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UPSC CDS

MASTER CLASS CAREERWILL


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1. Which one of the following statements about a (c) NBFCs cannot issue cheques drawn on
borrower from a Microfinance Company is not themselves./NBFCs
correct?
(d) NBFCs cannot offer deposit insurance facility
of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
Corporation./NBFCs
(a) The borrower should not have annual
income beyond a limit./
3. The Department for Promotion of Industry and
(b) The borrower should not seek loan amount Internal Trade (DPIIT) has revised the base year
beyond a limit./ index of Eight Core Industries weight of about
having a combined weight 40-27 percent in the
Index of Industrial Production. Which one of the
(c) The borrower should not refuse to offer a
following is not one of the Eight Core Industries?
collateral./
(DPIIT)
(d) The borrower should not refuse to pay any
rate of interest offered./

2. Which one of the following statements about (a) Coal/


Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) is not
(b) Refinery products/
correct?
(c) Rubber products/
(NBFCs)
(d) Cement/
(a) NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits./ 4. Consider the following statements about the
NBFCs Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs):
(b) NBFCs cannot give loans./NBFCs (MSMEs)

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1. The MSMEs comprise a dynamic sector of 7. India is still a young country as the median age of
the Indian economy providing large its population is
employment opportunities./MSMEs

(a) Less than 25 years/


2. MSMEs require low capital cost and help (b) Between 25 to 30 years/
industrialization of backward regions./
MSMEs (c) Between 30 to 35 years/
(d) Between 35 to 40 years/
8. Which one of the following central features is not
3. MSMEs contribute enormously to socio- associated with Capitalist Economy?
economic development./MSMEs

How many of the above statements are correct?/ (a) There is generalised commodity production
it has market value./
(a) None/ (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 (b) Productive wealth is held predominantly in
5. Which of the following is considered as agency private hands./
function of commercial banks in India?
(c) Economic life is organised according to
market principles./
(a) acceptance of deposit/
(b) investment of surplus funds/ (d) Economic organisation is based on planning,
a supposedly rational process of resource
allocation./
(c) acceptance of income tax payment/

(d) providing overdraft facilities/ 9. Among the following countries, where did the
idea of 'Social Market Economy' emerge in 1950s?
6. Which of the following forms of money supply is
considered the most widely used in the Indian
monetary system?

(a) Germany/
(b) France/

(a) M1 (b) M2 (c) United States of America/

(c) M3 (d) M4 (d) United Kingdom/

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10. Who among the following Indian thinkers first 13. Who among the following, first mooted the idea
spoke of food-for-work programmes to of deficit financing?
counteract the effects of famines ?

(a) Adam Smith/


(b) Alfred Marshall/
(a) Kautilya/
(c) John Maynard Keynes/
(b) Aryabhatta/
(d) Milton Friedman/
(c) Chandragomin/
14. Who among the following formulated the
(d) Prabhakara/ concept of poverty as measurable development
11. Which one among the following reports defines indicator in the Indian subcontinent?
Sustainable Development as development that
meets the needs of the present generation
without compromising the ability of future
generations to meet their own needs?
(a) Dadabhai Naoroji/
(b) Romesh Chandra Dutt/
(c) V.K.R.V. Rao/
(d) M. Ranade/
15. Which one of the following terms denotes the
(a) Brundtland Report/ inputs in terms of tools, machines, buildings, raw
(b) United Nations Human Development materials and money in hand required as any
Report/ stage of production?

(c) Agenda-21 of the Rio Earth Summit/

(d) OECD Policy Brief (2006)/ (a) Fixed capital/


(b) Working capital/
12. In India, the period of steady population growth (c) Physical capital/
refers to the decade(a) of: (d) Human capital/
16. Which one of the following would be considered
as Foreign Direct Investment?
(a) 1981 – 2011 (b) 1951 – 1981
(c) 1921 – 1951 (d) 1911 – 1921

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(a) A foreign company buying shares in stock (a) It ensures 175 days of employment to the
exchanges in India/ needy people in rural areas./

(b) A foreign country pension fund investing in


Indian stock markets/ (b) In this, women workers are given relatively
higher wages./
(c) A foreign merchant banker buying shares
from Indian stock markets/ (c) People are generally given both skilled and
unskilled jobs./
(d) A foreign entity setting up educational
institution in India/ (d) It is implemented only in the rural areas of
India./
17. Which one of the following does not influence
quantity demanded for a good? 20. Which one of the following items is not covered
under GST?
GST
(a) Good's own price/
(b) Price of a complementary good/ (a) Cosmetics/
(b) Medical grade oxygen/
(c) Price of a substitute good/
(c) Jewellery/
(d) Prices of inputs into production of the good/ (d) petrol/
21. Infant mortality ratio of which one of the
18. Which one of the following inputs is required in
following countries is comparable to that of
less quantity in case of non-farming activities?
India?

