Super Final avn answer of Zoonotic Infectious

diseases exam questions 8-sem 2k23

SOLVED BY ANKIT KUMAR AKELA

Pinked marked is corrected one after checking
 From 160-220 checked by our teacher
 From 1-159 checked by Krishna & Abhinaw on the basis of previous yr paper and book
 Verified Green marked at last moment

1. When pseudotuberculosis rash:

1. Observed in all cases of the disease

2. small-Spotted or spotty, sometimes with the presence of hemorrhage or petechiae
3. Appears on day 1-6 of illness
4. after the disappearance of the rash, lamellar peeling often appears
A.2,4
b.1,3
C.1,2,3
D .1,2,3,4
2.Pseudotuberculosis is not used for laboratory diagnostics:
A. Seeding feces, urine, and pharyngeal flushes
B. blood Seeding
С. agglutination Reactions
D. indirect hemagglutination Reactions
E. Detection of Yersinia in urine by microscopy

3.The incubation period for psittacosis:

A. 1-5 days
B. 6-17 days
С. 18-21 days
D. 22-28 days
E. 29-35 days

4. Manifestations of hemorrhagic syndrome in leptospirosis:

1. Petechial rash on the skin
2. hemorrhages under the conjunctiva, in the sclera
3. Nasal, gastric, uterine, intestinal bleeding
4. hemorrhages in the brain, myocardium and other organs

5.For the diagnosis of tularemia, use:

A. Serological reactions
B. Skin Allergy test
С. Biological method
D. All specified methods
E. All of the above is not true

6.The main route of infection in listeriosis:

A. Alimentary
B. Transplacental
C. Contact
D. Vector-Borne
E. Parenteral

7.As an etiotropic therapy for leptospirosis, it is often used:

A. Penicillin
B. Levomiсetin
C. Ampicillin
D. Gentamicin
E. Vancomycin

8.Duration of treatment for pseudotuberculosis with levomycetin:

A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 21 days
E. 40 days

9.The leading way of transmission of pseudotuberculosis:

A. Contact
B. Food
C. Airborne
D. Vector-Borne
E. Parenteral

10.For the diagnosis of leptospirosis, the following laboratory tests are used,except:
A. Detection of leptospir in blood and urine by microscopy
B. infecting laboratory animals
C. Serological reactions
D. Seeding of blood, urine, liquor
E.Determination of creatine clearance

11.Main characteristics of the gastroenterocolitic form of yersiniosis:

A. Occurs more frequently than other clinical forms (70%)
B. Severe current is rare
C. the Temperature is usually subfebrile, intoxication is weak
D. Stool from 2 to 15 times a day, blood admixture is rare
E. that's right

12.In yersiniosis, all of the following symptoms can be observed, except:

A. Jaundice
B. skin Rashes, arthralgia
C. Lymphadenopathy, erythema nodosum
D. Enlargement of the liver and spleen
E. Bulbar disorders

13.As a specific therapy for leptospirosis, it is used:

A. Antibiotics
B. Corticosteroids
C. Specific immunoglobulin
D. Normal human immunoglobulin
E. freshly Frozen plasma

14.Pathogenetic therapy for pseudotuberculosis includes:

A. Detoxification
B. Detoxification and desensitization
C. Surgical treatment
D. Phototherapy
E. that's right

15.The main cause of death in leptospirosis:

A. Toxic-infectious shock
B. Acute renal failure
C. Meningitis
D. Acute liver failure
E. Acute adrenal insufficiency

16.The incubation period for yersiniosis is:

A. 1-6 days
B. 7-14 days
C. 15-21 days
D. 22-35 days
E. More than 35 days

17.The main reservoir and source of pseudotuberculosis infection:

A. Pigs
B. Dogs
C. Cats
D. Mouse-like rodents
E. Cows

18.Isolated cases of melioidosis have been reported in:

A. Madagascar
B. Kenya, Niger
C.In Panama, Ecuador
D.Turkey, Iran

19.Melioidosis is caused by:

A. Chlamydia
B. Chlamydia
C. Bacteria
D. Viruses
E. Fungi
20.For bacteriological confirmation of listeriosis, research is performed:
A. Blood
B. Cerebrospinal fluid
C. flushes from the throat
D. Amniotic fluid, placenta
E. All of the above

21.From serological reactions, a reaction is used to diagnose chronic brucellosis

A. Agglutination (Wright)
B. Indirect hemagglutination (RNG)
C. Hudelson
D. Coombs
E. All of these
22.The rash of typhoid
A. roseolous-papular on the skin of the abdomen and lower chest
B. roseolous, monomorphic, not plentiful, located on the skin of the abdomen and lower chest,
lasts from a few hours to 5 days
C. hemorrhagic on the skin of the abdomen and lower chest
D. roseolous on the flexor surface of the forearms
E. vesicular over the whole surface of the body

23.Rare atypical clinical forms of the course of psittacosis:

A. Pneumonic
B. Meningeal
C. Meningomyelocele
D. Typhoid

24.The main clinical symptoms of acute listeriosis are:

1. the Disease begins suddenly with symptoms of intoxication, chills, fever
2. on the skin there is a large-spotted or erythematous rash, thickening in mi symptoms with
acute leaf-areas of large joints, enlarged and painful lymph nodes (submandibular, cervical,
axillary, mesenteric)

3. Meningeal symptoms in nervous forms

4. Acute gastroenteritis, acute pyelitis, endocarditis; enlarged: liver, spleen
A. 1,2,4
B.2,3
C.1,4,3
D.1,2,3,4

25.Incubation period of melioidosis:

A. 2-3 days
B. 4-5 days
C. 6-7 days
D. 8-10 days
E. More than 10 days

25.Main clinical forms of melioidosis:

1. Septic (acute, chronic)
2. Pulmonary (infiltrative, abscessed)
3. Recurrent
4. Latent
26.Mainclinical forms of melioidosis:
1. Septic (acute, chronic)
2. Pulmonary (infiltrative, abscessed)
3. Recurrent
 4. Latent

A.1,2,3,4
B.1,2,3
C.2,3,4
D.1,2,4

27.Leading clinical signs of leptospirosis:

