Session # 16

1. Which of the following structures can best estimate the jugular venous pressure?
a. Right external jugular vein c. Left external jugular vein
b. Right internal jugular vein d. Left internal jugular vein

2. Which angle of the head of the bed is best to easily visualize the internal jugular veins?
a. 30 degrees c. 90 degrees
b. 60 degrees d. 45 degrees

3. Chest pain, especially on the left chest, signals which of the following diseases?
a. Asthma c. Hypertension
b. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease d. Coronary artery disease

4. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of angina EXCEPT?

a. Jaw pain c. Pain radiating to the right shoulder
b. Chest pain most especially at the precordium d. Pain radiating to the left shoulder and arm

5. Nurse Zelda is assessing a patient admitted due to myocarditis. Upon assessment, Zelda has noticed that the
patient is having difficulty of breathing while in supine position but feels relieved when placed in an upright
position. Zelda must note this on her chart as
a. Dyspnea c. Bradypnea
b. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea d. Orthopnea

6. Edema of the hands and feet in a patient who has a cardiovascular problem is usually associated with a
diagnosis of
a. Heart failure c. Raynaud’s phenomenon
b. Hypertension d. Congenital heart disease

7. At which time would the nurse expect the patient to have increased urination if the patient has nocturia
a. Early morning c. At night
b. Late morning d. Afternoon

8. Why is fatigue felt by a patient who is suffering from a heart disease?

a. There is decreased blood volume in the patient’s c. The kidneys receive a little amount of blood for
cardiovascular system. filtration of waste products.
b. The heart is not adequately supplying the body d. The brain is not coordinated enough with the heart in
with oxygen and nutrients. sending electrical impulses.

9. Which of the following nutritional imbalances can cause edema?

a. Hyperkalemia c. Hypoalbuminemia
b. Hyponatremia d. Hypocalcemia

10. A patient named Eren tells the nurse that he feels like his heart is fluttering inside his chest. The nurse must
note this on her chart as
a. Tachycardia
b. Palpitations
c. Dyspnea
d. Orthopnea
 Session # 17

1. When assessing the amplitude and contour of the patient’s carotid pulse, Nurse Sakura must place the patient
in a
a. High Fowler’s position c. Head of the bed elevated to 30 degrees
b. Supine position d. Left Sim’s Position

2. What will happen if the nurse has accidentally pressed both carotid arteries at the same time while assessing
the patient’s neck?
a. Syncope c. Stroke
b. Hypertension d. Myocardial infarction

3. What would be the characteristic of the pulse of a patient who is suffering from aortic insufficiency?
a. Slow, weak, and thready c. Fast and bounding
b. Bounding pulse d. Weak and almost unpalpable

4. The hepatojugular reflux is elicited by applying pressure on the patient’s abdomen. Which quadrant will the
nurse apply pressure on?
a. Right upper quadrant c. Right lower quadrant
b. Left upper quadrant d. Left lower quadrant

5. When detecting the point of maximal impulse on the patient, the nurse must stand at the
a. Left side of the patient c. Head of the patient
b. Right side of the patient d. None of the above

6. When assessing for any palpable thrills over the heart of the patient, Nurse Ikumi must use her
a. Fingerpads c. Thumb
b. Index and the middle finger d. Ball of her hand

7. Which of the following conditions can exhibit thrills in a patient?

a. Aortic stenosis c. Ventricular septal defect
b. Patent ductus arteriosus d. All of the above

8. This is a condition where the internal organs from the thoracic and abdominal cavity are found on the opposite
sides from what is normal
a. Dextrocardia c. Congenital heart disease
b. Situs inversus d. Cardiomegaly

9. The right ventricle of the heart can be palpated at the

a. Left 2nd intercostal space c. Left 5th intercostal space
b. Right 2nd intercostal space d. Lower left sternal border in the subxiphoid area

10. When assessing the point of maximal impulse in a female patient, we tell the patient to do which of the
following?
a. Let the patient displace her left breast upward and c. Let the patient displace her left breast upward
laterally d. Let the patient displace her left breast laterally
b. Let the patient displace her left breast downward and
medially
 Session # 18

1. This type of murmur starts immediately after S2, without a discernible gap, and then usually fades into silence
before the next S1
a. Midsystolic murmur c. Late systolic murmur
b. Early diastolic murmur d. Pansystolic murmur

2. Which of the following best describes a crescendo-decrescendo murmur?

a. It grows louder c. It first rises in intensity, then falls.
b. It grows softer d. It has the same intensity throughout.

