Pedro PP & BLDG Laws Preboard

PP & BLDG LAWS
Preboard Examination (With Answers)

Huwebes, Pebrero 4, 2021 7:25 AM
1. Construction in a building involving changes in the

materials used, partitioning, locations/sizes of
openings, structural parts, existing utilities and
equipment without increasing the overall area.
a. Alteration
b. Renovation
c. Slum upgrading
d. Redecoration
2. The transfer of buildings or portions thereof from an

original location to another, either within the same lot
or to a different one.
a. Evacuation
b. Reassembly
c. Moving
d. Disaster displacement
Professional Practice Laws Page 1

3. Any physical change made on a building/ structure to
increase its value, utility and/ or to improve its
aesthetic quality
a. Slum upgrading
b. Renovation
c. Interior design
d. Architectural interiors
4. Which of the following is NOT true about the building

official, according to Rule II of the IRR of PD 1096?
a. The building official must either be a duly registered
architect or civil engineer
b. The building official must be of good moral character
c. The building official must have at least five years of
diversified and professional experience in building
design and construction
d. All of the above are true
5. Which of the following violations is the gravest,

according to Rule II of the NBC IRR?
a. Failure to post Certificate of Occupancy
b. Use or occupancy of building/structure without
appropriate Certificate of Occupancy
c. Non-compliance with work stoppage order for
construction or demolition without permit

d. Non-compliance with the work stoppage order for the
alteration, addition, conversion, or repair without
permit
6. Whose duty is it to declare buildings as ruinous or
dangerous?
a. This is the building official’s duty
b. This is the secretary’s duty
c. This is the architect’s duty
d. This is the PRBOA’s duty
7. Which of the following does NOT require a building

permit?
a. A small patio,only 25 sqm. in area, resting directly on
the ground
b. A low garden masonry wall that is only 6 meters long
and only 1.5 meters high
c. A greenhouse that measures 2 meters x 3
meters only
d. A mini-aviary measuring 3 meters x 4 meters with a
maximum height of less than 6 meters measured from
the ground to the apex of the roof
8. What is the minimum distance required between eaves

and the rear and side property lines?
a. 500mm

b. 750mm
c. 1000mm
d. None of the above. Setbacks are measured not to the
eaves, but to the exterior faces of the walls.
9. What is the minimum front setback required for an
industrial project when the RROW adjoining the
property is 30 meters wide?
a. 9.00 meters
b. 8.00 meters
c. 6.00 meters
d. 5.00 meters
10. A written authorization granted by the Building Official

to an applicant allowing him to proceed with
construction after plans, specifications and other
pertinent documents have been found to be in
conformity with the Code
a. Building permit
b. Occupancy permit
c. FSIC
d. FSEC
11. According to Rule II of the NBC IRR, which does not

fall under civil/structural documents?

a. Roof framing plans
b. Boring and load tests
c. Seismic analysis
d. All of the above are included under
civil/structural documents
12. Firewalls are not allowed for R1 developments.

However, an abutment of up to 3.20m in height is
allowed, provided that above ____, the abutment shall
be made of perforated concrete blocks.
a. 1.00m
b. 1.20m
c. 1.50m
d. 1.70m
13. Does the law permit the owner to proceed with ground
preparation and excavation works before the issuance
of the building permit?
a. No. The owner must wait for the building permit to be
issued before he can proceed with excavation works.
b. Yes, as long as the Building Official issues the
Ground Preparation and Excavation Permit and
as long as the owner follows the corresponding
rules/requirements.
c. The NBC is silent on this matter.

d. Both A and C.
14. Does the law permit the owner to occupy completed
portions of the building even though other parts are
still being constructed?
a. No. The entire building must be completed first and
the Certificate of Occupancy for the entire building
must be issued before anyone can occupy any portion
of the building.
b. No, this is extremely dangerous. There must be no
ongoing works within the building before anyone may
be allowed to occupy it.
c. Yes, if the Building Official grants a Partial
Certificate of Occupancy to the owner.
d. Both A and B
15. For a sloping lot with a 2.00m difference between the

highest and lowest points of the lot, where will the
established grade line be for building height
determination?
a. The lowest point of the lot
b. The highest point of the lot
c. The average between the two points
d. None of the above

16. What is the minimum parking slot size for a standard
truck?
a. 2.50m x 5.00m
b. 3.00 x 9.00m
c. 3.60 x 12.00m
d. 3.60 x 18.00m
17. If you add the ISA and the USA, what will you get?
a. TOSL
b. PSO
c. MACA
d. AMBF
18. If you subtract the ISAmax from the MACA, what will
you get?
a. TOSLmin
b. PSOmax
c. USAmin
d. BHL
19. If you multiply the FLAR by the TLA, what will you get?
a. AMBF
b. GFA
c. TGFA

d. MACA
20. What is the minimum area for habitable rooms,

20.
according to the National Building Code?
a. 1.20 sqm
b. 3.00 sqm
c. 6.00 sqm
d. 12.00 sqm
21. What is the minimum air space provision per person for
habitable rooms?
a. 3.00 cubic meters
b. 12.00 cubic meters
c. 14 cubic meters
d. 18 cubic meters
22. What is the minimum width for an access road serving

an interior lot intended to serve 4 dwelling units?
a. 3.00m
b. 4.00m
c. 5.00m
d. 8.00m

