DATE: 29/01/2023 M

Part Test – 01

Physics : Basic Maths, Vector, Mo on in a Straight Line, Mo on in a Plane, Laws of Mo on

Chemistry : Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry, Atomic Structure, IUPAC Nomenclature, Isomerism

Botany : Cell: Unit of life, Cell Cycle, Living World

Zoology : Structural Organisa on in Animals, Diges on and Absorp on, Breathing and Exchange of Gases
 SECTION-I (PHYSICS)
SECTION – A 6. A stone is dropped from a balloon going up with a
dy uniform velocity of 5 m/s. If the balloon was at
1. y = 3ex – 5x3 + 3, then find .
dx 60 m height when the stone was dropped, find the
(1) 3ex + 15x2
time after which the stone hits the ground.
(2) 3xex + 15x2
(3) 3ex – 15x2 (Take g = 10 m/s2)
(4) 3xex – 15x2 (1) 2 sec
(2) 4 sec
1
2. Evaluate  x2 dx = (3)
(4)
6 sec
8 sec
(1) x–2 + C
(2) –x–1 + C
7. Motion of a particle is given by equation
(3) x2 + C
(4) –x2 + C S = (2t3 + 3t2 + 4t + 2) m, where S displacement in
meter and t time in second, find acceleration of
3. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches particle at time t = 1 sec.
the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is about: (1) 18 m/s2
(1) 80 m (2) 12 m/s2
(2) 40 m
(3) 6 m/s2
(3) 20 m
(4) 160 m (4) Zero

4. If A = iˆ + ˆj − 2kˆ and B = 2iˆ – ˆj + kˆ then find 8. Two boys are standing at the ends of A & B of a
ground, where AB = a. The boy at B starts running
magnitude of 2 A − 3B .
in a direction perpendicular to AB with velocity v1.
(1) 80
The boy at A start running simultaneously with
(2) 85 velocity v in straight line path and catches the other
(3) 90 in time t1, where t1 is.
(4) 95 a
(1)
v − v1
5. The magnitude of the displacement of particle
moving in a circle of radius 'a' with constant angular a2
(2)
speed ω varies with time t as, v2 − v12
(1) 2a sin ωt
t v 2 − v12
(2) 2a sin (3)
2 a2
(3) 2a cosωt 9
t (4)
(4) 2a cos v + v1
2
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9. The variation of velocity of a particle with time
moving along a straight line is illustrated in the
following figure.
The distance travelled by the particle in four
seconds is
(1) Speed of A is smaller then B while hitting the
ground.
(2) Kinetic energy of both the particles is same
while hitting the ground
(3) Velocity of both the particles is same while
hitting the ground
(4) Distance covered by both of them is same

13. Two buses, each 60 m long are travelling on two

parallel road in opposite direction with velocity
15 m/s and 20 m/s. The time of crossing is:
(1) 3.42 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 2.5 sec
(4) 1 sec
(1) 60 m
(2) 55 m 14. A train is moving towards east and a car is along
(3) 30 m north, both with same speed. The observed direction
(4) 25 m of car to the passenger in the train is:
(1) West-north direction
10. A projectile can have the same range R for two (2) South-east direction
angles of projections. If t1 and t2 be the times of (3) East-north direction
flight in two cases, then the product of times of
(4) None of these
flight will be:
(1) t1t2  R 15. The displacement x of a particle along a straight line
(2) t1t2  R 2
at time t is given by x = a0 − a1t + a2t 2 . The
1 acceleration of particle
(3) t1t2 
R (1) a0
1 (2) a1
(4) t1t2  2 (3) 2a2
R
(4) a2
11. Slope of position time (x – t) graph represents. 16. A body is falling from a height h. It takes t1 sec to
(1) Areal velocity reach the ground, the time taken to reach the half of
(2) Instantaneous velocity the height will be
(3) Average acceleration (1) 2t1
(4) Instantaneous acceleration
(2) 2t1
t
12. Two particles A & B [such that mass of A > Mass of (3) 1
2
B] are thrown vertically upwards and downwards
t1
respectively with same speed from a tower. (4)
Choose the correct statement.
2

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17. The tension is the spring is: (1) greater than v
(2) | v |in the direction of the largest force
(3) v , remaining unchanged
(1) Zero (4) less than v .
(2) 2.5 N
(3) 5N
21. The maximum range of a projectile is 22m. When
(4) 10 N
it is thrown at an angle of 15º with the horizontal,
its range will be
18. Two projectiles of same mass have their maximum
(1) 22 m
kinetic energies in ratio 4 : 1 and ratio of their
(2) 6 m
maximum heights is also 4 : 1, then what is the ratio
(3) 15 m
of their ranges?
(4) 11 m
(1) 2 : 1
(2) 4 : 1
22. A ship is travelling due east at 10 km/h. Another
(3) 8 : 1 ship heading 30º east of north is always due north
(4) 16 : 1 from the first ship. The speed of the second ship in
km/h is
19. Raindrops are falling vertically with a velocity (1) 20 2
10 m/s. To a cyclist moving on a straight road, the 3
(2) 20
rain drops appear to be coming with a velocity of 2
(3) 20
20 m/s. The velocity of the cyclist is
20
(1) 10 m/s (4)
2
(2) 10 3 m/s
(3) 20 m/s 23. Which of the following statement is not true?
(1) The coefficient of friction between two
(4) 20 3 m/s surfaces increases as the surface in contact are
made rough.
20. Three forces start acting simultaneously on a (2) The force of kinetic friction acts in a direction
opposite to the applied force.
particle moving with velocity v . These forces are (3) Rolling friction is greater than sliding friction.
represented in magnitude and direction by the three (4) The coefficient of friction between wood and
sides of a triangle ABC as shown in the figure. The wood is less than 1.
particle will now move with velocity
24. If a particle is moving on a curved path with
constant speed, then
(1) Velocity remains constant
(2) Body is said to be under acceleration
(3) Body remains unaccelerated
(4) Body is moving with decreasing velocity

