AP ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE Scoring Guide

AP REVIEW

1. This biome contains plants that are adapted to prevent water loss due to the low average rainfall and high
temperatures year-round.
(A) Savanna
(B) Boreal forest
(C) Tropical rain forest
(D) Desert

2. A farm is experiencing extensive crop loss due to high rains causing overly saturated soils. Which of the following
approaches would best help the farmer alleviate the problem?
(A) Fertilizing the area with manure to eliminate the need for inorganic chemical fertilizers
(B) Amending the soil with clay to increase the water-holding capacity of the soil
(C) Amending the soil with sand to increase the permeability of the soil
(D) Using contour plowing to decrease soil erosion

3. Which of the following statements is true of aquatic biomes?

(A) Freshwater and marine biomes are evenly distributed on Earth.
(B) Freshwater biomes are a vital source of drinking water.
(C) Freshwater biomes supply a greater portion of Earth’s oxygen than marine biomes.
(D) Marine biomes include streams, rivers, ponds, and lakes.

4. This layer of Earth’s atmosphere has the highest density of any atmospheric layer and contains most of the water
vapor in the atmosphere.
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

5. This layer of Earth’s atmosphere contains the fewest molecules of the layers shown, and the low density of gas
leads to very few molecules transferring heat to an object. In this layer, ultraviolet radiation causes
photodissociation of molecules, creating ions.
(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

6. This biome has the highest net primary productivity, in part because of consistently warm temperatures and
abundant sunlight.

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(A) Temperate grassland

(B) Taiga
(C) Tropical rainforest
(D) Tundra

7. The underlying subsoil of this biome is permafrost, which prevents both water draining through and deep-rooted
plants from growing. Additionally, there is very little precipitation per year.
(A) Temperate grassland
(B) Taiga
(C) Tropical rainforest
(D) Tundra

8. The thick forest of this biome tends to be well adapted to short growing seasons.
(A) Temperate grassland
(B) Taiga
(C) Tropical rainforest
(D) Tundra

9. Scientists are closely monitoring caribou populations to examine the effect of global climate change on habitat. The
maximum population size for a herd of caribou based on the amount of habitat was . A herd of caribou
currently has a population size of caribou as a result of habitat loss. Which of the following methods
should be used to determine the percent change between the maximum population and the current population for
this herd of caribou?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

10. Which of the following changes would most likely lead to a mammal population exceeding its carrying capacity?
(A) An increase in mortality of adults during mating season
(B) A decrease in the food supply immediately after offspring are born
(C) An increase in the number of predators immediately after offspring are born
(D) A decrease in the number adult females during mating season

11. The Chatham Island robin is a small endangered bird found in scrub forests off the coast of New Zealand. The robin
is preyed upon by introduced species such as cats and rats. In 1980, the population decreased to only individuals
and every individual today is a descendant of a single female. Which of the following is best illustrated in the
decline of the Chatham Island robins?

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(A) Carrying capacity

(B) Population bottleneck
(C) Population overshoot
(D) Type survivorship

12. Which of the following biomes is best characterized as an area that forms the narrow band along the coast that
experiences a range of environmental conditions (including daily changes in sunlight, temperature, and water) ?
(A) Open ocean
(B) Lakes
(C) Coral reefs
(D) Intertidal zones

13. Which of the following would be categorized as a cultural ecosystem service of forests?

(A) Recreation and scenic areas for tourism

(B) Timber and landscape materials
(C) Mushroom and plant harvests
(D) Soil stabilization and air purification

14. The many finch species of the Galápagos Islands evolved from a single species that immigrated to the islands from
the coast of South America. These species differ primarily in beak shape, which is closely related to the type of food
each species specializes in eating.

Which of the following best explains why each of the finch species on the Galápagos Islands evolved to be
specialists?
(A) Islands have limited food resources, forcing species to feed on a small range of food items.
(B) Climate on islands tends to be less variable than on the mainland, minimizing seasonal absences of food.
(C) Reduced competition from other bird species allows finch species to focus on specific food resources.
Food resources on islands are more plentiful and nutrient rich than on the mainland, leading to specialist
(D)
behaviors in feeding.

15. A country has a birth rate of individuals and a death rate of individuals. The death rate was
individuals in 1950, individuals in 1970, and individuals in 1990. Which of the following statements
best explains why the country has a declining death rate?
The country is in stage 1 of the demographic transition, and infant mortality is high because of poor
(A)
health services and high levels of poverty.
The country is in stage 2 of the demographic transition, and life expectancy has increased because of
(B)
improvements in public health, sanitation, and access to food.
The country is in stage 3 of the demographic transition, and more women are entering the workforce and
(C)
shifting to having children later in life.
(D) The country is in stage 4 of the demographic transition, and the population growth rate is declining.