1. Fever, intoxication, headache
2. Pain in the occipital, calf, back and abdominal muscles
3. Hemorrhagic syndrome, skin rashes
4. Enlargement of the liver and spleen, oligoanuria, jaundice
A.1,2
B.2,4
C.3,2
D.1,2,3,4

28.Melioidosis is characterized by:

A. Severe course of the disease
B. Severe course of the disease ,formation of abscesses
C. Multiple pustules on the skin
D. Severe course of the disease; Progressive respiratory failure;
E.Multiple pustules on the skin; formation of abscesses

29.The symptoms of injury of respiratory system with psittacosis:

A. more often appear on day 2-4 of the disease
B. Moderate cough, dry or with sputum separation
C. chest pain of a pleural nature
D. Physical signs of pneumonia
ALL BCD ARECORRECT

30.That is not characterised for I clinical stage of AIDS, in obedience to clinical

classification of stages of HIV-infection for adults and teenagers, which is developed by the
experts of WHO (in 2002)?
A.Loss of mass of body 5 % from initial

B.Purulent defect of skin and mucus (seborrhic dermatitis, mycotic defect of nails)

C.An episode of herpes zoster during the last five years

D.Risiding of infection of upper respiratory tracts (for example, bacterial sinuitis)

E. Minimum defeats of mucus (recurrent ulcers of mucus shell of oral cavity)

31.In the order of diminishing of probability of infection of HIV the transferred ways take
place in such sequence:
A. Sexual contact, contaminated blood transfusion, operation of tattoo, from breast milk,
transplacental transmission
B. Contaminated blood transfusion, transplacental transmission, sexual contact, operation of
tattoo, postnatal from mother milk
C. Transplatsental transmission, contaminated blood transfusion, postnatal from breast milk,
sexual contact, operation of tattoo
D. Contaminated blood transfusion, transplacental transmission, sexual contact, postnatal from
breast milk, operation of tattoo
E.Contaminated blood transfusion, sexual contact, transplacent transmission, operation of tattoo,
postnatal from breast milk

32.For today the effective methods of protection from HIV are:

A. Vaccination and immunoprotein
B. Chemoprophylactic
C. Isolation of patients
D. Safe sex and prevention of drug addiction
E. Disinfection

33.Curent treatment for HIV infection consists of highly active artiretroviral therapy.
Choose the correct combination of preparations:

A. 1 NRTIs + 2 IP
B. 2 NRTIs + 1 NNRTI
C. 3 NRTIs
D. 1 NRTIs + 1 IP+ 2 NNRTI
E. 2 NRTIs + 2 IP

34.Combinations of loss of body mass, sweating, recurrent аpthus stomatitis and girdle
herpes and lymphadenopathy, allowed a physician to assume HIV-infection. It can be
discovered at an additional inspection:

A. Increased correlation of CD4/CD8 lymphocyte

B. Diminished correlation of CD4/CD8 lymphocyte
C. Change of neutrophil formula to the left
D. Increased correlation of T8/T4 lymphocyte
E. Diminished correlation of T8/T4 of lymphocyte

35.A patient L., 25 years old, who complains of severe headache and fever, on the 6-day of
illness positive agglutination test with rickettsia reaction. What is the Vector of the disease:

A. Flea
B. Fly
C. Mosquitoes
D. Bee
E. Lice

36.A patient at the 5th day of fever has profuse rosy-petechia exanthema predominantly
located on the lateral surface of the torso and limbs flexion surfaces. Hyperemic, vascular
conjunctivitis, petechiae transition of anterior fold conjunctiva. What kind of illness can
you think?

A. Typhoid fever
B. Typhus
C. Measles
D.Haemorrhagic fever with renal syndrome
E.Crimean hemorrhagic fever

37.A patient 35 years old was hospitalized with a preliminary diagnosis «flu», a 5-day
illness appeared rosy-petechia rashes on the body and interior surfaces of the extremities.
The temperature of 41 °C, euphoria, hyperemia person, redness sclera, tongue tremor,
tachycardia, enlarged spleen; excitement. What is the likely diagnosis?

A.Typhoid fever
B.Leptospirosis
C.Alcohol deliry
D.Measles
E.Epidemic typhus

38.A patient 29 years, a few days ago, a chill, the temperature for 2-3 days increased to 39-
40 °C. There hyperemia and edema person,significant sclera like "drunk" person and
"rabbit" eyes. On the third day of illness – on mucuos of soft palate, parenthesis bright red
enantema is seen. At 3-4-day patient when trying to protrude the tongue, there was
hypermovement, tremor, rejecting it to the side. Diagnosis:

A. Epidemic typhus
B. Typhoid fever
C. The disease Brill
D. TBE
E. Scarlet fever

38.Capsule of Bacillus anthracis is formed of - ?

a. Polysaccaride
b. Lipopolysaccoride
c. Polypeptide
d. Long chain fatty acids
40.«Malignant pustule» is- ?
a. Anthrax ulcer
b. Proliferating rodent ulcer
 c. Malignant melanoma
d. Marjolin's ulce

41.A person working in an abattoir presented with pustule on hand which turned into ulcer
which will best help in diagnosis?

a. Trichrome methylene Blue

b. Carbol fuschin
c. Acid fast stain
d. Calcofiour white

42.A man after skinning a dead animal developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared
from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were
positive for Mc Fadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is ?

a. Clastridium tetani
b. Listeria monocytogenes
c. Bacillus anthracis
d. Actinomyces sp
43.A patient present to polyclinic having complaints of fever ,pain in joints,stomach pain
on examination there will be hepatosplinomeagly with arthritis and lymphadenopathy the
most probable diagnosis is

a. anthrax
b. tularemia
c. Plague
d. brucellosis

43.A malignant pustule is term used?

a. an infected malignant melanoma

b. carbuncle
c. rapidly spreading rodent ulcer
d. anthrax of skin

44.A man after skinning a dead animal,developed a pustule on his hand .A smear prepared
from the lesion showed the presence of gram positive for Mcfadyeans reaction .The most
likely ateological agent ?

a. clostridium tetani
b. listeria
c. bacillus anthrax
d. yersenia

45.An abattoir worker developed a pustule which latter progress to necrotic ulcer .Which
of the following stain is useful emonstration of organism from smear made from pustule?