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 5x2 29. For the arrangement shown in the figure, the
25. The equation of projectile is y = 16x − . The reading of spring balance is
4
horizontal range is:
(1) 16 cm
(2) 8 m
(3) 3.2 m
(4) 12.8 m

26. Resultant of three forces F1, F2 and F3 is zero. If

(1) 50 N
F1 = 2iˆ + 6 ˆj and F2 = iˆ + ˆj , then F3 will be (2) 100 N
(3) 150 N
(1) 3iˆ + 3 ˆj (4) None of the above
(2) −3iˆ − 7 ˆj
30. An elevator is moving vertically up with an
(3) 3iˆ + 7 ˆj acceleration a. The force exerted on the floor by a
(4) iˆ + 5 ˆj passenger of mass m is
(1) mg
(2) ma
27. Two stones of masses 2 kg and 4 kg are dropped from
(3) mg – ma
height 30 m and 40 m respectively. The ratio of time (4) mg + ma
taken by the stones to reach the ground is
1 31. At what minimum acceleration should a monkey
(1)
2 slide a rope whose breaking strength is 2/3rd of its
(2) 1 : 1 weight?
4 2g
(3) (1)
3 3
(2) g
3
(4) g
4 (3)
3
(4) Zero
28. A particle starts from rest. Its acceleration (a) versus
time (t) curve is shown in the figure. Maximum
32. A projectile of mass m is fired with a velocity v from
speed of the particle will be
point P at an angle 45°. Neglecting air resistance,
the magnitude of the change in momentum between
leaving the point P and arriving at Q is

(1) 400 m/s

(2) 100 m/s (1) 2 mv (2) 2mv
(3) 200 m/s mv mv
(4) 500 m/s (3) (4)
2 2
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33. If a body is in equilibrium under a set of non- 37. Assertion: A rocket moves forward by pushing
collinear forces, then the minimum number of the surrounding air backwards.
forces has to be Reason: It derives the necessary thrust to move
(1) Four forward according to Newton’s third law of
(2) Two motion.
(3) Three (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(4) Five
the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
34. A force F1 accelerates a particle from rest to a
velocity v. Another force F2 decelerates the same (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
particle from v to rest, then the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(1) F1 is always equal to F2 Assertion.
(2) F2 is greater than F1 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) F2 may be smaller than, greater than or (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
equal to F1
(4) F1 cannot be equal to F1 38. Assertion: A null vector is a vector whose
magnitude is zero and direction is arbitrary.
35. A car is travelling with a linear velocity v on a
circular road of radius r. If it is increasing its speed Reason: A null vector does not exist.
at the rate of a m/s2, then the resultant acceleration (1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
will be the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion.
v2
(1) − a2 (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
r2 the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
v4 Assertion.
(2) + a2 (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
r2
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true
v4
(3) 2
− a2
r 39. Assertion: In s-t graph shown in the figure, velocity
v 2 of particle is negative & acceleration is positive
(4) 2
+ a2 Reason: The slope of s-t graph is negative and
r
increasing in magnitude
SECTION - B
36. Assertion: To conserve linear momentum of a
system, no force should act on the system.
Reason: If net force on a system is zero, its linear
momentum should remain constant.
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is the correct explanation of the the Reason is the correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and (2) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the Reason is not a correct explanation of the the Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion. Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true (4) If Assertion is false and Reason is true

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40. The position (in m) vector of a particle changes
with time according to the relation
r (t ) = 15t 2iˆ + (4 − 20t 2 ) ˆj.
What is the magnitude of the acceleration at t = 1 sec?
(1) 40 m/s2
(2) 100 m/s2 (1) 2 m
(3) 25 m/s2 (2) 4 m
(3) 6 m
(4) 50 m/s2
(4) 3 m

41. If an object is falling freely in vacuum, then body

45. For which of the following position(x) - time(t)
moves with
graph for the motion of a body, the acceleration is
(1) Uniform velocity
negative initially?
(2) Uniform acceleration
(3) Variable acceleration
(4) Uniform speed
(1)
42. If x denotes position of an object at time t as
x = 5 cost, then its acceleration is
(1) 5 cos(t)
(2) – 5 cos(t)
(3) 5 sin(t)
(2)
(4) – 5 sin(t)

43. Magnitude of component of vector 2iˆ + 6kˆ along

y axis is
(1) 6
(3)
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) Zero

44. The speed-time graph of a particle moving along a

straight line is shown in the figure. The distance (4)

covered by the particle from time t = 0 to t = 4 s is

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46. A body in one dimensional motion has zero speed 49. Figure shows s-t graph. Motion of body is
at an instant. At that instant, body must have
(1) Zero velocity
(2) Non-zero velocity
(3) Zero acceleration
(4) Non-zero acceleration

47. If velocity of particle is given by v = 2t3 + 5 m/s then

find displacement in 1 sec.
(1) 6 m (1) Uniform acceleration and constant velocity
(2) 5 m (2) Uniform velocity
(3) 5.5 m (3) Uniform velocity & retardation
(4) 6.5 m
(4) Non-uniform velocity