3. A nurse has noted that the murmur has a loud with palpable thrill. The nurse should grade this on her chart as
a. Grade 1 c. Grade 3
b. Grade 2 d. Grade 4

4. The shape of a midsystolic murmur is a

a. Crescendo c. Crescendo-decrescendo
b. Decrescendo d. Plateau

5. When a patient has a constant blood pressure reading of 150/100, which of the following should be advised to
the patient?
a. No treatment required c. Lifestyle modifications and drug therapy
b. Lifestyle modifications advised d. Lifestyle modifications, drug therapy with two-drug
combination required

6. The following are modifiable risk factors for coronary heart disease EXCEPT
a. Diabetes c. Obesity
b. History of cardiovascular disease d. Physical inactivity

7. Which of the following habits can contribute to the worsening hypertension of the patient?
a. Excessive use of seasonings on food c. Having an average body built
b. Frequent aerobic exercises d. Increased intake of potassium-rich foods

8. The optimum body mass index that people should maintain is at

a. Below 18.5 c. 25 to 29.9
b. 18.5 to 24.9 d. 30 and above

9. Which of the following foods must the nurse recommend to a patient who has hypertension?
a. Carrots c. Bananas
b. Cucumbers d. Tomatoes

10. In order to do lifestyle medication on a patient who has a risk for cardiovascular disease the nurse must teach
which of the following?
a. Eating a balanced diet and avoidance of fast food and c. Complete cessation of smoking
processed food d. All of the above
b. Having regular aerobic exercises
 Session # 19

1. Intermittent claudication is described as

a. Pain felt in the hands during a cold weather c. Pain or cramping in the legs during walking or
b. Pain that radiates into the left shoulder and arm exertion
d. Pain felt in the feet due to edema

2. Edema, varicose veins, and aching in the legs are symptoms of

a. Arterial stasis c. Arterial pooling
b. Venous stasis d. Atherosclerosis

3. Which of the following findings in the fingertips and toes is usually associated with Raynaud disease?
a. Pallor or cyanosis in the fingertips and toes c. Clubbing of the fingers and toes
b. Redness in the fingertips and toes d. Any of the above

4. When asking the female patient about a possible risk for developing blood clots, which of the following
medications that the patient has previous taken should the nurse pay attention to?
a. Aspirin c. Oral contraceptives
b. Diphenhydramine d. Warfarin

5. Which of the following type of jobs would increase the risk for the development of a peripheral vascular
disease like varicosities?
a. Truck driver c. Call center agent
b. Traffic enforcer d. Any of the above

6. Nurse Mikasa is assessing the patient radial pulse. Upon placing her fingers, she has noted that the patient has
a bounding pulse. The nurse should grade this pulse on her chart as
a. 3+ c. 1+
b. 2+ d. 0

7. Nurse Sasha is assessing the patient bipedal edema. Upon indenting her finger unto the edema she has
measured for at least 6 mm depression that has lasted for more than a minute. Nurse Sasha must grade this on
her chart as
a. 1 c. 3+
b. 2+ d. 4+

8. Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for the development of peripheral vascular disease?
a. Obesity c. Hyperlipidemia
b. Smoking d. Malnutrition

9. Which of the following definitions best describes paradoxical pulse?

a. There is a palpable decrease in the pulse’s c. The pulse alternates in amplitude from beat to beat
amplitude with quiet inspiration. even though the rhythm is regular.
b. This is caused by a normal beat alternating with a d. An increased arterial pulse with a double systolic peak
premature contraction

10. When the patient has a pulsus alternans, the nurse must suspect for which of the following in the patient?
a. Aortic stenosis c. Pericardial tamponade
b. Hyperthyroidism d. Left ventricular failure
 Session #20

1. A patient being admitted is complaining of right upper quadrant pain. Upon ultrasonography, the physician has
diagnosed the patient to have cholecystitis. Which of the following best describes this disease?
a. Inflammation of the liver c. Inflammation of the stomach
b. Inflammation of the pancreas d. Inflammation of the gallbladder

