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Here’s an example from Dixit and Pindyck (pp. 26-35). Suppose a firm is trying to
decide whether to buy a machine. The investment is irreversible. We can purchase
the machine today at a cost, I, and the machine will produce one unit of output per
year forever, with zero operating cost. The current output price is $200, but next
year the price will change. With probability q, it will rise to $300, and with
probability (1-q), it will fall to $100. The price will remain at the new level forever. To
keep things simple, we assume that the price risk is fully diversifiable, so we discount
cash flows at a riskless rate of 10%. Let I = $1600, and q = 0.5. Given these values, is
this a good investment?
NPV = -1600 +200 +[(0.5)300+(0.5)100]/0.1
= -1600+2200 =+$600
How much is it worth to have the flexibility to make the investment decision next
year, rather than a now or never decision today? An estimate of the value of this
flexibility option is the difference between the two NAP’s we calculated above, i.e.,
$773-$600 =$173.
That is, option value = NPV purchase next year - NPV purchase today
=$773 -$600 =$173
Another way to look at this is to ask the question, “ how high an investment cost, I,
would we be willing to accept to have a flexible investment opportunity rather than a
‘now or never’ one?” That is, we can solve for the value for I that makes the value of
the delayed project equal to the immediate project: