Api 653

Introduction and Workbook
API-653
API-653 - Inspection, Repair,
Pre-Course Alteration, & Reconstruction
Workbook API-650 - Welded Steel

and Storage Tanks
Examination Study
Guide API-651 - Cathodic
Protection
API-652 - Lining
Aboveground Tanks
API - 2207 - Preparing for

Presented by: Hot Work
Hellier API-2015 - Safe Entry &

Codes & Standards Cleaning of Tanks
Training
API-575 - Inspection of
and Storage Tanks
BAY Technical ASME Section IX - Welding

Associates, Inc. Qualifications
(610) 594-9036
ASME Section V -
Nondestructive Examination
Subject Issue Date Revision Date Page
Introduction & Workbook 08/98 07/00 1
Statement
This course manual has been prepared by BAY Technical Associates, Inc., strictly for the use
of attendees to this Hellier/BAY Tech API-653 Examination Preparation Course. This
manual is to be used as an aid to assist those persons wishing to take the API-653
Aboveground Storage Tank Inspector Certification Examination. This manual is not all-
inclusive and may not be used in place of any recognized Code or Standard.
The information contained in this manual was obtained from the author’s research and
experience and through numerous published resources including:
American Petroleum Institute Codes, Standards, and Recommended Practices:

API-653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction
API-650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage
API-575, Inspection of Atmospheric and Low Pressure Storage Tanks
API-651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tanks
API-652, Lining of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tank Bottoms
API-2015, Cleaning Petroleum Storage Tanks
API-2207, Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hoe Work
American Society of Mechanical Engineers (ASME) Boiler & Pressure Vessel Codes:
ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination
ASME Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications
“The Procedure Handbook of Arc Welding”, Twelfth Edition: The Lincoln Electric Co.
“Metals and How to Weld Them”, Second Edition: The James F. Lincoln Arc Welding
Foundation.
This manual may not be reproduced by any means without the express written consent
of BAY Technical Associates, Inc.
API-653 Exam Prep Course BAY Technical Associates, Inc. (610) 594-9036
Preface
The API-653 Aboveground Storage Tank Inspector Certification Examination consists of two
parts; an “Open Book” part and a “Closed Book part. The open book portion of the
examination contains approximately forty to fifty-five (40 to 55) questions. This part of the
examination requires the use of detailed information that the inspector must be able to
research in the permitted documents, and is not expected to have committed to memory. Not
all open book questions are mathematical in nature. The closed book portion of the
examination represents the remaining questions. Some of the closed book questions require
the applicant to perform basic math; remember to have your calculator available. The closed
book portion tests the inspector on knowledge and tasks requiring everyday working
knowledge of API Standard 653 and the applicable reference documents.
This examination preparation course is designed to prepare the participant to successfully sit
for the API-653 exam. Through your concentrated effort, and the material provided in this
course, you should have sufficient information to pass the examination.
The majority of the classroom study will focus on the “Open Book” portion of the exam. The
goal, since this is open book, is to obtain a perfect score in this section. Study for the
practical questions (Closed Book) will be included in the daily classroom activity and
assigned homework.
The material contained in this manual is to be thoroughly studied and practiced prior to
attending the course. The math examples and practice problems are based on the types of
questions given on the API-653 exam. Through the use of these examples, you will be
exposed to many of the formulas used during the course.
Remember, this is a very intense course. There will be eight hours of classroom study each
day. The instructor will be available by phone, fax, or e-mail each evening between 7:00pm
and 9:00pm to answer questions or to assist any participant having difficulty with the
homework assignments or any topic discussed during class. Typically, there will be two to
three hours of homework assignments each day. Daily quizzes are given and one practice
API-653 examination is provided. The pace is fast and focused.
The participant is responsible for making all arrangements for taking the examination
including confirming your eligibility and applying to the American Petroleum Institute.
Introduction:
Objective for this section:
At the end of this section, you should be able to:
1. List the required reference manuals you must bring to the course
2. List the reference material permitted during the exam
3. Know where you can obtain ASME and API Code books
4. List what material will be provided during the course
5. Explain the structure of the API-653 Exam
How to use this Pre-Course Study Guide:
1. Review the basic math skills section and complete the practice math test.
2. Complete the reading assignments,
3. Research and answers the questions in the "Practical Questions" section of this
study guide (chapters 2 through 10).
4. Compare your answers with the answer guide at the end of each section.
Required Reference Material
You must bring the following API Standards, API Recommended Practices (RP), ASME
Code books, and material with you to the course:
1. API Standard 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage, 10th Edition
2. API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction, 2nd
Edition, December 1995; including Addendum 1, 2, & 3
3. API Standard 2015, Safe Entry and Cleaning of Petroleum Storage Tanks, 5th
Edition (May 1994)
4. API Publication 2207, Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hot Work, 5th Edition
(September 1998)
5 API RP - 575, Inspection of Atmospheric & Low Pressure Storage Tanks, 1st
Edition, (November, 1995)
6. API RP - 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tanks, 2nd
Edition (December 1997)
7. API RP - 652, Lining of Aboveground Storage Tank Bottoms, 2nd Edition
(December 1997)
8. ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination, 1998 Edition & 1999 Addenda
9. ASME Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications, 1998 Edition & 1999
Addenda
10. This Study Manual
11. Non-Programmable Calculator
To order ASME Code books, you may call the ASME at 1(800) THE-ASME (843-2763) or
you can write them at:
ASME Order Department

22 Law Drive
Box 2300
Fairfield, NJ 07007-2300
To order API Documents, you may call them at: 1(202) 682-8375 or you can write them at:
American Petroleum Institute

Order desk
1220 L Street
Washington, DC 20005
Hellier and BAY Technical Associates, Inc. will not provide Code books.
Hellier and BAY Technical Associates, Inc. will provide:
1. Pre-course Study Manual

2. Student Reference Manual (Provided on Day-one)
3. Certificate of Completion
Hellier and BAY Technical Associates, Inc. will have available for reference:
1. Welding reference books

2. Overhead transparencies
3. Various applicable reference documents
The structure of the API-653 Examination:

The API-653 Examination is given on Saturday September 23,2000. The exam consists of an
open book portion and a closed book portion You will have not more than five hours to
complete the entire examination. The questions consist of multiple choice and true/false type
questions.
You are permitted and required to use the following Reference books during the open book
portion of the exam:
1. API Standard 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage, 10th Edition
2. API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction, 2nd
Edition, December 1995; including Addendum 1 - 3
3. API Standard 2015, Safe Entry and Cleaning of Petroleum Storage Tanks, 5th
Edition (May 1994)
4. API Publication 2207, Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hot Work, 5th Edition
(September 1998)
5 API RP - 575, Inspection of Atmospheric & Low Pressure Storage Tanks, 1st
Edition, (November, 1995)
6. API RP - 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tanks, 2nd
Edition (December 1997)
7. API RP - 652, Lining of Aboveground Storage Tank Bottoms, 2nd Edition
(December 1997)
8. ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination, 1998 Edition & 1999 Addenda
9. ASME Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications, 1998 Edition & 1999
Addenda
No reference material of any kind will be permitted during the closed book portion; some
examining proctors may permit language translation dictionaries. There will be some
common knowledge mathematical questions on the practical portion of the exam - remember
to have your calculator available for this part of the exam.
During this course, we will attempt to duplicate actual examination conditions including
using a separate answer sheet during the practice examination.
NOTES
Reading Assignments:
At the end of this section, you should:

1. Have completed the reading assignments
2. Be familiar with the layout and structure of each API Standards, API
Recommended Practices, and ASME Code Books used in the course and on the
exam. (These Standards, RPs, and Code books will be referred to as "Reference
books" in this section)
3. Compile a list of questions concerning paragraphs/subjects you do not understand.
The classroom portion of this American Petroleum Institute examination preparation course
is focused on the "open book" portion of the exam. A thorough understanding each reference
book is also essential in order to answer the closed book questions on the exam. All
Reference books will be reviewed and discussed during the course. Many hours of the
homework assignments will be reading selected portions of each Reference book.
The course begins up-to-speed on day one and continues until the practice exam. It is
essential that you complete the "pre-course" reading assignments. You are not expected
understand all that you read, but the familiarity gained will assist you in keeping up and not
becoming overwhelmed on the first day of class. If during the course of reading this material
you have questions, do not dwell too long on the subject. Write your question down and be
sure to ask for clarification during the course.
Do not try to memorize Reference book paragraphs at this time, selected portions will be
pointed out for highlighting and memorization during the course. Studying and researching
the example questions and answers provided in the "Pre-Course Workbook and Study Guide"
should be sufficient for exam purposes. The first thing one realizes, when they begin working
with these Reference books, is that they are dynamic and change constantly. An inspector
should never rely on memorized passages, but should instead always research the answer to a
question; that is why understanding the structure of the Reference books is imperative.
Reading Assignments:
It is highly recommended that you obtain a set of tabs or binder index pages. The API
permits tabs, indexes, highlighting, underlining, and some written notes in the margins; they
do not permit any type of inserted pages in the Reference books.
API Standard 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage:
Title Paragraph(s) Pages(s)

Foreword All iii
Asbestos Information All iv
Required Ordering Information All xiii
Section 1 - Scope All 1-1 through 1-4
Section 2 - Materials All 2-1 through 2-8
Section 4 - Fabrication All 4-1
Section 7 - Welding All 7-1 through 7-2
Section 8 - Marking All 8-1 through 8-2
API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction:
Entire document must be read. You should be thoroughly familiar with this standard.
API Standard 2015, Safe Entry and Cleaning of Petroleum Storage Tanks
Read this entire document - remember this is a safety code to help ensure your ability to
survive your daily work. The API takes a dim view of your answers to questions if they could
result in injury to yourself or others.
API Publication 2207, Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hot Work
Entire document must be read. You should be thoroughly familiar with this publication
API Recommended Practice 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground Petroleum

Storage Tanks
Sections 1 through 6 - Pages 1 through paragraph 6.3.5 on page 11.
Recommended Practice 652, Lining of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tank Bottoms
Entire document must be read. You should be thoroughly familiar with this RP.
Recommended Practice 575, Inspection Atmospheric and Low Pressure Storage Tanks
Entire document must be read. You should be thoroughly familiar with this RP
ASME Section V – Nondestructive Examination:
Title Paragraph(s)
Subsection A - Article 1 All
Subsection A - Article 2 T-210 through T-292
ASME Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications:
Title Paragraph(s)
Foreword All
Introduction All
Part QW - Article I QW-100 through QW-196.2.2
Part QW - Article II QW-200 through QW-251.4
Part QW - Article III QW-300 through QW-361.2(h)
Part QW - Article IV QW-400 through QW-401.5
Part QW - Article IV Graphics QW-460 through 461.9
Pre-Course Workbook Practice Mathematics
Objective:
At the end of this section, you should:
1. Be familiar with the basic types of mathematics used on the exam.

2. Have taken and “self graded” the pre and post math tests
3. Have reviewed the basic mathematical functions
4. Worked the practice problems
A Pre-Test is provided on pages 15 & 16 with the answers on page 20 & 21

Practice problems are provided on pages 17 through 19 with the answers on pages 22 & 23
A Post-Test is provided on page 24 with answers on pages 25 & 26
MATH
Calculation questions found on the API-653 examination are oriented toward existing tanks
and not new tanks. API authorized above ground storage tank inspectors are expected to be
able to check and perform calculations necessary to ensure compliance with appropriate
Codes and standards. For this reason, the inspector must have a thorough understanding of
the formulas and procedures used to calculate the following:
Corrosion Rates and Inspection Intervals

Remaining Life determination
Joint Efficiencies
Maximum Height (Hydrostatic Testing)
Determining appropriate weld sizes for shell opening
Minimum spacing between existing and new hot tap nozzles
Settlement evaluation including the number of survey points
Minimum Thickness for Existing and Reconstructed Tank Shells
Corroded areas of tank shells including evaluation of pitting
Bottom plate thickness determination and evaluation
Reinforcement of openings
The American Petroleum Institute does not permit the use of programmable calculators while
taking the exam; therefore, programmable calculators will not be permitted during the course.
A recommended answer sheet layout format for use during the course is provided in this
section. Using the layout will help keep your procedures straight and make it easier for you
to check your work. This format is only recommended.
The remainder of this section deals with the typical mathematical skill level required. It is
divided into modules: Pre-Test, Basic Math Functions, and Post-Test. Typically, if a formula
requires transposing, the appropriate formula is given in the examination question however,
you should have a basic understanding of Algebra. Completion and understanding of this
portion of the pre-course manual will increase your chances of passing the exam as well as
enhancing your ability to keep up with the pace during the course. Should you have difficulty
with any portion of this math section, you should obtain assistance. In any case, you should
complete all the problems and practice them until you are comfortable with them.
Recommended Math Page Layout
Name Page Number
Answer (a)
Problem Number Page ____of_____ Answer (b)
Answer (c)
Answer (d)
Drawing if Applicable
Given Information: Final Formula
Formula with Variables Plugged In
Show all Work
Find:
Reference:
Formula to use:
Formula
Transposition
Answer:
Recommended Math Page Layout

Name: Page Number
Answer (a)
Problem Number Page ____of_____ Answer (b)
Answer (c)
Answer (d)
Drawing if Applicable
Given Information: Final Formula
Formula with Variables Plugged In

(Note:) At this point make sure you have: a value for each variable,
included the correct sign, and included the correct information within any
parentheses or brackets)
Show all Work
Find: (what does the

question ask)
Reference: (Code
book and paragraph)
Formula to use:
Formula
Transposition
Answer:
Mathematics Fundamentals:
As we all know, mathematics has a language of its own, made up of signs, symbols, and
characters. During this course of study many common mathematical signs, symbols, and
characters, which you must be familiar with, will be used. Some of these are listed below.
+ Addition
− Subtraction
∗ × () Multiplication
÷ Division
π Pi Expressed as 3.14
< Less than
> Greater than
∴ Therefore
≤ Less than or equal to
≥ Greater than or equal to
= Equal
X2 Number squared
Square root
In addition to the symbols, we will use the common Arabic numerals 1,2,3,4, (etc) and the
letters of the alphabet to develop our mathematical problems and solutions. How we use this
language is determined by the structure of the question.
In our use of the language of math, all equations must be complete and retain their equality
throughout in order to be useful. One of the first things that must be clear is the order in
which operations must be performed. An operation is a function caused by the sign in the
equation. For instance, the + sign tells us to add two or more characters together. In the
following statement 12+87 doesn’t tell us anything; just two numbers separated by an
addition sign. If we add the = sign, now the statement asks a question: 12+87=X, when we
replace the X with the correct answer we have completed the equation ∴ 12+87=99 is a true
statement and meets all the requirements of an equation for our purposes.
Order of Operations and Grouping:
Operation Grouping
1. Addition 1. Parentheses ( )
2. Subtraction 2. Brackets [ ]
3. Multiplication 3. Braces { }
4. Division
Clarification:
At this point, it is assumed that the participant is already familiar with the basics of addition,
subtraction, multiplication, and division.
Finding areas of shapes will follow customary rules. The area of a circle can be found using
A = π R2 or A = (.7854)(d2).
Algebra
The first rule in algebraic statements is the equality of the equation must remain throughout
the steps leading to the final solution. In other words, the left side of the equal sign must
always equal the right side of the equal sign. In order to ensure this, always remember:
“whatever you do to one side of the equal sign, you must also do to the other side of the
equal sign”.
Lets look at the following equation:

tm = t + c
If we know all the variables except the minimum required design thickness, we can
transpose the formula to solve for the thickness.
tm − c = t
t = tm − c
t = .3165 − .0625
t = .254"
Pre-Test:
1. Find the minimum acceptable shell plate thickness of the first course of an existing AST.
t min = Minimum acceptable thickness ?

D = Nominal diameter of tank, in feet 120
H = Height of tank in feet 48
G = Specific gravity of contents 1
S = Maximum allowable stress 21000
E = Joint efficiency of tank .85
2.6 DHG
t min =
SE
2. Find the corrosion rate of an AST given the following information.
Original thickness = .875”

Measured thickness = .625
Years since last thickness measurement = 11
t original − t last
CR =
Time
3. Using the corrosion rate determined in problem number 2, what would the remaining life
expectancy of this tank be if the minimum required thickness is 0.436”?
t actual − t min imum

RL =
CR
4. Shell settlement evaluation measurements are to be taken on a 146 feet diameter AST.
Given the following formula, how many elevation measurements would be required?
D
N=
10
5. Using the information in number four, does this number meet the requirements of API-
653, which does not permit the measurement points to exceed 32 feet?
πD
Dis tan ce =
N
Pre-Test continued:
6. Find the throat of a right angle fillet weld with a weld leg length of .4375 inches.
7. Using the following information, what is the maximum vertical length (also known as
critical length), in inches, over which hoop stresses are assumed to “average out” around
local discontinuities? Diameter of the tank is 136 feet, the least thickness in an area of
corrosion, exclusive of pits, is determined to be .563”
L = 3.7 Dt 2
8. A 6 inch nozzle is to be placed in the tank shell of an AST. The shell course where the
nozzle will be installed is .875” thick. What is the required area of reinforcement?
A = ODnozzle t shell
9. The maximum ultrasonic thickness measurement interval shall be five years when the
corrosion rate is not known. What is the interval based on a known corrosion rate? The
tank information is as follows: Initial thickness of the tank was 1.0625”, the actual
thickness is .815”, the calculated required thickness is .473”, the tank has been in service
for 16 years with no measurements taken since it was installed.
RCA = .342
N = .015
RCA
Interval =
2N
10. What is the circumference of an AST that is 96 feet in diameter?
Practice problems #1:
Problem #1
Find “S” when t min , D, H, G, and E are known where: D=78, H=29, G = 1, E=.85, and t min
=.602
2.6 DHG
t min =
SE
Problem #2
Find E when D, H, G, S, G, and t min are known where: D =128, H=60, S = 22,300 G = .87,
and t min = 1.125
2.6 DHG
t min =
SE
Problem #3
Find “D” when H, E, S, G, and t min are known where: H=45, E=.90, S=22500, G= .7 and t min
= .9375
2.6 DHG
t min =
SE
Problem #4
Find “S t ” when E, H t , D, G, and t min are know where: E = .80, H t = 54, D= 70, G = 1 and t min
=.4325
S t Et min
Ht =
2.6 D
Problem #5
Find “C” when D and H are know where D = 60, H = 54
C = 014
. D2 H
Let’s go a step farther:
What do we do when our Unknown is inside a radical (square root symbol)?
We know all the values except for the “d”

Step 1 -To eliminate the radical, we must do the opposite of its
.7854 function. The opposite function of extracting a square root is
a=
d to square the variable. We square both sides of the equation.
.7854
a2 = Step 2 - .7854 is divided by “d”. The opposite of division is
d
multiplication; therefore we multiply both sides by the “d”
da = .7854
2
.7854 Step 3 - “a2” is multiplied by “d”. We perform the opposite function

d=
a2 and divide both sides by “a2”
Practice Problems #2
Problem # 1
Find “d” when a=1.0755
a = .7854d 2
Problem # 2
Find “D” when t=.875, L=32.5
L = 3.7 Dt 2
Problem # 3
Find t initial when L longterm CR=.015, T years = 19 and t last = 1.134
t initial − t last
CR =
Tyears
Practice Problems # 3
Problem # 1 ⇒ Exponents:
(a) 43 = ? (b) (23)(24) = ? (c) Calculator display 1.0137-3 would be written as ?
Problem # 2 ⇒ Square Root:
(a) X = 3 + 9 . −.0013 (c) Find “t” L = 3.7 Dt 2

(b) X = 196
Problem # 3 ⇒ Fractions:
3 5 1 1 5 1 3 5 3
(a) + + = (b) + = (c) 2 + 3 = (d) − =
7 7 7 3 6 6 8 6 6
4 1 3 2 3 7 3 2 3
(e) − = (f) 1 − = (g) × = (h) × × =
7 2 4 5 8 9 10 3 4
3 5 2 5 3 1 1 1
(i) 1 × 2 × = (j) ÷ = (k) 1 ÷ 2 = (l) 3 ÷ 1 =
8 11 3 8 4 2 3 6
Problem # 4 ⇒ Ratios and Proportions:
N 2 3 N 2 3
(a) = ∴N = (b) = ∴N = (c) = ∴K =
9 3 4 12 K 15
Problem # 5 ⇒ Area:
A 24-inch nozzle is to be installed in a 1.0625” thick shell course. What is the required area
of reinforcement?
Pre-Test: ANSWERS
1. Find the minimum acceptable shell plate thickness of the first course of an AST.
Tmin = Minimum acceptable thickness ?

D = Nominal diameter of tank, in feet 120
H = Height of tank in feet 48
G = Specific gravity of contents 1
S = Maximum allowable stress 21000
E = Joint efficiency of tank .85
2.6 DHG (2.6)(120)(48)(1) 14976

t min = t min = t min = = .839"
SE (21000)(.85) 17850
2. Find the corrosion rate of an AST given the following information.
Original thickness = .875”

Measured thickness = .625
Years since last thickness measurement = 11
t original − t last .875−.625

CR = CR = CR =.023
Time 11
3. Using the corrosion rate determined in problem number 2, what would the remaining life
expectancy of this tank be if the minimum required thickness is 0.436”?
t actual − t min imum .625−.436

RL = RL = RL = 8.2 years
CR .023
4. Shell settlement evaluation measurements are to be taken on a 146 feet diameter AST.
Given the following formula, how many elevation measurements would be required?
D 146
N= N= N = 14.6 = 15
10 10
5. Using the information in number four, does this number meet the requirements of API-
653, which does not permit the measurement points to exceed 32 feet?
πD (314
. )(146)
Dis tan ce = Dis tan ce =
Distance = 30.5ft. yes meet requirements
N 15
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 10.5.1.2 definition of N
Pre-Test continued: ANSWERS
6. Find the throat of a right angle fillet weld with a weld leg length of .4375 inches.
Throat =.707Wleg Throat = (.707)(.4375) Throat = .309”
7. Using the following information, what is the maximum vertical length (also known as
critical length), in inches, over which hoop stresses are assumed to “average out” around
local discontinuities? Diameter of the tank is 136 feet, the least thickness in an area of
corrosion, exclusive of pits, is determined to be .563”
L = 3.7 Dt 2 L = 3.7 (136)(.563) L = 3.7 76.568 L = (3.7)(8.75) L = 32.375"
8. A 6 inch nozzle is to be placed in the tank shell of an AST. The shell course where the
nozzle will be installed is .875” thick. What is the required area of reinforcement?
A = ODnozzle t shell A = (6.75)(.875) = 5.906 square inches API-650 3.7.2.1 & 3.7.2.2
9. The maximum ultrasonic thickness measurement interval shall be five years when the
corrosion rate is not known. What is the interval based on a known corrosion rate? The
tank information is as follows: Initial thickness of the tank was 1.0625”, the actual
thickness is .815”, the calculated required thickness is .473”, the tank has been in service
for 16 years with no measurements taken since it was installed.
RCA = .342
N = .015
RCA .342
Interval = Interval = = 114
. years API-653 4.3.3.2 b.
2N (2)(.015)
10. What is the circumference of an AST that is 96 feet in diameter?
Circumference = πD Circumference = (3.14)(96) = 301.44 feet.
Practice problems #1:
Problem #1
Find “S” when t min , D, H, G, and E are known where: D=78, H=29, G = 1, E=.85, and t min
=.602
2.6 DHG 2.6 DHG (2.6)(78)(29)(1) 58812

.
t min = S= S= S= S = 11493.4
SE Et min (.85)(.602) .5117
Problem #2
Find E when D, H, G, S, G, and t min are known where: D =128, H=60, S = 22,300 G = .87,
and t min = 1.125
2.6 DHG 2.6 DHG (2.6)(128)(60)(.87) 17372.16

t min = E= E= E= E = .692
SE St min (22300)(1125
. ) 25087.5
Problem #3
Find “D” when H, E, S, G, and t min are known where: H=45, E=.90, S=22500, G= .7 and t min
= .9375
2.6 DHG t SE
t min = D = min
SE 2.6 HG
Problem #4
Find “S t ” when E, H t , D, G, and t min are know where: E = .80, H t = 54, D= 70, G = 1 and t min
=.4325
S t Et min
Ht =
2.6 D
Problem #5
Find “C” when D and H are know where D = 60, H = 54
Practice Problems #2
Problem # 1
Find “d” when a=1.0755

a = .7854d 2
Problem # 2
Find “D” when t=.875, L=32.5 ⇒ L = 3.7 Dt 2
Problem # 3
Find t initial when L longterm CR=.015, T years = 19 and t last = 1.134

t −t
CR = initial last
Tyears
Practice Problems # 3
Problem # 1 ⇒ Exponents:
(a) 43 = 64 (b) (23)(24) = 27 or 128 (c) Calculator display 1.0137-3 is written as .0010137
Problem # 2 ⇒ Square Root:
(a) X = 3 + 9 = 3.4641 (b) X = 196 . −.0013 =1.3993

2
 L 
 
(c) Find “t 2 ” L = 3.7 Dt 2 t 2 =
L2
or t 2 =  3.7 
D(3.7) 2 D
Problem # 3 ⇒ Fractions:
3 5 1 2 1 5 1 1 3 13 5 3 1
(a) + + =1 (b) + = 1 (c) 2 + 3 = 5 (d) − =
7 7 7 7 3 6 6 6 8 24 6 6 3
4 1 1 3 2 7 3 7 7 3 2 3 3
(e) − = (f) 1 − = 1 (g) × = (h) × × =
7 2 14 4 5 20 8 9 24 10 3 4 20
3 5 1 2 5 1 3 1 7 1 1 6
(i) 1 × 2 × = 1 (j) ÷ = 1 (k) 1 ÷ 2 = (l) 3 ÷ 1 = 2
8 11 4 3 8 15 4 2 10 3 6 7
Problem # 4 ⇒ Ratios and Proportions:

N 2 3 N 2 3
(a) = ∴N =6 (b) = ∴N =9 (c) = ∴ K = 10
9 3 4 12 K 15
Problem # 5 ⇒ Area:
A 24-inch nozzle is to be installed in a 1.0625” thick shell course. What is the required area
of reinforcement? API-650 Para. 3.7.2.1 & 3.7.2.2 (24)(1.0625) = 25.5 sq in
Post Test:
1. What is the required hydrostatic test height (H t ) of an AST given the following data?
Maximum allowable hydrostatic stress (S t )= 21350
Diameter of the tank = 110 feet
Hydrostatic test shell thickness (t min ) is .625”
Shell joint efficiency = 70%
Use API-653 2.3.3.1 formula for tanks to be hydrostatically tested.
2. What is the area of a tank bottom that is 121 feet in diameter?
3. A reinforcing plate is installed around a nozzle in the first course of an AST. What is the
throat dimension of the ½” leg fillet weld around the periphery of the reinforcing plate.
4. What is the minimum acceptable thickness of the bottom course of an existing AST that
is 135 feet in diameter, maximum fill height is 56.5 feet? The product stored in the tank
has a specific gravity of .87 and all shell butt-welds were 100% radiographically
examined. The yield strength of the material is 28,000 and the tensile strength is 60,000.
Use API-653 paragraph 2.3.3.1.
2.6 DHG
t min =
SE
5. What is the required area of reinforcement for a 14 NPS nozzle installed in a shell course
that is 1.0625” thick. Use API 650 Paragraph 3.7.2.1
6. A bulge is noted in a tank bottom, what is the maximum height of the bulge permitted if
the radius of the inscribed circle is 10.8 feet? Use API-653 Appendix B 3.3
7. If the throat of a fillet weld is .309, what is the leg length of the weld?
8. An AST is 175 feet in diameter. How many tank settlement survey points are required?
9. Do the number of settlement measurement locations and maximum spacing, calculated in

problem 8, comply with API – 653? Use API –653 Paragraph 10.5.1.2
10. What is the design liquid level of an AST that is 140 feet in diameter, thickness of the
bottom or first course is .765”, stress of the material is 21300. The specific gravity of the
product to be stored is 1 and no corrosion allowance is needed nor provided.
2.6 D( H − 1)G  t d Sd 
td = + CA  H =   +1
Sd  2.6 DG 
Post Test Answers
1. What is the required hydrostatic test height (H t ) of an AST given the following data?
Maximum allowable hydrostatic stress (S t )= 21350
Diameter of the tank = 110 feet
Hydrostatic test shell thickness (t min ) is .625”
Shell joint efficiency = 70%
Use API-653 2.3.3.1 formula for tanks to be hydrostatically tested.
S t Et min (21350)(.7)(.625) 9340.625

Ht =  Ht = = = 32.6 ft
2.6 D (2.6)(110) 286
2. What is the area of a tank bottom that is 121 feet in diameter?
A = πR 2 A = (3.14)(60.5)2 A = (3.14)(3660.25) A = 11493 sqft
3. A reinforcing plate is installed around a nozzle in the first course of an AST. What is the
throat dimension of the ½” leg fillet weld around the periphery of the reinforcing plate.
Throat = .707W leg Throat = (.707)(.5) = .3535
4. What is the minimum acceptable thickness of the bottom course of an existing AST that
is 135 feet in diameter, maximum fill height is 56.5 feet? The product stored in the tank
has a specific gravity of .87 and all shell butt-welds were 100% radiographically
examined. The yield strength of the material is 28,000 and the tensile strength is 60,000.
2.6 DHG (2.6)(135)(56.5)(.87) 17253.405

t min =  t min =  t min = =.7"
SE (24640)(1) 24640
S = (.8)(28000) = 24640 S = (.429)(60000) = 25740
5. What is the required area of reinforcement for a 14 NPS nozzle installed in a shell course
that is 1.0625” thick.
Area = (14)(1.0625) = 14.875 square inches
Post Test Answers
6. A bulge is noted in a tank bottom, what is the maximum height of the bulge permitted if
the radius of the inscribed circle is 10.8 feet?
B B = .37R  B B = (.37)(10.8) = 3.996 inches or 4 inches
7. If the throat of a fillet weld is .309, what is the leg length of the weld?
Throat .309
Throat =.707Wleg  Wleg =  Wleg = =.437"
.707 .707
8. An AST is 175 feet in diameter. How many tank settlement survey points are required?
D 175
N=  N= = 17.5
10 10
9. Do the number of settlement measurement locations and maximum spacing, calculated in

problem 8, comply with API – 653?
Yes  (175)(3.14) = 549.3  549.3 ÷ 18 = 30.5 feet spacing
10. What is the design liquid level of an AST that is 140 feet in diameter, thickness of the
bottom or first course is .765”, stress of the material is 21300. The specific gravity of the
product to be stored is 1 and no corrosion allowance is needed nor provided.
2.6 D( H − 1)G  t d Sd   (.765)(21300) 

td = + CA  H =   +1  H =   +1 
Sd  2.6 DG   (2.6)(140)(1) 
 16294.5
H=  + 1 H = 44.76 + 1  H = 45.76 feet
 364 
Subject API-653, Tank Inspection, Issue Date Revision Date Page
Repair, Alteration, & Reconstruction 03/98 07/00 1
Section 1 - Introduction
1. API-653 covers which of the following types of tanks?

a) Carbon and low alloy steel tanks built to ASME Section VIII, Div.1
b) Carbon and low alloy steel tanks built to ASME Section X
c) Carbon and low alloy steel tanks built to API - 650 and 12C
d) Carbon and low alloy steel tanks built to API - 510
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 1.1.1
2. API-653 provides the requirements for construction of which of the following?

a) Process pressure vessels
b) Aboveground petroleum storage tanks
c) LNG Storage spheres
d) This standard does not provide construction requirements
3. API-653 provides for all but which of the following with regard to aboveground storage
tanks?
a) Repair
b) Operation
c) Relocation
d) Alteration
4. The scope of API-653 is limited to all of the following except?

a) Tank foundation
b) Tank Bottom
c) Tank roof
d) Tank mixing motor
5. The API-653 standards states that many of the requirements for design, welding, and
materials of API-650 and API-12C can be applied with regard to _____.
a) Repair, inspection, rating, and alteration.
b) Repair, personnel assignment, maintenance, and inspection.
c) Inspection, product in storage, rating, and alteration.
d) Alteration, refinery equipment, electrical controls, and repair.
6. In the application of the requirements for welding, design, and materials of API-650 or
API-12C to in-service aboveground storage tanks (AST), which of the following code or
standard takes precedence?
a) ASME Section VIII, Pressure Vessels
b) API-12C
c) API-653
d) API-650
7. The API-653 Standard may only be applied to aboveground storage tanks (AST) that
have been constructed to and meet the requirements of API-650.
a) True
b) False
8. The use of API-653 is intended for organizations that have personnel who are technically
trained and experienced in which of the following?
a) All ASME, AWS, ASNT, and API Codes and Standards
b) Tank design, fabrication, repair, construction, and inspection
c) Refinery operations, safety requirements, personnel management, and refinery
design
d) Mechanical integrity program, OSHA regulations compliance program, and
Process Safety Management
9. When design and construction details are not given and not available in the original
construction standard, then details that will provide a level of integrity equal to the
current edition of what Code or Standard must be used?
a) ASME Section VIII, Division 1, Pressure Vessels
b) ASME Section VIII Division 2, Alternative Rules for Pressure Vessels
c) API- 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage
d) API-12C Steel Storage Tanks for Oil Storage
10. Ultimate responsibility for compliance with this standard rests with ____?
a) The Owner/Operator
b) The Owner/Operator’s Inspector
c) The repair organization of the Owner/Operator
d) The manufacturer of the AST
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 1.2
11. According to API-653, if any provision presents a direct or implied conflict with any
statutory regulation, the regulation governs. What governs if API-653 requirements are
more stringent than the statutory regulation?
a) The statutory regulation applies in all cases
b) The conflict must be submitted to the American Petroleum Institute for resolution
c) The owner/operator has the option of applying the requirement best suited to the
situation
d) The API-653 requirements shall govern
12. Safe working practices shall comply with what requirements concerning confined space
entry?
a) Procedures must comply with any trade developed safety precautions
b) Procedures must comply with any federal or state regulations
c) Procedures need only comply with owner/operator/s requirements
d) Procedures need only comply with NFPA requirements
Answers to API-653 Section 1, Introduction
Question Number Answer

1 C
2 D
3 B
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 A
11 D
12 B
Should you find a mistake or disagree with any answer listed, please bring it to our attention
for correction or clarification.
BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide answers developed from
paragraphs of the respective Code, Standard, or Recommended Practice.
You can reach BAY Tech by phone at (610) 594-9036, by fax at (610) 594-2612, or by
e-mail at byagle@gte.net.
Section 2 – Suitability for Service
1. When must an evaluation, to determine the suitability for continued use, be conducted?
a) Evaluations shall be conducted when a tank inspection reveals a change has
occurred from the original physical condition of the tank.
b) Evaluations shall be conducted at least annually
c) Evaluations shall be conducted at an interval not to exceed the calculated tank
inspection frequency.
d) Evaluations shall be conducted once each ten years of service
2. What factors are required for consideration when performing an evaluation for continued
use of an AST?
a) Only those listed in API-653
b) The recommended list of considerations provided in API-510 can be modified to
suit this purpose
c) Engineering analysis and judgement required for each situation
d) Only those items requested by the Certified Aboveground Storage Tank Inspector
3. Roof plates corroded to an average thickness of less that ____ inch in any ___ square
inch area shall be repaired of replaced.
a) 0.9 inch in any 100 square inch area
b) 0.09 inch in any 10 square inch area
c) 0.09 inch in any 144 square inch area (1 square foot)
d) 0.09 inch in any 100 square inch area
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 2.2.1.2
4. The method of inspecting roof support members shall be acceptable to whom?

a) The manufacturer of the AST
b) The responsible inspector
c) The Owner/Operator’s design engineering department
d) The operations manager
5. During the inspection of fixed roof support members, particular attention must be given
to .
a) Severe external corrosion of the roof plate where support structures are attached
b) Severe internal corrosion of pipe columns
c) Severe internal corrosion of the roof plate where support structures are attached
d) Deterioration of wind girders at the point of attachment
6. Inspection of floating roofs is limited to roof plates and pontoons.