2. Nurse Mito is admitting a patient who has right lower quadrant pain of the abdomen. Upon palpation of the
right lower quadrant, the nurse has observed for rebound tenderness. This may be an indication of which of the
following conditions?
a. Appendicitis c. Gastritis
b. Pancreatitis d. Gastroenteritis

3. Which of the following is NOT true with regard to visceral pain?

a. It originates from inflammation in the parietal c. It may be difficult to localize
peritoneum d. It is typically palpable near the midline
b. It occurs when hollow abdominal organs such as the
intestine contract unusually or forcefully

4. A patient named Erina is experiencing pain from the stomach brought about by hyperacidity. Which region of
the abdomen will this type of pain be felt at?
a. Hypogastric c. Epigastric
b. Umbilical d. Right iliac

5. In early acute appendicitis, the initial complaint of abdominal pain is usually felt at
a. Right hypochondriac c. Epigastric
b. Left hypochondriac d. Umbilical

6. A patient named Soma is currently experiencing pain at the costovertebral angle or the flank area. The nurse
must know that the pain is originating from which of the following organs?
a. Uterus c. Stomach
b. Kidneys d. Liver

7. The nurse must ask which following questions when the patient is experiencing abdominal pain?
a. “Where does the pain start?” c. “Does the pain have an aching, burning, or gnawing
b. “Does it radiate or travel anywhere?” quality?”
d. All of the above

8. Which of the following microorganisms can cause the patient to suffer from peptic ulcer disease?
a. Escherichia coli c. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Helicobacter pylori d. Streptococcus pyogenes

9. Which of the following diseases does NOT cause the patient to have chronic upper abdominal pain?
a. Dyspepsia c. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
b. Peptic ulcer disease d. Acute cholecystitis

10. Which of the following foods can aggravate the occurrence of heartburn?
a. Toast c. Rice
b. Coffee d. Apple
 Session # 21
1. When assessing the vomitus of a client who has peptic ulcer disease, the nurse has noted a blackish color
from it. She notes this as “coffee ground” vomitus on her chart. This type of vomitus is due to
a. Bile c. Blood
b. Gastric acid d. Digestive enzymes

2. A client with peptic ulcer disease suddenly vomits at her hospital room. The nurse has observed for the
presence of bright red blood from the patient’s vomitus. She must note this on her chart as
a. Hematemesis c. Hematochezia
b. Hemoptysis d. Hematuria

3. When the patient complains of pain upon swallowing the nurse must note this on her chart as
a. Dysphagia c. Globus pharyngeus
b. Odynophagia d. Polyphagia

4. Which of the following conditions may bring about chronic diarrhea in a patient?
a. Chron’s disease c. Amebiasis
b. Ulcerative colitis d. Both a and b

5. If the stools of the patient has an oily residue, frothy and floating on the surface of the water the patient has
which type of condition
a. Peptic ulcer disease c. Malabsorption
b. Cholecystitis d. Intussusception

6. Which of the following medications do NOT cause diarrhea as a side-effect in a patient?

a. Penicillin c. Macrolides
b. Magnesium hydroxide d. Aluminum hydroxide

7. Which of the following pain medications can cause constipation as a side effect?
a. Acetylsalicylic acid (Aspirin) c. Ibuprofen (Advil)
b. Hydrocodone/Acetaminophen (Vicodin) d. Celecoxib (Celebrex)

8. The patient complains of having black stools, the nurse must know that the patient is suffering from a/an
a. Upper GI bleeding c. Ulcerative colitis
b. Intussusception d. Lower GI bleeding

9. Obstruction of the biliary tree can cause the stools to have which of the following colors?
a. Reddish c. Grayish
b. Yellowish d. Blackish

10. Which of the following forms of contraceptives can cause the patient to have jaundice?
a. Intrauterine device c. Cervical cap
b. Oral contraceptives d. Diaphragm
 Session # 22

1. Patients with bladder disorders may cause pain to occur in which of the following areas
a. Left iliac c. Flank area
b. Right iliac d. Suprapubic area

2. In men experiencing prostatic pain the pain may be felt

a. Proximal to the glans penis c. At the suprapubic area
b. At the perineum d. Distal to the glans penis