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16. Which of the following would most likely result from the deforestation of large areas of tropical rain forests caused
by slash-and-burn agriculture?
(A) Increased ozone thinning because of the release of CFCs
(B) Decreased acid rain because of the sequestration of
(C) Increased global temperature because of the release of
(D) Deceased evaporation because of the loss of the tree canopy

17. In a certain country, the birth rate is high, the death rate is high, and there are many children that are part of the
workforce. The country is most likely in which of the following stages of the demographic transition?
(A) Stage 1
(B) Stage 2
(C) Stage 3
(D) Stage 4

18. Which of the following best describes a density-independent factor that controls population size?
(A) Competition for resources like food and water
(B) Infectious disease transmission
(C) Occurrences of droughts and flooding
(D) Reduced availability of habitat

19. The supply of Earth’s fresh water is fixed and is being depleted at a rapid rate. Which of the following best
describes the effects of a limited freshwater supply on human populations?
(A) Disease transmission will decrease as access to water decreases, leading to improved public health.
Conservation measures will increase per capita water consumption, leading to an improved global
(B)
economy.
Desalinization facilities will be used to process water stored in glaciers and snow packs, leading to new
(C)
sources of drinking water.
(D) World food production will decrease, leading to increased famine.

20. Which of the following best describes a transform boundary?

(A) An area where two tectonic plates move away from each other
(B) An area where two tectonic plates slide past one another
(C) An area where two or more tectonic plates collide
(D) An area where two or more tectonic plates fuse together at a suture zone

21. Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following is the most likely reason that an island in the
ocean that is 5 kilometers from a continent would have a higher number of species than one that is 15 kilometers
from a continent?

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(A) There are more species that have the ability to travel 5 kilometers than can travel 15 kilometers.
(B) Islands that are closer to continents always have a wider range of habitats than more distant islands do.
(C) There are smaller populations of each species on islands that are at greater distances from continents.
(D) Islands that are closer to continents always have more ecological niches than more distant islands do.

22. Human population growth in 2018 was . If this rate of growth remains constant, in what year will the human
population double?
(A) 2083
(B) 2088
(C) 2092
(D) 3904

23. Which of the following best explains why the lower portion of the troposphere is warmer than the upper portion?
The lower portion of the troposphere is separated by the ozone layer from the upper portion, so the
(A)
lower portion absorbs more sunlight, increasing the temperature.
The air in the lower portion of the troposphere is less dense than the air in the upper portion, leading to a
(B)
higher temperature in the lower portion.
The surface of Earth absorbs sunlight, heating the lower portion of the troposphere more than the upper
(C)
part.
The troposphere is the highest layer of the atmosphere, so the lower portion is warmed more than the
(D)
upper part by rising air.

24. Which of the following is a measure of the biodiversity of an ecosystem?

(A) The total number of individuals of a single animal species
(B) The density of individuals in a hectare
(C) The total number of different plant species
(D) The soil depth at which burrowing insects are located

25. Which of the following best describes gross primary productivity in an ecosystem?
Gross primary productivity is the total amount of energy captured by producers plus the energy used by
(A)
consumers over time.
Gross primary productivity is the total amount of energy captured by producers minus the energy that
(B)
producers respire over time.
Gross primary productivity is the total amount of energy lost as heat during energy transfer between
(C)
trophic levels.
Gross primary productivity is the total amount of solar energy captured by producers through
(D)
photosynthesis over time.

26. Which of the following best describes the net primary productivity of an ecosystem?

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Net primary productivity is the amount of energy captured by producers through photosynthesis
(A)
over time.
(B) Net primary productivity is the amount of energy lost by producers through respiration over time.
Net primary productivity is the amount of energy lost through respiration by producers subtracted from
(C)
the gross primary productivity of an ecosystem.
Net primary productivity is the amount of energy lost through respiration by producers added to the
(D)
gross primary productivity of an ecosystem.

27. Which of the following correctly describes the disruption of an ecosystem service by an anthropogenic activity?
Provisioning services are disrupted by increased combustion of fossil fuels, which leads to an increase in
(A)
air pollution.
Regulating services are disrupted by flash flooding from a hurricane, which decreases available food
(B)
resources.
Supporting services are disrupted by an earthquake that causes habitat destruction, which displaces
(C)
plants and animals.
Cultural services are disrupted by a tornado that causes the loss of acres of forest, which reduces the
(D)
amount of harvestable timber.

28. A research team monitoring a local freshwater ecosystem noticed that over the past few years the otter population
had declined significantly, while the populations of other species remained fairly constant. After running tests, the
research team determined that mercury levels in invertebrates and small fish in the ecosystem were very high. In
this ecosystem, what role did the otters occupy?
(A) Pioneer species
(B) Indicator species
(C) Primary consumer
(D) -selected species

29. In a given ecosystem, producers convert solar energy into of chemical energy stored in organic
compounds. Which of the following is the most likely amount of energy available to secondary consumers?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

30. Which of the following best describes the movement of energy in an ecosystem?
(A) Energy is constantly recycled by decomposers for use by producers.
(B) Energy is harnessed by producers, and available energy decreases with each trophic level transfer.
Energy is absorbed by plants through water and soil and then moves up the food chain through
(C)
consumers.
Energy is magnified as it moves up the trophic levels, and tertiary consumers store the most energy in a
(D)
food web.