23. What is the minimum ceiling height required for the
seventh floor of a naturally-ventilated building?
a. 1.80m
b. 2.10m
c. 2.40m
d. 2.70m
24. For agricultural areas, the NBC requires at least _____

of easement for each side of the waterway.
a. 3.00m
b. 10.00m
c. 20.00m
d. 40.00m
25. Townhouses characterize which zoning classification?

a. R-2
b. R-4
c. R-5
d. C-1
26. According to Article 1723 of the Civil Code, who shall

be held liable if a building collapses more than 10

years after completion due to the use of inferior
materials?
a. The architect or the engineer who drew up the plans
b. The contractor and the construction supervisor
c. The building official who reviewed and approved the

c.
plans
d. Both B and C
27. Before using or occupying a completed building, this

document must be issued first.
a. Building permit
b. Certificate of inspection
c. Certificate of compliance
d. Certificate of occupancy
28. The Building Code requires that the owner hire a

fulltime inspector for the construction. This inspector
must be a:
a. Licensed architect
b. Licensed mechanical engineer
c. Licensed contractor
d. Either A or B
29. What are the allowable firewall configurations for an R3

project?
a. Allowed only on one side of property
b. Allowed on both sides of the property
c. Allowed on one side and the rear

Both B and C
30. This term refers to any new construction which
increases the height or area of an existing building.
a. Addition
b. Alteration
c. Renovation
d. Conversion
31. This uses wood construction with protective

fireresistant materials and is one-hour fire-resistive
throughout.
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III and IV
d. Type V
32. The provisions of the National Building Code apply to

all public and private buildings except for:
a. BP 220 projects
b. Buildings made of native materials like wood, nipa, and
lumber
c. Projects that only involve non-structural repairs
d. Both A and B
d.

33. Which is not included among the valid grounds for
declaring a building as dangerous?
a. Structural hazard
b. Aesthetic deficiency
c. Unsafe electrical wiring
d. Inadequate sanitation
34. Type II constructions are not allowed in which zones?

a. Non-fire restricted zone
b. Fire restrictive zone
c. Highly fire restrictive zone
d. Both B and C
35. On a non-arcaded RROW, signs may be allowed to

project by as much as
a. 300mm
b. 600mm
c. 900mm
d. 1200mm
36. Should a sign be allowed to project beyond the

property line and into an arcaded RROW, a minimum
vertical clearance of ___ must be maintained from the
road surface to the bottom of the sign.
a. 3.00 m

b. 4.27 m
c. 5.00 m
6.00 m
37. For glass panels that need to be larger than 3.00m x
3.00m, the minimum thickness needs to be:
a. 8mm
b. 10mm
c. 12mm
d. 15mm
38. According to the NBC, the maximum speed of

escalators is
a. 90 feet per minute
b. 120 feet per minute
c. 36 meters per minute
d. 38 meters per minute
39. According to the NBC, the minimum stairway width for

buildings with an occupant load of 10-50 is
a. 1.10m
b. 0.90m
c. 0.75m
d. 0.60m
d.

40. For protection of pedestrians, what will be required
when the distance between the OFB and the inner
edge of the sidewalk is equal to 75% of the building
height?
a. A fence only
a.
b. A canopy only
c. A fence and a canopy
d. A fence, a canopy, and a safety net
41. Every fence or building corner must be truncated at the

corner to form a chaflan on roads that are less than
3.60m wide. What is the minimum width of a chaflan?
a. 3.00m
b. 3.60m
c. 4.00m
d. 5.00m
42. Which formula could be used to yield building bulk?

a. PSOmax * AMBF
b. TLA * PSOmax * BHLmeters
c. PSOmax * TLA / BHLmeters
d. [ (FLAR * TLA) * BHLstoreys] * BHLmeters
43. Which would be included when obtaining GFA?

a. Balconies with an area of 5 square meters
b. Parking areas equivalent to half the area of one floor
c. Utility areas equivalent to not more than one-third of
one floor
Fire escape structures if complying to standards stair
measurements of the NBC
44. What is the maximum allowable slope for PWD ramps,
according to BP 344?
a. 10%
b. 12%
c. 1:10
d. 1:12
45. For ramps using the maximum allowable slope, a

landing must be provided after every 6.00 meters of
horizontal travel distance. What is the minimum length
of this landing?
a. 1.00m
b. 1.20m
c. 1.50m
d. 2.00m
d.

46. What is the minimum width required for a curb cutout
leading to a 1.20m-wide crossing?
a. 0.90m
b. 1.00m
c. 1.20m
d. 1.50m

47. What is the minimum dimension of the required
turnabout space for walkways and what should be the
maximum distance between two turnabout spaces?
a. Minimum dimension of 1.20m, center-to-center
distance of 15.00m
b. Minimum dimension of 1.50m, center-to-center
distance of 13.50m
c. Minimum dimension of 1.20m, maximum gap of
12.00m between turning spaces
d. Minimum dimension of 1.50m, center-to-center
distance of 12.00m
48. Handrails are required for ramps, stairs, and dropped

curbs at crossings. These handrails should be installed
at what height/s?
a. 700mm and 900mm
b. 800mm and 900mm
c. 900mm and 1000m
d. 900mm only
49. What is the minimum width of an accessible parking

slot?
a. 2.15m
b. 2.50m
c. 2.70m
d. 3.70m
50. What is required to be provided at the bottom and the

top of a ramp?

a. A turnabout space with a minimum dimension of
1.50m
b. A vestibule with a level space at least 1.50m wide and
2.00m deep
c. A curb with a minimum height of 100mm
d. A level area not less than 1.80m in length
51. What are the minimum dimensions of a toilet stall for