48. Two balls are projected simultaneously with the

same speed from the top of a tower, one vertically 50. A particle starts with an u = 2.5 m/s along the
upwards and the other vertically downwards. If the positive x direction and accelerates with 0.50 ms–2.
first ball strikes the ground with speed Time taken to reach the velocity 7.5 m/s will be
20 m/sec, then speed of second ball when it strikes (1) 5 sec
the ground is:
(2) 2 sec
(1) 10 m/sec
(3) 10 sec
(2) 20 m/sec
(3) 40 m/sec (4) 15 sec
(4) Data insufficient

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 SECTION-II (CHEMISTRY)
SECTION – A 56. The work function for a metal is 4 eV. To emit a
51. The ratio of radii of first orbits of H, He+ and Li2+ is photo-electron of zero velocity from the surface of
(1) 1 : 2 : 3 the metal, the wavelength of incident light should
(2) 6 : 3 : 2 be
(3) 1 : 4 : 9 (1) 2700 Å
(4) 9 : 4 : 1 (2) 1700 Å
(3) 5900 Å
52. The calculated value of (spin only) magnetic (4) 3100 Å
moment of 26Fe3+ is
(1) 3.89 B.M 57. Which of the following set of quantum numbers
(2) 1.73 B.M belong to highest energy?
(3) 4.90 B.M 1
(4) 5.92 B.M (1) n = 2, l = 1, m = 0, s = +
2
1
53. If the K.E. of a particle is doubled, its de Broglie (2) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2
wavelength becomes
1
(1) 2 times (3) n = 4, l = 0, m = 1, s = +
2
(2) 4 times
1
(3) 2 times (4) n = 4, l = 1, m = 1, s = +
2
1
(4) times
2 58. The maximum amount of BaSO4 that can be
obtained on mixing 0.5 mol BaCl2 with 1 mol
54. How many electrons will have m (magnetic
H2SO4 is
quantum number) = 0 in Fe3+ ion?
(1) 0.5 mol
(1) 12
(2) 0.1 mol
(2) 13
(3) 0.15 mol
(3) 11
(4) 0.2 mol
(4) 14

59. According to Bohr's Model of hydrogen atom

55. The radius of second stationary orbit in Bohr’s
(1) Total energy of the electron is quantized
atom is R. The radius of the third orbit will be
(2) Orbital angular momentum of the electron is
(1) 3 R
h
(2) 9 R quantized and given as l (l + 1) ·
9 2
(3) R (3) Both (1) and (2)
4
(4) 4 R (4) None of these

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60. Which one among the following statements is 64. In Mn2+ ion, the number of unpaired electrons is
correct? (1) 2
(1) An orbital containing an electron having (2) 3
quantum numbers n = 2; l = 0; m= 0 and s = (3) 4
+1/2 is spherical. (4) 5
(2) The frequency of X-rays is less than that of
radio-waves. 65. If E is the kinetic energy of the particle then which
(3) All photons have same energy.
of the following expressions is correct for de
(4) As intensity of light increases, its frequency
Broglie wave length of the particle?
also increases.
h
(1)  =
61. Photoelectric emission is observed from a surface 2mE
for frequencies 1 and 2 of incident radiations h
(1 > 2). If the maximum kinetic energy of (2)  =
4mE
photoelectrons in the two cases are in the ratio of
h
2 : 1, then threshold frequency v0 is given by (3)  =
 2 − 1 2mE
(1)
2 −1 2mE
(4)  =
21 −  2 h
(2)
2 −1
2 2 − 1 66. Wavelength of an electron is equal to distance
(3)
2 −1 travelled by it in one second, then correct relation
 2 − 1 is
(4)
2 h
(1)  =
p
62. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau principle
is violated is h
(2)  =
2s 2p p
(1) h
(2)  =
2s 2p m
(2)
h
(4)  =
2s 2p m
(3)
2s 2p 67. The ratio of kinetic energy and total energy of an
(4) electron in a Bohr orbit of a hydrogen like
species is
63. Radial part of the wave function depends on (1) 1/2
quantum numbers
(2) −1/2
(1) n and s
(2) l and m (3) 1
(3) l and s (4) −1
(4) n and l
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68. In Bohr’s hydrogen atom, the electronic transition 75. Which of the following compounds can exist in its
emitting light of longest wavelength is meso form?
(1) n = 5 to n = 4 (1) 1, 2−dichlorobutane
(2) n = 4 to n = 3 (2) 2, 3−dichloropentane
(3) n = 3 to n = 2 (3) 2, 3−dichlorobutane
(4) n = 2 to n = 4 (4) 1, 2−dichloropentane
69. The IUPAC name
of the compound, 76. With increase of temperature, which of these
(CH3 )2 CHCH2CH2Br is: changes?
(1) 2-methyl-3-bromopropane (1) Molality
(2) 1-bromopentane (2) Weight fraction of solute
(3) 2-methyl-4-bromobutane (3) Molarity
(4) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane (4) Mole fraction

70. Optically active compound is 77. The number of isomers of compounds with
(1) 2-chloropropane molecular formula C2H2Br2 is:
(2) 2-chlorobutane (1) 3
(3) 3-chloropentane (2) 2
(4) None of these (3) 4
(4) 5
71. The concentrated sulphuric acid that is peddled
commercial is 95% H2SO4 by weight. If the 78. Select the optically inactive compound among the
density of this commercial acid is 1.834 g cm–3, following.
the molarity of this solution is
(1) 17.8 M
(2) 12.0 M (1) CH3 NH2
(3) 10.5 M NH2 CH3
(4) 15.7 M

72. Which of the following compounds exhibits

tautomerism?
(1) Chloroethane (2) CH3 NHAc
(2) Ethanol AcNH CH3
(3) Ethoxyethane
(4) Nitroethane

73. Maleic acid and fumaric acid are

(1) Epimers (3) HOOC NHAc
(2) Anomers AcNH COOH
(3) Enantiomers
(4) Geometrical isomers