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31. The Cretaceous-Tertiary extinction event was caused when an asteroid impacted Earth approximately 66 million
years ago, near what is now the Gulf of Mexico. The indirect effects of the impact affected the entire globe. The
event resulted in the extinction of nearly 75 percent of all plant and animal species on Earth, including the majority
of dinosaur species.

Which of the following likely best describes why most of these species went extinct?
(A) Direct effects from the impact
(B) Loss of competitors
(C) Increase in genetic diversity in most species
(D) Rapid climate and habitat change

32. Five different species of warblers, seed-eating birds, live in the same species of conifer trees. All of the birds
migrate to coniferous forests during the summer, and different species reside in different areas in the same tree.
They feed on the seeds of the conifer trees, but the different species do not mate with each other.

Which of the following best explains why the different warbler species can all have habitats in the same conifer
trees?
Not all the warblers are residents in the forest at the same time of the year because of different migration
(A)
patterns.
Physiological differences in beak structure allow the warblers to consume different species of seeds
(B)
through symbiotic relationships.
Resource partitioning of the seeds reduces competition, and the five different species can live in the
(C)
same tree.
Niche overlap occurs between the five different species, and living in the same tree increases
(D)
competition for seeds.

33. Scientists calculated the net primary productivity at two different forest sites. Both forests have the same gross
primary productivity. Forest has a net primary productivity of , and forest has a net
primary productivity of .

Which of the following statements is best supported by the data?

(A) Forest has a higher rate of decomposition by bacteria than forest .
(B) Forest has more biodiversity than forest .
(C) Forest producers have lower rates of cellular respiration than forest producers.
(D) Forest producers have more biomass than forest producers.

34. Which of the following methods will give the best prediction for how long it will take the human population to
double if the global growth rate is percent?

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(A) Number of years

(B) Number of years
(C) Number of years
(D) Number of years

35. Which of the following agricultural practices would most likely lead to improved water quality in nearby streams
and rivers?
(A) Using crop rotation in fields
(B) Using nitrogen and phosphorous fertilizers
(C) Converting crop fields to cattle pasture
(D) Clear-cutting areas around crop fields

36. Which of the following can be interpreted from an age-structure diagram of a country?
(A) The maximum age when women give birth
(B) The total fertility rate of the population
(C) The relative population growth rate of the population
(D) The carrying capacity of the local environment

37. Primary producers in a lake ecosystem store approximately of energy in their biomass.
Which of the following identifies the most likely amount of energy available to a tertiary consumer in this
ecosystem?
(A)

(B)
(C)
(D)

38.
Which of the following statements about levels of biodiversity is correct?
(A) Genetic biodiversity is a measure of the total number of genes in a community.
(B) A narrow distribution of habitats leads to an increase in species diversity.
(C) Global hotspots are areas where species diversity is thriving due to habitat restoration.
(D) A population with high genetic biodiversity is better able to respond to environmental stressors.

39. Which of the following best explains how environmental stressors, such as wildfires, can affect biodiversity in an
ecosystem?

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(A) After an environmental stress, a genetic bottleneck may occur, which will increase genetic diversity.
Habitat diversity will increase the available niches if the landscape becomes more uniform after a
(B)
disturbance.
Ecosystems with more species diversity are more likely to recover after a disturbance than ecosystems
(C)
with low species diversity.
Smaller populations are less likely to go extinct than larger populations, so the species diversity will
(D)
remain constant.

40. The city of London in the United Kingdom is found approximately at the same latitude as the city of Calgary in
Canada. Calgary has an average high temperature in December of degrees Celsius, while London has an
average high temperature of degrees Celsius.

Which of the following statements best explains why the average temperature of London is warmer than that of
Calgary in December?
(A) Oceanic currents warm the atmosphere in London.
The solar radiation reaching London is more perpendicular than the solar radiation that reaches Calgary
(B)
in December.
(C) London is farther from the North Pole than Calgary is.
(D) The Hadley cell converges over London and pushes warm air toward the surface.

41. This biome is characterized by long dry seasons and is dominated by grasses, shrubs, and grazing animals.

(A) Savanna
(B) Boreal forest
(C) Tropical rain forest
(D) Desert

42. Which of the following best describes the change in the carrying capacity of the human population if growth is
limited by conditions set forth by the Malthusian theory?
(A) The carrying capacity will increase, and the human population size will grow exponentially.
(B) The carrying capacity will remain constant, and the human population size will stabilize.
(C) The carrying capacity will remain constant, and the human population size will experience an overshoot.
(D) The carrying capacity will decrease, and the human population size will experience a dieback.