(a) Land/
(a) China/
(b) Labour/
(b) United States of America/
(c) Capital/
(c) Sri Lanka/
(d) Raw material/
(d) None of the above/
19. Which one of the following statements with
regard to the National Rural Employment 22. Which of the following factors signify
Guarantee Act, 2005 is correct? monopolistic competition?

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1. Differentiated products/ (b) Any public sector company to be merged
2. Large number of buyers and sellers/ with another public sector company/

3. Barriers to entry/
(c) Privatization of any loss-making State-
4. Homogeneous products/
owned company/
Select the correct answer using the code given
below:/
(d) Any foreign multinational company doing
business in India in collaboration with an
(a) 1 and 2 only/ Indian company/
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only/
(c) 3 and 4 only/
(d) 2 and 4 only/ 25. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer
using the code given below the lists:
23. Which of the following variable(s) is/are
I II
displayed in population pyramids ?

List I/ I List II/ II

1. Age-groups/ (Curve)/ (Indication)/


A. Lorenz curve/ 1. Inflation and employment/
2. Sex indicators (male and female)/

B. Phillips curve/ 2. Tax rates and tax revenue/


Select the correct answer using the code given
below:/
C. Engel curve/ 3. Inequality in distribution of
income or wealth/
(a) Only 1/
(b) Only 2/ D. Laffer curve/ 4. Income and proportion of
(c) Both 1 and 2/ expenditure on food/
(d) Neither 1 nor 2/
24. What is "Unicorn Company' often mentioned in
Indian news? A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 2 1 4 3
(a) Any privately held startup company with a
(c) 3 1 4 2
value of over $ 1 billion/ $
(d) 2 4 1 3

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26. Which one of the following is a typical example (a) It is a specialized financial investigation
of monopolistic competition? agency under the Department of Revenue,
Ministry of Finance./

(a) Retail vegetable markets/


(b) It enforces the Foreign Exchange
(b) Market for soaps/
Management Act, 1999./
(c) Indian Railways/
(d) Labour market for software engineers/ (c) It enforces the Prevention of Money
Laundering Act, 2002/
27. Following the Constitution (One Hundred and
First Amendment) Act, 2016, the Parliament of (d) It enforces the Prohibition of Benami
India enacted quite a few GST Acts in the year Property Transaction Act, 1988./
2017.
Which one of the following does not fall in this 29. Which one of the following is not correct ?
category?

(a) Taxes on agricultural income is a subject


under the State List./

(b) Price control is a subject under the


Concurrent List./
(a) The Central Goods and Services Tax Act/

(c) Insurance does not come under the Union


(b) The Integrated Goods and Services Tax Act/ List./
(d) 'Forests' is a subject under the Concurrent
(c) The Goods and Services Tax (Compensation List./
to States) Acta/ 30. Which one of the following statements is not
correct?
(d) The State Goods and Services Tax Act/

(a) Real GDP is calculated by valuing outputs of


28. Which one of the following is not correct in different years at common prices./
respect of Directorate of Enforcement?

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(b) Potential GDP is the real GDP that the 33. The increase in private investment spending
economy would produce if its resources induced by the increase in Government spending
were fully employed./ is known as

(a) Crowding in/


(c) Nominal GDP is calculated by valuing
outputs of different years at constant (b) Deficit financing/
prices./
(c) Crowding out/

(d) Real GDP per capita is the ratio of real GDP (d) Pumping out/
divided by population./
34. The asset or assets that a borrower pledges in
order to guarantee repayment of a loan is called as
31. The mismatch in the regional or occupational
pattern of job vacancies and the pattern of
worker availability results in
(a) Cheque/
(d) Collateral/
(c) Guarantee card/
(a) Structural unemployment/
(d) Bond/
35. The percentage by which the money the borrower
(b) Disguised unemployment/
pays back exceeds the money that was borrowed
(c) Altered unemployment/ is called as
(d) Cyclical unemployment/
32. The situation in an economy which is growing
slowly along with rapid inflation (rising price (a) Bank rate/
level) is called (b) Nominal interest rate/
(c) Real interest rate/
(d) Terms of credit/
36. As per the Budget Estimates of 2019-20, the
(a) Stagnation/
following are some of the important sources of
(b) Deflation/ tax receipts for the Union Government:
(c) Stagflation/
(d) Recession/

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1. Corporation Tax/ (a) urea subsidy/
2. Taxes on Income other than Corporation (b) petroleum subsidy/
Tax /
(c) food subsidy/
3. Goods and Services Tax/
(d) fertilizer subsidy/
4. Union Excise Duties/
39. Since 2014-15, India has consistently run trade
Which one of the following is the correct surplus with which one among the following
descending order of the foresaid tax receipts as a countries?
percentage of GDP?