74. The dihedral angle between two methyl groups in

gauche conformation of n-butane is HN NH
(1) 109º 28' (4)
(2) 120º OC CO
(3) 180º
(4) 60º
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79. Which of the following compounds will exhibit C6H5
geometrical isomerism?
H
(1) 1-Phenyl-2-butene (3)
(2) 3-Phenyl-1-butene H H
H C6H5
(3) 2-Phenyl-1-butene
(4) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propene C6H5
H H
80. If specific rotation of glucose solution is 52° and
that of fructose solution is –92° then what will be (4)
H H
the specific rotation of invert sugar?
C6H5
(1) –20°
(2) +20°
(3) –72° 83. Which of the following can form geometrical
(4) +72° isomer?
Cl
81. Geometrical isomerism is shown by (1)
Cl
H I
(1) C=C (2) CH3–CH=N–OH
H Br
H I (3)
(2) C=C
H3C Br
(4) All of the above
H3C Cl
(3) C=C
H3C Br
84. Total number of geometrical isomers of the
H Cl
(4) C=C compound CH3−CH=CH−CH=CH−C2H5 is
H3C Cl
(1) 2
(2) 3
82. The most stable conformation of 1,2–diphenyl
ethane is (3) 4

H (4) 5

C6H5 H
(1) 85. A solution of (+)-1-chloro-1-phenyl ethane in
C6H5 H toluene racemises slowly in the presence of small
H amount of SbCl5, due to the formation of:
C6H5 (1) Carbanion
C6H5 (2) Carbene
(2) (3) Free radical
H H (4) Carbocation
H H
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 SECTION - B 92. If m1 g of a metal A, displaces m2 g of another
86. 1,3−Dichloroallene (CHCl=C=CHCl) shows metal B from its salt solution and if their
(1) Geometrical isomerism. equivalent masses are E1 and E2 respectively, then
(2) Optical isomerism. the equivalent mass of A can be expressed as
m2  E 2
(3) Both (1) and (2). (1) E1 =
(4) None of these. m1
m
87. Which of the following compound has zero dipole (2) E1 = 1  E 2
m2
moment?
m  m2
(1) Cis-but-2-ene (3) E1 = 1
(2) Trans-but-2-ene E2
(3) But-1-ene m1
(4) 2-methylprop-1-ene (4) E1 =  E2
m2
88. HCN and HNC exhibit
93. Equivalent mass of H3PO2 when it
(1) Optical isomerism.
disproportionates into PH3 and H3PO3 is
(2) Tautomerism.
(Molecular mass = M):
(3) Metamerism. (1) M
(4) None of these.
M
(2)
89. Number of moles of KMnO4 that is needed to
2
react with one mole of FeC2O4 in acidic medium M
(3)
is 4
(1) 2/5 3M
(4)
(2) 3/5 4
(3) 4/5
94. The treatment of CH3OH with CH3Mgl releases
(4) 1
1.04 ml of a gas at STP. The mass of CH3OH
added is
90. 0.126 g of an acid requires 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH (1) 1.485 mg
for complete neutralization. Equivalent weight of (2) 2.98 mg
the acid is (3) 3.71 mg
(1) 45 (4) 4.47 mg
(2) 53
(3) 40 95. 3BaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 ⎯→ Ba3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl.
(4) 63 Maximum amount of Ba3(PO4)2 formed when
2 moles each of Na3PO4 and BaCl2 react together is
(1) 4 mol
91. An oxide of a metal M has 60% metal by mass.
(2) 1 mol
What is the equivalent weight of the metal?
(1) 12
2
(3) mol
(2) 24 3
(3) 36 1
(4) mol
(4) 48 3
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96. The percentage of Fe in +3 oxidation state in 99. Density of a 2.05 M solution of acetic acid in water
Fe0.9O is? is 1.02 g/ml. The molality of the solution is
(1) 78%
(2) 90% (Atomic mass: H = 1, C = 12, O = 16)
(3) 10% (1) 3.28 mol kg−1
(4) 22% (2) 2.28 mol kg−1
97. What volume of 0.5 M Ba (OH)2 solution will (3) 0.44 mol kg−1
react completely with 25 mL of 3N H3PO4? (4) 1.14 mol kg−1
(1) 50 mL
(2) 57 mL
(3) 60 mL 100. Arrange the following (I to IV) in the increasing
(4) 75 mL order of their masses and choose the correct
answer.
98. How many moles of electron weigh one kilogram?
(NAV = Avogadro’s no. = 6.023 × 1023) (I) 1 atom of oxygen.
(1) 6.023 × 1023 (II) 1 atom of nitrogen.
1 (III) 1 × 10–10 g molecule of oxygen.
(2) 1031
9.1 (IV) 1 × 10–7 g atom of copper.
6.023 1054 (1) (II) < (I) < (III) < (IV)
(3)
9.1 (2) (IV) < (III) < (II) < (I)
1 108 (3) (II) < (III) < (I) < (IV)
(4)
9.1 6.023 (4) (III) < (IV) < (I) < (II)

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 SECTION-III (BOTANY)