43. In which of the following atmospheric layers does most weather occur?

(A) Troposphere
(B) Stratosphere
(C) Mesosphere
(D) Thermosphere

44. Which of the following is the primary energy source for producers in near-surface marine communities?

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(A) Solar energy from the Sun

(B) Carbon dioxide from consumers
(C) Oxygen in the atmosphere
(D) Heat from Earth’s interior

45. Which of the following is the most abundant gas by volume in the atmosphere?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

46. Which process in the nitrogen cycle releases nitrogen gas into the atmosphere?
(A) Leaching of fertilizers from agricultural areas
(B) Assimilation of soil nitrates by plants
(C) Bacteria fixation of nitrogen in soil
(D) Denitrification of soil nitrates by bacteria

47. A team at a university in Pennsylvania has concerns about the health of streams in a watershed because of the
various land uses in the area. There has been an increase in road repair work, and the area has many dairy farms.
Which of the following would be most effective at preventing sediment runoff into the streams of the watershed?
(A) Have construction crews steepen the slopes of the valleys of streams near roadwork zones.
(B) Maintain zones of grass at least wide on the sides of streams in the area.
(C) Construct at least one dam on a stream in the watershed to improve flood control.
(D) Shift from dairy farming to corn planted in agricultural fields located within of streams.

48. Which of the following is a primary cause of El Niño climate variations?

(A) Reversals of Hadley cell circulation in the Atlantic Ocean
(B) Increased dust blowing into the Atlantic Ocean from the Sahara desert
(C) Warmer surface waters in the Pacific Ocean
(D) Reduced deep-water upwelling in the Pacific Ocean

Algae in an aquatic food chain convert solar energy into kilocalories of plant tissue.

49. Which of the following values best represents the amount of energy available for primary consumers in the food
chain?

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(A) kilocalories
(B) kilocalories
(C) kilocalories
(D) kilocalories

50. Which of the following values best represents the amount of energy available for secondary consumers in the food
chain?
(A) kilocalories
(B) kilocalories
(C) kilocalories
(D) kilocalories

51. Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is correctly paired with its largest reservoir?
(A) The hydrologic cycle and living things
(B) The nitrogen cycle and the atmosphere
(C) The phosphorus cycle and bacteria
(D) The carbon cycle and glaciers

52. Which of the following best describes why secondary succession generally occurs more quickly than primary
succession?
Secondary succession is not hindered by the presence of any existing vegetation, but primary succession
(A)
is.
Secondary succession takes place in areas that already have soil and nutrients in place, whereas primary
(B)
succession occurs in areas that lack soil.
Secondary succession includes the return of plants and animal species, whereas primary succession
(C)
includes only the return of plants.
Secondary succession requires pioneer species, including lichen and mosses, in the earliest stages, but
(D)
primary succession does not.

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53. Based on the data in the graph, which of the following is closest to the average population growth rate per year from
year to year in the rabbit population?
(A) rabbits per year
(B) rabbits per year
(C) rabbits per year
(D) rabbits per year

54. Raccoons eat a variety of foods and can live in a variety of habitats, including locations near humans. Tiger
salamanders eat an abundance of worms and insects and require wetland habitats so they do not dry out. Which of
the following best identifies the two different species?
(A) Raccoons are decomposers, and tiger salamanders are scavengers.
(B) Raccoons are carnivores, and tiger salamanders are herbivores.
(C) Raccoons are generalists, and salamanders are specialists.
(D) Raccoons have a Type II survivorship curve, and tiger salamanders have a Type I survivorship curve.

55. Organisms adapted to surviving in water with the widest range of salinity would most likely be native species in
which of the following marine environments?

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(A) An offshore barrier reef

(B) An estuary within a lagoon
(C) The ocean covering the abyssal plain
(D) The photic zone in the open ocean

56. Earth currently rotates on an axis at an angle of 23.5 degrees. If that axis changed to 20 degrees, so that the axis was
closer to vertical, which of the following would be expected to occur?
(A) The number of days in a year would be reduced.
(B) Earth would experience increased volcanic activity.
(C) The amount of energy Earth receives from the Sun would increase.
(D) Earth would experience a change in seasonal timing and length.

57. A square-kilometer ( ) small island is found from the mainland. A second, larger,
island is found from the mainland. Based on the theory of island biogeography, which
of the following statements is most likely true about the small island when compared with the large island?
(A) The rate of immigration is lower for the small island than for the large island.
(B) The small island has niches that are more like the mainland than the large island.
(C) The small island has more available resources than the large island.
(D) The rate of species extinction is lower on the small island than on the large island.

58. Which of the following properties is most likely associated with soils that contain more sand-sized particles than
soils that contain more clay-sized particles?
(A) High permeability
(B) Low erosion rate
(C) High density
(D) Low organic content

59. Salamanders, ospreys, snapping turtles, and beavers all live in aquatic habitats. Salamanders lay their eggs in small
freshwater pools and feed on insects. Osprey habitats include rivers, bays, and swamps and the birds feed on fish
and other animals in the water or on land. Snapping turtles live in fresh or brackish water and feed on plants, fish,
frogs, and snakes. Beavers build lodges on islands, pond banks, and lake shores and eat a variety of shrubs, grasses,
and crops.