a. polychromic methyline blue

b. chalkoflour white
c. geimsa
d. modified kinyon stain

46.A farmer rearing sheep presented with complaints of fever and weakness for last one
month there is generalised lymphadenopathy .there was also association hepatomeagly
biopsy of liver shows non ceasting granuloma .there mare most likeley due to infection with

a. yersenia pestis
b. brucella canis
c. brucella melitensis
d. francisella tularenesis

47.A farmerpresenting with the fever off and on for the past 4 years was diagnoised to be
suffering from chronic brucellosis .All the following serological test would be helpful in
diagnosis at this except?

a. standard agglutination test

b. 2 mercapto ethanol test
c. complement fixation test
d. coombs test

48.A veterniary doctor had pyrexia of unknown origin .His blood culture in special
labortary media was positive for gram negative short bacilli which is oxidase positive which
one of the following is the likely organism growth in culture?

a. pastrurella spp
b. franciscella
c. bortonella
d. brucella

49.A girl from shimla presented with fever,malaise,axxilary lymphadinopathy and

organism shows stalactile growth on culture .which of the following is causetive organism?

a.Y. pestis
b. E coli
c. staphylococcus
d. francisella

50.A young boy had a flea bite while working in a wheat grain godown .After 5 days he
developed a fever and had a axillary lymphadenopathy .A smear was sent to the laboratory
to performin a specific staining .Which one of the following method would helpin the
identification of the suspected pathogen?

a. Albert staining
b. Ziehl neelsen staining
c. McFadyeans staining
d. Wayson staining
51.Pregnant woman of 22.years old delivered in the ambulance. How should be treated the
child from the point of view of tetanus prophylactic?

a) AC-antitoxin
b) Anti tetanus serum
c) Tetanus toxoid + anti tetanus serum
d) Tetanus toxoid + anti tetanus serum + immunoprotein
e) Anti tetanus serum + immunoprotein

52.In case of tetanus the epidemiological measures are directed on:

a. Elimination of the source of tetanus

b. Treatment of the source of tetanus
c. Specific prophylaxis
d. Medicines prophylactics
e. Nothing should be performed

53.Among the listed below what preparations are not etiological for tetanus?

a) AC-anatoxin
b) Medical horse serum
c) Human immunoprotein
d) Anticonvulsant preparations
e) Penicillin

54.Among the listed below people who should receive an immediate prophylactic of the
tetanus in form of AC-Antitoxin and AC IP injections after trauma?

a. Man of 40 years, in anamnesis with 1 inoculation one year ago

b. Pregnant woman of 30 years, in the second half of pregnancy
c. Child, 7 months, instilled according to a calendar
d. Retire man of 57 years, who is not instilled
e. Child of 6 years, instilled according to a calendar

55.Among the listed below choose the complication of the tetanus, which is not early:

a. Tracheobronchitis
b. Contracture of muscles and joints
c. Asphyxia
d. Myocarditis
e. Pneumonia
56.When is possible to diagnose AIDS?

a. Only the content of CD4 less than 500 in 1 microlitre of blood

b. Only the conten of CD4 less than 400 in 1 microlitre of blood
c. Only the content of CD4 less than 300 in 1 microlitre of blood
d. Only the content of CD4 less than 200 in 1 microolitre of blood
e. Only the content of CD4 less than 100 in 1 microolitre of blood

57.When does begin antiviral therapy for infant of HIV-infected women?

a. In the first 8-12 hr after birth

b. from 24-36 hr after birth
c. Does not conduct
d. From a month
e. After diagnosis of AIDS

58.What dose of prophylaxis conducted by antiretroviral preparation after a contact with

blood and other biological liquids?

a. 600-800 mg/day
b. 700-800 mg/day
c. 800-1000 mg/day
d. 1000-1100 mg/day
e. 1100-1200 mg/day

59.What disease is occupied by the second place after frequency of the first defects at
AIDS?

a. Sarcoma Kaposhi's
b. Pneumocystis pneumonia
c. Meningitis
d. Encephalitis
e. Lymphadenomas of cerebrum

60.Violation of what stage of cell cycle does HIV predetermine stavudin?

a. Penetration of HIV in cells

b. Reverse transcription
c. Integration
d. Transcription
e. Translation
61.One person took rest on the bank of the lake. After 6 days he’s got fever (38,5 ?C) with
headache, muscle pain, sweating. Long after 3 days the painful swelling appeared in
inguinal area. During the exam of inguinal area was found the dense, mobile, painful
lymph nodes of 5 cm in diameter without any changes of skin. What will be the most
credible diagnosis?

a. Tularemia
b. Plague
c. Yersiniosis
d. Infectious mononucleosis
e. Leptospirosis

62.The main antibiotics, which used for tularemia treatment.

a. Penicillines
b. Vaccinotherapy
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Cephalosporines
e. Methronidazol

63.The contact mechanisms of the tularemia infection of the humans are the following

a. Due to water, food, straw and other substrata contaminated by the discharge of the
animals sick with tularemia
b. Contact with sick or dead rodents and hares
c. Bites of the infected blood-sucking arthropods
d. By means of a contact with sick man
e. During the belated agricultural work

64.Patient D., 35 years old, a cynologist, became ill suddenly. This disease begin from a
chill, severe pain in abdominal, temperature increased to 39,2 °C. Objectively: a face is
puffy, pile, with small cyanosis; a tongue is covered with white coating, as though rubbed
by a chalk. Nausea, vomits, diarrhea with the admixtures of mucus and blood. There are
the cases of plague in a district. What is the previous diagnosis?

a) Rabbit-fever, abdominal form

b) Plague, intestinal form
c) Cholera
d) Salmonellosis
e) Intestinal аmoеbiasis

65.In infectious department delivered a patient M., 22 years old, with complaints on
weakness, dizziness, vomiting, insomnia, chills, fever, acute pain in right iliac region. It is
second day of disease. During examination: impaired consciousness, insignificant
excitation, weak of cardiac sounds, tachycardia, pulse with weak filled and tensions. In
lungs changes were absent. By palpation – enlarged spleen. Ordinary sizes liver. In the
right iliac region painful conglomerate of enlarged lymph nodes, dense and elastic in
consistency, hyperemic skin above them. It is known from anamnesis that patient works as
a longshoreman in port. Put a clinical diagnosis.

a) Plague, bubonic form

b) Anthrax, generalized form
c) Plague, primary-pulmonary form
d) Tuberculosis of lungs
e) Tularemia, pulmonary form