a) True
b) False
7. Evaluation of existing floating roofs shall be based on the criteria of

a) API-650, Appendix C for external floating roofs and Appendix H for internal
floating roofs
b) API-510 Paragraph 6.4.3 for external floating roofs and 6.5.3 for internal
c) ASME Section VIII, Div 1 Appendix C for external floating roofs and Appendix
H for internal
d) ASME Section VIII, Div. 2 Alternative Rules
8. What API Standard or Recommended Practice must be used for evaluating the effects of
design partial vacuum on tank roofs?
a) API Standard 620
b) API Standard 650
c) API Recommended Practice 651
d) API Recommended Practice 652
9. Above what operating temperature shall API Standard 650, Appendix M, be considered
before changing the service of a tank?
a) 500°F
b) 400°F
c) 300°F
d) 200°F
10. Under what conditions may a tank be operated at a temperature lower than the original
design?
a) When the requirements for impact testing of ASME Section VIII, Division 1 have
been met
b) When the requirements of the applicable standard or API Standard 650 have been
met
c) When the requirements of ASTM Specification A-370 have been met
d) When the requirements of ASTM Specification A-20 have been met
11. Flaws, deterioration, or other conditions that might adversely affect the performance or
structural integrity of the shell of an existing tank must be evaluated. Personnel
experienced in tank design shall conduct the evaluation. This analysis shall take into
account any of the following except
a) Fluid static head
b) Internal and external pressure
c) Organization that manufactured the tank
d) Seismic loads
12. Of the following, which is not an option available to the owner/operator if it is not
possible to satisfy the requirements for minimum thickness calculations for a welded
tank?
a) Repair damaged areas
b) Reduce allowable liquid level
c) Retire the tank
d) Reduce the fill rate so the tank fills slower and applies pressure gradually
13. Out-of-roundness, buckled areas, flat spots, and peaking and banding of welded joints are
all examples of _____.
a) Shell Distortions
b) Flaws
c) Discontinuities
d) Severe damage
14. Shell distortions require the tank to be immediately removed from service and inspected.
a) True
b) False
15. Flaws such as cracks or laminations shall be thoroughly examined to determine their
nature and extent and the need for repairs.
a) True
b) False
16. What if anything should be done with cracks in the shell-to-bottom weld?
a) These cracks can be sealed with caulking and the tank returned to service
b) The welds can have a cover weld pass applied over them to prevent leakage
c) Cracks of this type are critical and the tank must be retired from service since
repairs are prohibited.
d) Cracks in the shell-to-bottom weld are critical and shall be removed and the weld
repaired
17. Internal pitting and pitting rates in the anticipated service, corrosion of weld joints (weld
and heat affected zone), weld joint cracking history, and stresses placed on the bottom
plates by roof support loads and shell settlement are all examples of causes of what type
of failure?
a) Annular ring failure
b) Shell plate failure at first shell course
c) Bottom failure
d) Fatigue failure due to repeated jacking of floor plates
18. Underside corrosion (normally in the form of pitting), inadequate drainage resulting in
surface water flowing under the tank bottom, lack of an annular plate ring when required,
uneven settlement that results in high localized stresses in the bottom plates, and
inadequate provision for movement of roof support columns and other supports are all
examples of causes of what type of failure?
a) Shell plate failure at first course
b) Bottom failure
c) Failure of support columns due to hydraulic compression
d) Creep cracking failure
19. Of the following what has historically not been a cause of bottom failures?
a) Non-homogeneous fill under the tank bottom
b) Rock or gravel foundation pads with inadequately filled-in surface voids
c) Inadequate inspection frequency
d) Inadequately supported sumps
20. Where would you look to find the basis for cathodic protection systems for the underside
of tank bottoms?
a) API Recommended Practice 651
b) API Recommended Practice 652
c) API Standard 2015
d) API Standard 2207
21. Where would you look to find procedures and practices for protecting tank bottoms with
internal lining?
a) API Recommended Practice 651
b) API Recommended Practice 652
c) API Standard 2015
d) API Standard 2207
22. What two methods may be used in quantifying the remaining thickness of tank bottoms?
a) Drilling and actual measurement
b) Ultrasonic and radiography
c) Deterministic and probabilistic
d) Detailed stress analysis and plate deformation measurement
23. Unless a stress analysis is performed, what is the minimum thickness of bottom plates in
the critical zone?
a) Smaller of ½ the original bottom plate thickness or 50% of t min of the lower shell
course but not less than 0.1 inch.
b) Smaller of ¼ the original bottom plate thickness or 25% of t min of the lower shell
c) Smaller of ¾ the original bottom plate thickness or 75% of t min of the lower shell
d) Smaller of ½ the original bottom plate thickness or 50% of t min of the lower shell
24. When repairing internal pitting for the extension of in-service operating period, the repair
shall be by any of the following methods except.
a) Pit welding
b) Brazing
c) Overlay welding
d) Lap Patching
25. The thickness of the bottom plate projection beyond the shell, measured at the toe of the
weld of the outside bottom-to-shell fillet weld shall be not less than?
a) 0.25 inch
b) 0.01 inch
c) 0.50 inch
d) 0.10 inch
26. The projection of the bottom plate beyond the toe of the shell-to-bottom weld shall be at
least?
a) 0.125 inch
b) 0.250 inch
c) 0.375 inch
d) 0.500 inch
27. An aboveground storage tank contains a fluid with a specific gravity of less than one. The
thickness of the plate in the first course is 7/8”. What is the minimum thickness of the
annular plate ring, seismic loading is not a consideration, and the stress in the first course
is 27,850 pound per square inch?
a) 0.22 inch
b) 0.31 inch
c) 0.20 inch
d) 0.23 inch
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 2.4.8.2 and Table 2-3
28. An aboveground storage tank contains a fluid with a specific gravity of greater than one.
The thickness of the plate in the first course is 7/8”. What is the minimum thickness of
the annular plate ring, seismic loading is not a consideration, and the hydrostatic test
stress in the first shell course is 27,850 pound per square inch?
a) 1 / 4 inch
b) 3 / 8 inch
c) 9 / 32 inch
d) 11 / 32 inch
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 2.4.8.3 and Table 3-1 API-650
29. Settlement, erosion, cracking, and deterioration of concrete are all examples of which of the
following principle modes of failure or deterioration?
a) Annular plate ring failure
b) Shell-to-bottom weld failure
c) Deterioration of walkways and roadways
d) Deterioration of foundations
30. To ensure suitability for service, what is the minimum permitted frequency of tank
foundation inspection?
a) Annually
b) Every five years
c) Monthly
d) Periodically
Reference: API-653 Paragraphs 2.5.1.1 & 4.3.1.2
31. Distortion of anchor bolts and excessive cracking of concrete structures may be
indications of what two conditions?
a) Serious foundation settlement of a tank overpressure uplift condition
b) Inferior material used in the anchor bolts and the concrete structure
c) Over tightening of the anchor bolts and improper mixing of the concrete
d) The tank was struck by lightning and wind caused movement of the tank
Message to the student:
API-653 Paragraph 2.5.1.2 contains descriptions of some mechanisms of concrete

deterioration. It would be in your best interest to read these descriptions carefully and
understand them. The examination may contain questions that would require you to know the
definition of one or more of these modes of deterioration.
Answers to API-653 Section 2, Suitability for Service

1 A
2 C
3 D
4 B
5 B
6 B
7 A
8 A
9 D
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 A
14 B
15 A
16 D
17 C
18 B
19 C
20 A
21 B
22 C
23 A
24 B
25 D
26 C
27 B
28 C
29 D
30 C
31 A
Section 3 – Brittle Fracture Considerations
1. Incidents of tank failure due to brittle fracture have occurred shortly after erection during
hydrostatic testing or in all but which of the following incidents?
a) On the first filling in cold weather
b) After a change to a higher temperature service
c) After a change to a lower temperature service
d) After a repair or alteration
2. The risk of tank failure due to brittle fracture is considered minimal after what
condition(s)?
a) The tank has demonstrated its ability to withstand the combined effects of
maximum liquid level (highest stresses) and highest operating temperature
b) The tank has demonstrated its ability to withstand the combined effects of
intermediate liquid level (highest stresses) and lowest operating temperature
c) The tank has demonstrated its ability to withstand the combined effects of
maximum liquid level (highest stresses) and lowest operating temperature
d) The tank has demonstrated its ability to withstand the combined effects of
maximum liquid level (highest stresses) and intermediate operating temperature
3. If it is decided to change the service to a more severe service, it is necessary to

a) Consider the need for pneumatically testing the entire tank
b) Consider the need to recalculate the effectiveness of all reinforcement of openings
c) Consider the need for hydrostatic testing
d) Consider removing all previous welded repairs and have them redone
4. If a tank shell thickness is less than _____ inch, and an evaluation in accordance with
Section 2 of API-653 has been performed, the risk of brittle fracture is considered to be
minimal.
a) 0.01
b) 0.10
c) 0.05
d) 0.50
5. No known tank failures attributed to brittle fracture have occurred at shell metal
temperatures of _____°F and above.
a) -20
b) 20
c) 40
d) 60

6. According to industry experience and laboratory tests, what membrane stress is required
to caused failure due to brittle fracture?
a) 6 ksi
b) 7 ksi
c) 10 ksi
d) 12 ksi
7. What is the lowest temperature that a tank, constructed of carbon steel of unknown
toughness, may be used? The maximum thickness of the shell is .625”
a) 40°F
b) 45°F
c) 50°F
d) 55°F
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 3.3.7 and Figure 3-2
8. What is the purpose of Figure 3-1 of API-653?

a) Provides a procedure to be used in the evaluation of the remaining life of tank
bottom plates
b) Provides a procedure to be used in the evaluation of the likelihood of floating roof
pontoon failure
c) Provides an assessment procedure for evaluating aboveground storage tanks
operating at 15 psi
d) Provides an assessment procedure for evaluating atmospheric aboveground
storage tanks
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 3.3 and Figure 3-1
Answers to API-653 Section 3, Brittle Fracture Considerations

1 B
2 C
3 C
4 D
5 D
6 B
7 A
8 D
for correction or clarification. BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide
answers developed from paragraphs of the respective Code, Standard, or Recommended
Practice.
Section 4 – Inspection
1. What is the purpose of periodic in-service inspection?

a) The purpose of periodic in-service inspection, assure job security for inspectors
b) The purpose of periodic in-service inspection, assure proper operation of AST
c) The purpose of periodic in-service inspection is to assure continued tank integrity
d) The purpose of periodic in-service inspection is to assure OSHA compliance
2. Of the following, which is not a consideration that must be addressed in determining

inspection intervals for ASTs?
a) Corrosion prevention systems
b) Inspection interval of other equipment located near the tank under consideration
c) Changes in service (including changes in water bottoms)
d) Previous inspection results
3. What methods of inspection must be considered when establishing inspection

frequencies?
a) On-stream core sample inspection
b) On-stream nondestructive inspection
c) In-service aerial inspection
d) In-service groundwater inspection
4. Close visual inspections of aboveground storage tanks, from the ground, are required.
Owner/operator personnel who may be other than the Authorized Inspector may perform
this inspection. The interval of such inspections shall not exceed:
a) At least every five years or 1/4 the corrosion rate life of the shell whichever is less
b) 12 months
c) 6 months
d) 1 month
5. All tanks shall be given a visual external inspection, by an Authorized Inspector, at what
frequency?
a) Inspection conducted at least every 20 years or at the quarter corrosion rate of the
bottom whichever is less
b) Inspection conducted at least every 5 years or at the quarter corrosion rate of the
bottom whichever is less
c) Inspection conducted at least every 5 years or at the quarter corrosion rate of the
shell whichever is less
d) Inspection conducted at least every 20 years or at the quarter corrosion rate of the
shell whichever is less

6. External ultrasonic thickness measurements of the shell, while the tank is in service, can
be a means of determining rate of uniform corrosion. The extent of UT measurements
shall be determined by the owner/operator. What is maximum interval of such thickness
measurements when the corrosion rate is not known?
a) Five years
b) Three years
c) One year
d) Every three months until the corrosion rate is established
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 4.3.3.2a.
7. The minimum thickness of a tank was established at 0.585 inch. The shell was fabricated
from 3/4 inch plate and included a 0.125 inch corrosion allowance. The tank has been in
service for eight years and current ultrasonic thickness measurements reveal an average
thickness of 0.712 inch. Based on this information determine when the next ultrasonic
thickness measurements will be required.
a) Fifteen years
b) Thirteen years
c) Eleven years
d) Nine years
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 4.3.3.2b.
8. Internal inspections are primarily required to do all but which of the following?
a) Ensure the internal surfaces of the tank are thoroughly cleaned periodically
b) Identify and evaluate any tank bottom settlement
c) Ensure that the bottom is not severely corroded and leaking
d) Gather data necessary for the minimum bottom and shell thickness assessments
9. When can the required internal inspection be performed by some method other than visual
inspection?
a) Substitution of the visual inspection is never permitted
b) If the internal inspection is required solely for determining the condition and integrity of
the tank bottom
c) If the internal inspection is required solely for determining the condition and integrity of
the tank critical zone
d) If the internal inspection is required solely for determining the condition and integrity of
the tank roof support structure
10. According to API-653, all tanks shall have a formal internal inspection conducted at intervals
defined by this standard. Who is required to conduct the visual inspection?
a) The corrosion engineer
b) The person designated by the Authorized Inspector
c) The authorized Inspector
d) The person designated by the owner user

11. Intervals between internal inspections shall be determined by the corrosion rates
measured during previous inspections or anticipated based on experience with tanks in
similar service. The internal inspection interval shall not exceed how many years?
a) Ten years
b) Fifteen years
c) Twenty years
d) Twenty-five years
12. What is the minimum thickness permitted at the next inspection for a tank bottom
designed with a means to provide detection and containment of a bottom leak?
a) 0.01 inch
b) 0.10 inch
c) 0.50 inch
d) 0.05 inch
Reference: API-653 Paragraph 4.4.2.1 & 2.4.7.4
13. In cases where corrosion rates are not known and similar service experience is not
available, the bottom plate actual thickness shall be determined by inspection(s) within
how many years?
a) 25 years
b) 20 years
c) 15 years
d) 10 years
14. Which of the following is a recognized alternative to internal inspection interval

described in API-653?
a) Risk-based Inspection procedures (RBI)
b) Hydrostatically testing the tank every five years
c) Performing complete calculations for minimum required thickness of the tank
shell and bottom
d) API-653 does not permit any alternatives to the internal inspection intervals
15. Of the following, which would not be a factor to be considered in a Risk-based

assessment of a tank?
a) Availability and effectiveness of inspection methods and quality of data collected
b) The methods used for determining the thickness of the shell and bottom plates
c) Effectiveness of corrosion mitigation methods
d) Names of all operators since the initial start-up of the tank
16. The owner/operator is required to maintain complete record file consisting of three types
of records. Which of the following is not one of the three types of records.
a) Repair/alteration history
b) Fill cycles
c) Construction
d) Inspection
17. General inspection reports shall include which of the following?

a) Metal thickness measurement, repairs, conditions found, settlement
measurements, and recommendations
b) Metal thickness measurement, repairs, operational upsets, settlement
measurements, and recommendations
c) Metal thickness measurement, repairs, conditions found, name of organization
performing environmental impact study, and recommendations
d) Metal thickness measurement, list of all personnel who have worked on the tank
since the last inspection, conditions found, settlement measurements, and
recommendations
Note to Student: Be sure to know all the requirements for Inspector Qualifications. Questions
can appear on the exam requiring you to know one, two, or all of these qualification
requirements. You will find these requirements are similar to those found in Inspector
Certification programs for API-510 and API-570.
Answers to API-653 Section 4, Inspection
Question Number Answer Question Number Answer

1 c 10 c
2 b 11 c
3 b 12 d
4 d 13 d
5 c 14 a
6 a 15 d
7 b 16 b
8 a 17 a
9 b
Section 5 – Materials
1. All new materials used for repair, alteration, and reconstruction shall conform to which of
the following?
a) The existing material code at the time of original construction
b) The latest NFPA Code
c) The current applicable tank standards
d) Any ASME Code specification for P-1 material
Reference: API-653, Paragraph 5.2
2. All shell plates and bottom plates welded to the shell shall be identified. Material
identified by any of the following except _____ does not require further identification?
a) Original contract drawings
b) API name plates
c) Suitable documentation
d) Owner/operator's experience with similar tanks in similar service constructed of
similar material
Reference: API-653, Paragraph 5.3.1.1
3. Each individual plate for which adequate identification can not be made; the plate shall
be _______.
a) Subjected to chemical analysis and mechanical tests as required in ASTM A6 and
A370 including Charpy V-Notch
b) Subjected to chemical analysis and mechanical tests as required in ASTM A20
and A333 including Charpy V-Notch
c) Subjected to Brinell hardness analysis and mechanical tests as required in ASTM
A6 and A370 including Charpy V-Notch
d) Subjected to Brinell hardness analysis and mechanical tests as required in ASTM
A20 and A333 including Charpy V-Notch
4. Under what condition does API-653 require two tension specimens shall be taken at right
angles to each other from a corner of each plate? One of those specimens must meet the
specification requirements.
a) When the direction of rolling is not definitely known
b) When the welding will be conducted at a temperature less than 32ºF
c) When the plate is not a full size plate and may be installed with the grain running
vertical
d) When the material is not a P-1 material
5. Even when a material is identified, all shell plates and bottom plates welded to the shell
shall meet what minimum requirements?
a) The chemistry and mechanical properties of material specified for the application
with regard to thickness and design temperature given in ASME Section II, Part A
b) The chemistry and mechanical properties of material specified for the application
with regard to thickness and design temperature given in API Standard 650
c) The chemistry and mechanical properties of material specified for the application
with regard to thickness and design temperature given in the owner/operator's
engineering design
d) The chemistry and mechanical properties of material specified for the application
with regard to thickness and design temperature given in the contract for the tank
repair, alteration, or reconstruction
6. Is it permissible to reuse existing rolled structural shapes? If so what specification

applies?
a) Yes, existing rolled structural shapes shall meet the requirement of ASTM A-20
as a minimum
b) Yes, existing rolled structural shapes shall meet the requirement of ASTM A-370
as a minimum
c) Yes, existing rolled structural shapes shall meet the requirement of ASTM A-6 as
a minimum
d) Yes, existing rolled structural shapes shall meet the requirement of ASTM A-7 as
a minimum
Reference: API-653, Paragraph 5.3.2
7. Flange material must meet the minimum requirements of the material specifications of
the current applicable standard.
a) True
b) False
8. Fasteners shall meet the material specifications of the current applicable standard.
a) True
b) False

9. If existing plates are to be used to reconstruct the tank, they shall be checked for which of
the following?
a) Chemical compatibility with other plates used in the reconstruction
b) Excessive corrosion and pitting
c) Mechanical strength including impact properties
d) Inadequately reinforced openings
Answers to API-653 Section 5, Materials

1 C
2 D
3 A
4 A
5 B
6 D
7 B
8 A
9 B
Section 6 – Design Considerations for Reconstructed Tanks
1. Design considerations other than normal product loading shall be specified by the _____.
a) Organization performing the reconstruction
b) Authorized Inspector
c) Owner/operator
d) Registered professional engineer contracted by the repair organization
Reference API 653 Paragraph 6.1
2. Weld joint details shall meet the requirements of which of the following?
a) API Standard 650
b) ASME Section IX only
c) The applicable standard
d) AWS D1.1 Structural Welding Code
Reference API 653 Paragraph 6.2.1
3. The thickness to be used for each shell course when checking tank design shall be based
on:
a) Measurements taken within 30 days prior to relocation
b) Measurements taken within 60 days prior to relocation
c) Measurements taken within 120 days prior to relocation
d) Measurements taken within 180 days prior to relocation
4. The maximum liquid level for hydrostatic test shall be determined by using which of the
following?
a) The nominal thickness of each shell course at the time of original construction
b) The actual thickness measured for each shell course
c) The anticipated thickness for each shell course at the time of next thickness
measurements
d) Twice the anticipated thickness for each shell course at the time of next thickness
measurements
5. The joint efficiency and allowable stress levels for existing welded joints that are not to
be removed and replaced shall be based on which of the following?
a) Original construction standard
b) Original degree and type of inspection
c) Current construction standard
d) Current degree and type of inspection
6. Replacement and new penetrations shall be designed, detailed, welded, and examined to
meet what requirements?
a) The current applicable standard
b) The original standard of construction
c) The requirements of the Authorized Inspector
d) The requirements of the owner/operator
7. Existing penetrations shall be evaluated for compliance with what requirements?

a) The current applicable standard
b) The original standard of construction
c) The requirements of the Authorized Inspector
d) The requirements of the owner/operator
8. With regard to seismic design, reconstructed tanks shall be built to meet the stability
requirements of:
a) The requirements of the owner/operator
b) The requirements of the Authorized Inspector
c) The original standard of construction
d) The applicable standard
Reference API 653 Paragraph 6.8
Answers to API-653 Section 6, Design

1 C
2 C
3 D
4 B
5 B
6 A
7 B
8 D
Section 7 – Tank Repair and Alteration
1. The basis for repairs and alterations shall be equivalent to which of the following?
a) API-653
b) API-650
c) API-510
d) API-570
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.1.1
2. The minimum dimension for a replacement shall plate shall be _____ inches or ____
times the thickness of the replacement plate whichever is ______.
a) 12, 12, greater
b) 12, 12, lesser
c) 18, 18, greater
d) 18, 18, lesser
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.2.2.1
3. Unless an entire shell plate is replaced, the replacement plate may be circular, oblong,
square or rectangular provide the corners are
a) Provided with a radius of at least 1 inch
b) Provided with a radius of at least 3% of the short dimension of the plate
c) Provided with a radius of at least 3 inches
d) Provided with rounded corners
4. Prior to welding the new vertical joints, the existing horizontal joints shall be cut for a
minimum distance of _____ inches beyond the new vertical joints.
a) Six
b) Eight
c) Twelve
d) Sixteen
5. Vertical joints shall be welded before the horizontal joints.

a) True
b) False
6. For existing shell plates over ½” thick, the outer edge of the butt weld, attaching the
replacement shell plate shall be at least _____ times the weld thickness or _____ inches
whichever is greater from the outer edge of any existing butt-welded shell joints.
a) 12, 10
b) 10, 12
c) 8, 10
d) 10, 8
7. For existing shell plates ½” thick and less, the outer edge of the butt weld, attaching the
replacement shell plate may be reduced to _____ inches from the outer edge of vertical
joints or _____ inches from the outer edge of horizontal joints.
a) 10, 8
b) 9, 6
c) 6, 9
d) 6, 3
8. For existing shell plates over ½” thick, the outer edge of the butt weld, attaching the
replacement shell plate shall be at least _____ times the weld size or _____ inches,
whichever is greater, from the edge (toe) of the fillet weld attaching the bottom shell
course to the bottom. This rule does not apply if the replacement shell plate extends to
and intersects with the bottom-to-shell joint at approximately _____ degrees.
a) 8, 10, 45
b) 8, 10, 90
c) 8, 10, 60
d) There are no exceptions
9. The edge of any vertical weld joint attaching a replacement plate shall be at least how far
from the edge of the weld joint in the annular plate ring or sketch plate?
a) Eight inches
b) Ten inches
c) Twelve inches
d) Six inches
10. Lapped patch shell repairs are an acceptable form of repair for butt-welded, lap-welded,
and riveted tank shell only when specified by:
a) The Authorized Inspector
b) Repair organization
c) The insurance company
d) The owner/operator
11. Lapped patch shell repairs are not permitted on shell courses exceeding what thickness?
a) ½ inch
b) ¾ inch
c) 1 inch
d) 1 ¼ inch
12. When a lapped patch shell repair is used, what is the minimum thickness permitted for
the repair plate?
a) Not less than .25 inch
b) Not less than .1875 inch
c) Not less than .50 inch
d) Not less than .375 inch
13. Repair plates for lapped patch repairs may square or rectangular in shape. These plates
must be provided with a corner radius of at least what dimension?
a) They shall be rounded to a minimum radius of 1 inch
b) They shall be rounded to a minimum radius of 2 inches
c) They shall be rounded to a minimum radius of 3 inches
d) They shall be rounded to a minimum radius of 4 inches
14. The maximum dimension of the lapped patch repair plate vertically and horizontally shall
not exceed:
a) 24 inches vertically and 36 inches horizontally
b) 36 inches vertically and 48 inches horizontally
c) 48 inches vertically and 72 inches horizontally
d) There are no maximum dimensions
15. The minimum lapped patch repair plate dimension is what length?
a) 6 inches
b) 8 inches
c) 10 inches
d) 12 inches
16. Is it permissible to install a shell opening and its reinforcement within a properly
designed lapped patch shell repair?
a) Yes
b) No

17. When a lapped patch repair plate is used to reinforce the thickness of a shell, which of the
following is correct?
a) The repair plate thickness shall be based on the latest edition of API-650 and 653
using a joint efficiency not exceeding 0.35
b) The repair plate thickness shall be based on the applicable standard of
construction and API Standard 653 using a joint efficiency not exceeding 0.35
c) The repair plate thickness shall be based on the latest edition of API-650 and 653
using a joint efficiency not exceeding 0.70
d) The repair plate thickness shall be based on the applicable standard of
construction and API Standard 650 using a joint efficiency not exceeding 0.70
18. With regard to the thickness of the repair plate at the perimeter of the repair plate, when a
lapped patch repair plate is used to reinforce the thickness of a shell, which of the
following is correct?
a) The repair plate shall not exceed the thickness of the shell plate by more than 1/4th
but no more than 1/8th inch. The maximum repair plate thickness is 1/2inch.
b) The repair plate shall not exceed the thickness of the shell plate by more than 1/3rd
c) The repair plate shall not exceed the thickness of the shell plate by more than 1/3rd
d) The repair plate shall not exceed the thickness of the shell plate by more than 1/4th
but no more than 1/3rd inch. The maximum repair plate thickness is 1/2inch.
19. Lapped patch repair plates may be used to repair small leaks or minimize the potential of
leaks from isolated pitting. The requirements for thickness and design are the same as for
reinforcement of shell thickness. This type of repair may not be used to repair small leaks
if what condition(s) exists?
a) The leak is located anywhere in the first shell course within 12 inches of a vertical
joint
b) The leak of pit is in an area of the shell where there is a product to atmosphere
interface
c) There is a possibility of severe environmental impact should the repair fail
d) If exposure of the fillet weld to the product would produce crevice corrosion or if
a corrosion cell is likely to occur between the shell plate and the repair plate
20. An alteration to a tank shell by the addition of new plate material shall be performed in
accordance with what standard?
a) Current API 650 and latest addenda
b) API 650 edition and addenda applicable at the time of original tank construction
c) Applicable standard
d) Tanks may not be altered by increasing height
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.5

21. Repairs to existing shell penetrations shall be in accordance with

a) API Standard 650
b) API Standard 653
c) API Standard 510
d) National Board Inspection Code
22. API 653 permits the addition of reinforcing plates to existing un-reinforced nozzles.
What requirement is necessary to add this reinforcement to the inside of the tank?
a) The reinforcement plate may not be added to the inside of the plate
b) A telltale hole shall be drilled through the shell opposite the reinforcement plate
c) The reinforcement plate is the same material as the nozzle and is attached to the
nozzle by full penetration weld
d) Sufficient nozzle projection exists
23. The addition or replacement of shell penetrations shall be in accordance with

a) API-650
b) API-650 and API 653
c) API-650 and API 510
d) API-650 and AMSE Section VIII, Division 2
24. Installation or replacement of shell penetrations greater than 2 inches shall be installed
with the use of an insert plate if what condition(s) exists?
a) The penetration is no closer than 12 inches to an existing penetration
b) The shell plate is greater than ½” thickness and the shell plate material does not
meet current metal temperature criteria
c) The penetration is no closer than 10 inches to an existing penetration
d) The shell plate is greater than 3/16” thickness and the shell plate material does not
meet current metal temperature criteria
25. An 8 inch diameter penetration is to be installed in a shell which requires an insert plate.
What is the minimum permitted diameter of the insert plate?
a) Eight inches
b) Twelve inches
c) Sixteen inches
d) Twenty inches
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.8.2(a)
26. An insert plate containing an opening with a reinforcing plate is to be installed in a tank.
The reinforcing plate diameter is thirty-two inches. What is the minimum diameter of the
insert plate?
a) The insert plate must be 32 inches in diameter
b) The insert plate must be 44 inches in diameter
c) The insert plate must be 32 inches in diameter plus the diameter of the opening
d) The insert plate must be 32 inches in diameter plus twice the diameter of the
opening
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.8.2(b)
27. If an integral reinforcement design is used, the thickness of the insert plate, at its
periphery and for a distance of 2t from the edge of the weld, shall be the same thickness
as the shell. If it is not, the insert plate shall have a ______ taper to match the shell plate
thickness.
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) 1:5
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.8.2(c)
28. When it is necessary to install a new tank bottom above an existing bottom, it may be
necessary to alter existing shell penetrations. This procedure may require the existing
reinforcing plate to be removed and a new reinforcement plate added. This is not
permitted when what condition exists?
a) The assembly was originally hardness tested
b) The existing assembly was not impact tested
c) The existing assembly was fabricated from re-claimed material
d) The existing assembly was stress relieved
29. New reinforcing plates shall be installed in accordance with Fig. 7-2a of API-653. In
order to maintain weld spacing, what shape reinforcing plate is permitted?
a) Oval
b) Diamond
c) Tombstone
d) Circular is the only permitted shape
30. No welding or weld overlays are permitted within the “Critical Zone” except for welding
of widely scattered pits, cracks in the bottom plates, the shell-to-bottom weld, or where
the bottom or annular plate is being replaced.
a) True
b) False
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.10.1.2.1
31. API Standard 653 defines the “Critical Zone” for repairs to tank bottoms as what?
a) That portion of the bottom or annular plate within 3" from the inside edge of the
shell, measured radially inward
b) Within the annular plate ring, within 12 inches of the shell, or within 12 inches of
the inside edge of the annular plate ring
c) That portion of the bottom or annular plate within 6" from the inside edge of the
shell, measured radially inward
d) Within the annular plate ring, within 3" of the shell, or within 12 inches of the
inside edge of the annular plate ring
32. If more extensive repairs are required within the “Critical Zone” than those listed in
7.10.1.2, what must be done with the bottom plate?
a) As long as the repairs do not involve the bottom plate, nothing needs to be done
b) The bottom plate welded to the shell shall be cut out and a new plate installed
c) The bottom plate shall be subjected to suitable nondestructive examination to
ensure it has not be adversely affected by the repair
d) The bottom plate and the bottom shell course shall be replaced as an assembly
33. When it is necessary to install a new bottom plate over an existing bottom plate, a
suitable ______ material cushion such as sand, gravel or concrete shall be used between
the old bottom and the new bottom.
a) Drainage
b) Compacted
c) Non-corrosive
d) Non-conductive
34. When a new tank bottom has been installed in a floating roof tank, what consideration
must given to the floating roof level?
a) The floating roof will find its own level
b) The support legs can be jacked up or shortened by the same amount as the
thickness of the cushion and new bottom plate
c) The support legs can be jacked up or shortened by the same amount as the
thickness of the cushion
d) The support legs can be jacked up or shortened by the same amount as the
thickness of the new bottom plate
35. Which of the following is not acceptable when removing an existing tank bottom, with
regard to the separation of the shell from the tank bottom?
a) Cutting the shell parallel to the tank bottom a minimum of ½” above the bottom to
shell weld
b) Removing the entire shell to bottom attachment weld including penetration and
heat affect zone
c) Removing the entire shell to bottom attachment weld by arc gouging and/or
grinding
d) Cutting the shell parallel to the tank bottom a minimum of ¼” above the bottom to
shell weld
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.10.2.2(a) and (b)
36. For installation of a new tank bottom in a tank with shell plates of unknown toughness,
not exempted in Table 10-1 of API-653, new welds in the bottom or annular ring shall be
spaced at least the greater of _____ inches or ____t from existing vertical weld joints in
the bottom shell course. (t is the thickness of the bottom shell course)
a) three, five
b) six, five
c) five, three
d) five, six
37.What is the minimum thickness of new roof plates for supported cone roofs?
a) 7/16”
b) 5/16”
c) 3/16”
d) 1/16”
38. The nominal thickness of new roof plates for self-supporting roofs shall be equal to or
greater than _____ inch not to exceed _____ inch.
a) 1/4th, 5/8th
b) 5/16th, 1/2
c) 3/16th, 5/16th
d) 3/16th, 1/2
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.11.2.1 and API-650 3.10.5 or 3.10.6
39. Repairs to internal floating roofs shall be made in accordance with the original
construction drawings. To what requirements shall repairs be made if the original
construction drawings are not available?
a) The original construction standard
b) Appendix H of API Standard 650
c) Appendix G of API Standard 650
d) Appendix C of API Standard 650
40. To minimize evaporation losses and reduce potential hazard to workers, no more than
____ of the roof seal system should be out of an in-service tank at one time.
a) One-eighth
b) One-fourth
c) One-half
d) Three-quarters
41. Mechanical damage to floating roof perimeter seals shall be repaired or replaced. How
are buckled parts handled?
a) They shall be replaced
b) They may be straightened in place
c) They may be heated and bent back into position
d) They may be removed straightened and re-installed
42. With regard to installation of primary and secondary seals, what must be done if the roof
rim thickness is less than 0.10 inch.
a) The roof rim shall be thoroughly inspected for damage and corrosion, if it is
satisfactory then nothing further needs to be done
b) It shall be replaced. The new roof rim shall be 3/16 inch thickness minimum
c) It shall be replaced. The new roof rim shall be 1/4 inch thickness minimum
d) The tank must be condemned and dismantled
43. What is the maximum hot tap connection permitted in an in-service tank with a minimum
shell thickness of 3/8 inch? The material is of recognized toughness.
a) NPS 6
b) NPS 8
c) NPS 14
d) NPS 18
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.14.1.1(a) and Table 7-1
44. The owner/operator requires a connection to be made in an in-service tank. The shell
material is of unknown toughness and the thickness is 1.25”. The minimum design metal
temperature is 45°F. What is the maximum diameter hot tap connection that may be
installed in this tank?
a) NPS 18
b) NPS 14
c) NPS 8
d) NPS 4
Reference API-653, Paragraph 7.14.1.1(b)(1) and Fig. 7-6
45. The minimum height of tank liquid relative to the hot tap location shall be at least ______
during the hot tapping operation.
a) The tank liquid shall be at least 3 feet below the hot tap location
b) The tank liquid shall be at least 1 foot above the hot tap location
c) The tank liquid shall be at least 3 feet above the hot tap location
d) The tank liquid shall be at least 1 foot below the hot tap location
46. It is permissible to perform hot taps on the roof of a tank or within the gas/vapor space.
a) True
b) False
47. The owner/operator requires an NPS 3 ½ nozzle to be installed in an in-service tank. The
tank is 110 feet in diameter, 60 feet maximum fill height, shell thickness at the point of
hot tap is .75”, and the material is of unknown toughness with a minimum design metal
temperature of 38°F. This nozzle is to be installed adjacent to an existing nozzle. What is
the minimum spacing between these nozzles?
a) Minimum distance is 22.24”
b) Minimum distance is 9.08”
c) Minimum distance is 19.08”
d) Minimum distance is 2.24”
48. When installing a pipe nozzle into an in-service tank, how shall the pipe nozzle be
prepared?
a) The pipe nozzle must be cut to the contour of the tank and prepared for full fillet
welding
b) The pipe nozzle shall be cut to the contour of the tank and beveled to a depth of
not more than 1/3 the nozzle thickness to ensure partial penetration groove
welding
c) The pipe nozzle shall be cut to the contour of the tank and beveled to a depth of
not less than 1/3 the nozzle thickness to ensure partial penetration groove welding
d) The pipe nozzle shall be cut to the contour of the tank and beveled from the
outside for a full penetration weld
49. After the reinforcing pad is installed, the pad shall be subjected to a pneumatic test.
a) True
b) False
50. After the valve has been installed on the flange, a pressure test of at least ______ shall be
performed on the nozzle prior to mounting the hot tap machine.
a) The same pressure as the pneumatic test of the reinforcing pad
b) 1.25 times the hydrostatic head
c) 1.5 times the hydrostatic head
d) 2.0 times the hydrostatic head (to account for the added stress of the machine)
Answers to API-653 Section 7, Repair/Alteration

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 D
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 B
13 B
14 C
15 A
16 B
17 B
18 C
19 D
20 C
21 A
22 D
23 B
24 B
25 D
Answers to API-653 Section 7, Repair and Alteration Continued:

26 B
27 C
28 D
29 C
30 A
31 A
32 B
33 C
34 B
35 D
36 A
37 C
38 D
39 B
40 B
41 A
42 B
43 C
44 D
45 C
46 B
47 A
48 D
49 A
50 C
Section 8 – Dismantling and Reconstruction
1. Bottom plates that will be reused shall be cut by de-seaming of lap-welds or by cutting
alongside of the remaining welds at a minimum of _______ away from existing welds.
a) One inch
b) Two inches
c) Four inches
d) Six inches
2. Shell plates may be cut by any of the following methods except

a) Shell rings ½” thick or thinner can be dismantled by cutting through the weld
without removing the heat affected zone
b) Cuts made a minimum of 6” away from existing welds except where cuts cross
existing welds
c) Cuts made a minimum of 2” away from existing welds except where cuts cross
existing welds
d) Any shell ring may be dismantled by cutting out existing weld seams and the heat
affected zone of the weld
3. API-653 requires that new vertical joints in adjacent shell courses not be in alignment.
What is the minimum offset dimension of these joints?
a) Vertical joints shall be offset a minimum of 5 inches or 5t which ever is greater
b) Vertical joints shall be offset a minimum of 5t where t is the plate thickness of the
thicker course at the point of offset
c) Vertical joints shall be offset a minimum of 5t where t is the plate thickness of the
thinner course at the point of offset
d) Vertical joints shall be offset a minimum of 5 inches or 5t which ever is less
4. Roof plates shall be cut by de-seaming of lap-welds or by cutting alongside of the

remaining welds at a minimum of _______ away from existing welds.
a) One inch
b) Two inches
c) Four inches
d) Six inches
5. In the reconstruction of aboveground storage tanks, welding shall be by any of the following
welding processes except.
a) Submerged arc welding
b) Oxyfuel
c) Gas metal-arc
d) Forging
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.4.2.2 and API-650 5.2.1
6. No welding of any kind may be performed when the surfaces to be welded are wet from rain,
snow, or ice. When rain or snow is falling or during high wind conditions, welding is permitted
provided:
a) The welder is secured to an anti-fall device and the work is properly grounded
b) The welder has agreed to work in such conditions
c) The welder and the work are properly shielded
d) The owner/operator takes full responsibility for the safety of the welder and the quality of
the welds
7. According to API-653, no welding is permitted when the temperature of the base metal is below
what value?
a) Base metal temperature below -20°F
b) Base metal temperature below 0°F
c) Base metal temperature below 20°F
d) Base metal temperature below 30°F
8. If the base metal is greater than 1” thickness or the temperature of the base metal is between 0°F
and 32°F what requirement does API-653 stipulate?
a) The base metal within 3 inches of the weld area shall be heated to a temperature that is
warm to the hand (approximately 180°F)
b) The base metal within 8 inches of the weld area shall be heated to a temperature that is
c) The base metal within 3 inches of the weld area shall be heated to a temperature that is
d) The base metal within 8 inches of the weld area shall be heated to a temperature that is
9. What is the maximum permissible undercut of the base metal for vertical joints?
a) 1/64
b) 1/32
c) 1/19
d) 1/16
10. What is the maximum permissible undercut of the base metal for horizontal joints?
a) 1/64
b) 1/32
c) 1/19
d) 1/16
11. What is the maximum weld reinforcement thickness permitted on each side of the plate for a
plate, which is 7/8” thick?
Vertical joints Horizontal joints
a) 3/32” 1/8”
b) 1/8” 3/16”
c) 3/16” 1/4
d) 1/4 5/16”
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.4.2.6 & Table 8-1
12. Tack welds used in the assembly of vertical joints in tank shells may remain in place when the
joints are welded manually provided:
a) They are properly cleaned of all weld slag
b) They are sound
c) Liquid Penetrant or Magnetic Particle examination is performed
d) They shall not remain
13. What are the requirements for making tack welds according API-653?
a) If the tack weld is to be removed, it must be made using qualified weld procedure and
qualified welder
b) If the tack weld is to remain in place, it must be made using qualified weld procedure and
qualified welder
c) If the tack weld is to remain in place, it may be made using any weld procedure
acceptable to the owner/operator
d) If the tack weld is to be removed, it may be made by any welder wishing to gain
experience provided the process is the SMAW process
14. All coatings must be removed from the weld area prior to welding except weldable primer
coatings. What must done if these primer coatings are used?
a) Weldable primer coatings must also be removed
b) If the coating is applied by brush it may remain provided the application is performed to a
written procedure
c) They shall be included in welding procedure qualification tests for brand, formulation,
and maximum thickness of primer applied
d) They shall be included in welding procedure qualification tests for the method of
application either by brushing or by spraying or a combination of the two.
15. When welding tank bottoms, when should the shell-to-bottom weld be completed?
a) This joint (except for door sheets) can be welded as soon as the bottom plates are
laid out and welded
b) This joint (except for door sheets) shall be welded as soon as the first bottom weld
joint is completed to prevent distortion
c) This joint (except for door sheets) shall be welded as work progresses around the
tank bottom
d) This joint (except for door sheets) shall be completed before the welding of
bottom joints
16. What is the maximum permissible misalignment of vertical joints in shell plates that are
.9375” thick?
a) .125”
b) .09375”
c) .009375”
d) .0125”
17 What is the maximum permissible misalignment of vertical joints in shell plates that are
.625” thick?
a) .0625”
b) .00625”
c) .125”
d) .0125”
18. Vertical joints shall be completed before the lower horizontal weld is made.
a) True
b) False
19. In completing horizontal joints, what is the maximum projection of the upper plate,
beyond the face of the lower plate, at any point for plate thickness of 1.125”
a) .25”
b) .225”
c) .125”
d) .0125”
20. When welding horizontal and vertical joints constructed of material that is over 1.5”
thick, based on the thickness of the thicker part, what is the required preheat temperature?
a) Preheating is not required
b) 140°F
c) 200°F
d) 300°F
21. When shall measurements be taken to verify tolerances of reconstructed tanks?