PWDs?
a. 1.50m x 1.50m
b. 1.50m x 1.80m
c. 1.70m x 1.80m
d. 1.80m x 2.00m
52. What are the minimum dimensions required for

elevators?
a. Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10m x 1.40m
b. Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.40m
c. Hoistway inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70
d. Car inside dimensions of 1.10 x 1.70
53. What is the maximum travel distance allowed for

accessible elevators?
a. 10.00m from entrance
b. 15.00m from entrance
c. 20.00m from entrance
d. 30.00m from entrance

54. For PWD washrooms, what is the maximum height
allowed for a lavatory counter?
a. 750mm
b. 800mm
c. 850mm
d. 900mm
55. What is the minimum clear width for doors according to

BP 344?
a. 600mm
b. 700mm
c. 800mm
d. 900mm
56. A central refuge area with a minimum depth of 1.50m

is required for crossings if the width of the road to be
crossed exceeds
a. 6.50m
b. 8.00m
c. 10.00m
d. 12.00m
57. Fires involving energized electrical equipment are

classified as:
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class C
d. Class D

58. For drainage purposes, a maximum cross gradient of
____ toward the road is allowed for dropped curbs.
a. 1:12
b. 1:20
c. 12%
d. 20%
59. A type of standpipe system in which the pipes are

normally not filled with water. Water is introduced into
the system thru fire service connections when needed.
a. Wet standpipe
b. Dry standpipe
c. Combination standpipe
d. Both A and C
60. What is the maximum allowable riser height for stairs in

BP 220?
a. 150 mm.
b. 175 mm.
c. 200 mm.
d. 250 mm.
61. What is the minimum tread width for stairs in BP 220?

a. 200 mm.
b. 225 mm.
c. 250 mm.
d. 300 mm.

62. Fires involving ordinary combustible materials such as
wood, cloth, rubber and plastics
a. Class A
b. Class B
c. Class K
d. Class D
63. Which of the following is prohibited by BP 220 and PD

957?
a. A rowhouse cluster of 10 units
b. A rowhouse cluster of 20 units
c. A rowhouse cluster 100 m. long
d. A block 500.00m long with a 2.00m-wide alley
approximately at the center
64. Any visual or audible signal produced by a device or

system to warn the occupants of the building or fire
fighting elements of the presence or danger of fire
a. Annunciator panel
b. Fire signal
c. Fire alerting system
d. Fire alarm
65. An integrated network of hydraulically designed piping

system installed in a building, structure or area with
outlets arranged in a systematic pattern which
automatically discharges water when activated by heat
or combustion products from a fire.
a. Standpipe system

b. Fire extinguishing system
c. Sprinkler system
66. What is the prescribed ratio for saleable and

nonsaleable lots in PD 957?
a. 30% min saleable, 70% max non-saleable
b. 70% max saleable, 30% min non-saleable
c. 60% max saleable, 40% min non-saleable
67. Which of the following is true?

a. An alley may be used as property access for socialized
developments only
b. A pathwalk may be used as property access for
socialized and economic developments
c. A pathwalk length of up to 60.00 m. is allowed
d. An alley must have a minimum width of 1.20 m.
68. What is the minimum ceiling height required for

socialized and economic housing (not including
mezzanines)?
a. 2.70 m.
b. 2.40 m.
c. 2.10 m.
d. 2.00 m.

69. Results of the annual fire pump flow test, the annual
main drain test, and the standpipe water flow test
should be included in the:
a. FSCR
b. FSCCR
c. FSMR
d. FSEC
70. What is the acceptable range of handrail heights

70.
a. 800-900 mm. from the floor
b. 800-100 mm. from the floor
c. 800-1200 mm. from the floor
d. 800-1500 mm.from the floor
71. For economic housing, what is the minimum lot area

required for single-detached developments?
a. 64 sqm.
b. 72 sqm.
c. 18 sqm.
d. 22 sqm.
72. For socialized housing, what is the minimum lot

frontage required for single-detached developments?
a. 6.00 m.
b. 8.00 m.
c. 10.00 m.

d. 12.00 m.
73. What is the minimum side setback required for

socialized and economic housing?
a. 1.00 m.
b. 1.50 m.
c. 2.00 m.
d. 4.50 m.
74. Fires in cooking appliances that involve combustible

cooking media (vegetable or animal oils and fats) are
classified as:
a. Class K
b. Class D
c. Class B
d. Class A
75. Which of the following are the last three items on the
list of minimum basic needs of human settlements
prescribed by BP 220?
a. Water, power, storm drainage
b. Water, power, parks and playgrounds
c. Solid and liquid waste disposal, parks and
playgrounds, power
d. Storm drainage, parks and playgrounds, power

76. For medium-cost and open market housing
developments, what is the minimum area required for
parks and playgrounds?
a. 3.5% of gross area
b. 4.0% of gross area
c. 5.0% of gross area
d. 9.0% of gross area
77. What is the minimum floor area required for open

market housing?
a. 18 sqm.
b. 22 sqm.
c. 30 sqm.
d. 42 sqm.
78. What is the minimum level of completion required for

78.
PD 957?
a. Shell house
b. Shell house with doors and windows
c. Complete house
d. Complete house without interior partitions
79. What is the minimum lot area required for open

market, duplex housing?
a. 50 sqm.
b. 80 sqm.
c. 96 sqm.

d. 120 sqm.
80. For BP 220, what is the minimum thickness required for

firewalls?
a. 4 inches
b. 5 inches
c. 6 inches
d. 8 inches
81. Subdivisions abutting main public roads must provide

setbacks on both sides of the subdivision entrance for
public utility vehicles. What are the minimum
dimensions required for the setback?
a. 2.50 m. x 5.00 m.
b. 3.00 m. x 5.00 m.
c. 3.00 m. x 9.00 m.
d. 3.60 m. x 12.00 m.
82. What is the minimum floor area required for a medium

82.
cost family condominium according to PD 957?
a. 12 sqm.
b. 18 sqm.
c. 22 sqm.
d. 36 sqm.