66.Fungal cells that reproduce by budding are seen in the infected tissues of patients with

a. Candidiasis, cryptococcosis, and sporotrichosis

b. Mycetoma, candidiasis and mucormycosis
c. Tinea corporis, tinea unguium, and tinea versicolor
d. Sporotrichosis, mycetoma and aspergillosis

67.Aspergillosis is recognized in tissue by the presence of

a. Metachromatic granules
b. Psuedohyphae
c. Septate hyphae
d. Budding cells
69.Woman of 33 years was attacked and biten with a bat in the area of hand aggressively
and bit a woman in a hand. During the laboratory research the diagnosis of hydrophobia
was confirmed. What should be done for the urgent prophylactic of the hydrophobia in this
case?

a) Gamma-globulin and 18 doses of Kab

b) 12 doses of Kab
c) Gamma-globulin and 6 doses of Kab
d) Gamma-globulin and 21 dose of Kab
e) 2 doses of Kab

70.Student 27 years, ill gradually: appeared hyperemia, was swollen and itch of skin in
area of scars on the right forearm (three months back bit by a dog-fox). On the second day
the temperature of body raised to 38 °C, the symptoms of intoxication, hhydrophobia,
pphotophobia and sense of fear appeared. Periodically there were paroxysms of cramps.
What is the preliminary diagnosis?

a) Hydrophobia
b) Tetanus
c) Sausage-poisoning
d) Meningococcemia
e) Viral encephalitis

71.What periods of hydrophobia do you know?

a) Incubation, depressions, excitation

b) Incubation, depressions, excitation, paralytic
c) Depression, excitation, paralytic
d) Incubation, excitation, paralytic
e) Incubation, depressions, paralytic

72.To what group of infections does the hydrophobia belong?

a) Zoonosis
b) Anthroponosis
c) Capronosis
d) Anthropozoonosis
e) Caprozoonosis

73.The first symptom of prodromal period of hydrophobia is:

a) Cough
b) Nausea
c) Vomiting
d) Apathy and depression
e) Diarrhea

74.Most characteristic symptoms of the hydrophobia are:

a)Paroxysm of hydrophobia

b) Apathy and depression

c) Neuralgic pains on motion nervous barrels, the nearest to the place of bite

d) Dyspepsia disorders

e) Catarrhal phenomena

75.In case of tetanus the epidemiological measures are directed on:

a) Elimination of the source of tetanus

b) Treatment of the source of tetanus
c) Specific prophylaxis
d) Medicines prophylactics
e) Nothing should be performed

76.For the prophylaxis of leptospirosis use:

a) Active vaccine
b) Anavaccine
c) Toxoid
d) All
e) Antibiotics

77.During a walk in-field a fox attacked on a child, bit and disappear him feet and racemes
of hands. An animal disappeared. What is medical tactic.

a. To process a wound surgically

b. To process a wound soapy solution, to enter an antirabies immunoprotein and vaccine
c. Preventive antirabies vaccination
d. To process wounds surgically, to enter an antirabies immunoprotein and vaccine
e. Preventive antirabies immunoprotein

78.Select the antibiotic choice in Ornitosis for pregnant women:

a) Ampicillin
b) Azithromycin
c) Doxycyclin
d) Cloromphenicol

79.Exclude inappropriate test for Ornithosis diagnosis:

a) Culture
b) Skin allergic test
c) Agglutination tests
d) Immunofluorescent test

80.Most common clinical symptom of Ornitosis:

a) Diarrhea
b) Eyes symptoms
c) Pneumonia
d) Pancreatitis

81.Сhlamydias are characterised by:

a) carried by arthropod vectors

b) free of a cell wall
c) obligate intracellular bacteria
 d) produce exotoxin

82.Select the antibiotic choice in listeriosis:

a) Ampicillin
b) Streptomycin
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Cloromphenicol

83.Select the lab diagnosis of Listeriosis:

a) Bacterial culture
b) Agglutination test
c) Microscopy test
d) Skin allergic test

84.Select the symptoms of Listeriosis gastroenteritis:

a) self-limited disease
b) persistent diarrhea
c) dehydration
d) invasive colitis

85.Which one is not Clinical manifestation of Listerosis

a) Asymptomatic, or mild GI,

b) Arthritis
c) Bacteremia
d) Meningitis

86.Which one is not source of infection with Listeriosis in natural foci

a) Fresh and frozen poultry

b) Raw milk and cheese
c) Fruit and vegetables
d) Cakes

87.A 53 years old woman comes to emergency department because of 1 week history of
fever headache neck stiffness and photophobia. Her CD4 + T lymphocyte count is
45cell/mm3. Which of the following diagnosis is:

a) Meningococcal meningitis
b) Japanese encephalitis
c) HIV-infection
d) Cancer of brain

88.The clinical sign of primary HIV infection is:

a) Fever
b) Tonsillitis phenomena
c) Diarrhea
d) Increase in peripheral lymph nodes
 e) Increase in liver and spleen

88.The penetration of HIV into the cell is carried out by the CD4 receptors of the following
cells, with the exception of:

a) The glial cells of the nervous system

b) Colorectal epitheliocytes
c) T-suppressors
d) Monocytes
e) Macrophages

89.Which one is patient with HIV-infection:

a) Persistent generalized lymphadenopathy (PGL)

b) PGL+  Acute Retroviral Syndrome (ARS)
c) Anti-HIV(+)
d) CD4+:CD8+ <1+ anti-HIV(+)
e) Anti-HIV(+)+opportunistic infection or tumor

90.Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase

inhibitor:

a) Efavirenz
b) Lamivudine
c) Nevirapine
d) Lopinavir

91.Which of the following antiretroviral drugs is a non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase

inhibitor:

a) Zidovudine
b) Efavirenz
c) Lamivudin
d) Tenofovir

92.The most common late CNS complication of HIV is –

a) Delirium
b) Ataxia
c) Seizures
d) Dementia

93.Cutaneus markers of HIV is –

a) Seborrhoe
b) Vesicular rash
c) Oral candidiasis
d) Photosensitivity

94.A HIV patient complains of visual disturbances. Examination shows bilateral retinal
exudates and perivascular hemorrhages. Which of the following viruses are most likely to
be responsible for this retinitis –

a) Herpes simplex virus

b) Human herpes virus 8
c) Cytomegalovirus
d) Epstein-Barr virus

95.A patient with HIV has diarrhea with AFB+ve organism in stool. The most likely
organism is

a) Mycobacterium avium intracellulare

b) Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c) Mycobacterium leprae
d) Mycoplasmas