Based on the information provided above, which of the following species would best be classified as a specialist?
(A) Salamanders
(B) Ospreys
(C) Snapping turtles
(D) Beavers

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60. In a fish species, the number of eggs that hatch and survive for one year varies depending on the number of eggs
that were produced. As the number of eggs produced increases past a threshold number, the survival rate of the
offspring decreases. Which of the following statements best explains why only a limited number of offspring can
survive in a fish population?
(A) Resource partitioning allows similar species to coexist in the same ecological community.
(B) The number of fish surviving after one year is proportional to the number of eggs produced.
The chance of survival decreases when there is intraspecific competition for resources among surviving
(C)
yearlings.
(D) More yearling fish survive beyond one year when there is an abundance of prey species present.

61. Which of the following best describes a symbiotic relationship?

(A) Striped bass and bluefish eat the same variety of mackerel.
(B) Intestinal bacteria inhabit the gut of humans.
(C) Mountain lions feed on white-tailed deer.
(D) Marsupial animals carry their young in a pouch.

62. Which of the following is the best method for preventing soil erosion in an agricultural area?
(A) Slash-and-burn agriculture
(B) Integrated pest management
(C) Monocrop farming
(D) Terrace farming

63. Which of the following best explains why terrestrial trophic pyramids usually do not have levels higher than tertiary
consumers?
(A) Tertiary consumers are the largest organisms in an ecosystem and require the most space to survive.
Plants can only perform photosynthesis during the day, so tertiary consumers cannot get enough energy
(B)
from consuming plants.
A large proportion of energy is lost as heat as it is transferred up the pyramid, so there is not enough
(C)
energy available to support another level.
Tertiary consumers are often indicator species and are the first to be affected by environmental
(D)
disturbances.

64. Highly specialized species tend to evolve on islands because of the environmental conditions and resource
availability.

Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following would most likely experience the greatest
decline of specialist species if an invasive species emigrated from the mainland?

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(A) A small island a far distance from the mainland

(B) A small island in close proximity to the mainland
(C) A large island a far distance from the mainland
(D) A large island in close proximity to the mainland

65. In 1950, a country had a total fertility rate of 5.9. In 2010, the total fertility rate of the country was 2.3. Which of the
following is most likely the reason for the change in total fertility rate?
(A) Women had increased educational opportunities and had children later in life.
(B) Families had limited access to family planning and contraceptives.
(C) There were lower infant mortality rates as a result of increased access to healthcare.
(D) The country shifted to a more agricultural-based economy and the need for child labor decreased.

66. Two bird species coexist by feeding on the same type of insects in different parts of a tree. One bird species hunts
insects near the top of the tree. The other bird species hunts insects near the base of the tree. Which of the following
concepts is demonstrated between the two bird species?
(A) Predator-prey
(B) Resource partitioning
(C) Mutualism
(D) Parasitism

67. The Venus flytrap is a carnivorous plant that grows best in nutrient-poor, acidic soil. They typically grow in certain
longleaf pine savanna ecosystems in the Carolinas. Which of the following terms best describes this species?
(A) A keystone species, because it is carnivorous.
(B) A generalist species, because it is advantaged in changing habitats.
(C) An invasive species, because it competes with other plants for water and sunlight.
(D) A specialist species, because it thrives only in soils with low and nutrient levels.

68. This biome is warm and wet, with little seasonal variation in temperature and frequent precipitation.
(A) Savanna
(B) Boreal forest
(C) Tropical rain forest
(D) Desert

69. Which of the following best describes why understanding a watershed and its boundaries is important in designing
housing developments along a river?

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The water contained in a watershed is more likely to become polluted if the soil has high permeability,
(A)
so it is important to locate all point sources to reduce contamination.
Watersheds provide habitats for hundreds of marine species, so it is important to protect their feeding
(B)
and nesting sites when designing housing for humans.
Watersheds provide space for cultivating land to produce food and other products, so it is important to
(C)
avoid locating a housing development on the most fertile land.
Surface water and stormwater runoff will drain downstream within the watershed boundaries, so it is
(D)
important to understand the flow of water through the watershed.

70. Which of the following should be included in a watershed map to best determine the non–point source of a
pollutant, such as fertilizer, found in a river?
(A) The total volume of groundwater in the aquifer
(B) The total area and the average yearly precipitation of the watershed
The land use upstream of the river and water quality indicators in streams that run downstream into the
(C)
river
(D) The total volume of surface water of the river and the land use downstream of the river

71. Which of the following best describes an environmental advantage of urbanization?

Individuals living in cities have more varied employment opportunities than individuals living in rural
(A)
areas.
(B) Individuals living in cities have greater access to health care than individuals living in rural areas.
Individuals living in cities usually have greater access to fresh, local agricultural products than
(C)
individuals living in rural areas.
Individuals living in cities usually have a lower transportation carbon footprint than individuals living in
(D)
rural areas.

72. Farmers need to make many decisions about how they grow their crops. One of these decisions is whether to use
synthetic fertilizer or organic fertilizer, such as manure.