3. Pain associated with a urinary tract infection in a patient is often described as

a. Gnawing pain c. Burning pain
b. Stabbing pain d. Searing pain

4. Usually men who have a urinary tract infection is also suspected to have which of the following coexisting
disease?
a. Prostate cancer c. Sexually transmitted infection
b. Kidney stones d. Kidney failure

5. Which of the following beverages is related to having urinary frequency in a patient?

a. Milk c. Smoothies
b. Orange juice d. Coffee

6. In men, painful urination without frequency or urgency strongly suggests of which of the following urinary
conditions?
a. Nephritis c. Uteritis
b. Urethritis d. Cystitis

7. Polyuria refers to a significant increase in 24-hour urine volume which usually exceeds
a. 3 liters c. 1.5 liters
b. 0.8 liter d. 2 liters

8. Which of the following cardiovascular diseases can cause the patient to suffer from nocturia or increased
urination at night?
a. Angina pectoris c. Hypertension
b. Coronary artery disease d. Heart failure

9. Urinary incontinence may be experienced by patients during which of the following situations?
a. Coughing c. Laughing
b. Sneezing d. All of the above

10. Which of the following best describes ureteral pain?

a. It is a visceral pain that is typically dull, aching, and
steady.
b. It is usually severe and colicky, originating at the
costovertebral angle and radiating around the trunk
into the lower quadrant of the abdomen, or possibly
into the upper thigh and testicle or labium.
c. It is the pain felt on the side of the body between the
upper abdomen and the back. It may radiate anteriorly
toward the umbilicus.
d. It is pain that is felt in the perineum and occasionally
in the rectum.
 Session # 23

1. Cysts can occur in women who are

a. Ages 15-25, usually puberty and young adulthood, c. Ages 30-90, most common over age 50
but up to age 55 d. Ages 0-14, during the childhood stage
b. Ages 30-50, regress after menopause except with
estrogen

2. Retractions seen on breasts of females can be present in which of the following conditions?
a. Fibroadenoma c. Adenocarcinoma
b. Cysts d. Cancer

3. When palpating for the shape of the breast mass in patients with breast cancer, the nurse must observe for
which of the following?
a. Round, disc-like, or lobular c. Irregular or stellate
b. Round only d. None of the above

4. The nurse assessing the breast of a patient has observed for peau d’orange on the lower portion of the
patient’s breast. This is indicative of which of the following?
a. Edema c. Breast cancer
b. Paget disease of the nibble d. Fibroadenoma

5. Which of the following is NOT a risk for breast cancer?

a. Age of 65 years and above c. High breast tissue density
b. Two or more first-degree relatives with breast cancer d. Low breast tissue density
diagnosed at an early age

6. In identifying women at risk for BRCA1 or 2 mutation the doctor must establish which of the following risk
factors?
a. First-degree relative with a known BRCA1 or 2 c. 2 or more relatives with a diagnosis of ovarian cancer
mutation d. All of the above
b. 2 or more relatives with a diagnosis of breast cancer
before age 50

7. The histology results of a patient who is suspected to have breast cancer came back as having atypical lobular
hyperplasia. How is the result interpreted?
a. No increased risk c. Moderate increased risk
b. Small increased risk d. High increased risk

8. The nurse must teach a female patient to do monthly breast self-examination at around
a. 5-7 days after the onset of menses c. 14 days after the onset of menses
b. During the ovulation day d. At the start of menses

9. Which of the following is a modifiable risk factor in the development of breast cancer?
a. Height (tall) c. Jewish heritage
b. Alcohol consumption d. Personal history of endometrium, ovary, or colon
cancer

10. The recommended age for mammography in order to detect breast cancer in women who are asymptomatic
should be at around
a. 40 to 50 years c. Above 50
b. 30 to 40 years d. Below 30
 Session #24

1. This includes the periarticular ligaments, tendons, bursae, muscle, fascia, bone, nerve, and the overlying skin
a. Articular structures c. Ligaments
b. Extra-articular structures d. Tendons

2. Example of fibrous joint are the

a. Knees c. Vertebral bodies of the spine
b. Shoulders d. Skull sutures

3. The extent of movement of cartilaginous joints are

a. Freely movable c. Immovable
b. Slightly moveable d. None of the above

4. This is the fibrocartilaginous material at the center of each vertebral disc that serves as a cushion or shock
absorber between bony surfaces
a. Vertebral body c. Nucleus pulposus
b. Ligament d. Hyaline