96.Multifocal tumour of vascular origin in a patient of AIDS is –

a) Kaposi’s sarcoma
b) Astrocytoma
c) Gastric carcinoma
d) Toxoplasmosis

97.A 30-year old HIV positive patient presents with fever, dyspnoea and non-productive
cough. Patient is cyanosed. His chest X-ray reveals bilateral, symmetrical interstitial
infiltrates. The most likely diagnosis is –

a) Tuberculosis
b) Cryptococcosis
c) Pneumocystis pneumonia
d) Toxoplasmosis

98.The AIDS stage by WHO is determined by the following disease –

a) General lymphadenopathy
b) Weight loss of at least 10% of body weight
c) Pneumocystis pneumonia
d) Oral candidiasis
e) Herpes zoster

100.“Window period” in HIV is defined as –

a) CD4 count < 200

b) Period between onset of infection and clinically detectable level of antibodies
c) Period between infection and appearance of symptoms
d) Time between HIV positivity to AIDS

101. A patient comes to hospital with a history of sore throat, diarrhea and sexual
contact 2 weeks before. The best investigation to rule out HIV is –

a) p 24 antigen assay
b) ElISA
 c) Western blot
d) Lymph node biopsy

102. A patient develops hepatosplenomegaly, lymphadenopathy following sexual contact

3 weeks back. The best test to rule out HIV infection is –

a) p24 Ag
b) Western blot
c) ELISA
d) Lymph node biopsy

103. The chance that a health worker gets HIV from an accidental needle prick is –

a) 1%
b) 10%
c) 95%
d) 100%

104. Which one is not true about perinatal transmission of HIV,

a) Cannot be diagnosed by routine confirmatory test

b) Postnatal transmission is not possible
c) Infant transmission rate is < 50%
d) Virus cannot be isolated from mother’s milk

105. True about HIV in pregnancy –

a) Perinatal transmission common

b) Lower segment Cesarian section (LSCS) increases chances of transmission significantly
c) Less than 5% chance of transmission
d) Pregnancy predisposes to HIV infection

106. Which one of the following is true regarding HIV infection –

a) Following needle stick injury infectivity is reduced by administration of nucleoside

analogues
b) CD4 counts are the best predictors of disease progression
c) Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patient
d) In latent phase HIV has minimal replication

107. HIV affects characteristically –

a) CD4 lymphocytes only

b) CD4 cells + macrophages
c) Natural killer cells
d) Helper cells

108. HIV infects most commonly –

a) CD4+ helper cells

b) CD8+ cells
c) Macrophage
 d) Neutrophil

109. Reverse transcriptase sequence on HIV is best described as -

a) RNA – DNA – RNA

b) DNA – RNA
c) RNA – DNA – RNA
d) RNA – DNA

110. The rabies virus reaches the central nervous system by:

a) The ethmoid bone

b) Lymphatic
c) Hematogenous
d) Perineural

111. Precursory symptom’s of rabies is:

a) Headache
b) Increase in body temperature to subfebrile
c) Aching pain in the wound area
d) Excitation, euphoria

112. The pathology of rabies virus occur in defeat:

a) Salivary glands
b) Neuromuscular synapses
c) Gray matter of the brain
d) Peripheral nerve

113. Symptoms of CNS in leptospirosis :

a) Aseptic meningo-encephalitis
b) Encephalitis
c) Radiculoneuritis
d) Paralysis of the cranial nerves

114. When leptospirosis epidemiologically detected :

a) Contact with febrile patients

b) Tick bite
c) Swimming in natural waters
d) Blood Transfusions

115. Effective antimicrobial for the treatment of leptospirosis :

a) Gentamicin
b) Penicillin
c) Streptomycin
d) Erythromycin
116. How is leptospirosis, caused by Leptospira interrogans, transmitted?

a) Tick bite
b) Contaminated urine in food or water
c) Undercooked meat
d) Inhaled aerosol

117.Diagnosis of plague can be confirmed by –

a) Immunofluorescence stain
b) Clinical symptoms of plague
c) Isolation of Yersinia pestis

117. Which of these is not a sign and symptom of bubonic plague

a) Pain and tenderness at regional lymph nodes

b) Ulcer at site of flea bites
c) Gas gangrene
d) Productive cough

118. Prophylactic treatment for the plague

a) Doxycycline and ciprofloxacin

b) Chloramphenicol
c) Gentamycin and streptomycin
d) Only ciprofloxacin

119. Drug of choice for the plague in pregnant women –

a) Streptomycin
b) Doxycycline
c) Gentamycin
d) Ciprofloxacin

120. Chemoprophylaxis for person in contact with patients of pneumonic plague is –

a) Penicillin
b) Tetracycline
c) Erythromycin
d) Rifampicin

121. Most common form of plague

a) Bubonic
b) Pneumonic
c) Septicemic
d) Menengial

122. Drug of choice for the plague is-

a) Tetracycline
b) Chloramphenicol
c) Streptomycin
d) Vaccination

123. Concerning plague

a) It is caused by bacillus pestis

b) The main vector is rat
c) Pneumonic form is more common
d) Fraction 1 antigen in the bacterial capsular envelope confers antiphagocytic activity

124. Which of the following vaccines is recommended for immunization against the
plague

a) Live
b) Killed
c) Subunit

125. Which one of the following is not a control measure for epidemic of human plague

a) Vaccination
b) Chemoprophylaxis
c) Disinfection
d) Rodent control

126. The bubo of bubonic plague is a/an

a) enlarged lymph node

b) granuloma in the skin
c) infected sebaceous gland
d) ulcer where the flea bite occurred