a) After hydrostatic testing
b) Before hydrostatic testing
c) After lay out of all plates
d) After fit-up and tack welding used for alignment purposes
22. What is the maximum out-of-plumbness of the top of the shell relative to the bottom of
the shell of a tank with a total height of 62.25 feet?
a) 7.47”
b) .6225”
c) 6.25”
d) 5”
23. An aboveground storage tank is 115 feet in diameter. What is the maximum or minimum
radius permitted measured at one foot above the shell-to-bottom weld?
Maximum Minimum
a) 115.75” 114.25”
b) 690.75” 689.25”
c) 1380.75” 1379.25”
d) 115.5” 114.5”
24. An aboveground reconstructed tank is 126.5 feet in diameter. What is the maximum or
minimum radius permitted measured at the second shell course up from the bottom?
Maximum Minimum
a) 759.75” 758.25
b) 761.25” 756.75”
c) 1520.25” 1515.75”
d) 128.75” 124.25”
25. Peaking shall not exceed ½”. This is measured using a horizontal sweep board of what
dimensions?
a) The sweep board shall be 48” long and made to the true outside radius of the tank
b) The sweep board shall be 48” long and made to the true inside radius of the tank
c) The sweep board shall be 36” long and made to the true outside radius of the tank
d) The sweep board shall be 36” long and made to the true inside radius of the tank
26. Banding shall not exceed ____ with a vertical 36” long sweep board.
a) One half inch
b) Three quarter inch
c) One inch
d) One and one eighth inch
27. The top of the concrete ringwall of a reconstructed tank, that is 115 feet in diameter, must be level
within ± 1/8” in any 30 feet of circumference. What is the tolerance measured from the average
elevation?
a) ±1/8”
b) ±3/16”
c) ±1/2”
d) ±1/4”
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.5.6.2(a)
28. Where concrete ringwalls are not provided, the foundation under the shell shall be level to within
what tolerances?
a) ±1/8” in any 30’ of the circumference and ±1/2” in the total circumference measured
from the average elevation
b) ±1/8” in any 10’ of the circumference and ±1/2” in the total circumference measured
c) ±1/8” in any 10’ of the circumference and ±1/4” in the total circumference measured
d) ±1/8” in any 30’ of the circumference and ±1/4” in the total circumference measured
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.5.6.2(b)
29. For foundations specified to be sloped from a horizontal plane, the actual elevation shall not
deviate from the calculated differences by more than which of the following where concrete
ringwalls are provided?
b) ±1/8” in any 10’ of the circumference and ±1/2” in the total circumference
d) ±1/8” in any 30’ of the circumference and ±1/4” in the total circumference
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.5.6.3(a)
30. For foundations specified to be sloped from a horizontal plane, the actual elevation shall not
deviate from the calculated differences by more than which of the following where concrete
ringwalls are not provided?
Reference API-653, Paragraph 8.5.6.3(b)
Answers to API-653 Section 8, Dismantling & Reconstruction

1 b
2 c
3 b
4 b
5 d
6 c
7 b
8 c
9 a
10 b
11 b
12 d
13 b
14 c
15 d
16 b
17 a
18 a
19 c
20 c
21 b
22 d
23 b
24 b
25 c
26 c
27 d
28 b
29 d
30 b
Should you find a mistake or disagree with any answer listed, please bring it to our attention for correction or
clarification.
BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide answers developed from paragraphs of the respective
Code, Standard, or Recommended Practice.
Section 9 - Welding
1. Welding procedure specifications and welders and welding operators shall be qualified in
accordance with __________.
a) Original code of construction
b) Owner/operator’s specification
c) Section IX of the ASME Code
d) Repair organization’s specifications
2. According to API Standard 653, if the material specification for the steel from an existing
tank is unknown or obsolete what must be done?
a) The material can not be used for tank reconstruction
b) Test coupons for the WPS shall be taken from the actual plate to be used
c) Test coupons for the WPS may be taken from a similar material of known
specification
d) Test coupons for the WPS shall only be taken from weld filler metal and not from
the base metal
3. Each welder and welding operator shall be assigned ________.

a) Only one joint to ensure traceabilitiy
b) A specific welding machine
c) An identifying number, letter, or symbol
d) Weld joints on only one side of the tank
4. How does each welder and welding operator identify the welds produced by them?
a) Each welder and welding operator’s identification mark shall be hand or machine
stamped adjacent to each completed weld.
b) Each welder and welding operator shall inform the owner/operator which welds
he or she completed
c) Each welder and welding operator shall show the inspector exactly which welds
they completed
d) Each welder and welding operator shall inform the owner/operator which welds
they will be making prior to the start of such welding
5. At what intervals must the welder and welding operator’s identification be stamped
adjacent to the completed welds?
a) Identification shall be at intervals not to exceed 9 feet
b) Identification shall be at intervals not to exceed 7.5 feet
c) Identification shall be at intervals not to exceed 6 feet
d) Identification shall be at intervals not to exceed 3 feet

6. In lieu of stamping, a record may be kept that identifies the welder or welding operator
for each welded joint.
a) True
b) False
7. What welds do not require welder’s identification?

a) All welds require identification
b) Vertical welded joints which are located within the final shell course since this
course will be subjected to relatively low stresses
c) Roof plate welds and flange-to-nozzle-neck welds
d) Roof plate welds and bottom plate welds
Answers to API-653 Section 9, Welding

1 C
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 D
6 A
7 C
Section 10 – Examination and Testing
1. Nondestructive examination procedures, qualifications, and acceptance criteria is

required for VT, MT, UT, PT, and RT methods and must be in accordance with what
Code or Standard?
a) ASME Code Section V, Nondestructive examination
b) API Standard 650 only
c) API Standard 650 and the supplements given in API-653
d) Owner/operator’s specifications
2. Personnel performing nondestructive examination shall be qualified in accordance with

_____.
a) API Standard 650 and the supplemental requirements of API-653
b) ASME Code Section V, Nondestructive Examination
c) SNT-TC-1A
d) The owner/operator’s specifications
3. When it is necessary to install a hot tap connection or add a reinforcing plate to an

existing un-reinforced penetration, API 653 requires what type, extent, and purpose of
examination.
a) Magnetic particle examination for slight sub-surface discontinuities shall be
performed in an area equal to twice the diameter of the opening
b) Radiographic examination for cracking shall be performed in the immediate area
c) Ultrasonic examination for cracking shall be performed in the immediate area
d) Ultrasonic examination for lamination shall be performed in the immediate area
4. Completed welds attaching nozzle neck to shell, and reinforcing plate to shell and nozzle
neck, shall be examined by _______.
a) Ultrasonic or Radiography
b) Magnetic Particle or Liquid Penetrant
c) Visual examination or Liquid Penetrant
d) Ultrasonic or Magnetic Particle
5. How and when does API Standard 653 require the examination of welds of completed stress
relieved assemblies?
a) Completed welds of stress relieved assemblies shall be examined visually only after
stress relief and hydrostatic test
b) Completed welds of stress relieved assemblies shall be examined visually as well as by
ultrasonic methods after stress relief but before hydrostatic test
c) Completed welds of stress relieved assemblies shall be examined visually as well as by
magnetic particle or liquid penetrant methods after stress relief but before hydrostatic test
d) Completed welds of stress relieved assemblies shall be examined visually or by
radiography after stress relief but before hydrostatic test
6. Completed butt welds between insert plates and the shell require what type and extent of
examination?
a) Complete radiography
b) Spot Radiography
c) Random Radiography
d) Random Spot Radiography
7. In repairing butt weld flaws, what type and extent of examination is required by API-653?
a) Random examination by radiography or ultrasonic methods of the full length of repair
b) Examined full length of the repair by liquid penetrant or magnetic particle methods
c) Examined at three foot intervals by radiography or ultrasonic methods
d) Examined full length of the repair by radiography or ultrasonic methods
8. Completed repairs of fillet welds shall be examined over their full length by the appropriate
nondestructive method listed in API-653.
a) True
b) False
9. With regards to new welds attaching shell plate to shell plate, what method(s) of examination
is/are required on the completed weld?
a) Visual
b) Visual and Radiography
c) Visual and magnetic particle or liquid penetrant
d) Visual and ultrasonic
10. With regards to new welds attaching shell plate to shell plate for plate thickness greater
than one inch, what additional extent and method of examination is required by API-653?
a) The back gouged surface of the root and final pass (each side) shall be examined
for its complete length by the Inspector
b) The back gouged surface of the root and final pass (each side) shall be examined
for its complete length visually
c) The back gouged surface of the root and final pass (each side) shall be examined
for its complete length by magnetic particle or liquid penetrant
d) The back gouged surface of the root and final pass (each side) shall be examined
for its complete length by ultrasonic
11. New welding on the shell-to-bottom joint shall be inspected for its entire length by _____
and _______ or ________.
a) Visual examination, liquid penetrant , magnetic particle
b) Right-angle vacuum box and solution film, light diesel oil
c) Visual examination, ultrasonic, eddy current
d) Visual examination, wet fluorescent magnetic particle, helium tracer gas
12. In applying light diesel oil to the opposite side of the first pass of new shell-to-bottom
joints, how long must the oil remain on the weld and what is the weld inspected for?
a) The oil shall be allowed to stand at least four hours and the weld inspected for
wicking action
b) The oil shall be allowed to stand at least three hours and the weld inspected for
wicking action
c) The oil shall be allowed to stand at least two hours and the weld inspected for
wicking action
d) The oil shall be allowed to stand at least one hour and the weld inspected for
wicking action
13. The existing weld at the shell-to-bottom joint shall be examined visually and magnetic
particle or liquid penetrant methods, for the full length under a welded-on patch plate.
How much additional shell-to-bottom joint must be examined?
a) Three inches on each side of the patch plate
b) Six inches on each side of the patch plate
c) nine inches on each side of the patch plate
d) twelve inches on each side of the patch plate
14. How and to what extent are newly welded bottom joints tested?
a) Newly welded bottom joints shall be tested their entire length using liquid
penetrant
b) Newly welded bottom joints shall be tested their entire length using a vacuum box
and a solution film, or a tracer gas and detector
c) Newly welded bottom joints shall be tested their entire length using visual and
ultrasonic examination
d) Newly welded bottom joints shall be tested their entire length using wet
fluorescent magnetic particle examination
15. What are the requirements, regarding examination, of a welded-on patch plate in the
critical zone?
a) The final weld shall be examined by radiography over its entire length
b) Root and final pass shall be examined by radiography over its entire length
c) The root and final pass shall be examined visually over its entire length
d) The root and final pass shall be examined visually and by magnetic particle of
liquid penetrant method over its entire length
16. API-653 requires the number and location of radiographs to in accordance with API-650.
In addition, API-653 requires how many and what location for new or repaired shell
vertical joints?
a) For new or repaired shell vertical joints one radiograph shall be taken in each fifty
foot length
b) For new or repaired shell vertical joints one radiograph shall be taken in each
twenty-five foot length
c) For new or repaired shell vertical joints one radiograph shall be taken in every
joint
d) For new or repaired shell vertical joints one radiograph shall be taken in every
other joint
17. API-653 requires the number and location of radiographs to in accordance with API-650.
In addition, API-653 requires how many and what location for new or repaired shell
horizontal joints?
a) For new or repaired shell horizontal joints one radiograph shall be taken in each
twenty-five feet of horizontal joint including those required at intersections of
vertical and horizontal joints
b) For new or repaired shell horizontal joints one radiograph shall be taken in each
twenty-five feet of horizontal joint not including those required at intersections of
c) For new or repaired shell horizontal joints one radiograph shall be taken in each
fifty feet of horizontal joint including those required at intersections of vertical
and horizontal joints
d) For new or repaired shell horizontal joints one radiograph shall be taken in each
fifty feet of horizontal joint not including those required at intersections of
18. API-653 requires two radiographs to be taken at each new or replacement intersection
between vertical and horizontal joints. One to comply with the requirement for vertical
joints and one to comply with the requirements for horizontal joints.
a) True
b) False
19. For reconstructed tanks, each butt-welded annular plate joint shall be radiographed in
accordance with which of the following?
a) API-650
b) ASME - Section V
c) API-653 and API-575
d) Owner/operator's specifications
20. For reconstructed tanks, radiographic examination is required for what percentage of all
junctions of new welds over existing seams?
a) 100%
b) 75%
c) 50%
d) 25%
21. Radiographic examination is required for new and replaced shell insert plate and door
shell welds. What are the minimum number and location of such radiographs?
a) Circular plates - four radiographs are required, one at each quadrant
b) Square or rectangular - two radiographs are required in each vertical joint and one
in a horizontal joint
c) Circular plates - one radiograph and for square or rectangular - one in a vertical
joint, one in a horizontal joint, and one in each corner
d) Circular and square of rectangular new or replaced insert plates require 100%
examination
22. What is the minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph?

a) The minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph shall be six inches
b) The minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph shall be three inches
c) The minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph shall be nine inches
d) The minimum diagnostic length of each radiograph shall be twelve inches
23. If the radiograph of an intersection between a new and old weld discloses discontinuities,
which are unacceptable by current standards, what must be done?
a) The unacceptable welds must be removed and made in accordance with current
standards
b) The unacceptable welds shall be repaired to bring them in to compliance
c) The existing welds may be evaluated according to the original standard of
construction
d) The existing welds shall be evaluated using the acceptance criteria of ASME
Section VIII
24. Radiographs and radiograph records of all repaired welds shall be marked with what
letter(s)?
a) "RW" (Repaired Weld)
b) "WR" (Weld Repair)
c) "A" (Accepted repair)
d) "R"
25. Hydrostatic testing is required for reconstructed tanks and tanks that have undergone
major repairs or alterations. What is the minimum length of time the hydrostatic test must
be held?
a) The time is up to the discretion of the Inspector
b) Twenty-four hours
c) The time is up to the discretion of the owner/operator
d) Twelve hours

26. Major repair and major alteration is defined by API-653 by which of the following?
a) Cutting, addition, removal and/or replacement of the annular plate ring only if the
plate is less than 1/2" thick
b) Cutting, addition, removal an/or replacement of the annular plate ring, the shell-
to-bottom weld, or a sizeable portion of the shell
c) Cutting, addition, removal an/or replacement of the annular plate ring, the shell-
to-bottom weld, or a 100 square inch portion of the shell
d) Cutting, addition, removal an/or replacement of the annular plate ring, the shell-
to-bottom weld, or a sizeable portion of the shell in shell material greater than
3/4" thick
27. Of the following, which would not be considered a major repair or alteration?
a) The installation of a shell penetration NPS 12 above the design liquid level
b) The installation of a shell penetration NPS 12 below the design liquid level
c) Jacking of a tank shell
d) The complete of partial removal and replacement of more than 12 inches of
vertical weld joining shell plates, or radial weld joining the annular plate ring
28. A full hydrostatic test of the tank is not required for major repairs and alterations when
certain conditions are met. Where would you look for these conditions?
a) API-650 Paragraph 5.3.6
b) API-RP-575 Paragraph 7.5
c) API-510 Paragraph 6.4
d) API-653 Paragraph 10.3.2
29. Hydrostatic testing is not required for shell repairs when all but which of the following are
complied with?
a) Impact test requirements shall follow appropriate portions of API-650 and must be
specified in the repair procedure
b) New vertical and horizontal shell butt-welds must have complete penetration and fusion
c) New materials shall meet the current edition of ASME Section II Part A
d) Finished weld must be examined by radiography
30. If the owner/operator elects to utilize a fitness-for-service evaluation to exempt a repair form
hydrostatic testing, who perform the evaluation?
a) Fitness-for-service evaluations may not be used to exempt hydrostatic testing following a
repair
b) The Authorized Inspector
c) Engineer experienced in storage tank design and the evaluation methods used
d) Exemption of hydrostatic testing for repairs can only be given by the jurisdiction
31. When settlement is anticipated, a tank that is to be hydrostatically tested shall:

a) Have the plumbness checked
b) Have the water tested to ensure it is potable
c) Have the perimeter dike system checked
d) Have the foundation checked for settlement
32. The tank settlement shall initially be surveyed with the tank empty. What is the minimum
number of settlement measurement points for a tank which is 110 feet in diameter?
a) Minimum number of settlement points is 11
b) Minimum number of settlement points is 32
c) Minimum number of settlement points is 8
d) Minimum number of settlement points is 12
33. The tank settlement shall initially be surveyed with the tank empty. What is the minimum
number of settlement measurement points for a tank which is 60 feet in diameter?
a) Minimum number of settlement points is 12
b) Minimum number of settlement points is 6
c) Minimum number of settlement points is 8
d) Minimum number of settlement points is 4
34. Regardless of the minimum number of settlement measurement points required, what is
the maximum spacing between settlement measurement points?
a) 24 feet
b) 32 feet
c) 36 feet
d) 40 feet
35. When shall settlement be measured?

a) Settlement shall be measured after the water reaches 100% of test level and again
when the tank is emptied
b) Settlement shall be measured during filling and when the water reaches 80% of
test level
c) Settlement shall be measured during filling and when the water reaches 100% of
test level
d) Settlement shall be measured during filling and when the water reaches 100% of
test level and during emptying of the tank
Answers to API-653 Section 10, Examination and Testing

1 c
2 a
3 d
4 b
5 c
6 a
7 d
8 a
9 b
10 c
11 b
12 a
13 b
14 b
15 d
16 c
17 d
18 b
19 a
20 d
21 c
22 a
23 c
24 d
25 b
26 b
27 a
28 d
29 c
30 c
31 d
32 a
33 c
34 b
35 c
Section 11 – Marking
1. Tanks that are reconstructed, in accordance with API-653 shall be identified by a corrosion-
resistant metal nameplate. What is the size requirement for the letters and numerals to be used on
this nameplate and how are they applied to the nameplate?
a) Letters and numerals not less than 1/2" high shall be embossed, engraved, or stamped in
the plate
b) Letters and numerals not less than 1/4" high shall be embossed, engraved, or stamped in
the plate
c) Letters and numerals not less than 5/32" high shall be painted on the plate or embossed,
engraved, or stamped in the plate
d) Letters and numerals not less than 5/32" high shall be embossed, engraved, or stamped in
the plate
2. Where should the new nameplate be attached and what should be done with the existing
nameplate
a) The new nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to the existing nameplate.
The existing nameplate shall be cleaned or suitably reconditioned
b) The new nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to the existing nameplate.
The existing nameplate shall be left attached to the tank
c) The new nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to the existing nameplate.
The existing nameplate shall be removed and placed in the tank record file
d) The new nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to the existing nameplate.
The existing nameplate shall then be discarded
3. All but which of the following information shall be made part of the owner/operator's records for
aboveground storage tanks?
a) Names of all operators of the tank
b) Calculations
c) Construction and repair drawings
d) Additional supporting data
Reference: API-653, Paragraph 11.2.1, 11.2.2, 11.2.3
Answers to API-653 Section 11, Marking

1 D
2 B
3 A
Should you find a mistake or disagree with any answer listed, please bring it to our attention for
correction or clarification. BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide answers
developed from paragraphs of the respective Code, Standard, or Recommended Practice. You can
reach BAY Tech by phone at (610) 594-9036, by fax at (610) 594-2612, or by e-mail at
byagle@gte.net.
Appendix B – Evaluation of Tank Bottom Settlement
1. External measurements for tank settlement shall be taken at points having a maximum
spacing of ____ around the circumference.
a) 24 feet
b) 28 feet
c) 32 feet
d) 36 feet
Reference: API-653 Appendix B, Paragraph B.2.1 and Figure B-1
2. Regardless of tank size, what is the minimum number of settlement point measurements?
a) Four
b) Eight
c) Twelve
D
d) Based on the formula N =
10
3. Internal measurement for tank bottom settlement taken across the diameter of the tank
must be taken at what maximum spacing?
a) 10 feet
b) 24 feet
c) 32 feet
d) 4 feet
4. Which of the following is not listed as settlement component?

a) Uniform settlement
b) Rigid body tilting of a tank (planar tilt)
c) Out-of-plane settlement (differential settlement)
d) Soil undermining (total tank sinking)
Reference: API-653 Appendix B, Paragraph B.2.2
5. What type of settlement is depicted here? 

a) Bottom settlement near tank shell R
b) Edge settlement
c) Localized bottom remote from tank shell
d) Planar settlement Original
bottom
position
Reference: API-653 Appendix B & Fig. B-5
6. Using the formula in B-3.2, determine the maximum permissible deflection (out of plane
distortion) for a tank with the following data reported.
Diameter 110 feet

Height 60 feet
Material Carbon Steel (Young's modulus = 29,000,000 psi)
Yield strength 30,000psi
Arc length between measurements 31.4 feet
a) S = .09 feet
b) S = .9 feet
c) S = 9 feet
d) S = .009 feet
Reference: API-653 Appendix B Paragraph B.3.2
7. What is the maximum depth of a local depression in a tank bottom if the radius of an
inscribed circle is equal to 7.5 feet?
a) B B = .2775 inches
b) B B = 2.775 inches
c) B B = 27.75 inches
d) B B = .02775 inches
Reference: API-653 Appendix B Paragraph B.3.3
Answers to API-653 Appendix B, Tank Bottom Settlement

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 A
7 B
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 1
Section 1 – Scope
1. API 650 covers the design, materials, fabrication, erection, and testing of aboveground
steel storage tanks. What is the maximum internal pressure for tanks not covered by
appendix F of this standard?
a) Maximum pressure shall not exceed 15 psig
b) Maximum pressure shall not exceed 15 psia
c) Maximum pressure shall not exceed the weight of the roof plates
d) Maximum pressure shall not exceed the weight of the floor plates
2. API-650 applies only to tanks whose entire bottom is uniformly supported and tanks in
___ that have a maximum operating temperature of _____°F.
a) Any petrochemical service and temperature not exceeding 120°F
b) Non-refrigerated service and temperature not exceeding 200°F
c) Non-refrigerated service and temperature not exceeding 120°F
d) Any petrochemical service and temperature not exceeding 200°F
3. An aboveground storage tank is to be subjected to a small internal service pressure. To

which standard or Code may the tank be designed?
a) API-650 providing the requirements of Appendix F are met
b) API-653 providing the requirements of Appendix F are met
c) ASME-Section VIII, Div. 1 providing the requirements of Appendix F are met
d) ASME-Section VIII, Div. 2 providing the requirements of Appendix F are met
4. According to Table 1-1, what is the status of Appendix O?

a) This Appendix is a Recommendation
b) This Appendix is a Requirement
c) This Appendix is Mandatory
d) This Appendix is Purchaser’s option
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 1.1.19 and Table 1-1
5. What is the purpose of the ( ) next to a paragraph number?

a) The paragraph requires a decision or action by the API
b) The paragraph requires a decision or action by the Inspector
c) The paragraph requires a decision or action by the purchaser
d) The paragraph requires a decision or action by the fabricator
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 1.1.2 and Note
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 2
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 1, Scope

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 C
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 3
Section 2 – Materials
1. API-650 lists materials to be used in the construction of tanks covered by the standard. Is
it permissible to use materials other than those listed in the standard?
a) No only materials listed in API-650 may be used in tank fabrication
b) Yes as long as the manufacturer accepts full liability for tank failure
c) Yes providing it is certified as meeting all requirements of a material listed in
API-650 and is approved by the API-653 Inspector
d) Yes providing it is certified as meeting all the requirements of a material listed in
API-650 and is approved by the purchaser
2. If a new or unused plate cannot be completely identified, may it still be used in the
construction of tanks within the scope of API-650?
a) Yes only if the material passes the tests prescribed in Appendix S
b) Yes only if the material passes the tests prescribed in Appendix N
c) Yes only if the material passes the tests prescribed in ASME Section V
d) Yes only if the material passes the tests prescribed in ASME Section VIII, Div. 2
3. What is the maximum permitted underrun for shell, roof, and bottom plates?
a) 0.10 inch from the computed design thickness or minimum permitted thickness
b) 0.01 inch from the computed design thickness or minimum permitted thickness
c) 0.001 inch from the computed design thickness or minimum permitted thickness
d) 0.02 inch from the computed design thickness or minimum permitted thickness
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.1.2.3
4. Shell plates are limited to what maximum thickness?

a) Shell plates are limited to a maximum thickness of 1.250 inches
b) Shell plates are limited to a maximum thickness of 1.875 inches
c) Shell plates are limited to a maximum thickness of 1.750 inches
d) Shell plates are limited to a maximum thickness of 1.075 inches
5. Which of the following is not a requirement for shell plates that are thicker than 1.5
inches?
a) Plates thicker than 1.5 inches shall be free of mill scale and painted
b) Plates thicker than 1.5 inches shall be made to fine-grain practice
c) Plates thicker than 1.5 inches shall be impact tested
d) Plates thicker than 1.5 inches shall be normalized or quench tempered
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 4
6. What is the maximum shell plate thickness permitted for a tank fabricated of ASTM A 36
material?
a) This plate material is limited to 1.750 inches
b) This plate material is limited to 1.075 inches
c) This plate material is limited to 1.050 inches
d) This plate material is limited to 1.500 inches
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.2 a
7. What is the maximum shell plate thickness permitted for a tank fabricated of ASTM A
285, Grade C material?
a) This plate material is limited to 1.000 inches
b) This plate material is limited to 1.250 inches
c) This plate material is limited to 1.500 inches
d) This plate material is limited to 1.750 inches
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.2 d
8. All welding to repair surface defects shall be done with ______.

a) Cellulose coated electrode
b) High nickel content electrode
c) Low-hydrogen electrode
d) Gas tungsten process
9. When conducting impact tests, how many specimens are required from a single test
coupon?
a) Impact tests shall be performed on a single specimen taken from a single test
coupon
b) Impact tests shall be performed on two specimens taken from a single test coupon
c) Impact tests shall be performed on three specimens taken from a single test
coupon
d) Impact tests shall be performed on four specimens taken from a single test coupon
10. In situations where it is not possible to obtain full size specimens, what is the required
width along the notch for subsize specimens?
a) 60% of the material thickness
b) 80% of the material thickness
c) 90% of the material thickness
d) 75% of the material thickness
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 5
11. Unless data is available to justify a different temperature, what must the design metal
temperature be for an aboveground storage tank to be installed in Birmingham, Alabama?
a) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 25°F
b) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 15°F
c) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 20°F
d) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 10°F
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.9.3 and Figure 2-2
12. Unless data is available to justify a different temperature, what must the design metal
temperature be for an aboveground storage tank to be installed in Indianapolis, Indiana?
a) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 5°F
b) The design temperature shall be assumed to be -5°F
c) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 0°F
d) The design temperature shall be assumed to be 10°F
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.9.3 and Figure 2-2
13. What is the required average longitudinal impact value of three specimens taken from a
1.375 inch thick A 516M-60(415) normalized Group IIIA test coupon?
a) 30 foot-pounds
b) 20 foot-pounds
c) 15 foot-pounds
d) 13 foot-pounds
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 2.2.10.2 and Figures 2-3 and 2-4
14. What is the required average longitudinal impact value of three specimens taken from a
1.5 inch thick A 516M-70(485) as rolled Group V test coupon?
a) 35 foot-pounds
b) 25 foot-pounds
c) 20 foot-pounds
d) 30 foot-pounds
15. Longitudinal impact tests are performed on three specimens, taken from a 1.5 inch thick
A 516M-70(485) as rolled test coupon with the following results: Specimen #1 – 42 foot-
pounds, Specimen #2 – 18 foot-pounds, Specimen # 3 – 31 foot-pounds. Is the impact test
acceptable?
a) Yes the average impact value exceeds 30 foot-pounds
b) Yes only one specimen is less than 2/3 the specified minimum value
c) No the average impact value of Specimen # 1 exceeds 2/3 the required average
impact value and one specimen is less than 2/3 the specified minimum value
d) No Specimen #2 is less than 2/3 the specified minimum
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 6
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 2, Materials

1 D
2 B
3 B
4 C
5 A
6 D
7 A
8 C
9 C
10 B
11 C
12 A
13 C
14 D
15 D
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 7
Section 3 – Design
1. According to API-650, tack welds _______

a) May be installed by welders who need practice
b) Can be considered as adding to the strength of a welded joint
c) Are not considered as having any strength value in the finished structure
d) Have strength value in the finished structure provided they are performed by a
qualified welder to a qualified welding procedure
2. What is the minimum size fillet weld permitted when joining a 1” thick plate to a ¾”
thick plate?
a) 3/16”
b) 1/4”
c) 3/8”
d) 1/2”
3. For lap-welded joints that are tack welded, what is the minimum amount of lap
permitted?
a) The lap need not exceed 2”
b) The lap need not exceed 1”
c) The joint shall be lapped at least 5 times the minimum required thickness of the
thinner plate
d) The joint shall be lapped at least 5 times the nominal thickness of the thinner plate
4. The welded joint pictured here is defined as what type of joint?

a) Double-V butt joint
b) Square-groove butt joint
c) Double-U butt joint
d) Double-square butt joint
5. Vertical shell joints may be partial penetration groove welds welded from both sides.
a) True
b) False
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.1.5.2 a
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 8
6. API 650 requires the vertical joints in adjacent shell courses to be offset. What is the
minimum required offset between the first course of an AST, which is 1.25” thick and the
second course which is 1” thick?
a) The minimum offset shall be 5 times the second shell course height
b) The minimum offset shall be 5 times the thickness of the second course
c) The minimum offset shall be 5 times the first shell course height
d) The minimum offset shall be 5 times the thickness of the first shell course
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.1.5.2 b
7. Three-plate laps in tank bottoms shall be at least ____ from each other, from the tank
shell, from butt-welded annular-plate joints, and from joints between annular plates and
the bottom.
a) 1.2 inches
b) 12 inches
c) 1.2 feet
d) 12 feet
8. What is the maximum size of fillet weld permitted in the attachment between the lowest
course shell plate and the bottom plate?
a) 3/8 inch
b) 5/16 inch
c) 1/2 inch
d) 1/4 inch
9. What is the minimum size fillet weld required on each side of the shell plate attaching
shell plate to the annular plate? The shell plate is 1.25” thick.
a) 3/8 inch
b) 3/16 inch
c) 1/4 inch
d) 5/16 inch
10. A 110 ft diameter tank shall have a top angle not less than ____ inches.
a) 2 X 2 X 3/8
b) 2 X 3 X 3/8
c) 3 X 3 X 3/8
d) 3 X 2 X 3/8
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 9
11. The ______ shall state the design metal temperature, the design specific gravity, the
corrosion allowance, and the design wind velocity.
a) The purchaser
b) The fabricator
c) The Inspector
d) Erector
12. According to API-650, tanks meeting the minimum requirements of the standard may be
subjected to a partial vacuum of _____.
a) One inch of mercury
b) One inch of water pressure
c) One pound per square inch absolute
d) One centimeter of water pressure
13. An AST is 116 ft in diameter and constructed of A 516M-70(485) Group V as rolled

material. How many hardness tests are required on one circumferential weld?
a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
14. The purchaser orders an aboveground storage tank and insists on a corrosion allowance in
the bottom plates of .125 inches. What is the minimum thickness permitted for bottom
plates in this tank?
a) Minimum thickness of bottom plate is 1/4 inch
b) Minimum thickness of bottom plate is 1/2 inch
c) Minimum thickness of bottom plate is 3/8 inch
d) Minimum thickness of bottom plate is 5/16 inch
15. What is the minimum projection, of trimmed bottom plates, beyond the outside edge of
the weld attaching bottom to the shell?
a) Minimum projection is 0.01 inch
b) Minimum projection is 0.10 inch
c) Minimum projection is 1.00 inch
d) Minimum projection is 10.0 inch
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 10
16. Annular bottom plates shall have a radial width that provides at least ____ between the
inside of the shell and any lap-welded joint in the remainder of the bottom.
a) 12 inches
b) 24 inches
c) 1.2 inches
d) 2.4 inches
17. How far must annular bottom plates project outside the shell?
a) Annular bottom plates shall project at least 1 inch when trimmed
b) Annular bottom plates shall project at least 1/2 inch beyond the edge of the weld
c) Annular bottom plates shall project at least 2 inches outside the shell
d) Annular bottom plates shall project at least 5t (t = thickness of the shell course)
outside the shell
18. The thickness of the first shell course of an aboveground storage tank is 1&5/8th inches.
The hydrostatic test stress in the first shell course is 33,000 psi. What is the minimum
permissible thickness of the annular bottom plates?
a) Minimum permitted thickness is 5/8th inch
b) Minimum permitted thickness is 9/16th inch
c) Minimum permitted thickness is 3/4 inch
d) Minimum permitted thickness is 11/16th inch
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.5.3 and Table 3-1
19. According to API-650, what is the minimum allowable nominal shell thickness of an
AST that is 86 feet in diameter?
a) Minimum nominal shell thickness is 3/16th inch
b) Minimum nominal shell thickness is 1/4 inch
c) Minimum nominal shell thickness is 9/32nd inch
d) Minimum nominal shell thickness is 5/16th inch
20. Unless otherwise agreed to by the purchaser, what is the minimum nominal width of shell
plates?
a) Minimum width of shell plates is 84 inches
b) Minimum width of shell plates is 96 inches
c) Minimum width of shell plates is 72 inches
d) Minimum width of shell plates is 120 inches
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 11
21. Aboveground storage tank manufacturers are required to furnish a drawing to the
purchaser listing all but which of the following for each course?
a) The material specification
b) The allowable stress
c) The nominal thickness used
d) The nominal thickness of coatings
22. In calculating the net plate thickness for an AST fabricated of A 516M Grade 450(60)
material, what would be the product design stress value used in the calculation?
a) 24,000
b) 21,300
c) 32,000
d) 23,300
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.6.2.1 and Table 3-2
23. The fabricator of an AST obtains the approval of the purchaser to use the alternative shell
design permitted in Appendix A in the design of a 60 foot diameter tank using 3/8th inch
A 516M Grade 450(60) plate. What allowable stress would be used in the design
calculations?
a) 21,300
b) 24,000
c) 21,000
d) 32,000
24. What is the maximum diameter of tank that permits the 1-foot method of calculation for
required thickness?
a) Tanks 50 feet in diameter and less
b) Tanks 120 feet in diameter and less
c) Tanks 180 feet in diameter and less
d) Tanks 200 feet in diameter and less
25. Openings in tank shells, larger than that required to accommodate a ____ flanged or
threaded nozzle shall be reinforced.
a) 2 inch
b) 2.5 inch
c) 3 inch
d) 3.5 inch
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 12
26. When installing openings in a shell plate, the edge of the fillet weld around the periphery
of the reinforcing pad shall be spaced at least the greater of _______ from the centerline
of any butt-welded shell joints.
a) Eight inches or ten times the weld size
b) Eight times the weld size or ten inches
c) Eight times the weld size or six inches
d) Eight inches or six times the weld size
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.7.3.1 a
27. When installing openings adjacent to each other, how much space must there be between
the welds around the periphery of the reinforcing plate?
a) Eight times the larger weld or ten inches from each other
b) Eight inches or six times the larger weld from each other
c) Eight times the larger weld or six inches from each other
d) Eight times the larger weld or eight inches from each other
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 3.7.3.1 b
28. A minimum distance of ____ shall be maintained between the toe of a weld around a
non-reinforced penetration and the toe of the shell-to-bottom weld.
a) Ten inches
b) Eight inches
c) Six inches
d) Three inches
29. Subject to the acceptance of the purchaser, the manufacture may locate a circular shell
opening in a horizontal butt-welded shell joint provided ______.
a) Minimum spacing dimensions are met and a liquid penetrant examination of the
welded joint is conducted
b) Minimum spacing dimensions are met and a radiographic examination of the
c) Minimum spacing dimensions are met and an ultrasonic examination of the
d) Minimum spacing dimensions are met and a magnetic particle examination of the
30. All flush-type clean-out fittings and flush-type shell connections shall be thermally stress
relieved after assembly and prior to installation in the tank. What are the temperature
range and time requirements for this stress relief activity?
a) 1100°F to 1200°F for 1 hour per inch of reinforcing plate thickness
b) 1100°F to 1200°F for 1/2 hour per inch of shell thickness
c) 1100°F to 1200°F for 1 hour per inch of shell thickness
d) 1100°F to 1200°F for 1 & 1/2 hour per inch of shell thickness

API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 13
31. Subject to the acceptance of the purchaser, the fabricator may stress relieve at a
temperature of 1000°F when it is impractical to stress relieve at a minimum temperature
of 1100°F providing _____.
a) The shell plate is first pre-heated to 300°F
b) The holding time is increased to 2 hours per inch of thickness
c) The holding time is increased to 4 hours per inch of thickness
d) The holding time is increased to 10 hours per inch of thickness
32. What is the minimum required thickness for a manhole cover plate to be used with a 24
inch manhole? The maximum design liquid level of the tank is 45 feet.
a) Minimum thickness of cover plate is 9/16th inch
b) Minimum thickness of cover plate is 5/8th inch
c) Minimum thickness of cover plate is 1/2 inch
d) Minimum thickness of cover plate is 11/16th inch
33. What is the bolt circle diameter for a cover plate used with a 30 inch diameter manhole?
a) 32 ¾ inch
b) 36 ¼ inch
c) 38 ¾ inch
d) 42 ¼ inch
34. The purchaser has ordered a 36 inch manhole to be installed in the first course of an AST.
The thickness of the shell plate and the reinforcing plate is 1.375 inches. What is the
required hole diameter that must be cut in the tank to accommodate this manhole?
a) 36 & 1/4 inch
b) 36 & 1/2 inch
c) 36 & 3/4 inch
d) 36 & 5/8 inch
35. API 650 requires telltale holes in reinforcing plates. What is the required dimension of
this hole and what should be done with it after the initial re-pad pressure test?
a) The hole shall be 3/8 inch diameter and shall be left open to the atmosphere
b) The hole shall be 1/4 inch diameter and shall be left open to the atmosphere
c) The hole shall be 3/8 inch diameter and shall be closed after testing
d) The hole shall be 1/4 inch diameter and shall be closed after testing
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 14
36. What is the maximum size un-reinforced opening permitted in flat cover plates without
increasing the thickness of the cover plate?
a) 4 inch pipe size providing the edge of the opening is not more than ¼ the height
or diameter of the opening closer to the center of the cover plate
b) 3 inch pipe size providing the edge of the opening is not more than ¼ the height
c) 2 inch pipe size providing the edge of the opening is not more than ¼ the height
d) 1 & ½ inch pipe size providing the edge of the opening is not more than ¼ the
height or diameter of the opening closer to the center of the cover plate
37. What is the maximum size opening that may be placed in a cover plate?
a) 12 inches pipe size
b) 8 inches pipe size
c) 6 inches pipe size
d) 3 inches pipe size
38. An aboveground storage tank has a design liquid height of 40 feet. The purchaser intends
to install product mixing equipment in the cover plate of a 30 inch manhole. What is the
required minimum thickness of the cover plate?
a) The minimum thickness shall be at least .625 inches
b) The minimum thickness shall be at least .75 inches
c) The minimum thickness shall be at least .9375 inches
d) The minimum thickness shall be at least .875 inches
39. A 24 inch manhole is to be installed in a roof plate and it is anticipated that work may be
carried on through the manhole while the tank is in use. What is the diameter of the
opening to be cut in the roof plate and what is the outside diameter of the reinforcing
plate?
a) The diameter of the opening is 24.625” and the OD of the reinforcing plate is 42”
b) The diameter of the opening is 24.625” and the OD of the reinforcing plate is 46”
c) The diameter of the opening is 24.750” and the OD of the reinforcing plate is 42”
d) The diameter of the opening is 24.750” and the OD of the reinforcing plate is 46”
40. What is the minimum thickness permitted for rectangular roof opening cover plates?
a) Minimum thickness shall not be less than .875 inches
b) Minimum thickness shall not be less than .750 inches
c) Minimum thickness shall not be less than .625 inches
d) Minimum thickness shall not be less than .500 inches
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 15
41. Stiffening ring splice welds shall be located at least _____ from any vertical shell weld.
a) 24 inches
b) 18 inches
c) 12 inches
d) 6 inches
42. When stiffening rings are to be used as walkways, what is the required width of the
stiffening ring?
a) The width shall be not less than 36 inches clear of the projecting curb angle on the
top of the tank shell
b) The width shall be not less than 3 feet 6 inches clear of the projecting curb angle
on the top of the tank shell
c) The width shall be not less than 24 inches clear of the projecting curb angle on the
top of the tank shell
d) The width shall be not less than 2 feet 4 inches clear of the projecting curb angle
on the top of the tank shell
43. How far below the top of the curb angle should a stiffening ring, that is to be used as a
walkway, be located?
a) 3 feet 6 inches
b) 36 inches
c) 6 feet 3 inches
d) 63 inches
44. All roofs and supporting structures shall be designed to support dead loads plus a uniform
live load of not less than _____ of projected area
a) 25 pounds per square inch
b) 25 pounds per square foot
c) 25 pounds per square yard
d) 25 pounds per square meter
45. What is the minimum nominal thickness permitted for roof plates?
a) 3/16 inch or 5.76 pounds per square foot
b) 3/16 inch or 6.75 pounds per square foot
c) 3/16 inch or 7.65 pounds per square foot
d) 3/16 inch or 12-gauge sheet
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 16
46. A roof where the continuous fillet weld between the roof plates and the top angle does
not exceed 3/16", the slope at the top angle attachment does not exceed 2" in 12", and the
shell-to-roof compression ring details are limited to Figure F-2 (a)-(d) may be considered
what type of roof?
a) A 1 in 6 roof
b) A dangerous roof design and should be avoided
c) A roof with inherent compensation
d) A frangible roof
47. Rafters shall be spaced so that in the outer ring, their centers are not more than _____
apart measured along the circumference of the tank.
a) 3π feet or 9.42 feet
b) 2π feet or 6.28 feet
c) 4π feet or 12.56 feet
d) 2.5π feet or 7.85 feet
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 3, Design

1 C
2 B
3 D
4 A
5 B
6 D
7 B
8 C
9 D
10 C
11 A
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 C
16 B
17 C
18 A
19 B
20 C
21 D
22 B
23 C
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 17
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 3, Design (continued)
24 D
25 A
26 B
27 C
28 D
29 B
30 C
31 C
32 A
33 B
34 C
35 B
36 C
37 A
38 D
39 B
40 D
41 D
42 C
43 A
44 B
45 C
46 D
47 B
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 18
Section 4 – Fabrication
1. What method(s) is/are permitted for straightening material?

a) Pressing or other non-injurious method prior to layout or shaping
b) Heating and hammering after layout or shaping
c) Jacking into shape after final assembly
d) Jacking into shape and holding with tack welds
2. When plates are to be butt-welded, shearing is limited to what maximum thickness?

a) 5/8th inch
b) 3/8th inch
c) 3/16th inch
d) Shearing is not permitted
3. When plates are to be used in lap-welded joints, shearing is limited to what maximum
thickness
a) 3/16th inch
b) 3/8th inch
c) 1/2 inch
d) 5/8th inch
4. What are the requirements regarding mill test reports according to API-650?
a) No material shall be used in the construction of an AST unless it is accompanied
by a mill test report
b) Mill test reports are required only on shell plate material
c) Mill test reports shall be furnished to the purchaser only when specified in the
original purchase order
d) Mill test reports shall be furnished to the purchaser prior to final acceptance of the
AST
5. Mill and shop inspection releases the manufacturer from responsibility for replacing
defective material.
a) True
b) False
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 19
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 4, Fabrication

1 A
2 B
3 D
4 C
5 B
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 20
Section 5 – Erection
1. What welding process is not permitted when impact testing of the material is required?
a) Shielded metal-arc
b) Gas metal-arc
c) Oxyfuel
d) Submerged arc
2. Welding may be performed manually, automatically, or semi-automatically according to

the procedures described in ____ of the ASME Code.
a) Section VIII, Division 1
b) B31.3
c) Section VIII, Division 2
d) Section IX
3. No welding of any kind shall be performed when the temperature of the base metal is less
than ____°F
a) Sixty
b) Thirty-two
c) Zero
d) Negative fifteen
4. When base metal thickness is greater than 1.25 inches or the base metal temperature is
0°F -32°F, what requirement must be met?
a) The base metal within 3 inches of the starting point of the welding shall be heated
to a temperature warm to the hand
b) The base metal within 3 inches of the starting point of the welding shall be heated
to a temperature of not less than 200°F
c) The base metal within 3 inches of the starting point of the welding shall be heated
d) The base metal within 3 inches of the starting point of the welding shall be heated
5. What is the maximum acceptable undercut for horizontal butt joints?

a) 1/64th inch
b) 1/32nd inch
c) 3/64th inch
d) 3/32nd inch

API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 21
6. What is the maximum acceptable undercut for vertical butt joints?

a) 3/32nd inch
b) 3/64th inch
c) 1/32nd inch
d) 1/64th inch
7. What is the maximum permissible weld reinforcement for a vertical joint in plate
thickness 1.25”?
a) 3/16th inch
b) 1/8th inch
c) 1/4th inch
d) 3/32nd inch
8. When tack welds are used during the assembly of vertical joints, what requirement is
stipulated by API-650?
a) Tack welds that are to be removed do not require a qualified procedure or welder
b) Tack welds that are to be left in place shall be made using a qualified procedure
only
c) Tack welds that are to be removed may be made using a welder in training
d) Tack welds that are to be left in place shall be made using a qualified procedure
and welder
9. What is the requirement when protective coatings are used on surfaces to be welded?
a) The coating must be removed prior to welding
b) The coating shall be included in the welder’s performance qualification tests
c) The coating shall be included in the welding procedure qualification
d) The coating shall be identified on the purchase order
10. The welding of the ____ shall be practically complete prior to welding-out the bottom
joints.
a) Nozzle reinforcement periphery welds
b) Shell-to-bottom weld
c) All vertical and horizontal shell welds
d) All external attachment welds
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 22
11. In a vertical joint of an AST, what is the maximum misalignment of 1.5” thick plate?
a) Maximum misalignment is .150 inch
b) Maximum misalignment is .145 inch
c) Maximum misalignment is .135 inch
d) Maximum misalignment is .125 inch
12. In a horizontal joint of an AST, what is the maximum projection of an upper plate beyond
the face of the plate below it? The plate thickness is .25 inch.
a) Maximum projection is .0625 inch
b) Maximum projection is .0500 inch
c) Maximum projection is .1250 inch
d) Maximum projection is .09375 inch
13. Multi-pass weld procedures are required for circumferential and vertical joints in tank
shell courses constructed of material that is more than 1.5 inches thick. What is the
maximum weld pass size permitted and what is the minimum pre-heat temperature?
a) No weld pass over ¾ inch with a minimum pre-heat of 300°F
b) No weld pass over ½ inch with a minimum pre-heat of 200°F
c) No weld pass over ¾ inch with a minimum pre-heat of 200°F
d) No weld pass over ½ inch with a minimum pre-heat of 300°F
14. The initial weld pass inside the shell of the shell-to-bottom weld shall be cleaned and
examined for its entire circumference. This examination shall be visually and by which of
the following?
a) Magnetic particle or ultrasonic or suitable liquid penetrant process
b) Magnetic particle or suitable liquid penetrant process or a vacuum box and bubble
method
c) Magnetic particle or radiography or vacuum box and bubble method
d) Magnetic particle or acoustic emission or eddy current
15. The required examination of the initial weld pass as described in API-650 may be waived
subject to agreement between the purchaser and the AST manufacturer provided all but
which of the following examinations are performed on the entire circumference of the
weld(s)
a) Examine either side of the finished weld by MT, PT, or right angle vacuum box
b) Visually examine the initial weld (inside and outside)
c) Visually examine the finished joint welded surfaces (inside and outside the shell)
d) Examine either side of the finished weld by MT, PT, UT, or RT

API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 23
16. What are the dimensions of a standard vacuum testing box?

a) 6” wide by 30” long
b) 6” wide by 24” long
c) 6” wide by 36” long
d) 6” wide by 32” long
17. In an examination of a tank’s bottom weld seams by vacuum box testing, what is the
required partial vacuum pressure?
a) At least 1 lbf/in2 gauge (psig)
b) At least 2 lbf/in2 gauge (psig)
c) At least 3 lbf/in2 gauge (psig)
d) At least 4 lbf/in2 gauge (psig)
18. If an alternative to vacuum box testing is used, whose approval is required?

a) The Manufacturer
b) The API-653 Inspector
c) The local jurisdiction
d) The purchaser
19. After fabrication is completed but prior to filling an aboveground storage tank with test
water, reinforcing plates shall be tested. What method of test and pressure shall be used?
a) A hydrostatic pressure test at up to 15 lbf/in2 (psig)
b) A pneumatic pressure test at up to 15 lbf/in2 (psig)
c) A vacuum test at a partial pressure of 2 lbf/in2 (psig)
d) A pneumatic pressure test at up to 25 lbf/in2 (psig)
20. A new aboveground storage tank must be tested. If water is available for testing the shell,
the tank shall be filled to any of the following levels except?
a) To the maximum design liquid level
b) Tanks with tight roofs, to 2 inches above the weld connecting the roof plate of
compression bar to the top angle of the shell
c) To overflowing to ensure all air is vented from the tank
d) To a level lower than specified in a) or b) when restricted by overflows or
freeboard agreement between the manufacturer and the purchaser
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 24
21. The purchaser of an AST that is designed to be gas tight required the roof to be tested
pneumatically. What maximum pressure would be applied to a tank with ¼” thick roof
plates?
a) The maximum pneumatic pressure permitted is .053 psi
b) The maximum pneumatic pressure permitted is .071 psi
c) The maximum pneumatic pressure permitted is .083 psi
d) The maximum pneumatic pressure permitted is .091 psi
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 5.3.7.1 and 3.10.2.2

Solution: 3/16” thick plate = 7.65 lb/ft ∴1/16” = 2.55 lb/ft
22. During the filling of an aboveground storage tank for testing, leakage was observed in a
horizontal seam. Repairs are to be completed with the test water in the tank. The tank is
61 feet high and the leak is discovered 29 feet below the top of the tank. Where must the
water level be during the repair?
a) The water level shall be not less than 30 feet from the top of the tank
b) The water level shall be not more than 32 feet from the bottom of the tank
c) The water level shall be at the maximum design liquid level
d) The water shall be removed from the tank
23. A 60 foot high aboveground storage tank is designed with an internal floating roof. What
is the maximum out-of-plumbness permitted on the 54.5 foot fixed roof columns?
a) 2.94 inches
b) 3.27 inches
c) 1.31 inches
d) 1.18 inches
24. What is the maximum roundness tolerance (radius tolerance) permitted on an AST that is
110 feet in diameter and where is this tolerance applied?
a) ¾” measured 10 feet above the bottom corner weld
b) ¾” measured 1 foot below the top shell angle joint
c) ¾” measured 1 foot above the bottom corner weld
d) ¾” measured 10 feet below the top shell angle joint
25. Peaking at vertical welds and banding at horizontal welds shall not exceed ____.
a) 1 inch
b) ¾ inch
c) ½ inch
d) ¼ inch
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 5.5.4 (a and b)
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 25
26. Peaking and banding are determined using a horizontal sweep board for peaking and a
straight edge vertical sweep board for banding. What is the required length of these
sweep boards?
a) 48 inches
b) 24 inches
c) 42 inches
d) 36 inches
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 5.5.4 (a and b)
27. The top of the concrete ringwall (where installed) of an AST must be level within ± 1/8”
in any 30 feet of circumference. What is the total circumferential tolerance measured
from the average elevation?
a) ±1/8”
b) ±3/16”
c) ±1/2”
d) 1/4”
Reference API-650, Paragraph 5.5.5.2 (a)
28. Where a concrete ringwall is not provided, the foundation under the shell shall be level to
within what tolerances?
a) ±1/8” in any 30’ of the circumference and ±1/2” in the total circumference
measured from the average elevation
c) ±1/8” in any 10’ of the circumference and ±1/4” in the total circumference
Reference API-650, Paragraph 5.5.5.2 (b)
29. For foundations specified to be sloped from a horizontal plane, the actual elevation shall
not deviate from the calculated differences by more than which of the following where
concrete ringwalls are provided?
Reference API-650, Paragraph 5.5.5.3 (a)
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 26
30. For foundations specified to be sloped from a horizontal plane, the actual elevation shall
not deviate from the calculated differences by more than which of the following where
concrete ringwalls are not provided?
Reference API-650, Paragraph 5.5.5.3 (b)
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 5, Erection
Question Number Answer Question Number Answer

1 C 16 A
2 D 17 C
3 C 18 D
4 A 19 B
5 B 20 C
6 D 21 B
7 A 22 A
8 D 23 B
9 C 24 C
10 B 25 C
11 D 26 D
12 A 27 D
13 C 28 B
14 B 29 D
15 D 30 B
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 27
Section 6 – Methods of inspecting Joints
1. With regards to radiographic examination of welded joints, API-650 considers plates to

be the same thickness when the difference in their specified or design thickness is not
greater than ____.
a) 1/32nd inch
b) 1/16th inch
c) 3/32nd inch
d) 1/8th inch
2. Which of the following joints do not require radiographic examination?

a) Bottom-plate welds
b) Shell butt welds
c) Flush-type connections with butt welds
d) Annular-plate butt welds
3. Vertical butt welds in plates not greater than 3/8th inch thick, require one spot radiograph
to be taken in the first _____ of completed vertical joint of each type and thickness by
each welder or welding operator.
a) 100 feet
b) 50 feet
c) 25 feet
d) 10 feet
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 6.1.2.2(a)
4. One additional spot radiograph shall be taken in each additional ____ of vertical joint of
the same type and thickness.
a) 10 feet
b) 200 feet
c) 100 feet
d) 25 feet
5. What percentage of the selected spot radiographs must be at junctions of vertical and
horizontal welded joints?
a) 25 percent
b) 50 percent
c) 75 percent
d) 15 percent
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 28
6. For butt welded joints in plates over 3/8” to not over 1” in thickness are required to be
radiographically examined to the same extent as plates 3/8” and less. What additional
spot examination does API-650 require for these welded joints?
a) 50 percent of all vertical and horizontal junctions
b) 75 percent of all vertical and horizontal junctions
c) 100 percent of all vertical and horizontal junctions
d) 25 percent of all horizontal joints between the first and second course
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 6.1.2.2(b)
7. The radiographic film for all junctions of vertical and horizontal joints shall show at least
____ of weld length on each side of the vertical intersection.
a) 3 inches
b) 2 inches
c) 1 inch
d) 4 inches
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 6.1.2.2(b) and (c)
8. The butt weld around the periphery of an insert manhole or nozzle shall be ____.
a) Completely examined by liquid penetrant methods
b) Completely examined by ultrasonic methods
c) Completely examined by magnetic particle methods
d) Completely examined by radiographic methods
Reference: API-650, Paragraph 6.1.2.2(d)
9. After the initial spot radiograph in the first 10 feet of horizontal butt joint, additional spot
radiographs shall be taken at what increment?
a) One radiograph shall be taken in each additional 200 feet
b) One radiograph shall be taken in each additional 100 feet
c) One radiograph shall be taken in each additional 300 feet
d) One radiograph shall be taken in each additional 150 feet
10. What is the minimum weld length that must be clearly shown on each radiograph?
a) 2 inches
b) 3 inches
c) 6 inches
d) 8 inches
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 29
11. Personnel who perform and evaluate radiographic examinations according to API-650
shall be qualified and certified by the manufacturer as meeting the requirements as
generally outlined in _____.
a) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNAT-TC-1B
b) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNT-TC-1B
c) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNAT-TC-1A
d) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNT-TC-1A
12. The acceptance standards for radiographic examinations shall be in accordance with
which of the following?
a) Paragraph UW-51(b) in Section VIII of the ASME Code
b) Paragraph PW-51(b) in Section I of the ASME Code
c) Paragraph 341.3.2 in B31.3 Process Piping of the ASME Code
d) Paragraph RB-3233 in the National Board Inspection Code (NBIC)
13. If a section of weld is shown by a radiograph to be unacceptable under the provisions of

API-650, paragraph 6.1.5 or the radiograph does not define the limits of the deficient
welding, which of the following requirements apply?
a) One additional spot shall be taken and at least 3” of weld shall be represented
b) Two spots adjacent to the section shall be examined by radiography
c) Two spots ten feet from each side of the original radiography shall be examined
d) Two spots, chosen randomly by the purchaser’s inspector, shall be examined by
radiography
14. After an aboveground storage tank is completed, what shall be done with the
radiographs?
a) They shall become the property of the insurance company
b) They shall become the property of the manufacturer
c) They shall become the property of the purchaser
d) They shall become the property of the API
15. According to API-650, magnetic particle examination shall be performed to a written

procedure. The examiner shall have his/her vision checked and be able to read which of
the following?
a) The magnetic particle written procedure at a distance not less than 12 inches
b) A Jaeger Type 3 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
c) A Jaeger Type 1 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
d) A Jaeger Type 2 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
Reference API-650, Paragraph 6.2.2 and 6.2.3 (a)
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 30
16. Ultrasonic examination shall be performed in accordance with a written procedure.

Examiners shall be qualified and certified by the manufacturer as meeting the
requirements of certification as generally outlined in which of the following?
a) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNAT-TC-1B
b) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNT-TC-1B
c) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNAT-TC-1A
d) Level II or Level III of ASNT SNT-TC-1A
Reference API-650, Paragraph 6.3.2 and 6.3.3
17. Liquid penetrant examination shall be performed in accordance with a written procedure.
The examiner shall have his/her vision checked and be able to read which of the
following?
a) The liquid penetrant written procedure at a distance not less than 12 inches
b) A Jaeger Type 2 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
c) A Jaeger Type 1 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
d) A Jaeger Type 3 standard chart at a distance not less than 12 inches
Reference API-650, Paragraph 6.4.2 and 6.4.3 (a)
18. Undercutting of welds attaching nozzles, manholes, cleanout openings, and permanent
attachments shall not exceed which of the following?
a) Undercutting shall not exceed 1/64th inch
b) Undercutting shall not exceed 3/32nd inch
c) Undercutting shall not exceed 1/32nd inch
d) Undercutting shall not exceed 3/64th inch
Reference API-650, Paragraph 6.5.1 (b)
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 31
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 6, Methods of Inspecting Joints

1 D
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
6 C
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 C
11 D
12 A
13 B
14 C
15 D
16 D
17 B
18 A
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 32
Section 7 – Welding Procedure and Welder Qualifications
1. Who is responsible for preparing the welding procedure specification, performing the
qualification tests, and preparing the procedure qualification record?
a) The welding operator or welder
b) The purchaser’s inspector
c) The purchaser’s welding engineer
d) The erection manufacturer or the fabrication manufacturer if other than the
erection manufacturer
2. The manufacturer has the approval of the purchaser to use a material listed in API-650
but not included in the applicable table of ASME Section IX. What Group number would
this material be included in if the minimum tensile strength is specified at 73,000 psi?
a) This material would be included in Group number 2
b) This material would be included in Group number 1
c) This material would be included in Group number 3
d) This material can not be used in AST construction
3. When impact tests of the heat-affected zone are required, how shall this requirement be
treated?
a) Heat treated condition of the base metal shall be a non-essential variable
b) Heat treated condition of the base metal shall be an essential variable
c) Heat treated condition of the base metal shall be a supplementary essential
variable
d) Heat treated condition of the base metal does not need to be addressed on the
welding procedure specification
4. If a protective coating has been applied to weld edge preparations, how is this condition
treated on the welding procedure specification?
a) The coating shall be removed and does not affect the weld and therefore does not
need to be addressed
b) The coating shall be included as an essential variable
c) The coating shall be included as a non-essential variable
d) The coating shall be included as a supplementary essential variable
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 33
5. Materials to be used at a design metal temperature below ____, the qualification of the
welding procedure for vertical joints shall include impact tests of the weld metal.
a) 50°F
b) 32°F
c) 60°F
d) 0°F
6. Welder qualification tests conducted by one manufacturer shall not qualify a welder or
welding operator to do work for another manufacturer.
a) True
b) False
7. Traceability to a welder or welding operator, either by welder’s identification stamp or

“weld map”, is required on all but which of the following?
a) Shell horizontal weld joints
b) Shell vertical weld joints
c) Annular plate butt welds (when annular plates are required)
d) Roof plate welds and flange-to-nozzle neck welds
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 7, Welding Procedure and Welder

Qualifications

1 D
2 A
3 C
4 B
5 A
6 A
7 D
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 34
Section 8 - Marking
1. A nameplate shall identify aboveground storage tanks made in accordance with API-650.
Where must this nameplate be located on the completed tank?
a) This nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to a manhole or to a
manhole reinforcing plate immediately to the right of the manhole
b) This nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to a vertical weld joint
at least 48” above the shell-to-bottom weld joint
c) This nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to a manhole or to a
manhole reinforcing plate immediately above the manhole
d) This nameplate shall be attached to the tank shell adjacent to a manhole or to a
manhole reinforcing plate immediately below the manhole
2. The manufacturer of an AST is required to certify to the purchaser that the tank has been
constructed in accordance with API-650. How is this certification accomplished?
a) The manufacturer shall provide the purchaser with a U-1 Data Report form
b) The manufacturer shall provide the purchaser with letter
c) The manufacturer shall provide the purchaser with an ASME acceptable
“Certificate of Compliance”
d) The manufacturer shall provide the purchaser with a notarized certificate of
compliance
Answers to API-Standard 650 Section 8, Marking

1 C
2 B
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 35
Appendix A – Optional Design Basis for Small Tanks
1. What is the maximum shell thickness including corrosion allowance permitted for tanks
that comply Appendix A of API-650?
a) 7/8th inch
b) 3/4th inch
c) 5/8th inch
d) 1/2 inch
Reference API-650, Paragraph A.2.1
2. What is the maximum tensile strength, before the joint efficiency is applied, permitted in
the design of small tanks in accordance with Appendix A of API-650?
a) 21000 psi
b) 21500 psi
c) 21000 ksi
d) 21500 ksi
3. When computing the tension in each ring (course) of a small tank designed in accordance
with Appendix A of API-650, where is this tension computed?
a) The tension shall be computed 12 inches above the centerline of the course in
question
b) The tension shall be computed 12 inches above the centerline of the lower
horizontal joint of the course in question
c) The tension shall be computed 12 inches above the centerline of the tank in
question
d) The tension shall be computed 12 inches below the centerline of the upper
horizontal joint of the course in question
4. What joint efficiency factor shall be used in the design of small tanks designed in
accordance with Appendix A of API-650 when spot radiographic examination is applied?
a) 1.00
b) 0.90
c) 0.85
d) 0.70
5. What joint efficiency factor shall be used in the design of small tanks designed in
accordance with Appendix A of API-650 when spot radiographic examination is omitted?
a) 1.00
b) 0.90
c) 0.85
d) 0.70

API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 36
Answers to API-Standard 650 Appendix A - Optional Design Basis for Small

Tanks

1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
5 D
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 37
Appendix B – Recommendations for Design and Construction of Foundations for Aboveground

Oil Storage Tanks
1. If the owner does not specify an alternative grade slope, the finished tank grade shall be crowned
from its outer periphery to its center at a slope of _____.
a) The slope shall be one inch in twelve feet
b) The slope shall be one inch in ten feet
c) The slope shall be one inch in eight feet
d) The slope shall be one inch in six feet
Reference API-650, Paragraph B.3.3
2. The owner decides that an earth foundation will be installed under a new tank installation.
According to API-650 Appendix B, there are specific items that an earth foundation should
accomplish. Of the following, which is not one of those items?
a) Earth foundations should provide a stable plane for support of the tank
b) Earth foundations should limit settlement to values used in the design of the connecting
piping
c) Earth foundations should not settle excessively at the perimeter due to the weight of the
tank
d) Earth foundations should reinforced with steel reinforcing bar to prevent sagging
Reference API-650, Paragraph B.4.1.1
3. When does Appendix B of API-650 recommend the use of a concrete ringwall foundations?
a) When there is some doubt whether the foundation will be able carry the shell load
directly
b) When there will be an area in the foundation open for passing cathodic protection
equipment through
c) When the tank is located in an area that is easily accessible for pouring the concrete
d) When the tank erector decides a concrete foundation will be easier to install
4. When a concrete ringwall is designed, what is the minimum thickness permitted?

a) The ringwall shall not be less than 8 inches
b) The ringwall shall not be less than 10 inches
c) The ringwall shall not be less than 12 inches
d) The ringwall shall not be less than 14 inches
5. How far below the lowest adjacent finish grade must the bottom of the ringwall, if founded on
soil, be located?
a) The bottom of the ringwall shall be located 1 foot below grade
b) The bottom of the ringwall shall be located 1.5 feet below grade
c) The bottom of the ringwall shall be located 2.5 feet below grade
d) The bottom of the ringwall shall be located 2 feet below grade
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 38
Answers to API-Standard 650 Appendix B - Recommendations for Design of

Foundations for Aboveground Oil Storage Tanks

1 B
2 D
3 A
4 C
5 D
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 39
Appendix C – External Floating Roofs
1. Unless otherwise specified by the purchaser, all deck plates shall have a minimum
nominal thickness of _____.
a) 1/4 inch
b) 1/8 inch
c) 3/16 inch
d) 3/32 inch
Reference API-650, Paragraph C.3.3.2
2. What is the minimum slope required for the top decks of double-deck roofs and of
pontoon sections?
a) 3/16 inch in 12 inches
b) 3/16 inch in 12 feet
c) 3/16 inch in 10 inches
d) 3/16 inch in 10 feet
3. Pontoon type floating roofs shall have sufficient buoyancy to remain afloat on a liquid
with a specific gravity of ____.
a) 1.0
b) .87
c) .85
d) .70
4. What is the minimum size of roof drain required for a pan-type floating roof that is 110
feet in diameter.
a) NPS 4
b) NPS 3
c) NPS 2
d) NPS 2.5
Reference API-650, Paragraph C.3.8
5. Floating roof support legs and attachments shall be designed to support the roof and a
uniform live load of at least _____ per square foot.
a) 100 pounds
b) 75 pounds
c) 50 pounds
d) 25 pounds
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 40
6. Manholes are required in floating roofs for access to the tank interior and for ventilation.
What is the minimum nominal diameter of these manholes?
a) 24 inches
b) 20 inches
c) 18 inches
d) 15 inches
7. If the sealing device between the outer periphery of the roof and the tank shell employs
steel shoes, what material shall these shoes be made of and what is the minimum nominal
thickness permitted?
a) The shoes shall be made from galvanized sheet ASTM A 924 with a minimum
thickness of 14 gauge
b) The shoes shall be made from galvanized sheet ASTM A 924 with a minimum
c) The shoes shall be made from galvanized sheet ASTM A 924 with a minimum
d) The shoes shall be made from galvanized sheet ASTM A 924 with a minimum
8. Drainpipe and hose systems of primary drains shall be tested with water at a pressure of
___.
a) 0.5 psig
b) 5.0 psig
c) 50 psig
d) 50 ksig
Answers to API-Standard 650 Appendix C - External Floating Roofs

1 C
2 A
3 D
4 B
5 D
6 A
7 B
8 C
correction or clarification. BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide answers
developed from paragraphs of the respective Code, Standard, or Recommended Practice. You can
reach BAY Tech by phone at (610) 594-9036, by fax at (610) 594-2612, or by e-mail at
byagle@gte.net.
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 41
Appendix G – Structurally Supported Aluminum Dome Roofs
1. Aluminum dome roofs may be added to an existing tank. Who has the responsibility for
providing reinforcement to enable the tank to support the roof?
a) The fabricator if other than the erector
b) The erector if other than the manufacturer
c) The manufacturer
d) The purchaser
Reference API-650, Paragraph G.1.3.2
2. Aluminum dome roof shall be supported only from the rim of the tank. The design of the
connection shall allow for thermal expansion. What is the minimum temperature range
that must be used for the design?
a) ±110°F
b) ±120°F
c) ±125°F
d) ±130°F
Reference API-650, Paragraph G.1.4.1
3. Aluminum panels shall be designed in accordance with ___ and Appendix G of API-650.
a) AA ASM-35
b) AA ASM-135
c) AA ASM-53
d) AA ASM-315
Reference API-650, Paragraph G.3.2
4. The internal pressure of tanks with aluminum dome roofs shall not exceed the weight of
the roof. In no case shall the maximum design pressure exceed ____
a) 9 psig
b) 9 inches of mercury column
c) 0.9 psig
d) 9 inches of water column
5. The maximum dome radius shall be ____ times the diameter of the tank. The minimum
dome radius shall be ___ times the diameter of the tank unless other wise specified by the
purchaser.
a) 1.2 and 0.9
b) 1.2 and 0.5
c) 1.2 and 0.7
d) 1.2 and 0.8
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 42
Answers to API-Standard 650 Appendix G - Structurally Supported

Aluminum Dome Roofs

1 D
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 C
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 43
Appendix H – Internal Floating Roofs
1. Internal floating roofs may be designed and built to float and rest in a reasonably flat
position. A rim or skirt shall be provided around the roof periphery and all columns,
ladders, and other roof openings. How far must this rim extend above the liquid?
a) 3 inches
b) 6 inches
c) 9 inches
d) 12 inches
Reference API-650, Paragraph H.4.2.1 and 4.2.3
2. Internal floating roofs shall be designed to safely support at least _____.

a) 500 pounds over 1 square foot
b) 500 pounds over 1 square inch
c) 500 pounds over 1 square yard
d) 500 pounds over 1 square meter
Reference API-650, Paragraph H.4.2.5
3. What is the minimum required thickness, excluding corrosion allowance, for a steel
internal floating roof in contact with vapor?
a) The minimum thickness shall be 0.094 inches
b) The minimum thickness shall be 9 gauge
c) The minimum thickness shall be 0.07 inches
d) The minimum thickness shall be 7 gauge
Reference API-650, Paragraph H.4.4
4. A peripheral seal shall be designed to accommodate ____ of local deviation between the
floating roof and the shell.
a) ±2 inches
b) ±3 inches
c) ±4 inches
d) ±5 inches
5. Which of the following is not permitted as a design for internal floating roofs in contact
with the liquid?
a) Double deck
b) Pontoon
c) Metallic Pan
d) Metallic on floats
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 44
6. Metallic internal roofs on floats shall be designed to be buoyant enough to support how
much weight?
a) Twice its dead weight
b) Twice the weight of two men
c) 500 pounds per square foot
d) Three times its dead weight
7. The maximum spacing between circulation vents shall be _____.

a) 24 feet
b) 32 feet
c) 28 feet
d) 30 feet
Reference API-650, Paragraph H.6.2.2.1
8. What is the minimum number of circulation vents that must be located on the shell or
fixed roof above the seal of the floating roof when the tank is full?
a) 8
b) 4
c) 6
d) 2
Reference API-650, Paragraph H.6.2.2.1
9. How many and what size manholes must be provided in a fixed roof for access to the
tank interior?
a) At least two with a nominal diameter of 24 inches each
b) At least three with a nominal diameter of 24 inches each
c) At least one with a nominal diameter of 24 inches
d) At least four with a nominal diameter of 24 inches each
10. When specified by the purchaser, inspection hatches shall be located on the fixed roof to
permit visual inspection of the seal region. What is the maximum spacing between these
hatches?
a) 32 feet
b) 50 feet
c) 75 feet
d) 100 feet
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 45
Answers to API-Standard 650 Appendix H - Internal Floating Roofs

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 C
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 46
Remaining Appendixes
Appendix D – Technical Inquiries
This appendix provides guidance for requesting interpretations of API Standard 650. The
inquiry format is specific must be followed. Basically inquiries shall be formulated in such a
way that they can be answered “yes” or “no”.
Appendix E – Seismic Design of Storage Tanks
According the “Body of Knowledge”, question pertaining to this Appendix will be excluded
on the API-653 examination.
Appendix F – Design of Tanks for Small Internal Pressures
Appendix I – Under-tank Leak Detection and Sub-grade Protection
This appendix provides basic recommendations, which may be specified by the purchaser,
for design and construction of tank and foundation systems that provide leak detection and
sub-grade protection in the event of tank bottom leakage, and provides for tanks supported by
grillage. Typically, this appendix would only be used as a guide. The body of knowledge
states that questions pertaining to tanks supported by grillage will be excluded on the
examination.
Appendix J – Shop Assembled Storage Tanks
This appendix presents requirements covering the complete assembly of tanks that do not
exceed 20 feet in diameter.
Appendix K – Application of the Variable-Design- Point Method
Appendix L – API Standard 650 Storage Tank Data Sheets
This appendix provides data sheets to be used by the purchaser in ordering a storage tank and
by the manufacturer upon completion of construction of the tank.
Appendix M – Requirements for Tanks Operating at Elevated Temperatures
This appendix provides additional requirements for tanks with maximum operating
temperatures from 200°F to 500°F.
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 47
Appendix N – Use of New Materials That Are Not Identified
This appendix provides requirements for the use of new or unused plate and pipe materials
that are not completely identified by this standard as complying with any listed specification.
Appendix O – Recommendations for Under-Bottom Connections
This appendix contains recommendations for the design and construction of under-bottom
connections for storage tanks
Appendix P – Allowable External Loads on Tank Shell Openings
This appendix presents minimum recommendations for design of shell openings that conform
to Table 3 – 8 that are subject to external piping loads. The purchaser or manufacturer may
agree upon an alternative or supplemental design. According to the body of knowledge,
questions pertaining to this appendix will not be asked on the examination.
Appendix S – Austenitic Stainless Steel Tanks
API Standard 650 06/98 02/00 48
NOTES
Subject API RP 651 Issue Date Revision Date Page
Cathodic Protection 03/98 07/00 1
Section 4 - Corrosion of Above Ground Steel Storage Tanks
1. According to API Recommended Practice - 651, there are four components in each
corrosion cell. Theses components are an anode and all but which of the following?
a) DC current supplied by batteries
b) A cathode
c) A metallic path connecting the anode and cathode
d) An electrolyte
2. The base metal goes into solution (corrodes) by releasing electrons and forming positive
metal ions. This statement describes what takes place at what component of a corrosion
cell?
a) The cathode
b) The electrolyte
c) The metallic connection between the cathode and the anode
d) The anode
Reference: API-651 Paragraph 4.1.1(a)
3. Which of the following is the most correct statement regarding the cathode?
a) Moderate corrosion takes place at the cathode
b) No corrosion takes place at the cathode
c) All corrosion takes place at the cathode
d) A chemical reaction takes place using electrons released at the electrolyte
Reference: API-651 Paragraph 4.1.1(b)
4. The electrolyte contains ions and conducts positive current from the anode to the cathode.
The most common electrolyte for external tank bottom surfaces is _______, while the
most common for internal surfaces is _________.
a) Water, sludge and moist soil
b) Moist soil, water and sludge
c) Acidic soil, water and sludge
d) Moist soil, product and sludge
Reference: API-651 Paragraph 4.1.1(d)
5. The two most common types of corrosion to tank bottoms are ______ and ______.
a) Stress corrosion and galvanic
b) Erosion and erosion/corrosion
c) General and pitting
d) Stray current and bimetallic
6. Which type of corrosion results in relatively uniform metal loss?

a) Erosion and erosion/corrosion
b) Stray current
c) General
d) Pitting
7. Which type of corrosion may only affect relatively small areas, while substantial areas of
the surface are unaffected by corrosion?
a) Galvanic
b) General
c) Brittle
d) Pitting
8. Composition of the metal is a factor in determining which areas become anodes and
which become cathodes. What else can cause corrosion?
a) Differences between weld metal, heat affected zone, and parent metal
b) Differences in thickness between adjacent plates
c) Improper fit-up of the welded joint
d) Slag inclusion in the weld metal
9. Which of the following is a correct statement regarding oxygen concentration of the

electrolyte.
a) Oxygen concentration in the electrolyte has no impact on the corrosion cell
b) Areas of lower oxygen concentrations become anodic and areas of higher
concentrations become cathodic.
c) Areas of lower oxygen concentrations become cathodic and areas of higher
concentrations become anodic
d) Areas of lower oxygen concentrations become acidic and areas of higher
concentrations become alkaline
10. Soil characteristics substantially affect what?

a) What type of product may be stored in the tank
b) What the maximum fill height of the tank is
c) The type and rate of corrosion on a structure in contact with soil
d) Perk rate for dissipation of small leaks from the tank bottom
11. What is another term used for "stray currents"?

a) Short circuits
b) Positive currents
c) Impressed currents
d) Interference currents
12. The most common and potentially the most damaging stray currents are:
a) Direct currents
b) Alternating currents
c) Intermittent currents
d) Close proximity alternating currents
13. Which of the following is not likely to be a source of stray currents?