5. Which of the following joints is an example of a spheroidal joint?

a. Hip joint c. Elbow joint
b. Shoulder joint d. Both a and b

6. The knee is an example of a

a. Spheroidal joint c. Condylar joint
b. Hinge joint d. None of the above

7. Which of the following may have happened if the patient is currently experiencing calf wasting, weak ankle
dorsiflexion, absent ankle jerk, positive crossed straight-leg raise?
a. Osteoarthritis c. Rheumatoid arthritis
b. Disc herniation d. Hip joint dislocation

8. Which of the following diseases can cause referred pain to the low back?
a. Peptic ulcer disease c. Dissecting aortic aneurysm
b. Pancreatitis d. All of the above

9. Which of the following is the nurse going to suspect if the client complains of lower back pain with associated
bladder and bowel dysfunction?
a. Bursitis c. Herniated nucleus pulposus
b. Sciatica d. Cauda equina syndrome

10. 45% to 60% of cases with cervical radiculopathy have a compressed nerve root which is usually the
a. C7 c. C5
b. C6 d. C4
 Session # 25

1. Which of the following types of arthritis usually has high uric acid serum levels in the blood?
a. Gouty arthritis c. Osteoarthritis
b. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Any of the above

2. Which of the following is the cause of rheumatoid arthritis in a patient?

a. Overweight or obese body c. Recent infection
b. Increased intake of purine rich foods d. Unknown

3. Tenderness or warmth above a thickened synovium is indicative of which of the following?

a. Arthritis c. Tendinitis
b. Infection d. Both a and b

4. Which of the following conditions have progressive loss of cartilage within the joints causing damage to
underlying bone, and formation of new bone at the margins of the cartilage?
a. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Gouty arthritis
b. Osteoarthritis d. Fibromyalgia syndrome

5. Which of the following joints are affected in osteoarthritis?

a. Knees c. Cervical and lumbar spine
b. Hips d. All of the above

6. Which of the following best describes the “swan neck” deformity seen in patients with rheumatoid arthritis?
a. Hyperextension of the proximal interphalangeal c. Knobby swellings around the joints ulcerate and
joints with fixed flexion of the distal interphalangeal contains discharges of white chalk-like urates.
joints. d. It is a thickened plaque overlying the flexor tendon of
b. Persistent flexion of the proximal interphalangeal joint the ring finger and possibly the little finger at the level of
with hyperextension of the distal interphalangeal joint. the distal palmar crease.

7. Which of the following finger abnormalities are seen in patients who have osteoarthritis or degenerative joint
disease?
a. Heberden’s nodes c. Bouchard’s nodes
b. Boutonniere deformity d. Both a and c

8. Quadriplegia can occur due to injury to the

a. Cervical spine c. Lumbar spine
b. Thoracic spine d. Sacral spine

9. When assessing for the muscle strength of a post-stroke patient, the nurse has noticed paralysis in the right
half of the body. The nurse must note this on her chart as
a. Paraplegia c. Hemiplegia
b. Quadriplegia d. Hemiparesis

10. The nurse is assessing the muscle strength of a patient who is post-stroke. The nurse has noticed a barely
detectable flicker or trace of contraction from the muscle. She must grade the patient’s muscle strength as
a. 0 c. 2
b. 1 d. 3
 Session # 26

1. Modest activity such as walking or bicycling has health benefits in reducing bone-related morbidities. How
many minutes each day is recommended in doing these activities?
a. 15 minutes c. 45 minutes
b. 30 minutes d. 60 minutes

2. Which of the following body parts is most vulnerable in experiencing pain due to repetitive lifting from
occupations such as nurses, heavy-machinery operators, and construction workers?
a. Knee c. Lumbar
b. Hips d. Shoulder

3. A patient is having her bone density assessed. The results came back with a T score of 1.8. The nurse will
anticipate the doctor to diagnose which of the following conditions?
a. Osteoporosis c. Osteomalacia
b. Osteomyelitis d. Osteopenia