127. How did scientist prove that the black death was a strain of bubonic plague?

a) DNA testing
b) DDT testing
c) DTaP testing
d) RNA testing

128. Most dangerous for transmitting plague is

a) Blocked flea
b) Partially blocked flea
c) Unblocked flea
d) None of the above
129. Basic cycle of epidemic of bubonic plague is

a) Commensal rat > rat fleas> man

b) Wild rats > flea> man
c) Wild rodents> mans
d) Man>man

130. Which continent did the black plague start in?

a) Africa
b) Europe
c) Asia
d) North America

131. Primary symptoms of diseases may be listlessness, anorexia and headache. Then are
followed by watery, mucoid diarrhea (78-96%); fever (43-47%); abdominal pain (22-84%);
bloody stools (< 10%); and leucocytes in the stool (25%). The diarrhea generally has
duration of 1 day to 3 weeks, in stool culture were observed Yersinia species. What type of
Yersinia species possible?

a) Y. pestis
b) Y. pseudotuberculosis
c) Y. enterocolitica
d) Y. frederiksenii
e) Y. intermedia, 

132. Patient 25 years, complaints of double vision, a decreasing of vision, shortness of

breath. Before the disease he ate mushrooms of home preservation. Objective: pallor, wide
pupils with a weak reaction on light, dry mouth, a violation of swallowing, flatulence,
constipation. What is preliminary diagnosis?

a) Cholera 
b) Yersiniosis
c) Botulism 
d) Typhoid fever 
e) Salmonellosis 

133. Choose the true regarding about Intestinal Yersiniosis:

a) Diarrhea is the most common clinical manifestation of this infection

b) High grade fever
c) Projectile vomiting
d) Upper epigastric pain

134. Which part of gastrointestinal tract more often affected at Intestinal Yersiniosis?

a) Gastric
b) Duodenum
c) Jejunum
d) Ileum
e) Colon

135. However, some gastoenterologists, would say that antibiotic treatment of Yersinia
infection should be initiated only when the patient has significant and persisting symptoms
of :

a) Peritonitis
b) Gastroenteritis
c) Infectious diarrhea
d) Hepatitis

136. Y. enterocolitica infections are sometimes followed by chronic inflammatory

diseases such as:

a) Hepatitis
b) Arthritis
c) Vasculitis
d) Meningitis

137. Symptoms involving enterosgel-colitis, fever, mesenteric adenitis, erythema

nodosum and acute terminal ileitis occur at:

a) Appendicitis
b) Yersinia infection  
c) Lyme disease
d) Gastroenteritisт

138. Choose the features of rash at Intestinal Yersiniosis:

a) Spotted, feel like confluence on the symmetric areas of trunk and extremities, disappears
during a 3-4 days;
b) Papullar and roseola on the sides of trunk, on the extensoric surfaces of upper extremities;
c) Punctulate, scarlatiniform on the under body of abdomen, feel like confluence, symmetric,
disappears in 3-4 days;
d) Small macular, feel like confluence on the bottom areas of abdomen and on overhead part of
thighs, disappears in 3 days;
e) Small macular, point, on the symmetric areas of trunk and extremities, does disappear on the
extent of 3-4 days

139. What methods are used for diagnostics of Yersiniosis:

a) Bacteriological method
b) Serum researches
c) Immunoenzyme analysis
d) Bioassay

140. Tetanus is very dangerous disease because Clostridium botulini produces exotoxin.
How does this toxin act?

a) Stimulates adenyl cyclise

b) Neurotoxin which cause flaccid paralyzes
c) Inhibits guanyl cyclise
d) Cleaves ribosomal RNA
e) Stimulates production of cytokines

141. A child at-risk for Tetanus is treated with Tetanus immune globulin (human). What
is a major advantage of this method for immunization over the use of Tetanus toxoid
Which phrase best describes the immunity that is produced?

a) Poses a reduced risk of serum sickness

b) Provides longer-lasting immunity
c) Provides protection more rapidly
d) Results in higher antibody titer
e) Also provides secretory IgA for mucosal immunity

144. A ten-year-old girl has dirty, crushing, wounds, received when she fell from a
motorcycle. She has never been immunized against Tetanus. Which of the following should
you administer?

a) Tetanus immune globulin (human)

b) Tetanus toxoid
c) Tetanus toxoid, Tetanus immune globulin (human)mixed and administered as a single
injection
d) No immunization
e) Tetanus toxoid plus Tetanus immune globulin (human),injected at separate sites

145. Diagnosis of tetanus can be confirmed by –

1. Tetanus antibody test
2. Culture at wound site
3. Immunofluorescence stain
4. None of the above

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2
c) 2, 3
d) 4

146. Management of muscle spasm and autonomic dysfunction does not include

a) Benzodiazapenes
b) Anti-biotics
c) Beta blockers
d) GABA –A agonist

147. In some cases incubation period of tetanus is more than 30 days because

a) It is a chronic disease
b) The infection is milder so it takes longer incubation period
c) It is caused by some week strains of C.tetani
d) Stimulation of inhibitory synapse

148. Which is the most common form of tetanus?

a) Localized
b) Generalized
c) Cephalic
d) Neonatal
149. Most common Injury and condition that causes tetanus

a) Injection drug user

b) Puncture
c) Laceration
d) Abrasion

150. Which is currently the most common source of infection that leads to tetanus?

a) Chronic skin ulcers

b) Minor wounds
c) Corneal abrasion
d) Intranasal inhalation

151. Tetanus was 1st described by –

a) Hippocrates
b) Carle and rattone
c) Kitasato
d) Nocard

152. Which one is not true about anti-tetanus serum?

a) It develops passive immunity

b) It produces serum sickness
c) It induces anaphylaxis
d) Immunity induced by anti-tetanus toxin persists for more than 1 year

153. Neurotoxin of tetanus moves from site of wounds to CNS through –

a) Arterial blood
b) Peripheral nerves
c) Perineueral lympatics
d) Unknown route

154. How does tetanus toxin acts on human body?

a) Stimulation of inhibitory synapse

b) Stimulation of polysynaptic reflex
c) Blocking of inhibitory synapse
d) Stimulation of excitatory synapse

155. A person contracts cryptogenic tetanus from which of the following sources?

a) Unknown source and origin

b) Soil
c) Contaminated animals
d) Dirty clothes

156. Which of the following poison mimic tetanus in its manifestations:

a) Calpotropis procera
b) Dhatura alba
c) Semicarpus anacardium
d) Strychnos Nux Vomica

