm front.
Cold front: It is a sloping frontal surface
along which cold air becomes active and
aggressive. Cumulonimbus clouds are
formed and heavy rainfall with lightning
and thundering takes place. Sometimes
cold frontal precipitation is also associated
with snowfall and hail storms.
Warm fronts are associated with
nimbostratus, altostratus and cirrostratus
cloud formation producing moderate to
gentle precipitation over a relatively large
area.
96. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
 Bolan Pass is a valley and natural
gateway through the Toba Kakar range
in Balochistan province of Pakistan.
 Shipki La is a mountain pass and
border outpost in the state of Himachal
Pradesh.
 Nathu La is a mountain pass in
Dongkya range of Himalayas in the
state of Sikkim.
 Bomdi La is a border pass between
China and India. It is situated in
Arunachal Pradesh.
97. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Western Ghats are locally known by
different names such as Sahyadri in
Maharashtra, Nilgiri hills in Karnataka and
Tamil Nadu and Anaimalai hills and
Cardamom hills in Kerala. ‘Anaimudi’
(2,695 m), the highest peak of Peninsular
plateau is located on the Anaimalai hills of
the Western Ghats followed by Dodabetta
(2,637 m) on the Nilgiri hills. The Eastern
and the Western Ghats meet each other at
the Nilgiri hills.
30
98. Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The Pindar River is a river located in
Uttarakhand, India. Pindar originates from
Pindari Glacier which is situated in
Bageshwar district of Kumaon region in
Uttarakhand.
Pindar glacier has relatively easier access
and has been documented well for its
retreat over 100 years. Pindar river mouth
is located at Karnaprayag where it ends by
its confluence with Alaknanda River.
99. Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Characteristic features of Arabian Sea
branch of Indian Monsoon of the south-
west monsoon:
 It’s one branch is obstructed by the
Western Ghats. These winds climb the
slopes of the Western Ghats from 900-
1200 m and the windward side of the
Sahyadris and Western Coastal Plain
receive very heavy rainfall ranging
between 250 cm and 400 cm.
 After crossing the Western Ghats, these
winds descend and get heated up. This
reduces humidity in the winds. As a
result, these winds cause little rainfall
east of the Western Ghats. This region
of low rainfall is known as the rain-
shadow area.
 Moving along the Narmada and Tapi
River valleys, these winds cause rainfall
in extensive areas of central India. The
Chotanagpur plateau gets 15 cm
rainfall from this part of the branch.
Thereafter, they enter the Ganga plains
and mingle with the Bay of Bengal
branch.
RAUSIAS-1040
Tamil Nadu coast lies in the rain shadow
area of the Arabian Sea branch of the
south-west monsoon.
100. Answer: (c)
Explanation:
About Black Soil:
 Black soil covers most of the Deccan
Plateau which includes parts of
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh,
Gujarat, Andhra Pradesh and some
parts of Tamil Nadu.
 These soils are also known as the
‘Regur Soil’ or the ‘Black Cotton
Soil’. The black soils are generally
clayey, deep and impermeable.
 They swell and become sticky when wet
and shrink when dried. So, during the
dry season, these soil develop wide
cracks. Thus, there occurs a kind of
‘self-ploughing’. Because of this
character of slow absorption and loss of
moisture, the black soil retains the
moisture for a very long time, which
helps the crops, especially; the rain fed
ones, to sustain even during the dry
season.
 Chemically, the black soils are rich in
lime, iron, magnesia and alumina.
They also contain potash. But they lack
in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic
matter. The colour of the soil ranges
from deep black to grey.
31
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