4. The nurse must know the risk factors for osteoporosis. Which of the following is NOT an osteoporosis risk
factor?
a. Post-menopausal status in Caucasians and Asian c. Age older than 35 years
women d. Higher intakes of alcohol
b. Weight less than 70 kg

5. Which of the following medications if used for prolonged periods of time would lead to the development of
osteoporosis in an individual?
a. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs c. Corticosteroids
b. Narcotics d. Diuretics

6. Which of the following inflammatory disorders can cause a patient to have osteoporosis later in life?
a. Celiac sprue c. Hypogonadism
b. Anorexia nervosa d. All of the above

7. Which of the following endocrine disorders can have a complication of osteoporosis?

a. Hyperparathyroidism c. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hypoparathyroidism d. Diabetes insipidus

8. The average calcium intake for persons who are 19-50 years old should be at around
a. 1300 mg/day c. 1200 mg/day
b. 1000 mg/ day d. 800 mg/day

9. In order to receive adequate vitamin D per day a person with light-colored skin must spend how many minutes
of receiving sunlight per day?
a. 30 minutes c. 45 minutes
b. 15 minutes d. 10 minutes

10. The nurse must teach a patient with osteoporosis to avoid which of the following beverages?
a. Milk c. Fruit shakes
b. Orange juice d. Coffee
 Session # 27

1. A patient is being admitted at the hospital states, “I am having the worst headache of my life!” The nurse must
report this immediately to the physician since the patient may have which of the following conditions?
a. Seizures c. Increased intracranial pressure
b. Subarachnoid hemorrhage d. Aneurysm

2. A patient at the emergency room is suspected to have stroke is experiencing oculomotor deficits with ataxia
and motor deficits. The knows must know that the area affected is at the
a. Anterior circulation – anterior cerebral artery c. Posterior circulation – brainstem, vertebral, or basilar
b. Anterior circulation – middle cerebral artery artery branches
d. Posterior circulation – basilar artery

3. A stroke patient is sent to the emergency department experiencing contralateral motor or sensory deficit
without cortical signs. The area affected is in the
a. Anterior circulation – middle cerebral artery c. Posterior circulation – posterior cerebral artery
b. Subcortical circulation – lenticulostriate deep d. Posterior circulation – basilar artery
penetrating branches of the middle cerebral artery

4. The nurse must know that blockage in the anterior circulation – middle cerebral artery can cause which of the
following signs and symptoms in a patient suffering from stroke?
a. Contralateral leg weakness c. Contralateral face, arm, increased leg weakness,
b. Contralateral field cut sensory loss, vision field cut, aphasia, and apraxia.
d. Dysphagia, dysarthria, tongue/palate deviation and
ataxia.

5. A patient is complaining of tingling sensations in her hands and feet as though they are being pricked. The
nurse must note this on her chart as
a. Transient ischemic attack (TIA) c. Paresthesias
b. Dysesthesias d. Numbness

6. When the patient faints due to a strong emotion such as fear or pain the nurse must note this on her chart as
having
a. Vasodepressor syncope c. Micturition syncope
b. Postural hypotension d. Cough syncope

7. Which of the following best describes absence seizures?

a. The person loses consciousness suddenly and the
body stiffens into tonic extensor rigidity. Breathing stops
and the patient becomes cyanotic. A clonic phase of
rhythmic muscular contraction follows.
b. A sudden brief lapse of consciousness, with
momentary blinking, staring or movements of the
lips and hands but no falling.
c. Sudden, brief, rapid jerks, involving the trunk or limbs.
d. Sudden loss of consciousness with falling but no
movements.

8. A patient is exhibiting tonic and then clonic movements that start unilaterally in the hand, foot or face and
spreads to other parts of the body. The nurse must know that this type of seizure is
a. Complex partial seizure c. Myoclonic seizure
b. Jacksonian seizure d. Absent seizure

9. Resting hand tremors and pill rolling are indicative of which of the following neurologic disorders?
a. Myasthenia gravis c. Parkinson’s disease
b. Multiple sclerosis d. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis

10. This is a disease where weakness is made worse with repeated effort and improved with rest. This is brought
about by the destruction of the receptor sites for acetylcholine. These are describing
a. Myasthenia gravis c. Muscle dystrophy
b. Multiple sclerosis d. Guillain-Barre syndrome
 Session # 28