157. Tetanus is caused by spread of:

a) Exotoxin in sympathetic system

b) Exotoxin in para sympathetic system
c) Endotoxin in sympathetic system
d) Endotoxin in parasympathetic system

158. The mode of spread of tetanus neurotoxinfrom blood to brain is:

a) Via lymphaties
b) Arterial blood
c) Cranial nerves

159. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre.
She has not had any antenatal visit till now. The best approach regarding tetanus
immunization in this case would be to:

a) Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain to her that it will not protect the new
born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she delivers in the meantime
b) Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnancy
c) Give one dose of TT and explain that it will not be useful for this pregnancy
d) Give her anti-tetanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine

160.Regarding the management of tetanus

a) Muscle relaxants form the main treatment

b) Tetanus immunoglogulin is recommended
c) Oral metronidazole is the antibiotic of choice
d) Infection leads to immunity

161.Differential diagnoses of tetanus may include:

a) Drug reaction
b) Hypocalcaemia
c) Strychnine poisoning
d) Sepsis

162.What causes the major symptoms of tetanus?

a) Multiplication of the organisms at the site of the infection

b) Production of botulin toxin
c) Bacteria multiplying in bloodstream
Production of tetanospasmin
163.A 21-year young boy met RTA and sustained multiple deep penetrating wound on
body. He has never been vaccinated for any disease in his life. Regarding secondary
prevention of tetanus for this man. Which of the following vaccination protocol should be
followed?

a) Tetanus toxoid only

b) Tetanus toxoid and TIG
c) TIG only
d) Neither tetanus toxoid nor TIG

164.The following are recognized complication of tetanus

a) Type 1 respiratory failure

b) Pulmonary embolism
c) Bradycardia
Renal failure

165.Tetanus vaccine is:

a) Given in childhood as 3 separate doses 2 months apart

b) A combined vaccine
c) Made with unmodified toxin
d) Associated with an increased immune response when given with diphtheria vaccine

166.The following has been used to manage tetanus induced autonomic instability

a) Atropine
b) Esmolol
c) Dexmedetomidine
d) Clonidine

167. Tetanospasmin is also known as the:

a) D-E toxin
b) C-D toxin
c) B-C toxin
d) A-B toxin

168.Which of the following symptoms is not caused by tetanus

a) Muscle spasms
b) Stiffness of abdominal muscles
c) Locked jaw
d) Increased appetite

169.The tetanus vaccine works by

a) Injecting inactivated toxins into the patient

b) Injecting activated toxins into the patient
c) Injecting inactivated bacteria into the patient
d) Injecting activated bacteria into the patient

170.To get the tetanus a person must have

a) An impaired immune system

b) An open wound (non-surgical)
c) A family history of tetanus
d) A high stress lifestyle

171.A unique feature of tetanus is

a) Drooling
b) Fever
c) Sweating
d) Muscle spasm in jaw and neck
172.The action of tetanus exotoxin is on the:

a) neuromuscular junction
b) sensory neurons
c) spinal interneurons
d) nucleus of hypocamp

173.What part of body does tetanus affect the most?

a) Skin
b) Nerves and skeletal muscles
c) Teeth
d) Blood

174.How often should DT boosters (tetanus shots) be given?

a) Every 15 years
b) Every 5 years
c) Every 10 years
d) Every 3 years
175.What is the normal incubation period of tetanus?

a) 12 -31 days
b) 1-5 weeks
c) 2-3 weeks
d) 3-21 days

176.Which one of the following statements concerning the organisms that cause brucellosis
is COR-RECT?

a) Brucellae are transmitted primarily by tick bite

b) The principal reservoirs of brucellae are small rodents
c) Brucellae are found in reticuloendothelial cells and often cause granulomatous lesions
d) Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human
cell culture
e) Brucellae are obligate intracellular parasites that are usually identified by growth in human
cell culture
177.The changes in peripheral blood in brucellosis are:

a) Normo- or leukopenia, lympho-, monocytosis

b) leukocytosis, shift of leukocyte formula to the left
c) increased of ESR
d) presence of atypical mononuclear cells
e) presence of plasma cells

178.The main factor of brucella pathogenicity:

a) endotoxin
b) exotoxin
c) adhesion
d) chemotaxis
e) colonization

179.What is most often affected in brucellosis:

a) Respiratory system
b) digestive system
c) musculoskeletal system
d) hematopoietic system
e) visual apparatus

180.What is the feature of latent brucellosis:

a) no complaints and clinical manifestations with a weak immune response

b) manifest disease course
c) short-term temperature rise to low figures
d) early appearance of monoarthritis and sacroiliitis
e) isolated lesion of the nervous system

181.What are the reasons of the seasonal increase of brucellosis morbidity in endemic
areas:

a) Epizootic diseases among rodents

b) mass livestock mortality
c) cattle lambing
d) the beginning of the hunting season
e) the beginning of the harvest season for fruits and vegetables

182.What is the Immunity after the transferred brucellosis:

a) Sterile
b) lasting
c) unstrained, short lasting
d) congenital
e) passive

183. Determine the sequence of clinical forms of brucellosis in proper order:

1. Acute brucellosis
2. residual brucellosis
3. chronic brucellosis
4. subacute brucellosis
5. .the incubation period

a) 5, 1, 2, 4, 3
b) 5, 1, 4, 3, 2
c) 5,1, 4, 2, 3
d) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3
e) 1, 5, 4, 3, 2

184. Determine pathogenesis phase sequence in brucellosis:

1. Phase of residual metamorphosis
2. phase of polyfocal localizations
3. hematogenous phase
4. the lymphogenic phase
5.exo-granulation phase

a) 4, 5, 2, 1, 3
b) 4,3, 2, 5, 1
c) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2
d) 5, 3, 4, 2, 1
e) 4, 3, 2, 1, 5

185.The drug of choice for etiotropic treatment of brucellosis is:

a) Doxycycline
b) Cefotaxime
c) Biseptol
d) penicillin

186.The causative agent of the most severe forms of brucellosis is:

a) B. Melitensis
b) B. Canis
c) B. Suis
d) B. abortus bovis

187.The brucellosis is characterized by the following:

a) The causative agent is chlamydia

b) possible transmissive way
c) the most dangerous source of infection is flies
d) the infection most often occurs by alimentery or contact ways
e) characterized by purulent-inflammatory changes in various organs