83. An integrated piping system connected to a source of
extinguishing agent which suppresses fires when
actuated by its automatic detecting device
a. Standpipe system
b. Automatic fire suppression system
c. Fire extinguisher
d. Fire hose
84. The maximum number of persons that may be allowed

to occupy a particular building or space
a. Maximum occupancy
b. Building load
c. Occupant load
d. Occupant total
85. This document is issued upon determination that

design and specification is in accordance with the
provisions of the Fire Code.
a. FSCR
b. FSCCR
c. FSIC
d. FSEC
86. Who is violating the Code of Ethics?
a. An architect who recommends the method of
arbitration when it comes to settling disputes
b. An architect who informs his colleague that he is being
hired by the latter’s former client as a new architect for
a project

c. An architect who refuses to make schematic sketches
without payment for a client who is short of money
d. An architect who credits half of his commission
from the supplier to the owner’s bill (to add to
the owner’s discount)
87. Are architects allowed to accept gifts from suppliers?

a. Only when the gift does not exceed the contract
amount awarded to that supplier
b. Only when the gift will not cloud the architect’s
judgment and objectivity
c. Only when the gift was solicited by the architect
d. The architect is never allowed to accept gifts, no
matter how small
88. Who is not violating the Code of Ethics?

a. An architect who asks to be considered for a project
even though the owner has already begun negotiations
with another architect (but no contract yet)
b. An architect who accepts a commission to
remodel a building after notifying the original
architect of the commission and ensuring that
the previous architect’s contract was properly
terminated
c. An architect who fails to pay his draftsmen according
to the work contract because of his firm’s financial
difficulties

d. All of these architects are violating the Code of Ethics
89. Which of the following shall take precedence over the

other?
a. An architect’s duty to his client
b. An architect’s duty to the public
c. Both A and B are equally important
90. An architect registered and licensed under R.A. No.

9266, who is directly and professionally responsible
and liable for the construction supervision of the
project
a. Architect of record
b. Architect in charge of construction
c. Architect builder
d. Consulting architect
91. Which is not a duty of the PRBOA?

a. Conduct seminars and workshops as part of the
Continuing Professional Development (CPD)
program and as an automatic CPD provider
b. Adopt an official seal
c. Suspend the Certificate of Registration of an architect,
if necessary
d. Administer oaths in connection with the Architecture
Act
92. Which is not grounds for removal of a member of the
PRBOA?

a. Inability to perform his or her duties due to sickness
b. Manipulation of grades in the exams
c. Removing “Site Planning” from the syllabus of
the exam. This subject should be included
because it is extremely important in
architecture.
d. Spreading malicious rumors about an architect that
turn out to be false information
93. Who cannot be elected as a member of the PRBArch

today?
a. An architect who ceased all teaching functions and
connections with any school or review center on
September 24, 2010 only
b. An architect who started practicing architecture on
September 24, 2003 only
c. An architect who has never been convicted of
crimes involving moral turpitude and who has
plenty of related experience as current
chairman of the Philippine Institute of
Architects
d. An architect who has never received a commission for
high-rise building projects
94. Can a person who is not a citizen of the Philippines

94.
take the licensure examination for architects?

a. Absolutely. The PRC encourages and freely allows all
architecture graduates from other countries to take the
exam as part of the globalization initiative.
b. Yes, but there are conditions.
c. No. Only Filipinos are allowed to take the examination.
d. Yes, if they have experience working under a Filipino
mentor for a project on Philippine soil.
95. Which of the following is grounds for

suspension/revocation of an architect’s license?
a. Fraud in the exam application
b. Unprofessional conduct
c. Violation of the minor provisions of RA 9266
d. All of the above
96. Which person is violating RA 9266?

a. An architecture graduate who posts an advertisement
on www.OLX.ph that he can prepare plans that are
just as good as a licensed architect’s
b. A secretary who, upon her boss’ instruction, offers her
boss’ architectural design services even though her
boss is not a licensed architect
c. A person who uses another name instead of his/her
registered name because the new name is more
marketable and is easier to remember
d. All of these persons are violating RA 9266

97. When the project is not yet executed, what happens to
the intellectual property of the design/drawings?
a. The intellectual property for the design does not exist
until the project is built
b. The intellectual property for the design is the owner’s
until the project is built
c. The intellectual property for the design remains
the same because the construction of the
project is irrelevant to intellectual property
d. The intellectual property for the design is still the
architect’s because it only becomes the owner’s AFTER
the project is built
98. Which will need to be registered with the SEC?

a. A sole proprietorship
b. A partnership
c. An architectural firm
d. Both B and C
99. Which method of selection is recommended for small

projects?
a. Direct selection
b. Comparative selection
c. Architectural design competition
d. All of the above are recommended
100. In an architectural design competition, which is true

about the jury?

a. The jury should be even-numbered
b. There should be at least seven members
c. All of the jurors must be licensed architects because
only then will they be qualified to judge the designs
d. None of this is true
101. How many representatives of the owner can sit on the

jury in an architectural competition?
a. Only one
b. Up to two
c. Less than half of the jury
d. The owner cannot have representatives on the jury
because he needs to uphold the decisions of the jury
102. This refers to the detailed analysis of the project based

on pre-feasibility studies and will determine the
viability of a proposed development. This requires
primary data gathering and analysis.
a. Pre-feasibility studies
b. Feasibility studies
c. Site utilization and land use studies
d. Architectural programming
103. As defined by SPP 201, the goal of this is to achieve an

unimpaired program at minimum cost.
a. Value engineering
b. Value management
c. Cost estimation
d. Architectural research

104. Which method of rendering services is NOT allowed in
104.
SPP 201 (Predesign Services)?
a. Rendering the service as an individual architect
b. Rendering the service with the architect’s staff
c. Rendering the service in collaboration with another
firm
d. All of these are allowed by SPP 201
105. In the multiple of direct personnel expenses, what is

added to the “Fee” to get the total cost charged to the
client?
a. The consultant’s fee
b. Reimbursibles
c. Income taxes
d. Healthcard
106. When there is a continuing relationship with the owner

involving a series of projects, which method of
compensation is recommended?
a. Lump sum
b. Multiple of direct personnel expense
c. Honorarium
d. Professional fee plus expenses
107. For cases where the client requests an architect to do

work that will require his personal time, what is
recommended to be charged to the client?
a. Per diem

b. Honorarium
c. Reimbursible expenses
d. All of the above
108. Which is not a phase in the regular design services of
the architect?
a. Project definition
b. Design development
c. Bidding
d. Site development
109. Which is NOT part of the architect’s scope of work

when rendering regular design services?
a. Preparation of change orders
b. Monitoring of maintenance and upkeep services
of the building
c. Periodic visits to the construction site
d. Responding to questions from bidders
110. Which is not an architect’s duty when he functions as a

construction manager?
a. Quality control of work (QC)
b. Keeping of records for the project
c. Design revisions
d. Cost and time control
111. The orderly arrangement within a piece of land or

property on which vertical structures such as buildings,
monuments and the like, as well as horizontal
developments like RROWs are going to be built

a. Site planning
b. Physical planning
c. Master development panning
d. Comprehensive planning
112. Forensic architecture is a

a. Regular design service
b. Specialized allied service
c. Specialized architectural service
d. Specialized predesign service
113. Which SPP document covers Construction Management

(CM) services?
a. SPP 203
b. SPP-204A
c. SPP-204B
d. SPP-201
114. Upon moving in to your new condominium building,

you discovered that your friend who is an RLA works in
your building and collects condo dues from the
residents. Your friend is probably rendering
a. Specialized architectural services
b. Specialized allied services
c. Comprehensive architectural services
d. Post-construction services

115. Your boss offered to his client the option to award to
your boss the entire range of professional services, all
the way from predesign to post-construction services
so that the client does not have to deal with too many
professionals and award too many contracts. What
kind of service did your boss offer?
a. Comprehensive architectural services
b. Regular design services
c. Specialized architectural services
d. An illegal service
116. For the multiple of direct personnel expense method of

compensation, what is the multiplier recommended by
the SPP?
a. 1.0-2.0
b. 1.5-2.5
c. 3.5-5.0
d. 5.0-7.5
117. During regular design service, when should the

architect submit or update the SPPCC?
a. Schematic design phase
b. Design development phase
c. Contract documents phase
d. All of the above
118. In SPP 202, projects are classified according to the

degree of complexity of the project. Which falls under
Group 2?

a. Printing plants
b. Auditorium
c. Mausoleum
d. Mall
119. In SPP 202, projects are classified according to the

degree of complexity of the project. Which falls under
Group 3?
a. Airport
b. Aquarium
c. Gymnasium
d. All of the above
120. In SPP 202, projects where the plan / design and

related Contract Documents are re-used for the
repetitive construction of similar buildings without
amending the drawing and the specifications is
classified as
a. Group 4
b. Group 5
c. Group 6
d. Group 7
121. Once the Architect has prepared all contract

documents, the Architect is considered to have
completed the Detailed Design and Contract
Documents Phase of his services. This is equivalent to
a. 80% of his work
b. 85% of his work

c. 90% of his work
d. 100% of his work
122. When construction is suspended for a period of 8

months, what happens to the architect’s fee for the
remaining works?
a. It is withheld by the owner until completion of the
project.
b. It is withheld by the owner until the issues on-site are
b.
resolved.
c. It is doubled.
d. Nothing. It stays the same.
123. The architect’s fee is a

a. Net amount
b. Immune to all forms of taxes
c. Incomplete amount
d. Both A and B
124. Which is not part of the PCC?

a. Cost of electrical fixtures
b. Cost of the air-conditioning system
c. Cost of acquiring the lot
d. All of these are not part of the PCC
125. Which is the largest amount?