SECTION – A 106. Identify the labels A, B & C in the given diagram

101. Which of the following cells, when observed under and choose the option that has their correct features.
microscope then it lack nucleus at maturity in
mammals?
(1) E. coli
(2) Amoeba
(3) RBCs
(4) Both (1) and (3)
A B C
102. A single membrane bounded cell organelle whose (1) Less Increases Contains
permeable surface 70S
enzymes are functional at acidic pH is
than inner area for ribosomes
(1) Not related to endomembrane system
one enzyme
(2) Contains acid hydrolases
action
(3) Cannot digest nucleic acids (2) More Have ATP Has small
(4) Both (1) and (3) permeable synthase circular
than inner dsDNA
103. A student compared onion cell & human cheek cell membrane
then cell of onion peel differs from a cell of human (3) More Crista Lack
cheek in permeable dsDNA
(1) The type of outer boundary than inner
(2) Having both 70S and 80S ribosomes membrane
(4) Outer Porins Has
(3) Having two non-membrane bound cell organelles
membrane proteins enzymes
(4) Double membrane bound nucleus
for dark
reaction
104. Select the not incorrect match.
(1) Middle lamella — Lignin
107. Which of the given feature is/are not similar
(2) Algal cell wall — Mannans
between chloroplast and mitochondria?
(3) Primary cell wall in plants — Calcium pectin
a. Divide by fission.
(4) Secondary cell wall in plants — Peptidoglycans
b. Have m-RNA, r-RNA & t-RNA.
c. Site of carbohydrate oxidation.
105. In mouse cell, proteins are formed but their
d. Have ATP synthesis enzyme.
glycosylation not occur, which of the following cell
e. Storage of starch
organelles is not performing its function in that cell?
(1) Only c, d & e
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
(2) Only c & e
(2) Golgi bodies
(3) Only a, b & c
(3) Ribosomes
(4) Only c
(4) Both (1) and (2)

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108. Read the given statements. 113. Bacterial flagella are similar to eukaryotic flagella
P: It can occupy upto 90% volume of a plant cell. in
Q: It contains water, sap as well as excretory (1) Having same constituent proteins
products.
(2) Having same basal body
Identify the cell organelle on the basis of above
(3) Providing motility
features.
(4) Having ' 9 + 2 ' arrangement of microtubules
(1) Lysosome
(2) Vacuole
(3) Ribosomes 114. The layer of bacterial cell envelope which is
(4) Peroxisome structurally similar to that of eukaryotes is related to
all of the given features, except.
109. Select the statement which is not true for smallest
(1) Lipid bilayer found
cell organelle.
(2) Hydrophilic head is outside
(1) Can form polysomes
(2) Are found in cytoplasm as well as on the (3) Tail is composed of only unsaturated
surface of the nuclear membrane hydrocarbons
(3) Are composed of ribosomal RNA only (4) Within the bilayer, proteins show lateral
(4) Are site of protein synthesis movement

110. Choose the odd one w.r.t. inclusion bodies of

115. Identify the incorrect statement for binomial
bacterial cell.
(1) Gas vacuoles nomenclature system.
(2) Phosphate granules (1) Biological names are either derived from Latin
(3) Glycogen granules language or Latinised
(4) Extrachromosomal DNA (2) Biological names are printed in italics
(3) Name of the author or discoverer is also printed
111. Membranous extensions which are pigments
in italics
containing structures found in Anabaena are
(4) Each organism is given only one name
(1) Chromatophores
consisting of two parts
(2) Stroma lamellae
(3) Grana
(4) Mesosomes 116. In human cells, steroidal hormones are synthesised
by
112. Which of the given is not found in living organisms?
(1) RER
(1) Extrinsic growth
(2) SER
(2) Division by fission
(3) Ribosomes
(3) Photoperiodism in plants
(4) Starch synthesis inside chloroplast of (4) Golgi bodies
mesophyll cells

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117. Match the following columns and select the correct 120. Few chromosomes sometimes have a small
option. fragment separated by non-staining secondary
constriction at constant location called
Column I Column II
(1) Chromatid
(Chromosomes) (Shapes during Anaphase) (2) Satellite
(a) Metacentric (i) L-Shaped (3) Centromere
(b) Telocentric (ii) V-Shaped (4) Centrosome
(c) Acrocentric (iii) I- Shaped
121. Plastids which give specific & distinct colours to the
(d) Submetacentric (iv) J-Shaped plants are known as
(1) a (iii), b (i), c (ii), d (iv) (1) Chloroplasts
(2) a (ii), b (iii), c (iv), d (i) (2) Chromoplasts
(3) a (iv), b (iii), c (ii), d (i) (3) Elaioplasts
(4) a (ii), b (i), c (iii), d (iv) (4) Aleuroplasts

118. Spherical structures present in nucleoplasm and are 122. In Mango plant, cytoplasm of neighbouring cells are
site of active r-RNA synthesis are absent in connected by
(1) Chlamydomonas (1) Plasmodesmata
(2) Amoeba (2) Middle lamella
(3) Transport proteins
(3) Purple and green photosynthetic bacteria
(4) Both (1) & (3)
(4) A plant cell

123. Proteins formed by RER then modified in golgi

119. Choose the correct option regarding indicated by
apparatus is going to released from its
lable A in the given diagram.
(1) Cis face
(2) Convex face
(3) Forming face
(4) Concave face

124. Mark the feature which is true for human

chromosomes.
(1) They are seen in dividing cells
(2) Can seen in telophase end
(3) Total 23 chromosomes found in skin cell
(4) None of the above is true

125. Which of the given cell organelles is single

membrane bound and participates in
(1) Spherical structure called kinetochore
photorespiration?
(2) Site of attachment of spindle fibres (1) Chloroplasts
(3) Primary constriction called kinetochore (2) Mitochondria
(4) Disc shaped structure which prevents (3) Peroxisome
chromosome shortening or loss (4) Vacuole

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126. In mammals, proteinaceous structure which 132. A student prepared a herbarium sheet then this does
maintains the shape of a cell, is not provide the information of
(1) Cell wall (1) Species of specimen
(2) Cytoplasm (2) Genus of specimen
(3) Cytoskeleton
(3) Family of specimen
(4) Vacuole
(4) Division of specimen