(a) China/
(a) 1,2,3,4 (b) 1,3,2,4
(b) Saudi Arabia/
(c) 3,2,1,4 (d) 2,4,3,1
(c) USA/
37. Which one of the following statements with
regard to the National Food Security Act is not (d) Germany/
correct? 40. As per the use-based classification of the Index
of Industrial Production (UP). the maximum
weight has been assigned to
(a) The Act was enacted in the year 2013./

(b) The Act was rolled out in the year 2014./ (a) primary goods/
(b) intermediate goods/
(c) The Act legally entitles 67 percent of the
(c) consumer durables/
population to receive highly subsidised food
grains./ (d) consumer non-durables/
41. Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand
curve when
(d) The Act is not being implemented in all the
States/Union Territories./ (a) price of a commodity falls/

38. As per the Budget Estimates of expenditure on (b) consumers want to buy more at any given
major subsidies during 2019-20, the maximum price/
expenditure was likely to be on

(c) average income rises/


(d) population grows/

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42. Decadal growth rate of population in percentage 45. National Disaster Management Authority works
was highest in India in the year under which ministry?

(a) 1991 (a) Environment, Forest and Climate Change/


(b) 1981
(b) home/
(c) 1971
(c) commerce and industry/
(d) 1961
(d) finance/
43. A market, in which there are a large number of
firms, homogeneous product, infinite elasticity 46. Which one of the following is the earliest
of demand for an individual firm and no control launched scheme of the Government of India?
over price by firms, is termed as

(a) Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana/

(b) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana/


(a) oligopoly/
(b) imperfect competition/ (c) Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana/

(c) monopolistic competition/


(d) Deendayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya
Yojana/
(d) perfect competition/
44. Which one of the following is not an objective of
47. Saubhagya, a Government of India Scheme,
the MGNREGA? relates to which of the following areas?
(MGNREGA)

(a) Providing up to 100 days of skilled labour in (a) Achieving universal household electrification/
a financial year/
(b) Providing clean cooking fuel to poor
(b) Creation of productive assets/ households/

(c) Enhancing livelihood security/ (c) Rationalizing subsidies on LPG/

(d) Ensuring empowerment to women/ (d) Stopping female foeticide/

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48. Which one of the following is not correct about 50. The Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public
Repo rate? Enterprises consists of

(a) It is the interest rate charged by the Central


Bank on overnight loan./ (a) the Department of Heavy Industry and the
Department for Promotion of Industry and
(b) It is the interest rate paid by the commercial Internal Trade/
banks on overnight borrowing./
(b) the Department of Public Enterprises and
the Department for Promotion of Industry
(c) It is the interest rate agreed upon in the loan and Internal Trade/
contract between a commercial bank and
the Central Bank./
(c) the Department of Scientific and Industrial
Research and the Department of Heavy
Industry/
(d) It is the cost of collateral security./

(d) the Department of Heavy Industry and the


49. What does cash reserve ratio (what kind of
reserve ratio) refer to? Department of Public Enterprises/

51. Who among the following is the Chairman of the


Economic Advisory Council to the Prime Minister
(a) The share of net demand and time liabilities
(EAC-PM)?
(debts) that banks hold as liquid assets/
(EAC – PM)

(a) Ratan P. Watal/


(b) The portion of Net Demand and Time
(b) Bibek Debroy/
Liabilities that R.B.I. Banks have to keep the
money in the form of balance with them./ (c) Ashima Goyal/
R.B.I. (d) Sajjid Chinoy/
52. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
(c) The share of net demand and time liabilities Ayushman Bharat scheme?
that banks have to hold as part of their cash
reserves/

(a) There is no cap on the size and age of the


(d) Ratio of cash held to bank's reserves/ family./

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(b) Pre and post hospitalization expenses are
covered in this plan./

(c) A fixed transport allowance is also paid to (a) 25% (b) 35%
the beneficiary per hospital visit./ (c) 45% (d) 55%
55. Which of the following statements about "Invest
India' is/are correct?
(d) The scheme provides a benefit cover of Rs
10 lakh per family./
1. It is a joint venture (not for profit) company./
53. Which one of the following is the correct
sequence of formation of the Commissions 2. It is the National Investment Promotion and
starting from the earliest? Facilitation Agency of India./

Select the correct answer using the code given


below:/
(a) Finance Commission, Planning Commission,
Investment Commis- sion, Election (a) 1 only/
Commission/ (b) 2 only/
(c) Both 1 and 2/
(b) Election Commission, Planning Commission,
(d) Neither 1 nor 2/
Finance Commission, Investment
Commission/ 56. Which one of the following statements about the
Organization of Islamic Cooperation is not
correct?
(c) Planning Commission, Election Commission,
Finance Commission, Investment
Commission/
(a) Its permanent Secretariat is located at
(d) Investment Commission, Finance Jeddah./
Commission, Planning Commission, Election (b) It endeavours to safeguard and protect
Commission/ interests of the Muslim world in the spirit of
promoting international peace and harmony
among various people of the world."
54. According to the Census 2011, in India, what is
the percentage of people (approximately)
considered to be migrants (internal), ie., now
settled in a place different from their previous
residence?