a. PCC

b. PDC
c. The architect’s fee
d. Both A and B
126. This planning service places heavy emphasis on the

non-physical and non-engineering components of the
master development plan
a. Site planning
b. Physical planning
c. Master planning
d. Comprehensive development planning
127. In the project team, whose responsibility is it to plan,
program and monitor the various activities, and act as
an adviser on material costs and construction
methods?
a. The contractor’s
b. The project manager’s
c. The owner’s
d. The estimator’s
128. When an architect renders a design-build service, is he

allowed to guarantee a maximum project construction
cost?
a. Yes, because this is one of the methods of
rendering design-build services according to the
SPP
b. No, because estimates should never be guaranteed by
the architect

c. No, because the architect is not allowed to build his
own project and must hire a third party contractor
d. Both B and C
129. For the purposes of obtaining the FSCCR, who shall

certify that all fire protection and life safety features
indicated in FSCR for Building Permit, including
amendments thereto which must be approved by
concerned authorities, have been properly installed
and implemented?
a. The architect
b. The fire protection consultant
c. The contractor
d. The owner
130. For the purposes of obtaining the FSCR, who shall

ensure and certify that the design, criteria and
specifications of all fire safety features are appropriate
to the proposed project and compliant with the
provisions of RA 9514?
a. The fire marshall
b. The architect
c. The construction manager
d. The building official
131. What is the minimum tread required for new stairs in

RA 9514?

a. 180mm
b. 200mm
c. 250mm
d. 280mm
132. What is the minimum riser height required for new

stairs in RA 9514?
a. 100mm
b. 180mm
c. 200mm
133. Which handrail height is NOT allowed by RA 9514?
a. 760mm
b. 770mm
c. 850mm
d. 870mm
134. For sleeping departments of hospitals, what is the

minimum area that needs to be allotted per person in
the determination of the occupant load, based on RA
9514?
a. 1.40sqm
b. 1.90sqm
c. 11.10sqm
d. 22.30sqm

135. For the basement level of a store that is used for
backof-house offices, how much area per person
should be allotted based on RA 9514?
a. 2.80sqm
b. 5.60sqm
c. 9.30sqm
d. 18.60sqm
136. Based on RA 9514, how many exits are required if the
occupant load is 600?
a. 1 exit
b. 2 exits
c. 3 exits
d. 4 exits
137. What is the minimum lot frontage required for a

socialized duplex housing unit?
a. 3.00m
b. 4.00m
c. 5.00m
d. 6.00m
138. The minimum tread for existing stairs, according to RA

9514.
a. 200mm
b. 230mm
c. 250mm
d. 280mm

139. Minimum ramp width, according to RA 9514.
a. 915mm
b. 1120mm
c. 1200mm
d. 1420mm
140. Minimum elevator pit depth according to the NBC.
a. 300mm
b. 500mm
c. 600mm
d. 800mm
141. Area per person for places of assembly, standing

rooms.
a. 0.18sqm
b. 0.28sqm
c. 0.65sqm
d. 1.40sqm
142. Firewall extension under the eaves, according to the

NBC.
a. 200mm
b. 300mm
c. 400mm
d. 600mm

143. Minimum floor area of a single-occupancy
condominium for medium cost housing.
a. 12sqm
b. 15sqm
c. 18sqm
d. 20sqm
144. Minimum width of a pathwalk, according to BP 220.

a. 2.00m
b. 3.00m
c. 6.50m
d. 8.00m
145. Minimum width of passageway for courts according to

NBC.
a. 1.00m
b. 1.20m
c. 1.50m
d. 2.00m
146. Maximum distance of the required turning space from

a dead end, according to BP 344.
a. 2.00m
b. 3.50m
c. 4.50m
d. 6.00m

147. Maximum height of a flush control device for PWD
toilets, according to BP 344.
a. 800mm from the floor
b. 850mm from the floor
c. 900mm from the floor
d. 1200mm from the floor
148. Minimum width of stairs for OL greater than 10,

according to the NBC
a. 0.75m
b. 0.90m
c. 1.10m
d. 1.50m
149. Minimum depth of tactile strip that needs to be

provided at the top and the bottom of stairs, according
to BP 344.
a. 300mm
b. 500mm
c. 600mm
d. 1200mm
150. Maximum longitudinal gradient of a walkway,

according to BP 344.
a. 1:10
b. 1:12
c. 1:20
d. 1:100

151. Maximum cross gradient of a walkway, according to BP
344.
a. 1:10
b. 1:12
c. 1:20
d. 1:100
152. Maximum projection of gratings from the surface of
the walkway, according to BP 344.
a. 3.0mm
b. 6.5mm
c. 13mm
d. 25mm
153. Minimum clearance of a handrail that is vertically

mounted on top of a ledge, according to BP 344.
a. 30mm
b. 40mm
c. 50mm
d. 60mm
154. Minimum clearance of a handrail that is horizontally

mounted onto a wall, according to BP 344.
a. 20mm
b. 30mm
c. 40mm
d. 50mm

155. Maximum crossing speed for pedestrians prescribed by
BP 344.
a. 0.50m/sec
b. 0.70m/sec
c. 0.90m/sec
d. 1.10m/sec
156. If there are 24 water closet stalls for women and 18

156.
water closet stalls for men (all located on one floor),
how many accessible toilet stalls need to be provided
for the entire floor?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
157. Which is an acceptable height for a doorknob,

a. 925mm
b. 1100mm
c. 1200mm
158. The minimum distance required from a major road

intersection and the ingress point of a traffic
generating building
a. 25m
b. 50m

c. 75m
d. 100m
159. According to the NBC, minimum foundation thickness

for Group A dwellings
a. 150mm
b. 200mm
c. 225mm
d. 250mm
160. Minimum vertical clearance from the top of the
sidewalk to the lowest part of the street canopy (for
pedestrian protection)
a. 2.00m
b. 2.40m
c. 2.70m
d. 3.00m
161. Minimum width of a single-loaded aisle, according to

the NBC.
a. 600mm
b. 750mm
c. 800mm
d. 1200mm
162. Which does NOT require a wet standpipe, according to

the NBC?
a. Group H or I occupancy of any height
b. Group C occupancy 2 or more storeys in height

c. Groups B, D, E F and G 3 or more storeys in height
d. Group H buildings without stage whose seating
capacity is less than 500
163. Maximum inclination of an escalator according to the

