MCQS OF 2023 (Jan - April)

A compiled Handbook of 2500 + MCQS
MCQS OF 2023
(JAN – APRIL)
Prepared by: Maqsood Bhatt

Shared by: PAKMCQSPK
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MCQS OF 2023 (JAN – APRIL)

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All MCQS of 2023 Till April - Shared by : PAKMCQS PK Prepared by Maqsood Bhatt

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1. In which Constitution the Objective Resolution (1949) was made operative part of the constitution
by adding Article 2-A in the Constitution?
A. 1956
B. 1962
C. 1970(Interim)
D. 1973
2. In which Constitution the Prime Minister and President both were declared Muslims?
A. 1956
B. 1962
C. 1973
D. None of them
3. When the Constitution (1973) was enforced?
A. August 12,1973
B. August 13,1973
C. August 14,1973
D. August 15,1973
4. When the President of Pakistan signed on this Constitution?
A. April 12,1973
B. April 14,1963
C. July 12,1973

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D. August 12,1973
5. When the National Assembly of Pakistan passed the third Constitution (1973)?
A. April 4,1973
B. April 10,1973
C. March 10,1973
D. August 10,1973
6. The 2nd Constitution (1962) was abrogated on ___________?
A. April 4,1969
B. March 4,1969
C. March 23,1969
D. April 23,1969
7. Name the person to whom Ayub Khan handed over all powers?
A. Z.A.Bhutto
B. Tikka Khan
C. Yahya Khan
D. Gul Hameed
8. When Ayub Khan resigned of his office?
A. March 20,1969
B. April 20,1969
C. April 25,1969
D. March 25,1969

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9. Name the constitution by which the Federal Public Service Commission (FPSC) and Provincial
Service Commissions were established?
A. 1956
B. 1962
C. 1973
D. None of them
10. What was the term of National Assembly under the constitution of 1962?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
11. The basic institution under the 2nd constitution (1962) was the Electoral College, consisting of
_______
A. 80000
B. 82000
C. 84000
D. 85000
12. The 2nd Constitution (1962) consists of a Federal State. Presidential system with a National
Assembly at the centre and Legislative Assemblies in the Provinces. Which was the Unicameral
Assembly?
A. Central
B. Provincial
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of them

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13. The 2nd Constitution (1962) began with a ___________?
A. Annexure
B. Preface
C. Preamble
D. Schedules
14. When Martial Law of Ayub Khan was abolished?
A. April 18,1962
B. June 8,1962
C. June 18,1962
D. March 18,1962
15. When the 2nd Constitution of 1962 came into force in the country?
A. June 8,1962
B. June 16,1962
C. March 8,1962
D. March 18,1962
16. When the 2nd Constitution of Islamic Republic of Pakistan (1962) was passed?
A. 1st January, 1962
B. 2nd March, 1962
C. 18th March 1962
D. 1st June 1962

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17. When Ayub Khan the then Chief Martial Law Administrator assumed the office of President?
A. October 27,1958
B. August 14,1958
C. June 27,1958
D. April 27,1958
18. After the imposition of Martial Law and the abrogation of first Constitution (1956) who was
appointed Chief Martial Law Administrator?
A. Yahya Khan
B. Tikka Khan
C. Noor Khan
D. Ayub Khan
19. Who abrogated the first Constitution (1956)?
A. F.M. Ayub Khan
B. Yahya Khan
C. Skinder Mirza
D. Chaudhry Muhammad Ali
20. How many seats reserved for women in the parliament in the first constitution (1956)?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

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21. How many seats of Parliament were set up in the first constitution (1956)?
A. 290
B. 300
C. 310
D. 315
22. Under the first Constitution (1956) who could dismiss the ministry in power without giving them
any opportunity of showing majority or vote of confidence?
A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court
B. President
C. Prime Minister
D. Prime Minister with the consent of President
23. What was the age of Presidential candidates set in the the Constitution of 1956?
A. 30 years
B. 36 years
C. 40 years
D. 50 years
24. Under the first Constitution (1956) the President was selected by on Electoral College consisting
of all the elected members of _____.
A. Provincial Assembly
B. National Assembly
C. National Assembly and Senate
D. National Assembly sand Provincial Assemblies

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25. Under the first Constitution (1956) what were the organs of Central Government?
A. Prime Minister Cabinet and Parliament
B. President Cabinet and Parliament
C. President, Supreme Court and Parliament
D. None of them
26. What is the structure of Islamic Republic of Pakistan in first Constitution (1956)?
A. Provincial
B. Central
C. Semi-Federal
D. Federal
27. Name the Constitution in which Pakistan was declared Islamic Republic of Pakistan?
A. 1956
B. 1962
C. 1973
D. None of them
28. Name the official language which declared in first Constitution (1956)?
A. Bengali
B. Urdu
C. Baluchi
D. (a) and (b)
29. The Constitution of 1956 contains provisions relating to __________?

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A. Provinces
B. Centre
C. Centre and Provinces
D. Centre and Units
30. When the first Constitution (1956) was abrogated and Martial Law was proclaimed?
A. April 8,1958
B. August 8,1958
C. October 27,1958
D. September 8,1958
31. The designation of Governor-General was changed to President in ________?
A. 1956
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1959
32. First Constitution (1956) was enforced on ____________?
A. June 23,1956
B. July 23,1956
C. August 14,1956
D. March 23,1956
33. The 2nd Constituent Assembly passed the “First Constitution” (1956) on ____________?
A. March 2,1956

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B. March 20,1956
C. April 2,1956
D. April 20,1956
34. Name the Assembly which passed Act of One Unit merging all the provinces of West Pakistan
into one unit?
A. 1st elected Assembly
B. 2nd Constituent Assembly
C. 1st Constituent Assembly
D. A special Committee for Internal Affairs
35. The first sitting of 2nd Constituent Assembly was held on ___________?
A. March,1955
B. May,1955
C. July,1955
D. August,1955
36. When the elections for 2nd Constituent Assembly were held?
A. January,1955
B. July,1955
C. March,1955
D. June,1955
37. Who wrote the book “Constitutional History of Pakistan?
A. G.W. Chaudhry
B. K.B. Saeed

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C. I.H.Qureshi
D. None of them
38. How many members were from East-Pakistan in 2nd Constituent Assembly?
A. 30
B. 35
C. 39
D. 40
39. What were the total members of 2nd Constituent Assembly?
A. 60
B. 70
C. 80
D. 85
40. When Governor-General convened the 2nd Constituent Assembly?
A. 1954
B. 1955
C. 1956
D. 1957
41. When Hussain Shaheed Suhrawardy disqualified and consequently driven out of Constituent
Assembly?
A. 1946
B. 1947

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C. 1949
D. 1950
42. The Independence Act also provided at the Constituent Assembly showed also act during the
interim period as the ___________?
A. Central Legislature of the country as well as provincial Assemblies
B. Federal legislature Assembly
C. Provincial Assemblies
D. Central legislature of the country
43. What was the decision of Federal Court in the dissolution of Assembly case?
A. It upheld the Governor-General decision
B. It upheld the Sindh Chief Court decision
C. It ordered to re-election
D. None of them
44. What was the result of the case about the dissolution of Assembly decided by the Sindh Chief
Court?
A. Dissolution is valid according to the prevailing situations
B. Reference to the Federal Court
C. Dismissal of the petition
D. Dissolution was ultra vires and void
45. What were the grounds on which the dissolution of Constituent Assembly challenged?
A. Governor-General had no authority to dissolve the Assembly
B. Assembly is sovereign body and Governor-general had no authority to dissolve it.

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C. At that time constitution had not allowed to do it
D. None of them
46. 12th amendment in constitution (1973) related to _____________?
A. Provincial Matters
B. Minorities Problems
C. Establishment of Special Courts
D. Anti-Floor Crossing
47. Enforcement of Shariat Bill has been announced in _______ of constitution (1973).
A. October 10,1988
B. August 10,1988
C. April 10,1988
D. June 12,1988
48. Anti-Floor crossing bill was associated with _____ amendment in 1973 constitution.
A. 10th
B. 11th
C. 12th
D. 14th
49. In 13th amendment, the President can not dissolve the National Assembly and dismisses Prime
Minister and his cabinet when it was adopted?
A. January 1,1997
B. July 1,1997
C. April 1,1997

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D. June 1,1997
50. 11th amendment related with ________ .
A. Minorities
B. Shariat Bill
C. Matter relating to Provinces
D. None of these
51. 10th amendment was made on _________ .
A. March 12,1987
B. April 12,1987
C. August 12,1987
D. None of them
52. When was 9th amendment made in the constitution (1973)?
A. July 8,1986
B. August 8,1986
C. September 8,1986
D. July 18,1986
53. _________ was made in 1977 to hold referendum by the President of Pakistan?
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 5th
D. 7th

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54. In which amendment the age of Supreme Court Judges (65) and High Courts (62) was fixed?
A. 2nd
B. 3rd
C. 4th
D. 6th
55. 5th amendment in the constitution (1973) was made on _________ .
A. August 14,1976
B. July 14,1975
C. September 5,1976
D. August 5,1975
56. In which amendment (1973-constitution) additional seats, for minorities were fixed?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
57. 4th amendment was made in constitution (1973) on _________?
A. August 21,1975
B. November 21,1975
C. July 21,1975
D. None of them
58. 3rd amendment was related to the ____________?

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A. Empowered the Parliament to lift the State of emergency at any time
B. Empowered the President to disqualify the member of National Assembly
C. Empowered the Prime Minister to dissolve the Assembly
D. None of them
59. 3rd amendment in constitution (1973) was made on _____________?
A. January 13,1975
B. February 13,1975
C. July 13,1975
D. August 13,1975
60. 2nd amendment was made on ___________?
A. September 7,1973
B. September 7,1974
C. August 7,1974
D. July 7,1974
61. On which amendment the Qadianis and Ahmadis were declared as minority?
A. 1st
B. 2nd
C. 3rd
D. 4th
62. The first amendment in the Constitution (1973) was made on _____________?
A. April 23,1974

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B. March 23,1974
C. June 23,1974
D. July 23,1974
63. The dissolution of Constituent Assembly was challenged by Maulvi Tamiz-ud-Din by its speaker
in ________.
A. Sindh Chief Court and then Federal Court
B. Punjab Chief Court
C. Sindh Chief Court
D. Punjab Chief Court and then Federal Court of the Country
64. Malik Ghulam Muhammad dessolved the Constituent Assembly on the grounds of ________ .
A. Corruption
B. Inactivity and in competency
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of them
65. When the Governor-General Ghulam Muhammad dissolved the Assembly?
A. 24 October,1954
B. 26 October,1954
C. 27 October,1954
D. 29 October,1954
66. In lower House the number of members from East Pakistan were _________ .
A. 150
B. 165

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C. 170
D. 175
67. The 3rd report is commonly known as __________ ?
A. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din formula
B. Bogra Report
C. Muhammad Ali Formula
D. None of them
68. After how many months the 2nd Report of Basic Principles Committee was issued?
A. 20 months
B. 25 months
C. 30 months
D. 32 months
69. The Basic Principles Committee issued its 1st report on _______ .
A. 1950
B. 1953
C. 1951
D. 1949
70. The Constituent Assembly elected a Basic Principles Committee on ___________?
A. 13 March. 1948
B. 12 March. 1948
C. 10 April. 1949

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D. 10 April. 1948
71. What is the meaning of Objective Resolution?
A. Objectives on which the further constitutions were to be based
B. Objectives of Constitutions
C. Objectives for the Pakistan
D. None of them
72. Constituent Assembly passed the famous Objective Resolution in ____________?
A. February,1948
B. March,1948
C. March,1949
D. April,1949
73. Name the Bill which was passed by the 1st Constituent Assembly?
A. EBDO
B. PRODA
C. One Unit
D. None of them
74. For how many times the 1st Constituent Assembly met in 7 years?
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 116

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75. How many years the 1st Constituent Assembly lasted?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 9
D. 10
76. The 68 members Constituent Assembly were comprised of 44 members from East Pakistan
including ________.
A. 10 Hindu Members
B. 12 Hindu Members
C. 13 Hindu Members
D. None of them
77. Name the Act under which the constituent Assembly of Pakistan was formed for framing the
constitution?
A. Independence Act, 1947
B. Government of India Act. 1935
C. Special Independence Act. 1947
D. None of them
78. At the dismissal of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din the command of the Muslim League was with
the_________.
A. I.I. Chundrigar
B. Abdul Rab Nishtar
C. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din
D. None of them

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79. Name the person who took over after the dismissal of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din?
A. Muhammad Ali Bogra
B. Ch. Muhammad Ali
C. I.I. Chundrigar
D. Malik Ghulam Muhammad
80. When Governor-General dismissed the cabinet of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din?
A. March 17,1953
B. April 17,1953
C. April 16,1953
D. June 15,1953
81. Who was the finance minister in Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din’s cabinet?
A. Abdul Rab Nishter
B. I.I. Chundrigar
C. Malik Ghulam Muhammad
D. Muhammad Ali Bogra
82. What other portfolios were held by Liaqat Ali Khan in the first cabinet of Pakistan?
A. Trade and Communication
B. foreign minister, Defense and frontier regions minister
C. Interior
D. None of them

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83. Who is the Current Ambassador of Pakistan to Saudi Arabia?
A. Lt Gen Bilal Akbar
B. Ameer Khurram Rathore
C. Brig Bilal Asad
D. None of these
84. In March 1921, there was an uprising against the Bolshevik regime that was started by 15,000
sailors. This was known as:
A. Kronstadt Rebellion
B. Petrodvorets Revolt
C. Boxer Rebellion
D. March Rebellion
85. The first secret police of communist (Bolshevik) Russia was known as: ____________?
A. Diamata
B. Cheka
C. Mir
D. Tartars
86. In 1917, the Rusians finally want out of World War I. They sign an armistice with Germany. This
treaty is known as:
A. Treaty of Bialystok
B. Treaty of Voroshilov
C. German-Soviet Pact
D. Treaty of Brest-Litovsk

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87. In 1905, Nicholas, Czar of Russia finally granted the Russian people basic civil rights. This is
known as:
A. October Manifesto
B. November Manifesto
C. Soviet Manifesto
D. Czarist Civil Action
88. U.S.S.R was officially dissolved an:___________?
A. 29th December 1991
B. 25th December 1991
C. 27th December 1991
D. 25th December 1992
89. Russian Independence Day is __________>:
A. 25th June 1990
B. 16th June 1990
C. 12th June 1990
D. 19th June 1990
90. Who was the Chief Prosecuto during the Great purges?
A. Andrey Vyshinsky
B. Nikolai Bukharin
C. Sergey Mironov
D. None of them

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91. This one-time ally of Stalin was ousted from the Politburo in 1929. He would die in the purges in
1938. Who was he?
A. General Wrangel
B. Nikolai Bukharin
C. Sergey Mironov
D. None of these
92. This General set up a regime in Crimea from March to November 1920. Who was this General?
A. Zhirirlovshiy
B. General Wrangel
C. Vladimir Volfovich
D. Sergey Mironov
93. This Leader was deported in 1926:
A. Zhirirlovshiy
B. Lean Trotsky
C. General Wrangel
D. Vladimir Volfovich
94. Who is the leader of the political party United Russia or UR?
A. Baris Vyacheslavovich Gryzlov
B. Nikita Belykh
C. Zhirinovskiy
D. Vladimir Volfovich

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95. Who is the leader of the political party Union of Right Forces or URF?
A. General Wrangel
B. Zhirinavskiy
C. Nikita Belykh
D. None of them
96. Who is the leader of the political party Liberal Democratic Party of _____ Russia or LDPR?
A. Nikita Belykh
B. Vladimir Volfovich Zhirinavskiy
C. General Wrangel
D. Sergey Mironov
97. Who is the leader of the political party Communist Party of the Russian Federation of CPRF:
A. Sergey Mironov
B. Gennadiy Andreyevich Zyuganov
C. Nikita Belykh
D. Zhirinavskiy
98. Who is the leader of the political party “Just Russia or JR”?
A. Sergey Mironov
B. Gennadiy Andreyevich Zyuganov
C. Nikita Belykh
D. Zhirinavskiy
99. Judges for all courts are appointed for life by the Federation Council on the recommendation of:

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A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor
D. None of them
100. Work in USSR was a duty and matter of:____________?
A. Concern
B. Personal benefit
C. Honour
D. None of them
101. The economic foundation of USSR was:
A. The ownership of peasant class
B. The ownership of the working class
C. The socialist system of economy
D. None of them
102. An important characteristic of 1936 constitution was:
A. Principles of democratic autonomy
B. Principles of democratic sovereignty
C. Principles of democratic centralism
D. None of them
103. Each autonomous region was entitled to send:
A. 5 deputies to the Supreme Soviet

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B. 5 deputies to the soviet of nationalities
C. 5 deputies to the congress of soviet
D. None of them
104. The highest organ of state power in every republic was:____________?
A. The presidium of the republic
B. The supreme soviet of the republic
C. Republican congress
D. None of them
105. According to article 17 of the constitution:
A. Every republic had the right to make its own constitution
B. Every republic had the power to have commerce with foreign countries
C. Every republic had the power to leave USSR
D. None of them
106. General Secretary Mikhail Gorbachev introduced Glasnost and Perestroika in an attempt to
modernize:
A. Communism
B. Socialism
C. Capitalism
D. None of them
107. A federal form of government was envisaged by: __________?
A. The constitution of 1918
B. The constitution of 1924

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C. The constitution of 1945
D. None of them
108. The Stalin constitution is called:_____________?
A. The constitution of 1918
B. The constitution of 1924
C. The constitution of 1936
D. None of them
109. Each chamber of the supreme soviets had:
A. A President
B. A Chairman
C. A Speaker
D. None of them
110. A candidate of the supreme soviets must be:___________?
A. 20 years of age
B. 22 years of age
C. 24 years of age
D. None of them
111. The procurator general was elected:
A. By supreme soviets
B. By soviets of republics
C. By soviets of nationalities

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D. None of them
112. The council of ministers was appointed:
A. By secretary general of CPSU
B. By president of USSR
C. By supreme soviets
D. None of them
113. The constitution could be amended by:____________?
A. Simple majority of the chamber
B. Not less than 2/3 majority of both the chambers
C. 2/3 majority of only soviets nationalities
D. None of them
114. The conciliation commission was formed:
A. By chambers of Supreme Soviet
B. By the presidium
C. By Soviet of nationalities
D. None of them
115. In the event of disagreement the bill was referred to:
A. Soviet presidium
B. Soviet council of ministers
C. Conciliation commission
D. None of them

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116. A law was considered passed if both the houses:
A. Passed it by simple majority
B. Passed it by 2/3 majority
C. Passed it by thorough consensus
D. None of them
117. Each union republic sent:
A. 15 deputies to soviet of nationalities
B. 20 deputies to soviet of nationalities
C. 25 deputies to soviet of nationalities
D. None of them
118. The Soviet of Union was elected by the Soviet citizens, voting by:____________?
A. Election districts
B. Election constituency
C. Election commissars
D. None of them
119. The Supreme Soviet exercised all powers vested into it in accordance with the:
A. Article 10 to the constitution
B. Article 14 of the constitution
C. Article 15 of the constitution
D. None of them
120. The supreme soviets members were elected for:__________?

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A. Three years
B. Four years
C. Five years
D. None of them
121. The supreme soviet of USSR is a:___________?
A. Unicameral house
B. Bicameral house
C. Tri-cameral house
D. None of them
122. The constitution of 1924 lasted up to:___________?
A. 1936
B. 1938
C. 1942
D. None of them
123. Lennon was the first chairman of:___________?
A. The Soviet Presidium
B. The Soviet Council of People commissions
C. The Soviet Socialist Republics
D. None of them
124. There were provisions for the presidium:
A. Comprising of 25 members

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B. Comprising of 26 members
C. Comprising of 27 members
D. None of them
125. The constitution of 1924 came into force in:___________?
A. Jan-24
B. Mar-25
C. Sep-26
D. None of them
126. The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics was came into being in: __________?
A. 1917
B. 1918
C. 1921
D. 1922
127. State Duma consists of:__________?
A. 450 members
B. 345 members
C. 435 members
D. 356 members
128. Federal Assembly or Federalnoye Sobraniye consists of:___________?
A. 176 members
B. 234 members

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C. 235 members
D. 150 members
129. Ministries of the Government or “Government” of Russia composed of the premier and his
deputies, ministers, and selected other individuals all are appointed by:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor
D. None of them
130. What is the meaning of perestroika?
A. Masterpiece
B. Openness
C. Restructuring
D. None of them
131. What is the meaning of glasnost?
A. Openness
B. Restructuring
C. Masterpiece
D. None of them
132. Who introduced perestroika?
A. Stalin
B. Mikhail Gorbachev
C. Lenin

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D. None of them
133. Who introduced glasnost?
A. Stalin
B. Mikhail Gorbachev
C. Lenin
D. None of them
134. Communists governed Russia from 1917 until:_________?
A. 1991
B. 1993
C. 1994
D. 1997
135. During the Russian Revolution of 1917 the Bolsheviks took control of the government under:
A. Lenin
B. Marx
C. Stalin
D. None of them
136. Stalin was appointed secretary general of Russian communist party in:
A. 1924
B. 1922
C. 1926
D. None of them

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137. The Russian revolution of 1917 was: __________?
A. Brought by socialist party of Russia
B. United left front of Russia
C. Bolsheviks of Russia
D. None of them
138. The council of ministers was appointed by: ________?
A. Joint setting of the Supreme Soviets
B. Presidium of the Supreme Soviets
C. Chairman of the Supreme Soviets
D. None of them
139. Union republic ministers dealt with subjects of the: ___________?
A. Centre
B. Units
C. Districts
D. None of them
140. The council of ministers in event of the parliamentary recess was responsible to:
A. Central committee of CPSU
B. Presidium of Supreme Soviet
C. Chairman of the presidium of Supreme Soviet
D. None of them
141. The USSR consisted of _____ union republics:

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A. 22
B. 17
C. 15
D. None of them
142. The all-union ministers dealt with those matters:
A. Which were national in character
B. Which were federal in character
C. Which were central in character
D. None of them
143. The ministers of USSR were either all union ministers or:
A. Union states ministers
B. Union Soviets ministers
C. Union Republic ministers
D. None of them
144. The council of ministers was the highest executive and: ___________?
A. Legislative organ in USSR
B. Administrative organ in the USSR
C. Political organ in the USSR
D. None of them
145. Before March 1946 the council of minister was known as: ______________?
A. The council of secretaries

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B. The council of people commissars
C. The council of state representatives
D. None of them
146. The right to pardon was exercised by: __________?
A. Chairman of presidium of Supreme Soviet
B. Secretary of presidium of Supreme Soviet
C. Presidium of the Supreme soviets
D. None of them
147. The presidium conducted elections on its own initiative or on the: __________?
A. Demand of one of a union republics
B. Demand of council of ministers
C. One the order of the Supreme Court
D. None of them
148. The chairman of the presidium of Supreme Soviet was:_________?
A. Executive head of the state
B. Titular head of the state
C. Constitutional head of the state
D. None of them
149. The law was promulgated under the signature of: ___________?
A. Chairman of presidium of Supreme soviet
B. Secretary General of CPSU

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C. Chairman of presidium of Supreme Soviet
D. None of them
150. The normal term of the presidium was: __________?
A. Three years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. None of them
151. The president has: __________?
A. 12 vice presidents
B. 15 vice presidents
C. 18 vice presidents
D. None of them
152. President of Soviet Union was elected: ___________?
A. By supreme soviets
B. By soviets citizens directly
C. By soviet of nationalities
D. None of them
153. The supreme legislative organ of former Soviet Union was: ______________?
A. Supreme Soviet
B. The council of minister
C. Soviet of nationalities

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D. None of them
154. The constitution of 1936 remained in force for more than:
A. Thirty five years
B. Forty years
C. Forty five years
D. None of these
155. Every national area had the right to send:
A. Three representatives to the soviet of nationalities
B. Two representatives to the soviet of nationalities
C. One representative to the soviet of nationalities
D. None of these
156. The autonomous republics existed within: ___________?
A. Territorial groups of republics
B. Territory union republics
C. Soviet republic
D. None of these
157. The soviets first appeared in : ____________?
A. Revolution of 1905
B. Revolution of 1917
C. Revolution of 1918
D. Revolution of 1936

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158. Soviet means:
A. Collective responsibility
B. Collective leadership
C. A council
D. None of these
159. Article 102 provided that justice in the USSR was administrated by: ____________?
A. By the federal court of USSR
B. By the supreme court of USSR
C. By the high court of USSR
D. None of these
160. The largest government in the world is of: __________?
A. India
B. Britain
C. USA
D. Russia
161. The number of Union Republics which got seats in the UNO is: ______________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. None of these
162. In 1923 the USSR came into existence and it included:

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A. 2 new areas
B. 3 new areas
C. 4 new areas
D. 5 new areas
163. The Constitution of 1936 is known as third Constitution or:__________?
A. Kerensky Constitution
B. Lenin Constitution
C. Stalin Constitution
D. None of these
164. The first Soviet Constitution was adopted on: ____________?
A. November 7,1917
B. March 21,1918
C. July 10,1918
D. January 5,1919
165. The Soviet Union was defeated by Japan in: _____________?
A. 1903
B. 1905
C. 1907
D. None of these
166. Congress split into: ___________?
A. Two groups

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B. Three groups
C. Four groups
D. Multi groups
167. In SU, Congress was formed in: ___________?
A. 1900
B. 1903
C. 1905
D. None of these
168. In Soviet Union, Social Democratic Labour Party was founded in:___________?
A. 1860
B. 1876
C. 1896
D. None of these
169. The Cabinet of Minister of the Soviet Union is called: ____________?
A. The Supreme Soviet
B. The Presidium
C. The Council of Ministers
D. The Soviet of the Nationalists
170. The standing committee of the Supreme Soviet is called:____________?
A. The Council of Ministers
B. The Presidium

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C. The Soviet of the Union
D. The Soviet of the Nationalists
171. In what year was the Union of Soviet Socialist Republics officially founded?
A. 1917
B. 1922
C. 1918
D. 1924
172. Next to the Poliburo of the Communist Party, what other party was the most important policy-
making body in the USSR?
A. Council of Ministers
B. Soviet Communist Party
C. The Supreme Soviet
D. Committee for State Security
173. What was the last version of the Soviet constitution adopted?
A. 1957
B. 1977
C. 1987
D. 1982
174. What was the most famous Soviet art museum?
A. Tretyakov
B. Hermitage
C. Lenin

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D. Museum of Revolution
175. On December 9, 1991, the leaders of the Russian, Ukrainian, and Belorussian republics declared
that the Soviet Union was dissolved and replaced by the:
A. Commonwealth of Nation
B. Organization of Independent States
C. Association of Independent States
D. Commonwealth of Independent States
176. In November of 1991, who banned the Communist Party of the Soviet Union?
A. Dmitry Medvedev
B. Vladimir Putin
C. Yeltsin
D. None of them
177. Who became president of Russia in 2008?
A. Yeltsin
B. Dmitry Medvedev
C. Vladimir Putin
D. None of them
178. Who became president of Russia in 2000?
A. Boris Yeltsin
B. Dmitry Medvedev
C. Vladimir Putin

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D. None of them
179. What year did the Soviet Union collapse?
A. 1991
B. 1922
C. 1990
D. 1921
180. Following Stalin, who was the next premier of the U.S.S.R.?
A. Gorbachev
B. Brezhnev
C. Malenkov
D. Krushchev
181. Who ruled the Soviet Union from the late 1920s until his death in 1953?
A. Stalin
B. Krushchev
C. Brezhnev
D. Trotsky
182. 1922 was the year when Soviet Union was officially founded. How many republics did it
comprise at the time initially?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 11

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D. 15
183. Who was proclaimed the “Supreme Ruler” of Russia on November 18, 1918?
A. Admiral Alexander Kolchak
B. Vladimir Lenin
C. General Lavr Kornilov
D. Leon Trotsky
184. What is the meaning of ‘Bolsheviks’?
A. Minoritarians
B. Majoritarians
C. Great ones
D. Winners
185. The reformist policy first was pushed by: ____________?
A. Stalin
B. Khrushev
C. Gorbachev
D. None of them
186. What year did Leon Trotsky join the Bolsheviks?
A. 1915
B. 1903
C. 1913
D. 1917

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187. Who was the last Tsar?
A. Nicholas I
B. Nicholas II
C. Alexander I
D. Alexander II
188. What was the name of the party that the Bolsheviks belonged to before they broke away from it
in 1903?
A. SDLP (Social Democratic Labour Party)
B. Mensheviks
C. Kadets (Constitutional Democrats)
D. Liberals
189. What was Lenin’s real name?
A. Leon Kamenev
B. Vladimir Iiych Ulyanov
C. Ivan Turgenev
D. Ivan Mikhaelovich Gorky
190. Russia adopted a new currently constitution on:____________?

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191. Upon the dissolution of the U.S.S.R. In 1991, the Russian S.F.S.R was renamed and became the
leading members the:
A. Commonwealth of Nations
B. U.S.S.R
C. Commonwealth of Independent States
D. None of them
192. The Russian S.F.S.R (Soviet Federated Socialist Republic) joined other soviet republics in 1922
to form:
A. U.S.S.R
B. U.S.R.R
C. S.U.R.R
D. None of them
193. In 1990 ______ became president of the Russian republic and in 1991 he was reelected to the
position in the republic’s first popular election.
A. Borix Yeltsin
B. Marx
C. Stalin
D. None of them
194. The main opposition party in Russian Federation is: _____________?
A. Russian Democratic Party
B. Communist Party of Russia
C. Russian Social Democratic Party
D. None of them

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195. The last secretary general of the soviet communist party was: __________?
A. Boris Yeltsin
B. Genadey Yaneyov
C. Edward Shiward Nardzdy
D. None of them
196. The communist party was: __________?
A. A conglomerate of different groups
B. A conglomerate of bourgeoisie and proletariat
C. Was conglomerate of middle class peasants and workers
D. None of them
197. Communist party enjoyed the position of: ____________?
A. Of supreme legislative body in USSR
B. A supreme executive body in USSR
C. Monopolized legality of the state
D. None of them
198. Perestroika means:
A. Openness
B. Deviation from communist ideology
C. Restructuring
D. None of them
199. The highest political organ of the communist party was: __________?

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A. Central committee of the party
B. Political bureau of the party
C. Control commission of the party
D. None of them
200. Brezhnev was succeeded by: __________?
A. Andropov
B. Cherninko
C. Gorbachev
D. None of them
201. The lowest unit of communist party:
A. Was called cell
B. Is called primary organization
C. Local committee
D. None of them
202. Who succeeded Lenin?
A. Trotsky
B. Kolchak
C. Deniken
D. Stalin
203. What year did Lenin die?
A. 1925

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B. 1926
C. 1923
D. 1924
204. What does USSR stand for?
A. United Socialist Soviet Republics
B. Union of Socialist Soviet Republics
C. Union of Soviet Socialist republics
D. United Soviet Socialist Republics
205. What does NEP stand for?
A. New Economic Policy
B. New Email Policy
C. New Economic Program
D. None of them
206. What are Okrugs, Krais, and Oblasts?
A. Administrative units
B. Russian gangsters
C. Geological features
D. None of them
207. During the Russian Civil War (1918-1920), the man in charge of military strategy was:
A. Leo Kamenev
B. Vladimir Lenin

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C. Leon Trotsky
D. Josef Stalin
208. Who many independent states that replaced the Soviet Union
A. 12
B. 14
C. 15
D. 18
209. The courts were to fight for: ___________?
A. Justice in Soviet Union
B. The elimination of soviet state enemies
C. The protection of citizen rights
D. None of them
210. The highest court in USSR was: _________?
A. Federal court
B. The hgh court of republics
C. Supreme Court of USSR
D. None of them
211. Council of minister frequently issued decrees jointly:
A. With central committee of communist party
B. With presidium of supreme soviets
C. With soviets of republics

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D. None of them
212. Most of the legislation did not come from the Supreme Soviet but from:
A. The presidium of supreme soviets
B. The council of ministers
C. The national congress of CPSU
D. None of them
213. According to Article 112 OF USSR: __________?
A. Judges were appointed by Supreme Soviet
B. Independent and subject only to law
C. Could be removed by their respective supreme soviets
D. None of them
214. Area, district and city procurator were appointed by: _________?
A. Their respective supreme soviets
B. Procurators general of republics subject to approval of procurator general of USSR
C. Procurator general of USSR
D. None of them
215. The term of republic procurator general was: ___________?
A. 5 years
B. 9 years
C. 7 years
D. None of them

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216. Procurators of the republics, territories regions and autonomous regions were appointed by:
A. Their respective supreme soviets
B. Their respective presidium of supreme soviets
C. By procurator general of USSR
D. None of them
217. Chairman of the state planning committee:
A. Is the member of soviet presidium
B. Is the representative of national area
C. Is the member of the council of ministers
D. None of them
218. Under which ruler did Russia annex the Crimea, part of Poland, Western Ukraine and
Byelorusia?
A. Peter I (the Great)
B. Anna Ivanovna
C. Peter II
D. Catherine II (the Great)
219. During the reign of Peter I Russia gained some Baltic territories from another European
country. Which country lost these territories to Russia?
A. Germany
B. Denmark
C. Poland
D. Sweden

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220. Which was the last country to be incorporated into the Soviet Union as a Soviet Socialist
Republic?
A. Moldova
B. Latvia
C. Estonia
D. Lithuania
221. Soviet Union made demands also to Finland. When the Finns did not give in, the outcome was
war. It started at the end of November 1939. By what name that war is known?
A. Winter War
B. Karelian War
C. Continuation War
D. Vyborg War
222. Who succeeded Khrushchev as First Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union?
A. Stalin
B. Gorbachev
C. Lenin
D. Brezhnev
223. Which of Stalin’s policies did Khrushchev continue?
A. Purges
B. Attacks on churches
C. High military budget
D. All of these

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224. Which of these was one of Khrushchev’s main policies?
A. Emancipation
B. War Communism
C. De-Stalinisation
D. New Economic Policy
225. Who preceded Khrushchev as First Secretary of the Communist Party of the Soviet Union of
Russia?
A. Stalin
B. Brezhnev
C. Malenkov
D. Beria
226. Mikhail Gorbachev held which position before he became General Secretary of the Communist
Party?
A. Commissar of State Finances
B. Commander of the Strategic Missile Forces
C. Minister of Agriculture
D. Minister of Civil Defense
227. This man engineered the first Russian subway system in Moscow. The metro was subsequently
named after him
A. Mikhail Suslov
B. Georgii Malenkov
C. Aleksey Shchusev
D. Lazar Kaganovich

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228. What was Leon Trotsky’s original name?
A. Leon Davidovich Bronstein
B. Leon Davidovich Trotsky
C. Lev Davidovich Bronstein
D. Levi Davidovich Trotsky
229. What are the total Federal Administrative divisions of Russia?
A. 85
B. 87
C. 89
D. 80
230. Largest ethnic group of Russia is Russian. Which is the second largest ethnic group?
A. Tatar
B. Ukrainian
C. Bashkir
D. Chuvash
231. What does Buran mean in Russian?
A. Firestorm
B. Thunderstorm
C. Snowstorm
D. Hurricane

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232. Newly created (1989) Congress of People’s Deputies voted to end the communist Party’s control
over the government and elected Gorbachev President of the Soviet Union on:
A. March 14,1990
B. March 14,1993
C. March 14,1991
D. March 14,1992
233. St. Petersburg. The capital was moved to Moscow in: ______________?
A. 1918
B. 1917
C. 1921
D. 1922
234. Who became prime minister of Russia in July-August 1917?
A. Kerensky
B. Nicholas
C. Alexander
D. None of them
235. What was the name of the treaty in 1918 that ended Russia’s war with Germany and Austria-
Hungary?
A. The treaty of London
B. The treaty of Paris
C. The treaty of Brest-Litovsk
D. None of them

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236. Russo-Austrian rivalry was a major cause of outbreak of World War-I Russia fought in alliance
with _____ and ______:
A. France and Germany
B. France and Turkey
C. Britain and Turkey
D. France and Britain
237. Russian expansion in Manchuria caused a war with ______ in 1904-05?
A. Japan
B. France
C. China
D. Britain
238. Which tsar was assassinated in 1881?
A. Nicholas I
B. Alexander I
C. Alexander II
D. Alexander III
239. Russian attempts to dominate the Balkans led to a war with which country from 1827-29?
A. Greece
B. Austria-Hungary
C. Turkey
D. Serbia

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240. Founder of soviet state was:
A. Vladimir Lenin
B. Joseph Stalin
C. Trotsky
D. None of them
241. Karl Marx was born in: _____________?
A. Austria
B. Finland
C. Russian Social Democratic Party
D. None of them
242. Communist Manifesto was written by: ___________?
A. Marx
B. Hegel
C. Stalin
D. None of them
243. Comradely courts were:
A. Separate from the judicial hierarchy
B. Part of the judicial hierarchy
C. Sub-ordinate courts of communist party
D. None of them
244. According to the new constitution:

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A. Judges were to be appointed for six years
B. Judges were to be elected for ten years
C. Judges were to be elected for 12 years
D. None of them
245. According to By Shinki approach to justice:
A. Defence lawyers were unnecessary
B. Defence lawyers were necessary
C. Defence was the respobsibility of the state
D. None of them
246. The soviet legal profession gradually:
A. Declined
B. Dominated
C. Got autonomy
D. None of them
247. Capital pubishment for serious offences:
A. Enhanced
B. Were condemned
C. Declined
D. None of them
248. Provision was made for: __________?
A. Unicameral parliament

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B. Bicameral parliament
C. Presidential form of democracy
D. None of These
249. The declared object of 1918 constitution was: ___________?
A. To make Russia a democratic country
B. To end the political turmoil in the Russia
C. To establish proletariat dictator ship in Russia
D. None of These
250. The draft of the constitution of 1918 was approved:
A. By the fourth all Russia congress of the soviet
B. By the fifth all Russia congress of the soviet
C. By the sixth all Russia congress of the soviet
D. None of them
251. Russia proclaimed a republic after Russian Revolution in: ______________?
A. 1915
B. 1917
C. 1919
D. 1921
252. Tactics to prevent the passage of bill are known as: ___________?
A. Filibustering
B. Dilly dallying

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C. Lobbing
D. None of them
253. Supreme Soviet was in reality a: ___________?
A. Highest authority
B. Sovereign body
C. Rubber stamp
D. None of them
254. USSR constitution of 1977 is known after:
A. Czar
B. Brezhnev
C. Stalin
D. None of them
255. The term “suffrage” means:
A. To bear and suffer
B. Allow black people to vote
C. The right to vote
D. None of them
256. Which of the following courts was not recognized by the Constitution of former USSR?
A. Military Tribunal
B. Peoples Courts
C. Courts of Autonomous Regions

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D. None of the above
257. Mr. Leonid Brezhnev become President of USSR in: ___________?
A. 1977
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1978
258. The USSR comprised of: ____________?
A. 13 Republics
B. 14 Republics
C. 15 Republics
D. None of them
259. The USSR was established in: ____________?
A. 1915
B. 1916
C. 1917
D. 1922
260. The Constitution of Russian Federation was ratified in:____________?
A. 1993
B. 1918
C. 1977
D. None of them

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261. By what majority from each of the central legislature, the Supreme Soviet can amend the
Constitution:
A. Simple
B. Two third
C. Three fourth
D. None of them
262. The Bolshevik Revolution took place in: ___________?
A. 1915
B. 1917
C. 1919
D. None of them
263. Perestroika was introduced in Soviet Union by: _____________?
A. Gorbachev
B. Brezhnev
C. Yeltsin
D. Stalin
264. The USSR was dissolved in: ____________?
A. 1989
B. 1990
C. 1991
D. None of them

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265. Mikhail Gorbachev was Soviet Union’s: ___________?
A. Last President
B. Last but one President
C. Last but two Presidents
D. Last but three Presidents
266. Voting age in Russia is ___________?
A. 18 years
B. 21 years
C. 25 years
D. 20 years
267. Which is the National day of Russia?
A. 12-Jun
B. 24-Aug
C. 29-Aug
D. 27-Aug
268. Russia got Independence from Soviet Union on:___________?
A. August 24,1989
B. August 24,1990
C. August 24,1992
D. August 24,1988

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269. Among the seven industrialized countries in the world, which country is the smallest producer of
carbon dioxide?
A. France
B. England
C. Ital
D. USA
270. Who is the First Consul of what is now known as the First French Empire?
A. Napoleon Bonaparte
B. Eugene Delacroix
C. Charles de Gaulle
D. Laetitia Casta
271. What is the name of the highest point in Western Europe that is situated in the French Alps?
A. Vosges
B. Mont Blanc
C. Jura
D. Massif Central
272. Which is the most popular international tourist destination in the world?
A. France
B. England
C. Italy
D. Portugal

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273. France is linked to the United Kingdom via the:
A. North Cape Tunnel
B. Channel Tunnel
C. Laerdal Tunnel
D. Lincoln Tunnel
274. Who is the author of Les Miserables?
A. Victor Hugo
B. Mont Blanc
D. None of these
275. The president signs ordinances and decrees of ministers:
A. Council of ministers
B. In parliament
C. In constitutional council
D. None of them
276. On the proposal of two assemblies the president can:
A. Approve any bill
B. Sumit to referendum any bill
C. Submit any bill to parliament
D. None of them
277. The president of France if elected by:

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A. Absolute majority in the first ballot
B. Simple majority in the first ballot
C. Two third majority in the first ballot
D. None of them
278. The president of the Republic is elected by: ____________?
A. Direct votes
B. Electoral college
C. Parliament
D. None of them
279. The president of the France can replace the president of the:
B. Republic as successor
B. Till new elections
C. Cannot replace
D. None of them
280. The senate of France is:
A. Sub-ordinate legislative chamber
B. Not sub-ordinate legislative chamber
C. Equal to national assembly in the legislative matters
D. The constitution describes national sovereignty
281. The constitution describes national sovereignty as:
A. Belongs to the community of France

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B. Belongs to the mother land of France
C. To be people of France
D. The constitution describes national sovereignty
282. Prehistoric art can be found in caves in one of the following:
A. Lascaux
B. The Louvre
C. Giverny
D. None of these
283. In what year did Christopher Columbas explore Martinique?
A. 1498
B. 1500
C. 1503
D. 1509
284. We travel to a city of historical importance in the life of Joan of Arc. In which city is there a
memorial and a church at the site where she was burned at the stake?
A. Cherbourg
B. Caen
C. Rouen
D. Lisieux
285. The islands of Martinique, Corsica and Guadeloupe are governed by which country?
A. France
B. Belgium

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C. The Netherlands
D. Luxembourg
286. The Battle of Agincourt took place in 1415 in which country?
A. Luxembourg
B. The Netherlands
C. France
D. Belgium
287. This country won the World Cup in soccer in 1998 for the first time. Where am I?
A. The Netherlands
B. Luxembourg
C. Belgium
D. France
288. Which country abolished the death through 18th amendment into the Constitution?
A. France
B. England
C. Australia
D. South Africa
289. The French Constitution of 1852 of the French Second Empire, was adopted on:
A. November 24, 1852
B. January 14, 1852
C. January 14, 1853

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D. January 24, 1852
290. Constitution council consists of: ____________?
A. 5 members
B. 6 members
C. 9 members
D. 4 members
291. Which is the highest Court of Appeals in France?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. Sessions Court
D. None of these
292. Judges are appointed by the _____________ in France?
A. Supreme Court
B. High Court
C. President
D. Prime Minister
293. The Senate whall be elected by:
A. Indirect suffrage
B. Direct suffrage
C. Selection
D. None of these

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294. The motto of the Republic shall be: __________?
A. King of Great
B. Liberty is happiness
C. Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
D. None of these
295. According to constitution of France, the language of the Republic shall be: ____________?
A. French
B. English
C. Hindi
D. Persian
296. The French people solemnly proclaim their attachment to the Rights of Man and the principles
of natioal sovereignty as defined by the Declaration of:
A. 1798
B. 1785
C. 1786
D. 1789
297. There are how many chapters in the constitution of the French Fifth Republic:
A. Fifteenth
B. Seventeenth
C. Sixteenth
D. Fourteenth

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298. Second National Assembly’s elections in France were held in: ___________?
A. 1976
B. 1978
C. 1980
D. 1982
299. First National Assembly’s elections in France were held in: ____________?
A. 1973
B. 1976
C. 1977
D. 1978
300. Tenth Presidential elections in France will be held in: ____________?
A. 2012
B. 2010
C. 2011
D. 2013
301. Ninth Presidential elections in France were held in: ____________?
A. 2004
B. 2005
C. 2006
D. 2007
302. Eighth presidential elections in France were held in ____________?

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A. 2000
B. 2001
C. 2002
D. 2003
303. Seventh Presidential elections in France were held in:____________?
A. 1994
B. 1995
C. 1997
D. 1998
304. Fifth presidential elections in France were held in: ______________?
A. 1978
B. 1979
C. 1980
D. 1981
305. The highest municipal officer in France is:
A. Governor of a Department
B. Chief Councillor
C. Prefect
D. None of them
306. Every department has a prefect:
A. And a priest

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B. And department council
C. And a commissioner
D. None of them
307. The largest department in France is: _____________?
A. Paris
B. Luxembourg
C. Gironde
D. None of them
308. Fourth Presidential elections in France were held in:____________?
A. 1974
B. 1980
C. 1976
D. 1977
309. The smallest unit of local government in France is:____________?
A. Department
B. Commune
C. Cantons
D. None of them
310. Departments in France are analogous: __________?
A. To districts in Pakistan
B. To division in Pakistan

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C. To province in Pakistan
D. None of them
311. Local government in France: ___________?
A. Another bed-rock on which the French state is built
B. An electoral college for the French national assembly
C. An absent chapter in French constitution
D. None of them
312. Sixth Presidential elections in France were held in: ___________?
A. 1990
B. 1985
C. 1988
D. 1987
313. French Socialist Party was first set up in:___________?
A. 1901
B. 1905
C. 1909
D. 1910
314. UNR-EDT was launched in: ____________?
A. 1962
B. 1964
C. 1966

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D. None of them
315. Pressure groups are: ___________?
A. Unwieldy in their aims and objectives
B. Specific in their aims and objectives
C. Divided in their aims and objectives
D. None of them
316. The French communist party has:___________?
A. Lost its popularity
B. Lost it ideological commitment
C. Changed into a social democratic party
D. None of them
317. Bonapartism means: _____________?
A. Favour to one’s own relatives when in power
B. Establishment of a democratic structure on the basis of Napoleon’s thoughts
C. Establishment of presidential democracy
D. Aims at the establishment of an autocratic government with in the Framework of dictator ship
318. The French people love to fight for:_____________?
A. Institutional supremacy
B. Political stability
C. Lost causes
D. None of them

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319. French politics is a: ______________?
A. Battle field of ideologies
B. Plethora of terms and terminologies
C. A soft moving jelly like
D. None of them
320. The seats in the French legislature are arranged in a: _____________?
A. Pyramid form
B. Semi-circle
C. Triangular form
D. None of them
321. Every party organization in France has remained: _____________?
A. A brittle affairs
B. An extremely elastic structure
C. An absorbing structure
D. None of them
322. The political parties in France were: ________________?
A. Highly centralized organization
B. Loose federation of local parties
C. Grass-root democratic parties
D. None of them
323. France has: ______________?