127. Plasmid of bacteria cannot be

(1) Larger than genomic DNA 133. Mitosis does not occur in
(2) Circular (1) Cells of lateral meristem
(3) Double stranded (2) A fertilised egg
(4) Used to monitor bacterial transformation (3) Bacterial cell
(4) Cells of cambium
128. Select the taxonomic category which is not common
between makoi and potato.
134. State True (T) or False (F) for the following
(1) Genus
statements and select the correct option.
(2) Species
P. Crossing over is completed in diplotene.
(3) Family
(4) Order Q. Chromosomes get extremely extended like
interphase in telophase I.
129. First phase of karyokinesis begins with the R. At the end of pachytene, the two chromatids are
(1) Complete disintegration of nuclear membrane linked at the site of recombination.
(2) Initiation of condensation of chromatin material P Q R
(3) Complete disappearance of nucleolus (1) T F T
(4) Attachment of spindle fibres to chromosomes (2) F F T
(3) F T T
130. A typical plant root cell at metaphase I shows 80
(4) T F F
chromatids. What would be the number of bivalents
in its meiocyte at zygotene stage of prophase I?
(1) 40 135. Choose the not incorrect statement regarding
(2) 20 product of meiosis II.
(3) 10 (1) Four haploid cells are genetically similar to
(4) 80 each other but differ with their parents
(2) Four haploid cells are genetically dissimilar to
131. Gap phase between mitosis and initiation of DNA each other as well as with their parents
replication does not involve
(3) Four diploid cells are genetically dissimilar to
(1) Cell increase size
each other as well as with their parents
(2) Duplication of most organelles
(4) Four haploid cells are genetically dissimilar to
(3) Synthesis of RNA
(4) Synthesis of tubulin protein each other but similar to their parents.

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 SECTION - B 140. During crossing over which is not occur
136. Mark the right match. (1) Recombination of genetic material
(1) Synapsis – Zygotene (2) Formation of recombination nodule
(2) Desynapsis – Pachytene (3) Exchange of genetic material between sister
(3) Chiasmata formation – Diakinesis chromatids
(4) Chiasmata terminalisation – Diplotene (4) Recombinase enzyme

137. Which of the given feature is not true for anaphase I? 141. A student observed that a cell has completed DNA
(1) Separation of homologous chromosomes
replication but fails to enter M-phase. It indicates
(2) Spindle fibres are attached to one side of a
that the cell is arrested at
chromosome only
(1) G1 → S checkpoint
(3) Centromere splitting of chromosomes
(2) G2 → M checkpoint
(4) Leads to reduction in chromosome number
(3) S → G2 checkpoint
138. A museum does not have (4) M→ G2 checkpoint
(1) Dry specimens of plants
(2) Skeleton of some larger animals 142. When karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis it
(3) Specimens of insects leads to formation of
(4) Photographs of both plants & animals (1) Dyad of cells
(2) Syncytium
139. Correctly identifies the given stage of cell division (3) Single cell with large number of nuclei
along with its true feature. (4) Both (2) & (3)

143. Synaptonemal complex forms at 'X' stage and

dissolves at 'Y' stage.
Complete the above statement by choosing the
correct option for:
(X) (Y)
(1) Zygotene Pachytene
Stage Feature (2) Pachytene Diplotene
(1) Early prophase → Begins with
(3) Zygotene Diplotene
condensation of
(4) Zygotene Diakinesis
chromatin
(2) Late prophase → Cell does not show
intact nuclear 144. Identify the best reason for no DNA replication in
membrane but has interkinesis?
golgi bodies (1) In meiosis-I homologous chromosomes
(3) Early prophase → Chromosomes start separate not chromatids
aligning themselves at (2) In meiosis-I, univalents separate along with
equator chromatids
(4) Late prophase → Cell does not show (3) In meiosis-I, only chromatids separates but
golgi, ER, nucleolus homologous chromosomes remain in pair
and intact nuclear (4) In meiosis-II, separation of bivalents occur
membrane

