Chapter 3

1. Environmental biotechnology involves

a) the use of microbes to clean up the environment

b) bioremediation
c) the study of benefits and hazards associated with GMMs
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

2. The use of living microorganism to degrade environmental pollutants is called

a) mycoremediation
b) nanoremediation
c) bioremediation
d) all of these

Answer: c) bioremediation

3. Which of the following bacterium is called as the superbug that could clean up oil
spills

a) Bacillus subtilis
b) Pseudomonas putida
c) Pseudomonas denitrificans
d) Bacillus denitrificans

Answer: b) Pseudomonas putida

4. The process of extracting metals from ore bearing rocks is called

a)bioextraction
b) microbial extraction
c) biofiltration
d) bioleaching

Answer: d) bioleaching

5. The process of converting environmental pollutants into harmless products by

naturally occurring microbes is called

a) ex situ bioremediation
b) Intrinsic bioremediation
c) extrinsic bioremediation
d) none of these

Answer: b) Intrinsic bioremediation

6. Ex situ bioremediation involves the

a) degradation of pollutants by microbes directly

b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial degradation
c) degradation of pollutants by genetically engineered microbes
d) none of these

Answer: b) removal of pollutants and collection at a place to facilitate microbial

degradation

7. Which of the following microbe is widely used in the removal of industrial wastes

a) Trichoderma sp
b) Aspergillus niger
c) Pseudomonas putida
d) all of these

Answer: b) Aspergillus niger

8. Microorganisms remove metals by

a) adsorption and complexation

b) adsorption and precipitation
c) adsorption and volatilization
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

9. Chlorella sp are widely used in the removal of

a) organic wastes
b) hydrocarbons
c) heavy metals
d) all of these

Answer: c) heavy metals

10. A non directed physico chemical interaction between heavy metal ions and
microbial surface is called

a) Biotransformation
b) bioconversion
c) biosorption
d) biomining

Answer: c) biosorption

11. The technique electrophoresis, for the separation of charged molecules was
developed by

a) Tswett

b) Svedberg

c) Tiselius

d) Sanger
Answer: c) Tiselius

12. In electrophoresis, DNA will migrate towards

a) cathode or positive electrode

b) anode or negative electrode

c) cathode or negative electrode

d) anode or positive electrode

Answer: d) anode or positive electrode

13. The speed of migration of ions in an electric field depends on

a) magnitude of charge and mass of molecules

b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules

c) shape and size of the molecule

d) magnitude of charge, shape and mass of molecules

Answer: b) magnitude of charge and shape of molecules

14. Which of the following statement is true regarding migration of bio molecules?
a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the current

b) the rate of migration is inversely proportional to current

c) the rate of migration is directly proportional to the resistance of the medium

d) Low voltage is used for the separation of high molecular weight compounds

Answer: a) the rate of migration is directly proportional to current

15. Electrophoresis cell or electrophoresis apparatus consists of

a) power pack and electrophoresis unit

b) Electrophoresis unit and DNA separator

c) buffer chamber and Electrophoresis unit

d) Gel, buffer chamber and power pack

Answer: a) power pack and electrophoresis unit

16. The most common type of gel used for DNA separation is

a) Agar
b) Polyacrylamide

c) Agarose

d) All of the above

Answer: c) Agarose

17. Which is the technique suited for the separation of large DNA fragments

a) AGE

b) PAGE

c) PFGE

d) SDS-PAGE

Answer: c) PFGE

18. What is the role of SDS in SDS-PAGE?

a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge

b) imparting overall negative charge to the protein

c) imparting equal mass to all proteins

d) protein unfolding and imparting net positive charge

Answer: a) protein denaturing and imparting net negative charge

19. In SDS-PAGE, separation is based on

a) molecular weight

b) shape

c) charge

d) all of the above

Answer: a) molecular weight

20. The electrophoresis technique that used isoelectric focusing is

a) AGE

b) PFGE

c) 2D-PAGE

d) SDS-PAGE
Answer: c) 2D-PAGE

21. For isolating DNA from plants, the most suitable method is

a) CTAB method
b) SDS-phenol extraction
c) SDS-proteinase K treatment
d) all of these

Answer: a) CTAB method

22. Which of the following reagent is commonly used for bacterial cell wall lysis

a) CTAB
b) phenol extraction
c) lysozyme
d) penicillin

Answer: c) lysozyme

23. DNA extraction from plant tissues are difficult due to

a) presence of large amount of DNA

b )presence of large amount of RNA along with DNA
c) both a and b
d )presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides
Answer: d ) presence of secondary metabolites and polysaccharides

24. The action of Cetyl Trimethyl Ammonium Bromide (CTAB) in DNA extraction
from plant tissue is

a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate

b) CTAB complex with proteins and form precipitate
c) CTAB complex with polysaccharides and form precipitate
d) CTAB complex with secondary metabolites and form precipitate

Answer: a) CTAB complex with nucleic acids and form precipitate

25. Which of the following reagents are used for precipitating DNA

a) isopropanol
b) ethanol
c) both a and b
d) none of these

Answer: c) both a and b

26. The action of EDTA in EDTA-lysozyme treatment in bacterial DNA extraction

is

a) removes Mg+ ions essential for maintenance of bacterial cell wall structure
b) inhibits degradation of DNA by cellular enzymes
c) removes outer lipopolusaccharide layer of Gram negative bacteria
d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

27. Phenol used in DNA extraction

a) precipitates DNA and leave proteins in aqueous solution

b) precipitates RNA-protein complex and leave DNA in aqueous solution
c) precipitates cell debris and leave nucleic acids-protein complex in aqueous
solution
d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution

Answer: d) precipitates proteins and leave nucleic acids in aqueous solution

28. In cell extracts with high protein content, before phenol treatment

a) chloroform is used to break polypeptides to small fragments

b) SDS is used to break polypeptides to small fragments
c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments
d) all of these

Answer: c) Proteases are used to break polypeptides to small fragments

29. Which of the following reagent is used for quantifying DNA

a) chloroform
b) CTAB
c) Diphenylamine
d) dansyl chloride

Answer: c) Diphenylamine

30. Which of the following is in the correct order regarding DNA extraction

a) RNAase treatment->Protease treatment->Cell lysis-> ethanol precipitation

b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol precipitation
c) Cell lysis-> RNAase treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation
d) Cell lysis-> phenol treatment ->protease treatment-> ethanol precipitation