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A. Multiple party systems
B. Two parties system
C. Four parties system
D. Only one party system
324. In the capital of each department there is an administrative:
A. Primary administrative court
B. Administrative tribunal
C. Secondary administrative court
D. None of them
325. Every French court has at least:
A. Two Judges
B. Three Judges
C. Four Judges
D. None of them
326. The courts of Assize are also known as: ____________?
A. Civil courts
B. Strictly criminal courts
C. Administrative courts
D. None of them
327. French local govt. System is: ___________?
A. Loose network

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B. A symmetrical in form
C. Highly centralized system
D. None of them
328. The revolution of 1958 abolished the office of:___________?
A. District Judge
B. King’s Judge
C. Justice of peace
D. None of them
329. The group of cantons is called: ___________?
A. Commune
B. Province
C. Arrondissement
D. None of them
330. The country was divided into cantons and in each canton a ______ was appointed:
A. Magistrate
B. A Justice of peace
C. A square
D. None of them
331. Third presidential elections in France were held in: ____________?
A. 1970
B. 1969

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C. 1971
D. 1972
332. Second presidential elections in France were held in: ____________?
A. 1955
B. 1966
C. 1965
D. 1967
333. First presidential elections in France were held in___________?
A. 1954
B. 1958
C. 1956
D. 1960
334. 18th amendment in Constitution of France was took place in:___________?
A. 29th February 2007
B. 15th February 2007
C. 19th February 2007
D. 25th February 2007
335. How many amendments are there in Constitution of France has been amended:
A. 18th Amendments
B. 21st Amendments
C. 18th Amendments

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D. 20th Amendments
336. The current Constitution of France was adopted on:_______________?
A. 24th October 1958
B. 14th October 1958
C. 12th October 1958
D. 04th October 1958
337. What’s the French currency?
A. Euro
B. Pound
C. Dollar
D. Mark
338. “You may be sure that France will rise free, united and independent, to stand on guard with
others over the generous tolerances and brightening opportunities of the human society we mean to
rescue and rebuild”. Who said this on 31 st August 1943?
A. Winston Churchill
B. Marechal Leclerc
C. General Charles de Gaulle
D. King George VI
339. A pious young Frenchwoman accompanied de Maisonneuve and in 1642 she founded the first
hospital, Hotel Dieu, in Ville Marie. Who was she?
A. Jeanne d’Arc
B. Marie Chouinard

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C. Madame de Montespan
D. Jeanne Mance
340. Samuel de Champlain founded the first colony at Quebec and was instrumental in its
organization and growth. He also served in other outposts, and was responsible for building the
harbour in what city?
A. Halifax
B. New Orleans
C. Havana
D. Kingston Jamaica
341. What was a “Dom bunker”:
A. A shelter for an anti-tank gun
B. A hospital shelter
C. A shelter for a rail gun
D. A food storage shelter
342. What is New Frence known as today?
A. Newfoundland
B. PEI
C. Quebec
D. All of these
343. What year did New France fight the Battle of the Plains of Abraham against the British?
A. 1759
B. 1825

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C. 1763
D. 1760
344. The candidates for the parliamentary seats must:
A. Have complete military service
B. By graduate
C. Be lawyers
D. None of them
345. The members of the senate are elected by:___________?
A. Direct elections
B. By provincial assemblies
C. By municipal corporations
D. By group of electors called grand electors
346. Number of the senators who retire every year is:__________?
A. Half of the total number chamber of
B. One fourth of the total number
C. One third of the total number
D. None of them
347. Senate is the _______ Chamber of French Parliament:
A. Upper
B. Second
C. Lower

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D. None of them
348. Elections are held:
A. In multiple members constituencies
B. Double members constituencies
C. Single member constituencies
D. None of them
349. National assembly of FRANCE sits: ____________?
A. In the Elessey chamber
B. Government house of France
C. Bourbon Palace
D. None of them
350. The term of French national assembly is:_________?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 7 years
D. None of them
351. The French parliament is a:____________?
A. Unicameral house
B. Bicameral house
C. Tri-cameral house
D. None of them

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352. The president of French possesses pomp and grandeur:
A. Which also the premier possesses
B. Some time the premier possesses
C. Never the premier of France possesses
D. None of them
353. The ministers are appointed by: ___________?
A. The premier
B. By president
C. By president on the suggestion of premier
D. None of them
354. The premier is appointed by: _____________?
A. The president
B. National assembly
C. Legislature of states
D. None of them
355. The exercise the power of pardon the president:
A. Requires countersign
B. No countersign
C. Confirmation by parliament
D. None of them
356. The constitution of 1958 has made the president: ____________?

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A. The most responsible person
B. A sub-ordinate authority to parliament
C. The most powerful authority
D. None of them
357. Total articles in the constitution of the French Fifth Republic (current) are ______________?
A. 57
B. 67
C. 92
D. 87
358. In the first constitutional assembly:
A. 159 were social democrats
B. 159 were communists
C. 159 were Republican
D. None of these
359. The first constitutional assembly of France of 4th Republic consisted of:__________?
A. 586 members
B. 590 members
C. 593 members
D. None of these
360. General De Gaul formed the provisional government on:_____________?
A. 25th August 1945

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B. 25th August 1940
C. 25th August 1944
D. None of these
361. The constitution of France re-affirmed the rights and freedom of people consecrated by the:
___________?
A. Declaration of 1689
B. Declaration of 1789
C. Declaration 1946
D. None of these
362. The constitution of fourth Republic remained in force from ______ to 1958:
A. 1946
B. 1948
C. 1952
D. 1960
363. Bourgeoisie is:
A. Peasant class of rural areas
B. Middle class of the town
C. Aristocratic class of France
D. None of these
364. MRP stands for: ______________?
A. The Marxist revolutionary party
B. The Marxist revival party

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C. The Movement Republican Party
D. None of these
365. French presidential system is a model for some countries:
A. Of Europe
B. Of first world countries
C. Of third countries
D. None of these
366. President De. Gaulle formed fifth Republic under:
A. Rudimentary form of parliamentarian govt.
B. A hyper presidential form of government
C. A dynastic govt
D. None of these
367. The deputies to the National Assembly shall be elected by:___________?
A. Indirect suffrage
B. Direct suffrage
C. Selection
D. None of these
368. Parliament of France shall comprise the National Assembly and the:__________?
A. Senate
B. Prime Minister
C. President

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D. None of these
369. The replacement of Members of Parliament shall take place in accordance with the provisions
of:
A. Article 26
B. Article 29
C. Article 28
D. Article 25
370. Under which article the President of the Republic has the right to grant pardon:
A. Article 17
B. Article 14
C. Article 15
D. Article 16
371. The National Assembly whall _____ during the exercise of the emergency powers:
A. Not be dissolved
B. Be dissolved
C. Called off
D. None of these
372. Who shall preside over the higher national defence councils and committees?
A. Senate
B. Prime Minister
C. President

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D. None of these
373. The life of ad hoc committees is limited to:___________?
A. Four months
B. Six months
C. Eight months
D. None of these
374. The parliamentary committees in French parliament are usually called: _____________?
A. Cells
B. Sub-chamber
C. Commissions
D. None of these
375. Proxy vote has to be: ____________?
A. Sent on post to the president of Republic
B. Sent to the secretary of the chamber by post
C. Registered with president of the chamber
D. None of these
376. The first session of the France parliament begins on the:_____________?
A. First Monday of September
B. First Tuesday of October
C. First Wednesday of November
D. 25-Dec

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377. Ninth National Assembly’s elections in France were held in:__________?
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
378. Eighth National Assembly’s elections in France were held in:___________?
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2004
379. Seventh National Assembly’s elections in France were held in:__________?
A. 1996
B. 1997
C. 1998
D. 1999
380. The president of France has the power of pardon and: ___________?
A. Enhancing the punishment
B. Ordering the retrial
C. Reprieve
D. None of them

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381. The senate of French community composed of members chosen by the parliament of
metropolitan France and:
A. Central legislative assembly
B. Legislative assemblies of other community
C. University syndicates
D. None of them
382. There are ______ methods of constitutional amendment:
A. Two
B. Three only one
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of them
383. Who was the Free French leader during the Second World War?
A. Mont Blanc
B. Victor Hugo
D. None of these
384. What is commemorated on Bastille Day?
A. London Revolution
B. French Revolution
C. White Revolution
D. Pink Revolution

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385. Who helped the French drive the English out of France in 1450?
A. Victor Hugo
B. Napoleon Bonaparte
C. Joan of Arc
D. None of these
386. The French union has been changed into:_________?
A. French federation
B. French confederation
C. French community
D. None of them
387. Constitution council consists of:_________?
A. 9 members
B. 13 members
C. 15 members
D. None of them
388. The constitutional council:
A. Enhances the sovereignty of the parliament
B. Restricts the sovereign of the parliament
C. Restricts the sovereign of the parliament
D. None of them
389. The prorogation of parliament beyond:

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A. 10 days can be authorized by president
B. 12 days can be authorized by president
C. 14 days can be authorized by president
D. None of them
390. The deputies of national assembly are elected:
A. By electoral college consisting of provinces
B. By electoral college consisting of both provinces and colonies
C. Directly
D. None of them
391. The parliament of fifth Republic is: ____________?
A. Unicameral
B. Bi-cameral
C. Tetra cameral
D. None of them
392. Under the constitution of fifth Republic the president has to act as:
A. Executive head
B. Constitutional monarch
C. Constitutional figure head
D. None of them
393. Who is known as the “Father of New France”?
A. Samuel de Champlain

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B. Jacques Cartier
C. James Cook
D. Christopher Columbus
394. What were the farms in New France called?
A. Rotures
B. Seigneuries
C. Boers
D. Plantations
395. Nicknamed the “Pink City”, this city hosts the most developed Aeronautics industries in
Europe:
A. Toulouse
B. Nimes
C. Metz
D. Versailles
396. During World War II, the Nazi built the sinister extermination Camp. Of Struth of near this
city. Today, the city is the seat of the Eurogean Parliament
A. Strasbourg
B. Metz
C. Paris
D. Versailles
397. What was the name of the great military architect of Louis XIV?
A. Louvis

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B. Vauban
C. Colbert
D. Turenne
398. What was the name given to the infamous killing of Protestant Leaders on 24th August 1572,
under the reign of charles IX?
A. The Blood Night
B. The Defenestration of Paris
C. St. Bartholomew’s Day
D. The Night of the Long Knives
399. Which French King a. Was Bearnais, born at Pau in the Pyrenees, b. First married Margaret of
Valois. Then Marie de Medicis, c. Commented on his ‘conversion’ to Catholicism that after all ‘Paris
was worth a Mass’?
A. Henry IV
B. Francis I
C. Louis XIV
D. Louis XIII
400. Francis II King of France from 1559 till 1560 was married to a woman who became much more
famous in history than himself, who was she?
A. Mary Stuart
B. Elisabeth of Austria
C. Catherine de Medicis
D. Eleanor of Aquitaine
401. At the time of the Battle of Agincourt (1415) the throne of France was virtually vacant because:

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A. The French King Charles VI had gone mad
B. The French throne was occupied by a woman who, because of the Salic law, was not recognized
C. The French King had just been assassinated
D. The Franch King was still an infant
402. One of the most important Kings of France was the victor at the Battle of Bouvines in 1214.
What ‘countries’ did the coalition consist of that he defeated in that battle?
A. England, Flanders, Germany
B. England, Halland, Luxembourg
C. England, Austria, Russia
D. England, Spain, Portugal
403. Which of these countries having common borders with France?
A. Mexico
B. Italy
C. Russia
D. Scotland
404. In which continent France is located:
A. Asia
B. North America
C. South America
D. Europe
405. What is a French police officer called?

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A. Plod
B. Gendarme
C. Old Bill
D. Copper
406. Which French Republic served for longest period?
A. First French Republic
B. Second French Republic
C. Third French Republic
D. Fifth French Republic
407. A commune like a department is a: _________?
A. Legal person
B. Local person
C. Democratic person
D. None of them
408. Sixth National Assembly’s elections in France were held in ____________?
A. 1993
B. 1994
C. 1995
D. 1996
409. Fifth National Assembly’s elections in France were held in ___________?
A. 1986

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B. 1988
C. 1990
D. 1992
410. Fourth National Assembly’s elections in France were held in_________?
A. 1982
B. 1984
C. 1986
D. 1988
411. Third National Assembly’s elections in France were held in __________?
A. 1980
B. 1981
C. 1984
D. 1986
412. The president can preside over:__________?
A. The joint session of parliament
B. Ministerial council
C. High council of judiciary
D. None of them
413. The president can communicate with parliament by:___________?
A. Annual address
B. Annual report of the performance of the govt.

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C. By means of messages
D. None of them
414. President has the power to appoint
A. Three members of the constitutional council
B. Two members of the constitutional council
C. No member of the constitutional council
D. None of them
415. The emergency powers of the French President.
A. Are extremely limited
B. Are extremely harsh
C. Are extremely sweeping
D. None of them
416. The mayor of a commune is elected:___________?
A. By direct vote
B. By electoral college of the prefects
C. By the commune itself
D. None of them
417. General councils are: ____________?
A. Noisy and do nothing bodies
B. Dignified and leisurely bodies
C. Hierarchical bodies

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D. Calm and hard working
418. Super-prefect has come into being since:
A. 1948
B. 1952
C. 1956
D. None of them
419. The corpus of French law was perfected:
A. Bourbons
B. Debare
C. Revolution
D. Napoleon
420. Neapolitan Bonaparte entrusted the task of law making to a body of civil experts called:
A. Cour-de-cassion
B. Assessors
C. Counseild Elat
D. None of them
421. The two houses are:__________?
A. Equal in powers
B. Not equal in powers
C. Co-ordinate in powers
D. None of these

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422. The president of national assembly is: ___________?
A. An impartial person after his elections
B. Removed from his party after his elections
C. Active member of his party after his elections
D. None of these
423. The president of the senate is elected for:__________?
A. 3 years
B. 4 years
C. 5 years
D. None of these
424. The constitution of fifth Republic is:__________?
A. Presidential in character
B. Parliamentary in character
C. Both presidential and parliamentary in character
D. None of these
425. The constitution of the fifth Republic consists of:_________?
A. 92 Articles
B. 102 Articles
C. 104 Articles
D. None of these
426. The constitution of fifth Republic was adopted:

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A. 4th October 1958
B. 9th October 1958
C. 8th October 1958
D. 7th October 1958
427. Council of Republic was to consists of:_________?
A. 320 members
B. 340 members
C. 351 members
D. None of these
428. The council of Republics was to act:_________?
A. As council for thoughts
B. As council for actions
C. As council for reflections
D. None of these
429. The parliament of 4th Republic was:_________?
A. Unicameral
B. Bi-cameral
C. Tri-cameral
D. None of these
430. The first president was given the power to:_________?
A. Appoint prime minister

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B. Chairman of the national assembly
C. Council of ministers
D. None of these
431. The first president of the 4th Republic was elected for:__________?
A. Four years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. Seven years
432. A general election shall take place not less than _______ twenty days and not more than after the
dissolution:
A. Sixty days
B. Forty Five days
C. Forty days
D. Thirty days
433. French governmental structure swings between parliamentarian and:_________?
A. Presidential
B. Bonapartism
C. Monarchical
D. None of these
434. The French men generally:__________?
A. Disregard their civil responsibility
B. Have a great regard for their civil responsibility

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C. Have lukewarm response towards their civil responsibility
D. None of these
435. French society has always been:
A. A united society
B. A Fragmented society
C. A traditional and conservative society
D. None of these
436. Elementary Schools were under the control of:__________?
A. Protestants
B. Roman Catholics
C. Orthodox Eastern Church
D. None of these
437. The French empire was gradually liquefied into French:___________?
A. French federation
B. French union
C. French confederation
D. None of these
438. Parliament holds by right:
A. Two sessions every year
B. Three sessions every year
C. Four sessions every year

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D. None of these
439. Who is the commander-in-chief of the armed forces?
A. Senate
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. None of these
440. The Fourth Republic was set up in:_________?
A. 1940
B. 1946
C. 1950
D. 1958
441. The constitution of third Republic was passed in:_________?
A. 1875
B. 1880
C. 1885
D. 1850
442. The Restored Monarchy of Bourbon lasted till:_________?
A. 1822
B. 1848
C. 1856
D. 1858

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443. Napoleon Bona Part rose to power in:______________?
A. 1790
B. 1794
C. 1798
D. 1804
444. The first Republic was formed in:__________?
A. 1660
B. 1679
C. 1789
D. 1800
445. After revolution of France, in order to run administration of the country effectively, the whole
France is devided into:
A. 60 Departments
B. 70 Departments
C. 85 Departments
D. 95 Departments
446. The constitution of the Fifth Republic consists of a preamble and:_________?
A. 92 articles
B. 123 articles
C. 280 articles
D. 395 articles

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447. The first Prime Minister of the Fifth Republic after promulgation of the constitution was:
A. Marshall Petain
B. General de Gaulle
C. Michael Debre
D. Coty
448. The Constitution of the Fifth Republic was promulgated on:__________?
A. October 10,1957
B. October 7,1958
C. November 10,1958
D. January 15,1959
449. General de Gaulle entered into Paris with the assistance of allied force along with his army on:
A. June 10,1940
B. October 11,1942
C. August 25,1944
D. December 12,1945
450. Under the supervision of Marshall Petain, which government dissolved the constitution of 1875
on ___________?
A. January 6,1938
B. October 9,1939
C. July 11,1940
D. October 19,1940

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451. The Third Republic lasted from:__________?
A. 1804-1815
B. 1848-1851
C. 1870-1940
D. 1940-1955
452. The Second Republic lasted from:____________?
A. 1825-1830
B. 1830-1836
C. 1836-1848
D. 1848-1851
453. The President of the Second Republic was:___________?
A. Napoleon I
B. Napoleon II
C. Napoleon III
D. None of these
454. Napoleonic Empire was overthrown by Austria, Prussian and Britain in ______ when they
restored the Bourborn Kings to the French throne.
A. 1806
B. 1809
C. 1815
D. 1821

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455. In 1804, a military adventurer who transferred the Republic into an Empire was:___________?
A. Louis Philippe
B. Napoleon Bonaparte
C. Gaulle
D. Coty
456. The present constitution of France was adopted in:____________?
A. 1964
B. 1956
C. 1958
D. 1802
457. The first written constitution of France was framed in:___________?
A. 1788
B. 1789
C. 1790
D. 1798
458. In France constitutions were made and unmade in 170 years, nearly:___________?
A. Fifteen times
B. Sixteen times
C. Seventeen times
D. None of them
459. The present constitution of France is also known as:___________?

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A. Constitution of Fourth Republic
B. Constitution of Third Republic
C. Constitution of Fifth Republic
D. None of them
460. France is associated with:___________?
A. Rule of Law
B. Proletarian Law
C. Administrative law
D. None of them
461. The French Constitutional Law of 1940 established the:____________?
A. July Monarchy
B. Vichy France
C. July France
D. None of these
462. The French Constitution of 1848 of the Second French Republic was adopted on:__________?
A. November 04,1848
B. November 22,1848
C. November 14,1848
D. November 24,1848
463. The Charter of 1830 adopted on August 14, 1830 is also known as:___________?
A. September Monarchy

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B. April Monarchy
C. July Monarchy
D. June Monarchy
464. The Charter of 1814 adopted on June 4, 1814 reestablished the:____________?
A. Parliament
B. Monarchy
C. Democracy
D. None of these
465. Constitution of June 24, 1793 was also known as:____________?
A. Montagnard Constitution
B. French Constitution
C. Japanese Constitution
D. None of these
466. The Constitution of 1791 or Constitution of September 3, 1791 established a:__________?
A. Unlimited monarchy and the Legislative Assembly
B. Unlimited monarchy and the limited Legislative Assembly
C. Limited monarchy and the Legislative Assembly
D. None of these
467. A liberal monarchical constitution was accepted by the king on:_____________?
A. October 6, 1789
B. October 6, 1790

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C. July 14, 1790
D. July 14,1791
468. A liberal monarchical constitution was adopted on:_____________?
A. October 27,1789
B. October 6,1789
C. October 26,1789
D. October 16,1789
469. The ancient regime was an absolute monarchy and lacked a formal constitution. The regime
essentially relied on:___________?
A. Custom
B. Referendum
C. Law
D. None of these
470. Charles de Gaulle bypassed the legislative procedure in 1962 and directly sent a constitutional
amendment to a:__________?
A. Referendum
B. Senate
C. Parliament
D. National Assembly
471. The Constitution sets out methods for its own amendment either by referendum or through
a:__________?
A. Parliamentary process without Presidential consent
B. Parliamentary process with Presidential consent

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C. Cabinet process with Presidential consent
D. None of these with
472. France as a _______ and democratic Republic, deriving its sovereignty from the people:
A. Secular
B. Islamic
C. Hindu
D. None of these
473. The preamble of the constitution recalls the Declaration of the Rights of Man and of the Citizen
from__________?
A. 1789
B. 1787
C. 1785
D. None of these
474. Fifth Republic’s constitution was drafted by:___________?
A. Napoleon Bonaparte
B. Charles de Gaulle
C. Michael Debre
D. None of these
475. Who was the main instigator of French constitution of Fifth Republic?
A. Michel Debre
B. Charles de Gaulle

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C. Napoleon Bonaparte
D. None of these
476. The current constitution of France is typically called the Constitution of the___________?
A. Sixth Republic
B. Third Republic
C. Fourth Republic
D. Fifth Republic
477. The principal of check and balance in US has forced to work together:
A. The three organs of government
B. The national and state government
C. The senate and House of Representatives
D. The government and political parties
478. The USA President, Barak Obama took an oath before the Chief Justice on:
A. January 20,2009
B. February 28,2009
C. June 7,2009
D. July 7,2008
479. The elections to House of Representatives held:__________?
A. After every fours years
B. After every three years
C. After two years

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D. None of these
480. The house of representative is elected by:___________?
A. By Electoral College consists of states ligislature
B. By all citizens of the United States
C. By proportional votes of the states
D. None of these
481. The American congress is:___________?
A. Bicameral
B. Tri-cameral
C. Unicameral
D. None of these
482. President Bush was:____________?
A. Republican President
B. A Democratic President
C. A De facto President
D. None of these
483. President Kennedy was:___________?
A. Impeached
B. Assassinated
C. Hanged
D. None of these

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484. The water gate affairs scandal was related with:__________?
A. President Kennedy
B. President Carter
C. President Nixon
D. None of these
485. No incumbent president can be removed by:__________?
A. Electoral defeat
B. Impeachment
C. By referendum
D. None of these
486. The Vice President invited to attend the meetings of president’s cabinet not by law but
by:___________?
A. Courtesy
B. By president’s invitation
C. By necessity
D. By convention
487. Vice President is described as the:___________?
A. Dark horse of presidential stable
B. Dark star of presidential constellation
C. Dark figure of presidential office
D. None of these

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488. President Wilson had been:__________?
A. University teacher
B. A film actor
C. A novelist of gret fame
D. None of these
489. The president during his office tenure is:_________?
A. In immune from paying taxes
B. In immune from arrest
C. In immune from congressional censure
D. None of these
490. The president is installed on the:_________?
A. 20th January of the ensuing year
B. On the 25th December of the same year
C. One month after the presidential election is over
D. None of these
491. Republican Party was founded by:_________?
A. George Washington
B. Chester A. Arthur
C. Alexander Hamilton
D. None of these
492. Who became the President of Republican Party?

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A. US Grand
B. Benjamin Harrison
C. Bill Clinton
D. George W. Bush
493. Originally, the United States comprised of:__________?
A. 13 states
B. 15 states
C. 17 states
D. 10 states
494. Presidential Candidate Republicans, Abraham Lincoln gained victory in:__________?
A. 1824
B. 1845
C. 1860
D. None of these
495. During the Presidential election the main burden of party affairs is borne by:___________?
A. The Present Committee
B. The Country Committee
C. The Congress District Committee
D. The National Committee
496. Thomas Jefferson became president when Anti-federalists gained victory in:___________?
A. 1789

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B. 1800
C. 1804
D. None of these
497. The Anti-federalists led by:___________?
A. Mr. Washington
B. Mr. Franklin Roosevelt
C. Mr. Thomas Jefferson
D. None of these
498. The federalists led by:____________?
A. Mr. Washington
B. Mr. Thomas Jefferson
C. Mr. Alexander Hamilton
D. None of these
499. The Anti-federalists later on assumed a new name:___________?
A. Republicans
B. Cavaliers
C. Democrats
D. Round heads
500. The federalists later on assumed a new name:__________?
A. Republicans
B. Democrats

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C. Cavaliers
D. Round heads
501. Those who were in favor of ‘state rights’ called themselves:
A. Federalists
B. Anti-Federalists
C. Republicans
D. None of these
502. After independence of America two parties emerged, those who were in favor of strong centre
called themselves:
A. Federalists
B. Anti-Federalists
C. Democrats
D. None of these
503. The US has:___________?
A. One party system
B. One dominant party system
C. Two party system
D. Multi Party system
504. The First women judge of US was:__________?
A. Sandra Day O Connor
B. Madam Helliary
C. Hallen

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D. Non of these
505. In US the Supreme Court was established in:__________?
A. 1789
B. 1800
C. 1810
D. 1815
506. The judicial review by the Supreme Court can be distinguished into:___________?
A. 2 aspects
B. 3 aspects
C. 4 aspects
D. 5 aspects
507. The doctrine of Implied powers, first enunciated by Chief Justice Marshall in case
of:__________?
A. Marbury Vs. Madison
B. McCulloch Vs. Maryland
C. Gibbon Vs. Ogden
D. None of these
508. The Principal of Judicial review was founded by:__________?
A. Chief Justice John Marshall
B. President Roosevelt
C. Attorney-General Gerald R. Ford

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D. None of these
509. In a Conferences of Supreme Court opinions which are concluded by CJ and his colleagues in
the form of document called:
A. Executive Agreement
B. The Opinion of the Court
C. Judicial Review
D. None of these
510. Ordinarily, the Supreme Court continues its hearing:
A. Four days a week
B. Five days a week
C. Six days a week
D. Seven days a week
511. In America, the types of federal courts are of :___________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. One
512. The US Customs Court was set up in:___________?
A. 1855
B. 1890
C. 1910

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D. 2009
513. In the US, the Court of claims was set up in:__________?
A. 1789
B. 1790
C. 1855
D. 1890
514. In the US, the Supreme Court has increased the powers of the centre by means of:__________?
A. Bill of Rights
B. Doctrine of Implied Powers
C. Judicial Review
D. None of these
515. In America, the judges of the Supreme Court can declare any law passed by the Congress or the
state legislature to be unconstitutional if it violates the provisions of the Constitution is is technically
known as:
A. Implied Powers
B. Bill of Rights
C. Executive agreements
D. Judicial Review
516. In America, there are jurisdictions:
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four

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D. Five
517. The general policy of the Republican was:__________?
A. Imperialism
B. Agrarianism
C. Mercantilism
D. Socialism
518. National Republican Party replaced:_________?
A. The federal party
B. Democratic Republic party
C. Conservative party
D. None of these
519. Obama is the president of which country:____________?
A. USA
B. UK
C. Spain
D. None of these
520. Nomination of party candidates for the office of president is made by:__________?
A. Party central committee meeting
B. Party parliamentary committee meeting
C. Party national conventions
D. None of these

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521. In USA there are:__________?
A. Two stages of presidential election
B. There stages of presidential election
C. Four stages of presidential election
D. None of these
522. The constitution of imposes:
A. Three tests on a presidential candidate
B. Two tests on a presidential candidate
C. No test on presidential candidate
D. None of these
523. An amendment is made by:____________?
A. Ratification of 2/3 members of the state
B. Ratification by 3/4 legislatures of the state
C. Ratification by 1/5 legislatures of the state
D. None of these
524. The very first notable feature of the American constitution is:_____________?
A. Democaratic centralism
B. Democratic de-centralism
C. Popular sovereignty
D. None of these
525. The American constitution is:_______________?

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A. A rigid constitution
B. An elaborate constitution
C. An elastic constitution
D. A redundant constitution
526. The American constitution proclaims itself to be:_____________?
A. An international law
B. Supreme law of the land
C. A cohesive law of the land
D. None of these
527. The main trouble with the American federation was:_____________?
A. Representation of bigger and smaller states
B. Representation of working class
C. Representation of red Indians
D. None of these
528. In America, a Judge may retire on attaining the age of:___________?
A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 75
529. The Judicial power of the US is to be vested in:_____________?
A. The Senate

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B. The Congress
C. The House of Representatives
D. The Supreme Court
530. In the USA the Head of State is:__________?
A. The President
B. The Prime Minister
C. The Chief Justice of Supreme Court
531. The Senate comprises of 100 senators while the House of Representatives consists of 435
members and 3 electoral votes are allocated to Washington, so at present total electoral votes are:
A. 537
B. 538
C. 539
D. 530
532. The Constitution of US came into effective on:___________?
A. September 17, 1787
B. July 17,1788
C. Mar 4, 1789
D. None of these
533. The Constitution of US was proposed by Convention on:____________?
A. July 4,1776
B. September 17,1778

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C. October 15,1785
D. September 17,1787
534. Declaration of American independence was made on:____________?
A. March 21, 1776
B. April 20, 1776
C. July 4, 1776
535. The First American President was:___________?
A. Franklin Roosevelt
B. Truman
C. Eisenhower
D. Washington
536. The American President Mr. Roosevelt was elected for:____________?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
537. The Convention in which the President is to consult the senators of his party for the
appointments of the officer is to be called:__________?
A. Implied Powers
B. Senatorial Courtesy

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C. Theory of Separation of Powers
D. The System of Checks and Balances
538. The growth of the Cabinet System is based on:___________?
A. Constitution
B. Convention
C. Judicial Decision
D. Formal Amendments
539. The first ten Amendments in the Constitution of USA are called:__________?
A. The Bill of Rights
B. The Implied Powers
540. In US, for ratifying amendments, the number of ways:
A. Two
B. Four
C. Five
541. In American constitution, for proposing amendments, the number of ways are:________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four

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542. The number of amendments which adopted in 1791 were:__________?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Ten
D. Thirteen
543. The number of amendments effected in the US Constitution are:____________?
A. Twenty-two
B. Twenty-three
C. Twenty-six
D. Twenty-seven
544. The Supreme Court was created by the original constitution of:___________?
A. 1776
B. 1787
C. 1789
D. 1791
545. The American Constitution is based on:
A. Principle of separation of powers
B. Principle of co-ordination of powers
C. Principle of parity of powers
D. None of these

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546. The American Constitution consists of a Preamble and:__________?
A. 7 articles
B. 11 articles
C. 15 articles
D. 22 articles
547. In America ‘the residuary power’ are vested in:____________?
A. The Central Government
B. The States
C. The Districts
D. None of these
548. The United State at present is a federation consisting of:___________?
A. 45 states
B. 50 states
C. 52 states
D. 55 states
549. The American Declaration of Independence was issued in:_________?
A. 1772
B. 1776
C. 1787
D. None of these
550. In 1787, the original constitution was drafted by a convention held at:_________?

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A. Philadelphia
B. Washington
C. Chicago
D. New York
551. The federal government of the USA came into existence on:_________?
A. April 30,1787
B. May 27,1788
C. June 27,1788
D. April 30,1789
552. According to amendment 22 “No person shall be elected to the office of the President more than
twice”. It was passed on:
D. 27th February 1954
553. The 26th Amendment lowered the voting age from 21 years to:_________?
A. 20 years
B. 18 years
C. 16 years
D. 15 years
554. Which amendment was repealed by amendment 21?

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A. Amendment 13
B. Amendment 18
C. Amendment 15
D. Amendment 16
555. 27th Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:_________?
A. 7th May 1990
B. 7th May 1991
C. 7th May 1992
556. What was the 27th Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Limiting Congressional Pay Increases
B. Voting Age Set to 18 years
C. Presidential Disability and Successful
D. None of these
557. 26th Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:__________?
A. 7th May 1978
B. 1st July 1971
C. 7th May 1971
D. None of these
A. Poll Taxes Barred

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B. Presidential Disability and Succession
C. Voting Age Set to 18 years
D. None of these
D. None of these
A. Presidential Disability and Succession
B. Poll taxes Barred
C. Liquor Abolished
D. None of these
561. 24th Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:
A. 23rd January 1962
B. 23rd January 1965
C. 23rd January 1964
D. None of these
A. Liquor Abolished
B. Poll Taxes Barred

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C. Citizenship Rights
D. None of these
563. 23rd Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:__________?
A. 29th March 1960
B. 29th March 1961
C. 29th March 1962
D. None of these
564. What was the 23rd Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Liquor Abolished
B. Citizenship rights
C. Presidential vote for District of Columbia
D. None of these
565. 22nd Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:__________?
D. None of these
566. What was the 22nd Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Women’s Suffrage
B. Presidential Term Limits

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D. None of these
567. 21st Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:
568. What was the 21st Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Amendment 18 Repealed
B. Women’s Suffrage
C. Liquor Abolished
D. None of these
569. 29th Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:____________?
A. 23rd January 1933
B. 23rd January 1938
C. 23rd January 1937
D. None of these
B. Presidential, Congressional Terms
C. Poll taxes Barred
D. None of these

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C. 18th August 1920
D. None of these
B. Liquor Abolished
C. Trial and Pubishment
D. None of these
573. 18th Amendment in United StatesConstitution was took place on:__________?
B. 16th January 1919
D. None of these
A. Trial and Pubishment
B. Women’s Suffrage
C. Liquor Abbolished
D. None of these

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A. 8th April 1913
D. None of these
B. Senators Elected by Popular Vote
C. Women’s Suffrage
D. None of these
577. 16th Amendment in United Status Constitution was took place on:___________?
A. 3rd February 1913
D. None of These
A. Status of Income Tax Clarified
B. Poll taxes Barred
C. Race No Bar to Vote
D. None of these

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C. 3rd February 1870
D. None of these
A. Citizenship Rights
B. Presidential Term Limits
D. None of these
B. 9th July 1868
D. None of these
A. Liquor Abolished
B. Citizenship Rights
C. Poll Taxes Barred
D. None of these
583. 13th Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:___________?
A. 7th Febrary 1799

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D. None of these
A. Slavery Abolished
B. Citizenship Rights
C. Presidential Term Limits
D. Race No Bar to Vote
A. 15th June 1808
B. 15th June 1804
C. 15th June 1806
D. None of these
B. Choosing the President, Vice-President
D. Presidential Term Limits

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D. None of these
B. Trial and Punishment
C. Judicial Limits
D. Race No Bar to Vote
A. 15th September 1791
C. 15th November 1791
590. The Senate comprises of 100 senators while the House of Representatives consists of 435
members and 3 electoral votes are allocated to Washington, so at present total electoral votes are:
A. 537
B. 538
C. 539
D. None of these
591. The Constitution of USA came into effective on:__________?
B. July 17,1788
C. Mar 4, 1789

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D. None of these
592. The Constitution of USA was proposed by Convention on:___________?
A. July 4,1776
B. September 17,1778
C. October 15,1785
D. September 17,1787
593. Declaration of American independence was made on:__________?
A. March 21, 1776
B. April 20, 1776
C. July 4, 1776
D. None of these
594. The First American President was:___________?
A. Franklin Roosevelt
B. Truman
C. Eisenhower
D. Washington D.C.
595. The American President Mr. Roosevelt was elected for:__________?
A. Two times
B. Three times
C. Four times
D. None of these

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596. A Convention in which the President is to consult the senators of this party for the appointments
of the officer is to be called:
A. Implied Powers
B. Senatorial Courtesy
C. Theory of Separation of Powers
D. The System of Checks and Balances
597. The growth of the Cabinet System is based on:_________?
A. Constitution
B. Convention
C. Judicial Decision
D. Formal Amendments
598. The first ten Amendments in the Constitution of U.S.A. Are called:__________?
A. The Bill of Rights
B. The Implied Powers
D. None of these
A. Trial and Punishment
B. Search and Seizure
C. Powers of the States & People
D. Slavery Abolished

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A. Construction of Constitution
B. Slavery Abolished
C. Right to Bear Arms
D. Powers of the States and People
A. 15th November 1791
C. 15th January 1791
D. 15th August 1791
A. Powers of the States & People
B. Right to Bear Arms
C. Slavery Abolished
D. Cruel and Unusual Punishment

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B. 15th November 1791
C. 15 August 1791
D. 15th March 1791
B. Search and Seizure
C. Right to Bear Arm
D. Trial by Jury in Civil Cases
A. 15th November 1791
C. 15th January 1791
D. 15th August 1791
A. Right to Bear Arms’
B. Right to Speedy Trial, Confrontation of Witnesses
C. Slavery Abolished
D. Search and Seizure

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A. Search and Seizure
C. Right to Bear Arms
D. Trial and Punishment, Compensation for takings
B. Powers of the States and People
D. Search and Seizure
612. 3rd Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:___________?

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613. What was the 3rd Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Quartering of Soldiers
C. Right to Bear Arm
D. Trial and Punishment
614. What was the 2nd Amendment in the United States Constitution?
B. Right to Bear Arms
C. Trial and Punishment
D. Powers of the States and People
615. 1st Amendment in United States Constitution was took place on:__________?
616. What was the 1st Amendment in United States Constitution?
A. Right to Bear Arms’
B. Trial and Punishment
C. Freedom of Religion, Press, Expression

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D. Slavery Abolished
617. First tem Amendments in United States Constitution are called:__________?
A. Bill of Property
B. Bill of Security
C. Bill of Rights
D. None of these
618. Article 1 of the Constitution of United States of America deals with?
A. The Judicial Branch
B. New States
C. The Legislative Branch
D. Ratification
619. The first federal judicial system in the world is of:___________?
A. Britain
B. America
C. France
D. USSR
620. In US, how many amendments have been made now?
A. 25
B. 26
C. 27
D. 30

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621. Property restrictions to vote or to hold office were abolished in:_________?
A. 1840
B. 1845
C. 1850
D. 1835
622. Democratic Republican Party was led by:__________?
A. Ibrahim Lincoln
B. General Bright
C. Jefferson
D. None of these
623. The federalists were led by:_________?
A. George Washington
B. Alexander V Hamilton
C. Mr. Burr
D. None of these
624. The two-party system in America is due to:_________?
A. The peculiar constitutional set up
B. The peculiar political atmosphere
C. The Peculiar social fabric
D. None of these

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625. The first ten Amendments passed by Congress on September 25, 1789 and ratified
on:_________?
A. October 17,1790
B. February 4,1791
C. December 15, 1791
D. None of these
626. According to 26th US Amendment, every citizen has right to vote must be at least
of:__________?
A. 18 years of age
B. 21 years of age
C. 23 years of age
D. None of these
627. Ordinarily, Congress meets at least in a year:________?
A. Once
B. Twice
C. Thrice
D. Can’t say
628. The sessions of House of Representatives begins every year on:__________?
A. 3rd of January
B. 20th of January
C. 23rd of March
D. 1st of April

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629. If Vice-President becomes the President of US, who acts as a presiding head of the Senate:
A. President Pro-tempore
B. Speaker
C. Attorney General
D. None of these
630. In US, in case of impeachment of President which Chamber sits as the Cief Court of Justice:
A. The Senate
B. House of Representatives
C. House of Commons
D. House of Lords
631. The Congress sits at a place in Washington called near White House:
A. Capital Hill
B. Mount Everest
C. 10 Downing Street
D. None of these
632. In case of impeachment of a President, the Senate is required a majority of:___________?
A. One-fourth
B. Two-thirdd
C. Three-fourth
D. Half
633. The Speaker of the House of Representatives owes allegiance to:__________?

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A. Majority Party
B. Opposition Party
C. No Party
D. None of these
634. In the beginning, the Senate was comprised on:__________?
A. 20 members
B. 25 members
C. 26 members
D. 29 members
635. A Senator must be at least:
A. 25 years old
B. 30 years old
C. 35 years old
636. The term of US Senators is:___________?
A. 2 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. 5 years
637. During the absence of the Vice-President, the Senate is presided by:__________?
A. The President

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B. The President Pro-tempore
C. The Speaker
D. The Attorney General
638. The Presiding officer of the US Senate is:_____________?
A. The President
B. The vice-President
C. The President Pro-tempore
D. The Attorney General
639. Money Bills can originate only in:___________?
A. The Senate
B. The house of representatives
C. The House of Lords
D. The House of Commons
640. The Presiding officer of the US House of Representative is:___________?
A. The President
B. The Vice-President
C. The Speaker
D. None of these
641. The member of House of Representatives must be at least:____________?
A. 20 years old
B. 25 years old

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C. 30 years old
D. 35 years old
642. The term of US House of Representatives is:__________?
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. 5 years
643. The House of Representatives comprises:___________?
A. 435 members
B. 436 members
C. 437 members
D. 438 members
644. There was no provision for the judicial system in the:__________?
A. Bill of rights
B. Articles of Confederation
C. The Proclamation of Independence
645. The first federal judicial is system of the world is:___________?
A. American judicial system
B. English judicial system

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C. Frenchludicial system
D. None of these
646. The first ten amendments were passed by congress on September 25, 1789 and ratified
on:__________?
A. October 17, 1790
B. February 4,1791
C. December 15, 1791
D. None of these
647. The National Industrial Recovery Act was passed:_________?
A. In 1933
B. In 1934
C. In 1935
D. In 1932
648. The first 10 amendments are called:___________?
A. Bill of Rights
B. The implied powers
C. Senatorial courtesy
D. None of these
649. One third of the senators retire after every:_________?
A. Two years
B. Three years
C. One years

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D. Four years
650. In the USA a senator is elected for a term of:____________?
A. Four years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. Seven years
651. Uncle Joe was the popular name of:_________?
A. Jefferson
B. James Clark
C. Joseph G.Cannon
D. Nixon
652. Thomas B heed was speaker:____________?
A. From 1895 to 1898
B. From 1896 to 1898
C. From 1896 to 1899
D. None of these
653. After the civil war 1861-1864, the southern confederate states had to be:___________?
A. Separate
B. Eliminated
C. Integrated
D. Polarized

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654. Speaker is the nominee of:_____________?
A. The President
B. The states legislatures
C. The majority party of the House
655. When a new congress meets for the first time:____________?
A. The house chooses its chairman
B. The house of representatives chooses it speaker
C. The house of representative chooses it president
D. None of these
656. The US Congress meets at least:__________?
A. Twice in a year
B. Three times in a year
C. Once in a year
D. None of these
657. The House of Representatives had initially:_____________?
A. 60 members
B. 75 members
C. 100 members
D. None of these
658. Who sworn as the 44th President of the United States:

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A. Bill Clinton
B. Ronald Reagan
C. George W. Bush
D. Barak Obama
659. The US Senate comprises:___________?
A. 98 members
B. 100 members
C. 102 members
D. 103 members
660. The American legislature consists of the Senate and:_________?
A. The House of Commons
B. The House of Lords
C. The House of Representatives
D. None of these
661. The American legislature of congress is:________?
A. Unicameral
B. Bicameral
C. Tri-cameral
D. Can’t say
662. Which American state is called Mother of Presidents:
A. Florida

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B. New York
C. Texas
D. Virginia
663. On January 20, 2001 who took oath as a Vice-President of US:
A. Richard Nixon
B. John Kennedy
C. G.Ford
D. Richard Chaney
664. George W. Bush took an oath before the Chief Justice on Saturday on:
A. January 20,2001
B. February 28,2001
C. June 7,2001
D. July 7,2001
665. Who sworn as the 43th President of the United States:
A. Bill Clinton
B. Ronald Reagan
C. George W.Bush
D. Barak Obama
666. The US Presidential election to elect the new US President was held on:___________?
A. November 10,2000
B. January 20,2001

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C. November 7,2001
D. December 20,2001
667. Gerald R. Ford was US President by:___________?
A. Appointment
B. Election
C. Succession
D. Coup d’etat
668. The number of Presidents serving for more than eight years in US is:_________?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
669. The number of Presidents removed from office through impeachment in US is /

are:____________?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. None
670. The number of women elected for the American presidency is / are:____________?
A. One
B. Two

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C. Three
D. None
671. In the USA the executive power is to be vested in:________?
A. The President
B. The Congress
C. The Supreme Court
672. The American President must have resided in the USA for at least:__________?
A. 10 years
B. 12 years
C. 14 years
D. 15 years
673. Two Terms tenure of US President was fixed in:____________?
A. 1748
B. 1848
C. 1848
D. 1951
674. The new American President assumes office on:___________?
A. 1st January
B. 20th January
C. 28th February

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D. 1st April
675. Mr. Clinton became President of the USA in:___________?
A. 1990
B. 1992
C. 1994
D. 1995
676. The American President is elected for:____________?
A. Two-years term
B. Three-years term
C. Four-years term
D. Five-years term
677. The number of amendments which adopted in 1791 were:__________?
A. Five
B. Seven
C. Ten
D. Thirteen
678. In 1787, the original constitution was drafted by a convention held at______________?
A. Philadelphia
B. Washington
C. Chicago
D. New York

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679. Judges of the ICJ are: _________________?
A. Elected by the Security Council
B. Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
C. Appointed by the Security-General in consultation with the five permanent members of the Security
Council
D. None of these
680. Dejure Recognition is: _____________?
A. Legal Recognition
B. Circumstantial Recognition
C. Recognition in Principle
D. None of these
681. League of Nations was not joined by: ____________?
A. U.S.A.
B. France
C. U.K.
D. None of these
682. The following are immune under the from extradition :
A. Former Heads of State
B. Former Heads of Government
C. Senior Citizens
D. None of these

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WWW.
683. The General Assembly is: ______________?
A. The principal Organ of UNO
B. All ordinary of UNO
C. A check on the Security Council
D. None of these
684. Who said, “International Law is law in the true sense of the term”:
A. Oppenheim
B. Hart
C. Hall
D. Starke
685. Who said, “International Law is the body of principles and rules which civilized State consider
as binding upon them in their mutual relations”:
A. Birkenhead
B. Starke
C. Hughes
D. Hall
686. Vital change of circumstances:
A. Renders a treaty invalid
B. Terminates the treaty
C. Has no effect on the treaty
D. None of these

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687. International Law prescribes:___________?
A. A form for the making of international agreements
B. A procedure for the making of international agreement
C. Neither form nor procedure but leaves it to the will and convenience of the parties
D. None of these
688. The Harmon Doctrine is: ___________?
A. Part of International Law
B. Was renounced before it could take roots in International Law
C. Is attempting to earn general acceptance
D. None of these
689. Under the Convention of the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Exclusive Economic Zone
is:__________?
A. 100 nautical miles
B. 200 nautical miles
C. 300 nautical miles
D. None of these
690. Under the Convention of the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the territorial Sea is: ___________?
A. 6 nautical miles
B. 8 nautical miles
D. None of these

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691. Rights of land-locked states are governed by: _____________?
A. Rules of customary International Law
B. Convention on the Law of Sea
C. Mutual consent
D. None of these
692. The continuity of states as International Legal Persons is: __________?
A. Affected by change of governmentq
B. Not affected by change of government
C. Depends on the recognition of the new government
D. None of these
693. A successor state inherits:
A. All rights/duties of the predecessor state
B. Only some of the rights/duties of the predecessor state
C. Some of the rights/duties of the predecessor state
D. None of these
694. The concept of State Immunity is: ____________?
A. An attribute of territorial sovereignty
B. A derogation from the sovereignty of state
C. Not concerned with territorial sovereignty
D. None of these
695. Diplomatic Asylum:

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A. Is the same as territorial Asylum
B. Is a derogation form the sovereignty of a state
C. Has no concern with territorial sovereignty
D. None of these
696. The ICJ is: _______________?
A. Principal organ of the UNO
B. Specialised agency of the UNO
C. Independent body with its own Charter
D. None of these
697. The Security Council is: _____________?
A. Principal organ of the UNO
B. Spccialised agency of the UNO
C. NGO for crisis management in international affairs
D. None of these
698. International Law Can: ______________?
A. Compel a state to settle a dispute
B. Provide moral support to an issue in dispute
C. Furnish legal substance to an issue in dispute
D. None of these
699. Public International Law is primarily concerned with the rights, duties and interests of:
A. States

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B. Non-State entities
C. Individuals
D. None of these
700. Hugo Grotius was:___________?
A. Dutch
B. British
C. German
D. None of these
701. A lower riparian state:
A. Has no right to share water resources of an international river
B. Has exchusive right
C. Has right to share waters on equitable basis
D. None of these
702. Supervening impossibility:
A. Renders the treaty invalid
B. Terminates the treaty
C. Has no effect on the treaty
D. None of these
703. The eruption of war terminates:
A. All treaties
B. Only political treaties;

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C. No treaty
D. None of these
704. A State becomes a Member of the United Nations:
A. When Security Council admits it
B. When General Assembly admits it after recommendation of the Security Council
C. When Security Council admits it after the recommendation of the Secretary-General
D. None of these
705. The Judges of the ICJ are: ___________?
A. Elected by the Security Council
B. Elected by the Security Council and the General Assembly
C. Appointed by the Secretary-General in consultation with five permanent members of teh Security
Council
D. None of these
706. Minquiers and Ecrehos case was decided by: ____________?
A. ICJ
B. PCIJ
C. European court of Human rights
D. None of these
707. Diplomatic asylum: _____________?
A. Is an exercise of territorial sovereignty
B. Is a derogation from territorial sovereignty
C. Has no concern with territorial sovereignty

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D. None of these
708. The violation of constitutional limitations means: ______________?
A. A government functionsry commits treason
B. Consent to be bound by a treaty is rendered invalid
C. Treaty stands terminated
D. None of these
709. A state can use force: _____________?
A. When its own security so demands
B. by entering into a treaty with another state
C. When it is attacked by another state
D. None of these
710. A State: ______________?
A. Can nationalize foreign property without compensation
B. Cannot nationalize
C. Can nationalize by paying compensation
D. None of these
711. Extradition is granted in case of:___________?
A. Ordinary criminals
B. Political and religious criminals
C. Heads of State and Govt.
D. None of these

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712. Diplomatic relations are established by:_____________?
A. Mutual consent
B. A unilateral decision
C. A decision of a regional organisation
D. None of these
713. Territorial asylum is:______________?
A. An exercise of territorial sovereignty
B. Am impingement of territorial sovereignty
C. Granted by mutual consent
D. None of these
714. Territorial integrity means:______________?
A. A state call interfere in internal affairs of another states
B. A state cannot interfere in others State’s internal affairs
C. A State’s boundaries are secure and cannot be attacked
D. None of these
715. The united Nations is:_______________?
A. A Supria-State organisation
B. A creation of Member States
C. Has no Link with States after its establishment
D. None of these
716. A Member of the International Law Commission is elected by:_____________?