188.The brucellosis is characterized by the following:

a) Small joints of the hands and feet are mainly affected

b) possible development of orchitis and epididymitis
c) diarrhea syndrome
d) developing of maculopapular rash
 e) purulent meningitis possible complications

189.What is the epidemiological brucellosis characteristics:

a) The causative agent are rickettsia

b) the most important source of infection is cattle
c) a sick person can be a source of infection
d) transmissive way is possible.
e) a strong immunity development

190.Which of the following tests is specific for brucellosis diagnosis:

a) Wright- Heddelson serological reaction

b) general blood test
c) general urine test
d) general feces test

191.Which combination of symptoms is most typical in Brucellosis?

a) fever, pneumonia
b) fever, pneumonia, lymphadenopathy
c) fever, hepatosplenomegaly
d) fever, arthritis, lymphadenopathy, hepatosplenomegaly

192.Which organs are most affected with Brucellosis?

a) Skin
b) joints
c) brain
d) eyes

193.Specify the clinical classification in Brucellosis infection

a) Acute, subacute, chronic

b) Typical, atypical
c) Localized, generalized
d) Chronic form

194.How many periods are there in the course of the brucellosis disease?

a) 3
b) 2
c) 5
d) 4
e) 1

195.The complex treatment in brucellosis is consisted of the next: 1) non-steroidal anti-

inflammatory drugs 2) vitamins 3) physiotherapy methods and exercise therapy 4)
balneotherapy

a) true 1), 2), 3)

b) True 1), 3)
c) True 2), 4)
d) True 4)
e) True 1), 2), 3), 4)

196.The most effective treatment in brucellosis are the following antibacterial drugs: 1)
doxycycline 2) streptomycin 3) gentamicin 4) ciprofloxacin

a) true 1), 2), 3)

b) True 1), 3)
c) True 2), 4)
d) True 4)
e) true 1), 2), 3), 4)

197.Antibacterial therapy in brucellosis is carried out at:

a) Acute form
b) Acute and subacute form
c) Acute, subacute and exacerbation of the chronic form of the disease
d) Subacute form

198.How long is the treatment course in brucellosis with antibiotics:

a) for a week
b) for 2 weeks
c) for 6 weeks
d) for a month
e) for 2 month

199.Which of the following reactions is applied for the serological diagnosis of chronic
brucellosis:

a) Agglutination reaction by Wright - Heddleson

b) general blood test
c) general urine test
d) simple blood test

200.The main clinical symptoms of chronic brucellosis include the next lesions: 1. the
musculoskeletal system; 2. the central nervous system; 3. the peripheral nervous system; 4.
the gastrointestinal tract

a) true 1), 2), 3)

b) true 1), 3)
c) true 2), 4)
d) true 4)
true 1), 2), 3), 4)

201.What are the main clinical symptoms of acute brucellosis: 1) fever, lymphadenopathy
2) chills, sweating 3) enlargement of the liver and spleen 4) focal lesions

a) true 1), 2), 3)

b) True 1), 3)
c) True 2), 4)
 d) True 4)
e) true 1), 2), 3), 4)

202.What is the duration of chronic brucellosis process

a) Up to 3 months
b) Up to 6 months
c) Over 6 months
d) More than a year

203.What is the duration of subacute brucellosis process:

a) up to 3 months
b) from 3 to 6 months
c) over 6 months
d) more than a year

204.In the acute form of brucellosis, the duration of the process is:

a) up to 3 months
b) from 3 to 6 months
c) over 6 months
d) more than a year

205.Sensitization in brucellosis is manifested after:

a) 1 week
b) 2 weeks
c) 3 weeks
d) 4 weeks or more
206. Indicate the most common complications of pulmonary Anthrax:

a) Intestinal perforation
b) exudative pleurisy
c) hemorrhagic pulmonary edema
d) intestinal bleeding

207.The patient is diagnosed as "Anthrax, a cutaneous form, a mild period." This patient:

a) Can continue to be treated as an outpatient

b) If desired, the patient is hospitalized
c) Continues treatment in hospital
d) Patient is hospitalized and isolated

208.The source of infection in Anthrax is:

a) Only a sick person

b) The sick person and the carrier
c) Ticks
d) Sick animals
e) Bacteria carriers
209.What is the clinical Anthrax variant:

a) Anginous
b) Carbunculous
c) Pseudoreumatic
d) catarrhal

210.The erythematous variety of Anthrax is characterized by:

a) The formation of a carbuncle with a black scab

b) formation of blisters with serous contents
c) edema of the skin without visible carbuncle
d) blurred vision
yellowish palms and soles

211.Which of the following is most affected in the generalized form of Anthrax:

a) Brain
b) Liver
c) Kidneys
d) Heart
e) Lungs
212.The most common localization of Anthrax carbuncle:

a) Head
b) neck
c) body
d) upper limbs
e) lower limbs
213.The following methods are used to diagnose anthrax:

a) Agglutination reaction by Wright - Heddleson

b) serological Widal's reaction
c) bacterioscopic and bacteriological methods
d) blood test

214.Which of the skin form of anthrax is the most severe:

a) cutaneous
b) pulmonary
c) gastrointestinal
d) cepticemia

215.Choose NON effective drug for Anthrax:

a) Benzylpenicillin
b) Doxycycline
c) Ciprofloxacin
d) Chloromphenicol
e) Cephalosporin
216.Which of these symptoms of Anthrax carbuncle is NOT typical:

a) Black scab
b) secondary vesicle
c) edema
d) pain
217.What are the preventive veterinary-sanitary measures in anthrax:

a) Isolation and treatment of sick animals

b) Disinfection in the outbreak with the observance of the necessary rules for burial of
cadavers in cattle cemeteries
c) Control over the release and sale of animal raw materials
d) Vaccination of animals and humans
e) All of the above

218.Which of the following is used for conducting anthrax immunotherapy:

a) Specific globulin
b) Serum
c) Vaccine
d) Antiobiotics
219.Cutaneous form of anthrax is most common differentiated with:

a) The banal carbuncle

b) Erysipelas
c) Cutaneous form of plague
d) Ulcer-bubonic form of tularaemia

220.Possible complications and outcomes for cutaneous anthrax:

a) Recovery
b) Lethal outcome
c) Secondary septicemia
d) Toxico-infectious shock