An advantage of using synthetic fertilizer instead of organic fertilizer is that

(A) synthetic fertilizer can provide more targeted macronutrients to the crops
synthetic fertilizer remains in the soil longer than organic fertilizer does, reducing the volume needed
(B)
and, therefore, the cost to the farmer
(C) synthetic fertilizer adds to soil texture and increases the soil's water-holding capacity
(D) organic fertilizer runs off more readily into waterways, leading to nutrient overload

73. Which of the following is a direct economic advantage associated with aquaculture?
(A) Aquaculture breeds genetically modified fish to increase the amount of biodiversity in the population.
(B) Aquaculture reduces the number of fishing operations in an area.
(C) Aquaculture produces large amounts of seafood for human purchase and consumption year-round.
(D) Aquaculture requires large bodies of water for its operations.

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74. Which of the following locations would most likely receive acid deposition?
(A) A major city receiving its electricity from hydroelectric sources
(B) A town downwind from a coal-fired power plant
(C) A large lake downstream from a concentrated animal feeding operation
(D) A stream flowing through agricultural land

75. Which of the following accurately describes a benefit of concentrated animal feeding operations ?
Concentrated animal feeding operations produce a large amount of manure, which is then often held in
(A)
large manure lagoons.
The animals raised in concentrated animal feeding operations are usually grass-fed and therefore less
(B)
susceptible to disease.
Concentrated animal feeding operations are efficient and relatively low-cost facilities that help keep
(C)
consumer costs low.
When animals are kept in large concentrations in a small area, the water quality of local waterways is
(D)
protected from excess runoff.

76. Which of the following best describes legislation that could be used to address problems with overfishing?
The Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora ( ) uses
(A)
trade rules to protect commercially valuable species.
(B) The Clean Water Act regulates the discharge of pollutants in surface waters.
The Resource Conservation and Recovery Act ( ) provides guidelines for the management of
(C)
aquatic resources.
The Delaney Clause of the Food, Drug, and Cosmetic Act regulates the harvesting of fish species for
(D)
human consumption.

77. Which of the following changes to the local hydrologic cycle will result if large areas of land experienced clear-
cutting?
(A) Transpiration of water from vegetation will increase.
(B) Evaporation of water from the soil will increase.
(C) Runoff from watersheds will decrease.
(D) Siltation of local streams will decrease.

78. Which of the following is the most likely result from clearing mature, forested land and converting it into
agricultural land that would be used for cattle grazing?
(A) There will be a decrease in the amount of runoff into nearby streams.
(B) There will be a reduction in the emission of greenhouse gases released into the atmosphere.
(C) There will be an increase in the diversity and size of primary producers.
(D) There will be a reduction in the uptake of atmospheric carbon dioxide.

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79. The excessive pumping of groundwater from wells can influence the water levels below ground. Which of the
following is more likely to occur in aquifers in coastal areas than in aquifers in other regions?
(A) Upward movement of the water table
(B) Saltwater intrusion into the aquifers
(C) The formation of a cone of depression
(D) An increased rate of recharge from precipitation

80. Industrial logging threatens many forested ecosystems. Which of the following environmental consequences will
most likely result from clear-cutting deciduous forests for logging?
(A) More carbon dioxide will be added to the atmosphere and increase anthropogenic climate change.
(B) Farmers will be able to utilize more land, resulting in a decrease in the number of floods.
Less oxygen will be used by the trees, so more oxygen will be in the atmosphere for humans and other
(C)
animals to use.
The regulating services of the area, such as nutrient cycling and water regulation, would increase with
(D)
fewer trees in the landscape.

81. Which of the following is an unintended environmental consequence of aquaculture?

(A) Meeting an increasing demand for seafood
(B) Decreasing the prevalence of disease in nearby wild fish
(C) Contamination of surrounding water by organic waste
(D) High initial cost of facility

82. Which of the following solutions would help decrease flood frequencies and flood sizes that are caused by
urbanization?
(A) Using new, more permeable materials for roads and sidewalks
(B) Filling nearby wetlands to reduce the amount of water in an area
(C) Encouraging construction of housing developments outward into nearby suburban and rural areas
(D) Installing new, more energy-efficient appliances in existing apartment buildings

83. One way that consumers can help prevent a decrease in the number of fish species that are experiencing population
declines is to
help get laws passed that allow more fishing in areas that are not fished currently, therefore opening
(A)
access to greater numbers of fish
purchase fish harvested through the use of purse seining and long-lining methods so that only the largest
(B)
fish are caught
invest in companies that fish near coral reefs, which would take pressure off deep-sea species and
(C)
eliminate the need for advances in technology
eat fish that are caught using sustainable harvesting methods, therefore ensuring fish populations remain
(D)
stable and reducing the amount bycatch harvested

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84. A major environmental problem caused by using the agricultural practice of tilling is

(A) eutrophication from excessive fertilizer use

(B) ozone depletion from fossil fuel use
(C) intercropping by traditional farmers
(D) compaction of soil from adding compost