Answer: b ) Cell lysis->phenol treatment->RNAase treatment-> ethanol

precipitation

31. Any DNA molecule that has the ability to replicate in an appropriate host cell, to
which the desired gene are integrated for cloning, is called as

a) Plasmid

b) linker

c) vector

d) adapter

Answer: c. vector
32. Which of the following statement is true

a) a vector should have an origin of replication

b) a vector should have selectable markers

c) a vector should have unique restriction sites

d) all of these

Answer: d) all of these

33. Expression vectors differ from a cloning vector in having

a) an origin of replication

b) suitable marker genes

c) unique restriction sites

d) control elements

Answer: d) control elements

34. Extra chromosomal, double stranded, circular DNA molecule present in bacteria
which is widely used as vector is called
a) phagemid

b) cosmid

c) plasmid

d) bacterial vectors

Answer: c) plasmid

35. The first engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322

b) pUC vectors

c) pSC101

d) pUC 19

Answer: c) pSC101

36. The most popular and widely used engineered plasmid vector is

a) pBR 322
b) pUC vectors

c) pSC101

d) pUC 19

Answer: a) pBR 322

37. In pBR 322, pBR stands for

a) plasmid bacterial recombination

b) plasmid bacterial replication

c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

d) plasmid Baltimore and Rodriguez

Answer: c) plasmid Boliver and Rodriguez

38. Phage M13 vectors are widely used for

a) obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

b) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

c) obtaining fragments of cloned DNA suitable for DNA sequencing

d) obtaining double stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for electrophoresis

Answer: a) obtaining single stranded copies of cloned DNA suitable for DNA
sequencing

39. Cosmid is a plasmid with

a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

b) a minimum of 250 bp of M13 DNA that includes cos site

c) a minimum of 100 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

d) a minimum of 250 bp of T4 phage DNA that includes cos site

Answer: a) a minimum of 250 bp of lambda DNA that includes cos site

40. Vectors designed to replicate in cells of two different species are called

a) phasmids

b) transfer vectors

c) shuttle vectors

d) phagemids
Answer: c.) shuttle vectors

41. Autonomously replicating sequences (ARS) is a characteristic feature of

a) plasmid vectors

b) phage vectors

c) E.coli vectors

d) yeast vectors

Answer: d) yeast vectors

42. Which of the following are vectors for animals

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

b) CMV vectors and Gemini vectors

c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors

d) all of the above

Answer: a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

43. The vectors commonly used for sequencing human genome

a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC)

b) plasmid

c) CMV vectors

d) M13 vectors

Answer: a) Yeast artificial chromosome (YAC

44. Ti plasmids that is used as a plant vector is obtained from

a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

b) Agrobacterium rhizhogenes

c) Agrobacterium radiobactor

d) Thermus aquaticus

Answer: a) Agrobacterium tumefaciens

45. The most common vectors for plants are

a) SV 40 vectors and Bovine papillomavirus vectors

b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors

c) lambda phage and M13 phage vectors

d) T4 phage vectors

Answer: b) Cauliflower mosaic virus (CMV vectors) and Gemini vectors

46. Golden rice is a transgenic crop of the future with the following improved trait.

a) Insect resistance
b) High protein content
c) High vitamin A content
d) High lysine content

Answer: c) High vitamin A content

47. DNA fingerprinting refer to

a) Techniques used for identification of fingerprints of individuals

b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples
c) Analysis of DNA samples using imprinting devices
d) Techniques used for molecular analysis of different specimens of DNA

Answer: b) Molecular analysis of profiles of DNA samples

48. The technique of obtaining large number of plantlet by tissue culture method is
called

a) Plantlet culture
b) Micropropagation
c) Organ culture
d)Macropropagation

Answer: b) Micropropagation

49. Maximum application of animal cell culture technology today is in the

production of

a) Insulin
b) Interferons
c) Edible proteins
d) Vaccines

Answer: d) Vaccines

50. In tissue culture medium, the embryoids formed from pollen grains is due to

a) Organogenesis
b) Cellular totipotency
c) Double fertilization
d) Test tube culture
Answer: b) Cellular totipotency

51. What is true for monoclonal antibodies?

a) These antibodies obtained from one parent and for one antigen
b) These obtained from many parents and for many antigens
c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen
d) These obtained from one parent and for many antigens

Answer: c) These obtained from different parents and for one antigen

52. Two bacteria found to be very useful in genetic engineering experiments are

a) Nitrobacter and Azotobacter

b)Rhizobium and Diplococcus
c) Nitrosomonas and Klebsiella
d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

Answer: d) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

53. A genetically engineered microorganism used successfully in bioremediation of

oil spills is a species of

a) Trichoderma
b) Bacillus
c) Xanthomonas
d) Pseudomonas
Answer: d) Pseudomonas

54. Probiotics are

a) cancer inducing microbes

b) safe antibiotics
c) new kind of food allergens
d) live microbial food supplement

Answer: d) live microbial food supplement

55. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue culture the best method is

a) meristem culture
b) protoplast culture
c) anther culture
d) embryo rescue

Answer: a) meristem culture

56. Animal biotechnology involves

a) production of valuable products in animals using rDNA technology

b) rapid multiplication of animals of desired genotypes
c) alteration of genes to make it more desirable
d) all of these
Answer: d) all of these

57. Animal cell cultures are used widely for the production of

a) insulin
b) somatostatin
c) mabs
d) thyroxine

Answer: c) mabs

58. The first vaccine developed from animal cell culture was

a) Hepatitis B vaccine
b) Influenza vaccine
c) Small pox vaccine
d) Polio vaccine

Answer: d) Polio vaccine

59. Which of the following are commonly produced in animal cell cultures

a) Interferon
b) mab
c) vaccines
d) all of these
Answer: d) all of these

60. The cell line used for the production of polio vaccine was

a) Primate kidney cell line

b) CHO cell line
c) Dog kidney cell line
d) mouse fibroblast cell line

Answer: a) Primate kidney cell line

61. Recombinant proteins are

a) proteins synthesized in animals

b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology
c) proteins synthesised in cells that are produced by protoplast fusion
d) proteins synthesized in mutated cell lines

Answer: b) proteins synthesized by transgene in host cell by rDNA technology

62. Interferons are

a) anti bacterial proteins

b) anti-viral proteins
c) bacteriostatic proteins
d) all of these
Answer: b) anti-viral proteins

63. The virus commonly used to infect cell cultures for the production of interferon
is

a) Corona virus
b) Sendai virus
c) Polio virus
d) Small pox virus

Answer: b) Sendai virus

65. Hybrid antibodies are

a) antibodies produced in cell cultures

b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures
c) antibodies produced in invivo
d) both a and b

Answer: b) antibodies designed using rDNA technology produced in cell cultures

66. The technique used in animal biotechnology for the rapid multiplication and
production of animals with a desirable genotype is

a) protoplast fusion and embryo transfer

b) hybrid selection and embryo transfer
c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer
d) all of these

Answer: c) in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer

67. The production of complete animals from somatic cells of an animal is called

a) gene cloning
b) animal cloning
c) cell cloning
d) all of these

Answer: b) animal cloning

68. The first successfully cloned animal was

a) monkey
b) gibbon
c) sheep
d) rabbit

Answer: c) sheep

69. In humans, the babies produced by in vitro fertilization and embryo transfer was
popularly called as

a) in vitro babies
b) test tube babies
c) invitro-invivo babies
d) all of these

Answer: b) test tube babies

70. Two bacteria most useful in genetic engineering are

a)Rhizobium and Azotobacter

b)Nitrosomonas and Klebsilla
c)Escherichia and Agrobacterium
d)Rhizobium and Diplococcus