a) Static electricity
b) Welding machines
c) Impressed current cathodic protection systems
d) Railroads
14. Two metals with different compositions connected in an electrolyte is a general

description of:
a) A battery
b) A current suppressor
c) A short circuit
d) Galvanic corrosion
15. All but one of the following is listed as major factors which influence the severity of
internal corrosion. Which is not a factor?
a) The pH level of the fluid in contact with the steel bottom
b) The amount of nitrogen in the fluid in contact with the steel bottom
c) Suspended solids in the fluid in contact with the steel bottom
d) Conductivity of the fluid in contact with the steel bottom
16. Three major types of internal corrosion to be considered are general corrosion, pitting
corrosion, and to a lesser extent in tanks, environmental cracking.
a) True
b) False
Answers to API-651 Section 4, corrosion of Aboveground Steel Storage Tanks

1 A
2 D
3 B
4 B
5 C
6 C
7 D
8 A
9 B
10 C
11 D
12 A
13 A
14 D
15 B
16 A
Section 5 - Determination of Need for Cathodic Protection
1. API Recommended Practice 651 states that the need for cathodic protection must be
determined for all storage facilities. Decisions governing the need for cathodic protection
should be based on all but which of the following?
a) Data from corrosion surveys and operating records
b) National Board and ASME recommendations
c) Prior test results with similar systems in similar environments
d) National, state, and local code requirements and the recommendations in API-651
Reference: API RP 651, Paragraph 5.1
2. When should corrosion control by cathodic protection for new ASTs be provided?
a) After final welding and before hydrostatic testing
b) After all stress relief has been carried out
c) In the initial design
d) After the tank is in service for 6 months
Reference: API RP 651, Paragraph 5.1.1
3. Generally tanks in petroleum service use ______ on the internal surfaces to control
internal corrosion.
a) AC Current instead of DC current cathodic protection systems
b) Coatings
c) Cathodic protection in conjunction with coatings
d) Since pure hydrocarbon fluids are usually not corrosive experience shows that
internal corrosion will never occur therefore, corrosion control is not necessary
4. Cathodic protection is an effective means of corrosion control only if it is possible to pass

electrical current between what two components?
a) Anode and cathode
b) Tank shell and roof support system
c) Roof to bottom through roof support structures
d) Tank shell and tank bottom
5. A full evaluation of tank history should be performed prior to _______.

a) Filling the tank for the 25th time
b) Painting the exterior surface of the tank
c) Temporarily removing the tank from service
d) Determining the need for cathodic protection
6. Such items as site plan, soil properties, previous repairs, existing cathodic protection of
nearby structures, maintenance history, and expected life should be investigated and
determined when conducting the ____________.
a) Evaluation of the location of a refinery
b) Probability study of tank settlement
c) Evaluation of tank design/construction history
d) Evaluation of tank repairs and alterations
Reference: API RP 651, Paragraph 5.2.1.1
7. Of the following items which is not an item that should be investigated and determined in
the evaluation of types of service?
a) Type of product stored
b) Product temperature
c) Ambient temperature
d) Presence and depth of water bottoms
8. Such items as tank inspections per API Standard 653, corrosion rate records, stray current
problems, design and performance of previous protection systems, and structure-to-soil
potential surveys should be investigated and determined when conducting the ______.
a) Evaluation of tank repair/alteration/construction history
b) Evaluation of tank design/construction history
c) Evaluation of types of service
d) Evaluation of inspection/corrosion history
9. The cushion material under the tank has a significant effect on external corrosion of the
tank bottom. The material can also influence:
a) The effectiveness and applicability of external cathodic protection
b) The effectiveness and applicability of internal cathodic protection
c) The decision to use or not use a rectifier or DC generator set to supply current
d) The type of product that may be stored in the tank
10. What is an advantage of using fine particles for the cushion material?
a) The fine particles should be uniform which makes it easier to transport
b) Fine particles provide a more dense cushion to help reduce the influx and outflow
of oxygen
c) Fine particles will not permit the passage of product should a leak occur in the
tank bottom
d) Fine particles will hold moisture longer permitting it to stabilize and prevent acid
from forming in the electrolyte
11. What is the main disadvantage in using large size particles in the soil cushion material?
a) The large particles may puncture the tank bottom
b) The large particles may trap moisture and allow general corrosion to form
c) If large particles are used, differential aeration corrosion may result where the
particles contact the tank bottom
d) The large particles are more difficult to transport
12. A soil resistivity of about 1250 OHM-CM would indicate the soil is probably ____.
a) Mildly corrosive
b) Very corrosive
c) Corrosive
d) Moderately corrosive
13. The results of soil resistivity surveys can be used to determine ________.
a) When it is time to replace the cushion material under the tank bottom
b) The need for cathodic protection
c) The amount of compression of the cushion material under the tank
d) The best place to install a corrosion test bed
14. A properly designed concrete tank cushion constructed on stable, properly prepared
subsoil may be effective in all but which of the following?
a) Cracks in the tank bottom weld seams
b) Intrusion of groundwater
c) Soil-side corrosion
d) The need for cathodic protection
15. Cracks through the concrete cushion may permit water and contaminants to permeate to
the steel tank bottom and provide a path for proper electrical current flow.
a) True
b) False
16. Corrosion of the steel tank bottom installed on a concrete cushion may result from
moisture accumulation caused by all but which of the following?
a) Condensation
b) Blowing snow or rain
c) Humidity in the air surrounding the tank
d) Flooding
17. Why would it be more important to provide proper support under cushions of new asphalt
than for concrete?
a) Asphalt is inherently alkaline and therefore does not have the potential of
preventing corrosion
b) Asphalt is not inherently alkaline and therefore does not have the potential of
preventing corrosion
c) Asphalt may degrade and become a corrosive substance
d) Asphalt may crack allowing moisture to reach the tank bottom where it will react
violently with the asphalt and the steel tank bottom
18. How can the condition of the external surface of tank bottom and the asphalt cushion be
determined?
a) Raise the entire tank and inspect the tank bottom and the asphalt
b) Take a core sample from the asphalt for testing. This test will reveal the amount
of steel that has gone into solution and been trapped in the asphalt
c) Conduct a soil resistivity survey around the periphery of the tank containment
d) By cutting coupons from the tank bottom
19. A soil analysis reveals the pH of a native soil cushion to be 6.25. This soil is considered
to be:
a) Moderately corrosive
b) Mildly corrosive
c) Corrosive
d) Very corrosive
Reference: API RP 651, Paragraph 5.3.4.1 and Table 2
20. A soil analysis reveals the sulfates level of a native soil cushion to be 5525ppm. This soil
is considered to be
a) Moderately corrosive
b) Mildly corrosive
c) Corrosive
d) Very corrosive
Reference: API RP 651, Paragraph 5.3.4.1 and Table 2
21. What is the most common material used as a cushion beneath storage tank bottoms?
a) Clean concrete
b) Clean sand
c) Clean Asphalt
d) Clean modified aggregate
22. The use of oiled sand beneath tank bottoms does not eliminate the need for cathodic
protection and in fact may cause cathodic protection to be less effective because:
a) The oiled sand has higher resistivity
b) The sand is unable to conduct electrical current
c) The oil acts as an insulator and blocks all current flow
d) The oil creates a vapor bearer entrapping water and contaminants next to the tank
bottom
23. There are several ways the tank cushion can become contaminated. Three of the
following are methods of cushion contamination, which one is not?
a) In coastal areas salt spay may be washed down the side of the tank
b) Fertilizer from spraying operations in rural areas
c) Airborne chemicals from industrial operations
d) Residual build-up of electrons in the sand cushion
24. Leakage of product from the tank bottom can cause accelerated corrosion by creating
____.
a) Stray current corrosion
b) Corrosion cells where none existed before
c) More positively charged electrons
d) A film that would block electrical current flow
25. When a layer of crushed-limestone or clam-shell is used for the tank cushion, why is it
important to ensure the particles are fine and uniform?
a) Large particles could puncture the tank bottom
b) Differential aeration corrosion cells will cause pitting at contact areas between the
large particles and the metal
c) Large particles may allow the formation of dissolved gas pockets which could
become a hazard if hot tap work is performed on the tank bottom
d) Large particle will eventually fracture and create voids in the tank cushion
26. What is an advantage of using crushed-limestone or clam-shell under tank bottoms?

a) This material is plentiful and relatively inexpensive
b) Contamination is easier to detect because of discoloration
c) Water from rain or groundwater makes the environment under the tank alkaline,
which may reduce corrosion
d) The use of this material eliminates the need for cathodic protection
27. Heated tanks or tanks storing hot product can cause:

a) Increased water intrusion due to causing snow to melt and run down the tank sides
b) Excessive drying out of concrete foundations resulting in premature deterioration
and failure
c) Accelerated corrosion on the internal surface especially in tanks with water
bottoms
d) Accelerated corrosion on the external surface due to elevated temperature is the
area is wet
28. There are a variety of methods for secondary containment, which of the following is not
an accepted method of secondary containment.
a) Dual bottom tank design
b) Sand bags
c) Use of impervious clay pad in tank dike
d) Impervious nonmetallic membrane
29. During the installation of a new steel bottom over an existing steel bottom, which has
been repaired, if water or other electrolyte intrudes into the annulus, what can happen?
a) A galvanic cell may form which will cause the new steel tank bottom to corrode
at an accelerated rate
b) An electrochemical reaction may take place creating hazardous gasses
c) A galvanic cell may form which will cause the old tank bottom to corrode at an
accelerated rate
d) A galvanic cell may form which will turn the old tank bottom into an anode
30. With the installation of _____ in a diked area prior to new tank construction, most
cathodic protection systems are rendered ineffective.
a) A secondary containment system utilizing a perforated impervious membrane
b) A secondary containment system utilizing an impervious membrane
c) A secondary containment system utilizing a metallic impregnated screen
membrane
d) A secondary containment system utilizing a non-impervious membrane
Answers to API-651 Section 5, Determination of Need for Cathodic

Protection

1 B
2 C
3 B
4 A
5 D
6 C
7 C
8 D
9 A
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 B
14 A
15 B
16 C
17 B
18 D
19 C
20 D
21 B
22 A
23 D
24 B
25 B
26 C
27 D
28 B
29 A
30 B
Section 6- Methods of Cathodic Protection for Corrosion Control
1. What is the basic principle that makes cathodic protection effective.

a) Cathodic protection is a technique for preventing corrosion by making the entire
surface of the metal to be protected act as the rectifier
b) Cathodic protection is a technique for preventing corrosion by making the entire
surface of the metal to be protected act as the corrosion cell
c) Cathodic protection is a technique for preventing corrosion by making the entire
surface of the metal to be protected act as the cathode
d) Cathodic protection is a technique for preventing corrosion by making the entire
surface of the metal to be protected act as the anode
2. What are the two systems of cathodic protection?

a) Galvanic and repressed current
b) Galvanic and impressed current
c) Galvanic and reversed current
d) Galvanic and induced current
3. Galvanic cathodic protection systems use a metal, that is more active than the structure to
be protected, to supply the current required to stop corrosion. What is another term(s)
used to describe this material?
a) Anode, commonly referred to as a galvanic or sacrificial anode
b) Cathode, commonly referred to as a galvanic or sacrificial cathode
c) Ribbon cathode, commonly referred to as a sacrificial ribbon cathode
d) Impressed current anode, commonly referred to as the impressed anode
4. Where on the galvanic series is clean and shiny mild steel?

a) Clean and shiny mild steel has a value of –1.1 volts
b) Clean and shiny mild steel has a value of –1.0 volts
c) Clean and shiny mild steel has a value of –0.8 volts
d) Clean and shiny mild steel has a value of –0.5 to -0.8 volts
Reference: API-651, Paragraph 6.2.1 and Table 3
5. The most common metals used as galvanic anodes in soil are:

a) Lead and copper
b) Aluminum alloy (5% zinc) and Mild steel (clean and shiny)
c) Magnesium and zinc
d) Mild steel in concrete and cast iron
6. Of the following, which is not an advantage of galvanic cathodic protection systems?

a) No external power is needed
b) Capital investment is low for small-diameter tanks
c) Method is limited to use in low-resistivity soils
d) Interference problems (stray currents) are rare
7. Impressed current cathodic protection systems use:

a) Alternating current
b) Direct current usually provided by a rectifier
c) Direct current usually provided by a dry cell battery
d) Either direct current or alternating current depending upon which is available
8. Of the following, which is not a disadvantage of impressed current cathodic protection

systems?
a) High current output
b) High maintenance costs
c) High operating costs
d) High capital cost for small installations
9. A cathodic protection rectifier has two major components; what are they?
a) A step-down transformer to reduce the AC supply voltage and rectifying elements
to convert DC to AC output
b) A step-down transformer to reduce the AC supply voltage and rectifying elements
to convert AC to DC output
c) A step-down transformer to reduce the DC supply voltage and rectifying elements
to convert DC to AC output
d) A step-down transformer to reduce the AC supply voltage and rectifying elements
to regulate the AC output
10. Impressed current anodes used in soil are not made of:
a) Graphite
b) High silicon cast iron
c) Zinc
d) Mixed metal oxides on titanium
11. Impressed current anodes may be installed underneath the tank.

a) True
b) False

Answers to API-651 Section 6, Methods of Cathodic Protection for Corrosion

Control

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 C
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 C
11 A
Section 7 – Design of Cathodic Protection Systems
1. It has been decided to install an impervious membrane under a new storage tank being
installed in a diked area. Cathodic protection of the tank bottom is required. Where must
the anodes be placed?
a) Anodes shall be placed outside the diked area
b) Directly under the membrane beneath the tank
c) As close as possible to the rectifier
d) Between the membrane and the tank bottom
Reference: API 651, Paragraph 7.2.3.1
2. Inspection experience has disclosed the need for cathodic protection for an existing tank
in a diked area. There is a membrane installed under the tank. What would be an option
for installing anodes under this tank?
a) Jack the tank up on the side opposite the fill and discharge lines and slide the
ribbon anodes under
b) Bore under the tank at a very shallow angle and install the anodes
c) Bore under the membrane at a very shallow angle and install the anodes
d) Install deep ground bed anodes in coke breeze backfill outside the diked area
3. If an existing tank bottom is protected by cathodic protection and/or if cathodic

protection is planned for the new bottom (by deep or shallow groundbeds), what should
be done with the old bottom?
a) The old tank bottom should be electrically connected to the cathodic protection
system to now act as an anode
b) The old tank bottom should be painted with a corrosion resistant coating and left
in place
c) The old tank bottom should be completely removed
d) Nothing needs to be done with the old tank bottom
4. It has been decided to install a new tank bottom in a tank with cathodic protection. What
would be the result of leaving the old bottom in place and not properly prepared?
a) The old bottom forms a shield that collects the cathodic current flowing through
the ground and prevents cathodic protection of the new tank bottom
b) The old bottom forms a shield that collects the anodic current flowing through the
ground and prevents cathodic protection of the new tank bottom
c) The old bottom forms a shield that collects the galvanic current flowing through
the ground and prevents cathodic protection of the new tank bottom
d) The old bottom forms a shield that collects the stray current flowing through the
ground and prevents cathodic protection of the new tank bottom
5. Industry experience has shown that if a conductive electrolyte exists between an old and a
new tank bottom:
a) The current flow and metal loss will be from the old bottom
b) The current flow and metal loss will be from the new bottom
c) The current flow will be from the old bottom and metal loss will be from the new
bottom
d) The current flow will be from the new bottom and metal loss will be from the old
bottom
6. There are several advantages to installing a secondary containment. Of the following,

which would not be considered an advantage?
a) Provides a means of detecting and containing leaks and preventing ground
contamination
b) Prevents the natural current flow between the old bottom and the new bottom
c) Permits the addition of cathodic protection at a later date
d) May reduce the entry of groundwater into the space between the bottoms
Reference: API 651, Paragraph 7.2.5.1.1
7. There are several disadvantages to installing a secondary containment. Of the following,

which would not be considered a disadvantage
a) The membrane may act as a basin to contain water or any other electrolyte that
might wet the sand between the bottoms
b) The membrane could entrap hydrocarbon products, which would require extra
care for hot work
c) Makes the future addition of cathodic protection virtually impossible
d) Acts as a barrier to groundwater
8. When an external cathodic protection system is being designed, there are several items to
be considered. Of the following four items, which one would not be a consideration?
a) Selection and design of the cathodic protection system for optimum economy of
installation, maintenance, and operation
b) Specification of materials and installation practices that meet applicable codes,
such as National Electrical Manufacturers Association standards, NACE
recommended practices, and federal, state, and local regulations
c) Provisions for monitoring the cathodic protection system
d) Specification of materials and installation practices that meet applicable codes,
such as American Society of Mechanical Engineers standards, NACE
recommended practices, and federal, state, and local regulations
Reference: API 651, Paragraph 7.3.2
9. Information that is useful for design of an external cathodic protection system can be
divided into three categories:
a) Specifications, site conditions, and jurisdictional requirements
b) Specifications and practices, site conditions, and U.S. Geological survey reports
c) Specifications and practices, site conditions, and field survey, corrosion test data,
and operating experience
d) Specifications and practices, tank shell conditions, and field surveys
10. What are the two types of cathodic protection systems most commonly used?
a) Galvanic cathode system and impressed voltage system
b) Galvanic anode system and impressed current system
c) Galvanic anode system and interference current system
d) Galvanic anode system and interference voltage system
Reference: API 651, Paragraph 7.3.5.1 and 7.3.5.2
11. Galvanic cathodic protection systems are more economical on:

a) Small-diameter tanks
b) Large-diameter tanks
c) Bare, poorly coated structures
d) Multiple large tanks in a diked area
12. The three most common galvanic anode materials used for soil installations are:
a) High potential magnesium alloys, zinc, and pure aluminum
b) High potential magnesium alloys, Standard magnesium, and Copper
c) High potential magnesium alloys, standard magnesium, and zinc
d) High potential magnesium alloys, standard magnesium, and stainless steel
13. What are the advantages of using a special backfill with anodes for installation in soil
environments?
a) Reduces the possibility of contaminating the environment and promotes anode
efficiency
b) Promotes anode efficiency, lengthens the life of the anode, dissipates stray
currents
c) Promotes anode efficiency, lengthens anode life, and keeps anode environment
moist
d) Promotes anode efficiency, keeps anode environment moist, and prevents total
deterioration of the anode
14. The number of anodes required to provide cathodic protection depends upon what two
factors?
a) The distance from the galvanic anode to the tank bottom and soil discharge rate
b) Total current requirements and the expected individual anode discharge rate in the
soil
c) Total stray currents expected and the total current requirements
d) Total current requirements and the expected individual cathode discharge rate in
the soil
15. In placing the anodes, how is better current distribution and more uniform polarization
obtained?
a) By distributing anodes uniformly around the tank or under the membrane for new
construction
b) By distributing anodes uniformly around the diked area or under the tank for new
construction
c) By distributing the cathodes uniformly around the tank or under the tank for new
construction
d) By distributing the anodes uniformly around the tank or under the tank for new
construction
16. How are impressed current anodes installed?

a) These anodes are installed either fully coated or in special backfill material
b) These anodes are installed either bare or in special backfill material
c) These anodes are installed either directly on the tank bottom or in special backfill
material
d) These anodes are installed either bare or in special liquid filled cylinders
Reference: API 651, Paragraph 7.3.5.2.1.1
17. Impressed current anodes are connected with an insulated conductor:

a) Singly to the positive terminal of a DC source
b) In groups to the positive terminal of a DC source
c) Either singly or in groups to the negative terminal of an DC source
d) Either singly or in groups to the positive terminal of an DC source
18. Of the following, which is not the preferred material for impressed current anodes used in
soil installations?
a) Graphite
b) Zinc
c) High silicon cast iron
d) Mixed metal oxide
19. Of the following, which is not the best material for impressed current anodes used in
water installations
a) Titanium
b) Tantalum
c) Copper
d) Platinized niobium
20. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, proper groundbed design should do
a) Avoid physical interference with existing facilities, provide uniform current
distribution, and avoid stray current interference with off-site structures
b) Provide for direct connection with existing facilities, provide uniform current
c) Avoid physical interference with existing facilities, provide random current
d) Avoid physical interference with existing facilities, provide uniform current
distribution, and intercept stray current interference with off-site structures
21. In an impressed current system why would additional anodes be considered in the
distributed anode design?
a) To provide uniform current distribution and provide back-up anodes for
replacement
b) To provide uniform current distribution and provide allowance in case of isolated
cathode connection failure or partial cathode depletion
c) To provide uniform current distribution and provide allowance in case of isolated
anode connection failure or partial anode depletion
d) To provide random current distribution and provide allowance in case of isolated
anode connection failure or partial anode depletion
22. The current required for cathodic protection should be calculated using the results of
current requirement tests. In lieu of this test, what is the generally accepted protective
current density?
a) Between –0.5 and +0.5 milliamps per square foot at ambient conditions
b) Between 0.01 and 0.1 milliamps per square foot at ambient conditions
c) Between 0.1 and 0.2 milliamps per square foot at ambient conditions
d) Between 1 and 2 milliamps per square foot at ambient conditions
23. The current requirement test can only be performed on existing tanks using a temporary
groundbed and an appropriate source of direct current. Depending on the current
required, the power source can vary by how much?
a) From a 24 volt storage battery to a 300-amp welding unit
b) From a 12 volt storage battery to a 300-amp welding unit
c) From a 6 volt storage battery to a 300-amp welding unit
d) From a 1.2 volt solar panel to a 300-amp welding unit
24. During the current requirement test, how is maximum contact of the tank bottom with the
cushion material ensured?
a) The tank is filled to an adequate liquid level to ensure maximum bottom contact
b) The tank is pressurized with an inert gas to ensure maximum bottom contact
c) The tank is completely filled and subjected to a hydrostatic pressure
d) The tank is emptied and concrete weights are installed and the tank filled to half
design liquid level
25. The voltage necessary to drive the required amount of current depends largely on what
two factors?
a) The type of power source available and the resistivity of the soil
b) The number and location of anodes and the resistivity of the soil
c) The number and location of cathodes and the resistivity of the soil
d) The number and location of the anodes and the resistivity of the special backfill
26. In an impressed current system, rectifiers with a moderated excess capacity should be
selected to allow for adjustments during the life of the cathodic protection system and to
prevent damage due to overloads. What is the typical excess capacity of such rectifiers?
a) 40% to 50%
b) 30% to 50%
c) 20% to 50%
d) 10% to 50%
27. Electrical grounding of electrical equipment is an essential element in personnel safety.

a) True
b) False
28. Condition and type of coating (if any), minimum and maximum water level in tank,
compatibility of stored liquid with anodes and cables, and internal inspection interval of
tank which affects design life are all factors that:
a) Influence the design of an external cathodic protection system
b) Influence the design of a depressed current cathodic protection system
c) Influence the design of an internal cathodic protection system
d) Influence the design of the rectifier used in a cathodic protection system
Answers to API-651 Section 7, Design of Cathodic Protection Systems

1 D
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 B
6 C
7 D
8 D
9 C
10 B
11 A
12 C
13 C
14 B
15 D
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 C
20 A
21 C
22 D
23 B
24 A
25 B
26 D
27 A
28 C
for correction or clarification. You can reach BAY Tech by phone at (610) 594-9036, by fax
at (610) 594-2612, or by e-mail at byagle@gte.net.
Section 8 – Criteria for Cathodic Protection
1. API-651 provides criteria for determining the adequacy of cathodic protection of

aboveground storage tanks. What document is referenced for a more detailed description?
a) ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination
b) API-Standard 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage
c) API-Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction
d) NACE RP-01-69
2. In determining if adequate cathodic protection is being achieved, which of the following

would be correct?
a) A negative (cathodic) potential of at least 850 mV with cathodic current applied
b) A positive (cathodic) potential of at least 850 mV with cathodic current applied
c) A negative (cathodic) potential of at least 85.0 mV with cathodic current applied
d) A positive (cathodic) potential of at least 85.0 mV with cathodic current applied
3. How must the required negative potential be measured?

a) This potential shall be measured with respect to a saturated copper/copper sulfate
reference electrode (CSE) contacting the metal tank bottom
b) This potential shall be measured with respect to a saturated copper/copper sulfate
reference electrode (CSE) contacting the electrolyte
c) This potential shall be measured with respect to a saturated copper/copper sulfate
reference electrode (CSE) contacting the metal casing of the rectifier
d) This potential shall be measured with respect to a saturated copper/copper sulfate
reference electrode (CSE) contacting the positive terminal of the power source

would be correct?
a) Negative polarized potential of at least 8.50 mV relative to a CSE
b) Negative polarized potential of at least 85.0 mV relative to a CSE
c) Negative polarized potential of at least 850 mV relative to a CSE
d) Negative polarized potential of at least .850 mV relative to a CSE
5. Name a common method of measuring polarized potential.

a) Measuring the distance between the tank bottom and the anode
b) Measuring the AC current relative to the DC current
c) Using the “instant on” method
d) Using the “instant off” method

would be correct?
a) A minimum of 1000 mV of cathodic polarization measured between the tank
bottom metallic surface and a standard reference electrode contacting the
electrolyte
b) A minimum of 850 mV of cathodic polarization measured between the tank
electrolyte
c) A minimum of 100 mV of cathodic polarization measured between the tank
electrolyte
d) A minimum of -0.85 mV of cathodic polarization measured between the tank
electrolyte
7. The standard method of determining the effectiveness of cathodic protection on a tank

bottom is the __________ measurement
a) Resistivity
b) DC current
c) Tank-to-soil
d) Interference current
8. How is the tank-to-soil potential measurement performed?

a) This measurement is performed using a low-impedance voltmeter and a stable,
reproducible reference electrode contacting the electrolyte
b) This measurement is performed using a high-impedance voltmeter and a stable,
regenerative reference electrode contacting the electrolyte
c) This measurement is performed using a high-impedance voltmeter and a stable,
reproducible reference electrode contacting the electrolyte
d) This measurement is performed using a high-impedance voltmeter and an
unstable, non-reproducible reference electrode contacting the electrolyte
9. Tank-to-soil potential measurements are typically taken with current applied; however,
corrections for ______ in the soil must be made.
a) IW drop(s)
b) IR drop(s)
c) ER drop(s)
d) IE drop(s)
10. Correction for IR drop in the soil is often necessary for measurements made at the tank
perimeter even if the reference electrode is placed immediately adjacent to the tank. This
is especially true if ______ is/are close to the tank.
a) Distributed anodes
b) The cathodic protection power supply rectifier
c) The sacrificial anode
d) The DC power supply (battery)
11. Monitoring the actual structure-to-soil potential under the tank should be considered.
How can this be accomplished?
a) Permanently installed reference electrode or by burying reference electrode every
20 feet around the perimeter of the tank
b) Inserting a reference electrode under the tank through a perforated tube or
attaching a reference electrode to the tank shell
c) Permanently installed reference electrode or by inserting a reference electrode
under the tank through a perforated tube
d) Permanently installed bare copper wire connected to the tank bottom or by
inserting a reference electrode under the tank through a perforated tube
12. Other standard reference electrodes may be substituted for the saturated copper/copper
sulfate reference electrode. Which of the following is not a common substitute?
a) Reference electrode  Zinc, Voltage  +0.25
b) Reference electrode  Saturated KCI calomel Voltage  -0.78
c) Reference electrode  Silver/silver chloride Voltage  -0.80
d) Reference electrode  Aluminum alloy (5% zinc) Voltage  +0.08
Reference: API-651, Paragraph 8.4 and Table 4
Answers to API-651 Section 8, Criteria for Cathodic Protection

1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
5 D
6 C
7 C
8 C
9 B
10 A
11 C
12 D
Section 9 - Installation of Cathodic Protection Systems
1. Installation of cathodic protection systems shall be in strict accordance with the drawings
and specifications. Exceptions may be made only with the approval of which of the
following?
a) The API-653 Inspector or personnel qualified and trained by the Inspector
b) The National Board Inspector or personnel qualified and trained by the Inspector
c) The owner, operator, or personnel qualified by the owner or operator
d) The manufacturer of the tank or the authorized representative of the tank
manufacturer
2. Packaged galvanic anodes should be back-filled with ______.

a) Compacted special backfill material such as coke breeze
b) Compacted sand
c) Compacted limestone or clam shell backfill material
d) Compacted native soil
3. How may galvanic anodes, used to protect the internal surfaces of tank bottoms, be
installed?
a) Bolted or welded to the tank bottom
b) Laid on the tank bottom at specific intervals around the perimeter and in the
center
c) Held in place with a special adhesive or welded
d) Held in place by epoxy coating that will adhere to the tank bottom
4. When installing galvanic anodes, care must be taken during the backfilling operation to
a) Ensure the limestone or clamshell backfill is not disturbed
b) Prevent damage to the lead wires and connections
c) Ensure the proper impervious membrane has been installed under the anode
d) Prevent damage to the AC/DC rectifier
5. Which if the following is a true statement with regards to installing galvanic anodes?
a) It is customary to carry the anode to the site by the lead wire to ensure its
tightness
b) The lead wire should only be long enough to reach the tank bottom with no slack
c) Anodes should not be carried or lowered into the excavation by the lead wires
d) The anode should be stored in a container of water until it is placed in the
excavation
6. In an impressed current cathodic protection system, care must be taken not to crack or
damage the anode during handling and installation. Of the following, which would be a
true statement?
a) Anodes with very small cracks near the bottom of the anode may be used without
repair
b) Cracked anodes should be inspected to ensure the insulation on the lead wires is
not damaged before installing the anode
c) Anodes with cracks greater than 0.0625" in width shall not be used
d) Cracked anodes should not be used
7. How can the life of an impressed current anode be increased?

a) By installing a timing device that activates the current at thirty-second intervals
b) Properly installing the backfill material
c) Use a substitute anode material
d) Using AC current instead of DC current
8. Of the following, which is not a principal point that needs to be observed in the
installation of impressed current anodes?
a) The anode should be installed so that at least one side is in contact with the soil
b) Buried connections must be protected against the entrance of moisture
c) Anodes and cable should be installed at a sufficient depth to protect against
accidental damage
d) Care should be taken to protect the cable connection to the anode
9. For a typical vertical anode installation, the hole is excavated ____ inches in diameter by
approximately ______ feet deep.
a) Six to ten, five to ten
b) Eight to twelve, ten to twenty
c) Twelve to eighteen, twelve to twenty-four
d) Eighteen to twenty-four, eighteen to thirty
10. When it is necessary to install an impressed current anode in the horizontal position, a
layer of crushed coke breeze is laid in the trench and the anode is laid on top of the coke
breeze. Compacted native soil is then filled in on top of the anode.
a) True
b) False
11. For impressed current cathodic protection systems, when would installation of the anode
in the horizontal position be acceptable or practical?
a) Where rock is encountered at a shallow depth or where soil resistivity decreases
markedly with depth
b) Where sand is encountered at a shallow depth or where soil resistivity decreases
markedly with depth
c) Where rock is encountered at a shallow depth or where soil resistivity increases
markedly with depth
d) Where sand is encountered at a shallow depth or where soil resistivity increases
markedly with depth
12. To improve current distribution to the center of the tank in an impressed current cathodic
protection system, it may be desirable to do which of the following?
a) Install fifty percent more anodes
b) Extend the shallow groundbed an additional twenty-five percent greater diameter
around the tank
c) Use AC current instead of DC current
d) Install anodes in holes drilled at an angle under the perimeter of the tank bottom
13. In situations where a deep groundbed installation is required, why is it important to

consider the environmental aspects of this type of installation?
a) The groundbed may be located in contaminated soil, which could allow
contamination of the atmosphere
b) The groundbed installation may fracture bedrock and permit the release of radon
contamination
c) The groundbed installation may be located through underground aquifers
d) The groundbed installation may cause cracking of foundations of nearby
structures during the drilling process
14. An impressed current cathodic protection system is installed; the installing contractor
connected the positive connection of the rectifier to the tank. Is this a satisfactory
installation?
a) Yes it does not matter how the leads are connected
b) No the positive lead should have been connected to anode so the tank bottom
would be the anode
c) Yes the connection is correct the tank bottom will act as the anode as intended
d) No the connection is incorrect, the tank bottom will now act as the anode resulting
in rapid corrosion of the tank bottom
15. What is the preferred means of connecting the negative rectifier lead wire to the structure
to be protected?
a) A powder weld connection (Cadweld, Thermite, or equivalent)
b) Brazed
c) Soldered
d) Any arc welding process
16. All positive cable connections and wire splices should be waterproofed and covered with
electrical insulating material. What should be done if mechanical connections are used?
a) Mechanical connections should be buried to protect them from vandalism
b) Mechanical connections should not be buried
c) Mechanical connections should be buried to protect them from accidental damage
d) Mechanical connections should not be used for rectifier installation
17. Underground splices of the positive lead wire to the groundbed should be ______.
a) Braided and soldered
b) Made up with mechanical splices
c) Avoided
d) Close to the surface for ease of maintenance
18. One of the problems with monitoring cathodic protection systems on the tank bottom is
the inability to place a portable reference electrode in close proximity to the underside.
How can this situation be remedied during new construction of a tank?
a) Permanently installed reference electrodes and lead wires to the roof support
structure where provided
b) Installing polyvinyl chloride or fiber reinforced plastic pipe for use in profiling
the tank-to-soil potential from the perimeter to the center
c) Installing polyvinyl chloride or terracotta pipe for use in profiling the tank-to-soil
potential from the perimeter to the center
d) Installing perforated polyvinyl chloride or fiber reinforced plastic pipe for use in
profiling the tank-to-soil potential from the perimeter to the center
19. For existing tanks, not scheduled for bottom repair or replacement, how can installation
of permanent reference electrodes be accomplished?
a) Air lance or mechanical procedures
b) Water jetting or mechanical procedures
c) Steam blast or mechanical procedures
d) Controlled explosives or mechanical procedures
20. Why is it a good practice to install permanent test leads, grounding lugs, or short pieces
of cable for measuring tank-to-soil potential?
a) Repeated contact with the tank by a knife or ice pick will eventually puncture the
tank
b) Repeated contact with the tank by a knife or ice pick can cause short circuiting of
the cathodic protection system
c) Repeated contact with the tank by a knife or ice pick can cause early failure of the
tank's paint system.
d) Repeated contact with the tank by a knife or ice pick can cause stress risers due to
cutting the tank surface
Answers to API-651 Section 9, Installation of Cathodic Protection Systems

1 C
2 D
3 A
4 B
5 C
6 D
7 B
8 A
9 B
10 B
11 C
12 D
13 C
14 D
15 A
16 B
17 C
18 D
19 B
20 C
Section 10 - Interference Currents
1. What can be a problem caused by the installation of a new impressed current cathodic
protection system?
a) A new impressed cathodic protection system may cause an unacceptable drain on
the electrical substation for the refinery
b) A new impressed cathodic protection system may cause interference with
neighboring structures
c) A new impressed cathodic protection system may cause interference with certain
radio signals
d) A new impressed cathodic protection system may cause interference with
operating controls of nearby process units
2. What is the most common source of "constant current" interference currents?

a) Rectifiers energizing nearby cathodic protection systems
b) Electromagnetic fields set up by the operation of very large motors close to the
cathodic protection system
c) Electromagnetic fields caused by transformers in nearby substations
d) Electromagnetic fields caused by overhead high tension wire
3. With regard to "fluctuating current", which of the following is not a normal source for
this type of stray current?
a) Underground mining electrical systems
b) Electric railways
c) Rapid transit systems
d) AC to DC rectifiers
4. During a corrosion control survey, the inspector noticed a positive shift of the structure-
to-soil potential on the affected structure at a point where current may be discharged from
the affected structure. What would this indicate?
a) Interference from the cathodic protection system rectifier
b) Interference from a nearby lighting circuit
c) Interference from a neighboring source
d) Interference from a galvanic anode system
5. Interference currents have been detected. How could this problem be resolved?
a) Design, proper bonding, and use of sacrificial anodes
b) Design, relocation of the tank, use of sacrificial anodes
c) Design, proper bonding, removal of cathodic protection system
d) Design, proper bonding, different choice of coating on the structure

Answers to API-651 Section 10, Interference Currents

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 A
Section 11 - Operation and Maintenance of Cathodic Protection Systems
1. Why is it important to conduct potential surveys when there is an adequate liquid level in
a tank?
a) Bottom-to-electrolyte potential readings may indicate adequate protection for the
portion of the tank in contact with the soil but when the tank is full and all of the
bottom is in contact, protection may not be sufficient
b) Bottom-to-anode potential readings may indicate adequate protection for the
c) Bottom-to-cathode potential readings may indicate adequate protection for the
d) Bottom-to-electrolyte potential readings may indicate adequate protection for the
bottom is in contact, protection may be far more than necessary
2. Measurements of the native structure-to-soil potential should be made ________.

a) Immediately after any cathodic protection system is energized
b) Within two days after any cathodic protection system is energized
c) Within 6 months after any cathodic protection system is energized
d) Prior to energizing a new cathodic protection system
3. After a system has been energized, it may take _____ for polarization to a steady state to
take place.
a) Two and a half years
b) One year
c) Several months
d) Fifteen minutes
4. To ensure the effectiveness of cathodic protection, how often should cathodic protection
surveys be taken?
a) Every two years
b) Annually
c) Bi-annually
d) Quarterly
5. How often should all sources of impressed current be checked?

a) At intervals not exceeding two years
b) At intervals not exceeding one year
c) At intervals not exceeding two months
d) At intervals not exceeding two weeks
6. Tank bottoms shall be examined for evidence of corrosion at least once each year by
conducting an internal inspection and taking coupon cutouts.
a) True
b) False
7. Records to demonstrate the need for corrosion control measures should be retained for
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) As long as the facility remains in service
8. Records related to the effectiveness of cathodic protection should be retained for a

______ period unless a shorter period is specifically permitted by regulation
a) 5 years
b) 10 years
c) 15 years
d) As long as the facility remains in service
Answers to API-651 Section 11, Operation and Maintenance of Cathodic