85. Which of the following techniques is a realistic solution for farmers to decrease the amount of fertilizer and
sediment runoff into aquatic ecosystems?
(A) Using integrated pest management
(B) Switching from drip irrigation to furrow irrigation in fields
(C) Practicing crop rotation
(D) Applying manure immediately before precipitation occurs

86. Which of the following best achieves the goal of providing wood products for humans while preserving
biodiversity?
(A) Clear-cutting of large areas of old-growth forest
(B) Selective cutting of large areas of old-growth forest
(C) Using prescribed burns in large areas of old-growth forest
(D) Planting large tree plantations in abandoned farm fields

87. Which of the following best describes a disadvantage of using genetically engineered crops over crops that are not
genetically modified?
(A) Genetically engineered plants can decrease the genetic diversity of the crop.
(B) Genetically engineered plants require greater use of pesticides.
(C) Genetically engineered plants require more land to grow on.
(D) Genetically engineered plants are more likely to spread disease throughout the crop.

88. Which of the following is a natural source of atmospheric carbon dioxide?

(A) Decay of uranium in igneous rock
(B) Decomposition of organic matter
(C) Photosynthesis of terrestrial plants and ocean plankton
(D) Formation of rocks on the ocean floor

89. Integrated pest management ( ) uses a variety of techniques to reduce pest populations while reducing the
economic damage caused by pests.

Which of the following techniques is a mechanical method for reducing pests?

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(A) The use of a predator or parasites to keep the population size of pest species low
(B) The use of screens or traps to prevent pests from entering the crop area
(C) The use of monocultures to keep the population size of pest species low
(D) The use of pesticides sprayed on fields to kill pests and keep population sizes low

90. Which of the following irrigation methods is most likely to result in salinization of the soil, especially if the
agricultural fields are located in a warm climate with consistent sunlight?
(A) Spray irrigation
(B) Furrow irrigation
(C) Flood irrigation
(D) Drip irrigation

91. Which of the following is the most likely unintended consequence of using pesticides in agriculture?
Pesticides increase the amount of vegetation available for cattle in free range grazing, which causes the
(A)
cattle to graze over a larger land area.
Pesticides can contaminate water sources near agricultural areas causing an increase in primary
(B)
productivity that leads to eutrophication.
The continual use of pesticides can cause organisms to build a resistance through genetic mutation that
(C)
then requires more or stronger pesticides.
(D) The continual use of pesticides can lead to an increase in soil biodiversity from increased soil quality.

92. Which of the following would most likely neutralize the effect of acid rain on bodies of water, based on the
composition of soils and bedrock in the region?
(A) An area downwind of a coal-burning electrical plant
(B) A valley that is frequently shrouded in fog
(C) A forest underlain by limestone
(D) An open plain underlain by granite

93. Which of the following would be the best way to mitigate deforestation?
(A) Grow more diverse timber products to increase economic value in an area.
(B) Stimulate intensive agricultural production of native vegetation close to villages.
(C) Employ clear cutting harvest techniques that are more sustainable.
(D) Replant and protect trees in areas that have been previously cleared.

94. Chemical compound that leads to formation of photochemical smog in the troposphere when it reacts with other
compounds in the presence of sunlight

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(A) Nitrates ( )
(B) Chlorofluorocarbons ( )
(C) Nitrogen oxides ( )
(D) Carbon dioxide ( )

95. In addition to volatile organic compounds ( ), which of the following components must be present in the
atmosphere to create photochemical smog?
(A) and particulates
(B) Particulates and light
(C) and light
(D) light and

96. Which of the following statements best describes photochemical smog in large cities in the United States?
(A) Photochemical smog is more prevalent during winter months.
(B) Photochemical smog causes negative human health impacts such as eye and lung irritation.
Photochemical smog contains secondary pollutants that form when sulfur dioxide and nitrogen oxide
(C)
interact in the atmosphere.
(D) Photochemical smog is composed of primary and secondary pollutants that are not reactive.

97. Rapid runoff following a heavy rainfall may cause flooding downstream from urban areas. Which urban design
strategy will most likely slow water runoff though an urban area and decrease the risk of downstream flooding?
(A) Widen concrete streets and sidewalks
(B) Use large flat roofs in new construction
(C) Preserve open areas with intact vegetation
(D) Add large drainage pipes near parking lots

98. Which of the following illustrates the reactants needed to form tropospheric ozone?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

99. Which of the following best describes why aquaculture has grown considerably in several parts of the world?

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Increased nutrient availability in the ocean from fish waste has led to an increase in the density of fish
(A)
that can be supported in aquaculture facilities.
The use of antibiotics in aquaculture has led to the evolution of resistant bacteria that support the
(B)
immune system of various fish species.
Wild fish have increased in size and fitness from the competition with nonnative fish that have escaped
(C)
from aquaculture facilities.
Aquaculture fisheries provide a larger and more consistent quantity of fish year-round than do wild
(D)
fisheries.