Answer: c) Escherichia and Agrobacterium

71. Transposon is known as

a)IS element
b)Jumping gene
c)conservative gene
d)co integrate gene

Answer: b) Jumping gene

72. The uptake of plasmid DNA into the bacterial cell is facilitated by the presence
of --- in the medium
a) Calcium Chloride
b) Potassium chloride
c) Magnesium chloride
d) none of these

Answer: a) Calcium Chloride

73. The travel of gene expression and gene activation can be measured using which
of the following?

a) Reporter gene
b) Marker gene
c)Gene sequences
d)Promoter element

Answer: b) Marker gene

74. The enzyme required to obtained wall free/ nacked protoplasts are

a) cellulase and proteinase

b) cellulase and pectinase
c) cellulase and amylase
d) amylase and pectinase

Answer: b) cellulase and pectinase

75. A synchronous culture is one in which the majority of cells proceed through
a) Lag phase
b) Log phase
c) exponential phase
d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M)

Answer: d) each cell cycle phase (G1, S, G2 and M

76. DNA molecules, identical except for different numbers of superhelical turns are
called

a) Chain isomers
b) Topoisomers
c) Helical isomers
d) Geometrical isomers

Answer: b) Topoisomers

77. Application of embryo culture is in

a) clonal propagation
b) Production of alkaloids
c) Production of soma clonal variation
d)overcoming hybridisation barrier

Answer: d) overcoming hybridisation barrier

78. Haploid culture are got from

a) leaves
b) root tips
c) pollen grain
d) bud

Answer: c) pollen grain

79. Differentiation of shoot in plant tissue culture is controlled by

a)high auxin : cytokinin ratio

b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio
c) high gibberellin : cytokinin ratio
d) high gibberellin: auxin ratio

Answer: b) high cytokinin : auxin ratio

80.All of the following are advantages of e-readers over paper books, EXCEPT
________.

a. integrated dictionaries
b. note taking and highlighting
c. URL links
d. common digital formats

Answer: common digital formats

81.All of the following are technologies used to transfer digital information,
EXCEPT ________.

a. WiFi
b. 3G
c. 4G
d. 5G

Answer: 5G

82.Which of the following describes the number of times an analog wave is

measured each second during an analog-to-digital conversion?

a. Converting rate
b. Conversion rate
c. Simplifying rate
d. Sampling rate

Answer: sampling rate

83. Chemical released by chlorofluorocarbons is –

a) Nitrogen

b) Sulphuric acid

iii) Chlorine
c) Sodium chloride

Answer:- c) Chlorine

84. In the atmosphere, tiny solid or liquid suspended particles of various

composition are called:

a) Aerosols

b) Carcinogens

c) Greenhouse Gases

d) Microbes

Answer:- a) Aerosols

85. Identify the non Green-House Gas (GHG) from the following:

a) Methane

b) Nitrous Oxide

c) CFCs

d) Carbon Monoxide

Answer:- d) Carbon Monoxide

86. In the E- waste generated by the Mobile Phones, which among the following

metal is most abundant?

a) Copper

b) Gold
c) Silver

d) All of the above

Answer:- a) Copper

87. Major consumer of wood form forest is _______________ .

a) Thermal Power Plant

b) Paper Industry

c) Chemical Industry

d) None of the above

Answer:- b) Paper Industry

88. Biotic component of biosphere is not constituted by……….

a) Producer

b) Consumer

c) Decompose

d) Air

Answer:- d) Air

89. Suppose last night was clear and clam. Tonight low clouds will be present. From

this you would conclude that tonight’s minimum temperature will be:

a) Higher than last night’s minimum temperature

b) Lower than last night’s minimum temperature

c) The same as last night’s minimum temperature

d) Above freezing

Answer:- a) Higher than last night's minimum temperature

90)Environment is the life support system that includes

a. Air

b. Water

c. Land

d. All of the above

Ans- d

91)The term ‘Environment’ has been derived from the French word which means to
encircle or surround

a. Environ

b. Oikos

c. Geo

d. Aqua

Ans-a

92) Biosphere is

a. The solid shell of inorganic materials on the surface of the earth

b. The thin shell of organic matter on the surface of the earth comprising of all the
living things
c. The sphere which occupies the maximum volume of all the spheres

d. All the above

Ans.-b

93) Atmosphere consists of 79 percent Nitrogen and 21 percent Oxygen by

a. Volume

b. Weight

c. Density

d. All of these

Ans- b

94) The word ‘Environment’ is derived from

a. Greek

b. French

c. Spanish

d. English

Ans-b

95)Which among the following is a climatic factor?

a. pressure

b. humidity
c. temperature

d. all of the above

Ans- d

96)World environment day is on:

a. 5th May

b. 5th June

c. 18th July

d. 16th August

Ans- b

97) Which of the following are major environmental issues involved in mining?

a. air pollution

b. water pollution

c. soil degradation

d. all of the above

Ans- d

98)Sustainable development means

a. meeting present needs without compromising on future needs

b. progress of human beings

c. balance between human needs and the ability of earth to provide the resources

d. all of the above

Ans-c

99) The most important remedy to avoid negative impact due to industrialisation is

a. industry should be closed

b. don’t allow new industrial units

c. industry should treat all the wastes generated by it before disposal

d. industries should be shifted far away from human habitats

Ans- c

100)Sustainable development will not aim at

a. Social economic development which optimizes the economic and social benefits
available in the present, without spoiling the likely potential for similar benefits in
the future

b. Reasonable and equally distributed level of economic well being that can be
perpetuated continually

c. Development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs
of future generations to meet their own needs

d. Maximising the present day benefits through increased resource consumption

Ans-c

101)The basic requirements of human beings are provided by

b. Agriculture

c. Nature

d. Urbanisation

Ans- c

102. Point out the correct statement.

a) Hadoop do need specialized hardware to process the data

b) Hadoop 2.0 allows live stream processing of real-time data

c) In Hadoop programming framework output files are divided into lines or records

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b

103. According to analysts, for what can traditional IT systems provide a foundation
when they’re integrated with big data technologies like Hadoop?

a) Big data management and data mining

b) Data warehousing and business intelligence

c) Management of Hadoop clusters

d) Collecting and storing unstructured data

Answer: a

104. Hadoop is a framework that works with a variety of related tools. Common
cohorts include ____________

a) MapReduce, Hive and HBase

b) MapReduce, MySQL and Google Apps

c) MapReduce, Hummer and Iguana

d) MapReduce, Heron and Trumpet

Answer: a

105. Point out the wrong statement.

a) Hardtop processing capabilities are huge and its real advantage lies in the ability
to process terabytes & petabytes of data

b) Hadoop uses a programming model called “MapReduce”, all the programs should
confirm to this model in order to work on Hadoop platform

c) The programming model, MapReduce, used by Hadoop is difficult to write and

test

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: c

106. What was Hadoop named after?

a) Creator Doug Cutting’s favorite circus act

b) Cutting’s high school rock band

c) The toy elephant of Cutting’s son

d) A sound Cutting’s laptop made during Hadoop development

Answer: c

107. All of the following accurately describe Hadoop, EXCEPT ____________

a) Open-source

b) Real-time

c) Java-based

d) Distributed computing approach

Answer: b

108. __________ can best be described as a programming model used to develop

Hadoop-based applications that can process massive amounts of data.