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145. G0 phase is:
(1) Quiescent stage for dividing cells
(2) Metabolically inactive
(3) Present in meristem cells
(4) Part of interphase
146. Mr. Parker observed during mitosis stage that in cell
chromosomes can no longer be seen and chromatin
material tends to collect as a mass at the poles during
(1) Anaphase
(2) Telophase
(3) Metaphase
(4) Late prophase
147. Find the correct statement from the following?
(1) Meiosis involves pairing of non-homologous
chromosomes
(2) Mitosis or the equational division is restricted
only to the diploid cell in plant
(3) The growth of multi-cellular organisms is due
to mitosis
(4) Splitting of the centromere of each
chromosome takes place during anaphase-I
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148. Select the right match w.r.t. taxonomical aids
(1) Monograph → Actual account of habitat and
distribution of plants of a given area
(2) Manual → Contains information on any one
taxon
(3) Herbarium → Ex-situ conservation of plants
(4) Museums → contains insects in insect box
149. Identify the group of taxa belonging to the same
taxonomic category.
(1) Chordata, Poales, Musca
(2) Sapindales, Anacardiaceae, Mangifera
(3) Diptera, Insecta, Arthropoda
(4) Hominidae, Muscidae, Poaceae
150. Find the incorrect one w.r.t. endomembrane system
(1) Lysosomes and vacuoles
(2) Peroxisomes and chloroplasts
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum and golgi body
(4) Lysosomes and golgi body
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 SECTION-IV (ZOOLOGY)
SECTION – A 156. Which of the following options is correct
151. Choose the incorrect pair concerning asthma?
(1) Crop- Storing of food (1) It is a respiratory disorder
(2) Gizzard - Grinding of food particles (2) Surface area gets decreased
(3) Difficulty in breathing causing wheezing sounds
(3) Malpighian tubules - Removal of excretory
(4) Both (1) and (3)
products from haemolymph
(4) Hepatic caeca- Storage of waste material 157. The secretion of oil, earwax, saliva all are function
of __________ tissue
152. The common bile duct in human is formed by the (1) Simple squamous epithelial
joining of_______ (2) Compound epithelial
(1) Pancreatic duct and bile duct (3) Sensory epithelial
(2) Cystic duct and hepatic duct (4) Glandular epithelial
(3) Cystic duct and pancreatic duct
158. The protection of gastric mucosa from excoriation
(4) Hepatic duct and pancreatic duct
by hydrochloric acid is done by
(1) Zymogens
153. Which of the following muscles contract in a (2) Bicarbonates and mucus
forceful expiration? (3) Mucus only
(1) Diaphragm and EICM (4) Electrolytes
(2) EICM and IICM
(3) Diaphragm and Abdominal muscles 159. Oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin is
(4) IICM and Abdominal muscles (1) Hypobolic
(2) Hyperbolic
(3) Linear
154. All of the statements are true regarding adipose
(4) Sigmoid
tissue except
(1) Matrix of the tissue contains fibres
(2) Adipose tissue connects different organs or 160. Which of the following cells has the property of
layer of tissues insulating and protecting the neural tissue?
(3) Adipose tissue has adipocytes cells which (1) Schwann
store fats (2) Oligodendrocytes
(4) Macrophages are amoeboid, non-phagocytic (3) Microglia
cells that are present in adipose connective (4) Both (1) and (2)
tissue
155. Which of the following statements is correct 161. Choose the correct statement about transport of
regarding absorption of digested products? gases
(1) Carbohydrates are absorbed as disaccharides (1) About 97 percent of O2 is transported by
(2) Transport of water depends upon the osmotic RBCs in the blood
gradient
(2) 20-25 percent of CO2 is transported by RBCs
(3) Amino acids move across the plasma
membrane only by diffusion (3) 7 percent of CO2 is carried in a dissolved state
(4) Bile transports fats across plasma membrane through plasma
(4) All of the above

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162. Which of the following muscle shows the 167. Which of the following is a pollution related
intercalated discs? disorder?
(1) Cardiac (1) Silicosis
(2) Smooth (2) Pneumoconiosis
(3) Skeletal (3) Fluorosis
(4) All of the above
(4) All of the above
168. Which of the following sphincter regulates the
163. Select the incorrect option
opening of oesophagus into stomach?
Part of alimentary Structures present/
(1) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter
canal function (2) Cardiac sphincter
(1) Small intestine Lacteals (3) Pyloric sphincter
Intestinal mucosal (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) Crypts of Lieberkühn
epithelium
(3) Colon Water absorption 169. Which of the following is not the function of
(4) Gall bladder Formation of bile conducting part of respiratory passage?
(1) Humidify the inhaled air
(2) Clean the inspired air
164. Which of the following can bind several hundred
(3) Perform gaseous exchange
times more strongly to the haemoglobin than
(4) Warm up the air
oxygen?
(1) H2CO3 170. Choose the incorrect match
(2) CO2 Salivary glands Location
(3) CO (1) Sub-linguals - Below tongue
(4) NO (2) Parotids - Near cheek
(3) Sub-mandibular - Near lower jaw
165. Which of the following muscle shows fusiform (4) Sub-maxillary - Near cheek
fibers?
(1) Cardiac 171. Every 100 ml of deoxygenated blood delivers
(2) Smooth approximately ________ of CO2 in the alveoli
(3) Skeletal (1) 4 ml
(4) All of the above (2) 3 ml
(3) 5 ml
(4) 15 ml
166. The alimentary canal in human beings begins with
an ____X____ opening and opens out
172. Read the statements given below and Identify the
______Y______ through the anus tissue
Choose the option that fills the blank X and Y I. The nuclei are present at the base
correctly II. They are mainly present in the stomach
X Y III. Main function is secretion and absorption
(1) Anterior Posteriorly (1) Simple ciliated epithelial tissue
(2) Anterior Anteriorly (2) Simple squamous epithelial tissue
(3) Posterior Anteriorly (3) Simple columnar epithelial tissue
(4) Posterior Posteriorly (4) Pseudostratified epithelial tissue
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173. The given diagram represents the T.S of gut. 176. CO2 dissociates from carbamino-haemoglobin
Identify A, B, C and D when condition is
(1) pCO2 is high and pO2 is low
(2) pO2 is high and pCO2 is low
(3) pCO2 and pO2 are equal
(4) All of the above

177. Kwashiorkar disease is due to _______

A B C D
(1) Serosa Muscularis Submucosa Mucosa
(1) Protein deficiency not accompanied by
(2) Muscularis Serosa Submucosa Mucosa calorie deficiency
(3) Serosa Muscularis Mucosa Submucosa (2) Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and fats
(4) Serosa Submucosa Muscularis Mucosa (3) Simultaneous deficiency of proteins and
calories
174. Complete the following sentence by selecting the (4) Deficiency of carbohydrates
correct option
A chemosensitive area is situated adjacent to the 178. Which of the following is correct regarding female
____A____which is highly sensitive to ___B___ reproductive system of cockroach?
A B (1) Ootheca is a dark reddish to blackish brown
(1) Pons Only CO2 capsule about 3/8′′ mm long
(2) Medulla CO2 and H+ (2) Female produce 9-10 ootheca, each containing 14-
(3) Cerebellum CO2 and O2 16 eggs
(4) Cerebrum CO2 (3) The development of the cockroach is through
nymphal stage
175. Match the following columns and choose the (4) All of the above
correct option
Column I Column II 179. Which of the following is the main function of
A. Squamous epithelium I. Absorption compound epithelium?
B. Cuboidal epithelium II. Diffusion (1) Provides protection against chemical and
C. Ciliated epithelium III. Mucus in specific mechanical stresses
direction (2) Aids in rapid transfer of ion
D. Compound epithelium IV. Provide protection (3) Secretion and absorption
against chemical (4) Moves particles or mucus in a particular direction
stresses
A B C D 180. Thoracic cage of man is formed of
(1) IV II I III (1) Ribs and sternum
(2) II IV III I (2) Ribs, sternum and thoracic vertebrae
(3) II I III IV (3) Ribs, sternum and lumbar vertebrae
(4) III I II IV (4) Ribs and thoracic vertebrae