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A. Security Council
B. General Assembly
C. Security Council and General Assembly
D. None of these
717. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights:
A. Is a multilateral Convention adopted by States
B. Is a Declaration adopted by the UN Commission on Human Rights
C. Is a Declaration adopted by the General Assembly
D. None of these
718. A State may become a Member of the UN:
A. With the decision of the Security Council
B. With the decision of the General Assembly
C. With the decision of both the Security Council and the General Assembly
D. None of these
719. The permanent Court of International Justice:____________?
A. Is successor to the International Court (ICJ)
B. Is predecessor of the ICJ
C. Has no link with the ICJ of Justice
D. None of these
720. The Calvo clause means:____________?
A. A State can intervene on behalf of its nationals

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B. A State cannot intervence on behalf of its nationals
C. An alien agrees not to seek the diplomatic protection of his own State
D. None of these
721. Under present day International Law:
A. A State can acquire title to territory by conquest
B. A State cannot acquire title to territory by conquest
C. A State can acquire title to the conquered territory through the approval of the Security Council
D. None of these
722. The most-favoured nation treatment means:
A. A treatment that is not extended to any other State
B. A treatment extended to any third State
C. A treatment extended to a particular State
D. None of these
723. A Geographically – Disadvantage – State means: ________________?
A. A State which has no natural resources
B. A State which has short sea coast
C. A State which suffers from frequent sea storms
D. None of these
724. Coastal and land-locked States, according to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea,
have:____________?
A. No right of freedom of fishing in high seas
B. No right of freedom of scientific research in high

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C. A right to sail ships flying its flag on the high seas
D. None of these
725. De factor Recognition is:___________?
A. Legal Recognition
B. Recognition in principle
C. Circumstantial Recognition
D. None of these
726. European convention for the Protection of Human Rights and Fundmental Freedoms was
adopted in:____________?
A. 1948
B. 1950
C. 1952
D. None of these
727. Most-avoured Nation treatment means:__________?
A. A treatment extended to a particular group
B. A favourable treatment extended to a particular state
C. A treatment similar to the one extended to any third state
D. None of these
728. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was signed in:___________?
A. 1988
B. 1968

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C. 1948
D. None of these
729. Extradition is granted in case of:___________?
A. Ordinary criminals
B. Political & religious criminals
C. Heads of States & Government
D. None of these
730. Vienna Congress took place in:___________?
A. 1815
B. 1919
C. 1945
D. None of these
731. Territorial integrity means:____________?
A. A state can interfere in the internal affairs of another state
B. Non-interference in the internal affairs of another state
C. A state’s boundaries are secure & cannot be attacked
D. None of these
732. right of land-locked states are governed by:____________?
A. Rules of customary International Law
B. Convention on the law of Sea
C. Mutual Consent

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D. None of these
733. A Successor state inherits:
A. All right/duties of its predecessor state
B. Selected right/duties
C. Nothing
D. None of these
734. Diplomatic relations are established by:_________?
A. Mutual agreement
B. Unilateral action
C. Decission of neighbouring States
D. None of these
735. For a State to come into existence, one of the basic element is:____________?
A. Possession of sovereignty
B. Possession of ideology
C. Possession of physical resources
D. None of these
736. A State can use Force:
A. In its own self-defence
B. By entering into a treaty with another States
C. At its own discretion
D. None of these

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737. A lower riparian State:
A. Has no right to share water resources of an international river
B. Has exclusive right
C. Has a right to share water on an equitable basis
D. None of these
738. Under the Convention of the Law Sea, the breadth of the exclusive Economic Zone is:
D. None of these
739. According to the Convention of the Law of the Sea, the breadth of the Territorial Sea
is:____________?
A. 6 nautical miles
B. 8 nautical miles
D. None of these
740. Continental Shelf of Pakistan, may extend upto a distance of:____________?
C. 300 nautical miles beyond the limit of its territorial waters
D. None of these

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741. The limit of the territorial Waters of Pakistan is:_____________?
C. 24 nautical miles beyond the land territory and internal waters; of Pakistan measured from the baseline
D. None of these
742. A diplomatic agent is immune from local jurisdiction:
A. In all cases
B. In criminal cases
C. In cases involving personal property
D. None of these
743. Foreign Ships:___________?
A. Have the right of free passage in the Territorial Waters
B. Are not allowed to navigate in the Territorial Waters
C. Have the right of, innocent passage I age to the Territorial Waters
D. None of these
744. A State has the right to use force in case of:
A. To obtain raw material
B. Armed attack
C. to ensure the protection of human rights
D. None of these
745. Which one of the following is called. “The father of International Law”:

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A. Starlm
B. Pufendoxf
C. Hugo Grotius
D. Oppenheim
746. What is contraband?
A. All Narcotics
B. Articles banned by a Government
C. All smuggled goods
D. Goods which may assist an enemy in the conduct of war
747. The term of Judges of the International Court of Justice is:__________?
A. Three years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. Nine years
748. Extradition is normally granted:
A. In all cases
B. In criminal cases
C. In civil cases
D. None of these
749. In procedural matters, the decisions of the Security Council are made by an affirmative votes of
any:

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A. 5 members
B. 9 members
C. 15 members
D. None of these
750. The Security Council is:___________?
A. Specialized Agency of the UN
B. Principal Organ of the UN
C. N.G.O. For settling disputes between various States
D. None of these
751. According to “The Floating Island Theory”, a Floating Island is:__________?
A. An island within 3 nautical miles from the coast of a country
B. An island on the high seas, which is not the territory of any particular State
C. A ship bearing the national flag of a State
D. None of these
752. According to the UN Convention on the Law of the Sea the contiguous zone may not extend
beyond:
D. None of these
753. Statutes of the International Court of Justice were drawn up by:___________?

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A. London Declaration in 1941
B. Moscow & Teheran Conference in 1943
C. San Francisco Conference in 1945
D. None of these
754. Convention on the Law of the Sea was signed at Jamaica in:____________?
A. 1948
B. 1958
C. 1975
D. 1982
755. Exclusive Economic zone of Pakistan is an area beyond and adjacent to the territorial waters the
limit of which is:
D. None of these
756. The majority of the cabinet ministers are always from:_____________?
A. The House of Lords
B. The House of Commons
C. The Parliament
D. None of them
757. The members of cabinet either belongs to the house of common or:____________?

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A. House of Lords
B. House of Privy members
C. House of dominion ministers
D. None of them
758. There is a cabinet secretariat since:___________?
A. 1916
B. 1917
C. 1918
D. 1919
759. The cabinet system got a golden opportunity to develop unhampered during the reigns of:
A. Edward V and VI
B. Queen Victoria and Elizabeth
C. George I and II
D. Charles I and II
760. At the time of glorious revolution the cabinet was:__________?
A. Full fledged body
B. Half formed body
C. Over grown body
D. None of them
761. Cabinet grew with the increase in the supremacy of:__________?
A. Parliament

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B. King or Queen
C. House of Lords
D. Prime Minister
762. The last occasion on which the whole Privy Council was:____________?
A. 1712
B. 1713
C. 1714
D. None of them
763. The King or Queen is the symbol of:____________?
A. Democracy
B. Fedualism
C. Constitutional continuity
D. Imperial unity
764. The King is a :______________?
A. Interpreter of the constitution
B. Reformer of the constitution
C. An advisor of the constitution
D. Guardian of the constitution
765. There is a fundamental distinction between:
A. The King and crown
B. Queen and King

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C. Prime Minister and King
D. None of them
766. The King’s prerogatives can be translated into actions:
A. By Courts of law
B. Parliamentary acts
C. A Minister responsible to the Parliament
D. By his own executive order
767. The King can do not wrong because:
A. He is a pious person
B. He can authorize no wrong
C. He is above the law
D. He is a law himself
768. Kingship in England can be traced back to:____________?
A. Norman period
B. Anglo-Saxon period
C. French period
D. Immemorial period
769. The right to govern in England flows through the legislature to:___________?
A. The Prime Minister
B. The Cabinet
C. The Court of Law

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D. None of them
770. The whole of cabinet system in English is based on:__________?
A. Queen or King personal will
B. People confidence
C. Conventions
D. On majority principles
771. Conventions enable a rigid framework to be kept up with changing social needs and changing
political ideas:
A. Jennings says
B. Dicey says
C. Holds worth says
D. None of them says
772. The English constitution is:_____________?
A. Federal in form
B. Unitary in form
C. Composite in form
D. Confederal in form
773. In Great Britain the executive is responsible to the:___________?
A. Judiciary
B. Prime Minister
C. To the Queen or King

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D. To the legislature
774. The nature of English constitution is:__________?
A. Evolutionary
B. Parliamentary
C. Revolutionary
D. Subtle
775. English constitution is a composite of charters, judicial and:___________?
A. Check and balance
B. Common law
C. Individual experience
D. Ethic code
776. First time Labour Party formed government in 1924 at that time the Leader of the Labour
Party was:_____________?
A. Ramsay Mcdonld
B. Earl of Derby
C. J.H. Wilson
D. None of them
777. Tony Blair became Prime Minister for the second time in:___________?
A. July 17,1999
B. August 10,2000
C. June 7,2001

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D. July 17,2001
778. Tony Blair became Prime Minister in:___________?
A. 1996
B. 1995
C. 1997
D. 1999
779. The first Labour Party leader who became the Prime Minister for the second time
is:____________?
A. Tony Blair
B. J.H. Wilson
C. John Major
D. None of them
780. In 1979 elections, Mr. James Challaghan, the leader of Labour Party was defeated by:________?
A. Margaret Thatcher
B. Mr. John Major
C. Mr. Tony Benn
D. None of them
781. Mr. Harold Wilson came to power in:__________?
A. 1945
B. 1951
C. 1964

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D. None of them
782. The National Union was founded in:_________?
A. 1860
B. 1867
C. 1870
D. 1871
783. There are two kinds of organizations outside Parliament, namely the professional organization
of the Conservative Central Office and:
A. The National Union
B. The Jack Union
C. The Ulster Unionists
D. None of them
784. Kinds of organizations outside Parliament are of:____________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
785. Mrs. Thatcher the reader of the Conservative party won:
A. Two electoral victories
B. Three electoral victories
C. Four electoral victories

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D. None of them
786. Culturally, Great Britain is:______________?
A. A Homogeneous country
B. A Heterogeneous country
C. A Spiritual country
D. None of them
787. The labour party believes in:___________?
A. Capitalism
B. Socialism
C. Communism
D. None of them
788. The Conservative party believes in:___________?
A. Socialism
B. Capitalism
C. Totalitarism
D. Communism
789. The Labour party was first represented in parliament in:_____?
A. 1901
B. 1902
C. 1905
D. 1906

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790. The labour party was founded in Britain in:___________?
A. 1900
B. 1901
C. 1902
D. None of These
791. According to the Reform Bill of 1832, the Tory came to be known as:___________?
A. Liberals
B. Conservatives
C. Communists
D. Socialists
792. According to the Reform Bill of 1832, the Whig came to be known as: _____________?
A. Conservatives
B. Liberals
C. Socialists
D. None of them
793. During the Civil War the supporters of the Parliament came to be called:
A. Tories
B. Whigs
C. Cavaliers
D. Roundheads
794. During the Civil War the supporters of the Sovereign came to be called:_____?

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A. Cavaliers
B. Roundheads
C. Tory
D. Whig
795. Teo political parties emerged during the reign of:
A. Charles III
B. Charles II
C. George I
D. George II
796. According to the Acts of 1911 and 1949 the House of Lords cannot delay a Money Bill for more
than:
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Four months
797. The tenure of the House of Commons is: __________?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years
C. 7 years
D. 9 years
798. The presiding Officer of the House of Commons is:_____________?

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A. The Chairman
B. The Deputy Chairman
C. The Speaker
D. The Deputy Speaker
799. At present House of Commons consists of:___________?
A. 360 members
B. 466 members
C. 558 members
D. 659 members
800. The Lower Chamber of the British Parliament is called: ___________?
A. House of Representatives
B. House of Commons
C. House of Lords
D. Senet
801. Lord Chancellor is a member of the Cabinet and also the head of:____________?
A. The Parliament
B. The Judiciary
C. The Administration
D. None of these
802. Lord Chancellor is the only Cabinet Minister whose salary is same as that of:________?
A. The President

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C. The Attorney General
D. The Chief Justice
803. The House of Lords at present consists of about:
A. 900 members
B. 100 members
C. 12 members
D. 1300 members
804. According to the Parliament Act of 1949, the House of Lords can delay a Non-Money Bill for:
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Four years
805. According to the Acts of 1911 and 1949 the House of Lords cannot delay a Money Bill for more
than:
A. One month
B. Two months
C. Three months
D. Four months
806. The tenure of the House of Commons is:__________?
A. 5 years
B. 6 years

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C. 7 years
D. 9 years
807. The Presiding Officer of the House of Commons is: ____________?
A. The Chairman
B. The Deputy Chariman
C. The Speaker
D. The Deputy Speaker
808. At present, House of Commons consists of:____________?
A. 350 members
B. 465 members
C. 558 members
D. 659 members
809. The Lower Chamber of the British Parliament is called:_________?
A. House of Representatives
B. House of Commons
C. House of Lords
D. Senet
810. Lord Chancellor is the only Cabinet Minister whose salary is same as that of:__________?
A. The President
C. The Attorney General

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D. The Chief Justice
811. The House of Lords at present consists of about:
A. 900 members
B. 1100 members
C. 1200 members
D. 1300 members
812. The highest court of Appeal in the U.K. Is:______________?
C. The Cabinet
D. The Ministry
813. According to the Parliament Act of 1949, the House of Lords can delay a Non-Money Bill for:
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years
D. Four years
814. According to the Parliament Act of 1911, the House of Lords can delay Non-Money Bill sent up
by the House of Commons for:
A. One year
B. Two years
C. Three years

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D. Four years
815. The British Parliament Act of 1911 as amended in 1949, in legislation:
A. Equaled the two houses
B. Pitted the two houses against each other
C. Established the Superiority of House of Commons
D. Established the Superiority of the House of Lords
816. In the British Constitution the head of the Judiciary is: _____________?
A. The Queen
B. The speaker
C. The Lord Chancellor
D. The Governor
817. The Presiding officer of the House of Lords is: __________?
A. The Speaker
B. The Lord Chancellor
C. The Queen
D. The Prime Minister
818. The House of Lords is the:_____________?
A. 2nd Chamber of the British Parliament
B. 3rd Chamber of the British Parliament
C. 4th Chamber of the British Parliament
D. None of these

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819. The Prime Minister is appointed by: __________?
C. The Queen
D. The Parliament
820. Lords of Appeal are appointed under:
A. Statute of West Minister Act 1831
B. Appellate Jurisdiction Act 1871
C. Parliament Act of 1911
D. None of these
821. Lords Spiritual are consist of:___________?
A. Two archbishops
B. Three archbishops
C. Four archbishops
D. Five archbishops
822. The House of Lords consists of the Lords Temporal and:__________?
A. Lords Spiritual
B. Lords Privy
C. Lords Magnificent
D. None of these
823. The British Parliament is:___________?

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A. Unicameral
B. Bicameral
C. Tri-cameral
D. None of these
824. Britain became a member of the European Economic Community in:
A. Jan-73
B. Feb-73
C. Mar-75
D. Apr-75
825. The British Courts must accept the laws passed by:____________?
A. The Judiciary
B. The Parliament
C. The Cabinet
D. None of these
826. Mother of all Parliaments is to be called:__________?
A. The British Parliament
B. The American Parliament
C. The French Parliament
D. The Russian Parliament
827. The Supreme legislative authority in Britain liew with:
A. The Parliament

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B. The Queen in Parliament
C. The Prime Minister in Parliament
D. The Speaker in Parliament
828. Many of the prerogatives have been ________ by the Acts of Parliament
A. Enforced
B. Taken away
C. Limited
D. Enhanced
829. Resolutions of either house of parliament:
A. Has force of law
B. Do not have force of Law
C. Hoave the sanction behind the rule of Law
D. None of them
830. The Pivot of the whole system of government:
A. Is the Prime Minister
B. Parliamentary internal affairs committee
C. King or Queen of Great Britain
D. None of them
831. The Prime Minister is the leader of:__________?
A. His own party
B. House of Lords

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C. House of commons
D. Parliament
832. Pamsey Mac Donald became a Prime Minister in:__________?
A. 1924
B. 1932
C. 1936
D. 1942
833. The Prime Minister has the selection of Minister:
A. A free hand
B. To consult King or Queen
C. Has to consult parliament
D. To consult his party
834. Who Invented the First Computer Mouse?
A. Douglas Engelbart
B. Ada Lovelace
C. Charles Babbage
D. None of these
835. Which is the most philanthropist country in the world ?
A. Pakistan
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Indonesia

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WWW.
D. Malaysia
836. What was the World’s busiest Airport in 2022?
A. Benzair Airport
B. Hong Kong International Airport
C. Atlanta International Airport
D. None of these
837. Which country banned UN’s women staff from working recently?
A. Norway
B. Turkey
C. Afghanistan
D. India
838. Who has become the first female umpire to officiate men’s T20I match?
A. New Zealand’s Kim Cotton
B. India Vrinda Ghanshyam Rathi
C. Australia Claire Antonia Polosak
D. None of these
839. The master plan of Islamabad was prepared by: ____________?
A. S.B Zisman
B. C.A Doxiadis
C. Patrick Geddes
D. Ebenzer Howard

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WWW.
840. “The Silk Roads: A New History of The World” is written by___________?
A. XI JinPing
B. Joe Bidden
C. Peter Frankopan
D. David Ricardo
841. Lord Palmerston was a Prime Minister:
A. From House of Commons
B. From House of Lords
C. From Privy Council
D. Chamber of King
842. The first Prime Minister of England was:______________?
A. Lord Asquith
B. Winston Churchill
C. Lord Asmey
D. Walpole
843. The House of Commons is essentially:
A. A law making body
B. Governing body
C. A law interpreting body
D. None of these
844. Social democratic party was formed in: __________?

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A. 1971
B. 1981
C. 1991
D. None of these
845. Under the leadership of Mrs. Thatcher:
A. Conservative Party won there regular terms
B. Conservative Party won two regular terms
C. Conservative Party won five regular terms
D. None of them
846. The most powerful organ of the labour party is:____________?
A. The Annual Conference
B. Central Executive Committee
C. Political Bureau
D. National Council
847. The National executive committee consists of:_____________?
A. 20 members
B. 25 members
C. 30 members
D. 45 members
848. Conservative party stands for: _____________?
A. Public property

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B. Private property
C. Public and private property
D. None of them
849. The duration of the House of Commons is:__________?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
850. The life of the House of Commons is: _______________?
A. Absolutely fixed
B. Is not absolutely fixed
C. Conventionally fixed
D. None of them
851. Before the passing of the parliament act of 1911:
A. The duration of the House of Commons ws 11 years
B. The duration of the House of Commons was 8 years
C. The duration of the House of Commons was 7 years
D. None of them
852. The people representation act of 1948 had fixed the number of members of House of Commons
at:
A. 625
B. 626

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C. 628
D. None of them
853. The House of Commons is the:____________?
A. Upper chamber of British Parliament
B. Middle chamber of Irish Parliament
C. Lower chamber of Indian Parliament
D. None of them
854. In the House of Lords are no party whips and:____________?
A. Committee formation
B. Lobbying
C. Parliamentary secretaries
D. None of them
855. The House of Lords is _______ British Parliament:
A. The upper chamber
B. The lower chamber
C. The middle chamber
D. None of them
856. Lord Chancellor while presiding sits:
A. On a wooden chair
B. On a cemented flat form
C. On a wool sack

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D. None of them
857. A large number of acts of indemnity were passed from:
A. 1782 to 1828
B. 1727 to 1828
C. 1728 to 1829
D. 1727 to 1828
858. Lord Chancellor is the presiding officer:
A. Of House of Commons
B. Of Privy Council
C. Of Financial committee of Parliament
D. Of the House of Lords
859. The House of Lords is:______________?
A. Elective
B. Selective
C. Hereditary
D. None of them
860. According to Leslie Stephen the power of legislature is strictly:
A. Observed
B. Imposed
C. Limited
D. None of them

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WWW.
861. The dominant character of English parliament:
A. Is sovereignty
B. Authoritarian ship
C. Dictotor ship
D. None of them
862. Which one is the mother of all parliaments in the world?
A. American Parliament
B. Swiss Parliament
C. English Parliament
D. Mexican Parliament
863. Mr. Winston Churchill was Prime Minister
A. During First World War
B. During the War of the Boires
C. During the War against Argentina
D. None of them
864. John Major was the Prime Minister of who belonged to:____________?
A. Labour Party
B. Conservative Party
C. Social democratic party
D. None of them
865. The Prime Minister has: ______________?

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WWW.
A. No say in the making of foreign policy
B. A great say in the making of foreign policy
C. An advisory status in the making of foreign policy
D. None of them
866. Member of the House of Lords has: ___________?
A. To commit for the contempt of their rights beyond the session
B. To commit for the contempt of rights only for an year
C. To commit for the contempt of their right for two years
D. None of them
867. A peerage has _______ with the tenure of land:
A. No connection
B. A connection
C. An essential connection
D. None of them
868. Mr. Richard G. Gasey was made life peer in:____________?
A. 1955
B. 1957
C. 1958
D. 1980
869. The life peer ages act of ______ gives the crown the power to confer a life peerage upon a manor
woman:

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A. 1858
B. 1758
C. 1958
D. None of them
870. The House of Lords consists of Lords temporal and:__________?
A. Lords magnificent
B. Lord Privy
C. Lords spiritual
D. Lords Secular
871. The House of Lords is:__________?
A. Exclusively hereditary
B. Not exclusively hereditary
C. Elected
D. None of them
872. Political sovereignty is a:______________?
A. Prominent character of English Parliament
B. A limitation of English Parliament
C. Democratic function of English Parliament
D. None of them
873. English Parliament is a:____________?
A. Unicameral House

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B. Tri-cameral House
C. Bicomeral House
D. None of them
874. In the British Constitution election:
A. The Acts of 1832, 1867 and 1864
B. The Acts of 1911 and 1949
C. The Acts of 1918 and 1928
D. The Acts of 1932 and 1947
875. The First Prime Minister of Britain was:_____________?
A. Mr. Macmillan
B. Sir Anthony Eden
C. Mr. Walpole
D. Mr. Winston Churchill
876. The British Constitution consists of:_____________?
A. Un-chambered system
B. Tri-chambered system
C. Bi-chambered system
D. None of these
877. The Magna Carta was signed by King John in:______________?
A. 1628
B. 1215

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C. 1678
D. 1879
878. The British Constitution is based on:____________?
A. The theory of separation
B. Checks and balances
C. Gap between the theory and practive
D. Judicial review
879. The British Constitution is based on:______________?
A. Written Character
B. Convention-ridden
C. The theory of separation
D. Federal Character
880. The English legal system, the smallest unit of local authority is called:___________?
A. Parish
B. Sub-division
C. Town
D. None of them
881. The sovereignty of Parliament has also been limited by the Statute of West Minister Act of:
A. 1931
B. 1932
C. 1933

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WWW.
D. 1934
882. The Labour Party eame into existence in:______________?
A. 1980
B. 1917
C. 1899
D. 1900
883. What is Doctrine of ultra virus?
A. Is a first class legislation
B. Sub-ordinate legislation
C. Special class of legislation
D. None of these
884. The House of Commons has:___________?
A. Four hold control over finance
B. Three fold control over finance
C. Two fold control over finance
D. None of them
885. The tenure of the first Prime Minister was:_____________?
A. From 1721 to 1742
B. From 1751 to 1772
C. From 1851 to 1868
D. None of them

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WWW.
886. The expenditure on this British Monarchy is:____________?
A. 1% of the total British budget
B. 2% of the total British budget
C. 5% of the total British budget
D. 7% of the total British budget
887. The husband of United Kingdom Queen is to be called:______________?
A. The Duke of Edinburgh
B. The King
C. The Prime Minister
D. None of them
888. The Queen can do no wrong means:_______________?
A. The Queen is immune from the jurisdiction of law
B. The Queen has no power of ruling
C. The Queen has immense power of ruling
D. The Queen is above law
889. The Queen appoints judges on the advice of the Prime Minister or:____________?
A. The Home Secretary
B. The Speaker
C. The Deputy Speaker
D. The Lord Chancellor
890. The Queen must be a faithful:

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WWW.
A. Protestant
B. Communist
C. Catholic
D. Buddhist
891. The term of Houe of Commons is:___________?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. None of them
892. Statutes are the laws made by the:____________?
A. Parliament
B. Conventions
C. Queen
D. None of these
893. The Reforms Acts of 1832, 1867, 1884 and relate to:_____________?
A. Election reforms
B. The powers of the king
C. Franchise
D. The powers of the Lords
894. The Queen can pardon or reprieve offenders on the advice of:______________?
A. The Lord Chancellor

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WWW.
C. The Deputy Speaker
D. The Home Secretary
895. The England Prime Minister belongs to:___________?
C. The House of representatives
D. None of them
896. The British Parliament Act of 1911 as amended in 1949 in legislation:
A. Equated the two houses
B. Pitted the two houses against each other
C. Established the superiority of House of Commons
D. Established the superiority of House of Lords
897. Britain has:______________?
A. One party system
B. One dominant party system
C. Two party system
D. Multi party system
898. The Act of Settlement deals with:____________?
A. The Powers of the House of Lords
B. Protection of Judges from arbitrary removal

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WWW.
C. Imprisonment without legal justification
D. None of them
899. Ordinarily, the House of Lords consists of:___________?
A. Five Lords
B. Seven Lords
C. Nine Lords
D. Ten Lords
900. Appeals from the Court of Appeal go to:______________?
A. The High Court
B. The Crown Court
D. The County Court
901. The Queen’s Bench Divisions presided by:____________?
B. The Lord Chief Justice
C. The Justice of Peace
D. Stipendiary Magistrate
902. The Chancery Division is presided by:___________?
B. The Lord Chief Justice
C. The Justice of the Peace

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D. None of them
903. The Court of Appeal is headed by:___________?
A. Master of the Rolls
B. Lord Chancellor
C. Lord Chief Justice
D. Stipendiary Magistrate
904. The courts, which deal with children and young persons, are called:_________?
A. Minor Courts
B. Country Courts
C. Juvenile Courts
D. Old Bailey
905. The Court of Criminal Appeal consists of the Lord Chief Justice and about:
A. Two Judges
B. Three Judges
C. Five Judges
D. Seven Judges
906. The Courts of Assizes are held:
A. Two times a year
B. Three times a year
C. Four times a year
D. Five times a year

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WWW.
907. The Court of Quarter Sessions is held:________?
A. Two times a year
B. Three times a year
C. Four times a year
D. None of them
908. Stipendiary Magistrates are appointed by:____________?
B. The Home Secretary
C. The Prime Minister
D. The Queen
909. The Final Court in all civil and criminal cases for the UK is:__________?
A. High Court
B. Country Court
C. Court of the Justice of the Peace
D. House of Lords
910. The Final Court of Appeal in England is:____________?
A. The Court of Appeal
B. The High Court
C. The Country Court
D. None of these
911. The High Court consists in:___________?

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A. Two Divisions
B. Three Divisions
C. Four Divisions
D. Five Divisions
912. The Word Rex stands for:____________?
A. The Queen
B. The Crown
C. The Court
D. The Parliament
913. Types of courts in England are:____________?
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
914. The highest court of Appeal in the U.K. Is:___________?
C. The Cabinet
D. The Ministry
915. In the following laws which one is the written law of the and:_____________?
A. Convention

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WWW.
B. Statute law
C. Common law
D. Equity
916. The Kinds of laws in England are:__________
A. Two
B. Three
C. Four
D. Five
917. The Judiciary is the:
A. Third organ of government
B. Fourth organ of government
C. Fifth organ of government
D. None of these
918. Who decides whether a Bill is a Money Bill or Non-Money Bill?
A. Chairman of House of Lords
B. Speaker of House of Commons
C. Speaker of House of Representatives
D. None of these
919. In 1835, the first speaker not elected for the second term was:____________?
A. Sir Thomas de Hungerford
B. Sutton

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C. George Kennedy
D. Walpole
920. The most important feature of the British Speaker-ship is its:
A. Partisan Character
B. Non-Partisan Character
C. None of them
D. all of them
921. According to the Act of 1969, every adult man or women has right to vote must be at least:
A. 18 years of age
B. 19 years of age
C. 20 years of age
D. 21 years of age
922. A member of House of Commons must be at least______________?
A. 18 years of age
B. 20 years of age
C. 21 years of age
D. 23 years of age
923. The Act of 1911 was amended in 1949 and under the amended Act the delaying powers of the
House of Lords were reduced from 2 years to:
A. 1 year
B. 10 months
C. 7 months

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D. 5 months
924. Which Parliamentary Act made the House of Commons much stronger than the House of
Lords?
A. 1911
B. 1929
C. 1939
D. 1941
925. According to the Act of 1911, the duration of Parliament was reduced from:
A. 6 to 5 years
B. 7 to 5 years
C. 8 to 5 years
D. 8 to 4 years
926. In 1377, the first elected speaker of the House of Commons was:_____________?
A. Earl of Lever Poole
B. George Green
C. Walpole
D. Sir Thomas de Hungerford
927. In Britain, the real executive is the cabinet which is responsible to the:___________?
A. House of Lords
B. House of Representatives
C. House of Commons

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D. None of these
928. The Sovereignty of Parliament means:
A. The Sovereignty of the House of Commons
B. The Sovereignty of the House of Lords
C. The Sovereignty of the Cabinet
D. The Sovereignty of the Prime Minister
929. The Cabinet evolved out of:_____________?
A. The Privy Council
D. None of these
930. The Judicial Committee of the Privy Council derives from the principle of:__________?
A. English common Law
B. Acts of Parliament
C. Historic documents
D. Judicial decisions
931. The term Privy Council was first used in the reign of:___________?
A. Henry V
B. George I
C. Charles I
D. Charles II

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932. Most of the functions of the Privy Council are performed by:____________?
A. 4 or 5 Cabinet Ministers
B. 8 or 10 Cabinet Ministers
C. 18 Cabinet Minister
D. 13 or 15 Cabinet Ministers
933. The orders issue by the Privy Council are:___________?
A. Laws-in-Council
B. Orders-in-Council
C. King-in-Council
D. None of these
934. The title of the Privy Councilors is:__________?
A. Knighthood
B. Sir Anthony Edwin
C. Right Honourable
D. Fountain of Honour
935. P.C. Means:__________?
A. Privy Councilors
B. Prime Councilors
C. Personal Consultant
D. None of these
936. Privy Council is related to:______________?

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A. England
B. USA
C. India
D. Pakistan
937. The UK budget is prepared by:___________?
A. The House of Commons
B. The Cabinet
D. The Queen
938. In 1917, the Cabinet Secretariat was established by:_________?
A. Mr. Lloyd George
B. Mr. Attlee
C. Mr. Winston Churchill
D. None of these
939. During the First World War a War Cabinet was formed consisting of:_____________?
A. 2 members
B. 3 members
C. 5 members
D. 7 members
940. The first who was impeached by Parliament was:___________?
A. Sri Robert Walpole

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B. Sir Anthony Edwin
C. Mr. R.A.Butler
D. Earl of Dandy
941. The Cabinet System began to develop during the reign of:____________?
A. Charles II
B. William III
C. George I
D. None of these
942. The driving and steering force in the British System of government is:_____________?
A. The Parliament
B. The Cabinet
C. The Queen
D. None of these
943. The Crown Act, 1937 relates to:___________?
A. The power of the Cabinet
B. The salaries of the Cabinet Ministers
C. The powers of the Queen
D. The powers of the House of Commons
944. The Key-man in the Cabinet of U.K is:_____________?
A. The Speaker

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C. The Queen
D. The Home Secretary
945. Ministerial responsibility is of:______________?
A. Uni-type
B. Two type
C. Three type
D. Four type
946. The majority of the Cabinet Ministers are always from:
A. The Parliament
B. The House of Loard
C. The House of Commons
D. None of these
947. The Cabinet consists of the PM and about:___________?
A. 20 Ministers
B. 18 Ministers
C. 80 Ministers
D. 65 Ministers
948. In the British Constitution the real executive authority is:___________?
A. The Cabinet
B. The Queen
C. The Judiciary

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D. The House of Lords
949. Tony Blair became Prime Minister for the second term on:
A. 10-Feb-99
B. 20-Jan-00
C. 7-Jun-01
D. 10-Dec-01
950. The residential place of the British Prime Minister is at:_____________?
A. 10-Downing Street
B. White House
C. Red Fort
D. Wall street
951. Name of the first Labour Party leader who became the Prime Minister for the second term:
A. Mrs. Margaret Thatcher
B. Mr. John Major
C. Mr. Winston Churchill
D. Toney Blair
952. In 1990 Mrs. Margaret Thatcher was removed by:___________?
A. Mr. John Major
B. Mr. Wilson
C. Sir Alec Douglas Home
D. None of these

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953. Mrs. Margaret Thatcher ruled the country for:___________?
A. 5 years
B. 10 years
C. 11 years
D. 12 years
954. The tenure of Mrs. Thatcher was:____________?
A. From 1963-1979
B. From 1979-1989
C. From 1989-1994
D. None of these
955. In United Kingdom the Supreme Control over foreign pocily is exercised by:
A. The Queen
B. Ahe Ambassador
C. The High Commissioner
956. The modern jury in _____ and Wales consists of twelve men or women, between the ages of 18 to
65:
A. Scotland
B. England
C. Paris
D. None of these

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957. In UK how many classes of parliamentary bills:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
958. The cabinet meeting in UK is usually held every Wednesday morning in the cabinet rook at
_________
A. 10 Downing Street
B. Westminster Abbey
C. Oxford
D. None of these
959. The quorum is Privy Council is __________?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
960. The Privy Council is presided over by the ___________?
A. Prime Minister
B. Councillors of States
C. Speaker
D. Monarch

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WWW.
961. The greater part of the ________ was earmarked for household expenses and salaries of
members of the royal household:
A. Civil List
B. Red List
C. Black List
D. Green List
962. The monarch, then, is the personification of the __________?
A. USA
B. U.K
C. Germany
D. Japan
963. The system of government that exists in ______ today can perhaps be best described as a mixed
governmental system, with the monarch seeming to be, and Parliament in fact being, the senior
partner:
A. Britain
B. Germany
C. France
D. USA
964. Peers is a term for whom country:
A. USA
B. Germany
C. U.K
D. None of these

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965. Gordon Brown belongs to which political party:
A. Labour Party
C. Liberal Democrats
D. None of these
966. David Cameron the Prime Minister of U.K. Belongs to which party:
A. Labour Party
C. Liberal Democrats
D. None of these
967. The House of Lords Act passed in:_____________?
A. 1979
B. 1989
C. 1999
D. 2000
968. Members of the House of Lords in U.K. Are:
A. 644
B. 744
C. 844
D. 944

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WWW.
969. In the election held on 6 May, 2010 in United Kingdom the number of members of House of
Commons were:
A. 650
B. 750
C. 850
D. 950
970. Freedom of Trade, Business or Profession is the basic concept of which Article of our
Constitution (1973):
A. Article 16
B. Article 17
C. Article 18
D. Article 19
971. In the Constituent Assembly who of the following Indians said about relationship of parliament
and judiciary “No Supreme Court, no Judiciary, can stand in judgment over the sovereign will of
Parliament”:
A. J.L.Nehru
B. Ananthaswamy Ayyangar
C. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
D. Dr. Rajindra Parsad
972. Which of the following is not true about ‘rule of law’?
A. All administered are equal before alw
B. Constitution is the consequence of rights
C. Constitution is not the consequence but source of rights
D. Equal justice should be assured to all

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973. Equal protection before law means:
A. Equal protection for public servants
B. Equal protection for all military people
C. Among equals laws should be equally administered
974. Name the country in which supremacy of parliament has been reconciled with judicial reviews?
A. U.S.S.R
B. U.S.R
C. England
D. India
975. Which one of the following is not an essential feature of the rule of law?
A. All persons are equally subject to ordinary laws
B. Rules should be the basis of all laws
C. Equal justice for all
D. Absence of special privileges before law for certain persons
976. Which Article of our Constitution (1973) deals with freedom of movement etc.?
A. Article 13
B. Article 14
C. Article 15
D. Article 16
E. Article 17

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977. Which one of the following is the feature of rule of law?
A. In it arbitrary law is subordinate to regular law
B. In it regular law is above arbitrary law
C. In it both arbitrary and regular laws are reconciled
978. Who was Sheikh Noor Muhammad?
A. Father of Allama Iqbal
B. Brother of Allama Iqbal
C. Son of Allama Iqbal
D. Uncle of Allama Iqbal
979. Who is called “Poet of East” (Shair-e-Mashriq)?
A. Allama Iqbal
B. Nasir Kazmi
C. Faiz Ahmad Faiz
D. Ahmed Fraz
980. Allama Iqbal’s shrine is located in the city:___________?
A. Sialkot
B. Lahore
C. Multan
D. Karachi
981. Allama Iqbal was invited to attend the First Round Table Conference in the year:

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A. 1930
B. 1932
C. 1934
D. 1936
982. Armaghan-e-Hijaz was written by:____________?
A. Ghazzali
B. Farabi
C. Allama Iqbal
D. Tusi
983. Zarb-e-Kaleem was written by:____________?
A. Farabi
B. Allama Iqbal
C. Ghazzali
D. Mawardi
984. Bal-e-Jibreel was written by:______________?
A. Allama Iqbal
B. Tusi
C. Farabi
D. Ghazzali
985. Bang-e-Dara was written by:____________?
A. Allama Iqbal

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B. Tusi
C. Farabi
D. Ghazzali
986. Zaboor-e-Ajam was written by:____________?
A. Al-Farabi
B. Allama Iqbal
C. Tusi
D. Ghazzali
987. Payam-e-Mashriq was written by:___________?
A. Al-Ghazali
B. Farabi
C. Allama Iqbal
D. Shah Walliullah
988. In Govt. College Lahore, Allama Iqbal studied with World Renowned Orientalist and
Philosopher Scholar:
A. Thomas Arnold
B. Mathew Arnold
C. Mathew Proctor
D. None of these
989. Allama Iqbal received his early education from:
A. Govt. College, Lahore
B. Murray College, Sialkot

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C. Lawrence College Murree
D. Atchison College, Lahore
990. Allama Iqbal gave his historical Allahabad address at the annual session of All India Muslim
League held at Allahabad:
A. 29-Dec-1930
B. 29-Jan-1931
C. 23-Feb-1932
D. 29-Mar-1934
991. Allama Iqbal did his Ph.D by writing a thesis titled as:____________?
A. The Development of Metaphysics in PersiA.
B. The Development of Human Resources
C. The Development of Social Justice
D. None of these
992. Allama Iqbal wrote in Urdu and _________?
A. English Language
B. French Language
C. Persian Language
D. Arabic Language
993. Allama Iqbal did his Bar at Law from:
A. Lincoln’s Inn University
B. Oxford University

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C. Birmingham University
D. Munich University
994. Allama Iqbal served ‘as Professor of Philosophy in Lahore at:___________?
A. Punjab University
B. Islamia College
C. Govt. College Lahore
D. F.C. College
995. Allama Iqbal returned to India in:______________?
A. 1908
B. 1909
C. 1911
D. 1912
996. Allama Iqbal earned his Ph.D degree from:
A. Oxford University (London)
B. Cambridge University (London)
C. Munich University (Germany)
D. None of these
997. Allama Iqbal was born at:___________?
A. Lahore
B. Sialkot
C. Gujranwala

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D. Peshawar
998. According to Allama Iqbal in which form of Government heads are counted:
A. Oligarchy
B. Democracy
C. Polity
D. None of these
999. Allama Iqbal did his M.A. In Philosophy from Govt. College Lahore in:_____________?
A. 1891
B. 1894
C. 1899
D. None of these
1000. “Reconstruction of Religious thought in Islam” was written by:_____________?
A. Rosenthal
B. Mawardi
C. Rousseau
D. None of these
1001. “Ilmul-Iqtisad was written by:____________?
A. Al-Ghazali
B. Al-Mawardi
C. Allama Iqbal
D. None of these

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1002. Mention the year in which the father of Allama Iqbal, Sheikh Noor Muhammad, was died?
A. 1928
B. 1929
C. 1930
D. 1931
1003. Imam Bibi was the name of Allama Iqbal’s mother. In which year she died?
A. 1914
B. 1915
C. 1916
D. 1917
1004. In the memory of his mother, Allama Iqbal wrote a long poem. Name it?
A. Walida Merhooma Ki Yaad Mayn
B. Walida Marhooma
C. Beyad-e-Walida
D. Maan
1005. In 1899, Allama Iqbal passed his M.A. Examination. Mention the subject in which he did
M.A.?
A. Persian
B. Islamiyat
C. Philosophy
D. Urdu

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1006. During his M.A. Philosophy, Allama Iqbal met a very famous professor. Name him?
A. Professor Mayo
B. Professor Arnold
C. Professor Willingdon
D. Linthogow
1007. In 1905 Allama Iqbal went to England for higher education. In which institution of England he
got education?
A. Oxford University (London)
B. Trinity College Cambridge
C. Cambridge University
D. Lincoln Inn
1008. Where the Tao University is located?
A. USA
B. British
C. Australia
D. Japan
1009. After the twenty years of his death, which University honoured Allama Iqbal the degree of
doctorate?
A. Punjab University
B. Oxford University
C. Tao University
D. None of these

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1010. Which of the following statement is true about Allama Iqbal?
A. Allama Iqbal was given the title of Sir in 1921
B. Allama Iqbal was given the title of Sir in 1922
C. Allama Iqbal was given the title of Sir in 1923
D. Allama Iqbal was given the title of Sir in 1924
1011. When Allama Iqbal became the member of Punjab Council?
A. 1922
B. 1924
C. 1926
D. 1927
1012. Who wrote the History of Berbers?
A. Ibn-e-Khaldun
B. Ghazzali
C. Farabi
D. Shah Walliullah
1013. “War is a necessary evil, and no nation and no race is free from it.” Who says this?
A. Al-Farabi
B. Ibn-e-Khaldun
C. Allama Iqbal
D. Ibn-e-Rushd
1014. Who is the author of Qawanin al-Wazart?

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A. Tusi
B. Mawardi
C. Ghazzali
D. Iqbal
1015. Nasiha-tul-Muluk was written by:___________?
A. Tusi
B. Farabi
C. Mawardi
D. Ghazzali
1016. Tehsilum Nazar Fi Tehsilul Zafar was written by:_____________?
A. Mawardi
B. farabi
C. Ghazzali
D. Tusi
1017. Ilam-ul-Nabwat was written by:____________?
A. Farabi
B. Tusi
C. Ghazzali
D. Al-Mawardi
1018. Adab al Qazi was written by:___________?
A. Al Mawardi

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B. Al Farabi
C. Al Tusi
D. Iqbal
1019. Who wrote Ahhamul Sultania?
A. Al Mawardi
B. Al farabi
C. Al Ghazzali
D. Tusi
1020. Al Mawardi died at the age of:___________?
A. 70 years
B. 86 years
C. 96 years
D. 100 years
1021. Which is the first scientific treatise on political science and state administration in Islamic
History?
A. Al-Akam-al-Sultaniyah
B. Qawanin-ul-Wazarat
C. Siyasat Nomah
D. Ihya-ul-Uloom
1022. Whose valuable works were published after his death according to his will?
A. Al-Ghazali
B. Al-Mawardi

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C. Al-Farabi
D. Nazam-ul-Mulk Tusi
1023. The Abbaside Caliph al-Qaim appointed him as the Chief justice (Qazi-ul-Qazat) of his
Government and he refused the offer saying that there were far abler people who deserve the title
much more than himself. Who was that saintly philosopher?
A. Al-Farabi
B. Al-Ghazali
C. Al-Mawardi
D. None of these
1024. Who belongs to Shafite school of Fiqha:
A. Al-Farabi
B. Al-Mawardi
C. Al-Ghazali
D. Ibn-e-Khaldun
1025. Name the Muslim Philosopher who started his career as a professor of law and jurisprudence
at Basra and Baghdad?
A. Al-Mawardi
B. Al-Ghazali
C. Al-Farabi
D. None of these
1026. Who is regarded as the versatile and most learned Jurist of his age, and his opinions laid
emphasis in the world of Law and Jurisprudence?

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A. Al-Farabi
B. Al-Mawardi
C. Ibn-e-Khaldun
D. Al-Ghazali
1027. Al-Mawardi died in:__________?
A. 1058
B. 1059
C. 1060
D. 1061
1028. Al-Farabi studied in Baghdad under the Christian scholar named:
A. Abu Bish Matta
B. Abu Fazal
C. Abu Amir
D. Amir Saif Ullah
1029. AL Farabi was born at the village:
A. Warij
B. Syria
C. Tarbhan
D. Baghdad
1030. Farabi was a master of:______________?
A. Arabic Language and Literature

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B. Persian Language and Literature
C. English Language and Literature
D. Spanish Language and Literature
1031. He himself (Al-Farabi) is called the ‘second teacher’ ‘the first teacher’ being.
A. Aristotle
B. Plato’s Political theory and Guided caliphate
C. Socrates
D. None of these
1032. Al-Farabi learnt the basics of Political science from another Christian Savant:
A. Jilad al-Harran
B. Jilad al-Yunus
C. Matta bin Junus
D. Bashar bin Abraham
1033. The objective of this form of state is to acquire maximum money:
A. Vile state
B. Ideal state
C. Vicious state
D. Erring state
1034. According to Farabi, this form of state is the symbol of peace and property:
A. Vile state
B. Vicious state

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C. Ideal state
D. State of necessity
1035. According to Farabi, the following kind of state is useless:
A. Democratic
B. Vicious state
C. Ideal state
D. Vile state
1036. In which kind of state, the objective of the citizens is to acquire the needs of life, according to
Farabi.
A. Ideal state
B. State of necessity
C. Democracy
D. Vicious state
1037. Which is the best form of stte according to Farabi?
A. Madinat-ul-Fazla
B. Madinatual Jahillia
C. Madina-tul-Siyasa
D. Madina-tul-Tughlab
1038. Who wrote Siyasat al Madina?
A. Mawardi
B. Farabi
C. Ghazzali

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D. Iqbal
1039. Al Farabi was very much impressed by:__________?
A. Machiavelli
B. Aristotle
C. Mawardi
D. Iqbal
1040. Why did Aristotle write dialogues early in his career?
A. They were the best way to convey information
B. No one else was writing straightforward treatises
C. He was interested in the exchange process rather than the doctrine itself
D. He was following Plato’s model
1041. Which state ruled Greece for most of Aristotle’s adult life?
A. Athens
B. Thebes
C. Macedonia
D. Sparta
1042. Where did Aristotle perform his early biology research?
A. Assos
B. Athens
C. Mitylene
D. Stagira

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1043. What was the occupation of Aristotle’s father?
A. Physician
B. Philosopher
C. General
D. Chemist
1044. Which of the following terms means government by the few?
A. Aristocracy
B. Oligarchy
C. Timocracy
D. Patriarchy
1045. What was Aristotle’s attitude toward slavery?
A. He disapproved strongly
B. He disapproved reluctantly
C. He considered it to be against nature
D. He considered it to be natural
1046. What was the name of Aristotle’s guardian after his parents’ death?
A. Nicomachus
B. Hermeias
C. Proxenus
D. Xenocrates
1047. Which book is often criticized for being disorganized?

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A. Politics
B. Ethics
C. Poetics
D. Rhetoric
1048. Where was Aristotle born?
A. Stagira
B. Athens
C. Thebes
D. Macedonia
1049. To where did Aristotle withdraw after Alexander’s death?
A. Stagira
B. Macedonia
C. Athens
D. Chalcis
1050. What caused the break between Aristotle and Alexander?
A. Alexander’s failure to restore Aristotle’s native home
B. Alexander’s failure to support Aristotle’s research
C. Alexander’s attitude toward the Persians
D. Alexander’s treatment of Thebes
1051. How many times did Aristotle marry?

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A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
1052. In which year was Aristotle invited to tutor Alexander?
A. 345 B.C.
B. 344 B.C.
C. 343 B.C.
D. 342 B.C.
1053. Which one is the nephew of Aristotle?
A. Hermeias
B. Callisthenes
C. Xenocrates
D. Speusippus
1054. Which did Aristotle see as the central tension in ethical decisions?
A. Continence
B. Desire
C. Ignorance
D. Complacence
1055. Nicomachus was the name of which of Aristotle’s relations?
A. Father

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B. Son
C. Father and son
D. Brother
1056. What did Aristotle refer to metaphysics as ____________?
A. Natural philosophy
B. First philosophy
C. Epistemology
D. Teleology
1057. What is the most basic kind of soul?
A. Nutritive
B. Sensitive
C. Imaginative
D. Cognitive
1058. Psychology as Aristotle understood it means the study of what element?
A. The soul
B. The brain
C. The heart
D. The body
1059. For which subject is Aristotle least known?
A. Biology
B. Logic

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C. Mathematics
D. Psychology
1060. Which is not one of the Four Causes?
A. Origin
B. Motivation
C. Pattern
D. End
1061. Where was Aristotle born?
A. Thebes
B. Athens
C. Stagira
D. Corinth
1062. Which of the following is not an important Aristotelian work?
A. Physics
B. Poetics
C. Rhetoric
D. Psychology
1063. Which of the following biological topics did Aristotle not examine in detail?
A. Distinction between monocotyledons and dicotyledons
B. Anatomy of the stomachs of ruminants
C. Habits and development of octopuses and squids

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D. Chick embryology
1064. Which of the following was not a form of soul in Aristotle’s work “On the Soul”?
A. Rational
B. Subconscious
C. Animal
D. Vegetative
1065. The earliest writings of Aristotle cover what subject?
A. Astronomy
B. Philosophy
C. Physics
D. Biology
1066. Which of Aristotle’s early works, was inspired by the death of a friend?
A. Physics
B. Philosophy
C. Eudemus
D. Protrepticus
1067. What was the favorite example that Aristotle returned to repeatedly in the Poetics?
A. Oedipus
B. Antigone
C. Odyssey
D. Gorgias

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1068. What is the term for an argument used in rhetoric that could be reduced logically to a
syllogism?
A. Metonymy
B. Syneedoche
C. Enthymeme
D. Heuristic
1069. What is the Greek word for representation; as used in the Poetics?
A. Mimesis
B. Katharsis
C. Hamartia
D. Graticus
1070. The Unmoved Mover must be which of the following?
A. Eternal
B. Actively evolved in human affairs
C. Infinite in size
D. Endowed with knowledge of good and evil
1071. What are the two imperishable entities?
A. Motion and space
B. Space and time
C. Motion and time
D. Fire and water

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1072. What is the ultimate form of association?
A. Friendship
B. Family
C. Village
D. City-state
1073. What is the primary form of association?
A. Friendship
B. Family
C. Village
D. City-state
1074. How does one acquire virtue, according to Aristotle?
A. It is innate
B. By habit
C. By grace
D. By accident
1075. According to Aristotle, which pair of words is analogous to matter ::form?
A. Essence :: being
B. Susstance :: substrate
C. Potentiality :: actuality
D. Cause :: effect
1076. What were members of Aristotle’s Lyceum known as ___________?