a) MapReduce

b) Mahout

c) Oozie

d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a

109. __________ has the world’s largest Hadoop cluster.

a) Apple

b) Datamatics

c) Facebook

d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c

110. Facebook Tackles Big Data With _______ based on Hadoop.

a) ‘Project Prism’

b) ‘Prism’

c) ‘Project Big’

d) ‘Project Data’

Answer: a

111. As companies move past the experimental phase with Hadoop, many cite the
need for additional capabilities, including _______________

a) Improved data storage and information retrieval

b) Improved extract, transform and load features for data integration

c) Improved data warehousing functionality

d) Improved security, workload management, and SQL support

Answer: d

112. Which of the following statement is true?

A.The data warehouse consists of data marts and operational data

B.The data warehouse is used as a source for the operational data

C.The operational data are used as a source for the data warehouse

D.All of the above

Ans: c

113. The following is true of three-tier data warehouses:

A.Once created, the data marts will keep on being updated from the data warehouse
at periodic times

B.Once created, the data marts will directly receive their new data from the
operational databases

C.The data marts are different groups of tables in the data warehouse

D.A data mart becomes a data warehouse when it reaches a critical size

Ans: a

114. The following technology is not well-suited for data mining:

A.Expert system technology

B.Data visualization

C.Technology limited to specific data types such as numeric data types

D.Parallel architecture

Ans: c

115. What is true of the multidimensional model?

A.It typically requires less disk storage

B.It typically requires more disk storage

C.Typical business queries requiring aggregate functions take more time

D.Increasing the size of a dimension is difficult

Ans: d

116. The value at the intersection of the row labeled "India" and the column
"Savings" in Table2 should be:

A.800,000

B.300,000

C.200,000

D.300,000

Ans: a

117. We want to add the following capabilities to Table2: show the data for 3 age
groups (20-39, 40-60, over 60), 3 revenue groups (less than $10,000,
$10,000-$30,000, over $30,000) and add a new type of account: Money market. The
total number of measures will be:

A.4

B.More than 100

C.Between 10 and 30 (boundaries includeD.

D.Between 40 and 60 (boundaries includeD.

Ans: b

118. We want to add the following capability to Table2: for each type of account in
each region, also show the dollar amount besides the number of customers. This
adds to Table2:

A.Another dimension

B.Other column(s)
C.Other row(s)

D.Another measure for each cell

Ans: d

119. The most common source of change data in refreshing a data warehouse is:

A.Queryable change data

B.Cooperative change data

C.Logged change data

D.Snapshot change data

Ans: d

120. Which of the following statements is not true about refreshing a data
warehouse:

A.It is a process of managing timing differences between the updating of data

sources and the related data warehouse objects

B.Updates to dimension tables may occur at different times than the fact table

C.The data warehouse administrator has more control over the load time lag than the
valid time lag

D.None of the above

Ans: d

121. A data warehouse is which of the following?

A. Can be updated by end users.

B. Contains numerous naming conventions and formats.

C. Organized around important subject areas.

D. Contains only current data.

Ans: C

122. An operational system is which of the following?

A. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on historical
data.

B. A system that is used to run the business in real time and is based on current data.

C. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on current data.

D. A system that is used to support decision making and is based on historical data.

Ans: B

123. The generic two-level data warehouse architecture includes which of the
following?

A. At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources

C. Near real-time updates

D. All of the above.

Ans: B

124. The @active data warehouse architecture includes which of the following?

A. At least one data mart

B. Data that can extracted from numerous internal and external sources

C. Near real-time updates

D. All of the above.

Ans: D

125. Reconciled data is which of the following?

A. Data stored in the various operational systems throughout the organization.

B. Current data intended to be the single source for all decision support systems.

C. Data stored in one operational system in the organization.

D. Data that has been selected and formatted for end-user support applications.

Ans: B

126. Transient data is which of the following?

A. Data in which changes to existing records cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated

B. Data in which changes to existing records do not cause the previous version of the
records to be eliminated

C. Data that are never altered or deleted once they have been added

D. Data that are never deleted once they have been added

Ans: A

127. The extract process is which of the following?

A. Capturing all of the data contained in various operational systems

B. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various operational systems

C. Capturing all of the data contained in various decision support systems

D. Capturing a subset of the data contained in various decision support systems

Ans: B

128. Data scrubbing is which of the following?

A. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary
indexes

B. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary
indexes

C. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse

D. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

Ans: D

129. The load and index is which of the following?

A. A process to reject data from the data warehouse and to create the necessary
indexes

B. A process to load the data in the data warehouse and to create the necessary
indexes

C. A process to upgrade the quality of data after it is moved into a data warehouse

D. A process to upgrade the quality of data before it is moved into a data warehouse

Ans: B
130. Data transformation includes which of the following?

A. A process to change data from a detailed level to a summary level

B. A process to change data from a summary level to a detailed level

C. Joining data from one source into various sources of data

D. Separating data from one source into various sources of data

Ans: A

131. Which of the following features usually applies to data in a data warehouse?

A.Data are often deleted

B.Most applications consist of transactions

C.Data are rarely deleted

D.Relatively few records are processed by applications

Ans: c

132. Dependent demand and independent demand items differ in that

A. for any product, all components are dependent-demand items

B. the need for independent-demand items is forecasted

C. the need for dependent-demand items is calculated

D. all of the above are true

Ans: D

133. A master production schedule specifies

A. the financial resources required for production

B. what component is to be made, and when

C. what product is to be made, and when

D. the labor hours required for production

Ans: C

134. The ______ is(are) the MRP input detailing which end items are to be
produced, when they are needed, and in what quantities.

A. master production schedule

B. gross requirements

C. inventory records

D. assembly time chart

Ans: A

135. A master production schedule contains information about

A. quantities and required delivery dates of all sub-assemblies

B. quantities and required delivery dates of final products

C. inventory on hand for each sub-assembly

D. inventory on hand for each final product

Ans: B

136. In continuous (make-to-stock) operations, the master production schedule is

usually expressed in terms of
A. end-items

B. modules

C. kits

D. customer orders

Ans: A

137. In job shop (make-to-order) operations, the master production schedule is

usually expressed in terms of

A. end-items

B. modules

C. kits

D. customer orders

Ans: D

138. The following table is an example of a(n)

Week 1 Week 2 Week 3 Week 4 Week 5

Clothes Washer 200 100

Clothes Dryer 300 100 100 100

Upright Freezer 200 500

A. aggregate plan

B. load report
C. master production schedule

D. inventory record

Ans: C

139. The ______ is the input to Materials Requirements Planning which lists the
assemblies,

subassemblies, parts and raw materials needed to produce one unit of finished
product.