Protection Systems
1 A
2 D
3 C
4 B
5 C
6 B
7 D
8 A
for correction or clarification. You can reach BAY Tech by phone at (610) 594-9036, by fax
at (610) 594-2612, or by e-mail at byagle@gte.net.
Lining Aboveground Tanks 03/98 07/00 1
Section 4 - Corrosion Mechanisms
1. Several common mechanisms of internal storage tank bottom corrosion are listed in API-
652. Which of the following is not a common corrosion mechanism?
a) Galvanic cell corrosion
b) Concentration cell corrosion
c) Chloride stress corrosion
d) Corrosion caused by sulfate-reducing bacteria
2. Product cleanup tanks, chemical storage tanks, and wastewater treatment tanks may be
susceptible to which type of corrosion?
a) Galvanic cell corrosion
b) Chemical corrosion
c) Erosion-corrosion
d) Concentration cell corrosion
3. Concentration cell corrosion will most likely result in which of the following conditions?
a) Pitting and possibly significant localized metal loss
b) Pitting and possibly uniform metal loss over a large area
c) Pitting and possibly the loss of external cathodic protection
d) Pitting and possibly grooving of the outer perimeter of the tank bottom
4. Pitting caused by concentration cell corrosion of a bare steel tank bottom may be as high
as
a) 20 mils per year
b) 40 mils per year
c) 60 mils per year
d) 80 mils per year
5. What is another name for the thin layer of oxide found on the surface of hot-rolled carbon
steel, typically used for the construction of petroleum storage tanks?
a) Patina
b) Iron oxide
c) Mill scale
d) Rust
6. With regard to galvanic cell corrosion, what adverse affect could the large differences in
the microstructure of steel bottom plates caused by welding have?
a) They can provide a built in area of localized cracking
b) They can provide a built in stress concentration
c) They can provide a built in break in the external cathodic protection
d) They can provide a built in galvanic couple
7. Sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB) corrosion is universally recognized. The physical

presence of bacterial deposits can promote aggressive _________ mechanism.
a) Uniform metal loss over a wide area similar to erosion-corrosion
b) Pitting by corrosion similar to concentration cell corrosion
c) Pitting by corrosion similar to Chemical corrosion
d) Pitting by corrosion similar to galvanic cell corrosion
8. SRB colonies derive energy from the reduction of sulfates to sulfide which _______.
a) Promotes the appearance of a non-corrosive coating
b) Promotes the natural corrosion inhibitors of the steel plates
c) Is corrosive to steel
d) Is non-corrosive to steel
9. Iron sulfide corrosion is _____ to the base steel and may promote pitting by a galvanic
corrosion mechanism.
a) An anode
b) Ionic
c) Cationic
d) Cathodic
10. Erosion-corrosion may occur in wastewater treating or mixing tanks where ___ is present
a) Sulfate-reducing bacteria and anaerobic condition
b) Soil or small abrasive aggregate
c) Sulfuric acid or ballast water
d) An anode or cathode
11. Erosion-corrosion causes ______.

a) Scattered pitting in a random pattern
b) High localized metal loss in a random pattern
c) Scattered pitting in a well defined pattern
d) High localized metal loss in a well defined pattern

Answers to API-652 Section 4, Corrosion Mechanisms

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 C
6 D
7 B
8 C
9 D
10 B
11 D
Section 5 - Determination of the Need for Tank Bottom Lining
1. Aboveground storage tank bottoms are usually fabricated from ____ inch thick carbon
steel plate.
a) 1
b) 3/4
c) 1/2
d) 1/4
2. Annular floor plates of storage tanks are frequently ____ to ___ inch thick.
a) 1/4 to 1/2
b) 1/2 to 3/4
c) 3/4 to 1
d) to 1-1/4
3, The need for an internal tank bottom lining in an aboveground storage tank is generally
based upon several considerations. Which of the following would not be a consideration
in determining the need for tank bottom lining?
a) Tank design
b) Environmental considerations
c) Method of external cathodic protection employed
d) Federal, state, and local regulations
4. Internal tank bottom lining may be necessary if the minimum thickness is less than:
a) 0.010 inch
b) 0.100 inch
c) 1.000 inch
d) 0.1875 inch
5. Of the following what would not be considered important to consider when determining
the need for tank bottom lining?
a) Where is the corrosion
b) What type of corrosion is occurring
c) How high is the design fill level
d) What is the corrosion rate
6. Flexing of the steel tank bottom may cause ______.

a) An internal bottom lining to fail by cracking
b) An internal bottom lining to fail by tearing
c) An internal bottom lining to fail by blistering
d) An internal bottom lining to fail by separating from the bottom plate
7. In old tanks, which of the following may complicate the problem of poor coverage?
a) The diameter of the tank
b) The thickness of the tank bottom
c) Uneven settlement of the tank bottom
d) Chemical contaminants
8. A properly applied internal bottom lining provides leak prevention by _______.

a) Creating a cathodic protection barrier on the internal surface
b) Enhancing the effectiveness of the external cathodic protection system
c) Limiting internal corrosion of the steel tank bottom
d) Limiting internal corrosion of the support columns and landing pads
9. In setting priorities for the application of linings to the bottom of aboveground storage
tanks, which of the following does not need to be considered?
a) The potential for groundwater contamination
b) Type of external cathodic protection system
c) Presence of secondary containment and leak detection systems
d) Location of facility
10. A properly applied tank bottom lining may provide ___ years of service life in a
particular product.
a) 20 to 30
b) 10 to 20
c) 5 to 10
d) 1 to 5
11. A lining that has provided adequate protection in one product may not provide the same
level of protection for another product.
a) True
b) False
Answers to API-652 Section 5, Determination of the Need for Tank Bottom

Lining

1 D
2 A
3 C
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 D
8 C
9 B
10 B
11 A
Section 6 - Tank Bottom Lining Selection
1. Thin film linings are typically what thickness?

a) 20 mils or less
b) 30 mils or less
c) 40 mils or less
d) 50 mils or less
2. Thick film linings are typically what thickness?

a) Greater than 20 mils
b) Greater than 30 mils
c) Greater than 40 mils
d) Greater than 50 mils
3. Why must all linings be resistant to water?

a) Water must be present at the tank bottom to act as a shield between the stored
product and the lining
b) Water must be present at the tank bottom to prevent contamination of the soil
should a leak occur. The water will be detect before any product leakage
c) Water must be present at the tank bottom for electrochemical corrosion to occur
d) Water must be present at the tank bottom for electromotive corrosion to occur
4. Which of the following type of lining would be used for a tank bottom containing water,
distillates, crude, and gasoline at 195ºF
a) Thin-film Coal tar epoxy
b) Thick film isophthalic polyester
c) Thick film epoxy
d) Thin film epoxy with an amine curative
5. What are two advantages of thin-film linings?

a) Lower cost and can be used to cover very irregular surfaces
b) Lower cost and ease of application
c) Lower cost and surface preparation is not critical
d) Requires no special training and lower cost
6. Which of the following type of lining wold be used for a tank bottom containing water,
crude oil, distillates, and gasoline at 150ºF
a) Thin film coal tar
b) Thick film vinyl ester
c) Thin film epoxy with a polyamide curative
d) Thick film isophthalic polyester
7 Thick-film linings are commonly reinforced with which of the following?

a) Sand and small diameter gravel
b) Copper wire, stainless steel wire, and low alloy steel mesh fabric
c) Chopped PVC piping, copped ABS piping, and Resin beads
d) Glass flake, chopped glass fibers, and organic fibers
8. One advantage of thick-film lining is _________.

a) It can provide a good surface to attach internal corrosion monitoring devices
b) It can provide sufficient strength to bridge over large perforations in the tank
bottom
c) It can provide sufficient strength to bridge over small perforation in the tank
bottom
d) It can provide sufficient strength to prevent leakage should the tank bottom
completely corrode away
9. Special consideration must be given to what area of the tank bottom with regard to thick-
film lining?
a) The center because this is the area that will be subjected to the most stress
b) The critical zone
c) Any butt weld joints in the tank bottom
d) The coving at the transition from the tank bottom to the shell
10. What are two disadvantages of thick-film linings?

a) They are more expensive than thin-film linings and require more time to apply
b) They are available in only one color and require more time to apply
c) They are more expensive and require a curative
d) They are more expensive and require high temperature airflow for curing
11. Storage tank bottom linings generally cover the entire tank bottom and extend ________
up the shell of the tank.
a) 12 to 18 inches
b) 18 to 24 inches
c) 24 to 30 inches
d) 30 to 36 inches
12. For thin-film lining systems, application of ______ coats is often required to achieve the
desired film thickness
a) 7 to 8
b) 5 to 6
c) 1 to 4
d) 2 to 3
13. For thick-film lining systems, ______ coats may be required to obtain the thickness of the
desired lining.
a) 5 to 8
b) 2 to 3
c) 1 to 4
d) 3 to 7
14. When only internal corrosion is taking place, regardless of the age of the tank, ______
thick linings may be used.
a) 80 to 120 mil
b) 55 to 80 mil
c) 35 to 55 mil
d) 10 to 35 mil
15. What type and thickness of lining can be used for older tank bottoms that have corroded
both internally and externally?
a) Glass reinforced - 80 to 120 mil
b) Glass reinforced - 55 to 80 mil
c) Glass reinforced - 35 to 55 mil
d) Glass reinforced - 10 to 35 mil
16. Besides the corrosion history and the potential for corrosion, what two exceptional
circumstances must be taken into account during the selection o a tank bottom lining?
a) Specific gravity of the product and elevated temperature

b) Product purity and fill/empty cycles
c) Elevated temperatures and product purity
d) Elevated temperatures and product viscosity
Answers to API-652 Section 6, Tank Bottom Lining Selection

1 A
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 B
6 D
7 D
8 C
9 D
10 A
11 B
12 D
13 C
14 C
15 A
16 C
Section 7 - Surface Preparation
1. What is meant by "anchor pattern" as it pertains to surface preparation for tank bottom
lining?
a) The grid pattern of mechanical fixtures that hold the lining in place
b) The grid pattern of adhesive use to hold the lining to the tank bottom
c) The surface profile or roughness
d) The grid pattern of the bottom plate to plate welds
2. Abrasive blast cleaning to a ______ finish is often specified as the minimum degree of
surface cleanliness.
a) White metal
b) Near white metal
c) Smooth metal
d) Rough
3. To facilitate inspection and to ensure good adhesion of the lining, surface preparation
should extend _______ beyond the area to be lined.
a) Several inches
b) Several feet
c) Not less than 6 inches
d) Not less than 12 inches
4. What is the preferred technique for the repair of perforations of the tank bottom?
a) Thread the perforation and install a suitable pipe plug
b) Install an entirely new tank bottom over the old bottom
c) Fill the perforation with amber acrylic
d) Welding of steel patches
5. Abrasive blasting should not be performed if the temperature of the steel surface is less
than _____ above the dew point or if the humidity is greater than ______ percent.
a) 10ºF - 80
b) 5ºF - 80
c) 15ºF - 80
d) 25ºF - 80
6. The anchor pattern typically required for linings is ____ and generally increases with the
thickness of the lining.
a) 3.5 to 6 mils
b) 2.5 to 5 mils
c) 1.5 to 4 mils
d) 0.5 to 3 mils
7. What is the problem with having small mounts of contaminants such as dirt, clay, water-
soluble salts, or oil in the abrasive used for storage tank bottom cleaning?
a) This contamination in small amounts will not affect the quality and service life of
the lining
b) This contamination in small amounts will cause ripples in the lining surface
c) This contamination in small amounts will cause the abrasive material to stick
together and clog the cleaning equipment
d) This contamination in small amounts will reduce the useful life of the lining
Answers to API-652 Section 7, Surface Preparation

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 D
Section 8 - Lining Application
1. For thick-film linings, the manufacturer may specify that the prime coat be applied at a
film thickness less than that of the anchor pattern. Why is it important to follow these
requirements?
a) Failure to follow these requirements could result in the nullification of the lining
warranty
b) Failure to follow these requirements could result in the lining cracking at the first
filling of the tank
c) Failure to follow these requirements could result in disbonding or delamination of
the lining
d) Failure to follow these requirements could result in pitting of the lining surface
2. What should be done if there are differences between the owner's specifications and the
lining manufacturer's recommendations?
a) These differences should be resolved prior to beginning the job
b) These differences should be resolved at each step to see which is more
advantageous
c) Disregard the manufacturer's recommendations
d) Disregard the owner's specifications
3. As a general rule, the temperature of the steel surface should be ____ and the humidity
should be _______ during the application and curing of the lining.
a) 25ºF above the dew point - below 80%
b) 5ºF above the dew point - below 80%
c) 5ºF below the dew point - above 80%
d) 5ºF above the dew point - above 80%
4. What is a common cause of failure of thick-film lining systems?

a) Abrasive blasting to a white metal finish
b) Abrasive blasting to a near white metal finish
c) Primer coating at a thickness less than the anchor pattern
d) Excess primer thickness
5. What two factors are the major causes of premature lining failure?
a) Forced curing and improper application
b) Improper application and inadequate curing
c) Abrasive blasting to white metal finish and inadequate curing
d) Abrasive blasting to white metal finish and improper application

Answers to API-652 Section 8, Lining Application

1 C
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 B
Section 9 - Inspection
1. To ensure the lining meets the specification, it should be inspected during ___ and ___.
a) Application and at the next scheduled internal inspection; not to exceed 20 years
b) Application and at the next scheduled internal inspection; not to exceed 10 years
c) Application and at the next scheduled internal inspection; not to exceed 5 years
d) Application and upon completion of the work
2. All lining inspectors should demonstrate a thorough knowledge of lining and coating
practices or be _____ certified.
a) National Board
b) API-510
c) NACE
d) API-653
3. How is holiday testing of thick film linings accomplished?

a) Holiday testing of thick film linings shall be carried out with a low-voltage
detector in accordance with NACE RP-01-88
b) Holiday testing of thick film linings shall be carried out with a high-voltage
c) Holiday testing of thick film linings shall be carried out with a low-wattage
d) Holiday testing of thick film linings shall be carried out with an infrared detector
in accordance with NACE RP-01-88
Answers to API-652 Section 9, Inspection

1 D
2 C
3 B
Section 10 - Repair of Tank Bottom Linings
1. A service life of ______ years should be expected from a properly selected and applied
lining system.
a) 10 to 20
b) 15 to 30
c) 20 to 30
d) 25 to 30
2. When should repairs to the tank be accomplished when it is necessary to make repairs to
the lining?
a) All repairs to the tank should be completed immediately after lining repairs to
permit proper curing
b) All repairs to the tank should be completed only after the lining repair has had
time to cure
c) All repairs to the tank should be completed prior to any repair of the lining
d) All repairs to the tank should be started before the repair of the lining and finished
as soon as the work on the lining is complete.
3. Before deciding how to repair a lining, the cause and extent must be established. In
addition, what three possible failure modes must be considered as possible causes of
lining failure?
a) Environmental, mechanical, cathodic protection
b) Mechanical, improper installation, environmental
c) Improper installation, wrong inspection technique, environmental
d) Mechanical, environmental, placement of galvanic anodes
4. Of the following, which is not one of the three basic types of lining repair?
a) Top-coating of an existing lining
b) Complete relining
c) Spot repairs
d) Installing metallic plugs in lining breaks
5. Who should be consulted to access the compatibility of new coats with existing lining in
the top-coating repair method?
a) The API-653 Inspector
b) The owner or operator
c) The lining manufacturer
d) NACE RP-01-84

Answers to API-652 Section 10, Repair of Tank Bottom Linings

1 A
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 C
Section 11 - Safety
1. In addition to proper safe work procedures and training of employees, what else is
required prior to the application of internal tank linings?
a) Provision of the necessary supervision and/or inspection before and after the job
is done
b) Provision of the necessary supervision and/or inspection prior to the start of the
lining application
c) Provision of the necessary supervision and/or inspection throughout the progress
of the job
d) Provision of the necessary supervision and/or inspection provided by the
employee with the most experience
2. All necessary precautions to protect _____ shall be taken prior to entry of and while
working in a storage tank.
a) The thick film tank bottom lining
b) Personnel
c) Any cathodic protection system
d) The environment
3. Working in a petroleum storage tank presents certain hazards. Which of the following
would not be a hazard associated with this activity?
a) Drowning
b) Respiratory
c) Fire
d) Explosion
4. In order to properly protect themselves, employees should consult ______.

a) Their immediate supervisor
b) The owner/operator's specifications
c) Previous inspection reports
d) Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS)
General note to participants: The purpose of an MSDS is to tell the worker:

a) A material's physical properties which make is hazardous to handle
b) The type of personal protective equipment needed
c) The first aid treatment is exposed to a hazard
d) The planning needed for safely handling normal operation, as well as emergencies
such as spills and fires
e) The appropriate response to accidents
The applicable MSDS should be consulted prior to conducting any work
Answers to API-652 Section 11, Safety

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 D
Subject API Pub. 2207 Issue Date Revision Date Page
Tank Bottom Hot Work 03/98 07/99 1
Section 1 - General
1. An operation that can produce a spark or flame hot enough to ignite flammable vapors is
the definition, used by API 2207, for _____.
a) Flame work
b) Hot work
c) Flash work
d) Burning work
2. Tanks that have contained flammable or combustible liquids must be inspected and
proven safe for hot work. These inspections include gas testing to determine an oxygen
content of between ____ and _____ is present.
a) 19.5 and 22.5 ppm
b) 19.5 and 22.5 ppb
c) 19.5 and 22.5 percent
d) 19.5 and 22.5 ml per cubic foot
Section 3 - Precautions
1. During the entry and hot work activity, a/an ______ should be in operation.
a) Electrical light stationed at the tank entrance
b) Electrical air mover
c) Cathodic protection system
d) Gasoline powered air mover
2. Tank surfaces that have been in contact with leaded gasoline should be:
a) Scraped down to bare metal
b) Thoroughly flushed with potable water
c) Steam cleaned
d) Air lanced and cleaned with a solvent
3. As an alternative to scraping down to bare metal, welders should:

a) Preheat the area to be welded to a minimum of 200°F
b) Wear chemical and gasoline resistant shoes and gloves
c) Take frequent breaks by leaving the area at least every 15 minutes
d) Use supplied-air respiratory equipment
4. Grounding leads from welding machines should be attached to:

a) The rectifier for the tank where hot work is being performed
b) A bared surface on a tank in close proximity to the one in which hot work is being
performed
c) A bared surface on the tank shell on which hot work is to be performed
d) A grounding rod driven deep in the ground out side the diked area of the tank in
which hot work is being performed
5. Compressed gas cylinders used for cutting operations should be kept:

a) Inside the tank to prevent tampering
b) Outside the tank next to the opening
c) Outside the tank at a safe distance from open manholes
d) Inside the tank as long as there is at least 20 feet separating the cylinder from the
hot work area
Section 4 – Inspection Procedures
1. In preparation for performing hot work on a tank bottom, the repair organization places
small openings in the tank bottom. Why would these openings be cut into the tank
bottom?
a) These openings facilitate inspection and complete draining of the tank
b) These openings facilitate inspection and freeing the interior from gas
c) These openings facilitate installation of jigs for alignment
d) These openings facilitate inspection and testing the soil under the tank
Section 5 – Safe Work Procedures
1. Minor welded repairs, if the tank bottom is not in good shape, may be made using which
of the following procedures?
a) Drill and tap a hole for ½” pipe, connect a supply of inert gas to the tap, establish
a flow of inert gas before starting the hot work, ensure oxygen content of
atmosphere of 19.5 to 22.5 percent, plug the hole and back weld.
b) Drill and tap a hole for 1/4” pipe, connect a supply of inert gas to the tap,
establish a flow of inert gas before starting the hot work, ensure oxygen content of
c) Drill and tap a hole for ½” pipe, connect a supply of inert gas to the tap, establish
a flow of inert gas immediately after starting the hot work, ensure oxygen content
of atmosphere of 19.5 to 22.5 percent, plug the hole and back weld.
d) Drill and tap a hole for ½” pipe, connect a supply of inert gas to the tap, establish
a flow of inert gas before starting the hot work, ensure oxygen content of

2. Major repairs involving most of the tank bottom can be accomplished by constructing a
dike around the tank’s outer shell and flooding beneath the tank bottom with:
a) Solution of soap and water
b) Solution of soda ash and water
c) Light diesel oil
d) Water
3. When it is necessary to perform welded repairs around the perimeter of a tank,

excavation for a minimum of ____ beyond the point of any hot work area should be
made.
a) Twelve feet
b) Twelve inches
c) Six feet
d) Six inches
4. When a tank double bottom is constructed, how much sand or other sealing material
should be placed over the existing floor.
a) Approximately 12 inches
b) Approximately 8 inches
c) Approximately 6 inches
d) Approximately 4 inches
Answers to API-2207 Section 1, General

1 B
2 C
Answers to API-2207 Section 2, Precautions

1 B
2 A
3 D
4 C
5 C
Answers to API-2207 Section 3, Inspection Procedures

1 B
Answers to API-2207 Section 4, Safe Work Procedures

1 A
2 D
3 B
4 D
Subject API Standard 2015 Issue Date Revision Date Page
Safe Entry & Cleaning of Tanks 03/98 07/00 1
Section 1 - General
1. API Standard 2015 provides direction to the user covering activities from ___ to ____
a) Construction to decommissioning
b) Construction to repair
c) Decommissioning to re-commissioning
d) Removal from location to reconstruction at another location
2. Of the following, which would be the most correct answer?

a) The appendixes are specifications and their use is mandatory in API-2015
b) The appendixes are guidance and are not part of API-2015
c) The appendixes are guidance and are considered as part of API-2015
d) The appendixes are specifications and their use is not mandatory in API-2015
3. API-2015 does not apply to which of the following?

a) Stationary tanks used in the petroleum and petrochemical industry
b) Low-pressure aboveground storage tanks
c) Tanks used in crude oil terminals
d) Underground low-pressure storage tanks
4. API-2015 is intended to be consistent with which of the following regulations?

a) Title 29 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations
b) Title 25 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations
c) Title 19 of the U.S. Code of Federal Regulations
d) OSHA 29 CFR 1910.119
5. If any provision of API-2015 conflicts with statutory or regulatory requirements _____.

a) API-2015 shall govern
b) The owner/operator’s specifications shall govern
c) The statute and regulation shall govern
d) API-2015 in conjunction with the owner/operator’s specifications
Note to Student:
Section 1 of API-2015 contains a list of definitions, which should be studied. The exam may
not ask questions that require you to choose the correct definition but the questions may
contain the terms and your knowledge of definitions would be required.
Answers to API-2015 Section 1, General

1 C
2 B
3 D
4 A
5 C
Section 2 – Administrative Controls
1. Who is responsible for developing and implementing administrative controls and written
plans for tank work from decommissioning through re-commissioning?
a) The Inspector
b) The regulatory agency
c) The tank manufacturer
d) The employer
2. Which of the following would not be addressed in the administrative controls and written
plans for tank work?
a) Use of qualified person(s) at the job site to supervise and perform activities
b) Wage administration of employees involved with tank work
c) An emergency plan
d) Evaluation of contractors and/or subcontractors
3. API-2015 uses the term “qualified person” throughout the document. Which of the
following best defines “qualified person”
a) Person or persons who have passed written examinations administered by the
American Petroleum Institute
b) Person or persons who have been certified by OSHA to supervise tank work
c) Person or persons designated by an employer as having the necessary training and
competence to perform and/or supervise tasks or activities in accordance with the
employer’s policy, procedures, and programs.
d) Person or persons certified by an employer as having the necessary training and
competence to perform and/or supervise tasks or activities in accordance with the
requirements of API-653.
4. Which of the following duties must be performed by a qualified person?

a) Atmospheric testing, issuing permits, and attendant duties
b) Atmospheric testing, product testing, and attendant duties
c) Atmospheric testing, issuing permits, and repair activities
d) Atmospheric testing, issuing tools, and attendant duties
5. The ______ shall advise the contractor of known potential hazards associated with the
tank in which work is to be performed and the surrounding area.
a) Inspector
b) Contract administrator
c) A qualified person
d) The owner and/or operator

Answers to API-2015 Section 2, Administrative Controls

1 D
2 B
3 C
4 A
5 D
Section 3 – Storage Tank Hazards
1. All tanks that have contained petroleum or petroleum products may present all but which
of the following hazards during some phase of preparing a tank for entry and cleaning?
a) Fires and explosions
b) Low temperature hazards
c) Toxic substances
d) Oxygen deficiency or enrichment
2. It is well known that the vapors of some hydrocarbons, stored in aboveground tanks, are
heavier than air and will displace or dilute oxygen. What can cause depletion of oxygen
in a tank that has been closed?
a) The presence of carbon dioxide from the decomposition of water and sludge
b) The presence of carbon monoxide from steam cleaning
c) The presence of oxidation
d) The presence of sulfuric acid from the evaporation of the hydrocarbon
3. According to API-2015, oxygen enrichment occurs when the oxygen level exceeds __ %.
a) 23.5%
b) 22.5%
c) 21.5%
d) 19.5%

(Note to the student: API-2207 states the upper limit of breathable oxygen is 22.5%. Be very
careful and be sure you understand the question and which API document is being referred in the
question. Questions relating to this topic must be read very carefully and if there is doubt list the
question and your comment on the form provided for that purpose during the exam.)
4. Where would you look to find the source of excess oxygen during the cleaning or other
tank work?
a) An air mover that is to large for the tank
b) Leaking vents
c) Improperly operating analyzer
d) Leaking oxygen bottles or cylinders
5. According to API-2015, toxic substances can cause all but which of the following?
a) Irritation
b) Hallucinations
c) Death
d) Injury
6. Exposure to toxic substances can be by any of the following routes except _____.
a) Skin or eye absorption
b) Inhalation
c) Injection or ingestion
d) Casual contact with fellow workers
7. During the production, storage, and refining of sour crude oil and crude oil fractions ____
is produced. This substance is extremely toxic and flammable.
a) Calcium Chloride
b) Sulfur dioxide
c) Hydrogen sulfide
d) Hydrogen sulfate
8. Who is required to procure and review information on materials contained in the tank to
be worked on?
a) The appropriate qualified person
b) The appropriate inspector
c) The appropriate owner/operator
d) The appropriate employer
9. Personnel who are to be performing work or other activities in and around the tank
should review the appropriate _____.
a) Work orders
b) Material safety data sheets
c) Owner/operator specifications related to the operation of the tank
d) Previous inspection reports
10. In addition to fire and explosion hazards, oxygen deficiency and enrichment hazards, and
toxic substance hazards, physical hazards are also present during tank work. Of the
following, which would not be a physical hazard?
a) Tripping hazards caused by internal tank structures and equipment related to the
tank work
b) Heat stress in hot weather
c) Falling into a sump
d) Lightning
Answers to API-2015 Section 3, Storage Tank Hazards

1 B
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 B
6 D
7 C
8 A
9 B
10 D
Section 4 – Preparing the Tank for Entry and Cleaning
1. Prior to commencing work in and around a tank the hazards that can be encountered must
be controlled by pre-planning the job. The essential elements for safe entry and cleaning
include:
a) Review of tank configuration, piping, and site layout, reviewing information
related to the products contained in the tank and surrounding tanks, and
preparation of a workers entry log
b) Review of tank configuration, piping, and site layout, reviewing information
related to the products contained in the tank and surrounding tanks, and
preparation of a safety and work plan for isolation, entry, and cleaning
c) Review of tank configuration, piping, and site layout, reviewing information
related to the products contained in the tank and surrounding tanks, and reviewing
all previous inspection records since the tank was commissioned
d) Review of tank configuration, piping, and site layout, reviewing information
related to the products contained in the tank and surrounding tanks, and review of
the effectiveness of the cathodic protection system
2. Unrecoverable product that remains in the tank below the discharge nozzle:
a) Shall be covered with an impenetrable membrane
b) Can be left as long as it is no more than 6” deep and below the work area
c) Shall be removed in accordance with the safety and work plan
d) Shall be removed by a sub-contractor who specializes in that type of removal
3. What should workers in and around the tank do in the event of an electrical storm do?
a) Continue working, the tank will act as a lightning rod protecting the workers
b) Discontinue work that involves electrical equipment
c) Double-check the bond and ground cables and clamps to ensure integrity
d) Leave the tank and move to a designated safe place
4. Why are pyrophoric deposits a concern during entry and cleaning operations?
a) Pyrophoric deposits may decay and become air borne toxic vapors
b) Pyrophoric deposits may accumulate and create a slipping hazard
c) Pyrophoric deposits may decay and become extremely acidic
d) Pyrophoric deposits may spontaneously ignite upon exposure to air
Reference: API-2015, Paragraph 4.4.6 and Appendix C.7
5. The procedure for testing of the tank atmosphere shall be established prior to the
initiation of tank cleaning
a) True
b) False

Answers to API-2015 Section 4, Preparing the Tank for Entry and Cleaning

1 B
2 C
3 D
4 D
5 A
Section 5 – Testing the Tank Atmosphere
1. Documentation of ______ shall be maintained for each instrument used for atmospheric
testing.
a) Instrument usage
b) Instrument calibration
c) Instrument maintenance
d) Instrument repair
2. Of the following, which is not one of three types of atmospheric testing equipment
discussed in API-2015?
a) Oxygen analyzers
b) Flammable vapor analyzers
c) Carbon Dioxide analyzers
d) Toxic substance indicators
Reference: API-2015, Paragraph 5.1.1, 5.1.2, & 5.1.3
3. Generally, flammable vapor analyzers depend on the presence of adequate ___ levels to
obtain accurate readings.
a) Oxygen
b) Hydrogen
c) Carbon dioxide
d) Nitrogen
4. What is the required order of testing prescribed by OSHA 29 CFR 1910.146?

a) Toxic vapors, oxygen content, flammable vapors
b) Oxygen content, toxic vapors, flammable vapors
c) Flammable vapors, oxygen content, toxic vapors
d) Oxygen content, flammable vapors, toxic vapors
5. Which of the following instruments will detect or determine if a tank to be entered is or

has been in leaded gasoline service prior to cleaning and drying?
a) Mass spectrometer with infrared capabilities
b) Lead in air analyzer
c) Toxic substance indicator
d) There is none
6. Where and why should the exterior tank atmospheric test be conducted during tank vapor
freeing?
a) Adjacent to the inlet of the air mover to be sure fresh air is being used for venting
b) Near the base of the tank because most vapors are heavier than air will tend to
settle near the ground
c) At a point where vapors are being exhausted and the area around the tank to
ensure flammable and toxic vapors are not present above acceptable levels
d) At a point where vapors are being exhausted and the area around the tank to
ensure flammable and toxic vapors are present above acceptable levels proving
they are being vented from the tank
7. The internal tank atmosphere shall be tested to ensure permissible conditions exist
throughout the tank. How long should ventilating equipment be shut down prior to testing
the interior?
a) 30 minutes
b) 15 minutes
c) 5 minutes
d) Ventilating equipment should never be shut down
8. Atmospheric testing should be conducted _____ to ensure proper atmospheric conditions

are maintained.
a) As necessary
b) At least every 15 minutes
c) At least every 30 minutes
d) At least every 45 minutes
9. In addition to the results of testing, the time of testing, what else is required to be
recorded on or attached to the entry permit?
a) The signature of each person entering the tank
b) The signature of the person in charge of the tank work
c) The signature of the person who performed the test
d) The signature of the Inspector
Answers to API-2015 Section 5, Testing the Tank Atmosphere

1 B
2 C
3 A
4 D
5 D
6 C
7 B
8 A
9 C
Section 6 – Hazard Assessment for Entry Permits
1. The entry level and the precautions for entry shall be based on atmospheric and physical
conditions. API-2015 lists three levels of precaution, what are they?
a) Entry with special precautions, entry with restrictions, entry with caution
b) Entry without special precautions, entry with restrictions, entry without
restrictions
c) Entry with special precautions, entry with minimal precautions, entry without
restrictions
d) Entry with special precautions, entry with restrictions, entry without restrictions
2. Which of the entry level precautions are assigned to activities that may subject employees
to the risk of death, incapacitation, inability to self-rescue, serious injury, or acute illness?
a) Entry without restrictions
b) Entry with special precautions
c) Entry with restrictions
d) Entry with extreme caution
3. Who is required to issue an entry permit regardless of the level of precaution?

a) A qualified person
b) An inspector
c) An employer
d) A supervisor
Reference: API-2015, Paragraph 6.2, 6.3, & 6.4
4. After cleaning a tank for entry it is necessary to close the tank to restrict entry during an
extended period of inactivity. Which of the following would be a correct statement?
a) The tank shall be re-tested but only for oxygen content
b) The tank shall be re-tested by any employee entering the tank
c) The tank shall be re-tested as though it were the initial test
d) The tank shall be re-tested but only for flammable vapors
Note to Student:
Read paragraph 6.3 carefully – notice the oxygen content must be between 19.5% and 23.5%.
This is the industry standard and should be your answer to any question pertaining to this
requirement. Should the question refer to API 2207 and this range is not one of the answers,
use the range stated in 2207 and comment on the provided exam question discrepancy form.
Answers to API-2015 Section 6, Hazard Assessment for Entry Permits

1 D
2 B
3 A
4 C
Section 7 – Personal Protective Equipment
1. What is a situation that can arise due to wearing impervious clothing?

a) The employee can pass out due to no oxygen reaching the skin
b) The employee may be susceptible to skin rash from chaffing
c) The employee may be susceptible to heat stress
d) The employee may not be aware of contamination
Reference: API-2015, Paragraph 7.1(a)
2. Who is responsible for providing appropriate respirators?

a) The employer
b) The employee
c) The qualified person
d) The inspector
3. The employer shall comply with what standard or regulation with regard to a respiratory
protection program?
a) API-653
b) OSHA 29 CFR 1910.119
c) The owner/operator’s specifications
d) OSHA 29 CFR 1910.134
4. A respirator shall be checked by whom each time it is put on?

a) The employer
b) The wearer
c) The qualified person
d) The supervisor
5. Breathing air supply shall be secured to protect it from:

a) Theft and physical damage
b) Being used for flame cutting and contamination
c) Physical damage and contamination
d) Physical damage and being moved while in use
Answers to API-2015 Section 7, Personal Protective Equipment

1 C
2 A
3 D
4 B
5 C
Section 8 – Entering and Working Inside the Tank
1. Before entry into a tank, a written permit shall be issued. Where must this permit be
during the entry period?
a) The employer shall keep the permit on file
b) The permit shall be posted next to the breathable air storage area (when supplied
air is required)
c) The permit shall be posted at the entry point of the tank
d) The permit shall be kept by the qualified person who issued it
2. At least one attendant shall be provided when a tank is entered under which of the
following levels of precaution?
a) Entry with extreme caution
b) Entry with special precautions
c) Entry with restrictions
d) Entry without restrictions
3. API-2015 lists many qualifications for the attendant and the employer shall ensure that
each attendant meets these requirements. Which of the following would not be
considered as an item the attendant should be familiar with or trained for?
a) Know the hazards that may be faced during entry
b) Remains outside the permit space during entry operations until relieved
c) Summons rescue and other emergency services
d) Perform CPR and other first aid
4. In addition to an emergency plan for summoning rescue personnel and other emergency
personnel, a plan shall also exist for _______.
a) Environmental emergencies
b) Evacuation of the refinery
c) Evacuating the tank
d) Collecting the required breathing apparatus
Answers to API-2015 Section 8, Entering and Working Inside the Tank

1 C
2 B
3 D
4 A
Section 9 – Hot Work and Tank Repairs
1. Hot work is defined by API-2015 as:

a) Any work that produces enough energy to ignite paper
b) Any work that produces enough energy to be a potential lethal vapor source
c) Any work that produces enough energy to be a potential ignition source
d) Any work that produces enough energy to be a potential flammable vapor source
2. Frequent tests shall be conducted to verify the atmosphere in the tank is not in excess of
___ percent of the lower flammable limit and that the PEL/TLV for toxic substance are
not exceeded.
a) Ten
b) Fifteen
c) Twenty
d) Twenty-five
3. Who is responsible for issuing a hot work permit?

a) The inspector
b) A qualified person
c) The contractor
d) The employer
4. Fire fighting equipment in working order, such as extinguishers and/or pressurized hoses,
shall be available where hot work is to be performed. What consideration should be given
to the personnel who might have to operate this equipment?
a) The personnel must be big enough to handle the pressurized hose
b) The personnel must be strong enough to lift and use a fire extinguisher
c) The personnel must be instructed in the use of this equipment
d) The personnel must be stationed at least sixty feet from the hot work area
Answers to API-2015 Section 9, Hot Work and Tank Repairs

1 C
2 A
3 B
4 C
Section 10 – Returning the Tank to Service
1. What important function must be performed prior to installing the manway covers?
a) The tank shall be washed down with clean water
b) The tank shall have warm dry air circulated to remove moisture
c) The tank shall be completely coated to prevent corrosion
d) The tank shall be inspected to ensure all personnel have exited
2. If the product being pumped into the tank during filling is capable of emitting flammable
vapors, the flow rate shall be reduced to minimize the creation of static electricity. This
fill rate is usually ______ for steel pipe.
a) 3 feet per second
b) 3 feet per minute
c) 3 inches per second
d) 3 inches per minute
3. When would it be permissible for personnel to go onto the top of a floating roof either
internal or external after re-floating the roof?
a) Personnel should not go on top of the roof for at least 24 hours after re-floating
the roof
b) Personnel should not go on top of the roof for at least 18 hours after re-floating
the roof
c) Personnel should not go on top of the roof for at least 12 hours after re-floating
the roof
d) Personnel should not go on top of the roof for at least 6 hours after re-floating the
roof
4. Why should the fill rate be reduced as product nears the pontoons and/or lower deck
surface?
a) To prevent overfilling the tank and causing environmental contamination
b) To prevent toxic or flammable vapors uncontrolled escaping into the atmosphere
c) To prevent damage to the roof
d) To prevent dislodgment of the wind girders
Answers to API-2015 Section 9, Hot Work and Tank Repairs

1 D
2 A
3 B
4 C
Appendix A – Description of Petroleum Storage Tank Hazards
Note to the student:

API-2015 states that the appendixes are offered as guidance and do not from part of the
standard. It should be pointed out however the examination can ask questions relating to the
information provided in the appendixes. For that reason, we will address some highlights and
important topics in this study guide. The student is encouraged to read all of the appendixes
and be familiar with their layout and content.
1. What are the three elements necessary for a fire?

a) Flammable vapor, air (oxygen), and chemical decomposition
b) Flammable vapor, hydrogen, and an ignition source
c) Flammable vapor, air (oxygen), and an endothermic reaction
d) Flammable vapor, air (oxygen), and an ignition source
Reference: API-2015, Appendix A.2
2. What is the flammable range of methane?

a) 5 to 15 percent in air
b) 5 to 15 PPM
c) 5 to 15 PPB
d) 5 to 15 parts per liter
Reference: API-2015, Appendix A.2 and Table A-1
3. Why would it be necessary to take oxygen content tests at various levels in a storage
tank?
a) So the workers will know what level they can work at
b) To verify the results of the previous test
c) Because the atmosphere may become stratified
d) Oxygen content tests are only taken at the bottom of the tank
4. You are assigned as an attendant for workers inside a tank. You notice one worker on the
far side of the tank having difficulty using a simple tool. Would you be concerned and
what might be the reason for the worker’s difficulty?
a) There is no reason for concern, the worker has probably not used that tool before
b) There is no reason for concern, the tool is probably broken
c) There is reason for concern, the worker probably broke the tool
d) There is reason for concern, loss of reasoning is one sign of an oxygen deficient
environment
5. You have been designated as a qualified person for tank entry attendant. Where would
you go for information about health and safety risks of a substance?
a) The inspector
b) The employer or supplier
c) The supervisor in charge of the entry work
d) The operator of the tank
6. A substance that causes minor or transient but possibly painful injuries that heal without
scars and produce no known aftereffects are known as _____.
a) Inconveniences
b) Scrapes and brush burns
c) Irritants
d) Non-toxic substances
7. Hydrofluoric acid, sulfuric acid, and caustics are classified as _____.