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A. Rationalists
B. Skeptics
C. Cynics
D. Peripatetics
1077. Which friend of Aristotle died after being tortured for information by the Persians?
A. Xenocrates
B. Hermeias
C. Eudemus
D. Speusippus
1078. On which work of Plato’s is Eudemus largely based?
A. The Republic
B. Symposium
C. Phaedo
D. Gorgias
1079. How many children did Aristotle have?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
1080. The work we call physics is more properly described as what?
A. Natural science

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B. Chemistry
C. Biology
D. Metaphysics
1081. What is the term for the consideration of natural ends in explaining phenomena?
A. Tautology
B. Ontology
C. Teleology
D. Epistemology
1082. In Book XII of the Metaphysics, how many kinds of substances are there?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three
D. Four
1083. Which of the following is concerned with existence itself?
A. Epistemology
B. Psychology
C. Natural science
D. Metaphysics
1084. Which of the following is one of the two central distinctions Aristotle draws between animals?
A. Viviparous and oviparous
B. Herbivorous and carnivorous

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C. Sexual and asexual
D. Aerobic and anaerobic
1085. Which book is not one of the four main treatises on natural science?
A. Protrepticus
B. Physics
C. On the Heavens
D. Meteorology
1086. What two works are considered preliminary to Aristotle’s logical treatises?
A. Categories and Philosophy
B. Protrepticus and Philosophy
C. Categories and On interpretation
D. Protrepticus and On interpretation
1087. The Poetics deals primarily with what genre?
A. Epic
B. Comedy
C. Tragedy
D. Lyric Poetry
1088. What is the final cause of rainfall according to Aristotle?
A. It rains so plants and creatures can survive
B. It rains because it is water’s nature to fall
C. It rains because there is moisture in the air

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D. It rains because moisture cools
1089. Which is not a reason that Aristotle thought that women were ‘unfinished men’?
A. Women are passive and receptive
B. Women only contribute ‘substance’
C. Children receive only male characteristics
D. Women have little appreciation for the arts and sciences
1090. What are the two imperishable entities?
A. Motion and space
B. Space and time
C. Mtion and time
D. Fire and water
1091. Which is not one of the categories of Aristotle’s ponderance?
A. Logic
B. An Immortal Soul
C. Women
D. Ethics
1092. Who assumed leadership of the Academy after Plato’s death?
A. Hermeias
B. Xenocrates
C. Eudemus
D. Speusippus

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1093. Which of the following was not excluded from citizenship in the Politics?
A. Slaves
B. Children
C. Resident aliens
D. The clergy
1094. Which Academy colleague left with Aristotle after Plato’s death and accompanied him in some
of his travels?
A. Xenocrates
B. Antipater
C. Pixodarus
D. Hermeias
1095. In which capacity did Callisthenes serve under Alexander?
A. Physician
B. Historian
C. General
D. Regent
1096. Plato’s writings mostly take the form of _______, in which knowledge is revealed as two
characters ask and answer questions of each other:
A. Dialogues
B. Apology
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these

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1097. Another individual from the Platonic school, he initiated the study of conic sections – the
hyperbola, the parabola and the ellipse. Who was he?
A. Menaechmus
B. Pedanius
C. Asclepiades
D. Alcmaeon
1098. Which Platonic disciple suggested that the Earth turns on its axis every 24 hours and that the
solar system might be heliocentric?
A. Herophilus
B. Heracleides
C. Hero
D. Erasistratus
1099. Aside from developing the system of concentric spheres upon which the epicyclic Ptolemaic
arrangement of the solar system was based, what other remarkable achievement was made by this
great follower of Plato?
A. He first suggested that the solar system was sun-centered
B. He read all of Aristotle’s work straight through without falling asleep
C. He estimated the diameter and the circumference of the Earth accurately to within 1 mile
D. He estimated the solar year to be 365 days and six hours long
1100. _______ is one of the ‘big three’ in ancient Greek philosopher, along with Aristotle and
Socrates:
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato
C. Diophantus

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D. Eppipides
1101. A pupil of Plato’s great student, who developed the system of concentric spheres borrowed by
Ptolemy, was this man who advanced the system of epicycles, adding an additional seven, laying the
final groundwork for the system adopted by Aristotle and Ptolemy Who was he?
A. Eratosthenes
B. Callipus
C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1102. ________ argues that the wrong types of literature and music can corrupt the youth of Greece,
and must therefore be strictly controlled:
A. Xenophon
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates
D. None of these
1103. In Plato’s ‘The Republic”, who does Socrates suggest should rule over society?
A. The military
B. Nobody; no man should rule over any other man
C. An elected parliament
D. An elite group of ‘philosopherkings”
1104. Plato died at the age of:__________?
A. 76 years
B. 78 years

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C. 79 years
D. 80 years
1105. In which Greek city was Plato died?
A. Sparta
B. Stagira
C. Athens
D. None of these
1106. In which Greek city was Plato born?
A. Sparta
B. Stagira
C. Athens
D. None of these
1107. Plato was born in:____________?
A. 427 B.C.
B. 437 B.C.
C. 417 B.C.
D. 327 B.C.
1108. Plato and his most esteemed student, Aristotle, both appear in the painting “The School of
Athens” by which Renaissance masster?
A. Michaelangelo
B. Raphael
C. Leonardo da Vinci

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D. Titian
1109. What is the primary subject of Socrates’ dialogues with Thaetetus?
A. The nature of human knowledge
B. Whether or not God exists
C. The best form of civic government
D. The origin of the universe
1110. Plato established an important method which has been passed down through the ages. That is
that, when one has a problem that has already been solved, one can work backwards from it until a
statement can be reached of which the veracity has already been determined. In other words, a
method of attaining proofs. In which of his works was this method established?
A. Politicus
B. Meno
C. Protagoras
D. Phaedo
1111. Plato’s writings mostly take the form of _______ , in which knowledge is revealed as two
characters ask and answer questions of each other:
A. Dialogues
B. Apology
C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these
1112. Which of Plato’s works describes the trial of Socrates, and Socrates’ defense against charges
that he was corrupting the youth of Athens?
A. Crito

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B. Meno
C. The Apology
D. Timaeus
1113. In “The Symposium” what Greek playwright suggests that all human beings are seeking their
missing other halves?
A. Aristophanes
B. Aeschylus
C. Sophocles
D. Euripides
1114. Which work of Plato’s was most influenced by the mystical-scientificideas of the pythagoreans?
A. Crito
B. Apology
C. Chermides
D. Timaeus
1115. Menaechmus was a pupil of:_____________?
A. Eudoxus
B. Callipus
C. Perga
D. Appollonius
1116. Who said “He who is of a calm and happy nature willhardly feel the pressure of age, but to him
who is of an opposite disposition youth and age are equally a burden:”
A. Eratosthenes

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B. Plato
C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1117. What was name of Plato’s father?
A. Ariston
B. Perictione
C. Xenophon
D. None of these
1118. what was name of Plato’s mother?
A. Ariston
B. Perictione
C. Xenophon
D. None of these
1119. Plato “The Man and His Work” book was written by: _____________?
A. A.E. Taylor
B. Paul Shorey
C. Jacob A. Kline
D. G. Vlastos
1120. What Plato Said book was written by:____________?
A. A.E. Taylor
B. Paul Shorey

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C. Jacob A. Kline
D. G. Vlastos
1121. Platonic Studies book was written by:______________?
A. Jacob A. Kline
B. G. Vlastos
C. Paul Shorey
D. A.E. Taylor
1122. A Commentary on Plato’s Meno book was written by:____________
A. Paul Shorey
B. Jacob A. Kline
C. G. Vlastos
D. A.E. Taylor
1123. Who said “These, then, will be some of the features of democracy …. It will be, in all likelihood,
an agreeable, lawless, parti-colored common wealth, dealing with all alike on a footing of equality,
whether, they be really equal or not”:
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato
C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1124. Who said “Democracy is a charming form of government, full of variety and disorder, and
dispensing a sort of equality to equals and unequal alike:”
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato

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C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1125. In “The Symposium”, what Greek playwright suggests that all human beings are seeking their
A. Aristophanes
B. Aeschylus
C. Sophocles
D. Euripides
1126. What is the subject of Plato’s “The Symposium”?
A. War
B. Love
C. Death
D. Justice
1127. Above the entrance to his Academy was the following quote, ‘let none who has not learned
______ enter here. What goes in the blank’:
A. Physics
B. Geometry
C. Astronomy
D. Arithmetic
1128. The ‘Platonic bodies’ which Plato describes in his ‘most scientific work, (mentioned in the
previous question) can best be characterized as what?
A. Linear Structures

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B. Biological Systems
C. Astronomical Phenomenae
D. Regular Solids
1129. Who said ‘Whatever deceives men seems to produce a magical enchantment’:
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato
C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1130. Who said ‘Old age has a great sense of calm and freedom. When the passions have relaxed
their hold and have escaped, not from one master, but from many:”
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato
C. Diophantus
D. Eppipides
1131. Which subject does Socrates discuss in “Euthyphro”?
A. Piety, and our duties toward the gods
B. The need to discipline children properly
C. The purpose of art and music
D. How to determine if a war is just
1132. In Plato’s “Crito,” Crito tries, unsuccessfully, to convince Socrates to do which of the following
things?
A. Become the new king of Athens

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B. Renounce his philosophy
C. Urge the masses to rise up in revolt
D. Flee from Athens
1133. Which of Plato’s works describes the trial of Socrates, and Socrates’ defense against charges
that he was corrupting the youth of Athens?
A. Crito
B. Meno
C. The Apology
D. Timaeus
1134. According to Palto’s “Phaedo”, what was Socrates’ demeanor in his cell, as he awaited his
pending execution?
A. Extremely afraid
B. Angered by the injustice of his sentence
C. Pleasant, calm and resigned to his fate
D. Saddened and depressed
1135. According to Kant, actions conform to duty when:
A. They are undertaken for the sake of duty alone
B. Others approve of them
C. You have been beaten sufficiently
D. When physical needs are satisfied
1136. In which of the following circumstances does democracy thrive?
A. There is a small surplus

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B. A southern climate
C. Not densely populated
D. People don’t eat much
1137. What is the “Fundamental Law of Nature”?
A. Nature abhors a vacuum
B. Human beings seek peace
C. The war of all against all
D. The Pythagorean Theorem
1138. Which of the following loes Hobbes believe approximates the living conditions of the state of
nature?
A. Native American societies
B. The Spanish Armada
C. Madhouses
D. Prisons
1139. According to Aristotle, which of the following is not one of the six elements of the tragedy?
A. Plot
B. Reversal
C. Character
D. Spectacle
1140. Which nephew of Aristotle was executed by Alexander?
A. Hermeias
B. Callisthenes

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C. Xenocrates
D. Speusippus
1141. What did Aristotle see as the central tension in ethical decisions?
A. Continence
B. Desire
C. Ignorance
D. Complacence
1142. Nicomachus was the name of which of Aristotle’s relations?
A. Father
B. Son
C. Father and son
D. Brother
1143. A Third Letter for Toleration book is written by:_________?
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. John Locke
C. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
D. Thomas Sowell
1144. A Second Letter Concerning Toleration book is written by:___________?
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. John Locke

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D. Thomas Sowell
1145. A Letter Concerning Toleration (1689) book is written by:______________?
A. Jeremy Bentham
B. John Locke
D. Thomas Sowell
1146. Who wrote: “Bacon, Locke and Newton …. I consider them as the three greatest men that have
ever lived, without any exception”?
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. James Madison
C. Alexander Hamilton
D. None of these
1147. Thomas Hobbes died in:___________?
A. Derbyshire, England
B. Wiltshire, England
C. London, England
D. None of these
1148. Thomas Hobbes died at the age of:____________?
A. 91
B. 93
C. 95

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D. 97
1149. Thomas Hobbes died on:____________?
1150. Who stressed that ‘virtue was the most valuable of all possessions; the ideal life was spent in
serch of the Good. Truth lies beneath the shadows of existence, and it is the job of the philosopher to
show the rest how little they reall know.”
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates is cold-hearted
D. Xenophon
1151. According to Plato, Socrates mother was:____________?
A. Phaenarete
B. Zenexenus
C. Lamprocles
D. None of these
1152. According to Plato, Socrates’ father was:__________?
A. Sophroniscus
B. Aristophanes
C. Lamprocles

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D. Zenexenus
1153. Through his portrayal in Plato’s dialogues, Socrates has become renowned for his contribution
to the field of:____________?
A. Ethics
B. Economics
C. Chemistry
D. None of these
1154. Who is the contemporary of Socrates?
A. Aristophanes
B. Aristotle
C. Homer
D. None of these
1155. Who is a Xenophon?
A. Son of Socrates
B. Father of Socrates
C. Student of Socrates
D. None of these
1156. How does true opinion relate to knowledge?
A. It’s always inferior
B. It’s sometimes superior
C. They are equally good

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D. It’s inferior in the long run
1157. Gorgles refuses to say: _____________?
A. That virtue is truth
B. That Socrates is a bad influence
C. That he can teach virtue
D. That he can’t teach virtue
1158. Anytus suggests that Meno talk to whom to learn about virtue?
A. The Sophists
B. Any Athenian on the street
C. An oracle
D. Gorglas
1159. Why is the Leviathan called ‘artificial’?
A. It is outside of nature
B. It is manufactured by humans
C. It is only a fictional civilization
D. It is outside of nature, and it is manufactured by humans
1160. Rousseau believed that man in the “state of nature” was naturally good. Still he admitted that a
true state of nature probably existed except as an ideal, a standard for comparison. His mothod for
dealing with this discrepancy between reality and theory was to:
A. “Lay the facts aside, as they do not affect the question.”
B. He blamed a maid and remained silent when she was punished
C. He immediately confessed

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D. He ran awa but not before returning the stolen items
1161. Rousseau had a number of detractors among whom Rousseau himself should the included.
What was the title of his seemingly candid autobiography?
A. My Life and Times
B. The Triumph of Reason
C. If You’re Paranoid, you only have to be right once
D. The Confessions of Jean-Jacques rousseau
1162. School Social contract theory is related with:____________?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
C. Bob Woodward
D. None of these
1163. Jean-Jacques Rousseau died in:___________?
A. London, Britain
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Ermenonville, France
D. None of these
1164. Jean-Jacques Rousseau died at the age of:_____________?
A. 68 years
B. 66 years
C. 60 years

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D. 78 years
1165. At the age of sixteen, when rightly accused of stealing from a wealthy employer how did
Rousseau respond?
A. He initially denied the crime but then admitted it and made restitution
B. He blained a maid and remained silent when she was punished
C. He immediately confessed
D. He ran away but not before returning the stolen items
1166. In Rousseau’s view, what would constitute true liberty?
A. Free enterprise, unrestrained by government interference
B. A Republic in which there is universal suffrage (for property owning males)
C. Replacement of autocratic governments by Athenian style democracy
D. Submission to the “general will” of the citizenry
1167. What was Rousseau’s remedy for the corruption and slavery of civilized society?
A. A new social contract
B. Democratic reforms
C. Revolution
D. Socialism
1168. Rousseau felt that social living corrupted us leading to such ills as private property and social
classes. Which of the following is his famous phrase arising from this reasoning?
A. Workers of the world unite
B. Men will never be free until the last king is strangled with the entrails of the last priest
C. Put the child in his place and keep him there

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D. Man was born free, but he is everywhere in chains
1169. How does Rousseau describe man in his primal natural state?
A. A Noble Savage
B. Solitary, nasty and brutish
C. A blank slate
D. Totally corrupted
1170. Jean-Jacques Rousseau died on:__________?
A. 14th July 1778
B. 12th July 1778
C. 2nd July 1778
D. 27th July 1778
1171. Jean-Jacques Rousseau was born on:_________?
A. London, Britain
B. Geneva, Switzerland
C. Ermenonville, France
D. None of these
1172. Jean-Jacques Rousseau was born on: ____________?
A. 28th June 1711
B. 28th June 1712
C. 26th June 1713
D. 28th June 1714

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1173. What do people get in return for surrendering their freedom to an absolute monarch,
according to Rousseau?
A. Preservation
B. Security
C. Peace
D. Nothing of any value
1174. According to Rousseau, what is legitimate political authority based on ____________?
A. Slavery
B. A social contract
C. Nature
D. Force
1175. Which of the following is an unwanted consequence of Euthyphro’s reasoning?
A. Something is approved of by the gods because it is holy
B. Something gets approved of by the gods because it is holy
C. What is holy is what is approved of by the gods
D. Something is approved of by the gods because it gets approved of by the gods
1176. Which of the following claims is Euthyphro not committed to ____________?
A. Something is approved of by the gods because it gets approved of by the gods
B. Something gets approved of by the gods because it is holy
C. What is holy is what is approved of by the gods
D. Something is holy because it is approved of by the gods

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WWW.
1177. On what grounds do we argue over whether or not someone should be punished, according to
Socrates?
A. We disagree about whether or not the person committed the crime as stated
B. We disagree about whether or not that crime warrants pubishment
C. We disagree about whether or not that crime warrants so harsh a pubishment
D. We disagree about whether the person prosecuting has any right to prosecute, given the circumstances
1178. On which of the following questions might the gods disagree, according to Socrates?
A. The relationship between the legs of a right triangle and its hypotenuse
B. Plato’s Theory of Forms
C. Whether or not it is just to punish one’s father
D. The distance between Athens and Sparta
1179. The American Science of Politics: Its Origins and Conditions book is written by: ___________?
A. Morgan, Edmund S
B. Catherine Boone
C. Horn, David Bayne
D. Crick, Bernard
1180. Who wrote the book That Noble Science of Politics?
A. Mathew McCubbins
B. Thompson, J.W and S.K. Padover
C. Collini, Stefan, Donald Winch, and John Burrow
D. Kammen, Michael

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1181. The Rochester School book is written by: _____________?
A. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Amadae, S.M and Bruce Bueno de Mesquita
D. Kevin Phillips
1182. Splendid Encounters book is written by: _____________?
A. Thompson, J.W., and S.K. Padover
B. Small, Melvin
C. Noan Chomsky
D. Jones, Dorothy V
1183. Who wrote the book The British Diplomatic Service?
A. Mathew McCubbins
B. Horn, David Bayne
C. Francis Fukuyama
D. None of these
1184. That Banana Wars book is written by: _____________?
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Langley, Lester D
C. T.E. Cronin
D. Kevin Phillips
1185. Who wrote the book “Drive to Hegemony”: The United States in the Caribbean:

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A. Gant, Michael M
B. Immanuel Kant
C. Healy, David
D. None of these
1186. “Admirals, Generals and American Foreign Policy” book is written by: ___________?
A. Challener, Richard D
B. Gabriel A. Almond
C. Catherine, Boone
D. None of these
1187. Who wrote the book Gunboat Diplomacy?
A. Small, Melvin
B. Jeffrey K. Tulis
C. Cable, James
D. None of these
1188. Studies in Diplomatic History book is written by: ___________?
A. Kevin Phillips
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Hatton, Ragnhild, and M.S. Anderson
D. None of these
1189. Who wrote the book Embajada Espanola:
A. Jaffrey K. Tulis

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B. Chaytor, H.J. Trans
C. Jan Crawford Greenburg
D. None of these
1190. The Secret Diplomacy of the Habsburgs book is written by:_____________?
A. Horn David Bayne
B. Carter, Charles H
C. Bob Woodward
D. None of these
1191. Who wrote the book Diplomacy. The World of the Honest Spy?
A. Morgan, Edmund S
B. Barder, Peter
C. T.E. Cronin
D. None of these
1192. The Rise of Modern Diplomacy book is written by:_____________?
A. Gant, Michael M
B. Anderson, M.S
C. Gabriel A. Almond
D. None of these
1193. Who wrote the book. The Exterritoriality of Ambassadors in the Sixteenth and Seventeenth
Centuries?
A. Small, Melvin
B. Francis Fukuyama

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C. Adair, E.R
D. None of these
1194. Theories of International Relations book is written by: ____________?
A. Immanuel Kant
B. Scott Burehill
C. Catherine Boone
D. None of these
1195. Who wrote the book International Relations Theory: A Critical Introduction?
A. Cynthia Weber
B. Kevin Phillips
C. Thompson, J.W., and S.K. Padover
D. None of these
1196. Who wrote the book International Relations?
A. Gant, Michael M
B. Bob Woodward
C. Catherine Boone
D. F.S. Pearson and J.M. Rochester
1197. In Search of Theory book is written by:__________?
A. Horn, david Bayne
B. Small, Melvin
C. R.W. Mansbach and J.A. Vasquez

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D. None of these
1198. Who wrote the book A Hundred Years of International Relations?
A. T.E. Cronin
B. F.S. Northedge and M.J. Grieve
C. Morgan, Edmund S
D. Jan Crawford Greenburg
1199. Who wrote the book Polities among Nations?
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Gabrel A. Almond
C. H.J. Morgenthau
D. None of these
1200. In “The Symposium”, what Geeek playwright suggests that all human beings are seeking their
A. Aristophanes
B. Aeschylus
C. Sophocles
D. Euripides
1201. Who said “Democracy is a charming form of government, full of variety and disorder, and
dispensing a sort of equality to equals and unequal alike.”
A. Eratosthenes
B. Plato
C. Diophantus

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D. Eppipides
1202. Platonic studies’ book was written by:____________?
A. Jacob A. Kline
B. G. Vlastos
C. Paul Shorey
D. A.E. Taylor
1203. What Plato Sid book was written by:__________?
A. A.E. Taylor
B. Paul Shorey
C. Jacob A. Kline
D. G. Vlastos
1204. Promises to Keep book is written by:__________?
A. Joe Biden
B. T.E. Cronin
C. Gant, Michael M
D. None of these
1205. Who wrote the book The World is Flat? A Critical Analysis?
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Small, Melvin
C. Ronald Aronica
D. None of these

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WWW.
1206. Lecturer on the History of Philosophy is written by:_____________?
A. Morgan, Edmund S
B. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
C. Thomas Hobbes
D. Jeremy Bentham
1207. Lectures on Philosophy of Religion is written by:___________?
A. Carter, Charlas
B. Thomas Sowell
C. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
D. Jeremy Bentham
1208. Lectures on Aesthetics is written by: ______________?
A. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Immanuel Kant
D. Robert Cooper
1209. Published posthumously: _________________?
A. Lectures on Aesthetics
B. Lectures on Philosophy of Religion
C. Lectures on the History of Philosophy
D. All of the above
1210. Elements of the Philosophy of Right is written by:__________?

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A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Morgan, Edmund S
D. Robert Cooper
1211. Grundlinien der Philosophie des Rechts is written by: ______________?
A. Immanuel Kant
C. Thomas Sowell
D. Jeremy Bentham
1212. Hegel’s Philosophy of Mind, tr, William Wallace is written by:___________?
A. Robert Cooper
B. Carter, Charles
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
1213. Hegel’s Philosophy of Nature, was translated by:_____________?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. A.V. Miller
C. Thomas Sowell
D. Immanuel Kant
1214. The Logic of Hegel is translated by:____________?
A. Carter, Charles

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B. Robert Cooper
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. William Wallace
1215. Enzyklopadie der philosophischen Wissenschaften (Encyclopedia of the Philosophical Sciences)

is written by:
A. Carter, Charles
B. Thomas Hobbes
D. Immanuel Kant
1216. Science of Logic is written by:_____________?
A. H. Jackson
B. Thomas Hobbes
D. Robert Cooper
1217. Wissenschaft der Logik is written by:___________?
B. Immanuel Kant
C. Thomas Sowell
D. Jeremy Bentham
1218. Phenomenology of Mind is written by:_____________?
A. Thomas Sowell

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C. Jeremy Bentham
D. Robert Cooper
1219. Differenz des Fichteschen und Schellingschen System der Philosophie is written
by:__________?
A. Carter, Charles
B. Thomas Sowell
C. Jeremy Bentham
D. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
1220. The Difference Between Fichte’s and Schelling’s Systems of Philosophy is written
by:____________?
B. Carter, Charles
C. Immanuel Kant
D. Robert Cooper
1221. Phanomenologie des Geistes is written by:_____________?
A. Geo Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel
B. Jeremy Bentham
C. Thomas Hobbes
D. Carter, Charles
1222. Hegel’s tomb is located in:_________?
A. London
B. New York

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C. Berlin
D. Paris
1223. The Elements of the Philosophy of Right, his political philosophy was published in:_________?
A. 1822
B. 1834
C. 1824
D. 1826
1224. Hegel was appointed Roctor of the University in:_________?
A. 1830
B. 1833
C. 1822
D. 1824
1225. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel’s Philosophy of right was published in:___________?
A. 1821
B. 1833
C. 1822
D. 1824
1226. Who was the creator of German Idealism?
A. Immanuel Kant
C. Jeans Jacques Rousseau

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D. None of these
1227. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel was a:____________?
A. Britain Philosopher
B. German philsopher
C. Russian philosopher
D. American philosopher
1228. Who was the founder of Hegelianism and Historicism?
B. H. Jackson
C. Immanuel Kant
D. Horn, David Bayne
1229. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel the founder of:__________?
A. Russian Idealism School
B. German Idealism School
C. French Idealism School
D. None of these
1230. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel died in:_____________?
A. Stuttgart, Germany
B. Berlin, germany
C. London, Britain
D. Paris, France

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WWW.
1231. George Wilhelm Friedrich Hegel died at the age of: ____________?
A. 67
B. 64
C. 69
D. 61
1232. New Wars book is written by: _____________?
A. Gabriel A. Almond
B. Gant, Michael M
C. Mary Kaldor
D. None of these
1233. The Global Covenant 2002 book is written by: ________________?
A. Bob Woodward
B. Robert H. Jackson
C. Kevin Phillips
D. None of these
1234. Who wrote the book Leviathan?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Noam Chomsky
C. Small, Melvin
D. None of these
1235. La Realided Inventada book is written by:________________?

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A. T.E. Cronin
B. Jan Crawford Greenburg
C. Ruben Herrero de Castro & Robert Jervis
D. None of these
1236. Who wrote the book The Laws of War and Peace?
A. Catherine Boone
B. Kamman, Michael
C. Hugo Grotius
D. None of these
1237. The Post-Modern State book is written by:
A. Mathew McCubbins
B. Robert Cooper
C. Gabriel A Almond
D. None of these
1238. Who wrote the book Twenty Years Crisis?
A. E.H. Carr
B. Francis Fukuyama
C. Mathew McCubbins
D. Morgan, Edmund S
1239. Who wrote the book Anarchical Society?
A. Mathew Mc Cubbins

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B. Hedley Bull
C. Immanuel Kant
D. None of these
1240. Regions and Powers 2003 book is written by: ____________?
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Jeans Jacques Rousseau
C. Gant, Michael M
D. Barry Buzan
1241. The Great Illusion 1909 book is written by:____________?
A. Jan Crawfod Greenburg
B. Kammen, Michael
C. Norman Angell
D. None of these
1242. Which of the following is not the father or son of one of the others?
A. Zeus
B. Uranus
C. Hesiod
D. Kronos
1243. Which of the following was not a form of soul in Aristotle’s work on the Soul?
A. Rational
B. Subconscious

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C. Animal
D. Vegetative
1244. What was the name of Aristotle’s father, which he used to name one of his works?
A. Eudemeus
B. Nicomachus
C. Eudoxus
D. Phillipius
1245. What was the name of the school that Aristotle established in a grove sacred to Apollo?
A. Lyceum
B. Gymnasium
C. Academy
D. Alcemium
1246. What paradox does Meno raise?
A. How can one look for what one does not know?
B. How can those without virtue be elected if democracy is virtuous?
C. Xeno’s paradox
D. None of these
1247. According to Socrates’ conclusion at the end of the Meno, beneficent statesmen are like:
A. “Soothsayers and prophets”
B. “Oracles and deities”
C. “Gorgias and Anytus”

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D. “Blindfolded children”
1249. “I know that I know nothing” is a well-known saying which is attributed to the Greek
philosopher:
A. Socrates
B. Jacques-Louis Davi
C. Aristotle
D. Xenophon
1250. Especially for Plato’s writings referring to Socrates, it is not always clear which ideas brought
forward by Socrates (or his friends) actually belonged to Socrates and which of these may have been
new additions or elaborations by, Plato – this is known as the:
A. Socratic Problem
B. Platonic Problem
C. Soitic Problem
D. Aristocratic Problem
1251. What is an example of “religion of the citizen”?
A. The Catholic Church
B. The gods of ancient Greece

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C. A personal relationship with God
D. Therevada Buddhism
1252. Which does Rousseau think is the best form of aristocracy?
A. Natural aristocracy
B. Elective aristocracy
C. Hereditary aristocracy
D. Different forms are best under different circumstances
1253. Which of the following is not a danger Rousseau associates with monarchy?
A. The monarch will govern in his own interests and not those of the people
B. The corporate will and the general will might be confused
C. A monarch will not delegate authority well
D. It takes a great deal of strength to govern single-handedly
1254. What is the name of the will exercised by magistrates in their capacity as members of
government?
A. General will
B. Corporate will
C. Particular will
D. If I don’t, no one will
1255. In a large state, which of the following recommendations does Rousseau make?
A. The government should be weaker
B. There should be many magistrates
C. There should be fewer magistrates

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D. There should be frequent elections
1256. Which of the following kind of law is most important?
A. Political Law
B. Civil Law
C. Criminal Law
D. Law derived from morals, customs, and beliefs
1257. In Rousseau’s writings he argued for a humane and loving approach to children. How could his
relationship with his own children be characterized?
A. Loving and supportive
B. He was childless
C. Stormy at times but generally positive
D. He placed the five children he produced with his mistress in orphanages
1258. If an individual was unwilling to adhere to particular precepts and standards of the state
Rousseau envisaged, how would this be handled?
A. Tolerance would be the guiding principal
B. The individual would be ostracized but not otherwise hindered
C. The individual would be enrolled in a voluntary educational program
D. Punishment would be administered to force the individual to adhere
1259. Which of the following is not listed as a trouble that might affect a state that is too large?
A. Overly complex bureaucracy
B. Invasion and annexation from powerful neighbors
C. One law cannot apply equally to people living in different climates and regions

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D. The government will be less swift and precise in maintaining law and order
1260. Which of the following is true of the lawgiver?
A. He henerally establishes his authority by an appeal to divine providence
B. He is a citizen of the state he makes laws for
C. He is chosen in a general election
D. He becomes the first head of state once he has set down the laws
1261. Which of the following is not an example of a law?
A. “All citizens must attend monthly assemblies”
B. “Stockwell Day is the leader of the official opposition party in Canada”
C. “The English head of state is a monarch determined by hereditary succession”
D. “The punishment for treason is death”
1262. Which of the following practices does Rousseau favor?
A. Hereditary succession of power
B. The abolition of private property
C. Capital punishment
D. Public ballots
1263. Xenophon and Plato were direct disciples of:____________?
A. Socrates
B. Phaedo
C. Tyroqent
D. Aristotle

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1264. Arthashastra book is written by: ______________?
A. Jeffrey K. Tulis
B. Catherine Boone
C. Kautilya
D. Kevin Phillips
1265. Who wrote the book Secret Diplomacy?
A. T.E. Cronin
B. Thompson, J. W., and S. K. Padover
D. None of these
1266. Who wrote the book The Age of Louis XIV: The Rise of Moderm Diplomacy?
A. Immanuel Kant
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Grant, Michael M
D. Roosen, William J
1267. Renaissance Diplomacy book is written by:_____________?
A. Mathew McCubbins
B. Thompson, J. W., and S. K. Padover
C. Mattingly, Garrett
D. None of these
1268. “International Relations in europe” book is written by:

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B. Lossky, Andrew
C. Bob Woodward
D. None of these
1269. Alongwith his mentor, Socrates and his student, Aristotle, helped lay the foundations of
Western philosophy and science:
A. Socrates
B. Xenophon
C. Aristotle
D. Plato
1270. Why do the gods want our sacrifices, according to Euthyphro?
A. They need them to survive
B. They find them gratifying
C. They benefit from them
D. They use them as objects of trade
1271. Which of the following relationships does Euthyphro think is unlike the relationship between
gods and men?
A. The groom-horse relationship
B. The slave-master relationship
C. The shipbuilder’s servant shipbuilder relationship
D. The soldier-general relationship
1272. _______ was a Classical Greek philosopher, mathematician, writer of philosophical dialogues,
and founder of the Academy in Athens, the first institution of higher learning in the Western world:

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A. Plato
B. Aristotle
D. None of these
1273. In the pursuit of happiness, what is the highest form of plesure for a human being, according to
Aristotle?
A. Companionship
B. Love
C. Philanthropy
D. Contemplation
1274. Protagoras is used as an example of:__________?
A. A rich Sophist
B. A corrupt Politician
C. A gifted priest
D. A man of true knowledge
1275. Socrates reacts to Anytus’ disapproval of the Sophists with:_________?
A. Amazement
B. Anger
C. A rebuke
D. A theory
1276. Socrates says that all that the soul endures, if directed by ______ ends in happiness.

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A. Virtue
B. Wisdom
C. Prophets
D. Truth
1277. Socrates Questions Meno’s slave about:
A. The radius of a circle
B. The height of the Parthenon
C. The double of a square’s area
D. The golden ratio of a given square
1278. According to Socrates, learning is a kind of:___________?
A. Recollection
B. Virtue
C. Political Skill
D. Gift of the gods
1279. Who is the author of ‘The Fateful Triangle”: The United States, Israel, and the Palestinians?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Noam Chomsky
C. Gilbert Achcar
D. Bob Woodward
1280. Who is the author of “Superpowers in Collision”: The Cold War Now?
A. Thomas Hobbes

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B. Noam Chomsky
C. Gilbert Achcar
D. Bob Woodward
1281. Who is the author of “Radical Priorities”?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Noam Chomsky
C. Gilbert Achcar
D. Bob Woodward
1282. What does Hobbes see as the immediate result of a rebellion against the sovereign, or against
the social covenant, as in civil war?
A. The establishment of a new government
B. A return to the state of nature
C. The sovereign punishes the rebels and peace is restored to the Leviathan
D. Civil wars only occur in governments that have not been structured according to Hobbesian rules
1283. What innate faculty prevents civilized man from breaking the social contract?
A. Reason
B. Fear
C. Altruism
D. Greed
1284. When is it justified for subjects to rebel against the sovereign?
A. When the sovereign has committed crimes against the people
B. When the sovereign is no longer popular and the people want to elect a new leader

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C. Never
D. Both (a) & (b)
1285. Who is the author of after the Cataclysm: Postwar Indochina and the construction of Imperial
Ideology:
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Noam Chomsky
C. Gilbert Achcar
D. Bob Woodward
1286. Who is the author of “Human Rights and American Foreign Polley”?
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Noam Chomsky
C. Gilbert Achcar
D. Bob Woodward
1287. Who wrote the Communist Manifesto with Marx?
A. Vladimir Lenin
B. Joseph Stalin
C. Friedrich Engels
D. None of these
1288. Which of the following goals is the immediate aim of the Communists?
A. The unification of the proletariat into a ruling class,
B. The overthrow of the bourgeois supremacy

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C. Both (a) & (b)
D. None of these
1289. What degree did Karl Marx achieve in Berlin?
A. Masters degree
B. He did not graduate from university
C. Doctoral degree
D. None of these
1290. where was Karl Marx born?
A. Trier. Germany
B. Berlin, Germany
C. Bonn Germany
D. None of these
B. How can those without virute be elected if democracy is virtuous?
C. Xeno’s paradox
D. How can virtue be wisdom but not knowledge?
1292. Why does Meno call Socrates a torpedo fish?
A. Socrates is quick
B. Socrates is numbing

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D. Socrates is suspicious
1293. What mistake does Socrates eventually reveal in Meno’s definition of virtue as the desire for
beautiful things and the power to attain them?
A. This is a list, not a definition
B. The definition implicitly contains the term it is to define
C. The definition does not correspond to an eidos
D. The definition does not cover all cases of virtue
1294. “What else is being miserable,” asks Socrates:
A. “than not to know the truth?”
B. “than to seek virtue and fail to find it?”
C. “than to desire bad things and secure them?”
D. “than to be a sophist?”
1295. Who wrote the book ‘American Theocracy’?
A. Small, Melvin
B. Kevin Phillips
C. Gant, Michael M
D. None of these
1296. War on the Middle Class’ book is written by:_____________?
A. Lou Dobbs
B. Gabriel A. Ahmond

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D. None of these
1297. Who wrote the book ‘Conservatives Without Conscience’?
A. Thompson, J.W. And S.K. Padover
B. T.E. Cronin
C. Catherine Boone
D. John Dean
1298. “Black Rednecks and White Liberals’ book is written by:____________?
A. Catherine Boone
C. Thomas Sowell
D. None of these
1299. Who wrote the book ‘Supreme Conflict’?
A. Jan Crawfod Greenburg
B. Francis Fukuyama
C. Catherine Boone
D. Small Melvin
1300. Second Chance’ book is written by :____________?
A. Morgan, Edmund S
B. T.E. Cronin
D. Zbigniew Brzezinski

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1301. Who wrote the book ‘Palestine Peace Not Apartheid’?
B. Jimmy Carter
C. Bob Woodward
D. Jan Crawford Greensburg
1302. In the state of nature why will two natural men inevitably fight if they desire the same thing?
A. They are naturally equal
B. If they were altruistic they would be exploited
C. Scarcity of resources
D. All of the above
1303. How does matter move In Hobbes’s philosophy?
A. Matter moves itself
B. Matter is animated by the spirit
C. Metter moves only when pushed by other matter
D. Matter Li directly controlled by God
1304. What is the original source for the name “Leviathan”?
A. Hobbes’s Levisithan
B. The of job
C. John Milton’s Paradise Lost
D. Homer’s Iliad
1305. What is the elenchus?

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A. A state of perplexity
B. Cross-examination
C. Deductive proof
D. The Theory of Forms
1306. Why does Socrates not accept Euthyphro’s definition that prosecuting criminals is holy?
A. Because prosecuting criminals can often be an unholy act
B. Because there are other acts which are also holy
C. Because Euthyphro doesn’t specify what kind of crinimals should be prosecuted
D. Because Euthyphro doesn’t specify what kind of punishment these criminals deserve
1307. Which of the following is not the father or son of one of the others?
A. Zeus
B. Uranus
C. Hesiod
D. Kronos
1308. Which of the following is NOT part of the description of Meletus?
A. He’s not very smart
B. He’s has a hooked nose
C. He’s an unknown
D. He has a sparse beard
1309. How does Socrates suggest Euthyphro might help him in his case against Meletus?
A. Euthyphro could speak in Socrates defense

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B. Euthyphro could persuade Meletus to drop his charges
C. Euthyphro could teach Socrates about the art of rhetoric
D. Euthyphro could teach Socrates about religious matters
1310. Which of the following has Meletus not accused Socrates of?
A. Charging a fee for his teaching
B. Inventing new deities
C. Corrupting the youth
D. Not recognizing the established gods
1311. Who said, “I know that I know nothing”?
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates
D. Xenophon
1312. Who said, “Virtue is sefficient for happiness”?
A. Aristotle
B. Socrates
C. Plato
D. Xenophon
1313. Who said, “Virtue – all virute – is knowledge”?
A. Socrates
B. Xenophon

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C. Plato
D. Aristotle
1314. Who said, “No one errs or does wrong willingly or knowingly”?
A. Plato
B. Socrates
C. Xenophon
D. Aristotle
1315. According to Plato, Socrates’ mother was:___________?
A. Phaenarete
B. Zenexenus
C. Lamprocles
D. None of these
1316. According to Plato, Socrates’ father was:
A. Sophroniscus
B. Aristophanes
C. Lamprocles
D. Zenexenus
1317. Through his portrayal in Plato’s dialogues, Socrates has become renowned for his contribution
to the field of:
A. Ethics
B. Economics
C. Chemistry

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D. None of these
1318. Who is the contemporary of Socrates?
A. Aristophanes
B. Aristotle
C. Homer
D. None of these
1319. Who was the founder of Western philosophy?
A. Socrates
B. Aristotle
C. Plato
D. None of these
1320. _________ is one of the “big three” in ancient Greek philosopher, along with Plato and
Aristotle:
A. Aristophanes
B. Socrates
C. Xemophon
D. None of these
1321. Students of Socrates is/are:______________?
A. Alcibiades
B. Critias
C. Plato

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D. All of these
1322. Aristotle found his own school which was known as:_____________?
A. The Lyceum
B. Acedemy
C. Institution
D. Leader
1323. Aristotle found his own school in:___________?
A. 225 B.C.
B. 415 B.C.
C. 335 B.C.
D. 315 B.C.
1324. Plato found the Academy in:____________?
A. 385 B.C.
B. 381 B.C.
C. 387 B.C.
D. 315 B.C.
1325. The early works of Plato are considered to be close to the spirit of:___________?
A. Socrates
B. Jacques Louis David
C. Aristotle
D. Xenophon

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1326. Specially for Plato’s writings referring to Socrates, it is not always clear which ideas brought
forward by Socrates (or his friends) actually belonged to Socrates and which of these may have been
new additions or elaborations by Plato- this is known as the:
A. Socratic Problem
B. Platoic Problem
C. Soitic Problem
D. Aristocratic Problem
1327. Xenophon and Plato were direct discipline of:
A. Socrates
B. Phaedo
C. Tyroqents
D. Aristotle
1328. Who stressed that “virtue was the most valuable of all possessions, the ideal life was spent in
search of the Good. Truth lies beneath the shadows of existence, and it is the job of the philosopher to
show the rest how little they really know”?
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates
D. Xenophon
1329. The idea that human’s possessed certain virtues formed a common thread in:
A. Plato teachings
B. Aristotle teachings
C. Socrates teachings
D. Xenophon teachings

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1330. Who believed the best way for people to live was to focus on selfdevelopment rather than the
pursuit of material wealth?
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates
D. Xenophon
C. Xeno’s paradox
D. None of these
1332. According to Socrates’ conslusion at the end of the Meno beneficent statesmen are like:

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1334. “I know that I know nothing” is a well-known saying which is attributed to the Greek
philosopher:
A. Socrates
B. Jacques-Louis David
C. Aristotle
D. Xenophon
1335. The Death of Socrates book was written by:____________?
A. Jacques-Louis David
B. Aristotle
C. Xenophon
D. Plato
1336. Socrates questions Meno’s slave about:
A. The radius of a circle
B. The height of the Parthenon
C. The double of a square’s area
D. The golden ration of a given square
1337. According to Socrates, learning is a kind of:_____________?
A. Recollection
B. Virtue
C. Political skill
D. Gift of the gods

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1338. According to Socrates, the soul is:_____________?
A. Infinitely large
B. Inherently virtuous
C. Corruptible
D. Immortal
C. Xeno’s paradox
D. How can virtue be wisdom but not knowledge?
1340. Why does Meno call Socrates a torpedo fish?
A. Socrates is quick
B. Socrates is numbing
D. Socrates is suspicious
1341. What mistake does Socrates eventually reveal in Meno’s definition of virtue as the desire for
beautiful things and power to attain them?
A. This is a list, not a definition
B. The definition implicitly contains the term it is to define
C. The definition does not correspond to an eidos
D. The definition does not cover all cases of virtue

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WWW.
1342. “What else is being miserable,” asks Socrates ____________?
A. “than not to know the truth?”
B. “than to seek virtue and fail to find it?”
C. “than to desire bad things and secure them?”
D. “than to be a sophist?”
1343. Socrates uses which examples to demonstrate the idea of a definition?
A. Shape and color
B. Shape and ordor
C. Color and sound
D. Tables and chairs
1344. Socrates reminds Meno that no virtue is truly beneficial without:
A. Justice
B. Moderation
C. Wisdom
D. All of the above
1345. Socrates died in:___________?
A. 339 B.C.
B. 329 B.C.
C. 319 B.C.
D. 399 B.C.
1346. Socrates was born in Greece in:_____________?

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A. 344 B.C.
B. 269 B.C.
C. 369 B.C.
D. 469/470 B.C.
1347. According to Socrates conclusion at the end of the Meno, beneficent statesmen are like:
1348. Gorgias refuses to say:________________?
A. That virtue is truth
B. That Socrates is a bad influence
C. That he can teach virtue
D. That he can’t teach virute
1349. Socrates says that “all that the soul endures, if directed by _______ ends happiness.”
A. Virtue
B. Wisdom
C. Prophets
D. Truth
1350. Looking to the Future book is written by: ____________?
A. Bob-Woodward

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B. Crotty, William
C. Mathew McCubbins
D. Francis Fukuyama
1351. Who wrote the book Discipline and History: Political Science in the United States?
B. Gent. Michelle M
C. Farr, James, and Raymond Seidelman
D. None of these
1352. The State of the Discipline book is written by:_____________?
A. Mathew McCubbins
C. Finifter, Ada W
D. None of these
1353. Who wrote the book Political Science and Area Studies: Rivals or Partners?
A. T.E. Cronin
B. Pya, Lucian W.
C. Thompson, J.W., and S. K. Padover
D. None of these
1354. The Tragedy of Political Science: Politics, Scholarship, and Democracy book is written by:
A. Noam Chomsky

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C. Small, Melvin
D. Ricci, David
1355. Who wrote the book Disenchanted Realists: Political Science and the American Crisis?
A. Jan Crawford Greenburg
B. Seidelman, Raymond and Edward J. Harpham
C. Gent. Michael M
D. None of these
1356. The Development of American Political Science book is written by:
A. Kammen, Michael
B. Kevin Phillips
C. Somit, Albert, and Joseph Tanenhaus
D. None of these
1357. Who wrote the book Politics, Parties, and Pressure Groups?
A. V.O. Key
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Catherine Boone
D. None of these
1358. Who wrote the book Comparative Politics: A Developmental Approach?
A. Jan Crawford Greenburg
B. G. Almond and G.B. Powell

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D. None of these
1359. Who wrote the book A theory of Justice?
A. Jean-Jacques Rousseau
B. Francis Fukuyama
C. Thompson, J.W., and S.K. Padovel
D. J. Rawls
1360. The American Science of Politics book is written by:____________?
A. Bob Woodward
B. T.E. Cronin
C. B. Crick
D. None of these
1361. Contemporary Political Science in the U.S.A. And Western Europe book is written by:
A. Gant, Michael M
B. Small, Melvin
C. Thompson, J.W and S.K. Padover
D. G. Shakhnazarov
1362. Who wrote the book A manual of historical research methodology?
A. Sreedharan, E
B. Morgan, Edmund S
C. Catherine Boone
D. None of these

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1363. A textbook of historiography; 500 BC to AD 2000 book is written by:
A. Kammen, Michael
B. Sreedharan, E.
D. Jan Crawford Greenburg
1364. Who wrote the book Bridges and Boundaries, Historians, Political Scientists, and the Study of
International Relations?
A. Noam Chomsky
B. Elman, C., & Elman, M.F
C. Small, Melvin
D. None of these
1365. Paths to Power book is Written by:____________?
B. Hogan, M.J
C. Bob Woodward
D. Gant, Michael M
1366. Department of State: A Reference History book is written by?
A. Plischke, E.U.S.
C. Catherine Boone
D. None of these

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1367. Perpetual Peace book is written by:______________?
A. Small, Melvin
B. Noam Chomsky
D. Immanuel Kant
1368. Who wrote the book Democracy and the International Rule of Law:
A. Hans Kochler
B. Kammen, Michael
C. Jan Crawford Greenburg
D. None of these
1369. Aussenpolitik und Demokratie (Foreign Policy and Democracy) book is written by:
A. Catherine Boone
B. Francis Fukuyama
C. Hans Kochler
D. None of these
1370. Men and citizens in the theory of international relations books is written by:
A. Mathew McCubbins
B. Jean Jacques Rousseau
C. Morgan, Edmund S
D. Andrew Linklater
1371. The Prince book is written by:______________?

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A. Niccolo Machiavelli
B. Gabriel A. Almond
C. T.E. Cronin
D. None of these
1372. Lobbying means:
A. Influencing speaker to give his ruling in a particular manner
B. Approaching President to act impartially
C. Approaching Supreme Court judges to give judgement in a particular manner
D. Approaching legislators to vote in a particular manner
1373. Gerrymandering in U.S.A. Means:
A. Uniform method of election of the members to the House of Representatives
B. Non-uniform method of election of the members to the House of Representatives
C. Method of election to the Senate
D. Method of election for the Presidential election
1374. In U.S. Senate Filebustering means:
A. Privilege of unrestricted debate to a Senator
B. Right to put as many questions as possible
C. Restriction on the right to criticise
D. Restrictions on the right to speak in the House
E. Vote of no-confidence against the chairman of senate
1375. What is not true of legislative procedure in U.S.A.?