A. bill of materials

B. net requirements chart

C. inventory records

D. assembly time chart

Ans: A

140. A bill of materials lists the

A. times needed to perform all phases of production

B. production schedules for all products

C. components, ingredients, and materials required to produce an item

D. operations required to produce an item

Ans: C

141. One way to facilitate production scheduling and production in firms making a
large number of different final products is to use
A. planning bills

B. modular bills

C. phantom bills

D. overdue bills

Ans: B

142. The bill of materials contains information necessary to

A. convert (explode) net requirements at one level into gross requirements at the
next level

B. calculate quantities on hand and on order

C. convert gross requirements into net requirements

D. place an order to replenish the item

Ans: A

143. Which of the following statements best compares modular bills and phantom
bills?

A. Both pertain to assemblies that are not inventorieD.

B. There is no difference between the two.

C. Both pertain to assemblies that are inventorieD.

D. Modular bills represent subassemblies that actually exist and are inventoried,
while phantom

bills represent subassemblies that exist only temporarily and are not inventorieD.
Ans: d

144. Given the following bill-of-materials:

If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for
component E?

A. 300

B. 100

C. 200

D. 250

Ans: A

145. The minimum record accuracy required for successful MRP is approximately

A. lower than 90%

B. 90%

C. 95%

D. 99%

Ans: D

146. Given the following bill of materials

If the demand for product A is 50 units, what will be the gross requirement for
component E?

A. 50

B. 100
C. 150

D. 200

Ans: A

147. Given the following bill of materials

If the demand for product A is 30 units, and there are on hand 10 units of B and none
of C, how many units of part D will be needed?

A. 3

B. 40

C. 70

D. 90

Ans: C

148. "Exploding" the bill of materials means

A. converting the bill of materials into components and raw material requirements

B. identifying the lead time of all the components

C. determining the various components' quantities that are already on hand

D. determining the net requirements for all the components

Ans: A

149. Low level coding means that

A. a final item has only a few levels in the BOM structure

B. it is the code for the missing items

C. a component item is coded at the lowest level at which it appears in the BOM
structure

D. the top level of the BOM is below level zero and that BOM's are not organized
around the finished product

Ans: C

150. Each X requires 2 of component Y; each Y requires 4 of part Z. The lead time
for assembly of X is

1 week. The lead time for the manufacture of Y is 1 week. The lead time for the
procurement of Z

is 6 weeks. The cumulative lead time for X is _____ weeks.

A. 48

B. 7

C. 8

D. 10

Ans: C
Chapter 4

1. With data mining, the best way to accomplish this is by setting aside some of your
data in a vault to isolate it from the mining process; once the mining is complete, the
results can be tested against the isolated data to confirm the model's _______.
A.Validity

B.Security

C.Integrity

D.None of above

Ans: A

2. The automated, prospective analyses offered by data mining move beyond the
analyses of past events provided by _______ tools typical of decision support
systems.
A.Introspective
B.Intuitive

C.Reminiscent

DRetrospective

Ans: D

3. The technique that is used to perform these feats in data mining is called
modeling, and this act of model building is something that people have been doing
for a long time, certainly before the _______ of computers or data mining
technology.
A.Access

B.Advent

C.Ascent

D.Avowal

Ans: B
4. Classification consists of examining the properties of a newly presented
observation and assigning it to a predefined ________.
A.Object

B.Container
C.Subject
D.Class

Ans: D

5. During business hours, most ______ systems should probably not use parallel
execution.
A.OLAP

B.DSS

C.Data Mining

D.OLTP

Ans: D

6. In contrast to statistics, data mining is ______ driven.

A.Assumption

B.Knowledge

C.Human

D.Database

Ans: B

7. Data mining derives its name from the similarities between searching for valuable
business information in a large database, for example, finding linked products in
gigabytes of store scanner data, and mining a mountain for a _________ of valuable
ore.
A.Furrow

B.Streak

C.Trough

D.Vein

Ans: D
8. As opposed to the outcome of classification, estimation deal with __________
valued outcome.
A.Discrete

B.Isolated

C.Continuous

D.Distinct

Ans: A

9. The goal of ideal parallel execution is to completely parallelize those parts of a

computation that are not constrained by data dependencies. The smaller the portion
of the program that must be executed __________, the greater the scalability of the
computation.
A.In Parallel

B.Distributed

C.Sequentially

D.None of above
Ans: C

10. Data mining evolve as a mechanism to cater the limitations of ________ systems
to deal massive data sets with high dimensionality, new data types, multiple
heterogeneous data resources etc.
A.OLTP

B.OLAP

C.DSS

D.DWH

Ans: A

11. The goal of ideal parallel execution is to completely parallelize those parts of a
computation that are not constrained by data dependencies. The ______ the portion
of the program that must be executed sequentially, the greater the scalability of the
computation.
A.Larger

B.Smaller
C.Unambiguous

D.Superior

Ans: B

12. The goal of ________ is to look at as few blocks as possible to find the matching
records(s).
A.Indexing

B.Partitioning

C.Joining

D.None of above

Ans: A

13. In nested-loop join case, if there are ‘M’ rows in outer table and ‘N’ rows in inner
table, time complexity is
A.(M log N)

B.(log MN)
C.(MN)

D.(M + N)

Ans: C

14. Many data warehouse project teams waste enormous amounts of time searching
in vain for a _________.
A.Silver Bullet

B.Golden Bullet

C.Suitable Hardware

D.Compatible Product

Ans: A

15. A dense index, if fits into memory, costs only ______ disk I/O access to locate a
record by given key.
A.One
B.Two

C.lg (n)

D.n

Ans: A

16. All data is ________ of something real.

I An Abstraction

II A Representation

Which of the following option is true?

A.I Only

B.II Only

C.Both I & II

D.None of I & II

Ans: A
18. The key idea behind ___________ is to take a big task and break it into subtasks
that can be processed concurrently on a stream of data inputs in multiple,
overlapping stages of execution.
A.Pipeline Parallelism

B.Overlapped Parallelism

C.Massive Parallelism

D.Distributed Parallelism

Ans: A

19. Non uniform distribution, when the data is distributed across the processors, is
called ______.
A.Skew in Partition

B.Pipeline Distribution

C.Distributed Distribution

D.Uncontrolled Distribution
Ans: A

20. The goal of ideal parallel execution is to completely parallelize those parts of a
computation that are not constrained by data dependencies. The smaller the portion
of the program that must be executed __________, the greater the scalability of the
computation.
A.None of these

B.Sequentially

C.In Parallel

D.Distributed

Ans: B

21. Data mining is a/an __________ approach, where browsing through data using
data mining techniques may reveal something that might be of interest to the user as
information that was unknown previously.
A.Exploratory

B.Non-Exploratory
C.Computer Science

Ans: A

22. Data mining evolve as a mechanism to cater the limitations of ________ systems
to dealmassive data sets with high dimensionality, new data types, multiple
heterogeneous data resources etc.
A.OLTP

B.OLAP

C.DSS

D.DWH

Ans: A

23. ________ is the technique in which existing heterogeneous segments are

reshuffled, relocated into homogeneous segments.
A.Clustering

B.Aggregation
C.Segmentation

D.Partitioning

Ans: A

24. To measure or quantify the similarity or dissimilarity, different techniques are

available. Which of the following option represent the name of available
techniques?
A.Pearson correlation is the only technique