NBC
a. 25 degrees from horizontal
b. 25 degrees from vertical
c. 30 degreees from vertical
d. 30 degrees from horizontal
164. For a condominium project with 12 condo units and
which is 900 meters away from the nearest public
park, how much space should be allotted to parks and
playgrounds inside the condo development?
a. 50 sqm
b. 53 sqm
c. 56 sqm
d. The requirement can be waived
165. Minimum width of main door according to BP 220

a. 600mm
b. 700mm
c. 800mm
d. 900mm
166. According to the NBC, what is the minimum rear

setback for R1?
a. 1.50m

b. 2.00m
c. 3.00m
d. 4.50m
167. Minimum area of windows for habitable rooms

according to the NBC
a. 5% of floor area but not less than 240sqmm
b. 5% of floor area but not less than 1sqm
c. 10% of floor area but not less than 240sqmm
d. 10% of floor area but not less than 1sqm
168. The approved form of security furnished by the
Contractor and his Surety as a guarantee of good faith
on the part of the contractor to execute the work in
accordance with the terms of the contract.
a. Proposal bond
b. Payment bond
c. Performance bond
d. Surety

contractor and his surety as a guarantee of good faith
on the part of the Contractor to pay all obligations
arising from the contract.
a. Proposal bond
b. Payment bond
c. Performance bond

contractor and its surety as a guarantee to the quality
of materials and equipment installed and the
workmanship performed by the Contractor.
a. Proposal bond
b. Payment bond
c. Performance bond
171. The person, firm or corporation who provides the
guarantee for the Contractor’s Bonds.
a. Proposal bond
b. Payment bond
c. Performance bond
172. Printed documents stipulating the procedural and the

administrative aspects of the contract.
a. Contract agreement
b. General conditions
c. Special provisions
d. Proposal agreement
173. Shall be understood to mean “Purchase and/or

fabricate and deliver to the jobsite or other location
when so designated.”
a. Work
b. Furnish
c. Provide
d. Install

174. Shall mean to build in, mount in positions, connect or
apply any object specified ready for the intended use.
a. Work
b. Furnish
c. Provide
d. Install
175. Shall be understood to mean “furnish and install”

a. Work
b. Furnish
c. Provide
d. Install
176. When is the work considered “substantially

completed?”
a. When the amount of completed work is equal to 95%
or more of the contract amount
b. When the amount of completed work is equal to 97%
or more of the contract amount
c. When the amount of completed work is equal to
98% or more of the contract amount
d. Only after the Period of Making Good of Known
Defects or Faults
177. The Period of Making Good of Known Defects or Faults

usually lasts for 60 days maximum, unless otherwise
stated in the contract. When does this period begin?
a. When the Certificate of Completion is issued
b. When the contractor receives the Notice to Proceed

c. When the work completed is equivalent to at least
95% of the contract amount
d. Three months after the date of the final payment
178. Unless any agreement otherwise is made, who shall

shoulder the costs for permits and licenses needed for
the project, according to UAP Doc. 301?
a. The owner
b. The architect
c. The contractor
d. The PM
179. Who is responsible for the establishment of boundary

lines of the property?
a. The owner
b. The architect
c. The contractor
d. The PM
180. If there is conflict between the specs and the

drawings, which should be followed?
a. The drawings
b. The specs
c. The service agreement
d. The general conditions
181. Which is not part of the contract documents?

a. General conditions

b. Special provisions
c. Specifications
d. All of these are part of the contract documents
182. Minimum ceiling height for a one-storey artificially

ventilated structure according to NBC
a. 2.10m
b. 2.40m
c. 2.70m
d. 3.00m
183. Area per person for places of assembly, according to
the NBC.
a. 0.28 sqm
b. 0.65 sqm
c. 0.90 sqm
d. 1.40sqm
184. Maximum length of dead ends according to the NBC.

a. 4.50m
b. 6.00m
c. 7.50m
d. 10.00m
185. An architect registered and licensed or permitted to

practice under RA 9266, who is professionally and
academically qualified and with exceptional or
recognized expertise or specialization in any branch of
architecture.

a. Expert architect
b. Consulting architect
c. Foreign consultant
d. Architect of record
186. According to the IRR of RA 9266, the term

“architectural company” is considered synonymous to
a. Sole proprietorship
b. Partnership
c. Corporation
d. All of the above
187. The proprietary rights retained by an architect over
any architectural work that he prepares, including the
right to control the erection of any building which
reproduces his design whether in whole or in part.
a. Copyright
b. Ownership
c. Authorship
d. Statute of limitations
188. If any additional drawing issued by the architect during

construction involves additional cost due to changes
from the original design, is the contractor entitled to
charge additional costs to the owner?
a. No. The cost must be charged to the architect because
it is he who issued the drawings and the changes
contained in the drawing.