a) Corrosives
b) Carcinogens
c) Chronically toxic substances
d) Critical mass substances
8. ___________ and ________ are terms commonly used to describe the concentration in
air of an airborne toxic substance below which nearly all workers may be repeatedly
exposed without adverse affects.
a) Permissible limit values (PLV) and Threshold exposure limits (TEL)
b) Threshold exposure values (TEV) and Permissible exposure values (PEV)
c) Permissible threshold limits (PTL) and Permissible exposure limits (PEL)
d) Permissible exposure limits (PEL) and Threshold limit values (TLV)
9. Who is responsible for determining which toxic substance(s) is/are likely to be present in
a tank to be entered?
a) The qualified person designated as the attendant
b) The qualified person supervising the job
c) The qualified inspector for the repair
d) The qualified person responsible for breathing apparatus
10. You are in an area and detect a rotten-egg odor. What would you attribute this smell to?
a) The exhaust of a truck parked nearby
b) A bank of portable toilets
c) Hydrogen sulfide
d) Sulfur dioxide
Reference: API-2015, Appendix A.4.1
11. Since hydrogen sulfide has such a distinct odor, why should you not rely on your sense of
smell to detect its presence?
a) Instantaneous exposure to higher concentrations of the gas immediately paralyze
the sense of smell
b) Instantaneous exposure to lower concentrations of the gas immediately paralyze
the sense of smell
c) Prolonged exposure to higher concentrations of the gas become tolerable to the
sense of smell
d) Prolonged exposure to low concentrations of the gas become tolerable to the sense
of smell
12. Lead alkyls are toxic via which of the four routes of exposure
a) Skin and eye absorption only
b) Inhalation, skin and eye absorption, ingestion, and injection
c) Injection and ingestion only
d) Inhalation and ingestion only
13. You are assigned the duties of entry attendant for a tank, you notice several of the
workers inside the tank appear to be intoxicated. What might be the cause?
a) These workers consumed alcoholic beverages at lunch
b) The workers arrived at work in this condition
c) The workers are inhaling high concentrations of hydrocarbon vapors
d) The workers are inhaling high concentrations of nitrous oxide vapors
14. Workers wearing semi-impermeable or impermeable clothing can encounter heat stress at
temperatures as low as ___°F.
a) 40
b) 50
c) 60
d) 70
Answers to API-2015 Appendix A, Description of Petroleum Storage Tank

Hazards

1 D
2 A
3 C
4 D
5 B
6 C
7 A
8 D
9 B
10 C
11 A
12 B
13 C
14 D
Appendix B – Vapor Freeing the Tank
1. Of the following, which would not be a method of vapor freeing a tank?

a) Mechanical ventilation
b) Natural ventilation
c) Liquid flooding
d) Inert gas purging
Reference: API-2015, Appendix B.1
2. Mechanical ventilation uses ____ or ___ that are driven by electric motors, air, or steam.
a) Pumps or compressors
b) Blowers or eductors
c) Eductors or pumps
d) Blowers or compressors
3. Steam ventilation may be advantageous in certain cases, however steam jets generate __.
a) Static electricity
b) Excessive noise
c) Excessive heat
d) Excessive moisture
4. Natural ventilation is the preferred method regardless of the availability of other methods.
a) True
b) False
5. Tanks that have contained asphalt, aromatic tars, or sour stock are more susceptible to
a) High concentrations of solidified product
b) Accelerated corrosion when the product is removed
c) Pyrophoric deposits
d) Brittle fracture
Answers to API-2015 Appendix B, Vapor Freeing the Tank

1 C
2 B
3 A
4 B
5 C
Appendix C – Control of Ignition Sources
1. Personnel should leave a tank cleaning site if _____ while the tank is being ventilated or
cleaned.
a) Vehicular traffic has to pass within 50 feet of the tank
b) An electrical storm is in progress or threatening
c) A rain shower is in progress or threatening
d) A snow storm is in progress or threatening
Reference: API-2015, Appendix C.3
2. The use of artificial lights except flashlights should be avoided when there is a potential
of flammable vapors exceeding ____ of the lower flammable limit.
a) 10%
b) 10 parts per million
c) 10 parts per billion
d) 10 parts per thousand
Reference: API-2015, Appendix C.4
Note to the Student:

The remainder of the appendixes will not be covered in this study guide, you should read the
information contained in these appendixes. Appendix D deals with specific tank designs and
products. Appendix E provides a Planning Checklist, and appendix F discusses oxygen and
flammable vapor analyzers. We do not expect questions relating to appendixes D, E, or F to
be on the exam however, reading them will not be a waste of time.
Answers to API-2015 Appendix C, Control of Ignition Sources

1 B
2 A
Subject API RP-575 Issue Date Revision Date Page
Inspection of Storage Tanks 03/98 07/00 1
Section 3 – Selected Nondestructive Examination Methods
1. In ultrasonic thickness measurements, dual-element transducers have the ability to

operate from thin sections of ____ inch
a) 0.500 – 1.000
b) 0.050 – 0.100
c) 0.050 – 1.000
d) 0.005 – 1.000
2. In performing ultrasonic thickness measurements _____ transducers are recommended

for measurements on penetrations and floors and _____ transducers are recommended on
shells where coating thickness may not be uniform.
a) Dual-element, Single crystal contact
b) Single crystal contact, Dual-element
c) High-temperature, Low-temperature
d) Low-temperature, High-temperature
3. What is the minimum overlap for ultrasonic thickness readings according to the ASME?
a) 10 percent based on the thickness of the part being examined
b) 10 percent based on the diameter of the transducer
c) 10 percent based on the thickness of the calibration block
d) 10 percent based on the diameter of the transducer cable
4. What ultrason method can be used to assist in the discrimination between inclusions in
the metal and laminations?
a) A scan
b) B scan
c) Straight beam
d) Shear wave
5. The primary advantage of magnetic floor testing using a floor scanner is the ability to
detect topside pitting and underside corrosion. Additional inspection is required to
quantify flaws detected above certain thresholds. Generally, what method of examination
is used for this purpose?
a) Liquid penetrant
b) Eddy current
c) Ultrasonic
d) Radiography
Answers to API-RP-575 Section 3, Selected Nondestructive Examination

Methods

1 C
2 A
3 B
4 D
5 C
Section 4 – Types of Storage Tanks
1. API-575 states that atmospheric storage tanks are used for fluids having a true vapor
pressure at the storage temperature that is _____.
a) equal to or greater than atmospheric pressure
b) at least 2.5 psi above atmospheric
c) at least 2.5 pounds per square foot above atmospheric
d) substantially below atmospheric
2. What type of tank does API-575 consider the simplest type of atmospheric storage tank?
a) Cone-roof
b) Dome-roof
c) Umbrella-roof
d) Pan-type floating roof
3. The floating roof atmospheric storage tank is designed to do which of the following?
a) Allow the tank to filled completely to the top rim and provide self-venting
b) Prevent personnel for falling into the tank and keep birds out of the storage area
c) Eliminate or minimize the vapor space above the stored liquid
d) Create or maximize the vapor space above the stored liquid
4. The pan-type floating roof is the simplest type of floating roof design. Which of the
following is the most correct?
a) This design is susceptible to collapse
b) This design is susceptible to sinking
c) This design is more susceptible to corrosion
d) This design is not suited for hydrocarbon storage tanks
5. Storage tanks that are designed to operate at pressures, in their gas or vapor spaces,
exceeding 2.5 psi but not more than 15 psi are described as which of the following?
a) Atmospheric storage tanks
b) High-pressure storage tanks
c) Intermediate pressure storage tanks
d) Low-pressure storage tanks
Answers to API-RP-575 Section 4, Types of Storage Tanks

1 D
2 A
3 C
4 B
5 D
Section 5 – Reasons for Inspection and Causes of Deterioration
1. In general, why are storage tanks inspected?

a) To determine their physical condition and cycles of use
b) To determine their physical condition and rate of deterioration
c) To determine their physical dimensions and rate of deterioration
d) To determine their physical condition and type of design
2. What is the prime cause of deterioration of steel storage tanks and accessories?
a) Erosion
b) Upset
c) Settlement
d) Corrosion
3. A sand pad beneath a tank bottom is found to be contaminated with gravel and crushed
stones. What type of problem could this contamination cause?
a) Pitting corrosion at points of contact
b) Punctures of the tank bottom at points of contact
c) Air spaces which provide even corrosion
d) Cracking at the point of contact
4. If soil movement raises the grade level to cover the lower portion of the shell, what
would you as the inspector look for?
a) Severe external corrosion of the shell beneath the soil level
b) Severe external corrosion of the shell just above the soil line
c) Severe internal corrosion of the shell beneath the soil level
d) Severe internal corrosion of the shell just above the soil line
5. Atmospheric corrosion can occur on all external parts of a tank. During your inspection,
you notice considerable damage to the protective coating and accelerated corrosion rates.
What would you suspect the cause to be?
a) Hydrogen and oxygen rich atmosphere
b) Nitrogen and oxygen rich atmosphere
c) Sulfurous or acidic atmosphere
d) Carbon dioxide and nitrogen rich atmosphere
6. Internal corrosion in the vapor space above the liquid of crude oil and petroleum product
tanks is commonly caused by _________.
a) Hydrogen sulfide vapor, water vapor, caustic vapors or any combination of the
three
b) Hydrogen sulfide vapor, nitrogen vapors, oxygen or any combination of the three
c) Hydrogen sulfide vapor, water vapor, oxygen or any combination of the three
d) Hydrogen sulfide vapor, water vapor, nitrogen or any combination of the three
7. Of the following, which is not a point where cracks are most likely to occur?
a) Around nozzle connections
b) Around rivet holes
c) Bottom-to-shell connections
d) In the roof rafters
8. Why is inspection for cracking of the lower-shell-to-sketch-plate weld critical?

a) This area is more susceptible to cracking because it is subjected to internal and
external atmosphere
b) This area is critical because in relatively large or hot tanks, it has more potential
for cracking
c) This area is critical because in relatively large or hot tanks, it has more potential
for corrosion
d) This area is critical because in relatively small or cold tanks, it has more potential
for cracking
9. Why is it important to check roof drains?

a) Plugged drains can cause enough rainwater to accumulate on the roof to prevent
the tank from being pumped full
b) Plugged drains can cause enough rainwater to accumulate on the roof to increase
the vapor pressure enough to cause the tank to rupture
c) Plugged drains can cause enough rainwater to accumulate on the roof to force
product out of the vents creating an environmental hazard
d) Plugged drains can cause enough rainwater to accumulate on the roof to sink a
pan-type or pontoon-type floating roof
Answers to API-RP-575 Section 5, Reasons for Inspection and Causes of

Deterioration

1 B
2 D
3 A
4 B
5 C
6 C
7 D
8 B
9 D
Section 7 – Methods of Inspection and Inspection Scheduling
1. Some of the first items to inspect when conducting an internal inspection of a storage
tank should be which of the following?
a) The tank bottom and the annular ring plate if one is installed
b) The water draw-off pipe and product drain
c) The base of all roof support structures
d) Overhead parts and all supports
2. Where should the recommended inspection of overhead parts and supports be conducted
from?
a) A bosun’s chair suspended through the roof vent after the tank has been gas freed
b) The entry point or other observations points before entering the tank
c) From the very center of the tank bottom with a powerful sealed beam portable
light
d) From ladders or scaffolding
3. The inspector should thoroughly review __________ prior to conducting internal or

external inspections.
a) The repair plan and/or re-commissioning plan
b) The operating history of the tank and list of products that have been in the tank
c) The inspection and maintenance records
d) The tank entry permit and qualification of the entry attendant
4. When any work is being done on the outside or close to the tank, especially on the roof,
during inspection ________ should be kept informed.
The owner/operator
The qualified person
Personnel working inside the tank
Personnel working under the tank
5. When should the majority of external inspection activity be conducted?

a) As soon as the tank is taken out of service and is drained
b) Six months before the tank is removed from service for the internal inspection
c) While the tank is being drained
d) While the tank is in service
6. During the external in-service inspection, ladder and stair treads should be checked. What
condition(s) would you be looking for?
a) Missing rungs and wear
b) Corrosion or broken parts
c) Corrosion and missing rungs
d) Tread-to-tread distance and handrail height
7. Inspection of pipe connections to the tank should include bolting at flanged joints. Piping
that enters the ground should be inspected at the soil-to-air interface by excavating ___ to
___ inches to permit visual and ultrasonic thickness examination.
a) 18 to 24
b) 12 to 18
c) 6 to 12
d) 4 to 8
8. If during your inspection, you find distortion around a nozzle connection, what additional
action would you recommend?
a) All seams and the shell in this area should be examined
b) All horizontal welds around the tank in the course that contains the nozzle should
be examined
c) All vertical welds within 36 inches of the nozzle should be examined
d) An area measuring two nozzle diameters square should be examined around the
nozzle
9. Grounding connections should be visually checked for corrosion at the point where they
enter the earth. What is the approximate total resistance from the tank to earth?
a) Should not exceed 100 ohms
b) Should not exceed 75 ohms
c) Should not exceed 50 ohms
d) Should not exceed 25 ohms
10. Where would you expect to find paint blisters?

a) On the roof and on the side of the tank on the north side
b) On the roof and on the side of the tank subjected to mist over-spray from cooling
towers
c) On the roof and on the side of the tank adjacent to another tank
d) On the roof and on the side of the tank receiving the most sunlight
11. Why is it recommended that inspectors not walk on insulated roof?

a) The inspector may damage the insulation
b) The insulation may contain hazardous substances
c) The roof plates may not be strong enough to support the inspector’s weight
d) The inspector may cause indentations in the insulation where water can collect
12. The inspector finds corrosion during the shell inspection and requires ultrasonic thickness
measurements to be taken. How many measurements would normally be taken?
a) At least one thickness measurement on each shell ring
b) At least two thickness measurements on each shell ring
c) At least three thickness measurements on each shell ring
d) At least one thickness measurement in the immediate area of the corrosion
13. In obtaining shell thickness measurements, special attention should be given to the upper
__ inches of un-coated shells of floating-roof tanks.
a) Twelve
b) Twenty-four
c) Eighteen
d) Thirty-six
14. Where would you expect to find caustic stress corrosion cracking (caustic embrittlement)
during an inspection of a storage tank used to store amine?
a) At the liquid to vapor interface
b) At the roof supports on the tank bottom
c) Around connections for internal heating coils or units
d) At the shell-to-bottom connection
15. What should be done if an indication of leakage through a crack is discovered on an in-
service tank?
a) A soft patch should be applied over the crack and the area observed for 24 hours
b) It may be possible to caulk the crack to stop the leakage
c) The tank shall immediately be removed from service, drained, opened, and
repaired
d) The tank should be removed from service as soon as possible and a complete
inspection with subsequent repairs made
16. Welded tanks that have significant distortions may cause the weld seams to be over-
stressed. In addition to the bottom-to-shell joint, what other welds are susceptible to
cracking?
a) Horizontal shell seams
b) Vertical shell seams
c) Wind girder attachment welds
d) Reinforcement pad peripheral welds
17. When a tank is of welded construction and has significant distortion, weld seams may
crack. When cracking is suspected, what is the preferred method of nondestructive
examination?
a) Radiography
b) Ultrasonic
c) Liquid Penetrant
d) Magnetic Particle
18. When conducting a tank roof inspection on a floating roof, in addition to the
recommendation that the inspector walk on weld seams, what other precaution should be
taken?
a) The tank should be empty and the roof siting on the lower support stops
b) The roof should be in the high-gauge position if volatile liquid is in the tank
c) Inert gas should be applied under the roof if volatile liquid is in the tank
d) The roof vent(s) should be plugged to prevent vapor escape while the inspector is
on the roof
19. External corrosion on roof surfaces will usually be most severe at depressions where
water can remain until it evaporates.
a) True
b) False
20. Which of the following is the correct procedure for pressure testing roof drain lines and
joints?
a) First test at about 1.5 times design pressure for approximately ½ hour then reduce
pressure to ½ design pressure and hold for another ½ hour
b) First test at about 15 psi for approximately ½ hour then reduce pressure to 5 psi
and hold for another ½ hour
c) First test at about 30 psi for approximately ½ hour then reduce pressure to 5 psi
and hold for another ½ hour
d) First test at about 3.0 times design pressure for approximately ½ hour then reduce
pressure to ½ design pressure and hold for another ½ hour
21. In conducting a preliminary internal visual inspection, what is the recommended

sequence of the inspection?
a) The bottom, shell, internal supports, and roof in that order
b) The shell, bottom, internal supports, and roof in that order
c) The internal supports, roof, shell, and bottom in that order
d) The roof, internal supports, shell, and bottom in that order
22. An inspector should be aware of the possibility of accumulation of dry pyrophoric

deposits that could ignite during the inspection. What should be done with these deposits
if they can not be removed prior to the inspection?
a) These deposits should be kept moist
b) These deposits should be kept dry
c) These deposits should be covered with foam
d) These deposits should be left alone and the inspector should stay at least 12 feet
from them
23. Where would you expect to find significant internal corrosion in a tank in sour refinery
fluid service?
a) On the surfaces of the bottom plates
b) In vapor space above the stored liquid
c) Adjacent to the product drain nozzle
d) Adjacent to the manway entrance nozzle
24. Caustic stress corrosion cracking (caustic embritlement) is prevalent when the
temperature rises above ____°F.
a) 100
b) 125
c) 150
d) 175
25. When the statistical methods are used to assess the probable condition of a tank bottom,
what is the typical amount of the floor that should be randomly scanned?
a) 30 to 50 percent
b) 20 to 30 percent
c) 10 to 20 percent
d) 5 to 10 percent
26. Tanks with a bottom angle between the shell and the bottom should be checked for cracks
in the shell adjacent to any welded butt joints in this angle. What method of examination
should be used?
a) Ultrasonic or radiography
b) Liquid penetrant or magnetic particle
c) Eddy current or acoustic emission
d) Light diesel oil or vacuum box
27. To test for leaks through shell plates, sometimes a penetrating oil can be sprayed or
brushed on one side and the other side observed for leakage. What period of time might
be required to conduct this type of test?
a) 48 hours
b) 36 hours
c) 24 hours
d) 72 hours
28. API-575 discusses several methods of inspecting the bottoms of tanks that are resting on
pads or on the soil. The methods require a temporary clay dam to be placed around the
outside of the tank bottom. Which of the following is not one of the methods discussed?
a) Cover the inside surface with a soap solution and inject air at not more than 3
inches of water pressure under the tank
b) Inject a solution of light diesel oil under the tank at a pressure not more that 3 psi
and observe the tank bottom from the inside for wicking of the oil
c) Pump about 6 inches of water into the tank and then place air at not more than 9
inches of water pressure under the tank
d) Pump water under the tank to depth of about 6 inches above the level of the
highest point of the tank bottom and holding the water with the clay dam
29. Atmospheric tanks that are designed for not more than 0.5 psig over the static pressure of
the liquid contained in the tank are normally tested:
a) By filling the tank with the liquid to be stored
b) By filling the tank with an inert gas
c) By filling the tank with water
d) By filling the tank with a soap solution
30. What should be the deciding factor(s) in determining the need for tank repair or renewal?
a) Structural integrity and leak avoidance
b) Economics
c) Age of the tank
d) Product stored in the tank

Answers to API-RP-575 Section 7, Reasons for Inspection and Causes of

Deterioration

1 D
2 B
3 C
4 C
5 D
6 B
7 C
8 A
9 D
10 D
11 C
12 A
13 B
14 C
15 D
16 B
17 D
18 B
19 A
20 C
21 D
22 A
23 B
24 C
25 D
26 B
27 C
28 B
29 C
30 A
Subject API-510 Exam Prep Issue Date Revision Date Page
ASME Welding 03/98 10/99 1
WELDING REQUIREMENTS
1. Of the following, which best defines “Butt Joint”.
a) A joint between two members aligned within 30° of the same plane
b) A joint between two members aligned in approximately the same plane.
c) A joint between two members aligned within 45° of the same plane
d) A joint between two members aligned at any angle less than 90°
REF: Section IX, QW-492
2. ASME Section IX defines a corner joint as which of the following?
a) A joint between two members located approximately at right angles to each other.
b) A joint created by welding from around the outer edge of a rectangular vessel
c) A joint made up of two members aligned within 30º or less from centerline
d) A joint made up of two members aligned within 60º or more from centerline
3. Define fillet weld.
a) A weld used to fill the root of a butt weld

b) A weld of approximately rectangular cross section joining two members in
approximately the same plane
c) A weld of approximately triangular cross section joining two surfaces approximately
at right angles to each other in a lap joint, tee joint or corner joint.
d) A weld of approximately trapezoidal cross section joining two surfaces approximately
at right angles to each other in a dimpled vessel plug joint
4. How does ASME Section IX, Welding Qualifications, defines groove weld?
a) A weld made in a groove formed with a single member or in the groove between two
members to be joined.
b) A weld of approximately triangular shape used to join two members at an angle of up
to 90°
c) A weld only used in boiler construction
d) A weld that may only be made using the Shielded Metal Arc Welding process
5. Of the following which is not listed as a standard type of groove weld?
a) Single Vee groove weld

b) Single-U groove weld
c) Double-Vee groove weld
d) Double-flare-barrel groove weld
6. In what Article of Section IX are general requirements found?
a) Article I
b) Article II
c) Article III
d) Article IV
REF: Section IX, Introduction
7. Welding procedure requirements are located in which Article of ASME Section IX?
a) Article I
b) Article II
c) Article III
d) Article IV
8. In what Article of Section IX are requirements for performance qualifications found?
a) Article I
b) Article II
c) Article III
d) Article IV
9. In what Article of Section IX is the welding data found?
a) Article I
b) Article II
c) Article III
d) Article IV
10. Section IX provides information on how to weld?

a) True
b) False

11. What is the purpose of the Welding Procedure Specification (WPS) and the Procedure
Qualification Record (PQR)?
a) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine that the weldment, proposed for
construction, is capable of having the required properties for its intended application.
b) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to determine the welder’s or welding operator’s
ability to deposit sound welds
c) The purpose of the WPS and PQR together is to provide direction to the welder
d) The purpose of the WPS and PQR is to design the welded joint prior to welding
REF: Section IX, Introduction, QW-100.1
12. One purpose of qualifying a WPS is to establish the skill of the personnel performing the
welding? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
13. What is the purpose of qualifying welders?
a) To determine their ability to follow the instructions in the WPS

b) To determine their ability to follow the instructions in the PQR
c) To determine their ability to deposit sound metal.
d) To determine their ability to react to fabrication change
14. What is the purpose of qualifying a welding operator?
a) To determine their ability to follow the instructions in the WPS

b) To determine their ability to follow the instructions in the PQR
c) To determine their ability to deposit sound metal.
d) To determine their ability to operate the welding equipment
15. What is the intent of the WPS?
a) To provide direction to the welder or welding operator

b) To provide direction to the fabrication supervisor
c) To qualify the welding to be used in production
d) To determine the ability of the welder to deposit sound weld metal
REF: Section IX, QW-100.1
16. Under what conditions may welding procedures qualified prior to 1962 be used on new
Code vessels?
a) WPSs, PQRs, and WPQs made in accordance with the requirements of Section IX
prior to 1962 are not permitted in new construction
b) WPSs, PQRs, and WPQs made in accordance with the requirements of Section IX
prior to 1962, in which all requirements of the 1962 Edition or later Editions are met,
may be used.
c) WPSs, PQRs, and WPQs made in accordance with the requirements of Section IX
prior to 1962, may be used provided they are brought up to date with the latest edition
of Section IX
d) WPSs, PQRs, and WPQs made in accordance with the requirements of Section IX
prior to 1962 may be used only if they meet the requirements of the 1972 Edition or
later Editions
17. Flat position with the plate in the horizontal plane and the weld metal deposited from
above is the description given in Section IX for which welded plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
18. Horizontal position with the plate in a vertical plane and the axis of the weld is horizontal
is the description given in Section IX for which welded plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
19. Vertical position with the plate in a vertical plane with the axis of the weld vertical is the
description given in Section IX for which welded plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
20. Overhead position with the plate in a horizontal plane with the weld deposited from
underneath is the description given in Section IX for which welded plate position?
a) 4G Position
b) 3G Position
c) 2G Position
d) 1G Position
21. Flat position with the axis of the pipe horizontal and the pipe is rolled during welding so
that the weld metal is deposited from above, is the description given in Section IX for
which welded pipe position?
a) 1G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 6G Position
22. Horizontal position with the axis of the pipe vertical and the axis of the weld in a
horizontal plane. The pipe shall not be rotated during welding.
a) 1G Position
b) 6G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 2G Position
23. A multiple position qualification with the axis of the pipe horizontal and the welding
groove in a vertical plane; welding shall be done without rotating the pipe. This is a
description of which welded pipe position?
a) 5G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 1G Position
d) 6G Position
24. A multiple position qualification with the axis of the pipe 45º to the horizontal; welding
shall be done without rotating the pipe. This is a description of which welded pipe
position?
a) 1G Position
b) 2G Position
c) 5G Position
d) 6G Position
25. What do tension tests determine in procedure qualification of groove welds?
a) Tension tests are used to determine the overall ductility of the welded joint
b) Tension tests are used to determine the notch toughness of the welded joint
c) Tensile tests are used to determine the ultimate strength of groove weld joints
d) Tension tests are used to determine the hardness of the weld and base metal
26. What do guided bend tests determine in procedure qualification of groove welds?
a) Bend tests are used to determine the size, soundness, and contour of the weld
b) Bend tests are used to determine the soundness and ductility of groove weld joints
c) Bend tests are used to determine the ultimate strength of groove weld joints
d) Bend tests are used to determine the notch toughness of the weldment
27. When performing tension tests for procedure qualifications on thicknesses greater than
1”, multiple specimens are always required.
a) True
b) False
REF: Section IX, QW-151.1(b)
28. When performing tension tests for procedure qualifications on pipe with an outside
diameter of ___ or less, a full section specimen may be used.
a) 9 inches
b) 6 ½ inches
c) 4 ½ inches
d) 3 inches
29. Which of the following is not an acceptance criteria for tension tests for procedure
qualifications? The specimen shall have a tensile strength that is not less than:
a) The specified minimum tensile strength of the base metal.

b) The specified minimum tensile strength of the weaker of the two if the two metals of
different strengths are used.
c) The specified minimum yield strength of the weld metal when the applicable Section
provides for the use of weld metal having lower room temperature strength than the
base metal.
d) If the specimen breaks in the base metal outside the weld or fusion line, the test shall
be accepted as meeting the requirements provided the strength is not more than 5%
below the specified minimum tensile strength.
30. Define transverse side bend.
a) The weld is transverse to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that
one of the side surfaces becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
b) The weld is transverse to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that
one of the side surfaces becomes the concave surface of the bent specimen.
c) The weld is transverse to the circumferantial axis of the specimen, which is bent so
that one of the side surfaces becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
d) The weld is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that one
of the side surfaces becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
31. Define transverse face bend.
a) The weld is parallel to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that the
face surface becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
b) The weld is transverse to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that
the face surface becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
c) The weld is transverse to the longitudinal axis of the specimen, which is bent so that
the face surface becomes the concave surface of the bent specimen.
d) The weld is transverse to the circumferential axis of the specimen, which is bent so
that the face surface becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
32. In a transverse root bend, the weld is transverse to the longitudinal axis of the specimen,
which is bent so that the root surface becomes the convex surface of the bent specimen.
a) True
b) False
33. Open defects not exceeding ___ inches, measured in any direction on the convex surface
of the specimen after bending, are acceptable criteria for guided bend tests?
a) 1/64th
b) 1/32nd
c) 1/16th
d) 1/8th
34. In guided bend test acceptance criteria, open defects on the corners of the specimen
during testing:
a) Shall be reason to reject the test

b) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they result from internal
defects
c) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they result from external
defects
d) Shall not be considered unless there is definite evidence that they exceed 3/16th inch
dimension in any direction
35. Where are the acceptance criteria for radiographic examination for welder qualifications
found in Section IX?
a) QW-321.2
b) QW-302.2
c) QW-191
d) Welders may not be qualified using radiographic examination
REF: Section IX, QW-191.2.2
36. A welder qualifies by radiography on a 3/8” coupon. A 3/16” slag inclusion is shown on
the radiograph. Is the welder qualified? Why or why not?
a) No, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is 1/8”
b) Yes, slag inclusions are not to be considered in qualification
c) No, slag inclusion of any dimension is reason for qualification failure
d) Yes, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is ¼”
REF: Section IX, QW-191.2.2(a)(2)
37. A welder qualifies by radiography on a 1” coupon. A ¼” slag inclusion is shown on the

radiograph. Is the welder qualified? Why or why not?
a) No, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is 1/8t or 1/8”
b) Yes, slag inclusions are not to be considered in qualification
c) No, slag inclusion of any dimension is reason for qualification failure
d) Yes, the maximum slag inclusion allowed for this thickness is 1/3t or 1/3”
38. In qualifying a welder by radiography on a 1 1/4" thick coupon, a 1/4" length crack is
shown. Would this be acceptable?
a) Yes, the maximum length of crack or zone of incomplete fusion for this thickness is
1/3t or 1/3”
b) No, any type of crack or zone of incomplete fusion or penetration is unacceptable
c) Yes, the maximum length of crack or zone of incomplete fusion for this thickness is
¾”
d) No, the maximum length of crack or zone of incomplete fusion for this thickness is
1/8t or 1/8”
39. Define a linear indication as it relates to welder qualification by radiography.
a) A linear indication is one in which the length is more than 2 times the width
b) A linear indication is one in which the length is more than 3 times the width
c) A linear indication is one in which the length is more than 4 times the width
d) A linear indication is one in which the length is more than 5 times the width
40. Where would you find the acceptance standards for welding operators who qualify by
radiography on production welds?
a) QW- 191.2.2
b) QW-304.1
c) Referencing Code Section
d) Referencing Repair Code
41. Of the following, which best defines a Welding Procedure Specification (WPS).
a) A written document that outlines the extent of production welding

b) A written qualified document that certifies the welder is capable of producing sound
welds in production
c) A written qualified welding procedure prepared to provide direction to the
welder/welding operator to assure compliance with the Code requirements
d) A written document that must be available to the welder which details the methods
used in qualifying the welding procedure
REF: Section IX, QW-200.1(a)
42. Who is responsible for preparing written Welding Procedure Specifications?
a) Each manufacturer and contractor shall prepare written WPSs

b) Each owner/operator shall prepare written WPSs to be used in the fabrication of their
vessel, tank, piping system, or boiler
c) Each Authorized Inspector shall prepare written WPSs to be used by a manufacturer
d) Each welding supervisor shall prepare written WPSs to be used by the welders he/she
supervises
Ref: Section IX, QW-200.1
43. The completed WPS shall describe all but which of the following?
a) Essential Variables
b) Welder's Essential Variables
c) Supplemental Essential Variable, when required
d) Non-Essential Variables
Ref: Section IX, QW200.1(b)
44. According to ASME Section IX, the WPS shall be supported by and make reference to
which of the following documents?
a) The manufacturer's design drawings and calculations

b) The Welder's Performance Qualification Record (WPQR)
c) The Procedure Qualification Record (PQR)
d) The Welding Process Guide (WPG)
Ref: Section IX, QW-200.1(b)
45. Changes to a WPS require re-qualification when all but which of the following changes
are made?
a) Changes to Supplemental Essential Variables (when they are required)

b) Changes to Essential variables
c) Changes of a Non-Essential Variable to suit production
d) Any change affecting the ability of the weldment to meet Code requirements
Ref: Section IX, QW-200.1(c)
46. A record of the welding data used to test a welded test coupon is a definition of which of
the following documents?
a) Procedure Qualification Record

b) Welder’s Performance Qualification Record
c) Welding Procedure Specification
d) Process Qualification Record
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(a)
47. Those in which a change, as described in the specific variables, is considered to affect the
mechanical properties of the weldment and shall require re-qualification of the WPS.
This is a definition of what type of welding variable?
a) Supplemental Essential Variable

b) Essential Variable
c) Non-Essential Variable
d) Supplemental Non-Essential Variable
REF: Section IX, QW-251.2, QW-401.1
48. Those in which a change, as described in the specific variables, may be made to the WPS
without re-qualification. This is a definition of what type of variable
a) Supplemental Essential Variable

d) Supplemental Non-Essential Variable
49. A change in a welding condition which will affect the notch-toughness properties of the
weldment.
a) Supplemental Non-Essential Variable

d) Supplemental Essential Variable

50. Which of the following is not required to be addressed on the WPS?
a) Essential Variables
b) Manufacturer of the welding equipment used in the welding process
c) Procedure Qualification Record identification
d) Non-Essential Variable
51. What information must be contained in the PQR?
a) All Non-Essential Variables

b) All recorded variables (including ranges) used during the welding of the test coupon.
c) Instructions to the welder
d) All recorded variable (including ranges) to be used during production welding
52. A change in a non-essential variable requires re-qualification of the procedure.
a) True
b) False
REF: Section IX, QW-200.1(c)
53. Changes to non-essential variables of a WPS, to suit production requirements, without re-
qualification must be documented with respect to the essential, non-essential, and where
required, supplementary variables for each process. This may be by amendment to the
WPS or by the use of a new WPS.
a) The changes must be documented on a revised PQR

b) The changes do not need to be documented
c) Concurrence of the Authorized Inspector must be obtained and documented
d) This may be by amendment to the WPS or by the use of a new WPS
54. If a variable is not monitored during the welding of the test coupon, must it be recorded
on the PQR?
a) It shall be recorded on the PQR

b) All variables monitored or not shall be recorded on the PQR
c) It shall not be recorded on the PQR
d) It shall be recorded in the fabrication guidelines
55. It is the intent of Section IX that the full range of variables to be used in production be
qualified?
a) True
b) False
56. Who is required to certify the PQR?
a) The PQR shall be certified by the Authorized Inspector

b) The PQR shall be certified by the owner/user
c) The PQR does not require certification
d) The PQR shall be certified by the manufacturer or contractor.
57. What type of changes are permitted to a PQR
a) No change of any type is permitted

b) Editorial corrections or addenda to the PQR are permitted.
c) Only changes such as the welder’s name
d) The manufacturer can change the PQR to meet production requirements
58. Which of the following changes to a PQR require re-qualification?
a) All changes
b) Only editorial changes dealing with "A" Numbers
c) Only editorial changes dealing with "P" Number
d) Only changes caused by Code revisions.
59. Which of the following is an example of an editorial change to a PQR.
a) Section IX adopts a new F-No., which may allow the manufacturer to expand the use
of filler metals within that F-No.
b) A change to correct an assignment of an incorrect P-No., F-No., or A-No.
c) Change to the actual thickness of the weld test coupon
d) Change in the welding process used to weld the test coupon
60. Which of the following is an example of an addendum to a PQR.
a) Section IX adopts a new F-No., which may allow the manufacturer to expand the use
of filler metals within that F-No.
b) A change to correct an assignment of an incorrect P-No., F-No., or A-No.
c) Change to the actual thickness of the weld test coupon
d) Change in the welding process used to weld the test coupon
61. The PQR shall be available, upon request, to which of the following?
a) The welder performing the production welds

b) The welding supervisor in charge of fabrication
c) The Authorized Inspector
d) The jurisdiction where the vessel, tank, piping system, or boiler will be located
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(e)
62. The PQR must be available to the welder or welding operator?
a) True
b) False
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(e)
63. Based on process alone, and assuming all other variables are addressed correctly, how
many welding procedures may be written from a multi-process PQR qualified using
GTAW and SMAW?
a) Only one for the combined processes

b) Two, one for GTAW and one for SMAW
c) Three one for each process and one for the combined processes
d) Four two for each process
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(f), QW-200.4(a)
64. More than one PQR may be used to qualify a single WPS?
a) True
b) False
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(f)
65. Can a single PQR support more than one WPS?
a) Yes
b) No
REF: Section IX, QW-200.2(f)
66. A procedure qualified for the root deposit only on a ½” thick coupon may be used to
support a WPS for:
a) Base metal that is not more than ½” thick

b) Procedures can only support a single WPS
c) Base metal thickness with a maximum thickness of 1”
d) Any thickness of base metal
67. A procedure qualified for the root deposit only in which ¼” weld metal is deposited may
be used to deposit ___ thickness of weld metal in production?
a) 5/8th inch
b) ½ inch
c) ¾ inch
d) 9/16th inch
68. Qualification for groove welds qualifies for all fillet welds except which of the
following?
a) Some P-34 metals

b) Some P-45 metals
c) Some P-8 metals
d) Some P-11 metals
69. Can a procedure qualified on plate be used to weld on pipe in production?
a) Yes
b) No
70. What paragraph in Section IX allows simultaneous qualification of welders?
a) QW-300.1
b) QW-300.2
c) QW-300.3
d) QW-304
71. During simultaneous qualification of welders, each participant organization must have
_______ present?
a) An employee who is responsible for welder performance qualification

b) An Authorized Inspector representing the inspection agency
c) A member of upper management
d) A primary welder and a back-up welder
72. During simultaneous qualification of welders, each WPS to be used by each participating
organization must be identical for all the essential except for which of the following?
a) P - Numbers
b) F – Numbers
c) A – Number
d) Preheat and Postweld Heat Treatment
REF: Section IX, QW-300.3)
73. Welders making welds using all but which of the following SMAW, GTAW, SAW, and
GMAW (except the short-circuiting mode) may be qualified using radiography?
a) SMAW
b) GTAW
c) SAW
d) GMAW – short circuiting mode
Ref. Section IX, QW- 304
74. Welders qualifying using the SAW process may be qualified by radiography except when
using which of the following?
a) P-2X Metals
b) P-8 Metals
c) P-4X Metals
d) P-2 Metals
75. When a welder’s test coupon fails by radiography, how is the welder re-tested?
a) The immediate re-test shall be by visual examination

b) The immediate re-test shall be by radiography
c) The immediate re-test shall be by mechanical testing
d) The immediate re-test shall be by both mechanical testing and radiography
Ref. Section IX, QW- 321.3
76. When a welder fails a qualification test, by mechanical tests (bends), an immediate re-test
may be performed using radiography.
a) True
b) False
77. How does a welder maintain his or her qualification in a particular process?
a) The welder must use the process in Code construction at least once every 12 months
b) The welder must use the process in Code construction at least once every 6 months
c) The welder must use the process at least once every 12 months
d) The welder must use the process at least once every 6 months
78. Of the following, which is not a requirement for a welder whose qualifications have
expired due to time limitations? Renewal of qualification may be made for any process
by welding a single test coupon:
a) In any position
b) Testing of the coupon must be by radiography
c) In either plate or pipe
d) Of any material, thickness or diameter
Ref. Section IX, QW-322.2(a)
79. Which of the following is a true statement regarding welder/welding operator variables?
a) Essential, Non-Essential and Supplemental Essential variables shall be addressed on

the Welder/Welding Operator Performance Qualification (WPQ)
b) Only Non-Essential and Supplemental Essential variables shall be addressed on the
Welder/Welding Operator Performance Qualification (WPQ)
c) Only Essential variables shall be addressed on the Welder/Welding Operator
Performance Qualification (WPQ)
d) Only the variables listed in the manufacturer’s design drawing and/or engineering
design need to be addressed
Ref. Section IX, QW-351
80. Which of the following is the most correct definition for P – Numbers?
a) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal characteristics such as

chemical composition, mechanical properties, and weldability
b) P Number assignments are based on identical base metal characteristics such as
chemical composition, and weldability
c) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal characteristics such as
mechanical properties, and weldability
d) P Number assignments are based on comparable base metal characteristics such as
chemical composition and mechanical properties
Ref. Section IX, QW- 200.3, and QW-420.1
81. Define F Number
a) F - numbers are based on the usability characteristics of the base metal and the
electrode
b) F - numbers are based on the mechanical characteristics of the electrode
c) F - numbers are based on the chemical composition of the electrode
d) F - numbers are based on the usability characteristics of the electrode
82. What is an A Number?
a) The identification of base metal, for ferrous metals, based on chemical analysis of the
as-poured metal.
b) The identification of weld metal, for ferrous metals, based on chemical analysis of the
as-deposited metal.
c) The identification of base metal, for non-ferrous metals, based on chemical analysis
of the as-poured metal.
d) The identification of weld metal, for non-ferrous metals, based on chemical analysis
of the as-deposited metal.
83. An SMAW WPS specifies an amperage range of 50 – 300 amps for E-7018 electrodes.
The welder wants to use 400 amps to weld a groove. What, if anything, must be done to
the WPS?
a) The WPS must be re-qualified?