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A. Most of the bills are piloted by ordinary members
B. Bill is sent to the Committee before it is accepted by the House in principle
C. Senate can drastically amend a bill passed by the Lower House
D. Committee cannot kill a bill
E. Budget proposals can entirely be changed by the Committee
1376. What is not true of Committee system in U.S.A.?
A. Committee members are selected by the Committee on Committees
B. Bills are referred to the Committee mayor may not report back the bill to the House
C. There are no sessional committees
D. Committees take vested interests into consideration.
1377. The election to the the Senate is:
A. Direct
B. Indirect
C. On the basis of educational qualifications alone
D. On the basis of property qualifications alone
1378. Speaker of U.S. House of Representatives:
A. Leaves party as soon as elected as Speaker
B. Does not actively participate in House debates
C. Remains active party man
D. Does not promote party interests
1379. All money bills in U.S.A. Congress can originate in:_____________?

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A. Senate alone
B. House of Representatives only
C. Either House of the Congress
D. None of These
1380. The maximum strength of the House of Representatives in U.S.A. is:
A. 435
B. 436
C. 437
D. 438
E. 440
1381. The maximum strength of Senate in U.S.A. Is:
A. 94
B. 96
C. 93
D. 100
1382. The House of Representatives in U.S.A. Is constituted for a period of:
A. 2 years
B. 3 years
C. 4 years
D. It is a permanent House
1383. In U.S.A. Senate membership is:

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A. On the basis of population in each state
B. Fixed separately for each state by the Congress
C. Biggest state has maximum number of seats
D. All states have equal representation
1384. In U.S. Congress Senate:
A. Is a permanent House
B. Has a fixed term of 6 years
C. Can be dissolved any time by the President
D. Is reconstituted after 6 years
1385. In U.S. Congress:
A. Both the Houses have co-equal powers
B. House of Representatives has more powers than the Senate
C. Senate has more powers than the House of Representatives
D. None of These
1386. What is not true about American cabinet system?
A. Leadership of the President
B. Joint and collective responsibility
C. Responsibility to the President
D. Non-membership of Congress
1387. Who has said that “The Vice-President has been little more than a faint wrath on the American
Political horizon”?

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A. Thomas R. Marshall
B. Clinton Rossiter
C. Ferguson
D. Laski
E. Murno
1388. The Vice-President of U.S.A. Is:
A. Elected by the Senate
B. Elected by the House of Representatives
C. One who gets highest votes in Presidential election after the President
D. Who is unanimously nominated by the Congress
E. Elected separately in the same manner as the President
1389. Who has said that President of U.S.A. Not only reigns but also rules?
A. H.J. Laski
B. Sidney Hyman
C. Bryce
D. Dicey
E. Sir Henry Maine
1390. Who has said about the President of U.S.A. That he is both more and less like a King and both
more and less a Prime Minister?
A. Harold J. Laski
B. Bryce
C. Dicey
D. Woodrow Wilson

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E. Roosevelt
1391. The President of U.S.A. can:
A. Both appoint and remove judges of Supreme Court
B. Can only remove the judges
C. Can appoint judges without confirmation of Senate
D. Can appoint judges but these need the confirmation of Senate
1392. When a bill is not accepted by the President and returned to the Congress, it:
A. Is killed for ever
B. Becomes operative when passed by 1/2 majority in each House
C. Becomes operative when passed by 2/3rd majority in each House
D. Becomes operative only when the President has agreed to give his consent
1393. The President of U.S.A. can keep a bill passed by the Congress with himself for a period of:
A. 10 days
B. 15 days
C. 20 days
D. 30 days
1394. The election to the office of President in U.S.A.
A. Has remained indirect
B. Has become direct
C. Has not changed the expectations of constitution fathers
D. Has slightly changed the expectations of constitution fathers

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1395. The person who succeeds the President after he remains in office, has completed 2 years and
office has fallen vacant:
A. For a full term of 4 years
B. Remaining unexpired period
C. The period is treated as full one term
1396. In Legislative field in U.S.A.
A. The President initiates all the bills
B. He initiates financial matters alone
C. He initiates matters relating to national security only
D. He can initiate any matter and send it in the form of a message to the Congress
1397. In U.S.A. The President performs only:
A. Legislative functions
B. Executive functions
C. Judicial functions
D. All the functions combined together
1398. The President of U.S.A.
A. Usually pilots all important bills in the Senate
B. Initiates bills in the House of Reporsentatives
C. Sends messages to the Congress containing his legislative proposals
D. Is silent spectator in legislative drama

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1399. What is not true of Senate of U.S.A.?
A. It is the weakest upper chamber
B. It is the strongest upper chamber
C. It has very many powers
D. It is not useless appendage of U.S. Congress
1400. The Constitution of U.S.A. is:______________?
A. Rigid
B. Flexible
C. Partly rigid and partly flexible
D. None of These
1401. The Constitution of U.S.A. Is a document which is:
A. Voluminous
B. Mostly unwritten
C. Purely unwritten
D. Small but written
1402. What is not true of U.S. Supreme Court?
A. It can declare a law unconstitutional
B. It is very big body
C. Judges are appointed in consultation with the Senate
D. It is balance wheel of Constitution
1403. What is not correct about the contribution of U.S. Supreme Court:

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A. It has kept the organs of Government within their respective spheres
B. It has saved federation
C. It has weakened federation
D. It has helped in the divelopment of federation
1404. What is not correct about contribution of U.S. Supreme Court?
A. It has made centre strong
B. It has made states strong
C. It has made centre weak
D. It has championed the cause of people
E. It has helped in saving the Constitution
1405. Which is not correct about the Supreme Court of U.S.A.?
A. It is guardian of Constitution
B. It is to protect fundamental rights of the people
C. To interpret the articles of the Constitution
D. To settle disputes between the States
E. Not to interfere in matters involving ambassadors of foreign countries
1406. The judges of Supreme Court in U.S.A. continue to remain in office as long as:
A. President likes them
B. Senate does not mind their continuance
C. House of Representatives likes to keep them
D. They maintain good behaviour
E. Till they have attained the age of 65 years

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1407. Doctrine of implied powers in U.S.A. means powers which Constitution has given to:
A. Executive
B. Legislature
C. Judiciary
D. Powers which are conferred on account of interference from the letters of the Constitution.
1408. Spoils system in U.S.A. Means:
A. High taxation system
B. Corrupting of public servants
C. Permission to few persons to loot others
D. Change of public servants with the change in the head of the state
1409. Pocket veto is the system by which:
A. Senate does not pass a bill passed by the lower House
B. House of Representatives does not pass a bill passed by the Senate
C. President does not give assent to a bill passed by the Congress at the fag end of the session
D. None of These
1410. In U.S.A. Residuary powers:
A. Have been left with the centre
B. Have been given to the states
C. Have not been mentioned
D. Do not exist
1411. In U.S. Federal system the President:

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A. Can change the boundaries of states at will
B. Can change the boundaries of states when representation is made
C. Can change state boundaries during emergencies
D. Cannot change state boundaries
1412. In U.S.A. The Governors of the states are:
A. Nominated by the President
B. Nominated by the Senate
C. Nominated by the House of Representatives
D. Elected by the people
1413. Which one of the following is not true about U.S. Federal system?
A. It has a written constitution
B. It has partly rigid and partly flexible constitution
C. It has supremacy of judiciary
D. It has clear division of powers
1414. Which of the following is true about U.S. Federal system?
A. States are demanding more autonomy
B. States have a desire to leave the federation
C. States want a strong centre
D. States want autonomy in international trade
1415. In U.S. Federal system upper House:
A. Is more powerful than the lower House

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B. Is less powerful than the lower House
C. Has co-equal powers with the Lower House
1416. Which of the following states has the strongest second Chamber in the world?
A. India
B. Japan
C. England
D. U.S.A.
E. Canada
1417. Which of the following is incorrect about Indian constitution?
A. It is written
B. It is flexible
C. It is federal
D. It is presidential
E. None of the above
1418. Which of the following is correct about Indian President?
A. He is elected by the Senate
B. He is elected by the House of representatives
C. He is elected by both the Houses of Congress
D. He is elected by an electoral college

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1419. Which of the following is not correct about U.S. federal system about strength of the centre?
A. There is danger of spread of communism
B. There is rapid technological advancement
C. There is danger of breaking away of states from the centre
D. There is increasing international trade
E. There is danger of nuclear war
1420. What was the decision of Federal Court in the dissolution case of Constituent Assembly?
A. It upheld Governor-General’s decision
B. It upheld the Sindh Chief Court’s decision
C. It upheld the Sindh Chief Court’s decision
D. It ordered to re-constitute in Assembly
1421. What was the judgment of sindh chief court in dissolution of Constituent Assembly case?
A. Dissolution is valid
B. It refer the case to the Federal Court
C. Dissolution was ultra vires and void
D. It dismiss the petition
1422. On which grounds the dissolution of Constituent Assembly was challenged?
A. Assembly is sovereign body and Governor-General had no power to dissolve it
B. Governor-General is not competent authority to do it
C. Constitution does not allow the dissolution
D. During the session assembly can not be dissolved

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1423. The dissolution of Constituent Assembly was challenged by its speaker in:___________?
A. Sindh Chief Court
B. Punjab Chief Court
C. Sindh Chief Court & afterward Federal Court
D. Punjab Chief Court & afterward Federal Court
1424. The Governor-General dissolved the Constituent Assembly on the grounds of:
A. Inactivity
B. Incompetency
C. Corruption & misdeeds
D. All of them
1425. When the Governor-General dissolved Constituent Assembly?
A. 1-Sep-54
B. 25-Oct-54
C. 27-Oct-54
D. 24-Oct-55
1426. Why Governor-General Ghulam Muhammad dissolved the Constituent Assembly?
A. The Assembly was inactive
B. The Assembly had passed a bill curtailing the power of the Governor-General
C. The Assembly was corrupt
D. Assembly passed a bill condemnation the Governor-General

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1427. The 1st Constitution Assembly of Pakistan was dissolved by the Governor-General by a
Proclamation dated the 24th of October, 1954 and a reconstituted Council of Ministers was set up.
The President of the Constituent Assembly Maulvi Tamiz-ud-Din Khan, thereupon filed a writ
petition under which section Maulvi Tamiz-ud-Din Khan file this petition?
A. 224-A of the Government of India Act, 1935
B. 225-A of the Government of India Act, 1935
C. 223-A of the Government of India Act, 1935
D. 228-A of the Government of India Act, 1935
1428. By which incident the process of the promulgation of the new constitution could not be
completed?
A. Revolt in Bengal
B. Revolt in Punjab
C. Dissolution of the Constituent Assembly
D. Death of Muhammad Ali Bogra
1429. The Constituent Assembly was successful in adopting a draft constitution by 1954. Which date
was announced by Muhammad Ali Bogra for the promulgation of the new constitution?
A. 25th December, 1954
B. 26th December, 1954
C. 27th December, 1954
D. 28th December, 1954
1430. Mohammad Ali Bogra successfully solved the problem of language by giving equal status to
both Urdu and Bengali as official languages. Which language was adopted as the common language?
A. Urdu
B. Bengali
C. English

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D. English & Urdu
1431. Which great problem became a hurdle in the way of the formation of constitution?
A. Language problem
B. Ethnic problem
C. Cultural problem
D. Religion problem
1432. For how many days Muhammad Ali Formula was thoroughly considered by the Constituent
Asembly in October?
A. 15 days
B. 13 days
C. 12 days
D. 10 days
1433. In the 3rd draft constitution total number of seats for all the units in General Legislature was
proposed:
A. 300
B. 350
C. 400
D. 450
1434. In the 3rd draft constitution total number of seats for all the units in lower house was
proposed:
A. 200
B. 300

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C. 400
D. 450
1435. In the 3rd draft constitution total number of seats for all the units in upper house was
proposed:
A. 40
B. 50
C. 60
D. 70
1436. In the 3rd draft constitution 10 seats of upper house were reserved for Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
and Tribal Areas. How many seats were for lower house?
A. 60
B. 65
C. 70
D. 75
1437. According to the 3rd draft constitution in Punjab (included in West Pakistan) 75 members
should be elected for lower house. How many members were proposed to be elected for upper house?
A. 5
B. 7
C. 9
D. 10
1438. According to the 3rd draft constitution East Pakistan should have 10 seats in upper house. How
many seats were proposed for it in the lower house?
A. 160

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B. 165
C. 170
D. 172
1439. According to the 3rd draft constitution, from where the Prime Minister was to be elected?
A. West Pakistan
B. East Pakistan
C. From any wing
D. From Lower House
1440. According to the 3rd draft constitution, from where the head of state was to be elected?
A. West Pakistan
B. East Pakistan
C. From any wing
D. From Upper House
1441. In Muhammad Ali Formula in Lower House the number of members from east Pakistan were:
A. 160
B. 170
C. 165
D. 175
1442. In Muhammad Ali Formula bicameral parliament was envisaged; the upper House was to have
50 members of which 10 were to be from East Pakistan and 40 from West Pakistan, and the Lower
House was to have:
A. 250 members

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B. 300 members
C. 210 members
D. 340 members
1443. 3rd report is also known as:
A. Bogra Report
B. Liaqat Formula
C. Muhammad Ali Formula
D. Ali Formula
1444. When the Mohammad Ali Bogra presented the third draft constitution in the assembly?
A. 7th October, 1953
B. 8th October 1953
C. 9th October 1953
D. 10th October, 1953
1445. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din was removed on 16 April, 1953. Who was appointed as the new Prime
Minister of Pakistan, who was also elected as the leader of the parliament by the Muslim League?
A. Miraj Khalid
B. Mohammad Ali Bogra
C. Maulvi Tameez-ud-Din
D. Khan Nizam-ud-Din
1446. Despite the severe criticism on second draft constitution, Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din was optimist
regarding the acceptance of draft. But most of the members of Basic Principle Committee did not
sign the draft. Which of the following was/were most influential member(s) of BPC who opposed the
draft?

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A. Mian Mumtaz Muhammad Khan daultana
B. M.A. Gurmani
C. Chaudri Nazir Ahmad
D. All of these
1447. Second draft constitution proposed to format a board to review central and provincial
legislation. This board was to be outside the parliament, therefore, faced a severe criticism. Term the
board?
A. Provincial Board
B. Ulema Board
C. Board of legislation
D. Board of Governors
1448. What ratio was proposed for the membership of East and West Pakistan in House of Peoples in
second draft constitution in the parity proposal?
A. 200 and 200
B. 100 and 300
C. 150 and 250
D. 250 and 150
1449. What ratio was proposed for the membership of East and West Pakistan in House of Units in
second draft constitution in the parity proposal?
A. 70 and 40
B. 60 and 60
C. 50 and 70
D. 40 and 80

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1450. Term the most important principle of the second draft constitution between East and West
Pakistan, which brought East Pakistan at par in the central legislature?
A. East Pakistan proposal
B. Parity Proposal
C. Power Proposal
D. Power Sharing Formula
1451. According to the second drft constitution how the constitution could be amended?
A. With the agreement of upper house
B. With the agreement of lower house
C. With the agreement of both upper and lower house
D. With the agreement of both central and provincial legislatures
1452. How many seats were proposed for the House of People or lower house in accordance with
second draft?
A. 300
B. 400
C. 200
D. 100
1453. According to the second draft the federal legislature was to be consisted of two houses the
house of units and the house of people. How many seats were for the House of Units or the upper
house?
A. 110
B. 120
C. 105
D. 100

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1454. The draftinWho presented the second draft constitution to the Constituent Assembly on 22
December, 1952?g committee prepared:
A. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din
B. Muhammad Ali Bogra
C. Maulvi Tamizuddin Khan
D. None of them
1455. When the BPC report was adopted and a drafting committee was setup?
A. August, 1954
B. November, 1954
C. September, 1954
D. September, 1955
1456. After how much time the 2nd Report of Basic Principles Committee was issued?
A. 30 months
B. 28 months
C. 32 months
D. 27 months
1457. Name the speaker of the Constituent Assembly who challenged the Ghulam Mohammad’s
decision of the dissolution of the Government of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din?
A. Miraj Khalid
B. Maulvi Tamiz-ud-Din Khan
C. Khan Muhammad
D. Raheem Shah

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1458. At the time of dismissal Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din who was in command of the Muslim League
both nationally and in the Assembly?
A. Raja Ghazanfar
B. Hussain Shaheed Suhrawardi
C. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din
D. I.I. Chundrigarh
1459. Who took power after the dismissal of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din?
A. I.I. Chundrigar
B. Muhammad Ali Bogra
C. Raja Ghazanfar Ali Khan
D. Raja Zafar Ali
1460. When Governor-General dismissed the cabinet of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din?
A. 17 April, 1953
B. 18 April, 1953
C. 16 April, 1953
D. 15 April, 1953
1461. Who was finance minister in Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din’s cabinet?
A. Zafarullah Khan
B. I.I. Chundrigarh
C. Muhammad Ali Bogra
D. Ghulam Muhammad

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1462. After the assassination of Liaquat Ali Khan in October 1951 Ghulam Muhammad was mde
Governor-General. Who was appointed as Prime Minister?
A. Ghulam Muhammad
B. Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din
C. Ch.Zafarullah Khan
D. Fazal-ur-Rehman
1463. On which ground the draft made in the 1st Report of Basic Principles was rejected?
A. It did not give security to minorities
B. It did not bear Islamic character
C. East Pakistan was not interested in it
D. None of These
1464. Who insisted the First Constituent Assembly to drop the draft, presented in the 1st report of
Basic Principles Committee?
A. Opposition from West-Pakistan
B. Opposition from East-Pakistan
C. Both East and West Pakistan
D. Muslim League
1465. What the reaction of 1st Report of Basic Principles Committee?
A. Public agitation
B. Public acceptance
C. Public Condemnation
D. Not acceptance nor rejection

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1466. According to the first report of ‘Basic Principles Committee’ to whom the Prime Minister was
be answerable?
A. Lower House
B. Upper House
C. Head of state
D. Both Houses
1467. According to the First Report of ‘Basic Principles Committee’ who was to elect the head of the
state for five years (A cabinet will be appointed to help the head of state that will be headed by prime
Minister)?
A. Upper house
B. Both Houses
C. Lower house
D. None of these
1468. According to the First Report of ‘Basic Principles Committee’ both Houses should have equal
powers. In case of dispute between two Houses, who was to be summoned to take final decision?
A. Session of both Houses
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. All of these
1469. The Government should be a federal legislature having two houses in accordance with the First
Report of Basic Principles Committee. What these houses were called?
A. Upper house and Lower house
B. House of units and House of People
C. Both of them

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D. None of them
1470. Who presented the 1st Report of Basic Principles Committee before the Constituent Assembly
on 28th September 1950?
A. Iftikhar-ud-Din
B. Liaqat Ali Khan
C. Maulvi Tamez-ud-Din
D. Meraj Khalid
1471. When Basic Principles Committee issued its 1st Report?
A. 1951
B. 1950
C. 1948
D. 1949
1472. When the Constituent Assembly elected a Basic Principles Committee?
A. 12 March, 1949
B. 13 March, 1949
C. 11 March, 1949
D. 12 March, 1948
1473. Name the leader of the Congress Party who said that ‘Objectives resolution’ will put the
minorities on a detestable place of servants and slaves?
A. S.C. Chattopadhyaya
B. Ajay Kapur
C. Hari Kumar

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D. None of these
1474. Most of the Muslims gave the approval to the “Objectives Resolution” except one Name him?
A. Tameez-ud-Din
B. Mian Iftikhar-ud-Din
C. Fakhar-uz-Zaman
D. Rehan Shah
1475. On what base(s), the Pakistan National Congress raised objections on ‘Objective Resolution’?
A. The Resolution mixed up polities with religion.
B. The Resolution does not provide minorities respectable place
C. Both of them
D. None of them
1476. Name the opposition party in the Assembly that raised objections on the ‘Objectives
Resolution’?
A. Pakistan National Congress
B. Jamaat-e-Islami
C. National Awami Party
D. Khaksar Party
1477. During how many meetings of First Constituent Assembly the Objectives Resolution was
passed?
A. 5
B. 4
C. 3

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D. 2
1478. Mention the principle point of the Constituent Assembly?
A. Observance of democracy, freedom, equality and social Justice
B. Rights of minorities
C. Independence of Judiciary and a federal system of Government
D. All of these
1479. The Objectives Resolution means:
A. Objectives on which the future of Pakistan will be envisaged
B. Objectives on which the future constitution was to be based
C. Objectives for the Pakistan
D. None of them
1480. When the Constituent Assembly passed Objectives Resolution?
A. February, 1949
B. March, 1948
C. April, 1949
D. March, 1949
1481. Under the Amending Act, 1781 the Supreme Court was to administer the law of:
A. The Presiding Judge
B. The English Law
C. The law of the defendant
D. The law of the accused

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E. Local customs
1482. Which was one of the main provisions of the Amending Act of 1781?
A. Public servants on duty were brought under Supreme Court jurisdiction
B. Public servants of the Company while on duty were, exempted from Supreme Court jurisdictions
C. The court was to administer personal law of defendant
D. Court was to show respect for religious law
E. Governor-General was empowered to make regulations for provincial courts
1483. Which of the following is not true about Regulating: Act, 1773?
A. No machinery was provided for scrutinising company correspondence with the Government
B. It was accepted that the company was a political organisation
C. It was step towards ending company’s misrule
D. Government accepted the responsiblity towards India
E. It gave a definite form to sovereignty
1484. Which of the following is not true about Regulating Act, 1773?
A. The Governor-General was placed at the mercy of his council
B. The Governor-General was made completely autocrat
C. Governor-General was reduced to cipher
D. It was not specified what type of law the courts will administer
1485. Which was not the main provision of Regulating Act of 1773?

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A. All proprietors were entitled to vote for the appointment of Director-General
B. Governor-General was to obey majority decision
C. Provision was made for a supreme court
D. Servants of the Company were forbidden to receive presents
E. Salaries of the servants of the Company were decreased
1486. The system of double Government in Bengal introduced in Bengal by:______________?
A. Lord Landsdowne
B. Lord Cannings
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Lytton
E. Lord Clive
1487. The system of double Government in Bengal was introduced in the year
A. 1764
B. 1765
C. 1766
D. 1767
E. 1768
1488. The Act of 1947 will be remembered because:
A. By it India was partitioned
B. Indian was appointed as Governor-General of India
C. Communal representation was brought to an end
D. India decided to leave Commonwealth

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1489. All members of the Constituent Assembly will be Indians was provided:
A. In August Offer (1940)
B. Cripps Proposals
C. Wavel Plan
D. Cabinet Mission Proposals
1490. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 main responsibility for dealing with transferred
subjects was with:
A. Governor-General
B. Governor
C. Secretary of State
D. Elected members
1491. Which one of the following was nota cause responsible for the passing of Government of India
Act, 1919?
A. Indians had made sacrifices during World War I
B. In Congress power slipped to extremists
C. Indians continued to, be ill-treated abroad
D. Interests of Indian commercial classes during war were fully protected
E. It was felt that the Government of India was inelastic
1492. By dyarchy what is meant is that powers were divided:
A. Between the centre and the provinces
B. Between official and non-official members of the Council
C. Into reserved and transferred subjects
D. Between Governor and Governor-General

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1493. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 dyarchy was introduced at:
A. Central level
B. Provincial level
C. District level
D. Panchyat level
1494. Under the Act of 1919 radical changes were made:
A. At the central level in India
B. In the position of Secretary of State in England
C. In the working of local self bodies
D. In the position of Governor-General in India
E. In the provinces in India
1495. Government of India Act, 1919 is commonly known as: _____________?
A. Morley-Minto Reforms
B. Montford Reforms
C. Act of provincial autonomy
D. None of these
1496. Which one of the following was not the defect of Act of 1909?
A. There was strong official bloc in Imperial Legislative Council
B. Government deliberately championed the cause of vested interests
C. The administrtion was deliberately kept less centralised
D. Local bodies were not given much freedom
E. Classes were made to fight with each other

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1497. Which one of the following is not true of Act of 1909?
A. It was much above the expectations of the people
B. It created wide gulf between the Hindus and the Muslims
C. It introduced doubly indirect method of election
D. In it Franchise was very much limited
E. It it there were glaring inequalities between voters of different communities
1498. In which of the following Act provision was made for appointment of one Indian member on
the Executive Council of Governor-General?
A. 1861
B. 1892
C. 1909
D. 1919
E. 1935
1499. Which one of the following is not true about the Act of 1909?
A. Legislative Councils were permitted to discuss budget
B. Members of Legislative Councils could suggest changes in taxation proposals
C. Presiding Officer could not disallow any question
D. Members were allowed to put supplementary questions
E. Government could create other executive councils
1500. Right to put supplementary questions to the members of Legislative Councils was given under
the Act of:
A. 1892
B. 1909

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C. 1919
D. 1935
E. None of these
1501. Under the Act of 1909 for non-official nominated members:
A. High educational qualifications were fixed
B. Property qualifications were fixed
C. Residential qualifications were fixed
D. No qualifications were prescribed
E. Were to be those who must be essentially bureaucrats
1502. Under the Act of 1909 in the Imperial Legislative Council:
A. Official majority was maintained
B. Non-official majority was maintained
C. Majority consisted of elected representatives
D. Majority consisted of those elected on the basis of limited franchise
1503. Each Governor’s Council was to have:
A. Only nominted members
B. Only official members
C. Only non-official members
D. Both official non-official and elected members
1504. Under the Act of 1909 strength of additional members of Governor’s Council of the provinces
of Bombay, Madras and Bengal was fixed at:

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A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60
E. 65
1505. Under the Act of 1909 strength of additional members of Governor-General’s Council was
fixed at:
A. 45
B. 50
C. 55
D. 60
E. 65
1506. Muslim League in India was founded in the year:
A. 1804
B. 1905
C. 1906
D. 1907
E. 1908
1507. In your opinion which one of the following was not one of the causes of passing of Indian
Council’s Act, 1909?
A. Lord Curzon followed stiff necked policies
B. In 1905 partition of Bengal was decided
C. Japan was defeated miserably by Russia

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D. Indians abroad were being humiliated
E. The people of India were suffering from groaning poverty
1508. Indian Council’s Act, 1909 is commonly known as:
A. Morley-Minto Reforms
B. Montague-Chelmsford Reforms
C. Act of Dyarchy
D. Act of Provincial Autonomy
E. None of these
1509. Which one of the following was not the effect of Act of 1892?
A. Indians got an opportunity to enter Councils
B. That legislature should control executive
C. That the executive was supreme body over legislature
D. That members were allowed to put questions
E. Non-official members got an opportunity to discuss financial policies of the Government
1510. In 1890 a Bill to amend Act of 1861 in the House of Common was moved by:
A. Lord North Brooke
B. Lord Sinha
C. Charles Bradlaugh
D. None of these
1511. Which one of the following was not a cause for the enactment of Act of 1892?
A. Indian National Congress had been founded

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B. Poverty of the people was on the increase
C. Enlightened educated class was demanding more rights
D. Government was favourably inclined to accept Congress demands
1512. Which one of the following is not one of the important effects of Act of 1861?
A. It made a beginning in the representative institution
B. It made beginning in legislative devolution
C. Government got opportunity to defend its policies
D. Non-official members were added to the Governor-General’s Council
E. It made legislatures really a representative body
1513. Which one of the following was not the provision of Act of 1861?
A. Number of ordinary executive councillor was raised to five
B. Secretary of State was empowered to appoint C-in-C as extraordinary member of his council
C. Assent of Governor-General was necessary for all bills
D. Governor-General could not revoke a measure passed by Governor’s Council
E. Legislative powers of Bombay Presidency were restored
1514. Which one of the following was not a reason for the passing of Government of India Act, 1861:
A. The Act of 1858 had been passed in haste
B. Centralised system of legislation was inadequate
C. Provincial Governments were not tolerating Bengal domination
D. There was demand in India that Indians should be associated with administration
E. Provinces wanted complete customary from Bengal Council

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1515. Appointment of all covenanted services was to be made on the basis of open competition was
provided under the Act of:
A. 1813
B. 1833
C. 1853
D. 1858
E. 1861
1516. Which one of the following is not true about the Government of India Act, 1861?
A. Board of Directors was abolished
B. Board of Control was abolished
C. A Council for secreatary of state was created
D. Governor General was to be appointed by the Crown
E. A separate province of U.P. Was created
1517. Which one of the following is not true about the Charter Act of 1853?
A. It renewed the Charter of the Company for 20 years
B. Directors were empowered to create a new province
C. Law member was made a regular member
D. Executive and legislative functions of Governor-General’s Councils were separated
1518. A provision was made for a separate Governor of Bengal under the Charter Act of:
A. 1793
B. 1813
C. 1833

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D. 1853
E. 1861
1519. The number of Directors of the Company was reduced from 24 to 18 under the Charter Act of:
A. 1793
B. 1813
C. 1833
D. 1853
E. 1861
1520. Under of the Act of 1833 was set up:
A. A law Commission
B. trade Commission
C. Police Commission
D. Board of International Trade
E. Board of National Trade
1521. A Law Member was added to the General under the Act of:
A. 1781
B. 1793
C. 1813
D. 1833
E. 1853
1522. Under the Act of 1833 powers of superintendence were vested in:

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A. Board of Directors
B. Board of Council
C. Provincial Governors
D. Shareholders of the Company
E. Governor-General in India
1523. Company’s trade monopoly with China was ended with the Act of:
A. 1793
B. 1813
C. 1833
D. 1853
E. 1858
1524. Under Charter Act of 1833 the Charter of the Company was:
A. Renewed for 15 years
B. Renewed for 20 years
C. Not Renewed
D. Kept in trust
1525. Which one of the following is not true about Charter Act of 1813?
A. It was to keep a fix sum apart for meeting eventualities
B. Board’s power of superintendence remained underfined
C. It permitted coming of Christian missionaries to India
D. It abolished company’s trade monopoly in India

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1526. For the first time a provision for the spread of education in India was made under:
A. Charter Act of 1793
B. Charter Act of 1813
C. Charter Act 1833
D. Charter Act of 1853
E. Government of India Act, 1858
1527. British Missionaries were permitted to under the Act of:
A. 1786
B. 1793
C. 1810
D. 1833
E. 1853
1528. Trade in India was thrown open to all the Act of:
A. 1773
B. 1781
C. 1786
D. 1793
E. 1813
1529. Under Charter Act, 1793 privileges of East India Company were extended by:
A. 10 years
B. 15 years
C. 20 years

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D. 25 years
E. 30 years
1530. Which one of the following is not true of Charter Act of 1793?
A. Promotion of the civil servants was not to be based on seniority
B. Privileges of the company were extended
C. Members of Board of Control were made paid
D. Each presidency was to have a Governor
E. Governor-General could override the decisions of its council
1531. Under the Act of 1786 the Governor General:
A. Was not to consult his council
B. Was not empowered to veto its decisions
C. Was bound to consult council and accept its advice
D. Was expected to consult his council but not obliged to accept its advice
E. Could abolish his council
1532. Which one of the following is not a valid criticism against Pitt’s India Act?
A. Board of Control’s effective control was remote
B. It resulted in weak administration
C. Directors of Company remained still unpaid
D. It loaded Board of Control with heavy responsibilities
1533. Which one of the following is not true about Board of Control set up under Pitt’s India Act?

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A. It could send secret letters to Court of Directors
B. It could not send secret letters to the Court of Directors
C. Chancellor of exchequer was its ex-officio member
D. Its maximum strength was fixed at six
1534. Which of the following is not true about Board of Control set up under Pitt’s India Act?
A. Secretary of State was its ex-officio member
B. It was vested with the power of making appointments
C. It was denied access to any of Company papers
D. Directors of the Company were bound to accept their orders
E. It was to ensure prompt disposal of papers
1535. In the initial stages Pitt’s India Bill was:
A. Defeated and House dessolved
B. Carried with voice vote
C. Defeated but the House not dissolved
D. Passed after several amendments
1536. The Pitt’s India Act ws passed in the year:
A. 1783
B. 1784
C. 1785
D. 1786
E. 1787

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1537. About commercial and non-commercial functions of the Company Fox East India Bill
provided:
A. These should be merged
B. These should be completely separated
C. There should be status quo
D. Both should be controlled by the Board of Directors
E. Both should be controlled by the Board of Control
1538. Dunda’s Bill was: ________________?
A. Passed with narrow majority
B. Passed with overwhelming majority
C. Not passed
D. Passed with the intervention of king
E. Passed after great struggle
1539. Which one of the following was not true about Dunda’s Bill?
A. It was introduced in the House of Lords
B. It proposed that king should have powers to recall company servants
C. Governor-General should be given overriding powers in Council
D. It was introduced in the house of Commons
1540. Dunda introduced amending bill in the year:
A. 1782
B. 1783

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C. 1784
D. 1785
E. 1786
1541. A provision was made for the first time that all members of Viceroy’s Executive Council except
two will be Indian in:
A. August Offer 1940
B. Cripps Proposals
C. Wavel Plan
D. Cabinet Mission Proposals
E. Mountbatten Mission
1542. Cripps proposals made a provision for:
A. Immediate setting up of a constitution making body
B. A constitution making body after war
C. Did not discuss about constitution making body
D. None of These
1543. August Offer of 1940 provided for:_____________?
A. Provincial autonomy
B. Appointment of India as Governor-General
C. A new constitution for India was given by British Parliament
D. Full freedom for Indians was assured
E. Dominion status for India was promised
1544. The Act of 1935 is associated with:

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A. Communal representation in India
B. Introduction of dyarchy in provinces
C. Responsible Government took charge in the centre
D. Provincial autonomy was started
E. Powers of the Governor General were significantly reduced
1545. The Act of 1919 failed in its actual working because:
A. British Parliament too much interfered
B. British press was opposed to the Act
C. Governor did not promote sense of joint responsibility
D. Indian Ministers were incompetent
1546. Bicameral system of legislature in India was introduced by the Act of:
A. 1909
B. 1919
C. 1935
D. 1947
1547. The office of High Commissioner for India was created by the Act of____________?
A. 1858
B. 1861
C. 1892
D. 1909
E. 1919

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1548. The Government of India Act, 1919 will be remembered in. India because:
A. It introduced communal system of representation
B. It started dyarchy
C. It gave wide political powers to Indians
D. It established non-official majority in the centre
E. It ended communal system of representation
1549. System of communal representation in legislative bodies in, India was introduced with the
Government of India Act:
A. 1862
B. 1892
C. 1909
D. 1919
E. 1935
1550. Development of representative institutions began with the passing of Act of:
A. 1813
B. 1853
C. 1858
D. 1861
E. 1892
1551. One of the important provisions of the Government of India Act, 1858 was that:
A. It violated all the treaties concluded by East India Company
B. It transferred Indian administration from Company to Crown

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C. It created Legislative Council for India
D. It permitted Indians to appear in administrative services examinations
1552. Chatter Act, 1853 is important because it:
A. Created Supreme Court
B. Increased the number of Directors of the Company
C. Created legislative Council in India
D. Renewed the Charter of the Company for another crucial 20 years
E. Deprived the Company the power of creating new provides
1553. For one reason for which Charter Act of 1833 will be remembered is that:
A. It made a beginning of Indian legislature
B. It made a beginning of separate judiciary
C. It defined centre-provinces financial relations
D. It reduced the powers of control of British Parliament
1554. A specific provision was made for the recruitment of Indians on merits only in the Act of:
A. 1793
B. 1813
C. 1833
D. 1853
E. 1861
1555. Under the Charter Act of 1833 a provision was made for a Commission to:
A. Regulate centre-state financial relations

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B. Suggest new tax structure
C. Organise armed forces
D. Codity laws
E. Give new educational pattern
1556. The Charter Act, 1813 will be remembered in India because it made a beginning by making
specific budgetary provisions for:
A. Starting new railway lines
B. Starting new post offices
C. Education
D. Constructing new roads
E. Taxes on non-agricultural land
1557. Trade with India except in tea was thrown open to all British subjects by the Act of:
A. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
B. Amending Act, 1781
C. Act of 1786
D. Charter Act, 1793
E. Charter Act, 1813
1558. The qualifications that the Members of Council of Governor-General should have resided for
more than a decade in India before their appointments were prescribed by:
A. Pitt’s India Act, 1784
B. Charter Act, 1793
C. Charter Act, 1813
D. Charter Act, 1833

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1559. The Pitt’s India Act wass an improvement upon the Regulating Act because it helped at the
settlement of disputes between:
A. The members of the Council themselves
B. Mombers of the Council and Governor-General
C. Members of the Council and Judges of Supreme Court
D. Governor-General and Chief Justice of Supreme Court
E. Governor-General and Provincial Councils
1560. By the Provisions of Pitt’s India Act 1784, the strength of the members of Governor-General’s
Council was:
A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Kept as it was
D. Left to him to decide subsequently.
1561. The Amending Act of 1781 primarily dealt with the:
A. British Parliament
B. Provincial Governors
C. Supreme Court in India
D. House of Commons in India
E. Indian Princes
1562. Which was the important Bill the 1st Constituent Assembly passed?
A. Proda (Public-representative offices disqualification Act)
B. Representative Act
C. Objective Resolution Act

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D. Presidential Act 1953
1563. For how many days the 1st Constituent Assembly met in 7 years?
A. 99
B. 100
C. 120
D. 116
1564. How many years the 1st Constituent Assembly lasted?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 5
D. 4
1565. The members of Constituent Assembly were indirectly elected, i.e., they were elected by the
members of the provincial legislatures on the basis of separate election. Which was/were the area(s)
where there were no provincial legislature?
A. Balochistan and Tribal Areas
B. Balochistan
C. Tribal Areas
D. East Pakistan
1566. The 68 number Constituent Assembly were comprised of 44 members from East Pakistan
including:
A. 12 Hindu Members
B. 14 Hindu Members

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C. 13 Hindu Members
D. 16 Hindu Members
1567. How many members of Constituent Assembly were there?
A. 67
B. 68
C. 69
D. 65
1568. Under which Act the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan was formed for framing the
constitution?
A. Government of India Act (Amended)
B. Government of India Act
C. Special Act
D. Independence Act of 1947
1569. Who enjoyed actual administration of country after the death of Quaid-i-Azam?
A. Governor-General
B. Interior Minister
C. Prime Minister
D. Cabinet
1570. After the death of Quaid-i-Azam (1948) and installation of Khawaja Nazim-ud-Din as
Governor-General, the type of Government came to resemble:
A. Cabinet Government
B. Parliamentarian Government

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C. Federal Government
D. None of them
1571. Before First Constituent Assembly be tabled for regular discussion, which incident took place
that put the responsibility of making constitution on the shoulders of Liaqat-Ali-Khan?
A. Refugees’ arrival into Pakistan
B. Death of Quaid-e-Azam in the september 1948
C. Water dispute between India & Pakistan
D. War with India
1572. The first Constituent Assembly met as Legislature in__________?
A. February, 1948
B. January, 1948
C. March, 1948
D. February, 1949
1573. After being elected as the President of the first Constituent Assembly, Quaid-e-Azam appointed
well-known constitutional exper(s) to prepare a daft incorporating with the laws of Islamic social
justice. Name him/them?
A. Justice M. Ismail
B. Wasim
C. M.B. Ahmad
D. All of these
1574. Who was the 1st President of the Constitution Assembly?
A. Liaquat Ali Khan
B. Quaid-i-Azam

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C. Maulvi Tamiz-ud-Din Khan
D. Abdul Rab Nishtar
1575. On 10th August 1947 the first Constituent Assembly met. Which of the following job(s)
was/were assigned to the Constituent Assembly?
A. Of framing the constitution
B. To act as Federal Parliament, until the constitution came into effect
C. Both of these
D. None of these
1576. The interim constitution of Pakistan was compreised on:
A. Indian independence Act, 1947
B. Government of India Act, 1935
C. Government of India Act, 1935 (Amended)
D. Indian Independence Act, 1947 and Government of India Act, 1935 (Amended)
1577. How many constituent assemblies were made to frame the constitution of the country?
A. 5
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
1578. To make the constitution of Pakistan was not an easy Job. Including religion, which or the
following were major hindrance(s) in the way of forming a constitution of the country?
A. Cultural and linguistic differences
B. Lack of homogeneity among the sections of the country

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C. Nature of the Federal structure of the government
D. All of these
1579. Quaid-i-Azam was appointed as Governor-General of Pakistan by the:
A. Referendum
B. Election
C. King
D. None of them
1580. Under the Indian Independence Act, 1947 it was provided that:
A. India will be a republic
B. India will be divided into two parts
C. India will be unitary state
D. It will be compulsory for
E. It will be compulsory for princely states to join Pakistan
1581. Which one of the following is not true about Indian federal system proposed under the Act of
1935:
A. In it lower House was made more powerful than the upper one
B. In it upper House was made more powerful than the lower one
C. In it dyarchy was ended in the provinces
D. In it joining of Indian states in the federation was made optional
1582. Under the Government of India Act, 1935:
A. Dyarchy was retained in the provinces

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B. Dyarchy was altogether abandoned
C. Dyarchy was introduced in the centre
1583. Under the government of India Act, 1935 it was proposed that India shall:
A. Be a unitary state
B. Be a federal state
C. Have parliamentary form of Government
D. Have presidential form of Government
E. Be a limited monarchy
1584. Communal Award of Lord MacDonald was given in the year:
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
E. 1933
1585. Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed in the year: ___________?
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
1586. Nehru report for solving India’s constitutional problem was prepared under the chairmanship
of:

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A. Moti Lal Nehru
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. Dr. Jayakar
D. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru
E. B.K. Nehru
1587. The Congress Ministries delayed assuming offices in the provinces because the:
A. Secretary of State so desired
B. Governor General so wished
C. Muslim League did not wish
D. Congress wanted an assurance that the Governors will act as constitutional heads
E. Congress leadership did not wish to assume responsibility
1588. The Government of India Act, 1935 is known for:
A. Introducing dyarchy in the provinces
B. Introducing dyarchy in the centre
C. Integration of Indian States
D. Introducing communalism in India
E. Introducing provincial autonomy
1589. Which one of the following was not a cause responsible for the passing of Government of India
Act, 1935:
A. The Act of 1919 was much below the expectations of the people
B. The bureaucracy was not elastic under the Act of 1919
C. The system of dyarchy proved unworkable
D. Report of Hunter Committee encouraged people towards British Government

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E. Gandhiji’s non-cooperation movement had mass appeal
1590. Under the Government of India Act, 1919 meetings of the Legislative Council were to be
presided over by:
A. Governor himself
B. Nominee of the Governor
C. An elected member of the Council
D. Nominee of Governor-General
E. Nominee of the Secretary of State
1591. In the case of Constituent Assembly’s dissolution the Federal Court set the judgment of the
Sind Court aside on the technical ground that the Act by virtue of which the Sind Court issued the
verdict was ‘not yet a law’ because it had not received the assent of:
A. Federal Court
B. Prime Minister
C. Governor-General
D. Law Minister
1592. What was the advice of Federal Court to the Governor-General in the case of dissolution of
Constituent Assembly?
A. Form a second Constituent Assembly immediately
B. Hold election for a second Assembly
C. Change the Constituent Assembly into the Legislature
D. Form a second Assembly within three months
1593. The Independence Act also provided that the Constituent Assembly should also act during the
interim period as the:

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A. Central Legislature of the country and as well provincial assemblies
B. Federal Legislative Assembly
C. Senate of the country
D. Central Legislature of the country
1594. When H.S. Suhrawardy disqualified and consequently driven out of Constituent Assembly?
A. 1944
B. 1939
C. 1949
D. 1943
1595. Who was invited by Governor General Ghulam Muhammad, to form a new Ministry after
dissolving the Constituent Assembly?
A. Dr. Khan Sahib
B. Iskandar Mirza
C. Mohammad Ali Bogra
D. Yahya Khan
1596. In the new cabinet of Mohammad Ali Bogra, some new faces were included who later played a
distinct role in the political scenario of Pakistan. Which of the following was/were these new face(s)?
A. Muammad Ayub Khan
B. Iskander Mirza & Dr. Khan Sahib
C. Suharvlfady
D. All of these

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1597. After the defeat of Muslim League in election in East Pakistan, majority government could not
be formed. A coalition cabinet ws formed. Who became the leader of the new cabinet and
Mohammad Ali Bogra was sent back to his former position of Pakistan’s Ambassador to U.S.A?
A. Tameez-ud-Din
B. Mohammad Ali Bogra
C. Khan Zaman
D. Iskandar Mirza
1598. The greatest achievement of Muhammad Ali’s cabinet was the establishment of West Pakistan
Act that amalgamated the provinces into one. Mention the date?
A. 28th September, 1955
B. 29th September, 1955
C. 30th September, 1955
D. 31st September, 1955
1599. When Governor-General convened the 2nd Constituent Assembly?
A. May, 1955
B. April, 1955
C. July, 1955
D. June, 1955
1600. The 2nd Constituent Assembly was consisted of _____________?
A. 65 members
B. 80 members
C. 50 members
D. 70 members

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1601. How many members were from East Pakistan in the 2nd Constituent Assembly?
A. 40
B. 50
C. 35
D. 55
1602. In the Second Constituent Assembly 72 members were selected by the members of the
Provincial Assemblies and Electoral Colleges for Karachi and Balochistan and the ret were:
A. Selected
B. Nominated
C. Elected
D. Not elected
1603. When the elections for 2nd Constituent Assembly were held?
A. July, 1955
B. April, 1955
C. June, 1955
D. May, 1955
1604. When the first sitting of 2nd Constituent Assembly was held?
A. June, 1955
B. January, 1955
C. April, 1955
D. July, 1955

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1605. After the Partition, when Muslim League lost its parliamentarian majority?
A. In election of June 1955
B. In election of April 1955
C. In election of July 1955
D. In election of May 1955
1606. Of which party the most members of 2nd Constituent Assembly from east Pakistan were
selected?
A. Awami League
B. United Front
C. Both of them
D. None of them
1607. Which assembly passed Act of One Unit merging all the provinces of West Pakistan into one
unit?
A. 2nd Constituent Assembly
B. 1st Constituent Assembly
C. 1st elected Assembly
D. None of them
1608. The 2nd Constituent Assembly framed and passed the first Constitution of Pakistan in:
A. July, 1956
B. February, 1956
C. May, 1956
D. January, 1956

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1609. When the first constitution of Pakistan was enforced?
A. 23rd March, 1956
B. 24th March, 1956
C. 25th March, 1956
D. 26th March, 1956
1610. In which Constitution Pakistan was declared ‘Republic’?
A. 1956
B. 1973
C. 1975
D. None of these
1611. Which one of the following functions has been wrongly attributed to the Cabinet under Cabinet
System?
A. It introduces important bills in the house
B. It defends the policy of the Government on the floor of house
C. In introduces the budget in the Parliament
1612. Political homogeneity, which is a feature of Cabinet Government implies:
A. All the members of Cabinet must be taken from the same political party
B. The members of the/Cabinet should be taken from all the political parties
C. Members of Cabinet should be taken from various parties in proportion to their strength in the
Parliiament

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1613. Cabinet Government works best under:
A. Single party system
B. Two-party system
C. Multi-party system
D. Partyless system
1614. The Prime Minister is central to the formation of the Cabinet because:
A. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet
B. Cabinet is constituted around him
C. He can include anyone he likes in his Cabinet
D. He can dismiss any member of the Cabinet
1615. Collective Responsibility of the Cabinet means:
A. All the ministers swim or sink together
B. All the decisions are taken by the Cabinet Ministers collectively
C. The decisions taken by the Cabinet must be-formally signed by all the ministers
1616. A vote of ‘no confidence’ against Defence Minister entails:
A. Only his resignation
B. Resignation of Defence Minister as well as the Prime Minister
C. Resignation of the entire Cabinet
1617. Cabinet Government averts conflicts between the legislature and the exec dive by:

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A. Clearly ear-marking the spheres of the two organs of government
B. By ensuring harmonious relations between the two
C. By freeing the executive of all control by the legislature
D. By protecting the legislature against undue interference by the executive
1618. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a merit of Cabinet Government
A. It makes changes in government possible without formal elections
B. It makes changes in government possible through elections
C. It ensures the accountability of the ministers to the people through their representatives
D. It appraises the people with the problems facing the country
1619. Cabinet Government has great educative value because:
A. It invariably provide; freedom to press
B. It makes provision for free and compulsory education
C. All the problems facing the country are freely discussed parliament and through other medias
D. Of all the above reasons
1620. The formation of Cabinet starts with the appointment of the Prime Minister, who is:
A. The leader of the majority party in the Parliament
B. Nominated by the Speaker of the popular house
C. Nominated by the head of the state
1621. Which one of the following defects has been wrongly listed as a demerit of Cabinet
Government?

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A. It encourages dictatiorship of Cabinet
B. It provides for an instable government
C. It ensures efficiency of administration
D. It is not suitable for dealing effectively with the emergencies
1622. A person can be a member of Cabinet without being a member of Parliament for a maximum
period of:
A. Three months
B. Six months
C. One year
D. Two years
1623. The members of the Cabinet hold office:
A. For a fixed term
B. During the pleasure of the head of the date
C. As long as it enjoys support of majority of the members of Parliament popular house
1624. Under Cabinet Government the right to reshuffle the Cabinet rests with:
A. The head of the state
C. The Speaker
D. The Select Committee of the Cabinet
1625. Which one of the following functions of the ‘Prime Minister’ has been wrongly listed?