1. This condition is an important harbinger of stroke

a. Angina pectoris c. Atherosclerosis
b. Heart failure d. Transient ischemic attack

2. A post-stroke patient is having difficulty forming words. The patient is exhibiting which of the following signs
a. Ataxia c. Aphasia
b. Apraxia d. Agnosia

3. In teaching the family members about stroke in a patient who has suffered from a transient ischemic attack the
nurse must tell the family to do which of the following if the patient suddenly exhibits numbness or weakness of
one side of the face, arm, or leg?
a. Continue administering anticoagulants c. Call for an ambulance
b. Observe further for other signs and symptoms d. Let the patient have a bed rest

4. Which of the following is NOT a critical warning sign for stroke (cerebrovascular accident)?
a. Sudden chest pain together with pain on the left c. Sudden trouble walking, dizziness, or loss of balance
shoulder, arm, neck and jaw. or coordination
b. Sudden confusion or trouble speaking or d. Sudden trouble seeing in one or both eyes
understanding
.
5. The most common cause of ischemic signs and symptoms in stroke is occlusion of the
a. Posterior cerebral artery c. Middle cerebral artery
b. Anterior cerebral artery d. Lateral cerebral artery

6. Which of the following is NOT a modifiable risk factor in the development of stroke (cerebrovascular accident)?
a. Smoking c. Hyperlipidemia
b. Age d. Sedentary lifestyle

7. Which of the following risk factors for stroke has the leading determinant of risk for both ischemic and
hemorrhagic stroke?
a. Hypertension c. Hyperlipidemia
b. Smoking d. Diabetes

8. Which of the following diseases is the most common cause for peripheral neuropathies?
a. Heart failure c. Diabetes mellitus
b. Hypothyroidism d. Coronary artery disease

9. Which of the following cardiovascular disorders can complicate into stroke (cerebrovascular accident) later if it
is left untreated?
a. Arteriosclerosis c. Heart failure
b. Atherosclerosis d. Cardiomyopathy

10. Which of the following is true regarding cigarette smoking and its relation to stroke?
a. Heavy smoking, or smoking more than 40 cigarettes a c. It takes 5 years for ex-smokers to drop to the same
day, doubles the risk of stroke compared to light risk level as non-smokers.
smoking. d. All of the above
b. Light smokers or smoking fewer than 10 cigarettes per
day have a lesser risk for stroke than heavy smokers.
 Session # 29

1. Primary dysmenorrhea results from prostaglandin production during which phase of the menstrual cycle?
a. Ischemic phase c. Menstrual phase
b. Proliferative phase d. Luteal phase

2. This is known as the abnormal growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus
a. Salpingitis c. Endometriosis
b. Endometrial polyps d. Pelvic inflammatory disease

3. Which of the following is NOT a sign of premenstrual syndrome?

a. Depression c. Angry outbursts
b. Blurred vision d. Sleep disturbances

4. A patient comes to the nurse and complains of having an interval of 18 days between menses. The nurse must
note this her chart as
a. Oligomenorrhea c. Polymenorrhea
b. Menorrhagia d. Metrorrhagia

5. Which of the following are the signs and symptoms of perimenopause?

a. Hot flashes c. Sleep disturbances
b. Flushing d. All of the above

6. Estrogen replacement is helpful in relieving the signs and symptoms of menopause but can increase the risk
of which of the following?
a. Thrombosis c. Hypertension
b. Varicosities d. Heart failure

7. Certain women can experience sexual dysfunction such as inadequate vaginal lubrication despite adequate
arousal. Some women may not achieve orgasm. This is due to a lack in
a. Progesterone c. Estrogen
b. Luteinizing hormone d. Lactogen

8. A woman complains of painful sexual intercourse with her husband. The nurse knows that the medical term for
this is known as
a. Vaginismus c. Anorgasmia
b. Dyspareunia d. Hypogonadism

9. Which of the following best describes vaginismus?

a. Superficial pain that is suggestive of local c. Infection of the vagina
inflammation of the vagina d. Involuntary spasm of the muscles surrounding
b. Deep vaginal pain from pelvic disorders the vaginal orifice that makes penetration during
intercourse painful or impossible