b) The WPS shall be re-qualified and revised
c) Nothing is required since amperage is not an essential variable
d) The WPS must be revised
Ref. Section IX, QW- 200.1(c) and QW-253
84. A SAW welding operator is attempting to qualify by radiography on a 6” thick test

coupon. Elongated slag inclusions are measured to be 0.625” long. Is the operator
qualified?
a) Yes, slag inclusions are less than ¾”

b) No, slag inclusions exceed ¼”
c) No, slag inclusions exceed ½”
d) Yes, slag inclusions up to 1/3t are permitted
Ref. Section IX, QW- 191.2.2(a)(2)(c)
85. May a welder, qualified on a 2G plate coupon with SMAW, make a 6” circumferential
pipe weld in the horizontal position using the SMAW process? (Assume no F or P
Number changes)
a) No, qualification on plate only qualifies for welding on plate

b) Yes, qualification on plate in the 2G position also qualifies on pipe 2 7/8” and over
c) No, Welder is only qualified for pipe over 24” diameter
d) Yes, qualification on plate in the 2G position also qualifies on pipe 2 7/8” and over
86. A repair organization has a WPS, which states it is qualified for P-8 to P-8 material
welded with either E308, E309, or E316 electrodes (SMAW process). The PQR
supporting this WPS states the weld test coupons were SA-240 Type 304L material,
welded with E308 electrodes. Is the WPS properly qualified for the base material listed?
a) No, SA-240 Type 304L is not P-8 Material

b) Yes, SA-240 Type 304L is P-11 Material
c) No, SA-240 Type 304L is P-11 Material
d) Yes, SA-240 Type 304L is P-8 Material
Ref. Section IX, QW- 420.1 and QW/QB-422
87. A groove weld WPS is qualified using an 8” thick test coupon. The testing equipment, for
tensile and bend tests, is only capable of accepting maximum size 1.5 X 1.5 specimens.
Only one welding process, F-Number, and base metal was used. How many tensile
specimens are required? (Assume the minimum number of tests are performed.)
a) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required ⇒ 8 ÷ 1.5 = 5.33

coupons. Since the minimum number of tests are performed, 6 X 4 = 24 Tension tests
b) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required ⇒ 8 ÷ 1.5 = 5.33
c) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required ⇒ 8 ÷ 1.5 = 5.33
d) Six strips, of approximately equal dimensions, are required ⇒ 8 ÷ 1.5 = 5.33
Ref. Section IX, QW- 151.1 and QW- 451

88. May an individual using the Automatic SAW process be qualified by radiography on a 6”
production weld and meet Section IX requirements?
a) No, qualification by RT requires at least 2 feet of production weld.

b) No, qualification by RT requires at least 1 foot of production weld.
c) No, qualification by RT requires at least 3 feet of production weld.
d) No, qualification by RT requires at least 6 feet of production weld.
89. A welder is qualified in the 2G position on plate with backing, using GTAW process, the
welder is also qualified to use which of the following positions?
a) Pipe groove welds in the F and H position

b) Plate Groove welds in the H and V positions
c) Plate or pipe over 24” OD Groove welds in the F and V positions
d) Plate Groove welds in the V position
90. May a welder, qualified in the 2G position of ¼” thick plate, weld a 1” outside diameter
pipe, ¼” thick in the horizontal position without re-qualification?
a) Yes
b) No
91. A welder may deviate from the parameters specified in a WPS if they are a non-essential
variable.
a) True
b) False
92. May a welder, who is qualified using a double groove weld, make a single V-groove
weld without backing with out re-qualification?
a) Yes, the welder is qualified with or without backing

b) No, the welder welded the second side of the weld with backing in qualification
c) Yes, backing is not a welder’s variable
d) Yes, the type of joint is not a welder’s variable
93. A welder qualified with a P-1 test coupon (using SMAW E7018 electrodes). May the
welder weld P-4 material using E-8028 electrodes in production (Assume the P-4
procedure using E-8028 electrodes has been qualified).
a) No, the welder is only qualified to weld P-1 to P-1 material

b) No, the welder must requalify using a WPS for P-1 to P-4
c) Yes, P numbers are not a welder’s variable
d) Yes, qualification with P-1 also qualifies through P-11
Ref. Section IX, QW- 403.18 and QW-423.1
94. Under what conditions does the inspector have the right to call for re-qualification of
welders or welding operators?
a) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding operator's ability to

make welds that meet the specification, all of the welder’s qualifications shall be
revoked
b) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding operator's ability to
make welds that meet the specification, the welder’s qualification supporting the
welding in question shall be extended an additional three hours. All other
qualifications not questioned remain in effect.
c) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding operator's ability to
make welds that meet the specification, the qualification supporting the welding in
question shall be revoked. All other qualifications not questioned remain in effect.
d) When there is a specific reason to question the welder's/welding operator's ability to
make welds that meet the specification, the welder shall be given the opportunity to
regain his/her composure and re-weld the joint.
Ref. Section IX, QW- 322(b)
95. In order for a welder to be qualified for all positions in pipe welding, what minimum
positions must he or she qualify in?
a) 5G and 1G
b) 5G and 2F
c) 5G and 1G
d) 5G and 2G
Ref. Section IX, QW- 303 and QW-461.9
96. In performance qualification of pipe groove welds, which positions require more than
two guided bend tests for qualification?
a) 5G or 6G
b) 5G and 2G
c) 5G or 2G
d) 5G and 2F
Ref. Section IX, QW- 452, footnote 4

97. Does qualification on groove weld qualify a welder for any size, diameter and thickness
of fillet weld?
a) Yes
b) No
98. A welder is qualified in the 5G pipe position. This welder is also qualified for all but
a) All positions of fillet welds

b) SP, F
c) F, H
d) F, V, O
99. Groove design is an essential variable for the SMAW, SAW, GMAW, and GTAW
processes.
a) True
b) False
Ref. Section IX, QW- 253, 254, 255, & 256
100. SMAW procedure is qualified with backing. May the WPS indicate welding with or
with out backing?
a) Yes
b) No
101. When are group numbers required to be documented on the WPS, for an SMAW or a
GTAW procedure?
a) Group numbers are never addressed on a WPS

b) Group numbers are only addressed on a PQR
c) When hardness tests are required
d) When impact testing is required
Ref. Section IX, QW- 253 & 256
102. An SMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon, ½” thick. What is the widest base
metal thickness range that can be listed on the WPS?
a) 1/16” to 1”
b) 3/16” to 8”
c) 3/16” to 1”
d) 1/16” to 8”
Ref. Section IX, QW- 253 & 451.2
103. A GMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon, 3/4” thick. What is the widest base
a) 1/16” to 1 ½”
b) 3/16” to 1 ½”
c) 1/16” to 8”
d) 3/16” to 8”
104. An SMAW procedure is qualified using a coupon 1” thick. What is the widest base
a) 1/16” to 2”
b) 3/16” to 4”
c) 1/16” to 4”
d) 3/16” to 2”
105. An SAW procedure is qualified using a coupon, 1 1/2” thick. What is the widest base
a) 3/16” to 8”
b) 1/16” to 8”
c) 3/16” to 3”
d) 1/16” to 3”
106. An SMAW procedure qualified using P-8 material may be used to weld a P-1 to P-8
weld provided all other variables are the same.
a) True
b) False
107. A GTAW procedure is qualified and ½” weld metal is deposited. What is the maximum
qualified thickness of deposited weld metal can be listed on the WPS?
a) 4 Inch
b) 3 Inch
c) 2 Inch
d) 1 Inch
108. An SAW procedure is qualified using 200ºF preheat. What is the minimum preheat
temperature that may be listed on the WPS?
a) 300°F
b) 200°F
c) 100ºF
d) 50°F
109. An SMAW procedure is qualified using a preheat of 75ºF. The WPS is later revised to
indicate a preheat of 200ºF. Is this acceptable, or must the procedure be re-qualified?
a) The procedure must be re-qualified and change greater than 100°F must be re-
qualified
b) The WPS must be revised to reflect the increased preheat temperature
c) Preheat is an essential variable and any change must be qualified by a PQR
d) It is acceptable as it is written. This variable only addresses a decrease in preheat
temperature.
110. An SAW procedure is qualified with PWHT. We wish to use this procedure on a
system that does not require PWHT. Is this acceptable?
a) It is not acceptable, PWHT is an essential variable and re-qualification is required.

b) It is acceptable providing the owner gives their concurrence to the elimination of
PWHT
c) It is not acceptable because PWHT is always required using the SAW process
d) It is acceptable since PWHT is a non-essential variable
111. In tension testing of plate, full thickness specimens are required for thickness up to and
including what dimension?
a) 1/2"
b) 3/4"
c) 1"
d) 1 1/4"
112. In tension testing of pipe, having an outside diameter greater than 3", full thickness
specimens are required for thickness up to and including what dimension?
a) 1/2"
b) 3/4"
c) 1"
d) 1 1/4"
113. Is it possible for a single Welding Procedure Specification to cover a thickness range
from 1/16” through 1 ¼”?
a) Yes as long as a supporting Procedure Qualification Record exists for both 1/16”
through 3/16” and 3/16” through 1 ¼” thickness ranges
b) Yes as long as a supporting Procedure Qualification Record exists for the 1/16”
through 1 ¼” thickness range
c) No the WPS can only cover one thickness range
d) No the WPS can only cover a single essential variable regardless of the number of
supporting PQRs exist.
Ref. Section IX, QW-200.2(f)
Answers to ASME Section IX, Welding Questions

1 b
2 a
3 c
4 a
5 d
6 a
7 b
8 c
9 d
10 b
11 a
12 b
13 c
14 d
15 a
16 b
17 d
18 c
19 b
20 a
21 a
22 d
23 a
24 d
25 c
26 b
27 b
28 d

29 c
30 a
31 b
32 a
33 d
34 b
35 c
36 a
37 d
38 b
39 b
40 c
41 c
42 a
43 b
44 c
45 c
46 a
47 b
48 c
49 d
50 b
51 b
52 b
53 d
54 c
55 b
56 d

57 b
58 a
59 b
60 a
61 c
62 b
63 c
64 a
65 a
66 d
67 b
68 d
69 a
70 c
71 a
72 d
73 d
74 a
75 b
76 b
77 d
78 b
79 c
80 a
81 d
82 b
83 d
84 a

85 b
86 d
87 c
88 c
89 a
90 b
91 b
92 b
93 d
94 c
95 d
96 a
97 a
98 b
99 b
100 a
101 d
102 c
103 b
104 d
105 a
106 b
107 d
108 c
109 d
110 a
111 c
112 c
113 a
Subject NDE Issue Date Revision Date Page
ASME Section V 03/98 06/00 1
ASME Section V – NDE Requirements
1. Which of the following is a true statement regarding ASME Section V.
a) The requirements contained in this Code Section shall be mandatory for all ASME
Construction
b) The requirements contained in this Code Section shall be mandatory for all Repair
situations
c) This Code section is a required construction Code
d) This Code section is a Reference Code
REF: Section V, T-110(a)
2. Which of the following is not a method of NDE covered by Section V.
a) Ultrasonic examination
b) Ultimate tensile strength testing
c) Liquid Penetrant examination
d) Magnetic Particle examination
3) Subsection A of Section V lists the methods of NDE methods to be used, which have been:
a) Referenced by other Code Sections

b) Accepted as standards
c) Accepted by the purchaser
d) Referenced by the purchaser
4. Subsection B of Section V lists Standards covering NDE which have been:
a) Referenced by other Code Sections

b) Accepted as standards
c) Accepted by the purchaser
d) Referenced by the purchaser
REF: Section V, T-120(b)
5. The standards referenced in Subsection B of Section V are mandatory?
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, T-120(b)

6. According to ASME Section V, Nondestructive Examination Personnel shall be qualified by

a) SNT-TC-1A (1996 edition), recommended Practice for NDE Personnel Qualification and
Certification
b) ANSI/ASNT CP-189-1995 (1995 edition), ASNT Standard for Qualification and
Certification of Nondestructive Testing Personnel
c) Both A or B
d) Neither A or B
Reference: Section V, T-140(a)
7. When required by referencing Code Sections, all NDE methods performed under Section V
shall be done _______.
a) To the acceptance of the verbal specifications of the purchaser

b) To the applicable requirements of any construction Code
c) To the satisfaction of the purchaser
d) To a written procedure in accordance with Section V
REF: Section V, T-150(c)
8. How should weld surface irregularities be removed prior to radiographic examination?
a) They shall be removed by any suitable means to such a degree that the resulting
radiographic image due to any irregularities cannot mask or be confused with the image
of any discontinuity.
b) They shall be removed by air arcing only to such a degree that the resulting radiographic
image due to any irregularities cannot mask or be confused with the image of any
discontinuity.
c) They shall be removed by grinding only to such a degree that the resulting radiographic
image due to any irregularities cannot mask or be confused with the image of any
discontinuity.
d) They shall not be removed by any means because removal may result in masking
discontinuities in the radiographic image.
REF: Section V, T-222.2
9. The purpose of the lead letter “B” placed on the back of each film holder during each
exposure of a radiograph is to determine if backscatter radiation is exposing the film.
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, T-223

10. What are the minimum dimensions of the lead letter “B” used to measure backscatter?
a) ¼” in height and 1/16” in thickness

b) ¼” in height and 3/16” in thickness
c) ½” in height and 1/16” in thickness
d) ½” in height and 3/16” in thickness
11. Which of the following is correct with regard to the identification for the radiograph traceable
to the weld or weld seam?
a) The identification must appear as a radiographic image

b) The identification shall be produced permanently on the radiograph
c) The identification shall be placed on the film holder
d) The identification need only be maintained until construction is completed
12. What must be used to judge film density?
a) A radiographic mass spectrometer comparison light

b) A suitable black light specifically designed for radiographic film evaluation
c) A green laser or fluorescent light viewing box
d) A densitrometer or step wedge comparison film
13. According to ASME Section V, radiographic film selection shall be in accordance with what
requirement?
a) Film selection shall be in accordance with SE-2815, Standard Test Method for Film
Systems for Industrial Radiography.
b) Film selection shall be in accordance with SE-1816, Standard Test Method for Film
c) Film selection shall be in accordance with SE-1815, Standard Test Method for Film
d) Film selection shall be in accordance with SE-2816, Standard Test Method for Film
14. When may intensifying screens be used per Section V?
a) Intensifying screens may be used as necessary without restrictions

b) Intensifying screens may be used only if permitted by the purchaser
c) Intensifying screens may be used unless restricted by the referencing Code
d) Intensifying screens are not permitted
15. Where will the extent of radiographic examination be specified?
a) The extent of any examination will be dictated by the Authorized Inspector based on
his/her experience
b) The extent of examination shall be as specified by the referencing Code.
c) The extent of examination will be as specified in SNT-TC-1A (1996 edition)
d) As required by the Material Specification
16. Define Image Quality Indicator.
a) A device who’s demonstrated image provides visual or quantitative data, or both, to

determine radiographic quality and sensitivity
b) A device who’s demonstrated image provides visual data to determine radiographic
quality and sensitivity
c) A device who’s demonstrated image provides quantitative data to determine radiographic
quality and sensitivity
d) A device who’s demonstrated image provides visual or quantitative data, or both, to
determine radiographic quality and density
REF: Section V, Article 30 (SE-1316)
17. Penetrameter is an alternative term for Image Quality Indicator.
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, Article 30 (SE-1316)
18. What is the diameter of the 2T hole for a penetrameter with a 10 designation?
a) 0.010
b) 0.10
c) 0.020
d) 0.20
REF: Section V, T-233, Table T-233.1

a) 0.125
b) 0.0125
c) 0.250
d) 0.025
a) 0.070
b) 0.040
c) 0.020
d) 0.20
21. How are step wedge comparison films and densitrometers calibrated?
a) In accordance with paragraph 5 of SE-1079, Calibrated of Transmission Densitometers,

using a calibrated step wedge film traceable to a National Standard.
b) In accordance with paragraph 5 of SE-2079, Calibrated of Transmission Densitometers,
c) In accordance with paragraph 3 of SE-1079, Calibrated of Transmission Densitometers,
d) In accordance with paragraph 3 of SE-2079, Calibrated of Transmission Densitometers,
22. What is the preferred exposure technique used for radiography?
a) Double-wall exposure
b) Triple-wall exposure
c) Shear-wave exposure
d) Single-wall exposure
23. Explain the single-wall radiographic technique.
a) The radiation passes through only one wall of the base (material) which is viewed for
acceptance on the radiograph.
b) The radiation passes through only one wall of the weld (material) which is viewed for
acceptance on the radiograph.
c) The radiation passes through only one wall of the weld (material) and one wall of the base
(material) which is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
d) The radiation source is placed on the inside only and passes through only one wall of the
weld (material) which is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
24. Single-wall and double-wall viewing are the two double-wall radiographic techniques
permitted in Section V.
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, T-271.2 (a) and (b)
25. Explain the single-wall viewing radiographic technique.
a) A technique in which radiation passes through two walls and only the base (material) on
the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
b) A technique in which radiation passes through two walls and only 120° of the weld
(material) on the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
c) A technique in which radiation passes through two walls and only the weld (material) on
the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
d) A technique in which radiation passes through two walls and only 120° of the base
(material) on the film sidewall is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
REF: Section V, T-271.2(a)
26. Describe the double-wall viewing radiographic technique.
a) A technique in which the radiation passes through one wall and the weld (material) in
both walls is viewed for acceptance on the radiograph.
b) A technique in which the radiation passes through one wall and the base (material) in
c) A technique in which the radiation passes through two walls and the base (material) in
d) A technique in which the radiation passes through two walls and the weld (material) in
REF: Section V, T-271.2(b)

27. When may the double-wall viewing radiographic technique be used?
a) For materials and for welds in components 3-1/2” or less in nominal inside diameter
b) For materials and for welds in components 3-1/2” or less in nominal outside diameter
c) For materials and for welds in components 3-1/2” or less in nominal thickness
d) For materials and for welds in components 3-1/2” or less in minimum diameter
28. For the double-wall viewing radiographic technique, only a ______ penetrameter may be
used.
a) Film side
b) Film side using a shim
c) Source side
d) Double thickness
29. In radiographic examination, the location markers ________ on the film.
a) Shall appear as radiographic images

b) Do not have to appear
c) Shall be attached to the cassette and not appear
d) Shall be taped
30. May a thicker or thinner penetrameter, than that specified, be used provided equivalent
penetrameter sensitivity is maintained?
a) Yes
b) No
31. Upon which side of the part should a penetrameter be placed?
a) The film side

b) The source side
c) The penetrameter should not be placed on the part
d) The penetrameter should be taped to the cassette
32. When may a penetrameter be placed on the film side of the part?
a) Never
b) Where inaccessibility prevents hand placing the penetrameter on the source side.
c) Anytime
d) Only with the concurrence of the purchaser
REF: Section T-277.1(b)
33. How is a film side penetrameter identified on a radiograph?
a) By lead letters “FS” placed on or adjacent to the penetrameter.

b) By lead letters “FSP” placed on or adjacent to the penetrameter.
c) By a lead letter “F” placed on or adjacent to the penetrameter.
d) Penetrameters shall not be placed on the film side
34. Which of the following would be a true statement regarding placement of hole type
penetrameters in radiographic examination?
a) The penetrameter shall be placed adjacent to the weld

b) The penetrameter shall be placed adjacent to the weld with the identifying number facing
left
c) The penetrameter may be placed on or adjacent to the weld provided when the
penetrameter is placed on the weld, the next smaller size penetrameter is used
d) The penetrameter may be placed on or adjacent to the weld
REF Section V, Article 2, T-277.1(c)
35. In radiography, how shall wire penetrameters be placed?
a) Wire penetrameters shall be placed parallel to the length of the weld

b) Wire penetrameters shall be placed perpendicular to the length of the weld
c) Two wires shall be placed to the right of the area of interest and the other two to the left
and the fifth wire shall be placed in the center of the area of interest perpendicular to the
length of the weld
d) Two wires shall be placed to the right of the area of interest and the other two to the left
and the fifth wire shall be placed in the center of the area of interest parallel to the length
of the weld
REF Section V, Article 2, T-277.1(d)
36. What is the purpose of a shim?
a) An item placed between the part and the penetrameter, if needed, so that the radiographic
density throughout the area of interest is no more than 5% from (lighter than) the
radiographic density through the penetrameter.
b) An item placed between the part and the penetrameter, if needed, so that the radiographic
c) An item placed between the part and the penetrameter, if needed, so that the radiographic
density throughout the area of interest is no more than minus 15% from (lighter than) the
d) An item placed between the part and the penetrameter, if needed, so that the radiographic
37. From what material is a shim made?
a) Material made of weldable quality

b) Material radiographically similar to the weld metal.
c) Shims may not be used in radiographic examination of ASME Code fabricated items
d) Any type of material that will not absorb radiation
38. What is the size relationship between the shim and the penetrameter?
a) The shim dimension shall not exceed the penetrameter dimension

b) The shim dimension shall exceed the penetrameter dimension such that the outline of at
least three sides of the penetrameter image shall be visible in the radiograph.
c) The shim dimension shall exceed the penetrameter dimension such that the outline of at
least two sides of the penetrameter image shall be visible in the radiograph.
d) Shims are not permitted
39. What size hole penetrameter is to be used when radiographing a weld ½” thick? The
penetrameter is a source side penetrameter.
a) 15
b) 12
c) 20
d) 17
REF: Section V, Table T-276

40. What size hole penetrameter is to be used when radiographing a weld 1 & 1/4” thick? The
penetrameter is a source side penetrameter.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 35
d) 20
41. What size hole penetrameter is to be used when radiographing a weld 1-1/4” thick? The
penetrameter is a film side penetrameter.
a) 30
b) 25
c) 35
d) 20
42. What is the transmitted density limit between the body of the penetrameter and the area of
interest for single film viewing for radiographs using an X-Ray source?
a) 4.8
b) 3.8
c) 2.0
d) 1.8
43. What is the transmitted density limit between the body of the penetrameter and the area of
interest for single film viewing using a Gamma-Ray source?
a) 1.8
b) 2.0
c) 0.2
d) 0.18
44. What is the maximum allowable transmitted density through the radiographic image of the
body of a hole penetrameter and the area of interest?
a) 1.3
b) 1.8
c) 2.0
d) 4.0
45. In radiography, a dark image of a “B” on a lighter background is not cause for rejection.
a) True
b) False
46. What article in Section V covers Liquid Penetrant Examination (PT)?
a) Article 4
b) Article 5
c) Article 6
d) Article 7
REF: Section V, Article 6
47. Liquid Penetrant is used to detect surface discontinuities?
a) True
b) False
48. Liquid penetrant examination is capable of detecting all but which of the following?
a) Cracks
b) Laps
c) Laminations
d) Slight sub-surface
49. Must Liquid Penetrant examination be performed to a written procedure?
a) Yes, regardless of the requirements of the referencing Code

b) No, Liquid Penetrant is the only method that does not require written procedures
c) Yes, unless exempted by the referencing Code
d) No, except for the fluorescent method
50. Which of the following is not required to be addressed on a written procedure for Liquid
Penetrant Examination?
a) Type of each penetrant, penetrant remover, emulsifier, and developer

b) Name and Level of qualification of the examiner
c) The materials, shapes, or sizes to be examined, and the extent of the examination
d) Processing details for removing excess penetrant from the surface before applying the
developer
51. A revision to a Liquid Penetrant procedure is required whenever a change or substitution is

made in all but which of the following?
a) To the type or family group of penetrant materials or in the processing techniques

b) In the type of precleaning materials or processes
c) Any change in part processing that can close surface openings of discontinuities
d) A change or substitution in examiners
REF: Section V, T-621.2(a)
52. Name the two types of penetrants used in Code Liquid Penetrant processes.
a) Instant drying and fluorescent penetrant.

b) Oil based Color contrast and fluorescent penetrant.
c) Metallic Particle and fluorescent penetrant.
d) Color contrast and fluorescent penetrant.
53. Of the following, which is not a Liquid Penetrant process?
a) Metallic Particle
b) Water Washable
c) Post-emulsifying
d) Solvent removable
54. What is the allowable temperature range of the Liquid Penetrant and the part to be processed?
a) Not less than 60ºF. No more than 125ºF throughout the examination period
b) Not less than 50ºF. No more than 600ºF throughout the examination period
c) Not less than 50ºF. No more than 125ºF throughout the examination period
d) Not less than 60ºF. No more than 600ºF throughout the examination period
55. What article in Section V covers magnetic particle examination?
a) Article 9
b) Article 8
c) Article 7
d) Article 6
REF: Section V
56. Magnetic Particle examination can detect which of the following discontinuities?
a) Surface only
b) Surface and slight sub-surface
c) Slight sub-surface and all sub-surface
d) Sub-surface and opposite side
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-720
57. Describe the sensitivity of Magnetic Particle Examination.
a) The sensitivity is greatest at the surface and diminishes rapidly with increasing depth.
b) The sensitivity is greatest at the surface and diminishes slightly with increasing depth.
c) The sensitivity is weakest at the surface and increases rapidly with increasing depth.
d) The sensitivity is weakest at the surface and increases slightly with increasing depth.
58. Name three typical discontinuities that can be detected by Magnetic Particle Examination.
a) Cracks, porosity, laps, cold shuts and laminations

b) Cracks, seams, laps, cold shuts and laminations
c) Cracks, seams, slag inclusions, cold shuts and laminations
d) Cracks, seams, laps, incomplete penetration and laminations
59. In Magnetic Particle examination, each area should be examined at least twice with the lines
of flux during examination approximately ____ to the lines of flux during the other?
a) 60°
b) 120°
c) 90°
d) Parallel
60. Which of the following is not required to be addressed in a Magnetic Particle examination
procedure?
a) Materials, shapes, or sizes to be examined and the extent of the examination

b) Equipment to be used for magnetization
c) The ferromagnetic particles to be used in a Magnetic Particle examination
d) The name and qualification level of the examiner
61. Describe the continuous method of Magnetic Particle testing.
a) The magnetizing current remains on while the piece being examined is passed through the
magnetic field
b) The magnetizing current remains on only while the excess of the examination medium is
being removed.
c) The magnetizing current remains on while the examination medium is being applied and
while excess of the examination medium is being removed.
d) The magnetizing current remains on only while the examination medium is being applied
62. Which of the following is not a type of magnetization technique that may be used in
Magnetic Particle testing?
a) Prod
b) Circular
c) Yoke
d) Immersion
63. Under what condition may Magnetic Particle examination be performed on a part with a
coating such as paint left on the part?
a) It must be demonstrated, in accordance with Mandatory Appendix II, that indications can
be detected through the maximum coating thickness applied
b) It must be demonstrated, in accordance with ASME Section VIII, Div. 2, that indications
can be detected through the maximum coating thickness applied
c) It must be demonstrated, in accordance with Mandatory Appendix I, that indications can
be detected through the maximum coating thickness applied
d) All coatings shall be removed prior to Magnetic Particle examination, the coatings could
mask discontinuities
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-741.1(d)
64. What three types of particles are used in Magnetic Particle examination?
a) Wet, Damp, and Fluorescent

b) Wet, Dry, and Fluorescent
c) Wet, Dry, and Red Iron Filings
d) Wet, Dry, and Gray Iron Filings
65. What is the maximum surface temperature, of the part being examined, permitted for
Magnetic Particle examination using dry particles?
a) 600°F
b) 125°F
c) 135°F
d) 175°F
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-731(a)
66. During Magnetic Particle examination using the dry particle technique, the dry particles must
provide a color contrast between the particles and the part being examined? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
67. In Magnetic Particle examination, using the wet particle technique, the particles need not
provide a color contrast between the particles and the part being examined? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-731(b)
68. In Magnetic Particle examination, using the wet particle technique, what is the maximum
temperature of the wet particle suspension and the surface of the part permitted according to
ASME Section V?
a) 600°F
b) 125°F
c) 135°F
d) 175°F
69. In Magnetic Particle examination using fluorescent particles, what is another term used for
ultraviolet light?
a) Infrared light
b) Blue light
c) Laser light
d) Black light
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-731(c)
70. How long must the examiner be in the darkened room prior to performing Magnetic Particle
examination using the fluorescent particle technique?
a) 10 minutes
b) 5 minutes
c) There is no minimum time
d) 30 minutes
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-731(c)(2)

71. How often should the black light intensity be check for the fluorescent particle technique of
Magnetic Particle examination?
a) Every 8 hours and whenever the workstation is changed

b) Every 4 hours and whenever the workstation is changed
c) Every 4 hours and whenever the examiners are changed
d) Every 8 hours and whenever the examiners are changed
72. Is demagnetization of the part always required after Magnetic Particle examination?
a) Yes, residual magnetism, in the part, could interfere with subsequent processing or usage
b) No, when residual magnetism, in the part, could interfere with subsequent processing or
usage, the part shall be demagnetized anytime after completion of the examination.
c) No, residual magnetism, in the part, can not interfere with subsequent processing or usage
d) Yes, demagnetization is always required after Magnetic Particle examination
73. In fluorescent particles type MT, what is the minimum length of time, permitted in Section V,
for warming up the black light?
a) 60 minutes
b) 30 minutes
c) 10 minutes
d) 5 minutes
74. For Magnetic Particle, how often should magnetizing equipment with an ammeter be
calibrated?
a) Once a year or whenever the equipment has been subjected to major electrical repair,
periodic overhaul or damage.
b) Once each five years or whenever the equipment has been subjected to major electrical
repair, periodic overhaul or damage.
c) Once each six months or whenever the equipment has been subjected to major electrical
d) Once each three months or whenever the equipment has been subjected to major electrical
75. If, after calibration, Magnetic Particle equipment is stored for over a year, must it be
calibrated prior to the next use?
a) No, since the equipment was in storage, it should still be in calibration

b) Yes, if the equipment has not been in use for a year or more, calibration shall be done
prior to use
76. In Magnetic Particle examination, the unit’s meter reading shall not deviate by more than ___
of full scale, relative to the actual current value as shown by the test meter.
a) The unit’s meter reading shall not deviate more than ± 30%
b) The unit’s meter reading shall not deviate more than ± 20%
c) The unit’s meter reading shall not deviate more than ± 10%
d) The unit’s meter reading shall not deviate more than ± 00%
77. In Magnetic Particle testing using the prod technique, what type of current and what are the
current ranges in amps/in., required by Section V, for materials ¾” or greater in thickness?
a) Direct or alternating magnetizing current shall be used and 90 amp/in. (minimum) to 110
amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
b) Direct or alternating magnetizing current shall be used and 100 amp/in. (minimum) to
125 amps/in. (maximum) of prod spacing.
c) Direct or rectified magnetizing current shall be used and 90 amp/in. (minimum) to 110
d) Direct or rectified magnetizing current shall be used and 100 amp/in. (minimum) to 125
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-773.2
78. In Magnetic Particle testing using the prod technique, what are the current ranges in amps/in.,
required by Section V, for materials less than ¾” in thickness?
a) 90 amps/in. (minimum) to 110 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.

b) 80 amps/in. (minimum) to 110 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
c) 90 amps/in. (minimum) to 125 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
d) 80 amps/in. (minimum) to 125 amps/in.(maximum) of prod spacing.
79. In the prod technique of Magnetic Particle testing, what is the maximum prod spacing
allowed?
a) 12 inches
b) 8 inches
c) 6 inches
d) 3 inches
80. In the prod technique of Magnetic Particle testing, prod spacing of less than three inches is
strongly recommended? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
81. The yoke technique of Magnetic Particle testing shall only be used to detect what type of
discontinuities?
a) Slight sub-surface discontinuities

b) Laminations
c) Discontinuities that are open to the surface
d) Lack of penetration
REF: Section V, Article T-776.1
82. A.C. yokes are superior to D.C. yokes in Magnetic Particle testing for materials greater than
¼” in thickness? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
REF: Section V, Article 7, T-776.2 (Note)
83. What are the lifting power requirements for A.C. yokes used in Magnetic Particle testing?
a) They must lift 30 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.

b) They must lift 10 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
c) They must lift 40 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
d) They must lift 20 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
84. What are the lifting power requirements for D.C. yokes used in Magnetic Particle testing?
a) They must lift 30 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.

b) They must lift 10 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
c) They must lift 40 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
d) They must lift 20 pounds at the maximum pole spacing to be used.
85. Localized surface irregularities due to machining marks may produce false indications during
Magnetic Particle testing?
a) True
b) False
86. How much overlap is required in Ultrasonic Testing for each pass of a search unit?
a) 20% of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the scan

b) 10% of the thickness of the part being examined perpendicular to the direction of the scan
c) 20% of the thickness of the part being examined perpendicular to the direction of the scan
d) 10% of the transducer dimension perpendicular to the direction of the scan
87. What is the maximum rate of search unit movement, permitted in Section V, for Ultrasonic
Examination?
a) 6”/hr. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.

b) 6”/sec. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
c) 6”/min. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
d) 6’/sec. unless calibration is verified at scanning speed.
88. For contact examination, the temperature of the examination and basic calibration block
surfaces shall be within _____°F
a) 50
b) 25
c) 15
d) 10
REF: Section V, Article 4, Appendix B, B-1

89. Ultrasonic search units may contain single or dual transducer elements? (True or False)
a) True
b) False
90. For search units, with contoured contact wedges, how is calibration accomplished?
a) Calibration shall be done with contact wedges of similar material as those used during the
examination
b) Calibration shall be done with basic calibration contact wedges
c) Calibration shall be done with contact wedges that are at least 75% of the dimension as
the contact wedges used during the examination
d) Calibration shall be done with the contact wedges used during the examination
Answers to ASME Section V, NDE Questions

1 d
2 b
3 a
4 b
5 b
6 c
7 d
8 a
9 a
10 c
11 b
12 d
13 c
14 c
15 b
16 a
17 a
18 c
19 d
20 b
21 a
22 d
23 b
24 a
25 c
26 d
27 b
28 c
29 a
30 a
31 b
32 b
33 c
34 d
35 b
36 c
Answers to ASME Section V, NDE Questions

37 b
38 b
39 d
40 a
41 b
42 d
43 b
44 d
45 a
46 c
47 a
48 d
49 c
50 b
51 d
52 d
53 a
54 c
55 c
56 b
57 a
58 b
59 c
60 d
61 c
62 d
63 c
64 b
Answers to ASME Section IX, NDE Questions

65 a
66 a
67 b
68 c
69 d
70 b
71 a
72 b
73 d
74 b
75 b
76 c
77 d
78 a
79 b
80 a
81 c
82 a
83 b
84 c
85 a
86 d
87 b
88 b
89 a
90 d
correction or clarification.
BAY Technical Associates, Inc. has attempted to provide answers developed from paragraphs of
the respective Code, Standard, or Recommended Practice.

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Introduction and Workbook

Workbook API-650 - Welded Steel

API - 2207 - Preparing for

Hellier API-2015 - Safe Entry &

BAY Technical ASME Section IX - Welding

American Petroleum Institute Codes, Standards, and Recommended Practices:

Objective for this section:

At the end of this section, you should be able to:

How to use this Pre-Course Study Guide:

Required Reference Material

ASME Order Department

American Petroleum Institute

Hellier and BAY Technical Associates, Inc. will provide:

1. Pre-course Study Manual

1. Welding reference books

The structure of the API-653 Examination:

At the end of this section, you should:

API Standard 650, Welded Steel Tanks for Oil Storage:

Title Paragraph(s) Pages(s)

API Standard 653, Tank Inspection, Repair, Alteration, and Reconstruction:

API Publication 2207, Preparing Tank Bottoms for Hot Work

API Recommended Practice 651, Cathodic Protection of Aboveground Petroleum

Sections 1 through 6 - Pages 1 through paragraph 6.3.5 on page 11.

Recommended Practice 652, Lining of Aboveground Petroleum Storage Tank Bottoms

ASME Section V – Nondestructive Examination:

ASME Section IX, Welding and Brazing Qualifications:

Pre-Course Workbook Practice Mathematics

At the end of this section, you should:

1. Be familiar with the basic types of mathematics used on the exam.

A Pre-Test is provided on pages 15 & 16 with the answers on page 20 & 21

Corrosion Rates and Inspection Intervals

Recommended Math Page Layout

Name Page Number

Given Information: Final Formula

Formula with Variables Plugged In

Show all Work

Recommended Math Page Layout

Given Information: Final Formula

Formula with Variables Plugged In

Find: (what does the

Order of Operations and Grouping:

Lets look at the following equation:

t min = Minimum acceptable thickness ?

2. Find the corrosion rate of an AST given the following information.

Original thickness = .875”

t actual − t min imum

10. What is the circumference of an AST that is 96 feet in diameter?

Practice problems #1:

Find “C” when D and H are know where D = 60, H = 54

Let’s go a step farther:

What do we do when our Unknown is inside a radical (square root symbol)?

We know all the values except for the “d”

.7854 Step 3 - “a2” is multiplied by “d”. We perform the opposite function

Find “d” when a=1.0755

Find “D” when t=.875, L=32.5

Find t initial when L longterm CR=.015, T years = 19 and t last = 1.134

(a) 43 = ? (b) (23)(24) = ? (c) Calculator display 1.0137-3 would be written as ?

Problem # 2 ⇒ Square Root:

(a) X = 3 + 9 . −.0013 (c) Find “t” L = 3.7 Dt 2

Problem # 4 ⇒ Ratios and Proportions:

Tmin = Minimum acceptable thickness ?

2.6 DHG (2.6)(120)(48)(1) 14976

2. Find the corrosion rate of an AST given the following information.