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A. He presides over the meetings of the Cabinet:
B. He prepares the agenda for the meetings of the Cabinet
C. He co-ordinates the working of various departments
D. He chairs the meetings of the various standing and ad-hoc Committees of parliament
1626. The real executive authority under Cabinet Government rests with:
A. The Council of Ministers
C. The Constitution
D. The Parliament
1627. Which one of the following is not an important cause for increased work of bureaucracy?
A. Committee work has increased
B. Bureaucracy is required to perform judicial work
C. Delegated legislation has increased
D. Ministers have become experts
E. Volume of legislative work has increased
1628. Which one of the following is not necessary for impartiality of bureaucracy?
A. Civil servants be given good salaries
B. Status and position of civil servants should be kept high
C. Civil servants should be given security of service
D. Bureaucrats should be allowed to accept grafts
E. Bureaucrats should be given good pension

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1629. Which of the following is not a method for securing impartiality of the bureaucrats?
A. They are allowed to work closely with Ministers
B. They are provided medical facilities
C. They are given residential houses
D. They are given leave travel concession
1630. Which of the following step is not needed for maintaining non-committed judiciary?
A. To recruit politically unconscious people
B. To provide retirement facilities
C. To provide incentives while in service
D. To pay high salaries and allowances
E. To adopt difficult method of removal
1631. Bureaucracy is an important feature of : _____________?
A. Democratic governments
B. Dictatorial system of governments
C. All governments
1632. Bureaucracy is: _____________?
A. An ancient institution
B. A modern phenomenon
C. The product of middle age feudal system
D. None of These

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1633. Bureaucracy literally means a system of government by:
A. Elected representatives
B. Officials
C. Nominated representatives
1634. Bureaucracy existed in the ancient empire of:
A. China
B. Rome
C. India
D. All the above
1635. Which one of the following functions is performed by the bureaucrats?
A. Collection of taxes
B. Audit of accounts
C. Inspection of factories
D. All the above functions and many other too
1636. In modern times the powers of the bureaucracy have:
A. Greatly increased
B. Considerably declined
C. Bneither increased nor declined

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1637. In the context of a democratic political system devoted to the cause of speedy socio-economic
progress through governmental action, which one of the following actions is appropriate for
bureaucracy?
A. Taking preventive steps to avoid the processes through which the political parties opposed to the
Government are lekely to improve their chances in the elections
B. Taking effective measures to prevent the process of development of the private sector
C. Effective mobilization and management of resources to achieve the accepted sociopolitical and
economic goals of the nation
D. Planning in advance the strategies that are to be followed for defeating the electoral calculations of the
political parties opposed to the government
1638. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a factor for the increase in the powers of
bureaucracy?
A. The state has assumed police and military functions
B. The state has assumed greater responsibilities due to adoption of goal of ‘welfare state’
C. The complexity of administration has necessitated services of experts
D. The growth of delegated legislation has added to the importance of civil service
1639. In the context of a democratic political system devoted to the cause of speedy socio-economic
progress through governmental action, which one of the following actions is appropriate for
bureaucracy?
A. Taking preventive steps to avoid the processes through which the political parties opposed to the
Government are lekely to improve their chances in the elections
B. Taking effective measures to prevent the process of development of the private sector
C. Effective mobilization and management of resources to achieve the accepted sociopolitical and
economic goals of the nation
D. Planning in advance the strategies that are to be followed for defeating the electoral calculations of the
political parties opposed to the government
1640. Who said that bureaucracy is “a system of government, the control of which is so completely in
the hands of the officials that their power jeopardizes the liberties of the ordinary citizens?”

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A. Laski
B. Barker
C. Green
D. Liner
1641. Which one of the following descriptions gives a definition of bureaucracy?
A. A set of government officials, possessed of certain traits of excessive formality, the use of verbiage and
jargon as the basis of communication, inflexibility of procedure and insistence on the powers of their office
B. A career based appointed administrative service of fixed status and tenure with salary limited to
rank and a known rank order of advancement
C. A particular pattern of administrative behaviour, associated with certain types of social organization and
identificable by reference to a constellation of objective criteria
D. The activity concerned with the implementation of policies by the direction or management of efforts of
individuals and groups towards specific goals
1642. Who expressed the view that under Parliamentary system of government bureaucracy thrives
under the cloak of ministerial responsibility?
A. Ramway Macdonald
B. Ramsay Muir
C. William Beveridge
D. Lord Hewart
1643. In view of the growing power of the bureaucracy, which one of the following writers has that a
“no form of despotism” has emerged?
A. Lord Hewart
B. Ramsay Munir
C. Sir William Beveridge
D. Harold Laski

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1644. Which one of the following functions is not performed by the bureaucrats in the financial
sphere?
A. They formulate the budget proposals
B. They get the budget proposals approved by the Legislature
C. They implement the budget proposals after they are approved by the legislature
D. All the above functions
1645. In Parliamentary System of Government the bills are:
A. Prepared by the civil servants but introduced by the ministers
B. Prepared as well as introduced by the civil servants
C. Prepared as well as introduced by the ministers
1646. Which one of the following has not been in any way responsible for increase in the powers of
bureaucracy?
A. National emergencies like war, natural calamities, etC.
B. Enormous growth in the functions of the Parliament resulting in enactment of skeleton laws
C. Introduction of universal franchise
D. Making of civil services a life long career
1647. The bureaucracy performs:
A. Only administrative functions
B. Legislative as well as financial functions
C. Only judicial function
D. All the above types of functions

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1648. Under Parliamentary system government bureaucracy exercises:
A. Only those powers which are vested in it
B. Only those powers which are vested in the Ministers
C. Powers which are vested in it as well as powers vested in the ministers
1649. Which one of the following functions of the bureaucracy has been wrongly listed?
A. It enforces the laws passed by the legislature
B. It prepares the bills for the approval of the legislature
C. It prepares the budget for the country
D. It recommends to the head of the state cases for grant of pardon
1650. The rise of delegated legislation has resulted in: ____________?
A. Increase in the powers of the bureaucracy
B. Decline in the powers of the bureaucracy
C. Either increase nor decline in the powers of bureaucracy
1651. The rise of delegated legislation has resulted in: ___________?
A. Increase in the powers of the bureaucracy
B. Decline in the powers of the bureaucracy
C. Beither increase nor decline in the powers of bureaucracy
1652. Which one of the following judicial functions is performed by the civil servants?

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A. They assist the head of the state in appointment of judges
B. They ensure that rule of law prevails in the country
C. The take number of administrative and quasi-judicial decisions of final nature
D. They take administrative and quasi-judicial decisions which can be challenged only in the courts
1653. The growing powers of the bureaucracy propose any threat to democracy because the final
authority:
A. Rests with the Head of the State
B. Rests with the Council of Ministers
C. Rests with Parliament
D. With all the above
1654. In recent years the powers of bureaucracy have:
A. Considerably declined
B. Enormously increased
C. Not undergone any changes
1655. Who said “Bureaucracy like fire is invaluable as a servant but ruinous when it becomes a
master”?
A. Herman Finer
B. Ramsay Muir
C. James Bryce
D. Iver Jennings
1656. Which one is not an important cause for increased work-load of bureaucracy?

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A. Work-load with government has increased
B. States are performing both compulsory and optional functions
C. States have become police states
D. The Ministers are amateurs
1657. of a good bureaucracy it is expected that: ________________?
A. It should help political executive in the implementation of programmes
B. It should properly guide political executive
C. It should keep its records properly
D. It should avoid giving classified information to political executive
1658. The legislative wing of the state or central government exercises control over local bodies:
A. By passing their budgets
B. By enacting necessary laws for these bodies
C. By prescribing their organizations and functions through statutes
D. Through all the above methods
1659. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a justification for state control or
supervision over local bodies?
A. Control ensures greater efficiency in municipal services
B. It keeps a check on powerful local interests which may operate against the common interest
C. It provides necessary finances to the proper areas for provision of welfare services
D. It ensures diversity in municipal services
1660. Which one of the following functions is not performed by the local government bodies?

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A. Health and sanitation
B. Protection of life and property
C. Construction of roads, bridges, public baths, etC.
D. Maintenance of police force
1661. The enormous increase in the functions of the government in recent years has led to:
A. Increase in the functions of local bodies
B. Decline in the functions of local bodies
C. Neither increase nor decline in the functions of local bodies
D. Elimination of local bodies
1662. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A. Local government institutions are the administrative out posts of the central or state government
B. Local bodies are subordinate wings of the state executive wing
C. The local bodies are subordinate to the law of the state or centre
1663. The local government institutions: ______________________?
A. Can levy taxes
B. Can levy taxes with the prior approval of the state government
C. Cannot levy taxes
D. Propose taxes to the state government
1664. The local governments are:
A. Sovereign

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B. Self-created
C. Creation of central or state governments
1665. The local governments enjoy:
A. No autonomy
B. Complete autonomy
C. Autonomy within the limits prescribed by statutes
1666. Which one of the followings has been wrongly listed as a feature of local government?
A. It enjoys jurisdiction over very limited area
B. It operates on the principle that local problems can be best solved by the local people
C. It undertakes only those activities which benefit the people of area
1667. The local government: _________?
A. Raises its funds largely locally
B. Depends for the finances on the centre only
C. Depends for the funds on the state government only
1668. The local government is: _______________________?
A. Not accountable to the central or state governments
B. Accountable to the central or state governments within the limits prescribed by the statute

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C. Fully accountable to the central or state governments
D. Accountable only to the local representatives
1669. The administrative departments of the state or central governments exercise control over local
bodies:
A. By formulating their budgets
B. Through their power to approve or reject the bye laws, schemes and resolutions of local bodies
C. Recruiting all the official of the local bodies
D. Through none of the above methods
1670. Which one the following has been wrongly listed as a tool for the exercise of administrative
control over local bodies?
A. Through provision of advice in technical and specialized fields
B. Through inspections
C. Enactment of budgets of local bodies
D. Through grants in aid
1671. Judicial control over local bodies aims at: _______________________?
A. Ensuring that they are discharging their obligations within the limits of the statute
B. Prevention of undue interference by the executive in the working of local bodies
C. Ensuring non-intervention by political parties in local affairs
1672. The local bodies: ________________________?
A. Can raise loans on their own
B. Cannot raise loans

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C. Can raise loans only with the prior sanction of the state
1673. In recent years the local bodies have become:
A. Increasingly independent of the state government
B. Increasingly dependent on the state government
C. Completely sovereign
1674. Which one of the following factors has contributed to the growing dependence of the local
bodies on the state?
A. Improved means of transport and communication
B. Growing tendency towards provision of uniform administration
C. Tendency on the part of state government, like any other government, to increase its powers
D. All the above factors
1675. Given the ideals of responsible government, local government should mean:
A. Devolution of governmental duties
B. Decentralisation of administration
C. Administrative deconcentration
D. Diversification of governmental organs
1676. Who among the following introduced local self-government in India?
A. Lord Canning
B. Raja Rammohan Roy
C. Lord Rippon

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D. Lord Mountbatten
1677. The states in a federation are: _____________?
A. The lowest units of local government
B. The highest units of local government
C. Not units of local government
D. None of These
1678. Local government is concerned with:
A. Management of affairs of the people of local areas
B. Functions which are delegated to it by the centre only
C. Developmental functions only
D. All the above types of functions
1679. The local government enjoys the powers which are:
A. Bestowed by the Constitution
B. Delegated by the central government
C. Delegated by the state government
D. Bestowed by the statute
1680. Which one of the following is not essential for maintaining interest of the people in local self-
government institutions?
A. In their favour leacture by public men should be arranged
B. Newspapers should be used in their favour
C. Close contracts between elected and electorates should be maintained

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D. Very strict central control over their working should be exercised
1681. Which one of the following does not fall under the category of administrative control over local
self-government bodies?
A. State government can appoint administrative officers
B. State government can disapprove bye-laws of these body
C. State government can appoint inspecting officers
D. State governments can stop grant-in-aid
E. State governments can propagate against the quality of their work
1682. Which one of the following is not an essential condition for maintaining public interest in local
self-government?
A. Utility of these institutions should be classified
B. People should be made to realise their importance
C. People of integrity should be got elected to these bodies
D. These should be deprived of some of their powers
E. Regular publicity should be given to their work
1683. Which of the following is not an essential condition for successful working of local self-
government?
A. Politics should not be allowed to interfere
B. Financially these should be kept dependent on the centre
C. Favourable public opinion should be created in their favour
D. More financial resources should be put at their disposal
1684. Which of the following is not an essential condition for the successful working of local self-
government?

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A. These should meet local needs
B. The people of integrity should be elected
C. Party politics should be encouraged
D. Control of central authority should not be very stiff
1685. Which one of the following is true statement about local government?
A. Their dependence on the centre is increasing
B. Their autonomy is increasing day by day
C. Their work-load is increasingly going up
D. Centres administrative control overthem is increasing
1686. Which one of the following is not true about local government?
A. It helps central government in discharging its duties
B. It helps in reducing the burden of central government
C. It helps in promoting efficiency
D. It performs such duties which are given to it by central government
E. It helps in promoting political ideologies
1687. The main reason for the creation of local governments is: ___________?
A. To reduce the work of the central government
B. To effectively deal international problems
C. To strengthen a particular political system
D. To make political party system work successfully

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1688. In a unitary form of government local government derives its powers from:
A. Constitution
B. Heal of the state
C. Prime Minister
D. Legislative enactments
1689. Under the Parliamentary system the departments are allocated to the various ministers by:
A. The President
C. By draw of lots
D. On the basis of the preference indicated by ministers
1690. The meetings of the Cabinet under Parliamentary government are presided over by:
A. The President
B. The Speaker
C. The ministers in rotation
1691. The leader of government under Parliamentary system is:
A. Elected by all the members of the legislature
B. Always the leader of the majority party in the popular house
C. Nominated by the interests of the country
D. Selected in due consultation with the different political parties
1692. The government under Parliamentary system is headed by:

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A. The King
C. The President
D. The Cabinet
1693. In a Parliamentary system of government the Prime Minister is generally:
A. A member of the popular house
B. A member of the upper house
C. Not a member of either houses of Parliament
D. An experienced civil servant
1694. Which one one the following is true about Presidential form of Government?
A. In it secretaries are real policy makers
B. It it secretaries work on equal footings with the President
C. In it secretaries work on the basis of joint responsibilities
D. In it secretaries are subordinates of President.
1695. Lord Bryce has written, “That form of Government in which ruling power of the state is legally
vested not in any particular class but, in the members of community as a whole. Which form of
Government he is referring to?
A. Democracy
B. Federal
C. Unitary
D. Presidential
E. Parliamentary

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1696. All bills in a parliamentary form of Government become Acts as soon as these are passed by:
A. Cabinet
B. Cabinet secretary
C. By Lower House
D. Upper House
E. Head of the state
1697. In India the President of the republic is elected in the same manner as head of the state:
A. In U.S.A.
B. In U.K.
C. In Pakistan
D. In Bangladesh
1698. In Parliamentary form of Government cabinet is responsible to:
A. The legislature
B. The nominal executive
C. The judiciary
1699. The executive in the presidential form of Government:
A. Does not sit with the legislature
B. Takes part in the deliberation of the legislature
C. Presides over the meetings of the power House
D. Presides over the meetings of the upper House

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1700. The real executive chief in presidential form of Government:
A. Is not a member of the legislature
B. Should be a member of legislature
C. Is accountable to the legislature
D. Introduces all bills in the lower house of legislature
1701. Who has said that; “In the state with cabinet form of government the executive head shares
directly in legislation as members of law making body, guiding and directing its policy as long as they
possess its support:
A. Ebestein
B. MacIver
C. Finer
D. Laski
E. Gettel
1702. Who said in his judgment that no part of our Constitution is unamendble?
A. Allahabad High Court
B. Calcutta High Court
C. Madras High Court
D. Supreme Court of India
1703. Who curbed the judicial Review power of Judiciary through Amendment of the Constitution?
A. State Legislature
B. Parliament
C. Council of State
D. Legislative Council

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1704. Under which Constitutional Amendment Act, Article 368 of the Constitution was amended for
the first time?
A. 25th Amendment Act
B. 26th Amendment Act
C. 24th Amendment Act
D. 27th Amendment Act
1705. Who has the power to accord his assent or withhold his assent to a Bill passed by the
parliament?
A. President
B. Member of the House
C. Minister
1706. Who has the authority to call a joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Member of Lok Sabha
D. Member of Rajya Sabha
1707. In the Second reading, what kind of process is adopted to approve the Bill:
A. A general discussion on the Bill
B. Clause by clause consideration of the bill
C. Both (a) & (b)

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1708. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of the Government Bill?
A. Bill presented by Ruling Party member
B. Bill approved by the Government
C. Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill
D. A Bill introduced by any Minister in either of the Houses of the Parliament
1709. How are the parts of the Budget known as:
A. General Budget
B. Railway Budget
C. Both (a) & (b)
1710. In how many parts, the Budget is presented in Lok Sabha?
A. One
B. Two
C. Three years
D. Four
1711. On the subject of budget, demands for grant are arranged in which way?
A. Prime Minister
B. Finance Minister
C. Ministry wise
D. All the above
1712. In India, when does the financial year commence?

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A. First April
B. Second April
C. First March
D. Fifteenth March
1713. In which session of Parliament, Railway and General Budgets are presented?
A. Monsoon session
B. First session
C. Winter session
1714. Which session of the year, President addresses both the Houses of Parliament?
A. First session (Budget)
B. Second session (Monsoon)
C. Third session (Winter)
1715. Normally, what kind of session does the Parliament hold?
A. Budget session
B. Monsoon session
C. Winter session
D. All the above
1716. Lok Sabha has the supremacy in which matter?
A. Railway Budget

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B. Defence Budget
C. Foreign affairs
D. Financial Bill
1717. Which article of the Constitution of India mentioned the posts of the Chairman and Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabah?
A. 90
B. 89
C. 93
D. 94
1718. Which law officer shall have the right to speak in both the Houses of Parliament?
A. Solicitor General
B. Advocate General
C. Attorney General
D. Legal Advisor
1719. Within which period the President has to summon session of the Parliament?
A. 5 months
B. 6 months
C. 4 months
D. 3 months
1720. Under whose advice, the President shall have the power of summoning, prorogation and
dissolution?
A. Home Minister

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B. Prime Minister
C. Council of Ministers
D. Parliamentary Affairs Ministers
1721. What activities does the President perform in respect of both the Houses of the Parliament?
A. Time to time to summon each of Parliaments
B. Prorogue either of the Houses of the Parliament
C. Dissolve the Lok Sabha
D. All the above
1722. Representative of Union territories in the Council of State shall be chosen, in such a manner as
decided by:
A. As prescribed by law in the Assembly
B. As prescribed by law by State
C. As prescribed by law by the Union
D. As prescribed by law in the Parliament
1723. Members of Rajya Sabha are elected by which members?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Legislative Assembly
C. Council of State
1724. Which Prime Minister of India imposed President Rule for more number of times?
A. Jawahar Lal Nehru
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri

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C. N. D. Deva Gowda
D. Indira Gandhi
1725. In which two Lok Sabha Women Representation was equal
A. First and Sixth Lok Sabha
B. First and Eighth Lok Sabha
C. First and Fifth Lok Sabha
D. First and Ninth Lok Sabha
1726. In the First Lok Sabha how many seats were:
A. 500
B. 499
C. 544
D. 521
1727. In the First lok Sabha what was the Representation of Women?
A. 27
B. 34
C. 22
D. 39
1728. When was the First Lock Sabha dissolved?
A. 4th April 1957
B. 3rd April 1957
C. 6th April 1957

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D. 8th April 1907
1729. Who said ‘As President, I have no eyes but constitutional eyes. I cannot see you’?
A. Dr. Rajaendra Prasad
B. Dr. Radhakrishnan
C. Abraham Lincoln
D. Mahatma Gandhi
1730. Who was the First Lok Sabah Speaker unanimously elected:
A. Hukam Singh
B. Dr. G.S. Dhillon
C. M.A. Ayyangar
D. B.R. Bhagat
1731. Who was the Prime Minister at the time of Second Lok Sabha:
A. Lal Bahadur Shastri
B. Pt. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. Narsimha Rao
D. I.K. Gujral
1732. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the First Lok Sabha:
A. M.A. Ayyangar
B. Sardar Hukam Singh
C. M. Thambidurai
D. None of above

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1733. Who was the Deputy Speaker of the Constituent Assembly (Legislative):
A. Shivaraj Patil
B. G. Laxman
C. S.V. Krishnamurthy Rao
D. M.A Ayyangar
1734. Who was the last Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly during the British Period?
A. Sir Muhammad Yamin Khan
B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
D. Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty
1735. Before Indian Independence, how was the Post of Deputy Speaker in the Central Legislative
Assembly called:
A. Vice President
B. Vice Chairman
C. Deputy President
1736. Under the British Rule, who was the First Deputy President of Central Legislative Assembly:
A. Shri Sachchidananda Sinha
B. Shri Abdul Matia Chaudhary
C. Sir Muhammad Yakub
D. Shri R. R. Shamnukhaym Chetty

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1737. Sanjiva Reddy became President of India on:
A. 25th July 1977
B. 25th August 1977
C. 30th August 1977
D. None of them
1738. No bill becomes an act unless:
A. Signed by President
B. Ratified by the Supreme Court
C. Referendum is held on it
D. None of them
1739. The exercise of the military powers of the president is regulated by: _________?
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. Rajya Sabha
D. None of them
1740. The President of India upon entering his office takes oath:
A. Before the Prime Minister
B. Before the joint-sitting of the parliament
C. Before the Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
D. None of them
1741. The term of the president of India is: __________?

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A. Four years
B. Five years
C. Six years
D. Unlimited
1742. The president of India is elected:
A. Directly by the people
B. By an electoral college
C. By an electoral college comprising both houses of the parliament and all state assemblies
D. None of them
1743. Article 52 of the constitution provides for the president to be: _____________?
A. Head of the state
B. Executive head of the state
C. Titular head of the state
D. None of them
1744. In the Constituent Assembly, which committee recommended that Indian Constitution adopt
Parliamentary Form of Executive:
A. Drafting Committee
B. Constitutional Committee
C. Union Constitution Committee
D. All the above
1745. In the Constituent Assembly, it was said that Parliament of the Federation shall consist of the
President and what else:

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A. National Legislature
C. House of people
D. Council of State
1746. In the Constituent Assemble which words were associated with the Parliament?
A. Parliament of the Legislature
B. Parliament of the Union
C. Parliament of the Federation
D. All the above
1747. The Indian Supreme Court was inaugurated :
A. On 15th August 1947
B. On 26th January 1950
C. On 26th December 1950
D. None of them
1748. The presiding officer of the state assembly:
A. Is a Speaker
B. Chairman
C. Secretary
1749. The Speaker of Lok Sabha maintains a penal of: ___________?
A. Four chairmen

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B. Five chairmen
C. Six chairmen
1750. The speaker can preside the house:
A. In all events
B. Only during budget session
C. But when his removal is discussed
D. None of them
1751. Presiding Officer of the Lok Sabha is: _________?
A. Chairman
B. Prime Minister
C. Speaker
D. None of them
1752. The normal life of Lok Sabha is: ___________?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. 7 years
1753. The Ministers are responsible to: __________?
A. Lok Sabha only
B. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

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C. Rajya Sabha only
D. None of them
1754. The Ex-offioio chairman of the council of states is: _________?
A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Vice-President of India
D. None of them
1755. A candidate for council of states must:
A. Be of 25 years
B. Not be less than 30 years
C. Must be 35 years
D. None of them
1756. Member of the council states are elected for:
A. Six years
B. Four years
C. Three years
D. Five years
1757. After Indian Independence who represented Provisional Parliament?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Parliament
C. Rajya Sabha

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D. Constituent Assembly
1758. Who was the first Speaker of free India’s first Legislature (Constituent Assembly)?
A. G.V.Mavalankar
B. K.M.Munshi
C. Frank Anthony
D. Smt. Sarojini Naidu
1759. During which period, Constituent Assembly of India worked?
A. 1948-1950
B. 1949-1951
C. 1947-1949
D. 1951-1952
1760. What was the name of India’s First Legislature?
A. Parliament
B. Union Parliament
C. Constituent Assembly
D. National Assembly
1761. In the Constituent Assembly, when was the ad-hoc Committee appointed for the National Flag?
A. 23rd June 1937
B. 23rd July 1947
C. 23rd Jan 1947
D. 23rd Feb 1947

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1762. In the Constituent Assembly who proposed the name of Dr. Rajendra Prasad as President of
India?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Patel
C. A & B
1763. Who elected Dr. Rajendra Prasad as the First President of India?
A. Constituent Assembly
B. Legislative Assembly
C. Council of State
D. Lok Sabha
1764. In the Constituent Assembly, what was the number of population fixed for one Representative?
A. 7,500
B. 7,50,000
C. 50,000
D. 78,500
1765. In the Constituent Assembly, how many seats were fixed for House of People?
A. 500
B. 400
C. 300
D. 250

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1766. Money bill can originate:
A. Both in the state council and state assembly
B. Only in the state council
C. Only in the state assembly
D. None of them
1767. The members of the legislative council:
A. Are elected by states residents directly
B. Are elected by different electoral colleges
C. Are nominated by Chief Minister
D. None of them
1768. The Portfolios of state Ministers are allocated by the: ___________?
A. Governor and his council of Ministers
B. Prime Minister
C. Chief Minister
D. None of these
1769. The age of the Governor at the time of appointment must be: ____________?
A. 30 years
B. 35 years
C. 40 years
D. 32 years
1770. The Governor is appointed:

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A. For an indefinite period
B. For a period of five years
C. For a period of six years
D. None of them
1771. The state executive consists of:
A. Governor and his council of Ministers
B. Governor and Chief Ministers
C. Governor and his council of Minister
D. None of these
1772. Ninety-fourth Amendment in Indian Constitution was passed in: ___________?
A. 2006
B. 2002
C. 2009
D. 2010
1773. Second Amendment in Indian Constitution was passed in ______________?
A. 1951
B. 1953
C. 1954
D. 1952
1774. First Amendment in Indian Constitution was passed in: ____________?
A. Jun-51

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B. Jul-50
C. Aug-51
D. Sep-54
1775. The Supreme personality in India is: ___________?
A. Prime Minister of India
B. President of India
C. Speaker of India
1776. The Prime Minister shall be appointed the president according to article:
A. 70 of the constitution
B. 72 of the constitution
C. 75 of the constitution
D. None of them
1777. In absence of the Vice-President Rajya Sabha meetings are presided by:
A. Prime Minister
B. Speaker of Lok Sabha
C. Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
D. Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
1778. In the election of the Vice-President:
A. Only elected members of the parliament can take part
B. Only nominated members of the parliament can take part

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C. Both elected and nominated members can take part
D. None of them
1779. The Vice-President is elected by: _____________?
A. Proportional representation by means of a single transferable vote of the both house of the Indian
Parliament
B. Simple representation by both house of the Parliament
C. Simple majority method by state assemblies
1780. Indian federation was originally consisted of: __________?
A. 28 seats
B. 30 seats
C. 32 seats
D. 26 seats
1781. The direct principles of state policy of Indian constitution has been borrowed from:
A. American constitution
B. French constitution
C. Irish constitution
D. None of these
1782. The Indian council of states is:
A. The lower chamber of Indian Parliament
B. Dissolved after every five years
C. A permanent house

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D. None of them
1783. The Indian parliament is:
A. Not a sovereign parliament like British parliament
B. A sovereign parliament like British parliament
C. Sovereign parliament like US parliament
D. None of these
1784. Constitutionally, who has the power to make a law on the subject mentionable in the Union
List?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Parliament
C. Rajya Sabha
1785. How many Schedules are incorporated in the Constitution of India?
A. Eleventh Schedule
B. Tenth Schedule
C. Ninth Schedule
D. Twelfth Schedule
1786. Under Article 356 Governor shall not be bound by whose advice?
A. Chief Minister Council of Ministers
B. President
C. Prime Minister

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WWW.
1787. The Constitution of India, was drafted and enacted in which language?
A. Hindi
B. English
C. Tamil
D. Telugu
1788. Who declares the financial emergency?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Finance Minister
1789. After declaration of financial emergency by the President, what is the period of operation
without approval by the parliament?
A. 3 months
B. 4 months
C. 2 months
D. 1 month
1790. Within what period, the Parliament has to approve financial emergency declared by the
President
A. 6 Months
B. 2 Months
C. 3 Months

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D. 4 Months
1791. Who appoints Chief Election Commissioner?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. None of these
1792. Who acts as the Chairman of the Election Commission after appointment as Election
Commissioner?
A. Prime Minister
B. Home Minister
C. Cheif Appointment Officer
D. Chief Election Commissioner
1793. Before which Constitutional Amendment, 20 years were fixed for reservation of seats for
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in Lok Sabha and State Legislature:
A. 23rd amendment Act 1969
B. 8th Amendment Act 1956
C. 44th Amendment Act 1978
D. 45th Amendment Act 1980
1794. At the time of commencement of the Indian Community how many years were laid down for
appointment to the post in the Railways, Customs, Postal & Telegraph services for the Anglo-Indian
community:
A. 2 years
B. 5 years

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C. 4 years
D. 6 years
1795. Which Constitutional Article defines the SC of India?
A. Article 345
B. Article 346
C. Article 341
D. Article 342
1796. Who make composition of Panchayat under Indian Constitutional Article 243(C)?
A. State Assembly
B. Lok Sabha
C. Council of State
D. Legislature of State
1797. Which Constitutional Article lays down distribution of work through the Union List, State List,
and Concurrent List between the Union and State?
A. 246
B. 247
C. 248
D. 249
1798. The first Chief Justice of the Indian Supreme Court was: ___________?
A. Justice Aiyar
B. Justice Carnelias

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C. Justice Kania
D. Justice Abdul Rashid
1799. For how many years, months and days, did the Constituent Assembly work on the Constitution
of India:
A. 2 years, 11 months and 19 days
B. 3 years, 12 months and 16 days
C. 4 years, 18 months and 6 dyas
1800. How many number of sessions were held in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. Twenty sessions
B. Twelve sessions
C. Twenty-five sessions
D. Twenty-eight sessions
1801. How many Articles and Schedules were in the First Draft Constitution presented by the
Drafting Committee to the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. 318 Articles and 7 Schedules
B. 319 Articles and 10 Schedules
C. 315 Article and 8 Schedules
D. 399 Articles and 5 Schedules
1802. In the Constituent Assembly of India how many total number of Amendments were proposed
in the Draft Constitution :
A. Approx. 7935
B. Approx. 7892

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C. Approx 7365
D. Approx. 2473
1803. How many visitors came to witness the proceedings of the Constituent Assembly?
A. 52,500
B. 53,000
C. 54,000
D. 54,500
1804. Who presented the Objective Resolution in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Motilal Nehru
C. Sardar Ballabah Bhai Patel
1805. When was the First Draft of the Constitution of India proposed?
A. Oct-45
B. Oct-47
C. Oct-46
D. Oct-48
1806. Who prepared the first draft Constitution of India?
B. Gandhiji
C. Advisory Branch of the Constituent Assembly

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D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
1807. Who was the Chairman of the Draft Committee of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
B. K.M. Munshi
C. Jagjivan Ram
1808. What was the draft Constitution of India prepared by the Drafting Committee submitted to the
President of the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. 28th Feb 1948
B. 26th Feb 1948
C. 21th Feb 1948
D. 25th Feb 1948
1809. When was the Second Reading of the Constitution completed in the Constituent Assembly of
India?
A. 18 Nov 1949
B. 17 Nov 1949
C. 15 Nov 1949
D. 16 Nov 1949
1810. How many readings were held on the Constitution in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. First Reading
B. Third reading
C. Seond Reading

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WWW.
1811. When was the Constitution of India adopted by the Constituent Assembly?
A. 25th Nov 1949
B. 29th Nov 1949
C. 26th Nov 1949
D. 27th Nov 1949
1812. How many Princely States existed at the time when the Constituent Assembly was making the
Constitution?
A. 600
B. 800
C. 900
D. 960
1813. Who states, ‘As to the execution that the Draft Constitution has produced a good part of the
provisions of the Government of India Act 1935, make no apologies. There is nothing to be ashamed
of in Borrowing:
A. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
B. Jawhar Lal Nehru
C. Gandhiji
D. Dr. Ambekar
1814. Who said, ‘If the people who are elected are capable and men of character and integrity, they
would be able to make the best even of a defective Constitution. If they are lacking in these, the
Constitution cannot help the country:
A. Sardar Hukam Singh

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B. K. M. Munshi
C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
D. Sardar Ballabh Bhai Patel
1815. When was the election to the Constituent Assembly of India held?
A. July 1946
B. Aug 1946
C. Sep 1946
D. Oct 1946
1816. In the Constituent Assembly of India how many seats were got by the Congress:
A. 204
B. 205
C. 203
D. 208
1817. How many seats were obtained by the Muslim League in the Constituent Assembly of India:
A. 74
B. 75
C. 73
D. 76
1818. How many seats were acquired by the other parties in the Constituent Assembly of India?
A. 14
B. 15

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C. 17
D. 18
1819. How many total members were elected in the Constituent Assembly:
A. 296
B. 293
C. 291
D. 292
1820. In the Parliament of India Upper House in known as __________?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Council of States
1821. In the Parliament of India , Lower House is called as: _________?
A. Legislative Assembly
B. Legislative Council
C. Rajya Sabha
D. Lok Sabha (House of People)
1822. In the Constituent Assembly of India, who was the Head of the Union Constitution Committee:
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Sardar Patel
C. Subhash Buse

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WWW.
1823. The residuary powers in India are given to: ____________?
A. The state government
B. Union government
C. Princely states
D. None of them
1824. The constitution of India came into force:
A. On November 26, 1949
B. January 5,1950
C. January 26,1950
D. March 23,1951
1825. A drafting committee of seven members was set up with ______ its chairman to make
constitution for India:
A. V.B Patel
B. Parsad
C. Dr. Ambedkar
D. None of them
1826. First amendment in the constitution of India was made in: _________?
A. June. 1951
B. August. 1952
C. September. 1953

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D. None of them
1827. The seventy fifth amendment in the Indian constitution was made in:___________?
A. 1980
B. 1982
C. 1983
D. 1981
1828. Through which Indian Constitutional Amendment, Municipalities continued to be in force in

the state which existed before commencement of the Indian constitution?
A. Seventy-fourth Amendment Act 1992
B. Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1978
C. Forty-fourth Amendment Act 1989
D. Forty-seventh Amendment Act 1984
1829. Which Constitutional Article of India defines Election to Municipalities?
A. Article 243A
B. Article 243ZA
C. Article 243ZB
D. ArticleP
1830. Which Constitutional Article of India defines constitution of Municipalities?
A. Article 243M
B. Article 243N
C. Article 243L

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D. Article 243Q
1831. Which Constitutional Article of india define Municipalities:
A. Article 243P
B. Article 2430
C. Article 243T
D. Article 243U
1832. Which Constitutional Article defines the duration of the Panchayat
A. Article 243N
B. Article 2430
C. Article 243E
D. Article 2438
1833. Which Constitutional Article defines disqualification for the members of Panchayat:
A. Article 243F
B. Article 243G
C. Article 243L
1834. Under article 169, article 169, parliament of india can:
A. Dissolve the state assembly
B. Appoint state assembly
C. Entirely change the composition of state
D. None of them

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WWW.
1835. The Indian state is financially:
A. Independent of the centre
B. Sub-ordinate to the centre
C. Equal to the centre
D. None of these
1836. There are _______ lists of governmental function in Indian constitution:
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
1837. The states were devided into _______ categories by Indian constitution:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
1838. Unger which Schedule of the Constitution every member of Parliament takes oath or
affirmation?
A. First
B. Third
C. Fifth
D. Sixth

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WWW.
1839. Under which Article Conduct of Business of Parliament is mentioned?
A. Article 99
B. Article 93
C. Article 76
D. Article 92
1840. In which schedule of the Constitution salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy
Chairman of Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha are specified?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
1841. Who fixes salaries and allowances for the Chairman and Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
and the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Members of the Parliament
D. Parliament by law
1842. How can member of Parliament resign from his seat?
A. By speaking in the House
B. By an announcement in the Press
C. By writing under his signature addressed to the Chairman or the Speaker
D. All the above

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1843. What members of the Parliament cannot represent?
A. Members of Lok Sabha
B. Members of Rajya Sabha
C. Members of Legislative Assembly
D. Members of both Houses of Parliament
1844. Under which Article of the Constitution, the Council of State (Rajya Sabha) has a Chairman
and Deputy Chairman?
A. Article 109
B. Article 108
C. Article 89
D. Article 91
1845. In the absence of the speaker who performs the duties of transacting the business in Lok
Sabha?
A. Deputy Speaker
B. Prime Minister
C. Members of Parliament
D. Parliamentary Affairs Minister
1846. Who is the Head to transact the business of the Lok Sabha?
A. Prime Minister
B. Members of Lok Sabha
C. Speaker
D. President

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WWW.
1847. Which article of the Indian Constitution mentioned the posts of Speaker and Deputy Speaker
of the House of People?
A. Article 96
B. Article 93
C. Article 91
D. Article 96
1848. Who was the Speaker of the Sixth Lok Sabha?
A. N. Sanjiva Reddy
B. K.S.Hegde
C. Both (a) and (b)
1849. Which Indian President was the Speaker of the Fourth Lok Sabha?
A. S.D.Sharma
B. Dr. Rajendra Prasad
C. N.Sanjiva Reddy
D. Dr. S. Radhakrishanan man
1850. Who was the Speaker of the second Lok Sabha?
A. K.S.Hegde
B. M.A.Ayyangar
C. Salman Khurshid
D. Rabi Roy

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WWW.
1851. Who appoints the Governor in India?
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Parliament
D. None of these
1852. After the death of Shri G. V. Mavrlankar who became the Speaker of the first Lok Sabha?
A. M.A. Ayyangar
B. K.S. Hegde
C. N. Sanjiva Reddy
1853. Who was the first Indian to be the President of Central Legislative Assembly?
A. M. A. Ayyanger
B. B.R. Bhagat
C. Dr. Balarm Jakhar
D. Vithalbhai J., Patel
1854. Who was the last President of the Indian Central Legislative Assembly during the British time?
A. G.V.Mavalankar
B. Abdul Rahim
C. Sir R. K. Shanumukham Chetty
1855. Who was the Speaker of the Constituent Assembly?

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A. Sir Abdul Rahim
B. G.V.Mavalankar
C. M.A.Ayyangar
D. Sir Ibrahim Rahim Toola
1856. Who was the first President of Central Legislative Assembly before India was Independent?
A. Sir Frederick Whyte
B. Sir C.H. Seetalbad
C. Sardar Patel
D. Sir Monammad Yakub
1857. Under which act, the Bicameral Central Legislature was established during the British period
for the first time?
A. Govt. Of India Act 1938
B. The Indian Council Act 1861
C. Govt. Of India Act 1919
D. Govt. Of India \Act 1935
1858. When was the title ‘Speaker’ assumed in India:
A. 1947
B. 1948
C. 1949
D. 1946
1859. Till 1920 who presided over the Legislative Council of India:

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A. Speaker
B. Deputy Speaker
C. Governor
D. Governor General
1860. When did the origin and evolution of the office of Speaker start in India:
A. In Hindu period
B. In British Period
C. In Maghal period
1861. Who was the father of the Lok Sabha:
A. Hukam Singh
B. N.Sanjiva Readdy
C. G.S.Dhillon
D. G.V.Mavalankar
1862. Who was the chairman of the Rajya Sabha at the time of fist Lok Sabha:
A. N.C.Chatterjee
B. Dr.S.Radhakrishnan
C. A.K.Gopalan
D. Mahavir Tyagi
1863. Who was the first Speaker of the First Lok Sabha of India?
A. G.V. Mavalankar

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B. C.D.Deshmukh
C. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan
D. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
1864. Who was the Minister of Home Affairs in the first Lok Sabha of india?
A. Jagjivan Ram
B. C.D.Deshmukh
C. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
D. Abdul Kalam Azad
1865. Who was the Prime Minister of India in the first Lok Sabha:
A. Pandit Govind Ballabh Pant
B. Jawahar Lal Nehru
C. Abdul Kalam Azad
D. C.D.Deshmukh
1866. When did the first Lok Sabha function:
A. 1952-1956
B. 1953-1957
C. 1952-1957
D. None of these
1867. From which area, more members were represented in the Provisional Parliament:
A. Rural area
B. Urban area

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C. Municipalities
D. Panchayats
1868. Which occupation was represented more in the Provisional Parliament
A. Agriculturists
B. Businessmen
C. Teachers/Academicians
D. Lawyers
1869. Who was the Deputy Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament?
B. Sardar Ballabh Bahi Patel
C. Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
D. Gulzarilal Nanda
1870. Who was the first Prime Minister of India at the time of Provisional Parliament?
B. Lal Bahadur Shastri
C. Indira Gandhi
D. Rajiv Gandhi
1871. In India who amended the Constitution through the first Amendment Bill 1951?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. Provisional Parliament

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D. Parliament
1872. In the Provisional Parliament of India, how many members were there?
A. 296
B. 313
C. 318
D. 316
1873. After Indian Independence, what was not Provisional Parliament provided:
A. Directly Elected Body
B. Sovereign Body
C. Indirectly Elected Body
1874. When did India become a fully Sovereign Democratic Republic?
A. 26th Nov 1949
B. 26th Nov 1930
C. 26th Jan 1950
D. 26th Nov 1951
1875. The constitution of India gives every citizens the right to move Supreme Court:
A. To interpret constitution
B. To enforce fundamental right
C. To give him permission to establish his own party
D. None of these

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WWW.
1876. The system of election in India is: _____________?
A. Mixed electorate
B. Separate electorate
C. Joint electorate
D. None of these
1877. The Indian act of 1935 was amended :
A. As the Indian Independence act of 1947
B. As the Indian federation act of 1940
C. As the Indian self govt. Act of 1946
D. None of these
1878. Indian Constitution consists of: _________?
A. 250 articles
B. 300 articles
C. 395 articles
D. 470 articles
1879. The words secular to the preamble was added by the: ___________?
A. First amendment of the constitution
B. Fifteen the amendment of the constitution
C. Forty second amendment of the constitution
D. None of these

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1880. The states have: __________?
A. Independent position in administrative metters
B. Supreme position in administrative matters
C. Sub-ordinate position in administrative matters
D. None of these
1881. The states in India: _________?
A. Are independent of court
B. Are indestructible without their consent
C. Are supreme to the Indian union
D. None of these
1882. The First elections in India held in: ___________?
A. 1949
B. 1951
C. 1952
D. 1955
1883. Indian Federation consists 28 states and: __________?
A. 8 union territories
B. 14 union territories
C. 21 union territories
D. 28 union territories

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1884. Indian Constitution consists of 470 articles and: ___________?
A. 5 schedules
B. 7 schedules
C. 9 schedules
D. 12 schedules
1885. In India the Governor of the State is appointed by:
A. The Prime Minister
B. The President
C. The Vice-President
D. The Home Minister
1886. A Money Bill can be introduced only in: ___________?
A. The Rajya Sabha
B. The Lok Sabha
C. The Legislative Council
D. None of these
1887. The Indian Prime Minister is appointed by: ____________?
A. The Governor
B. The Speaker
C. The Home Minister
D. The President

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1888. The president of India is indirectly elected for a term of: ______________?
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 6 years
D. None of these
1889. Article 124 of Indian Constitution creates: _____________?
A. The Supreme Court
B. The Parliament
C. The Legislative Assembly
D. The Council of Ministers
1890. In India, there is: __________?
A. Single Judiciary system
B. Double Judiciary system
C. Multi-Judiciary system
D. None of these
1891. Articles 37 to 51 of the Indian Constitution deal with:
A. Executive
B. Directive Principles
C. Judiciary
D. Fundamental Rights
1892. Articles 12 to 34 of the Indian Constitution deal with:

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A. Judiciary
B. Executive
C. Fundamental Rights
D. Directive Principles
1893. In India residuary powers have been vested in:
A. The Centre
B. The States
C. The Districts
D. None of these
1894. Every Indian citizen has the right to vote at the age of: ___________?
A. 18
B. 21
C. 23
D. None of these
1895. Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution establishes a bicameral parliament:
A. Article 19
B. Article 38
C. Article 56
D. Article 79
1896. Indian Parliament is: __________?

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A. Unicameral
B. Bicameral
C. Tricameral
D. None of these
1897. India Act of 1935 came into force on: __________?
A. January 1,1935
B. May 4,1936
C. April 1,1937
D. July 17,1938
1898. The type of bonds which does not have U.S treasury as collateral and are swapped for
outstanding loans are classified as _____________?
A. collateral bonds
B. sovereign bonds
C. primary bonds
D. secondary bonds
1899. The investors who want cash flows in near terms shows preference for__________?
A. interest portion of RIAPS
B. interest portion of STORI
C. interest portion of STRIPS
D. interest portion of bonds
1900. The call premium is added to face value of the bond to calculate: _____________?

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A. call price of bond
B. premium price of bond
C. call price of stock
D. discounted price of stock
1901. The single bid auction of TIPS securities mean that all bidders _____________?
A. pays indexed prices
B. pays same price
C. pays different price
D. pays inflated prices
1902. The type of bonds which is fully backed by credit and faith of issuer is classified as
__________?
A. general obligation tax
B. general obligation savings
C. general obligation bonds
D. general obligation notes
1903. The price of treasury notes and treasury bonds without including accrued interest is classified
as ____________?
A. clean price
B. full price
C. dirty price
D. accrued price
1904. As compared to public issues, the interest premiums on privately placed issues overtime have
_____________?

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A. increased
B. increased floatation rate
C. decreased
D. zero interest coupon
1905. The type of sale in which the investment bank got the rights to underwrite, distribute and
originate new bonds is classified as __________?
A. least effort sale
B. effortless sale
C. negotiated sale
D. negotiated sale
1906. The bonds rated lower than triple-B bonds by the ‘Standard and Poor’s’ are considered as
______________?
A. split bonds
B. automated bonds
C. junk bonds
D. sinking bonds
1907. The current market price is multiplied to the conversion rate received on conversion to
calculate ?
A. conversion value
B. current value
C. market value
D. stock value
1908. The reason of default risk on municipal bonds is because of ___________?

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A. economic recession
B. economically indexed
C. not economically indexed
D. active trading
1909. Considering the ratings, the bonds that have lowest spread of interest as compared to similar
maturity in Treasury Securities are classified as ______________?
A. triple B rating bonds
B. triple A rating bonds
C. double A rating bonds
D. double A rating bonds
1910. The bond which is used as insurer to protect investors against the interest rate risk, is classified
as ___________?
A. zero coupon treasury notes
B. zero coupon treasury bonds
C. One payment bonds
D. zero treasurer bonds
1911. According to the bond holder point of view, the bonds issued with sinking fund provision are
classified as __________?
A. floating risk discount
B. less risky
C. more risky
D. floating risk premium
1912. The coupon rate on Treasury Inflation Protection Securities is determined by _________?

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A. discount buying
B. premium selling
C. auction process
D. direct selling
1913. In the dimension of default risk, the municipal bonds are considered as ___________?
A. default risk free
B. not default risk free
C. not indexed
D. must be indexed
1914. The convertible bonds are considered as hybrid bonds because they have properties of
_____________?
A. debts
B. common equity
C. both debt and equity
D. ordinate and subordinated
1915. The financial institutions generally such as insurance companies and banks are prohibited to
buy anything but __________?
A. split grade bonds
B. investment grade bond securities
C. portfolio grade bonds
D. sinking grade bonds
1916. The type of provision which forces bond holders to sell bonds to issuer at value above than par
is classified as ___________?

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A. discount premium
B. discount provision
C. call premium
D. call provision
1917. The situation in which the investment bank faces no risk of mispricing regarding security is
considered as __________?
A. least good premium
B. least good discount price
C. best efforts offering
D. least good index
1918. The bonds which are classified as junk bond status and have previously considered as
investment grade bonds are called __________?
A. risen angel
B. fallen angel
C. fallen devil
D. risen devil
1919. To make the promised payments, the federal money can _______________?
A. raise taxes
B. print money
C. increase labor hours
D. both A and B
1920. If the price at which stock is purchased exceeds the market value then the stock warrants will
____________?

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A. be exercised
B. not be exercised
C. be discounted
D. not be discounted
1921. The principal amount in the Treasury Inflation Protection Securities is considered as
____________?
A. tax adjusted principal
B. inflation adjusted principal
C. auction adjusted principal
D. premium adjusted principal
1922. The call premium of bond is $630 and the call price of bond is $240 then face value of the bond
is _____________?
A. 0.0263
B. 870
C. 390
D. 2.63
1923. The risk associated with Eurobonds and usually bears by underwriters is related to _________?
A. company annual sale
B. future sale of bonds
C. past sale of bonds
D. initial sale of bond
1924. The value of option issued to call debt is $940 and return rate on callable bond is $480 then
return rate on non-callable bond is __________?