B.Euclidean distance is the only technique

C.Both Pearson correlation and Euclidean distance

DNone of these

Ans: A

25. For a DWH project, the key requirement are ________ and product experience.
A.Tools
B.Industry

C.Software

D.None of these

Ans: B

26. Pipeline parallelism focuses on increasing throughput of task execution, NOT on

_______ sub-task execution time.
A.Increasing

B.Decreasing

C.Maintaining

D.None of these

Ans: B

27. Focusing on data warehouse delivery only often end up _________.

A.Rebuilding
B.Success

C.Good Stable Product

D.None of these

Ans: D

28. Pakistan is one of the five major ________ countries in the world.
A.Cotton-growing

B.Rice-growing

C.Weapon Producing

Ans: A

29. ______ is a process which involves gathering of information about column

through execution of certain queries with intention to identify erroneous records.
A.Data profiling

B.Data Anomaly Detection

C.Record Duplicate Detection

D.None of these

Ans: A

30. Relational databases allow you to navigate the data in ________ that is
appropriate using the primary, foreign key structure within the data model.
A.Only One Direction

B.Any Direction

C.Two Direction

D.None of these

Ans: B

31. DSS queries do not involve a primary key

A.True

B.False
Ans: A

32. _______ contributes to an under-utilization of valuable and expensive historical

data, and inevitably results in a limited capability to provide decision support and
analysis.
A. he lack of data integration and standardization

B.Missing Data

C.Data Stored in Heterogeneous Sources

Ans: A

33. DTS allows us to connect through any data source or destination that is
supported by ________.
A.OLE DB

B.OLAP

C.OLTP

D.Data Warehouse
Ans: A

34. If some error occurs, execution will be terminated abnormally and all
transactions will be rolled back. In this case when we will access the database we
will find it in the state that was before the ________.
A.Execution of package

B.Creation of package

C.Connection of package

Ans: A

35. The need to synchronize data upon update is called

A.Data Manipulation

B.Data Replication

C.Data Coherency

D.Data Imitation

Ans: C
36. Taken jointly, the extract programs or naturally evolving systems formed a
spider web, also known as
A.Distributed Systems Architecture

B.Legacy Systems Architecture

C.Online Systems Architecture

D.Intranet Systems Architecture

Ans: B

37. It is observed that every year the amount of data recorded in an organization is
A.Doubles

B.Triples

C.Quartiles

D.Remains same as previous year

Ans: A
38. Pre-computed _______ can solve performance problems
A.Aggregates

B.Facts

C.Dimensions

Ans: A

39. The degree of similarity between two records, often measured by a numerical
value between _______, usually depends on application characteristics.
A.0 and 1

B.0 and 10

C.0 and 100

D.0 and 99

Ans: A
40. The purpose of the House of Quality technique is to reduce ______ types of risk.
A.Two

B.Three

C.Four

D.All

Ans: A

41. NUMA stands for __________

A.Non-uniform Memory Access

B.Non-updateable Memory Architecture

C.New Universal Memory Architecture

Ans: A

42. There are many variants of the traditional nested-loop join. If the index is built as
part of the query plan and subsequently dropped, it is called
A.Naive nested-loop join

B.Index nested-loop join

C.Temporary index nested-loop join

D.None of these

Ans: C

43. The Kimball s iterative data warehouse development approach drew on decades
of experience to develop the ______.
A.Business Dimensional Lifecycle

B.Data Warehouse Dimension

C.Business Definition Lifecycle

D.OLAP Dimension

Ans: A

44. During the application specification activity, we also must give consideration to
the organization of the applications.
A.True
B.False

Ans: A

45. The most recent attack is the ________ attack on the cotton crop during 2003-
04, resulting in a loss of nearly 0.5 million bales.
A.Boll Worm

B.Purple Worm

C.Blue Worm

D.Cotton Worm

Ans: A

46. The users of data warehouse are knowledge workers in other words they
are_________ in the organization.
A.Decision maker

B.Manager
C.Database Administrator

D.DWH Analyst

Ans: A

47. _________ breaks a table into multiple tables based upon common column
values.
A.Horizontal splitting

B.Vertical splitting

Ans: A

48. _____modeling technique is more appropriate for data warehouses.

A.entity-relationship

B.dimensional

C.physical

D.None of the given

Ans: B

49. Multi-dimensional databases (MDDs) typically use _______ formats to store

pre-summarized cube structures.
A.SQL

B.proprietary file

C.Object oriented

D.Non- proprietary file

Ans: B

50. Data warehousing and on-line analytical processing (OLAP) are _______
elements of decision support system.
A.Unusual

B.Essential

C.Optional
D.None of the given

Ans: B

51. Analytical processing uses ______ , instead of record level access.

A.multi-level aggregates

B.ingle-level aggregates

C.Single-level hierarchy

D.None of the Given

Ans: A

52. The divide & conquer cube partitioning approach helps alleviate the ______
limitations of MOLAP implementation.
A.Flexibility
B.Maintainability

C.Security

D.Scalability
Ans: D

53. Data Warehouse provides the best support for analysis while OLAP carries out
the _________ task.
A.Mandatory

B.Whole

C.Analysis

D.Prediction

Ans: C

54. Data Warehouse provides the best support for analysis while OLAP carries out
the _________ task.
A.Mandatory

B.Whole

C.Analysis
D.Prediction

Ans: C

55. Virtual cube is used to query two similar cubes by creating a third “virtual” cube
by a join between two cubes.
A.True

B.False

Ans: A

56. Data warehousing and on-line analytical processing (OLAP) are _______
elements of decision support system.
A.Unusual

B.Essential

C.Optional

D.None of the given

E.Add comment
Ans: B

57)The adverse effect of modern agriculture is

a. Water pollution

b. Soil degradation

c. Water logging

d. All of the above

Ans. b

58) Soil erosion removes surface soil which contains

a. Organic matter

b. Plant nutrients

c. Both a and b

d. none of the above

Ans. a

59) Water logging is a phenomenon in which

a. Crop patterns are rotated

b. Soil root zone becomes saturated due to over irrigation

c. Erosion of soil

d. None of the above

Ans- b

60)The impact of construction of dams

a. Submerged forest

b. Loss of wild life habitat

c. Damages downstream ecosystem

d. All of the above

Ans-d

61)What would you do to prevent environmental damage

a. Plant trees

b. Halt deforestation

c. Control pollution

d. All of the above

Ans- d

62) Environmental impact assessment

a. is the study of feasibility of a project

b. is a study of bio-physical characteristics of the environment that may result from a

human action

c. Both a and b

d. None of the above

Ans-b
63) Which of the following is the most environmental friendly agricultural practice?

a. Using chemical fertilizers

b. Using insecticides

c. Organic farming

d. None of the above

Ans- c
64) A herbivore is also known as a

a. Producer

b. First order consumer

c. Second order consumer.