10. Which of the following cannot cause a(n) sexually transmitted disease?
a. Human immunodeficiency virus c. Treponema pallidum
b. Neisseria gonorrheae d. Herpes zoster
 Session # 30

1. Nurse Sakura is observing for the penis of a male suspected to have a sexually transmitted infection. She has
observed for multiple cauliflower-like lesions on the patient’s penis. The nurse must suspect for which of the
following STDs?
a. Genital warts c. Primary syphilis
b. Genital herpes simplex d. Gonorrhea
RATIO: Single or multiple papules or plaques of variable shapes; may be round, acuminate (or pointed), or thin and
slender. May be raised, flat, or cauliflowerlike (verrucous).

2. Which of the following best describes cryptorchidism?

a. The testicular length is usually less than or equal to c. It usually appears as a painless nodule.
3.5 cm. d. The testis is atrophied and may lie in the inguinal
b. The testis is acutely inflamed, painful, tender, and canal or the abdomen, resulting in an unfilled
swollen. scrotum.
RATIO: Testis is atrophied and may lie in the inguinal canal or the abdomen, resulting in an unfilled scrotum. As above,
there is no palpable left testis or epididymis. Cryptorchidism markedly raises the risk for testicular cancer.

3. The nurse has noticed an appearance of a small red papule that becomes a chancre or painless erosion on a
patient’s penis. The patient is diagnosed to have syphilis. The causative agent of this is
a. Neisseria gonorrheae c. Human papilloma virus
b. Treponema pallidum d. Haemophilus ducreyi
RATIO: Small red papule that becomes a chancre, or painless erosion up to 2 cm in diameter. Base of chancre is clean,
red, smooth, and glistening; borders are raised and indurated. Chancre heals within 3 to 8 weeks.

4. Which of the following best describes epispadias in a male?

a. A congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to c. The urethral meatus is located on the top of the
the inferior surface of the penis. glans penis.
b. A nontender, fluid-filled mass within the tunica d. An indurated nodule or ulcer that is usually non-
vaginalis. tender.
RATIO: A congenital displacement of the urethral meatus to the inferior surface of the penis. A groove extends from the
actual urethral meatus to its normal location on the tip of the glans.

5. Pain felt in the inguinal canal due to inguinal hernia is usually aggravated by
a. Eating c. Lifting heavy objects
b. Urinating d. Lying down
RATIO: Symptoms are most likely to appear after standing for long periods, or when you engage in activities that increase
pressure inside the abdomen, such as heavy lifting, persistent coughing or straining while urinating or moving the bowels.

6. Which of the following types of food can increase the risk of the development of prostate cancer in men?
a. Processed foods c. High sugar intake
b. Saturated fat d. Excessive intake of salt
RATIO: Dietary changes In some studies, regularly eating foods high in fat, especially animal fat, has been associated
with increased prostate cancer risk.

7. In teaching males on how to perform the testicular self-examination, the patient must be taught to do it
a. At night c. After a bowel movement
b. In the morning d. After having a warm bath or shower
RATIO: This examination is best performed after a warm bath or shower. The heat relaxes the scrotum and makes it
easier to find anything unusual.

8. For an African-American male who has a positive family history of prostate cancer, the best time to have a
prostate-specific-antigen (PSA) testing and digital rectal examination (DRE) would be at
a. 30 to 40 years c. 50 years and above
b. 40 years and above d. Below 30 years
RATIO: Both recommend beginning screening at 40 years for African-American men and men with a positive family
history.

9. Which of the following are signs and symptoms of prostate disorders?

a. Incomplete emptying of the bladder c. Intermittent stream or straining to initiate flow
b. Urinary frequency or urgency d. All of the above
RATIO: Men with symptoms of prostate disorders—incomplete emptying of the bladder, urinary frequency or urgency,
weak or intermittent stream or straining to initiate flow, hematuria, nocturia, or even bony pains in the pelvis—should be
referred to a urologist.

10. Vesicles that are 1-3 mm in size found on the glans or shaft of the penis is usually indicative of
a. Gonorrhea c. Genital herpes
b. Syphilis d. Chancroid
RATIO: Small scattered or grouped vesicles, 1 to 3 mm in size, on glans or shaft of penis. Appear as erosions if vesicular
membrane breaks.