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A. 460
B. 1520
C. 1420
D. 1620
1925. The suppliers and demanders of the long term investment funds work closely in ____________?
A. bond markets
B. classical set markets
C. open end markets
D. close end markets
1926. The issued bond which is considered as hybrid bond is called _______________?
A. non-convertible bonds
B. premium convertible bonds
C. discount convertible bonds
D. convertible bonds
1927. The foreign bonds that are issued before the Eurobonds are also called as ___________?
A. traditional international bonds
B. traditional local bonds
C. traditional global bonds
D. traditional currency bonds
1928. When the bonds are called and redeem, they must be ceased to ___________?
A. earn interest

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B. pay interest
C. earn floating rate
D. earn funding rate
1929. The year in which the Eurobonds are issued for the first time in financial markets is
______________?
A. 1963
B. 1953
C. 1983
D. 1962
1930. The type of markets which trades underwritten bonds syndicated by some other countries is
A. international markets
B. national markets
C. local markets
D. state markets
1931. The non-competitive bids of securities are submitted through the ____________?
A. federal savings bank
B. state savings banks
C. Federal Reserve banks
D. state reserve banks
1932. In the US treasury, the inflation indexed bond is classified as ___________?
A. treasury inflation protection securities

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B. treasury inflation protection notes
C. treasury inflation commercial papers
D. inflation coupon protection securities
1933. The number of covenants related to issued bonds are included in ___________?
A. private indenture
B. bond indenture
C. long term indenture
D. federal indenture
1934. The types of notes and bonds issued by Treasury are ___________?
A. fixed principal
B. inflation indexed
C. coupon index
D. both A and B
1935. The bonds with coupon are attached to the bond for paying the interest when it becomes due
are classified as
A. trustee bonds
B. local bonds
C. bearer bonds
D. nearer bonds
1936. In the New York Stock exchange, the fully automated information and trading system which
allows to execute orders for bonds is classified as _________?
A. secondary stock system

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B. primary stock system
C. automated stock system
D. automated bond system
1937. The information about the sovereign borrowers and corporate borrowers is generated by the
__________?
A. bond rating agencies
B. bond issuance agencies
C. federal placement
D. private pavement agencies
1938. The holders of debentures receive their payments or bonds yields only after the holders of
___________?
A. registered debt holders
B. secured debt holders
C. unsecured debt holders
D. unregistered debt holders
1939. For municipal bonds, the trading in secondary markets are classified as ___________?
A. infrequent origination
B. static trading
C. frequent trading
D. infrequent trading
1940. The municipal bonds are traded to finance _____________?
A. short term capital outlays

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B. long term capital outlays
C. long term finance outlays
D. long term bonds outlays
1941. The type of bonds that have tangible property as a collateral are classified as ___________
A. collateral security
B. commercial trust notes
C. equipment trust certificates
D. equipment bonds
1942. The temporary imbalances between operating receipts and operating expenditures are funded
with the help of __________?
A. state bonds
B. federal bonds
C. municipal bonds
D. reserve bonds
1943. The private placement of issues are considered as ____________?
A. registered issue
B. unregistered issue
C. federal issue
D. negotiable issue
1944. The rate of return on non-callable bonds is $890 and value of issuer option is $670 then the
return on callable bond is ___________
A. 0.0133

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B. 1560
C. 220
D. 1.33
1945. The denominations in which Eurobonds are issued are _____________?
A. $10000 and $20000
B. $5000 and $10000
C. $6000 and $11000
D. $8000 and $15000
return rate on non-callable bond is ____________?
A. 1210
B. 1010
C. 130
D. 1020
1947. The STRIPS are used effectively to receive?
A. One set of payment
B. Two sets of payments
C. Three sets of payments
D. Four sets of payments
1948. If the bonds are used as an investment vehicle by the investors of institutions then the bond
must be ___________?
A. automated

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B. discounted
C. rated
D. stocked
1949. The conversion values is $7000 and the conversion rate received on stock conversion is 370 then
current market price of stock is __________?
A. 16.92
B. 18.92
C. 13.92
D. 11.92
return on callable bond is
A. 230
B. 0.0152
C. 1.52
D. 1130
1951. The yields of the municipal bonds is __________?
A. after tax rate of return
B. before tax rate of return
C. corporative rate of return
D. federal rate of return
1952. The bond which is denominated in dollars and is issued in European financial markets is
considered as __________?

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A. Australian bonds
B. Eurobonds
C. interbank bonds
D. interbank bonds
1953. The private placed stock and privately placed bonds are considered as _____________?
A. most illiquid securities
B. most liquid securities
C. least liquid securities
D. least illiquid securities
1954. The bonds that can be exchanged with the other stock issued by the same firm are classified as
____________?
A. discount convertible bonds
B. convertible bonds
C. non-convertible bonds
D. premium convertible bonds
return on callable bond is _____________?
A. 120
B. 0.0148
C. 620
D. 1.48
1956. In firm commitment underwriting, the securities issued are then sold to investors at relatively
__________?

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A. higher price
B. lower price
C. indexed price
D. commercial price
1957. The thin trading of municipal bonds in secondary markets is because of ___________?
A. excess of information
B. lack of information
C. frequent information
D. infrequent information
1958. The foreign bonds issued in United States financial institutions are classified as ____________?
A. bull dog bonds
B. bull cat bonds
C. Yankee bonds
D. samurai bonds
1959. The interest rate on Eurobonds are paid ______________?
A. monthly
B. quarterly
C. annually
D. semiannually
1960. The bonds that are usually unsecured and are only backed by worthiness of issuing firm are
classified as ____________?

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A. untimed indentures
B. untimed debentures
C. indentures
D. debentures
1961. The treasury securities are exempted from __________?
A. federal taxes
B. local and state taxes
C. federal discounts
D. deferral premium
1962. When characteristics of bonds are perceived as unfavorable or favorable to the holders of the
bond, then differences of yield spread
A. must not changes
B. must changes
C. must be debited
D. must be credited
1963. The foreign bonds issued in United Kingdom financial institutions are classified as
____________?
A. Yankee bonds
B. samurai bonds
C. bull dog bonds
D. Euro bonds
1964. The type of bonds in which whole issues get mature on a single date is considered as
___________?

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A. term bonds
B. under bonds
C. collateral bonds
D. trustworthy bonds
1965. The firms that attach bonds to the stock warrants are usually_________?
A. less discounted
B. more risky
C. less risky
D. more discounted
1966. The conversion values is divided by conversion rate received on conversion on stock, to
calculate____________?
A. current market price
B. past market price
C. future market value
D. current stock value
1967. The issuance of securities in which investment bank does not guarantee back up price and act
as distributor, in planning of issue is considered as ____________?
A. best efforts offering
B. least good index
C. least good premium
D. least good discount price
1968. The value of conversion option to bond holder is $740 and the rate of return on non-convertible
bond is $540 then rate of return on convertible bond is ____________?

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A. 0.0137
B. 1280
C. 1.37
D. 200
1969. The denomination currency choice and volatility of interest rates affect the __________?
A. maturity date of euro bond
B. cost of euro bond
C. issuance process of bonds
D. process of printing money
1970. The currency in which the Eurobonds are denominated is decided by the ____________?
A. buyers of bond
B. issuers of bonds
C. close market prices
D. open market prices
1971. A financial guarantee ensure that the lander will be paid ____________?
A. principle and interest
B. debt and cash
C. capital and profit
D. cash and interest
1972. The marginal income tax rate is 28% and before tax rate of return is 14.5% then the after tax
rate of return is __________?

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A. 0.0744
B. 0.0844
C. 0.0944
D. 0.1044
1973. The marginal income tax rate is 46.8% and before tax rate of return is 15.5% then the after tax
rate of return is _____________?
A. 0.0725
B. 0.08246
C. 0.1025
D. 0.0925
1974. As compared to unsecured bonds, the mortgage bonds are considered as __________?
A. more risky
B. less risky
C. term risk
D. serial risk
1975. The main trading markets of Eurobonds are ___________?
A. London and Luxembourg
B. Australian markets
C. Swiss banks counters
D. Asian banks counters
1976. The type of bonds issued by the governments outside the home country of issuer of bond are
classified as ___________?

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A. outside bonds
B. foreign bonds
C. issuing country bonds
D. denominated bonds
1977. With the consolidation of currencies, the created liquidity allows the Eurobond:
A. price and supply to decrease
B. price and supply to increase
C. demand and size to decrease
D. demand and size to increase
1978. The call premium is $385 and the face value of the bond is $285 then the call price of bonds is
__________?
A. $100
B. $770
C. $670
D. $570
1979. The replacement of bearer bonds with registered bonds is because of lack of ______________?
A. security of indentures
B. security of unregistered bonds
C. security of bearer bonds
D. security of registered bonds
1980. The corporate bonds are also considered as __________?

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A. trustee bonds
B. registered bonds
C. unregistered bonds
D. indenture bonds
1981. In firm commitment underwriting procedure, the more risk is at the side of ___________?
A. investment bank
B. insurance firm
C. reissuing firm
D. reselling firm
is _________?
A. $1.65
B. $220
C. $900
D. $0.0165
1983. The Eurobonds are traded in _____________?
A. only in issuing country
B. stagnant exchange
C. telephonic market
D. over the counter market
1984. The legal contract which states the legal rights of seller and buyer is classified as ___________?

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A. long term indenture
B. federal indenture
C. private indenture
D. bond indenture
1985. The Eurobonds are denominated in only one currency which is ___________?
A. Canadian dollars
B. us dollars
C. Euros
D. Japanese yen
1986. The bonds used in purpose of specific projects which are financed by the collateral for issuing
bonds are classified as ___________?
A. indenture bonds
B. trustee bonds
C. collateral bonds
D. mortgage bonds
1987. The municipal bonds are more considerable to ___________?
A. full price investors
B. household investors
C. corporation investors
D. clean price investors
1988. The financial firms such as mutual fund and insurance companies are also called __________?

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A. insured financials
B. guaranteed business
C. credit business
D. business financial
1989. If the price of municipal bonds suddenly changes because of an unexpected interest rate change
then the investment bank ____________?
A. faces a high profit
B. faces a loss
C. face a inflation
D. face an index risk
1990. Besides the equity related bonds, the type of Eurobonds that are convertible are classified as
____________?
A. bonds with interbank rate
B. bonds with intra market rate
C. bonds with equity warrants
D. bonds with common stock
return rate on non-callable bond is ___________?
A. 1250
B. 1150
C. 1350
D. 410
1992. The municipal bonds public offering is often made through the ___________?

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A. insurance companies
B. index banking firm
C. commercial banking firm
D. stock exchange
1993. The several maturities dates are involved in the issued bonds if the company earnings are
A. parallel term income
B. pledged
C. volatile
D. non-volatile
bond is $350 then rate of return on convertible bond is _____________?
A. 570
B. 130
C. 670
D. 1.59
1995. Considering the bonds characteristics, the corporate and treasury bonds have many
___________?
A. different characteristics
B. similar characteristics
C. nearer characteristics
D. bearer characteristics
1996. In financial markets, the STRIPS are also classified as ___________?

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A. treasury KIBOR notes
B. treasury KIBOR bonds
C. treasury zero coupon bonds
D. treasury LIBOR bonds
1997. The debt which depict the historical accumulated record of federal government expenditures is
A. national debt
B. international debt
C. global debt
D. contraction debt
1998. In the capital markets, the instruments which are traded having maturity of more than one
year is classified as ____________?
A. contraction mortgages
B. bonds and mortgages
C. expansion bonds
D. expansion mortgages
1999. The requirement of certain amount of issued bond that must be retired every year is classified
as __________?
A. sinking fund provision
B. sinking fund premium
C. sinking fund discount
D. floating fund provision

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2000. According to best efforts offering, the investment bank in return of providing services must
________________?
A. not receive fee
B. receive fee
C. receive interest rate
D. receive market rate of return
2001. The type of bonds that are swapped to less developed country against an outstanding loan are
A. Brady bonds
B. swapped bonds
C. developed bonds
D. developing bonds
2002. The sum of purchase price and the accrued interest on treasury bonds and notes is considered
as ___________?
A. dirty price
B. clean price
C. paid price
D. unpaid price
2003. Who are the primary issuers of capital market securities?
A. Federal, local government & corporation
B. Federal corporation
C. government debts
D. stock calculator

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2004. The markets in which bonds are traded and issued are classified as ____________?
A. corporate markets
B. treasury markets
C. bond markets
D. municipal markets
2005. The bonds that are not pledged against revenue stream or specific assets are classified as
__________?
A. general obligation bonds
B. general obligation notes
C. general obligation tax
D. general obligation savings
2006. The financial institutions having loans swapped for bonds can sell all the bonds in
___________?
A. under-developed markets
B. developed markets
C. primary markets
D. secondary markets
2007. For a taxable security, the tax exempted interest rate on municipal bonds used to determine the
___________?
A. tax equivalent rate of return
B. local rate of return
C. withholding tax rate
D. general sales tax rate

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2008. The treasury security in which the final principal payment is separated from periodic interest
payment is classified as ___________?
A. STRIP
B. separated security
C. inflated security
D. coupon paid security
2009. The face value of the bond is $550 and the call price of bond is $475 then the value of call
premium is _____________?
A. 1.16
B. 1025
C. 75
D. 0.0116
2010. The foreign bonds, sovereign bonds and Eurobonds are classified as types of __________?
A. local markets
B. state markets
C. international markets
D. national markets
2011. The bonds issued for longer term and must be sold in the country whose currency is not used in
denomination of bonds are classified as __________?
A. interbank bonds
B. intrabank bonds
C. Australian bonds
D. Eurobonds

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2012. Considering the coupon rate, the Brady bonds pay:
A. higher than traditional
B. lower than promised
C. higher than promise
D. lower than traditional
current market price of stock is ____________?
A. 12.65
B. 15.65
C. 17.65
D. 20.65
2014. The banks, mutual funds and insurance companies are considered as ____________?
A. major suppliers
B. major investors
C. major portfolio holders
D. major rates decider
2015. The factors considered by rating agencies on issuing bonds are _________?
A. position in industry
B. overall financial strength
C. issuer’s profitability and liquidity
D. all of the above

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2016. In financial markets, the bond indenture results in _________?
A. lower federal rate
B. higher federal rate
C. higher risk
D. lower risk
2017. The foreign bonds issued in Japan financial institutions are classified as _________?
A. bull dog bonds
B. bull cat bonds
C. Yankee bonds
D. samurai bonds
2018. If the maturity date of the bond is closer than the premium of bond will be ________?
A. relatively lower
B. relatively higher
C. quantifiable
D. not be quantifiable
2019. The type of bond in which the coupon payment is mailed to registered bondholders and the
owner is recorded by issuing company is classified as _____________?
A. unregistered bonds
B. indenture bonds
C. trustee bonds
D. registered bonds

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2020. The names of foreign bonds are used to denote:
A. country of premium
B. country of origin
C. country of selling
D. country of discount
2021. The price accepted in single bid auction system is the one which is the __________?
A. most lowest
B. most highest
C. least lowest
D. least highest
2022. The Eurobonds are issued by financial firms to _________?
A. avoid taxes
B. avoid interest hike
C. avoid high floating rate
D. avoid portfolio issues
bond is $270 then rate of return on convertible bond is _________?
A. 0.0204
B. 2.04
C. 280
D. 820

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2024. The promised payments on the Eurobonds will be paid in the __________?
A. currency of denomination
B. currency of home country
C. currency of Australia
D. currency of local market
2025. The type of rating which all the credit rating agencies do not consider is classified as
__________?
A. split rating
B. sinking rating
C. automated rating
D. floating rating
2026. The default risk is measured by large traders, managers and investors with the help of
_________?
A. sinking analysis
B. analyzing financial ratios
C. portfolio scenario value
D. automated machine analysis
2027. The mortgage bonds issued by the corporations are considered as _________?
A. secured debt issues
B. unsecured debt issues
C. volatile debt issues
D. collateral debt issues

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2028. The bonds that are considered as junk bonds and termed as higher yield are classified as
________?
A. expansion debentures
B. premium debentures
C. subordinated debentures
D. ordinate debentures
2029. The department who is appointed by the bond holders as the representative or monitor of
bonds is considered as _________?
A. trustee
B. trust department
C. monitoring department
D. indenture department
2030. In best efforts offering, the price offered by investment banks is originally set by __________?
A. municipality
B. insurance companies
C. negotiable transactions
D. global placement
2031. The marginal income tax rate is 35% and before tax rate of return is 12.5% then the after tax
rate of return is __________?
A. 0.0613
B. 0.0713
C. 0.08125
D. 0.0913

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2032. As compared to general obligation bonds, the revenue bonds are considered as _________?
A. more inflated
B. less inflated
C. less risky
D. more risky
2033. The financial securities which are issued to finance government expenditures and national debt
are classified as _________?
A. treasury notes and bonds
B. contraction bonds
C. expansion bonds
D. dollar bonds
2034. The longer debt instrument issued by government and corporations is considered as
_________?
A. contraction bonds
B. expansion bonds
C. dollar bonds
D. bonds
2035. Finland joins NATO on: ____________?
A. 3rd April 2023
B. 4th April 2023
C. 5th April 2023
D. 6th April 2023

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2036. Russia to deploy its Nuclear Tactical Arms in which country?
A. Poland
B. Finland
C. Belarus
D. Ukraine
2037. Which country has recently voted to ban rental e-scooter?
A. Italy
B. New Zealand
C. France
D. None of these
2038. To improve the attractiveness for investors, the bonds are partially backed by ____________?
A. US.T-Bonds
B. UK-T-Bonds
C. UK-B-bonds
D. US-B-Bonds
2039. The type of Eurobonds which are convertible are considered as ___________?
A. related to international market
B. related to equity
C. related to common stock
D. related to national market

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2040. As compared to publicly placed issues, the privately placed bonds are issued for _________?
A. lower paid interest rates
B. higher paid interest rates
C. registered interest rates
D. unregistered interest rates
2041. The minimum denominations of municipal bonds are _____________?
A. 5000
B. 10000
C. 12000
D. 22000
current market price of stock is _________?
A. 15.24
B. 13.24
C. 20.24
D. 19.24
2043. The issues sold by investment banks and guarantees the issuer by buying new issue at fixed
price is classified as _________?
A. index commitment underwriting
B. insurance underwriting
C. default risk underwriting
D. firm commitment underwriting

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2044. The value of option issued to call debt is subtracted from rate of return on callable bond to
calculate the rate of return on ____________?
A. contributed bonds
B. non-callable bonds
C. callable bonds
D. discounted bonds
2045. The treasury bills are issued on __________?
A. treasury basis
B. corporate basis
C. premium basis
D. discount basis
2046. The yield on subordinated bonds as compared to non-subordinated bonds is considered as

_________?
A. highly risky and higher yields
B. highly risky and lower yields
C. less risky and higher yields
D. less risky and lower yields
2047. The dimensions in bonds markets are __________?
A. treasury notes and bonds
B. corporate bonds
C. municipal bonds
D. all of the above

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2048. In the financial markets, the separate trading of registered interest and principal securities
have abbreviation of ___________?
A. STORI
B. STRIPS
C. RIAPS
D. STORIAP
2049. The call premium of bond is subtracted from call price of bond to calculate
A. face value of bond
B. face value of stock
C. book value of stock
D. book value of bond
2050. The junk bonds which are rated lower than triple B are also classified as _________?
A. high yield bonds
B. low yield bonds
C. zero floating bonds
D. high floating rate bonds
2051. The debentures that are considered as junior bonds as compared to debentures and mortgage
bonds are classified as _________?
A. subordinated debentures
B. ordinate debentures
C. expansion debentures
D. premium debentures

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premium is
A. 307
B. 1063
C. 2063
D. 3063
is ________?
A. 200
B. 300
C. 1320
D. 0.0138
2054. The municipal bonds are the securities issued by local and state
A. schools
B. governments
C. city and country
D. all of the above
2055. For the municipal bonds, the initial market is through
A. local placement
B. public offering
C. government placement
D. index placement

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2056. The coupon payment accrued between last payment and settlement date is classified as
__________?
A. paid interest
B. unpaid interest
C. zero interest
D. accrued interest
2057. The rules and regulations placed on bond holders and bond issuers are classified in _________?
A. bond covenants
B. private covenants
C. federal covenants
D. expansion covenants
2058. If the revenue bonds becomes default, the bondholders must _________?
A. not be paid
B. be paid
C. be sold
D. not be sold
2059. The financial instruments such as treasury bonds and notes have
A. lesser cost fluctuations
B. wider price fluctuations
C. less price fluctuations
D. wider cost fluctuations

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2060. The interest rate on floating rate Eurobonds is paid
A. annually
B. semiannually
C. monthly
D. quarterly
premium is ________?
A. 0.018
B. 200
C. 700
D. 1.8
2062. As compared to non-convertible bonds, the yield on the convertible bond is _________?
A. relatively lower
B. relatively higher
C. relatively zero
D. relatively discounted
2063. The principal value of TIPS is increased or decreased and is based on the measure of
__________?
A. consumer price index
B. manufacturing price index
C. auction selling index
D. inflation payment index

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2064. The rate of return on non-callable bonds is added into value of issuer option to calculate
A. return on assets
B. return on callable bond
C. return on non-callable bonds
D. return on equity
2065. The bonds issued by corporations for relatively longer term are classified as
A. long term bonds
B. short term bonds
C. corporate bonds
D. Federal Reserve bonds
2066. According to marketability feature, the bonds which are attached to stock warrants have
___________?
A. decreased floatation
B. increased floatation
C. increased marketability
D. decreased marketability
A. 1.95
B. 0.0195
C. 222
D. 690

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A. 2.25
B. 355
C. 925
D. 0.0225
2069. The current selling price of the municipal bonds available to bond holders is used to calculate
A. yield to income tax
B. yield to municipal bonds
C. yield to tax rate
D. yield to revenue bonds
2070. As compared to Treasury bonds, the trading of municipal bonds in trading market is
considered as _________?
A. more index inflation
B. less indexed inflation
C. less active
D. more active
2071. The financial securities issued by the local and state governments are classified as _________?
A. municipal bonds
B. reserve bonds
C. state bonds
D. federal bonds

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WWW.
2072. The securities with the lower default risk and having highest credit quality are assigned the
rating of
A. double B
B. triple B
C. triple A
D. double A
2073. The treasury bonds and notes pay the interest rate is classified as ________?
A. LIBOR rate monthly
B. coupon interest monthly
C. coupon interest semiannually
D. coupon interest annually
2074. The Eurobonds are placed for buying and selling in primary markets by the _________?
A. investment banks
B. commercial banks
C. euro transfer agencies
D. currency deposit banks
2075. The bond holder can make profit by returning the bonds and exchanging with other securities,
if market value with conversion value
A. exceed non-convertible value
B. exceed collateral value
C. exceed mortgage value
D. exceeds market value of bond

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WWW.
2076. Gayari Tragedy was occurred on ____________?
A. 7th April 2012
B. 15th May 2012
C. 4th January 2012
D. None of these
2077. The source of funds for the repayment of municipal bonds is considered as __________?
A. local tax and revenue
B. global tax and revenue
C. print notes
D. commercial notes
2078. The auction of the TIPS security is classified as _________?
A. premium bid auction
B. discount bid auction
C. multiple bid auction
D. One bid auction
2079. IN negotiated sale, the services provided by the investment banks are __________?
A. origination services
B. document collection services
C. advising services
D. both a and c
2080. Considering the yields of bonds, the secured bonds as compared to unsecured bonds have

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WWW.
A. higher yields
B. lower yields
C. untimed yields
D. termed yields
2081. The bonds that are considered investment rating bonds are given the rating of _________?
A. triple B rating bonds
B. double B
C. triple A
D. double A
2082. The difference between face value of the bond and the call price of the bond is considered as
_________?
A. call premium
B. call provision
C. discount premium
D. discount provision
2083. If the trading of municipal bonds is infrequent, then secondary market is considered as
__________?
A. thin markets
B. thick markets
C. higher underwriting
D. lower underwriting
2084. The bonds having longer maturity on original loans than promised payments are classified as
_________?

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A. developed bonds
B. developing bonds
C. Brady bonds
D. swapped bonds
2085. The placement of financial issue in which investment bank and municipality together find the
large buyers is classified as ____________?
A. reserve placement
B. federal placement
C. private placement
D. government placement
2086. The type of bonds in which there are many maturity dates and part of issue is paid off at every
maturity date is considered as ___________?
A. pledged bonds
B. serial bonds
C. series bonds
D. parallel bonds
2087. The current market price of common stock is $15 and the conversion rate received on
conversion is $320 to calculate
A. 3800
B. 2800
C. 4800
D. 5800

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WWW.
2088. The exchange markets and over the counter markets are considered as two types of
__________?
A. floating market
B. risky market
C. secondary market
D. primary market
2089. The 11th anniversary of Gayari tragedy is being observed on __________?
A. 31st March 2022
B. 5th April 2023
C. 7th April 2023
D. 9th January 2023
2090. The theme for International Day of Sports for Development and Peace 2023 is ___________?
A. Give your best
B. Sports open for all
C. Scoring for People and the Planet
D. None of these
2091. Who is the Current Captain of Pakistan Women’s Cricket Team ?
A. Nida Dar
B. Javeria Khan
C. Bismah Maroof
D. None of these

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2092. Who is the Current Head Coach of Pakistan Women’s Cricket Team ?
A. David Hemp
B. Nida Dar
C. Mark Coles
D. None of These
2093. Which country made the study of Holy Quran compulsory for Undergraduate degree in
University recently?
A. Malaysia
B. Saudi Arabia
C. Turkey
D. Pakistan
2094. Iran appointed an ambassador to which country for the first time since 2016?
A. Syria
B. Israel
C. Saudi Arabia
D. UAE
2095. The first liquid Hydrogen powered boat was launched by?
A. Norwegian Company Norled
B. Haubold Yachting
C. Dehler Yachts
D. Bruckmann Yachts

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WWW.
2096. The theme of International Conscience day 2023 is __________?
A. Together for All
B. Nation Brings the people together
C. Build a culture of Peace
D. Peace and Stability
2097. International Conscience day is celebrated on?
A. 14 May
B. 4 August
C. 5 April
D. 15 july
2098. Which is the world’s first liquid hydrogen powered boat?
A. Mercury
B. MF Hydra
C. HCL
D. None of These
2099. Which country has become the first European country to ban ChatGPT?
A. Spain
B. United Kingdom
C. Italy
D. Germany
2100. Choose the correct spellings.

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A. Qoloquial
B. Coloquial
C. Colloqial
D. Colloquial
2101. Which is the first former US president to face criminal charge?
A. Brack Obama
B. Donald Trump
C. Henry Clinton
D. Richard Nixon
2102. Who has taken the Barack Obama as the most followers on twitter?
A. Jeff Bezos
B. Vladamir Putin
C. Xi Jinping
D. Elon Musk
2103. Which country to ban English in official communication?
A. Italy
B. Spain
C. Germany
D. Hungary
2104. How many Countries Are the Members Of NATO?
A. 31

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B. 29
C. 28
D. 27
2105. International day for Mine Awareness is observed on?
A. 4th April
B. 15th May
C. 21st March
D. 4th June
2106. Supreme Court ordered the government to hold Punjab election on which date?
A. 30th April 2023
B. 5th May 2023
C. 14th May 2023
D. 18th October 2023
2107. Under which article, Chief Justice of Pakistan (CJP) take Suo-Muto notice?
A. 167(6)
B. 184(3)
C. 95(1)
D. 116 (2)
2108. Who has been appointed as the Crown Prince of Abu Dhabi?
A. Sheikh Salman
B. sheikh Hassan

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C. Sheikh Abu Al Hassan
D. Sheikh Khaled
2109. when the ‘International Day of Zero waste’ observed?
A. 30th March
B. 2nd April
C. 14th June
D. 15th October
2110. Which country has been recently removed from the EU’s High Risk Third Countries list?
A. Egypt
B. Pakistan
C. Turkey
D. Syria
2111. which country has recently claimed underwater drone test, capable of carrying nuclear
weapon?
A. North Korea
B. China
C. The U.S
D. India
2112. 50th session of OIC foreign ministers will be held in?
A. Islamabad
B. Oman
C. Cameroon

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D. Ankara
2113. The Wailing Wall is situated in ___________?
A. Jerusalem
A. india
C. Tajikistan
D. syria
2114. “Hamza Yousuf” First Muslim Scottish Prime Minister’s family belongs to which Country?
A. India
B. Bangladesh
C. Dubai
D. Pakistan
2115. “Hamza Yousuf” is the first Muslim Prime Minister in __________?
A. Scotland
B. UK
C. Brazil
D. France
2116. Who was the CM of Punjab in India after 1936-37 elections?
A. Hari Singh
B. Raja Ghazanfar Ali Khan
C. Sir Sikandar Hayat Khan
D. Sir Zaffarullah Khan

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2117. When did Muslim League changed “Its Mission & Vision”?
A. 1913
B. 1916
C. 1922
D. 1934
2118. “National League for Democracy” which was seen in news, is a famous political party based on
which country?
A. Egypt
B. Syria
C. Myanmar
D. Turkey
2119. Where was Allama Iqbal given the title of “Sir”?
A. London
B. Lahore
C. Delhi
D. Bombay
2120. When Indian National Congress accepted Muslims a separate nation?
A. Round Table Conferences
B. Nehru Report
C. Simla Conference
D. Lucknow Pact

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WWW.
2121. Capital of British during summer days in India was_________?
A. Delhi
B. Bombay
C. Calcutta
D. Shimla
2122. “How to Avoid Climate Disaster” is written by__________?
A. Elon Musk
B. Bill Gates
C. Deewey
D. Shahid Khan
2123. “Pakistan Beyond the Crisis State” is written by____________?
A. Z.A Bhutto
b. Aitzaz Ahsan
C. Maleeha Lodhi
D. William Dalrymple
2124. Which strong Muslim leader was against Non-Cooperation Movement?
A. Allama Iqbal
B. Maulana Muhammad Ali Johar
C. Quaid-e-Azam
D. None of These
2125. Who was the compiler of Al-Mouta?

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A. Imam Maalik Bin Anas
B. Imam Shafi
C. Imam Ahmad Bin Hambal
D. Imam Abu Hanifa Bukhari
2126. How many major gases have been used in refrigerators since its invention?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
2127. Prime meridian does not pass from?
A. Asia
B. Africa
C. Europe
D. Antarctica
2128. First Woman Chief Justice of Peshawar high court is ___________?
A. Musaraat Hilali
B. Musaraat Malik
C. Ayesha Malik
D. None of These
2129. Which country become the 31st member of NATO ?
A. Norway

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B. Portugal
C. Finland
D. None of these
2130. Who was the first Principal of M.A.O College in Aligarh?
A. Sir Syed
B. Lord Elgin
C. Henry Siddons
D. Theodore Beck
2131. Who was the first Principal of Aglo-Oriental College?
A. Sir Syed
B. Lord Elgin
C. Henry Siddons
D. Theodore Beck
2132. Species are formed in one step of reaction mechanism and used up in another step are called:
A. Catalyst
B. Intermediate
C. inhibitor
D. activated complex
2133. The best indicator for titrating HCl with NH4OH is: _________?
A. methyl Orange
B. litmus

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C. phenol red
D. phenopthalein
2134. Ostwald’s dilution law applicable to:
A. All electrolytes
B. Strong electrolytes
C. Non electrolytes
D. Weak electrolytes
2135. The phenomenon of negative catalysis is also known as:
A. auto catalysis
B. Self catalysis
C. inhibition
D. Enzyme catalysis
2136. The decomposition of nitroglycerine is an example of:
A. Self catalytic reaction
B. Enzyme catalytic reaction
C. Autocatalytic reaction
D. induced catalysis
2137. Which country defeated Pakistan to win the final of ITF World Tennis?
A. UK
B. USA
C. Canada

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D. Japan
2138. Who is Current IGP of Gilgit Baltistan?
A. Dar Ali Khan Khattak
B. Mohammad Saeed Wazir
C. Sanaullah Abbasi
D. Mr.Abbas Ajangpa
2139. A computer cannot “boot” if it does not have the _____system.?
A. Compiler
B. Loader
C. Operating
D. Assembler
2140. 10 Ramzan is death of __________?
A. Hazrat fatima binte Muhammad
B. Hazrat fatima binte Asad
C. Hazrat khadija binte khuwlaid
D. Hazrat Aashiya binte Abu baker
2141. The Current Chief Justice of Peshawar High Court is?
A. Justice Musarrat Hilali
B. Justice Waqar Ahmad Seth
C. Justice Qaiser Rashid Khan
D. Justice Yahya Afridi

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WWW.
2142. Baba Fariduddin Ganjshakr married with the daughter of __________?
A. Mahmood Ghazni
B. Ghyasuddin Balban
C. Iltutmish
D. Sher Shah Suri
2143. Who is the Current IG of National Highways and Motorway Police (NHMP) ?
A. Khalid Mahmood
B. Sultan Ali Khawaja
C. Inam Ghani
D. None of these
2144. Name the Pakistani doctor who has been recognized as top faith leader in US?
A. Dr Nadia Kehf
B. Dr Musaraf Hilali
C. Dr Farha Abbasi
D. Dr Fouzia Younis
2145. Who is the Current Attorney General of Pakistan?
A. Mr.Ashtar Ausaf Ali
B. Shehzad Ata Elahi
C. Mansoor Usman Awan
D. Mr.Salman Aslam Butt

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WWW.
2146. The Treaty of Portsmouth was signed between Russia and Japan in?
B. September 4, 1905
C. September 5, 1906
D. September 5, 1905
2147. The current US President Joe Biden has also served as _________ of the United States.
A. Director CIA
B. Speaker
C. Secretary State
D. Vice President
2148. Which planet looks reddish in the night sky ?
A. Jupiter
B. Saturn
C. Mars
D. MercurY
2149. Myanmar is a __________ country?
A. South East Asian
B. South Asian
C. For Asian
D. Middle East Asian
2150. The form of official correspondence used for communication between various division is called:

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WWW.
A. Office Memorandum
B. Demi-Official Letter
C. Un-Official letter
D. Memorandum
2151. Which Lake is situated in “Pearl of Himalayas” literally in Kaghan Valley?
A. Lalusar Lake
B. Saiful Maluk
C. Ansoo Lake
D. All of these
2152. Which lady cricketer of Pakistan received Hilal E Imtiaz Award ?
A.Bismah Maroof
B. Muneeba khan
C. Urooj Fatima
D. None
2153. Which cricketer of Pakistan received Sitara e Imtiaz on 23 March 2023 ?
A. Fakhar Zaman
B. Rizwan Ahmed
C. Shadab khan
D. Babar Azam
2154. What is the name of the form of artificial intelligence that can take actions using past data?
A. Generative AI

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WWW.
B. Reformative AI
C. Memory AI
D. Storage AI
2155. Which province of Pakistan is set to become Georgia’s sister province?
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. KPK
D. Balouchistan
2156. Which country will host the 18th meeting of ” G-20 Summit” in September 2023?
A. India
B. Russia
C. Canada
D. USA
2157. Who has been Awarded as the ” Player of the Series award ” in Recent PSL 8th Edition 2023?
A. Muhammad Rizwan
B. Babar Azam
C. Ihsanullah
D. Fakhar Zaman
2158. Tha Mamluk Dynasty ruled from 1206 to 1290 was founded by ?
A. Khizr Khan
B. jalal Ud-Din Feruz

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C. Ghiyath ul-Din
D. Qutb ud-Din Aibak
2159. The RUNNERS UP Team of the HBL PSL 8 was ___________?
A. Islamabad United
B. Peshawar Zalmi
C. Quetta Gladiators
D. Multan Sultan
2160. Pakistan Super League PSL 2023 Season 8 Won by_________ ?
A. Lahore Qalandars
B. Karachi Kings
C. Quetta Gladiators
D. Multan Sultan
2161. First International Day to Combat Islamophobia was observed on?
A. March 15,2020
B. March 15,2021
C. March 15,2022
D. March 15,2023
2162. Pregnancy time period of “mice” is ___________?
A. 2 weeks
B. 2.5 weeks
C. 3 weeks

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D. 4 weeks
2163. International Criminal Court was step up in _________?
A. 2001
B. 2002
C. 2003
D. 2004
2164. Piotr Hofmanski is the president of which International organization?
A. International Court of Justice
B. International Criminal Court
C. European Union
D. African Union
2165. Agha Khan University was founded in _________?
A. March 15,1982
B. March 16,1983
C. March 17,1984
D. March 18,1985
2166. The 49th session of the Council of Foreign Ministers of the Organization of Islamic
Cooperation on 16-17 March 2023 held in ________?
A. Nouakchott
B. Geneva
C. Islam Abad

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D. Istanbul
2167. Which of the following is the largest verse of surah Al-Baqarah?
A. 288
B. 286
C. 282
D. 281
2168. Pir Ghaib a historical place situated in which district of Balochistan.
A. Quetta
B. Khuzdar
C. Kachhi (Bolan)
D. Sibbi
2169. Silicon Valley Bank, California failed on?
A. March 10, 2023
B. March 09, 2023
C. March 12, 2023
D. None of these
2170. Who wins “Best Actor” Oscar Award 2023?
A. Brenden Fraser
B. Colin Farrell
C. Austin Butler
D. Bill Nighy

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WWW.
2171. Who became the Chinese new premier?
A. Li Qiang
B. Li Shiang
C. Guo Xiaoping
D. Huang
2172. In its continuous support to quake affected Turkey and Syria, Pakistan sends off how many
tonnes of relief goods by sailing off PNS Moawin ship under the supervision of NDMA?
A. 550
B. 600
C. 700
D. 650
2173. Who is the Current President of Nepal?
A. Veladmir puttin
B. Ram Chandra Poudel
C. Hassan Rohani
D. Bidya Devi Bhandari
2174. When Mohsin Naqvi Caretaker CM of Punjab imposed Section 144 in Lahore?
A. March 1, 2023
B. March 8, 2023
C. March 10, 2023
D. March 23, 2023

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WWW.
2175. Akbar Badshah of the Mughal Empire born in city of ___________?
A. Aghra
B. Kabul
C. Lahore
D. Umar Kot
2176. World Rainforest day is observed every year on?
A. 20 August
B. 15 May
C. 22 June
D. None of These
2177. How many countries does the prime meridian pass through?
A. 8
B. 7
C. 6
D. 4
2178. A financial analysis technique used to evaluate a company’s performance over time
Common Size Analysis
Horizontal Analysis
Vertical Analysis
None of the Above

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WWW.
2179. The process of investing in projects that are most likely to be profitable within limited capital
availability is called __________?
A. Capital Structure
B. Debt Structure
C. Asset Structure
D. Capital Rationing
2180. The risk of losses on financial investments caused by an adverse price movements
A. Systematic Risk
B. Idiosyncratic Risk
C. Financial Risk
D. Business Risk
2181. Market Risk is also called as __________?
A. Idiosyncratic Risk
B. Portfolio Risk
C. Capital Structure Risk
D. Systematic Risk
2182. The risk of losses caused by flawed or failed processes, policies, systems or events that disrupt
business operations is called
A. Operating Risk
B. Financial Risk
C. Debt Risk
D. Business Risk

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WWW.
2183. The area of Yak bai Top is present on the mountain range of __________?
A. Kohe kirthar
B. Kohe suleiman
C. Hindu kush
D. Andu montains
2184. Fort Munro the Hily area of Kohe suleman mountains is present in ____________?
A. Bahawalpur
B. Dera Ghazi Khan
C. D.I .Khan
D. Thar
2185. Who is new president of Vietnam?
A. Ho Chi Minah
B. Vo Van Thuong
C. Ton Duc Thang
D. Le Duc Anh
2186. My room is infested _________ insects.
A. In
B. On
C. From
D. With
2187. The planes flew in formation _________ the fields.

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A. On
B. Above
C. At
D. Over
2188. First robotic check at airports is implemented by?
A. Emirates
B. British Airways
C. Qantas
D. Eithad Airways
2189. First country to bury imported CO² in the world?
A. Japan
B. Denmark
C. China
D. Finland
2190. Who is the newly appointed (22nd) President of Bangladesh?
A. Abdul Hamid
B. Dr. Shirin Sharmin Chowdhury
C. Obaidul Kader
D. Muhammad Shahabuddin Chuppu
2191. Quetta Gladiator chased highest run-chase of 241 against?
A. Peshawar Zalmi

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B. Lahore Qalandars
C. Multan Sutlan
D. Islamabad United
2192. Team chased highest runs in PSL history eve is?
A. Lahore Qalandars
B. Multan Sutlan
C. Peshawar Zalmi
D. Quetta Gladiator
2193. Sheikh Muhammad bin Abdul Rahman Althani is prime minister of __________?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Oman
C. Iraq
D. Qatar
2194. Which country hold conference on women rights at un headquarter?
A. Pakistan
B. India
C. Sri Lanka
D. Nepal
2195. Theme of Women day 2023 is ______?
A. Special Education for Women
B. Gender equality for all

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C. Digital All: Innovation and Technology for Gender equality
D. Women empower the World
2196. The color of a sedimentary rock is often mostly determined by___________?
A. Zinc
B. Iron
C. Calcium
D. None of these
2197. Which country has opened military service to women for the first time in 25 years?
A. Cambodia
B. Canada
C. Colombia
D. Chad
2198. What is the Theme of Women Day 2023?
A. Accelerate Equality
B. Digitall: Innovation and technology for gender equality
C. Empowering Women, Empowering Humanity: Picture it!”
D. Time is Now: Rural and urban activists transforming women’s lives
2199. What is the first manifestation of faith in Islam?
A. Zakat
B. Prayer
C. Shahadah (Kalima)

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D. Hajj
2200. Gomal University is in__________?
A. Quetta
B. Peshawar
C. D.G khan
D. D.I khan
2201. FATF suspends which country membership over Ukraine war.
A. Armenia
B. Belarus
C. Russia
D. Tajikistan
2202. Who is the Current caretaker Chief Minister of PUNJAB?
A. Chaudhry Parvez Elahi
B. Mohsin Naqvi
C. Hamza Shahbaz Sharif
D. None of these
2203. ASF work under which of the Following Department?
A. Pakistan Army
B. Pakistan Air Force
C. Civial Aviation Authority

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2204. ASF stands for?
A. Airports Security Force
B. Airport Security Force
C. Army Selection Field
2205. International Women’s Day is celebrated each year on_____________?
A. 12 March
B. 16 March
C. 6 March
D. 8 March
2206. Secretin is secreted when _________ touches alimentary canal.
A. Acidic
B. Basic
C. Neutral
D. All of these
2207. Who is the Current Governor of Balochistan?
A. Muhammad Khan Achakzai
B. Abdul Wali Khan Kakar
C. Jan Mohammad Jamali
D. Justice (retd) Amanullah Khan Yasinzai

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2208. Apple will manufacture iPhones at new plant built in the city of which of the following
countries?
A. China
B. India
C. Ukraine
D. USA
2209. Where is the bronze statue of Columbo and ‘dog’ located?
A. London, UK
B. Newyork, US
C. Paris, France
D. Budapest, Hungary
2210. Famous writer and poet Amjad Islam Amjad died on?
A. Feb 9,2023
B. Feb 10, 2023
C. Feb 11,2023
D. Feb 12,2023
2211. Lieutenant General (Retired) Nazir Ahmed Butt appointed as the Chairman of the National
Accountability Bureau (NAB) on?
A. 4th January,2023
B. 4th February,2023
C. 4th March,2023
D. None of These

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WWW.
2212. In which game does the Spanish opening take place?
A. Chess
B. Curling
C. Baseball
D. Golf
2213. Sumo is considered the national sport of which country?
A. China
B. Japan
C. S.Korea
D. N.Korea
2214. What colour is called magenta?
A. Black
B. White
C. Yellow
D. Reddish-Purple
2215. Which of these is ‘escapism’?
A. an extreme sport
B. a vintage fasion style
C. a dangerous adventure
D. mental diversion from unpleasant or boring aspects of daily life
2216. What is the snowman’s nose made out of traditionally made out of?

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A. Potato
B. Tomato
C. Carrot
D. Orange
2217. Which kind of race is the annual ‘Giro d’Italia’?
A. Swimming
B. Skiing
C. Rock climbing
D. Cycling
2218. A Cheetah can accelerate to 100 kmph in just__________.
A. 3 seconds
B. 6 seconds
C. 9 seconds
D. 12 seconds
2219. Aphasia is the inability to do what?
A. Walk
B. Communicate
C. Study
D. Bath
2220. Gulab Jamun is a popular dessert of which cuisine?
A. Indian

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WWW.
B. Austrian
C. German
D. Italian
2221. In radio, what does the FM stands for?
A. Frequency modulation
B. Frequency meter
C. Fiber modulation
D. Frequency Magnet
2222. Carpology is a discipline devoted to the study of what?
A. Corbons
B. Cubes
C. Seeds and fruits
D. Infertile soils
2223. ‘The guitar’ is a fretted musical instrument that usually has______strings.
A. Five
B. Six
C. Seven
D. Eight
2224. Which insect can survive without a head for one or more weeks?
A. Ladybird
B. Bee

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WWW.
C. Cockroach
D. Termite
2225. Who has been appointed chairman of NAB (Nationally Accountibiltiy Bureau) on 4th March
2023?
A. Aftab Sultan
B. Noor Alam Khan
C. Lt. Gen Nazir Ahmad Khan
D. None of these
2226. Who is the Current Ambassador of the European Union to Pakistan?
A. Dr Riina Kionka
B. Androulla Kaminara
C. Jean-Francois Cautain
D. Gerhard Sabathil
2227. Baigue is a type of which sport popular among Turkish people?
A. Volleyball
B. Cycling
C. Martial Art
D. Horse racing
2228. Which mountain range gets its name from the Sanskrit language meaning ‘abode of snow’?
A. Karakoram
B. Hindukush
C. Ural

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D. Himalayas
2229. In 1997, which technological design was named after a Viking king?
A. Modem
B. McAfee
C. Bluetooth
D. Microsoft
2230. Which singer made the “Moonwalk” dance famous?
A. James Brown
B. Elvis Presley
C. Michael Jackson
D. Justin Bieber
2231. What should a Javanese couple do in order to get married?
A. Plant 5 trees
B. Free 5 birds
C. Free 5 animals
D. Visit 5 countries
2232. The term xerostomia refers to_________?
A. dry skin
B. dry mouth
C. dry nose
D. dry head

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2233. In the human body, the lungs remove which gas from the blood?
A. Nitrogen
B. Hydrogen
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Argon
2234. Where is the location of intermediate neurons?
A. Kidney
B. Brain
C. Spleen
D. Liver
2235. What fear do people with haphephobia have?
A. fear of dogs
B. fear of helicopters
C. fear of touch
D. fear of houses
2236. Other than Pakistan which Country joined United Nations on September 30,1947?
A. Iran
B. Palestine
C. Iraq
D. Yemen

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2237. According to internet advocacy watchdog Access Now, which of the following countries is the
worst offender of internet access for imposing most of internet shutdowns in 2022?
A. China
B. Afghanistan
C. India
D. Russia
2238. Passenger trains crash in Larissa,city in Greece, killed how many people?
A. 38
B. 40
C. 42
D. 34
2239. Which of the following is the special Pakistani envoy to Afghanistan who presented his
resignation to PM Shehbaz Sharif after his three years service in march 2023?
A. Maleeha Lodhi
B. Mohammad Sadiq
C. Mohammad Kamran
D. Mohammad Shahid
2240. The first ever woman to score a hundred for Pakistan in T20 internationals?
A. Bismah Maroof
B. Nida Dar
C. Muneeba Ali
D. Shazia khan

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WWW.
2241. Formosa is the old name of __________?
A. Mongolia
B. Thailand
C. Japan
D. Taiwan
2242. Maximum zoom percentage in Excel is _________?
A. 100%
B. 300%
C. 400%
D. 500%
2243. Natural Radioactivity was discovered by Becquerel in ____________?
A. 1766
B. 1896
C. 1935
D. 2001
2244. Who is the Current IG of KPK police?
A. Mr. Akhtar Hayat Khan
B. Moazzam Jah Ansari
C. Nasir Khan Durrani
D. Sanaullah Abbasi
2245. Who is the Current CEO of YouTube ?

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WWW.
A. Sundar Pichai
B. Parag Agrawal
C. Susan Wojcicki
D. Neal Mohan
2246. Director General of the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA), Rafael Mariano Grossi
visited Pakistan on?
A. 10 to 12 February
B. 12 to 14 February
C. 14 to 15 February
D. 15 to 16 February
2247. Antonym of EXPAND is _____________?
A. Congest
B. Conclude
C. Convert
D. Condense
2248. Just after partition, when did India cut off Pakistan’s water supply without notice thus
creating drought like condition?
A. February, 1948
B. March, 1948
C. April 1948
D. May, 1948

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2249. Which of the following countries are in conflict with India on water sharing issue?
A. Pakistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Nepal
D. All Of Them
2250. The ‘Solar Corona’ mainly consists of?
A. Gases
B. Ice
C. Molten lava
D. Cosmic rays
2251. The “Charter of Madina” was issued on 1 AH having _____ articles?
A. 47
B. 54
C. 56
D. None of these
2252. Actor, producer, director and TV broadcaster Zia Mohyeddin passed away at age of 91 in
Karachi on Monday __________?
A. 11th January 2023
B. 13 January 2023
C. 12 January 2023
D. 14 January 2023

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WWW.
2253. Education is a process through which a ________ transmits its collected excellence to the next
generations.
A. Society
B. Individual
C. Group
D. None of these
2254. A light year is a unit of ?
A. Time
B. Energy
C. distance
D. Mass
2255. Zia Mohyeddin in English movies “Immaculate Conception” played the role of: _________?
A. Beggar
B. Clown
C. Transgender
D. Alcoholic
2256. The Khutba of Hajj (Hajj sermon) is delivered in which mosque?
A. Masjid Khaif
B. Masjid Haram
C. Masid-e-Nimra
D. None of these

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WWW.
2257. Mirza Qaleech Baig was born in tando thoro in?
A. 1850
B. 1853
C. 1790
D. 1773
2258. Default file name in MS Excel is?
A. Document 1
B. Workbook 1
C. Book1
D. Worksheet
2259. Education system of Pakistan is inspired by whom?
A. US
B. Russia
C. UK
D. South Korea
2260. Recently in February 2023, The Jupiter becomes planets with numbers of moons?
A. 92
B. 88
C. 79
D. None of These
2261. To insert chart in MS Excel, which shortcut key used?