d. Third order consumer

Ans-b

65) A product of photosynthesis is

a. Carbon dioxide
b. Water

c. Oxygen

d. Chlorophyll

Ans- c

66) Primary source of energy in a food web is/are

a. Green plants

b. Sun

c. Inorganic nutrients

d. Animals
Ans-b

67. Treated water can be disinfected by adding

a. Alum

b. Fluorine

c. Chlorine
d. Oxygen

Ans. c

68. The burning of fossil fuels releases large amount of

a. Nitrogen

b. Sulphur

c. Carbon

d. Hydrogen

Ans. b

69. Which of the following does not causes air pollution when used for heating
purposes

a. Coal

b. Petrol

c. Kerosene

d. Solar energy
Ans. d

70. pH of rainwater is

a. 5-6

b. 6-7

c. 7-8

d. 8-9

Ans. a

71. A poisonous gas given out of vehicles exhaust is

a. Carbon monoxide

b. Ethane

c. Methane

d. Carbon dioxide

Ans. a
72. A common bactericide used in swimming pools is

a. Chlorine

b. Alum

c. Borax

d. DDT

Ans. a

73. Green house effect is linked to

a. Nitrogen oxides

b. Sulphur dioxides

c. Carbon dioxides

d. Carbon monoxides

Ans. c

74. Disposable glasses and plates are made up of

a. PVC
b. Polystyrene

c. Polyvinyl alcohol

d. Polypropylene

Ans. d

75. Aerosols consisting of solid particles produced by combustion

a. Fog

b. Smog

c. Smoke

d. None of these

Ans. b

76. Which of the following are consequences of ozone depletion

a. Skin cancer and cataract

b. Reduced growth in plants

c. Shortening of zooplanktons and their breeding period

d. All of the above

Ans. a

77. Which out of the following is a measure to control air pollution

a. Reduction in use of fossil fuels

b. Increasing use of renewable energy resources

c. Using catalytic convertors in vehicles

d. All of the above

Ans. d

78. The discharge of warm/hot water directly into rivers is known as

a. Water pollution

b. Thermal pollution

c. Marine pollution

d. None of the above

Ans. b

79. Yellowing of Taj Mahal is an effect of

a. Acid rain

b. Global warming

c. Ozone depletion

d. All of the above

Ans. a

80. Identify the aftermaths of acid rain from the following

a. Dissolving and washing away of nutrients from the soil

b. Increasing the acidity of soils, thereby hindering the growth of plants

c. Damaging the building materials/ heritage sites

d. All of the above

Ans. d
81. Increase in concentration of toxic level in each trophic level is referred to as

a. Eutrophication

b. Biomagnification

c. Bioaccumulation

d. Bioconcentration

Ans. b

82. Pollutants that are easily manageable and decomposable in nature are called

a. Biodegradable pollutants

b. Non-biodegradable pollutants

c. Renewable pollutants

d. None of these

Ans. a

83. The supersonic jets cause air pollution by the thinning of

a. Carbon dioxide layer

b. Sulphur dioxide layer

c. Ozone layer

d. Oxygen layer

Ans. c

84. Which of the following is the best indicator of SO2 pollution

a. Bryophytes

b. Pteridophytes

c. Lichens

d. Algae

Ans. c

85. BOD stands for

a. Biotic oxidation demand

b. Biological oxygen demand

c. Biological oxidation demand

d. Biochemical oxygen demand

Ans. b

86. A river with high BOD value means

a. Highly polluted

b. Highly clean

c. Highly productive

d. None of the above

Ans. a

87. Which gas is responsible for ozone layer depletion around earth?

a. Carbon dioxide

b. Chlorofluorocarbons

c. Oxygen

d. Nitrogen oxide
Ans. b

88. What is Kyoto Protocol?

a. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing global warming.

b. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for reducing acid rain.

c. It is an agreement among countries to take steps for planting trees to control

pollution.

d. It is an agreement among countries to start using nuclear energy.

Ans. a

89. Possible health effects of noise pollution includes

a. Hearing loss

b. Hypertension

c. Cardiovascular effects

d. All of the above

Ans. d
90. Noise is measured by sound meter and the unit is

a. Hertz

b. Joule

c. Decibel

d. Seconds

Ans. c
91. In which temperature soil develops slowly?

a) Summer

b) Wind

c) Rainy

d) Cold

Answer: d

92. Under ideal climatic conditions how many cms of soil is developed?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four
Answer: a

93. What is called for the matured soils which are arranged in a series of zones?

a) Soil zones

b) Soil layers

c) Soil horizons

d) Soil benches

Answer: c

94. What is soil profile?

a) A cross sectional view of the horizons in a soil

b) A front view of the horizons in a soil

c) A cross sectional view of the horizons in rocks

d) A front view of the horizons in rocks

Answer: a

95. How many horizons are there in soils?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

Answer: d
96. A–horizon soil consists of partially decomposed organic matter.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

97. Which horizon helps to determine the pH of the soil?

a) A

b) B

c) C

d) O

Answer: c

98. What is called for the mixture of all the contents of soil?

a) Erosion

b) Sublimation

c) Degradation

d) Loams

Answer: d

99. Why area treatment is important for soil?

a) To reduces the impact of raindrops on the soil

b) To maximize surface run-off

c) Not treating the upper catchment and proceeds towards an outlet

d) Not storing surplus rainwater

Answer: a

100. What is called for the movement of surface litter and topsoil from one place to
another?

a) Soil submerge

b) Soil degradation

c) Soil erosion

d) Soil pollution

Answer: c

burning of grass cover and deforestation.

101. Why continuous contour trenches are used?

a) To decrease the infiltration of air

b) To enhance the infiltration of air

c) To decrease the infiltration of water

d) To enhance the infiltration of water

Answer: d

102. What is used to convert wastelands into agricultural lands?

a) Check dams
b) Water purifier

c) Rain harvesters

d) Gradonies

Answer: d

103. Organic agriculture advocates avoiding the use of_____________________

a) Organic manure

b) Stored water

c) Modern technologies in harvesting

d) Chemical fertilizers

Answer: d

104. Integrated pest management reduces the excess use of fertilizers.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

105. Sustainable development requires that energy resource ________

a) cannot be exhausted completely

b) can be complete exhausted

c) can destroy the environment

d) cannot meet the growing demand

Answer: a

106. Which of the following contributes towards growth of economic and energy?

a) Intermittent capital and human resource investment

b) Continuous capital and human resource investment

c) Decrement in capital and human resource investment

d) No capital and human resource investment

Answer: b

107. Which of the following energy resources seems inexhaustible?

a) Natural gas

b) Coal

c) Sun

d) Petrol

Answer: c

108. For sustainable development, environment damage rate _____ environment

recovery rate.

a) should be greater than the

b) should be exponentially greater than the

c) should be same as the

d) should be lesser than the

Answer: d

109. Which of the following best describes the aim of sustainable consumption and
production?

a) To reduce resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products

b) To increase resource consumption, waste generation and emissions across the full
life cycle of processes and products

c) To reduce resource consumption, increase waste generation and emissions across

the full life cycle of processes and products

d) To increase resource consumption, reduce waste generation and emissions across

the full life cycle of processes and product

Answer: a

110. Which of the following best describes green economy?

a) A high carbon, resource inefficient and socially inclusive economy

b) A low carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy

c) A low carbon, resource inefficient and socially exclusive economy

d) A high carbon, resource efficient and socially inclusive economy

Answer: b

111. What is the goal of sustainability in any process?

a) To maintain the process finitely

b) To eventually eliminate the process

c) To maintain the process indefinitely

d) To support damaging the environment

Answer: c

112. What are the three pillars of sustainable development?

a) Energy, economy and ergonomics

b) Environment, economy and evolution

c) Energy and evolution

d) Energy, economy and environment.