100. Which of the following best describes a potential unintended negative consequence of implementing measures to
control acid deposition?
(A) A reduction in environmental lead, leading to decreased negative health effects in humans and wildlife
A reduction in sulfur for crops as a result of less acidic rainfall, leading to an increased need for sulfur
(B)
supplements
(C) A reduction in mortality rates in freshwater aquatic organisms from an increase in of the water
(D) A reduction in acid mine drainage, resulting from a reduced need for nuclear fuel and uranium mining

101. Which of the following is the best example of an economic approach to reduce overfishing for a fish species with a
declining population?
The federal government sets a catch limit (per person or per boat) for the species and imposes a tax on
(A)
any extra fish that are caught.
A conservation agency creates marine parks where the area is a no-catch zone for the species so that the
(B)
species can recover and population size can increase.
The state government introduces a subsidy for large fishing companies to help them afford to hire more
(C)
crew members.
An educational group produces signs and video clips to encourage individuals to buy locally caught
(D)
seafood and to avoid eating big fish like tuna and shark.

102. Many communities experience the tragedy of the commons.

One way a local community might regulate a shared and limited resource and reduce the tragedy of the commons is
to
(A) eliminate ownership of the resources and make them available to all
(B) reduce the cost of access to the resources
(C) offer subsides to users of the resources in the form of tax breaks
(D) divide the resources into parcels and assign them to individuals

103. The farming of fish such as salmon at aquaculture facilities poses a threat to marine ecosystems because

(A) the farmed fish can escape and outcompete wild fish for food and territory
(B) farm-raised salmon often pass on toxic chemicals such as mercury to eagles and other fish-eating birds
(C) invasive plant species common in aquaculture facilities can spread to nearby waters
(D) fewer wild fish will be harvested for human consumption

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104. Saltwater intrusion is a growing problem in places in the United States including in the coastal cities of Savannah,
Georgia, Cape May, New Jersey, and Tampa Bay, Florida. Which of the following is the most likely cause of
saltwater intrusion into freshwater municipal wells in these cities located near the coastline?
(A) Destruction of forests, which increases the amount of sediment entering ocean water
(B) Increase in impervious surfaces, which increases groundwater pollution
(C) Changes in atmospheric carbon dioxide concentration, which change the of ocean water
(D) Urbanization and population growth, which lead to overpumping from aquifers

105. A farmer grows several crops on a farm that has mostly shallow, sandy soil. Which of the following irrigation
methods would be the best suited for this farm?
(A) Drip irrigation
(B) Flood irrigation
(C) Surface irrigation
(D) Furrow irrigation

106. Which of the following strategies could be used to reduce soil erosion during surface mining of coal?
(A) Increasing the use of open pit mining.
(B) Adding air filtration systems.
(C) Replanting vegetation.
(D) Removing only low-grade ores.

107. Which of the following is the best example of a tragedy of the commons?
(A) Depletion of crude oil on private lands
(B) Requiring permits for grazing cattle on United States parklands
(C) Eutrophication of a pond on a farmer’s land
(D) Accumulation of plastics in the Great Pacific Garbage Patch

108. Which of the following scenarios best explains the concept of the tragedy of the commons?
Fish farming, a type of aquaculture, produces fish through selective breeding to produce a cheap source
(A)
of protein, reducing the fishing pressure on wild stock fish.
A collapse of the fishing industry leads to a loss of fishing-related jobs, which will have negative
(B)
consequences on the economy.
Declines in the fish population lead to a decline in the population of fish predators, affecting the entire
(C)
food chain.
Fish are shared resources, and as the fishing industry competes for the fish, the resource extraction is no
(D)
longer sustainable.

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109. A community located downwind from a coal-fired power plant has seen a recent increase in the number of dead and
dying trees. A soil scientist measured values for the following parameters before and after the trees died off. Which
of the following soil data should be used to determine if the coal-fired power plant emissions were the cause of the
damage to the trees?
(A) Moisture content and water retention
(B) Parent material composition
(C) Pesticide and herbicide residue levels
(D) Calcium and aluminum levels

110. Which of the following describes an aspect of urbanization that would most increase the amount of carbon dioxide
released into the atmosphere compared to rural and suburban areas?
A greater amount of impermeable surfaces in urban areas that prevents organic material from entering
(A)
soils
Reliance on mass transportation systems in urban areas, such as buses and trains rather than individual
(B)
cars and trucks, which increases carbon dioxide release
Decreased square footage of living space, per person, in most housing units in urban areas that leads to
(C)
an increased carbon footprint
Increased amounts of waste per unit area in urban areas that leads to higher rates of decay and
(D)
decomposition

111. Which of the following best describes a natural process that adds carbon dioxide to the atmosphere?
(A) Plants excrete carbon dioxide during photosynthesis.
(B) Carbon dioxide is released from the interior of Earth during volcanic eruptions.
(C) Deposition of sediments into ocean basins release carbon dioxide from rock.
Burial of dead plants and animals in swamps and bogs allows carbon dioxide to escape to the
(D)
atmosphere.

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