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181. Choose the correct option w.r.t. the common
characteristics of the given tissues (A and B)
A B
(1) Number of nuclei in a cell
(2) Functioning of tissue
(3) Presence of communication junction
(4) Cylindrical and striated in appearance
182. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R)
Assertion (A): Food is one of the basic
requirements of all living organisms
Reason (R): Food provides energy and organic
materials for growth only
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(4) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
183. Total lung capacity is correctly represented as
(1) VC + RV
(2) TV + IRV + RV
(3) TV + ERV + RV
(4) IRV + ERV
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184. Select the enzyme whose action on substrate
yields amino acids
(1) Chymotrypsin
(2) Trypsin
(3) Dipeptidase
(4) Amylase
185. Which of the following features is used to identify
a male cockroach from a female cockroach?
(1) Presence of a boat shaped sternum on the 9th
abdominal segment
(2) Presence of caudal styles
(3) Forewings with darker tegmina
(4) Presence of anal cerci
SECTION-B
186. Given below are two statements
Statement I: Movement of air into and out of the
lungs are carried out during breathing
Statement II: Movement of air is carried out by
creating a positive pressure gradient between the
lungs and the atmosphere
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
appropriate answer from the options given below
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
187. Cells in the epithelial tissue are held together with
little intercellular material by ________ junctions
(1) Gap junction
(2) Adherence junction
(3) Tight junction
(4) All of the above
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188. Match the following columns and choose the 192. Identify the figure of animal tissue given below,
correct option along with its correct location
Column-I Column-II
A. Duodenum I. A cartilaginous flap
B. Epiglottis II. Small blind sac
C. Glottis III. C shaped structure

D. Caecum IV. Opening of wind pipe Tissue Locations

A B C D (1) Dense regular connective Heart
(1) I II III IV tissue
(2) IV III II I (2) Dense irregular At bone
(3) III I IV II connective tissue joints
(4) II IV I III
(3) Adipose tissue Beneath skin
(4) Areolar connective tissue Beneath skin
189. Given below are two statements I – II each with
two blanks. Select the option which correctly fills
193. Following are the statements about alimentary
the blanks
canal of human beings
I. The columnar epithelium is composed of
A. Microvilli giving a brush border appearance
___A___and slender cells. Their ___B___
B. Villi are supplied with a network of capillaries
are located at the base
and a large lymph vessel called the lacteal
II. On the basis of the mode of pouring of their
C. Microvilli decrease the surface area enormously
secretions, glands are divided into ___C___
Choose the correct answer from the options given
categories
below
(1) A- Tall B- Organelles C- Three
(1) A, B and C are incorrect
(2) A- Short B- Nuclei C- Four
(2) A, B and C are correct
(3) A- Tall B- Nuclei C- Two
(3) Only C is incorrect
(4) A- Short B- Nuclei C- Two
(4) Only B is correct

190. Which of the following group of animals respire

194. Given below are two statements w.r.t. cockroach
through lungs?
Statement I: Head is triangular in shape and lies
(1) Earthworm and insects
posteriorly at right angles to the longitudinal body axis
(2) Sponges, coelenterates and flatworms
Statement II: Head is formed by the fusion of six
(3) Fishes and aquatic arthropods
segments and shows great mobility in one
(4) Reptiles, birds and mammals
direction due to flexibility in the abdomen
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
191. Identify the correct option
appropriate answer from the options given below
Structure Secretion
(1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
(1) Brunner’s glands – Salivary amylase
(2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
(2) Intestinal mucosa – Insulin
(3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Gall bladder – Lipase
(4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Salivary juice – Amylase

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195. Ejection of stomach contents through mouth after 198. Excess of nutrients which are not used
nausea is a reflex action which is under the control immediately are stored in _________ tissue
of medulla oblongata and is termed as _____ (1) Areolar tissue
(1) Diarrhoea (2) Adipose Tissue
(2) Vomiting (3) Tendon
(3) Indigestion (4) Bone
(4) Constipation
199. Mark the odd one w.r.t. the function of liver
196. Carbonic anhydrase enzyme is found in (1) Storage of fat and glycogen
(1) Only RBCs
(2) Urea synthesis
(2) Only WBCs
(3) Erythropoiesis in adult
(3) Only Plasma
(4) Secretion of bile pigments and bile salts
(4) Both RBCs & Plasma

200. The pharynx is divided into three parts. Which of

197. Select the correct option that represents the
the following is not a part of pharynx?
enzyme composition of succus entericus
(1) Pepsin, amylase, rennin, lipase (1) Nasopharynx
(2) Enterocrinin, carboxypeptidase, trypsin, (2) Bronchiopharynx
elastase (3) Oropharynx
(3) Lipase, nucleosidase, dipeptidase, lactase (4) Laryngopharynx
(4) Renin, pepsinogen, trypsinogen, lipase

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