Answer: d

113. What is the main problem with development of countries?

a) Strain on environment to absorb the damage and self-heal

b) Decrement in poverty

c) Higher energy consumption per capita

d) Lower energy consumption per capita

Answer: a

114. Sustainable development binds together the concern for natural systems with
social and political challenges.

a) True
b) False

Answer: a

1115. Sustainability can be achieved by replacing existing resources with other

resources of equal value.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

116. What is “3E”?

a) Energy, economy and environment

b) Reduce, reuse and recycle

c) Energy, economy and envision

d) Ergonomics, evolution and economy

Answer: a

117. Which of the following is the 7th goal of the eight millennium goals of United
Nations?

a) To eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

b) To ensure environment sustainability

c) To reduce child mortality

d) To develop a global partnership for development

Answer: b
118. Which of the following is relates the three elements of “3E”?

a) Energy from fossil fuels

b) Energy from natural gas

c) Renewable energy sources and technology

d) Economy

Answer: c

119. Which of the following ensures sustainable growth?

a) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic

expansion and energy resource meeting energy demands

b) Negative economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic

expansion and energy resource meeting energy demands

c) Positive economic growth, non-deterioration of environment with economic

expansion and growth of energy resource not meeting energy demands

d) Positive economic growth, deterioration of environment with economic

expansion and growth of energy resource meeting energy demands

Answer: d

120. Which of the following institutions publish energy data?

a) NASA

b) International Energy Agency (IEA)

c) ISRO
d) Microsoft

Answer: b

121. Which of the following best describes world energy consumption?

a) Total energy produced and used by humanity

b) Total energy consumed by humanity

c) Total energy consumed by humans in the biological pyramid

d) Total energy produced by humans in the biological pyramid

Answer: a

122. Which of the following is NOT included in world energy consumption?

a) Solar energy

b) Energy from food

c) Energy from wind

d) Energy from fossil fuels

Ans.d

123. World energy consumption is measured _______

a) quarterly

b) half-yearly

c) yearly

d) every decade
Answer: c

124. Which of the following energy sources is majorly used?

a) Wind energy

b) Nuclear energy

c) Hydrogen energy

d) Fossil fuels

Answer: d

125. Which of the following is perceived to contribute towards world population

growth?

a) Uganda

b) USA

c) UK

d) Germany

Answer: a

126. Why is there a demand for renewable sources of energy?

a) Because they emit greenhouse gases

b) Because of low or zero carbon footprint

c) Because of the decreasing global temperatures

d) Because they are more efficient

Answer: b

127. As the population grows, the demand for energy ________

a) decreases

b) remains the same

c) increases

d) becomes volatile

Answer: c

128. Which of the following countries will experience a major increment in energy
demand?

a) USA

b) France

c) UK

d) China

Answer: d

129. Despite significant investments in renewable sector, why are fossil fuels still
used?

a) Because of logistic, structural and operational issues

b) Because people do not trust the renewable sector

c) Because fossil fuels are cheap

d) Because global warming is a hoax

Answer: a

130. What is total primary energy supply?

a) Total energy produced and used by humanity

b) Total energy consumed by humanity

c) Sum of energy production minus storage changes

d) Sum of energy production including storage changes

Answer: c

131. What is the unit of total primary energy supply?

a) Watts

b) Joules

c) Newtons

d) Watt-hours

Answer: d

132. What was the growth in energy demand in the year 2018 as stated by IEA?

a) 2.3%

b) 1.3%

c) 1%

d) 0.5%

Answer: a
133. World energy consumption is a power source metric of civilization.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

134. It estimated that the world energy consumption will grow by 50% between
2018 and 2050.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

135. Which of the following best describes the reason for projected increase in
transportation energy in developing countries?

a) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases

b) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process increases

c) Energy demand per capita decreases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases

d) Energy demand per capita increases and hence the net energy required in every
process decreases

Answer: a

136. Which of the following is the most usable form of energy for future?
a) Solar

b) Electricity

c) Thermal

d) Nuclear

Answer: b

137. Which of the following sources are amongst the fastest growing energy
sources?

a) Solar and wastewater

b) Wind and hydro

c) Hydro and solar

d) Wind and wastewater

Answer: c

138. What is an energy policy?

a) A method to address issues of energy development

b) A free and liberal methodology towards energy development

c) A manner in which governments decide to stop energy development

d) A manner in which governments decide to address issues related to energy

development

Answer: d

139. What is the main aim of implementing eco-energy policies?

a) To tackle global warming and climate change

b) To reduce energy consumption

c) To manage energy production and consumption at the cost of degrading the

environment

d) To prevent illegal energy production

Answer: a

140. Renewable energy has the potential to mitigate climate change.

a) True

b) False

Answer: a

141. Which of the following leads the energy production in low-carbon sources?

a) Photovoltaics

b) Wind energy

c) Solar thermal power systems

d) Nuclear energy

View Answer

Answer: a

142. Which of the following countries is least dependent on fossil fuels?

a) India
b) Iceland

c) USA

d) England

Answer: b

143. Which of the following developed enjoys low electricity prices?

a) Belgium

b) Italy

c) Sweden

d) Germany

Answer: c

144. According to EIA, what is the globally projected increase in transportation

energy between 2018 and 2050?

a) Less than 10%

b) Between 10 and 20%

c) Greater than 100%

d) Between 30 and 50%

Answer: d

145. Which of the following is a non-commercial form of energy used for cooking in
India?

a) Cow dung
b) Coal

c) Hydro

d) Electricity

Answer: a

146. What is the largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Mundra Thermal Power Station

b) Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station

c) Sasan Ultra Mega Power Plant

d) Talcher Super Thermal Power Station

Answer: b

147. What is the second largest thermal power plant in India?

a) Tiroda Thermal Power Plant

b) Vindhyachal Thermal Power Station

c) Mundra Thermal Power Station

d) Talcher Super Thermal Power Station

Answer: c

148. Which of the following states is known oil reserves?

a) Jharkhand

b) Odisha
c) Madhya Pradesh

d) Assam

Answer: d

149. Which of the following states is known for gas reserves?

a) Nagaland

b) Odisha

c) Maharashtra

d) Jharkhand

Answer: a

150. _______ is found in coastal Odisha, Kerala and Andhra Pradesh.

a) Uranium

b) Thorium

c) Coal

d) Gas

Answer: b