b. No. The contract is fixed and cannot be changed, so
the contractor needs to follow the original design.
c. Yes, as long as he gives written notice to the
architect regarding the extra cost within 15
days of receiving the instruction.
d. Yes, but owner has the right to charge the cost to the
architect because the owner did not order the change.
189. The proprietary rights to an architectural work by a

person who commissions the Architect for the said
work. These proprietary rights shall be limited to use
of the design for one project only.
a. Copyright
b. Ownership
c. Authorship
d. Statute of limitations
190. Which is not a document that needs to be submitted

when applying to take the licensure examination for
architects?
a. Certificate of Live Birth in National Statistics Office
(NSO) Security Paper
b. Marriage Contract in NSO Security Paper for
married male applicants
c. National Bureau of Investigation (NBI) Clearance
d. All of these are required
191. Who decides on the design of the Architect’s seal?

a. The IAPOA

b. The PRBArch
c. The President of the Philippines
d. The architect is free to choose his own seal design
192. The provision of RA 9266 regarding the ownership of

plans, specifications, and other contract documents
needs to be incorporated by all architects in all
contract documents and other instruments of service.
Which is this provision?
a. Section 23 of RA 9266
b. Section 32 of RA 9266
c. Section 22 of RA 9266
d. Section 33 of RA 9266
193. What happens when the architect is only able to

193.
condemn inferior work a month before substantial
completion?
a. The contractor still needs to rectify it because it
is inferior work, at no cost to the owner.
b. The contractor will rectify the inferior work but will
charge the cost of rectification to the owner because
the condemnation period expires no later than 6
months from substantial completion.
c. Since the condemnation period has already expired,
the owner may cross charge to the architect the cost
for rectification. This may be deducted from the
architect’s remaining fee for construction supervision.
d. Both B and C

194. In order for a corporation to be registered for the
corporate practice of architecture, at least ____ of the
owners, shareholders, members, etc. of that firm must
be RLAs.
a. 1/4
b. 1/2
c. 3/4
d. Majority (50% + 1)
195. Who shall nominate persons for the vacant positions in

the PRBArch?
a. The President of the Philippines
b. The UAP as the IAPOA
c. The other board members
d. Any RLA is entitled to make nominations for the
vacancy
196. Foreign nationals must work with a Filipino counterpart
in order to perform architectural services on Philippine
soil. Between them, who shall be the architect of
record?
a. The foreign national
b. The Filipino counterpart
c. Either of the two
d. Both of them
197. According to UAP Document 301, who shall be

responsible for making the necessary arrangements
with utility companies to provide water, power, and
telephone services to the jobsite?

a. The owner
b. The architect
c. The construction manager
d. The contractor
198. If any section of the IRR of RA 9266 is declared

unconstitutional, what happens to the other sections of
the IRR?
a. They shall be invalidated as well
b. They shall not be affected
c. They need to be passed into law again in order to take
effect
d. Their validity will be cast in doubt
199. Which is not true about the IAPOA?

a. The UAP is the current IAPOA
b. The IAPOA must be a non-profit, non-stock corporation
c. The IAPOA must be registered with the DTI and
the PRBOA
d. All registered architects automatically become
members of the IAPOA
200. What is the minimum average score required to pass

the board exam?
a. 50%
b. 60%
c. 70%
d. 75%

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PP & BLDG LAWS

Preboard Examination (With Answers)

1. Construction in a building involving changes in the

2. The transfer of buildings or portions thereof from an

Professional Practice Laws Page 1

4. Which of the following is NOT true about the building

5. Which of the following violations is the gravest,

Professional Practice Laws Page 2

7. Which of the following does NOT require a building

8. What is the minimum distance required between eaves

Professional Practice Laws Page 3

10. A written authorization granted by the Building Official

11. According to Rule II of the NBC IRR, which does not

Professional Practice Laws Page 4

12. Firewalls are not allowed for R1 developments.

Professional Practice Laws Page 5

15. For a sloping lot with a 2.00m difference between the

Professional Practice Laws Page 6

Professional Practice Laws Page 7

20. What is the minimum area for habitable rooms,

22. What is the minimum width for an access road serving

Professional Practice Laws Page 8

24. For agricultural areas, the NBC requires at least _____

25. Townhouses characterize which zoning classification?

26. According to Article 1723 of the Civil Code, who shall

Professional Practice Laws Page 9

Professional Practice Laws Page 10

27. Before using or occupying a completed building, this

28. The Building Code requires that the owner hire a

29. What are the allowable firewall configurations for an R3

Professional Practice Laws Page 11

31. This uses wood construction with protective

32. The provisions of the National Building Code apply to

Professional Practice Laws Page 12

34. Type II constructions are not allowed in which zones?

35. On a non-arcaded RROW, signs may be allowed to

36. Should a sign be allowed to project beyond the

Professional Practice Laws Page 13

38. According to the NBC, the maximum speed of

39. According to the NBC, the minimum stairway width for

Professional Practice Laws Page 14

41. Every fence or building corner must be truncated at the

42. Which formula could be used to yield building bulk?

43. Which would be included when obtaining GFA?

Professional Practice Laws Page 15

45. For ramps using the maximum allowable slope, a

Professional Practice Laws Page 16

Professional Practice Laws Page 17

48. Handrails are required for ramps, stairs, and dropped

49. What is the minimum width of an accessible parking

50. What is required to be provided at the bottom and the

Professional Practice Laws Page 18

51. What are the minimum dimensions of a toilet stall for

52. What are the minimum dimensions required for

53. What is the maximum travel distance allowed for

Professional Practice Laws Page 19

55. What is the minimum clear width for doors according to

56. A central refuge area with a minimum depth of 1.50m

57. Fires involving energized electrical equipment are

Professional Practice Laws Page 20

59. A type of standpipe system in which the pipes are

60. What is the maximum allowable riser height for stairs in

61. What is the minimum tread width for stairs in BP 220?