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WWW.
A. Alt+F1
B. F2
C. F3
D. F4
2262. Where did the Prophet Muhammad (SallAllahu alaihi wasallam) and Hazrat Abu Bakar (Razi
Allah) take shelter before proceeding to Al-Madina?
A. Taaif
B. Mount Uhad
C. Syria
D. Cave of Soor
2263. Which country features a shipwreck on its national flag?
A. Bermuda
B. Denmark
C. Russia
D. China
2264. Durand line was demarcated in which year?
A. 1891
B. 1893
C. 1895
D. 1897
2265. Tear Lake also known as Ansoo Lake is located in which valley of Pakistan?

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WWW.
A. Gilgit Valley
B. Kailash Valley
C. Kaghan Valley
D. Neelum Valley
2266. Sex chromosomes present in female are _________?
A. XY
B. XX
C. XXY
D. XXX
2267. Who is the Current Advisor to Chief Minister Sindh on Industries & Commerce?
A. Sardar Muhammad Bux Mehar
B. Jam Ikramullah Dharejo
C. Syeda Shehla Raza
D. Syed Sardar Ali Shah
2268. The Holy Prophet PBUH delivered Khutba Hajjat ul Wida on which Hill?
A. Safa
B. Marva
C. Jabal al-Rehmat
D. None of these
2269. Highest number of moons are recently discovered in planet ?
A. Venus

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B. Earth
C. Mars
D. Jupiter
2270. Siam Center is in __________?
A. Istanbul
B. Rom
C. Bangkok
D. New York
2271. Write the synonym of “admonish”?
A. defeat
B. defend
C. destroy
D. counsel
2272. Theme of world cancer day 2023 is _________?
A. Cancer is treatable
B. World Cancer free
C. Close the Care gap
D. Cancel the cancer
2273. The headquarter of ASEAN ?
A. Katmandu
B. Jakarta

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C. New York
D. Geneva
2274. Blood sugar is measured in:
A. mmHg
B. mg/deciliter
C. PPM
D. Gram/Liter
2275. Smoke is an solution of _________?
A. Solid in solid
B. Solid in liquid
C. Solid in gas
D. Gas in gas
2276. Fog is an example of _________?
A. Gas in gas
B. Gas in liquid
C. Liquid in Gas
D. Liquid in liquid
2277. PM Shahbaz Sharif inaugurated KANUP-3 on ____ in Karachi.
A. 1st February 2023
B. 31st January 2023
C. 2nd February 2023

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D. 30th January 2023
2278. Country which has taken presidency of UN security council?
A. UK
B. USA
C. Mangolia
D. Malta
2279. Abdullah bin Ubay was a ________?
A. Jew
B. Christian
C. Hypocrite
D. Great leader
2280. Which country ranked worst/180th in transparency international index?
A. Somalia
B. Jordan
C. Sudan
D. Philipine
2281. Pakistan ranked _____ out of 180 in international transparency index 2022?
A. 138th
B. 140th
C. 120th
D. 112th

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WWW.
2282. Who is the Current Minister of Sindh for Cooperation Department?
A. Jam Khan Shoro
B. Fayaz Ahmed Butt
C. Jam Ikramullah Dharejo
D. Saeed Ghani
2283. Portuguese East India Company was established in _________?
A. 1627
B. 1628
C. 1629
D. None of these
2284. French East India Company was established in ____________?
A. 1663
B. 1664
C. 1665
D. 1666
2285. Who is the Current Provisional Minister of Irrigation in Sindh?
A. Nasir Hussain Shah
B. Jam Khan Shoro
C. Sohail Anwar Siyal
D. Mukesh Chawla
2286. To raise the standard of education, it is necessary to ___________?

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WWW.
A. to evaluate students continuously
B. to give high salary to teachers
C. to revise curriculum
D. to make good school building
2287. The magnitude of earthquake in Turkiye was?
A. 7.6
B. 7.7
C. 7.8
D. None of These
2288. Prayers which were essential in the early period of Islam?
A. Fajar and Zuhar
B. Fajr and Isha
C. Fajr and Asar
D. Fajr and Magrib
2289. The Blood Grouping Was Discovered by__________ ?
A. Robert Oppenheimer
B. Karl Landsteiner
C. Dr Hollerith
D. None of them
2290. ASF established in _________?
A. 1974

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WWW.
B. 1975
C. 1976
D. 1970
2291. The first color of The Holy prophet’s dome was _________?
A. green
B. white
C. yellow
D. red
2292. How many Nuclear Power Plants are there in Pakistan_______?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
2293. Which of the following can survive centuries______?
A. Butter
B. Cheese
C. Honey
D. Yogurt
2294. Khawaja Altaf Hussain Hali was awarded the title of Shamsul Ulama.
A. 1907
B. 1904

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WWW.
C. 1899
D. 2000
2295. Khawaja Altaf Hussain Hali was born in _________?
A. Pani pat
B. Agra
C. Delhi
D. Punjab
2296. Karachi was the capital of Pakistan till ?
A. 1958
B. 1959
C. 1960
D. 1961
2297. The optic nerve which is found in the human brain is also called ___________?
A. Second cranial nerve
B. Mini nervous
C. Carnival nerve
D. Sustained nerve
2298. Which sport does the international federation CMAS represent?
A. Underwater sport
B. Motorsport
C. Mind sport

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WWW.
D. Desert sport
2299. Former President of Pakistan died in?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. UAE
C. Oman
D. Iran
2300. Former President General Retired Pervez Musharraf passed away in Dubai at the age
of______?
A. 59
B. 69
C. 79
D. None of these
2301. General Pervez Musharraf died on?
A. February 3, 2023
B. February 4, 2023
C. February 5, 2023
D. February 6, 2022
2302. When a special court handed Musharraf death sentence in the high treason case against him?
A. On January 17, 2019
B. On March 17, 2019
C. On December 17, 2019

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D. On June 17, 2019
2303. What does A1C measure in the blood test?
A. total cholestrol
B. blood sugar level for three months
C. fructosamine
D. muscle strength
2304. Former president retired General Pervez Musharraf passed away on __________after a
prolonged battle with the rare disease ____________. He was ______.?
A. 3 February 2023 | Hepatitis C | 85
B. 5 February 2023 | amyloidosis | 79
C. 7 February 2023 | (COVID-19) | 95
D. 9 February 2023 | Campylobacter Infection | 65
2305. What time of day do most owls hunt?
A. Morning
B. Afternoon
C. Evening
D. Night
2306. Kashmir Day is observed in Pakistan on _____________?
A. 5th February
B. 1st May
C. 21st March

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WWW.
D. 6th june
2307. In which year Taj Mahal was listed as one of the 7 Wonders of the World.
A. 2005
B. 2006
C. 2007
D. 2008
2308. The construction of Taj Mahal involved a workforce of over_________people.
A. 10,000
B. 20,000
C. 60,000
D. 80,000
2309. Taj Mahal is located on the south bank of the____________.
A. Yamuna River
B. Indus River
C. Jehlum River
D. Chenab River
2310. Kinetics is the study of________.
A. Motion and its causes
B. Force and energy
C. Friction
D. Heat and temperature

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WWW.
2311. Sindh govt launched Pakistan`s first ever pink people bus service for?
A. Women
B. Men
C. Children
D. Aged
2312. Bomb blast at mosque killed 90 people on 30 Jan 2023 in the city of ________?
A. Lahore
B. Peshawar
C. Quetta
D. Multan
2313. An optical instrument which is used measure the properties of visible light is called?
A. Microscope
B. Telescope
C. Spectroscope
D. Oscilloscope
2314. Which country ranked 1st in transparency international index?
A. Somalia
B. Sudan
C. Denmark
D. Finland
2315. Current Prime minister of Czech Republic is?

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WWW.
A. Andrej Babis
B. Bahuslav Sobotka
C. Petr Fiala
D. Jiri Rusnok
2316. Former NATO chairman Petr Pevil become president of ______ country?
A. German Republic
B. Republic of Estonia
C. Republic of Austria
Czech Republic
2317. Australian Men’ T20 cricketer of the year 2022 awarded to?
A. Marcus Stoinis
B. David Warner
C. Arun Finich
D. Steve Smith
2318. First round of 9th edition between IMF and Pakistan held in _________?
A. Lahore
B. Karachi
C. Faisalabad
D. Islamabad
2319. 29 January is celebrated as World ______ day?
A. Education

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WWW.
B. Mother
C. Leprosy
D. Radio
2320. Runner-up of Men’s WC hockey 2023 is?
A. Germany
B. Belgium
C. Pakistan
D. Argentina
2321. Which Country won 15th Men’s Hockey World cup?
A. Belgium
B. Argentina
C. Germany
D. Pakistan
2322. Who is the Current IG of Punjab Police?
A. Dr. Usman Anwar
B. Faisal Shahkar
C. Mohammad Aamir Zulfiqar
D. Rao Sardar Ali Khan
2323. Who two countries agreed to resume friendship bus service in January 2023?
A. Pakistan & India

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WWW.
B. Pakistan & Afghanistan
C. Pakistan & China
D. Pakistan & Bangladesh
2324. Country appointed it’s first adviser to combat Islamophobia is _____?
A. Argentina
B. USA
C. Canada
D. Russia
2325. President of Pakistan approved which new Tamgha from 2022?
A. Diamond Jubilee Medal
B. Silver Jubilee Medal
C. Golden Jubilee Medal
D. None
2326. The Election Commission of Pakistan (ECP) has unanimously decided to appoint _________ as
the caretaker Chief Minister of Punjab.
A. Usman Buzdar
B. Hamza Shahbaz
C. Pervaiz Elahi
D. Syed Mohsin Raza Naqvi
2327. Who made the design of Pakistan’s first Stamp Ticket?
A. Rehmat Ali
B. Abdur-rehaman Chugtai

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WWW.
C. Waqar-ul-Hassan
D. none of these
2328. Which of the following animal has blue blood?
A. Snail
B. Octopus
C. Spider
D. All of above
2329. Who keeps blind snakes as their pets?
A. Woodcutters
B. Eagles
C. Parrots
D. Owls
2330. Who is the Current Caretaker Chief Minister of Khyber Pakhtunkhwa ?
A. Muhammad Azam Khan
B. Dost Muhammad Khan
C. Justice (R) Tariq Pervez
D. None of These
2331. In Global Firepower Index 2023 Pakistan is ranked at _____ in the index ?
A. 10
B. 9
C. 8

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WWW.
D. 7
2332. When almost the entire country was left in the dark by a massive electricity breakdown?
A. 21 January 2023
B. 22 January 2023
C. 23 January 2023
D. 24 January 2023
2333. Who is the Current Chief Selector of Pakistan Cricket Team?
A. Shahid Afridi
B. Haroon Rasheed
C. Wasim Akram
D. Inzmam ul Haque
2334. synonym of word Luscious:
A. Loathe
B. Succulent
C. Abet
D. Unappetizing
2335. Which province of Afghanistan is the highest opium producer?
A. Helmand
B. Baghlan
C. Jalalabad
D. Kunar

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WWW.
2336. Synonym of abhor?
A. love
B. hate
C. prefer
D. admire
2337. The Railway workshop of Mughalpura is situated in?
A. Gujranwala
B. Multan
C. Karachi
D. Lahore
2338. Namaz-e-Khasoof is offered at the time of __________ ?
A. Lunar eclipse
B. Solar eclipse
C. earthquake
D. heavy rain
2339. What is a shortcut key of “Change the font’ in MS Word?
A. Ctrl + Shift + F
B. Alt + shift + F
C. Alt + F
D. None of These

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WWW.
2340. How many deserts are there in Pakistan?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 6
D. None of These
2341. Which pass connects Pakistan with China?
A. Khyber pass
B. Khunjerab Pass
C. Bolan pass
D. None of These
2342. The Euro currency is used by ________ countries.
A. 18
B. 19
C. 20
D. None of These
2343. __________ takes out souls of life bearing creatures.
A. Jibrael (A.S)
B. Mikael (A.S)
C. Israfeel (A.S)
D. Izraeel (A.S)
2344. Which pass connects Pakistan with Afghanistan?

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WWW.
A. Khunjerab Pass
B. Khyber Pass
C. Shandur Pass
D. None of These
2345. In Janaury 2023, EU to provide ________ million euros for three new uplift schemes in
Pakistan?
A. 83 million
B. 85 million
C. 87 million
D. 89 million
2346. When International Conference on Climate Resilient Pakistan was held?
A. 7 January 2023
B. 8 January 2023
C. 9 January 2023
D. 10 January 2023
2347. The International Conference on Climate Resilient Pakistan was held in ________?
A. Bern
B. Geneva
C. Zurich
D. None of these
2348. in constitution 1973 who were declared Non-Muslims?

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A. Qadiyanis
B. Hindus
C. Christians
D. Jews
2349. css stands for ?
A. Cascading Style Sheets
B. casecading simple sheet
C. casecading sheets style
D. None of These
2350. _______ is called folic acid.
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B6
C. Vitamin B9
D. Vitamin B12
2351. Composition of Ozone layer?
A. O1
B. O2
C. O3
D. O4
2352. The second Largest Continent (by Area) of the World is __________?

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WWW.
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. Africa
D. North America
2353. The Largest Continent (by Area) of the World is __________.
A. Asia
B. Europe
C. Africa
D. North America
2354. The Earth surface is divided in __________ Continents.
A. 5 Continents
B. 6 Continents
C. 7 Continents
D. 8 Continents
2355. Saba is the news agency of _________.
A. Indonesia
B. Syria
C. Yemen
D. Jordan

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WWW.
2356. SANA is the news agency of _________.
A. Saudi Arabia
B. UAE
C. Syria
D. Yemen
2357. The Nobel Peace Prize 2012 in the field of “Peace” was awarded to?
A. European Union (EU)
B. North Atlantic Treaty Organisation (NATO)
C. Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)
D. United Nations Security Council
2358. What was the nationality of Alfred Nobel?
A. American
B. British
C. German
D. Swedish
2359. The smallest Sea of the World is __________.
A. Dead Sea
B. Red Sea

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WWW.
C. Baltic Sea
D. Arabian Sea
2360. Yellow Sea lies between __________.
A. America and Canada
B. England and France
C. China and Korea
D. Norway and Sweden
2361. Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC) has __________ official languages.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
2362. The biggest Island of the World is _________.
A. Iceland
B. Greenland
C. England
D. Sri Lanka
2363. The headquarter of Transparency International is in _________.

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WWW.
A. Amserdam
B. Geneva
C. London
D. Berlin
2364. Allama Muhammad Iqbal delivered his famous Allahabad Address in?
A. 1929
B. 1930
C. 1931
D. 1932
2365. The headquarter of Red Cross is in _________?
A. New York
B. Washington
C. Geneva
D. The Hague
2366. The motto of UNO is _________?
A. It’s your world!
B. Life for All!
C. Peace!
D. Love and Peace!

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WWW.
2367. The European Union’s working capital is in _________.
A. London
B. Lisbon
C. Austria
D. Brussels
2368. The currency of Indonesia is _________?
A. rupiah
B. dinar
C. ringgit
D. riyal
2369. Name the only secretary general of UN who resigned from his post?
A. Mrs Vijay Lakshmi pandit
B. Trygve Lie
C. Kofi Annan
D. U. Thant
2370. There are _________ non-permanent members of the security council.
A. 5
B. 7
C. 10
D. 15

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WWW.
2371. Name the Angel who was appointed to deliver messages to Prophet Muhammad (PBUH) from
Allah?
A. Jibrael (A.S)
B. Mikael (A.S)
C. Israfeel (A.S)
D. Izraeel (A.S)
2372. The Nobel Prize has been awarded in __________ fields.
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 8
2373. The first Nobel Prize was awarded in __________ .
A. 1895
B. 1901
C. 1907
D. 1913
2374. Who is the Current President of Brazil?
A. Michel Temer
B. Dilma Rousseff
C. Jair Bolsonaro

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WWW.
D. Lula da Silva
2375. The headquarter of Amnesty International is in _________.
A. Amserdam
B. Geneva
C. London
D. Berlin
2376. The deepest part of the Earth is __________ .
A. Dead Sea
B. Mariana Trench
C. South Africa
D. South Pole
2377. The lowest part of the Earth is __________.
A. Dead Sea
B. Mariana Trench
C. South Africa
D. South Pole
2378. The highest part of the Earth is __________ .

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A. Mount Everest
B. K2
C. Norway
D. North Pole
2379. The permanent Secretariat of OIC is located in _________.
A. Makkah
B. Madina
C. Jeddah
D. Riyadh
2380. The largest democratic country in the world is _________.
A. United States
B. United Kingdom
C. China
D. India
2381. The currency of Israel is _________.
A. Euro
B. Shekel
C. Forint
D. Krone

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WWW.
2382. Which from the following countries is NOT a member of European Union?
A. Norway
B. Ireland
C. Malta
D. Estonia
2383. The permanent Secretariat of SAARC is located in __________.
A. Islamabad, Pakistan
B. New Delhi, India
C. Kathmandu, Nepal
D. Colombo, Sri Lanka
2384. Who was the second Prime Minister of Pakistan?
A. Ch Muhammad Ali
B. Kh. Nazim-ud-Din
C. Liaquat Ali Khan
D. Feroze Khan Noon
2385. Who was the founder of Daily English Newspaper Dawn?
A. Liaquat Ali Khan
B. Z.A Sulehri
C. Quaid-e-Azam
D. None of them

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WWW.
2386. Suez Canal is between __________?
A. Arabian Sea and Red Sea
B. Red Sea and North Sea
C. Mediterranean Sea and North Sea
D. Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
2387. 3 May is observed Internationally as _________.
A. Labour Day
B. Environment Day
C. Earth Day
D. Press Freedom Day
2388. The most powerful organ of United Nations is _________?
A. General Assembly
B. Security Council
C. Secretariat
D. International Court of Justice
2389. Which from the following countries does NOT yield veto-power?
A. United States
B. United Kingdom
C. Canada
D. France

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WWW.
2390. The largest ocean of the world is __________?
A. Atlantic
B. Pacific
C. Indian
D. None of these
2391. Which from the following countries is NOT a member of D-8?
A. India
B. Pakistan
C. Nigeria
D. Turkey
2392. The North Atlantic treaty (NATO) was signed in __________?
A. 1945
B. 1947
C. 1949
D. 1951
2393. Indian Independence Act’ was enforced on ?
A. 13th August 1947
B. 14th August 1947
C. 15th August 1947
D. 16th August 1947

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WWW.
2394. The world’s highest mountain is in __________?
A. China
B. Pakistan
C. Nepal
D. India
2395. Aminocaproic acid is a drug of choice for treatment of:
A. Acute myocardial infarction
B. Bleeding from fibrinolytic therapy
C. Heart failure
D. Multiple pulmonary emboli
2396. Tick the drug type for which microsomal oxidation is the most prominent:
A. Lipid soluble
B. Water soluble
C. Low molecular weight
D. High molecular weight
2397. Tick the feature of the sublingual route:
A. Pretty fast absorption
B. A drug is exposed to gastric secretion
C. A drug is exposed more prominent liver metabolism
D. A drug can be administrated in a variety of doses

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WWW.
2398. Which of the following statements concerning potassium channel openers is true?
A. These agents decrease transmembrane calcium current associated in a smooth muscle with long-lasting
relaxation
and in a cardiac muscle with a reduction in contractility
B. These agents has a moderate reflex and vascular dilative action caused by the stimulation of sensitive
nerve endings
C. Beneficial effects of these agents are related primarily to their hemodynamic effects – decreased heart
rate, blood
pressure, and contractility – which decrease myocardial oxygen requirements at rest and during exercise
D. These agents increase the permeability of K channels, probably ATP-dependent K channels, that
results in stabilizing the membrane potential of excitable cells near the resting potential
2399. This drug reduces blood pressure by acting on vasomotor centers in the CNS:
A. Labetalol
B. Clonidine
C. Enalapril
D. Nifedipine
2400. Pakistan’s first coin was issued in _________?
A. 1948
B. 1949
C. 1950
D. none of these
2401. Cristiano Ronaldo joins which football club of Saudi Arabia for two years contract?

www.pakmcqs.com.pk
WWW.
A. Al-Hilal
B. Al-Nassr
C. Al-Hejaz
D. None of these
2402. AFP is the news agency of _________.
A. Germany
B. France
C. Syria
D. Yemen
2403. The capital of Czech Republic is?
A. Nicosia
B. Dublin
C. Bern
D. Prague
2404. Vienna is the capital of _________?
A. Austria
B. Switzerland
C. Cyprus
D. Denmark

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WWW.
2405. Which country is called the “Land of thousand Lakes”?
A. Indonesia
B. Finland
C. Iceland
D. Scotland
2406. Which country is called the “Land of Golden Fibre”?
A. United States
B. South Korea
C. Bangladesh
D. India
2407. Indonesia is an archipelago comprising approximately __________ islands.
A. 10,000
B. 12,500
C. 15,000
D. 17,508
2408. Which country is called “Land of thousand islands”?
A. Malaysia
B. Indonesia
C. Ireland

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WWW.
D. Finland
2409. World’s famous bridge “Golden Gate” is in __________.
A. San Francisco
B. New Delhi
C. France
D. Sydney
2410. World Trade Organization was established in __________?
A. 1980
B. 1985
C. 1990
D. 1995
2411. Government of India Act 1858 was passed on?
A. 2nd August 1858
B. 18th July 1858
C. 24th October 1858
D. 3rd June 1858
2412. Who Reviewed the famous book “The Indian Musalmans” in 1872?
A. Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
B. Sir William Wilson Hunter

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WWW.
C. M Delwar Hussain
D. John King Fairbank
2413. Who started the Faraizi Movement?
A. Haji Shariat Ullah
B. Allama Muhammad Iqbal
C. Maulana Muhammad Ali Jauhar
D. Sir Aga Khan
2414. The D-8 is an organization of eight ________ countries.
A. developed
B. developing
C. Asian
D. African
2415. Montreal massacre took place in _________?
A. 4 December 1989
B. 5 December 1989
C. 6 December 1989
D. None of These
2416. Investment in a group of securities is known as?

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WWW.
A. Dividend
B. Portfolio
C. Investment
D. BVPS
2417. Height of k2 in feet is ___________?
A. 30,251
B. 26,251
C. 28,251
D. 27, 251
2418. On ________,Parvez Elahi dissolved Punjab Assembly?
A. Dec 26, 2022
B. Jan 04, 2023
C. Jan 12, 2023
D. Dec 19, 2022
2419. Which is the national bird of Pakistan ?
A. Markhor
B. Parrot
C. Pigeon
D. chukar
2420. In constitution 1973 what number of seats in Senate was set?

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WWW.
A. 120 Seats
B. 115 Seats
C. 110 Seats
D. 100 Seats
2421. In constitution of 1973 what age is specified for a person to contest for the Election to National
Assembly?
A. 25 years
B. 18 years
C. 20 years
D. 30 years
2422. In which constitution Bicameral Legislature was provided for the first time?
A. 1949
B. 1956
C. 1962
D. 1973
2423. According to 1973 constitution who elects Prime Minister?
A. Senate
C. President
D. Provincial Assemblies
2424. Who elects the President according to 1973 constitution?

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WWW.
A. National Assembly
B. Senate
C. Provincial Assemblies
D. All of the above
2425. When did Fatima Jinnah joined All India Muslim league?
A. 1939
B. 1927
C. 1947
D. 1949
2426. Which is the largest freshwater lake In the world?
A. Lake Superior
B. Lake Victoria
C. Great Bear Lake
D. None of these
2427. The world’s longest bridge, Danyang–Kunshan Grand Bridge, is in __________ .
A. United States
B. Russia
C. China
D. Canada

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WWW.
2428. Indomethacin is preferred over Colchicine for Acute Attack of Gout because it is:
A. Less likely to cause gastrointestinal bleeding.
B. Less likely to cause diarrhea.
C. Less likely to cause acute renal failure.
D. More likely to reduce inflammation.
E. More likely to prevent further acute attacks
2429. With prolonged use in seizure states, which of the following drugs can cause coarsening of
facial features, hirsutism, gingival hyperplasia and osteomalacia?
A. Valproic acid.
B. Carbamazepine.
C. Ethosuximide.
D. Phenytoin
2430. Cardiac Toxicity is a common side effect seen with: _________?
A. Bleomycin
B. Doxorubicin
C. Captopril
D. Prazosin
2431. Only Aspirin can:
A. Reduce fever.
B. Irreversible inhibit its target enzyme.
C. Prevent episodes of gouty arthritis with long term use.
D. Reduce the risk of colon cancer.

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WWW.
2432. Which of the following drugs when used for prolonged period in the maintenance treatment of
tonic-clonic seizures can lead to increased metabolism of warfarin like drugs?
A. Phenobarbital.
B. Meprobamate
C. Chlordiazepoxide
D. Triazolam
E. Zolpidum
2433. A young man of 24 years is suffering from Generalized Anxiety Disorder; which drug may be
preferred for his problem?
A. Zolpidem
B. Buspiron.
C. Midazolam
D. Triazolam
E. Phenobarbital
2434. Which kind of system of Government was introduced in 1973 constitution?
A. Parliamentary
B. Presidential
C. Basic Democracy
D. Autonomous
2435. When Mr. Z.A. Bhutto launched a new constitution in the country?
A. 11th August 1973
B. 14th August 1973
C. 17th August 1973

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WWW.
D. 21st August 1973
2436. Who abrogated 1962 constitution and became CMLA?
A. Gen. Tikka Khan
B. Gen. Ahsan Khan
C. Gen. Mansoor Khan
D. Gen Yahya Khan
2437. When the constitution of 1962 was abrogated?
A. 25th March 1969
B. 29th July 1969
C. 4th April 1969
D. 14th April 1969
2438. Which kind of system of Government was introduced by the 1962 constitution?
A. Autonomous
B. Presidential
C. Bicameral
D. Confederate
2439. When Ayub Khan enforced new constitution in Pakistan?
A. 9th January 1962
C. 13th March 1962
D. 8th June 1962

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WWW.
2440. When was the first constitution abrogated and Martial Law was proclaimed?
A. 5th May 1958
B. 1st June 1958
C. 7th October 1958
D. 23rd December 1958
2441. Who abrogated 1956 constitution?
A. Ayub Khan
B. Tikka Khan
C. Iskander Mirza
D. Yahya Khan
2442. What was the official language declared in 1956 constitution?
A. Urdu
B. Bengali
C. Hindi
D. Both a & b
2443. What age was prescribed for President in 1956 constitution?
A. 40 years
B. 45 years
C. 50 years
D. 55 years

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WWW.
2444. When was first constitution of Pakistan enforced?
A. 8th June 1956
B. 23rd March 1956
C. 14th August 1956
2445. What is the other name of Mohammad Ali Bogra Formula?
A. New Law of Pakistan
B. Pakistan Report
C. Third Report
D. Constitutional Formula
2446. First ever graveyard of deer located in: ________?
A. Punjab
B. Sindh
C. Balochistan
D. KPK
2447. The Collins Dictionary’s word of the year for 2022 is: __________?
A. Moribund
B. Vax
C. permacrisis
D. Succulent
2448. According to 1973 constitution what is the term of the office of President?

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WWW.
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 3 years
2449. Pakistan Civil Aviation Authority (PCAA) is a state-owned autonomous body founded
on______?
A. 10 Dec 1981
B. 7 Dec 1982
C. 8 Dec 1983
D. 6 Dec 1984
2450. Etihad Airways is an airline of __________.
A. United Arab Emirates
B. Qatar
C. Russia
D. Canada
2451. Which is the national flower of Pakistan ?
A. Lilly
B. Rose
C. Jasmine
D. Tulip
2452. KLM is an airline of __________?

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WWW.
A. Australia
B. Germany
C. Netherlands
D. Austria
2453. Which is the longest river of Pakistan?
A. River Ravi
B. Indus River
C. River Cheenab
D. River Jehlum
2454. The US longest bridge over water, Lake Pontchartrain Causeway, is in __________.
A. Louisiana
B. Maryland
C. New Jersey
D. Alabama
2455. Where the biggest Salt Mine located in Pakistan ?
A. Mangora
B. Jhelum
C. Sawat
D. None of these
2456. Emirates is an airline of __________?

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WWW.
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Qatar
C. UAE
D. Malaysia
2457. Dragon Air is an airline of ___________?
A. Japan
B. South Korea
C. North Korea
D. Hong Kong
2458. In respect of religion what term was set for President and Prime Minister in 1956 constitution?
A. He may be a Muslim
B. He must not be Hindu
C. He must not be Christian
D. He must be a Muslim ( this condition applicable only on president. pm may be non-muslim)
2459. What official name was given to Pakistan in 1956 constitution?
A. United States of Pakistan
B. Republic of Pakistan
C. Islamic Pakistan
D. Islamic Republic of Pakistan
2460. Transoxiana was conquered in the reign of ________________Umayyad caliph.
A. Al Walid bin Abdul malik

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WWW.
B. Sulemain bin Abdul Malik
C. Hisham
D. None of these
2461. Who was Mohammad Ali Bogra?
A. Prime Minister
B. Law Minister
C. Parliament Minister
D. None of These
2462. When Mohammad Ali Bogra presented Bogra Formula in the assembly?
A. 1st January 1953
B. 4th April 1953
C. 3rd September 1953
D. 7th October 1953
2463. When the Constituent Assembly passed the Objectives Resolution?
B. 12th March 1949
C. 9th June 1949
D. 15th August 1949
2464. What document was firstly drafted to give pace to constitution making process?
A. Representative Act
B. Pakistan Act

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WWW.
C. Independence Act
D. Objectives Resolution
2465. After how many years Pakistan got its first constitution?
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 9 years
D. 11 years
2466. Who was the first President of the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan?
A. Liaquat Ali Khan
B. Quaid-e-Azam
C. Moulvi Tameez-ud-Din
D. Sardar Abdur Rab Nishtar
2467. 1973 Constitution of Pakistan was _____________ constitution?
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth
2468. Almost 200 million years ago the seven continents were single landmass called ?
A. Pangaea
B. Gondwana

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WWW.
C. A and B
D. None
2469. Capital of United States is___________?
A. Washington Dc
B. Alaska
C. Hawaii
D. California
2470. Capital of China is_________?
A. Beijing
B. Shanghai
C. Both
D. None
2471. Ryanair airline belongs to which Country?
A. Finland
B. Ireland
C. Switzerland
D. Tajikistan
2472. Delta is the Airline of___________?
A. Britain
B. United States
C. Australia

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WWW.
D. Switzerland
2473. Ariana is airlines of which country?
A. China
B. Indonesia
C. Pakistan
D. Afghanistan
2474. SIA is the airline of which country__________?
A. USA
B. Singapore
C. UK
D. China
2475. BIMAN is an airline of__________?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Afghanistan
C. Bangladesh
D. None of these
2476. Qantas is an airline of __________.
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Australia
C. UAE
D. Malaysia

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WWW.
2477. Air Europa is an Airline of which country?
A. Europe
B. Spain
C. Bangkok
D. Thailand
2478. Aegean Airline is belongs to which country?
A. Greece
B. Canada
C. France
D. Japan
2479. Lufthansa airline belongs to ________ ?
A. Latvia
B. Germany
C. Lithuania
D. Republic of Korea
2480. Air Deccan is a domestic ________ airline ?
A. Srilankan
B. Indian
C. Saudi
D. none

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WWW.
2481. Cinnamon air is the airline of which country?
A. Somalia
B. Iran
C. Iraq
D. Srilanka
2482. Kish Air is the airline of which country?
A. Israel
B. Indonesia
C. Iran
D. Iraq
2483. Helitours is the airline of which country?
A. Spain
B. Somalia
C. Srilanka
D. Sudan
2484. Porter Airlines is the Airline of which country __________?
A. South Africa
B. Philippines
C. Canada
D. Portugal
2485. Amapola Flyg is the airline of________?

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WWW.
A. Slovenia
B. Thailand
C. Malaysia
D. Sweden
2486. Buraq Air is an airline of___________?
A. Libya
B. Syria
C. Jordan
D. Turkey
2487. Mention the unique airlines whose international planes fitted with anti-missile equipment?
A. Aeroflot
B. KLM
C. EL AL
D. Eva Air
2488. Airbaltic is an Airline of which country?
A. Pakistan
B. Lativa
C. US
D. None of These
2489. JAT Airways is the international Airlines of which country?
A. Pakistan

www.pakmcqs.com.pk
WWW.
B. Serbia
C. Russia
D. Germany
2490. Bhoja Air was the Airline of which country?
A. Pakistan
B. Bangladesh
C. Iran
D. India
2491. Aer Lingus is the national airline of which country ?
A. Republic of Liberia
B. Republic of Ireland
C. Republic of Chile
D. Republic of China
2492. Freedom Air is an airline of____________?
A. South Korea
B. South Africa
C. New Zealand
D. None of these
2493. PM Pakistan and UN Secretary-General co-host the Geneva conference in January 2023 for the
sole purpose of ________?
A. Poverty alleviation
B. Inflation control

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WWW.
C. Climate Resilient Pakistan funds
D. None of these
2494. The headquarter of NATO is located in _________.
A. New York
B. Paris
C. Geneva
D. Brussels
2495. Garuda is the airline of Indonesia. What is Garuda?
A. Animal
B. Bird
C. Mountain
D. None of these
2496. Easyjet airline belongs to which Country?
A. UK
B. France
C. Germany
D. Australia
2497. Braathens airline belong to which Country?
A. Sweden
B. Norway

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WWW.
C. Iceland
D. Uraguay
2498. Iberia Airline belong to which Country?
A. Spain
B. Poland
C. Serbia
D. Latvia
2499. Asiana Airlines is an airline of _________?
A. Afghanistan
B. South Korea
C. Syria
D. Iraq
2500. Second war of Pani pat was fought between ?
A. Hamayoun and sher shah Suri
B. Ahmad shah abdali and Akbar
C. Abrahim lodhi and hamayoun
D. Akbar and himochandra
2501. War of pallasey was fought ?
A. 23 June 1757
B. 23 October 1756
C. 23 December 1557

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WWW.
D. 26 July 1764
2502. War of buxer was fought ?
A. 1565
B. 1657
C. 1764
D. 1761
2503. Island aviation services is the government runs airlines of ___________?
A. Maldives
B. Indonesia
C. Malaysia
D. Greece
2504. One-Two-Go Airlines was the airline of which country?
A. Japan
B. Thailand
C. France
D. India
2505. Thai Airways International is the airline of_________?
A. USA
B. Singapore
C. Thailand
D. China

www.pakmcqs.com.pk
WWW.
2506. Pakistan’s National Flag was prepared by__________?
A. Abdur-rehaman Chugtai
B. Liaqat Ali
C. Chaudhary Rehmat Ali
D. Ameer-ud-din Qadwai
2507. Mahan Airline belongs to which country______________?
A. Iran
B. Iraq
C. Yemen
D. Oman
2508. Aeroflot is the airline of___________?
A. Britain
B. Holand
C. Russia
D. Fanland
2509. how many articles are there in 1973 constitution?
A. 220 Articles
B. 240 Articles
C. 260 Articles
D. 280 Articles

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WWW.
2510. how many articles were there in 1962 constitution?
A. 225 Articles
B. 250 Articles
C. 275 Articles
D. 290 Articles
2511. How many articles were there in the constitution of 1956?
A. 200 Articles
B. 259 Articles
C. 254 Articles
D. 234 Articles
2512. Article 58(2b) of constitution 1973 is about:
A. Power of President to dismiss Army Chief
B. Power of President to dissolve Provincial Assemblies
C. Power of President to dissolve National Assembly
D. Power of President to dissolve Senate
2513. In a certain class the ratio of men to women is 3:5. If the class has 24 people in it, how many are
women?
A. 9
B. 12
C. 15
D. 18

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WWW.
2514. A lorry covers a distance of 100 km in 2 hours 30 minutes. A car runs with a speed of 55
km/hour. Determine the ratio of their speeds.
A. 8:11
B. 20:11
C. 4:11
D. None of These
2515. a number exceeds another number by 5.the sum of the numbers is 19. find the smaller number
?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 7
D. 12
2516. Eva airline is the name of airline of__________?
A. Korea
B. Japan
C. Taiwan
D. China
2517. Garuda is the airline of which country?
A. Germany
B. Indonesia
C. France

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WWW.
D. Russia
2518. Field particle of Electromagnetic interaction is _________?
A. Photon
B. Meson
C. Vector Boson
D. Graviton
2519. If Arif can read 39 pages of a book in half an hour. How long will It take her to finish a book
that is 1287 pages?
A. 16 Hours
B. 16.5 Hours
C. 17 Hours
D. 15.5 Hours
2520. If Ahmed purchases a Watch for Rs 600 and pays 15% sales tax, the total amount spent on
purchase is?
A. 660
B. 670
C. 680
D. 690
E. 700
2521. Shaheen Air Line is the airline of ______?
A. Pakistan
B. Brunei

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WWW.
C. India
D. Iran
2522. Transworld Airline (TWA) was the airline of________?
A. Canada
B. USA
C. UK
D. France
2523. Silk Air is the airline of which country__________?
A. USA
B. Singapore
C. UK
D. China
2524. Who inaugurated Guddu barrage ?
A. Iskandar Mirza
B. Ayub khan
C. Yahya khan
D. Z.A Bhutto
2525. What is Cuju?
A. type of food
B. type of plant
C. type of drink

www.pakmcqs.com.pk
WWW.
D. the first known ball game
2526. The headquarter of Green Peace International is located in _________.
A. Amsterdam
B. Geneva
C. Lisbon
D. Austria
2527. Window 9 main features are ________?
A. Windows 9 Has a New Look
B. Windows 9 Snap Layouts
C. Multiple Desktops in Windows 9
D. Window 9 Not launched
2528. Which two countries call for urgent UN Security Council meeting after Israeli minisiter Ben
Giver’s visit to Al-Aqsa.
A. Turkey and China
B. China and Saudi Arabia
C. China and UAE
D. None of these
2529. Which of the following is the airline of Pakistan?
A. Serene air
B. Vision air international

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WWW.
C. Star Air aviation
D. Airblue
E. All of the above
2530. Adam’s Peak is located in _________?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Egypt
C. Sri Lanka
D. India
2531. The Redwing is the national bird of which country?
A. Israel
B. Turkey
C. Iran
D. Iraq
2532. Who was the first to use blank verse ?
A. Thomas Wyatt
B. Henry Howard, Earl of Surrey
C. Sir Thomas more
2533. Thomas More utopia was originally written in _________?
A. Roman
B. Latin

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WWW.
C. English
D. Spanish
2534. When government of Pakistan unveils ‘Early to bed, early to rise’ policy?
A. January 2, 2023
B. January 3, 2023
C. January 4, 2023
D. None of These
2535. The ‘Kashaf-ul-Mahjub’ was written by?
A. Hazrat Data Gunj Buksh (R.A) (Ali Hujwiri)
B. Maulana Altaf Hussain Hali
C. Maulana Shibli Nomani
D. Maulana Zakaullah
2536. Which airlines is the largest and National airline of Israel?
A. EL AL
B. lAL
C. Air Israel
D. Arkia Airlines
2537. Netherlands is also known as __________?
A. Country of Riches
B. Country of Daisies

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WWW.
C. Country of Blossoms
D. Country of Flowers
2538. Letters, Emails and Telephone are related to?
A. Message
B. Channel
C. Encoding
D. Feedback
2539. In assembly languages symbols are used instead of binary code, these symbols are called?
A. Mnemonics
B. ALGOL
C. Procedures
D. None of these
2540. Which country fires short-range ballistic missiles on New Year’s Day 2023?
A. South Korea
B. North Korea
C. Russia
D. Iran
2541. Can you repair _____ compter in Liam’s office? It’s not working.
A. a
B. the
C. an

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WWW.
D. none of these
2542. Everyone who works in this department uses ___________ computer.
A. a
B. the
C. an
D. none of these.
2543. Who Was Lawrence Of Arabia?
A. Sir Victor turner
B. Thomas Edward Lawrence
C. Syed Amir Ali
D. Muneer Ahmed Qureshi
2544. Which member of European Union adopted Euro Currency on 01 January 2023?
A. Spain
B. Greece
C. Croatia
D. None of these
2545. Khateeb-ul-Ambia was the title of __________.
A. Prophet Dawood (A.S)
B. Prophet Nooh (A.S)
C. Prophet Yaqoob (A.S)
D. Prophet Shoaib (A.S)

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WWW.
2546. “Xenzia” is the synonym of __________?
A. Extrovert
B. Reserved
C. Outspoken
D. Gregarious
2547. Who is Current Chairman of Pakistan International Airline (PIA)?
A. Aslam R Khan
B. Muhammad Amir Hayat
C. Air Marshal Arshad Mahmood Malik
D. None of these
2548. _____________ has announced closing its services in Pakistan after two decades as on 31-12-
2022.
A. BBC Radio Urdu
B. Sky News
C. Al-Jazera T.v
Dawn News
2549. What is the function of the VLOOKUP function in Excel?
A. To perform a vertical lookup and return a value based on a specified criteria
B. To perform a horizontal lookup and return a value based on a specified criteria
C. To add up a range of cells
D. To find the average of a range of cells

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WWW.
2550. Bring forward means?
A. Produce
B. Show up
C. Clarify
D. None of These
2551. What is the function of the IF function in Excel?
A. To perform a logical test and return a value based on the result
B. To add up a range of cells
C. To find the average of a range of cells
D. To count the number of cells in a range
2552. What is the function of the SUM function in Excel?
A. To add up a range of cells
B. To find the average of a range of cells
C. To count the number of cells in a range
D. To find the maximum value in a range of cells
2553. What is the intersection of a column and row called in Excel?
A. A cell
B. A range
C. A column header
D. A row header
2554. ‘Toledo’ and ‘Ronda’ are the famous cities of ___________?

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WWW.
A. France
B. Spain
C. UK
D. Russia
2555. Which one of the following is the currency of Latvia country?
A. Kroon
B. Euro
C. Lat
D. Litas
2556. Which university is biggest university in Sindh?
A. Karachi university
B. Sindh university
C. Shah Abdul Latif University
D. None of These
2557. Cricket world cup 2023 is scheduled to be held in _________?
A. Australia and New Zealand
B. England
C. India
D. South Africa
2558. What is the name of the chart with letters in multiple rows, used for an eye test ?
A. Snellen Chart

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WWW.
B. Maslow’s pyramid
C. Gantt Chart
D. Peptide Test
2559. Antonym of ARTIFICIAL is ______________?
A. Vice
B. Quality
C. Asset
D. Purity
2560. Who is the Current Ambassador of Pakistan to France?
A. Mr Sajid Bilal
B. Mr Masood khalid
C. Asim Iftikhar
D. Mr Nasr Ullah Khan
2561. Title bar in MS-Excel displays name of the __________ ?
A. Worksheet
B. Workbook
C. Formula
D. Location
2562. in MS-Excel__________ short cut key is used for hiding rows.
A. Ctrl+H
B. Ctrl+7

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WWW.
C. Ctrl+9
2563. Who has been appointed as new Spokesperson for Ministry of Foreign Affairs?
A. Asim Iftikhar
B. Mumtaz Zahra Baloch
C. Ayesha Farooqi
D. None of these
2564. Which of following is not an element of computer spreadsheet interface?
A. Pencil work
B. Active cell
C. Menu bar
D. Workbook
2565. Computer spreadsheet capability to allow a pie chart to be generated from data in spreadsheet
cells is termed as __________ ?
A. Decoration
B. Data appearance
C. Functions
D. Charting
2566. Who will host the FIFA World Cup 2026 ?
A. Australia & New Zealand
B. Brazil & Argentina
C. Germany & Poland

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D. US, Canada & Mexico
2567. What is a cell in Excel?
A. A row
B. A column
C. A unit of data
D. A unit of formatting
2568. In excel columns are labelled as____________?
A. A, B, C, etc.
B. 1, 2, 3, etc.
C. A1, A2, A3, etc.
D. $A$1, $A$2, etc.
2569. “Barcelona” is the famous city of________?
A. Spain
B. UK
C. Ukraine
D. France
2570. The famous food chain brands “KFC” stands for?
A. Kentucky Fried Chilli
B. Kentucky Fried Chicken
C. Ketherd friend Chicken
D. None of These

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2571. Which of the following country will host football club world cup in 2023?
A. France
B. Germany
C. Morocco
D. Portugal
2572. which of the following is not a valid Zoom percentage in Excel?
A. 10
B. 100
C. 300
D. 500
2573. User developed instruction for excel are called__________?
A. Progrms
B. Macros
C. Procedured
D. All of these
2574. Which Country in the World has most neighbours?
A. Russia
B. Phillipines
C. China
D. None Of These
2575. What is the Capital city of Jamaica?

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A. Kingston
B. Berlin
C. Khartoum
D. Kuala Lumpur
2576. Which function calculates the largest value in a set of numbers in Excel?
A. Average
B. Count
C. Minimum
D. Maximum
2577. What displays the content of active cell?
A. Name box
B. Row headings
C. Formula bar
D. None of these
2578. In a computer spreadsheet, block of cells is called __________ ?
A. Workbook
B. Function
C. Column
D. Range
2579. Microsoft Excel 2019 files have a default extension of___________?
A. .Xlsx

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B. .Xls
C. .excel
D. .123
2580. In a computer spreadsheet, SUM, AVERAGE, MIN and MAX are examples of __________ ?
A. Calculations
B. Formulas
C. Functions
D. Relative addressing
2581. In Ms Excel, which of the following special function keys allow the content in cell?
A. Shift
B. Esc
C. Tab
D. Space
2582. Ctrl+Shift+1 shortcut Keys in excel are used to __________?
A. Format number in comma format
B. Format number in currency format
C. Format number in date format
D. Format number in time format
2583. Which Shortcut keys are used to strikethrough highlighted selection in Excel?
A. Ctrl+4
B. Ctrl+5

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C. Ctrl+6
D. None of the above.
2584. ‘Washington’ joined as _________ state of USA in 1889?
A. 50th
B. 46th
C. 42nd
D. 40th
2585. How may provinces are in “Iran”_________?
A. 31
B. 32
C. 33
D. 34
2586. Which is the largest province of Iran by Area?
A. Alborz
B. Kerman
C. Tehran
D. Ilham Province
2587. Which is the smallest province of Iran by Area?
A. Alborz
B. Ilham province
C. Kerman
D. Tehran

MCQS OF 2023 (Jan - April)

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MCQS OF 2023 (Jan - April)

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A compiled Handbook of 2500 + MCQS

Prepared by: Maqsood Bhatt

This PDF document is graciously shared with PAK MCQS PK

If you are interested in obtaining permission for distribution, publication, or any

3. When the Constitution (1973) was enforced?

4. When the President of Pakistan signed on this Constitution?

6. The 2nd Constitution (1962) was abrogated on ___________?

8. When Ayub Khan resigned of his office?

C. Both (a) and (b)

14. When Martial Law of Ayub Khan was abolished?

A. 1st January, 1962

B. 2nd March, 1962

C. 18th March 1962

D. 1st June 1962

19. Who abrogated the first Constitution (1956)?

A. F.M. Ayub Khan

D. Chaudhry Muhammad Ali

A. Chief Justice of Supreme Court

D. Prime Minister with the consent of President

C. National Assembly and Senate

D. National Assembly sand Provincial Assemblies

A. Prime Minister Cabinet and Parliament

B. President Cabinet and Parliament

C. President, Supreme Court and Parliament

D. (a) and (b)

29. The Constitution of 1956 contains provisions relating to __________?

C. Centre and Provinces

D. Centre and Units

31. The designation of Governor-General was changed to President in ________?

32. First Constitution (1956) was enforced on ____________?

A. 1st elected Assembly

B. 2nd Constituent Assembly

C. 1st Constituent Assembly

D. A special Committee for Internal Affairs

37. Who wrote the book “Constitutional History of Pakistan?

39. What were the total members of 2nd Constituent Assembly?

40. When Governor-General convened the 2nd Constituent Assembly?

A. Central Legislature of the country as well as provincial Assemblies

B. Federal legislature Assembly

D. Central legislature of the country

A. It upheld the Governor-General decision

B. It upheld the Sindh Chief Court decision

A. Dissolution is valid according to the prevailing situations

B. Reference to the Federal Court

C. Dismissal of the petition

D. Dissolution was ultra vires and void

A. Governor-General had no authority to dissolve the Assembly

B. Assembly is sovereign body and Governor-general had no authority to dissolve it.

46. 12th amendment in constitution (1973) related to _____________?

C. Establishment of Special Courts

50. 11th amendment related with ________ .

C. Matter relating to Provinces

51. 10th amendment was made on _________ .

52. When was 9th amendment made in the constitution (1973)?

55. 5th amendment in the constitution (1973) was made on _________ .

57. 4th amendment was made in constitution (1973) on _________?

58. 3rd amendment was related to the ____________?

B. Empowered the President to disqualify the member of National Assembly

C. Empowered the Prime Minister to dissolve the Assembly

59. 3rd amendment in constitution (1973) was made on _____________?

60. 2nd amendment was made on ___________?

A. Sindh Chief Court and then Federal Court

B. Punjab Chief Court