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(c) It is the largest inter-governmental 60. The Public Financial Management System (PFMS)
organization of the world./ is a web-based online software application
designed, developed, owned and implemented
by the
(d) It has consultative and cooperative relations (PFMS)
with the UN./UN

57. Under which one of the following Articles of the


Constitution of India, a statement of estimated
(a) Department of Financial Services/
receipts and expenditure of the Government of
India has to be laid before the Parliament in
respect of every financial year? (b) Institute of Government Accounts and
Finance/
(c) Controller General of Accounts/
(d) National Institute of Financial Management

(a) Article 110/ 61. Which one of the following equals Personal
(b) Article 111/ Disposable Income?
(c) Article 112/
(d) Article 113
58. Where was the South Asian Association for (a) Personal Income - Direct taxes paid by
Regional Cooperation established? households and miscellaneous fees, fines,
etc./

(a) Colombo/
(b) Private Income Saving of Private Corporate
(b) Islamabad/
Sectors - Corporation Tax/
(c) Kathmandu/
(d) Dhaka/ (c) Private Income - Taxes/
59. Which of the following country is not a founding
(d) Total expenditure of Households Income
member of the New Development Bank?
Tax-Gifts received/

62. The working of the price mechanism in a free-


(a) Brazil/ (b) Canada/
market economy refers to which one of the
(c) Russia/ (d) India/ following?

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(b) In India, the sex ratio is expressed as the
number of females per thousand males./
(a) The interplay of the forces of demand and
supply/

(c) Globally, the sex ratio is about 102 males


(b) Determination of the inflation rate in the
for every 100 females./
economy/

(c) Determination of the economy's propensity


(d) In Asia, the sex ratio is high (high)./
to consume/

65. Who among the following gave the concept of


(d) Determination of the economy's full human development?
employment output/

63. Indexation is a method whose use can be


(a) Amartya Sen/
associated with which one of the following?
(b) Mahbub-ul-Haq/
(c) Sukhmoy Chakraborty/
(d) G. S. Chadha/
66. Which one of the following statements with
(a) Controlling inflation/
regard to economic models is not correct?
(b) Nominal GDP estimation/
GDP
(c) Measurement of savings rate/
(a) They involve simplification of complex
(d) Fixing of wage compensation/ processes./

64. Which of the following statements is not correct (b) They represent the whole or a part of a
regarding sex combination? theory./

(c) They can be expressed only through


(a) In some countries, the sex ratio is expressed equations./
as the number of males per thousand
females./ (d) They help in gaining an insight into cause
and effect./

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67. The value of the slope of a normal demand curve is 70. When some goods or productive factors are
completely fixed in amount, regardless of price,
(a) positive/ the supply curve is
(b) negative/
(c) zero/
(d) infinity/
(a) horizontal/
68. Which one of the following is an example of a
price floor? (b) downward sloping to the right/

(c) vertical/
(a) Minimum Support Price (MSP) for Jowar in (d) upward sloping to the right/
India/
(MSP) 71. Which one of the following is not an assumption
(b) Subsidy given to farmers to buy fertilizers/ in the law of demand?

(e) Price paid by people to buy goods from


(a) There is no change in the taste and
ration shops/
preferences of the consumer./

(d) Maximum Retail Price (MRP) printed on the


(b) The income of the consumer remains fixed
covers/packets of goods sold in India/
(permanent)./
(MRP)
69. Which one of the following factors is not (c) Consumers are affected by the performance
considered in determining the Minimum Support effect./
Price (MSP) in India? (d) There is no change in the price of substitute
(MSP) goods./

72. Which of the following statement is not correct?


(a) Cost of production/
(b) Price trends in international and domestic (a) When total utility is maximum, marginal
markets/ utility is zero./

(c) Cost of living index/ (b) When total utility decreases, marginal utility
(d) Inter-crop price parity/ is negative./

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(c) When total utility increases, marginal utility 3. It has a democratic management./
is positive./
4. It has a collective ownership./
(d) When total utility is maximum, marginal and
average utility are equal to each other./ Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only/


73. Consider the following statements about (b) 1, 2 and 3 only/
indifference curves: (c) 3 and 4 only/
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4/
75. A market situation when many firms sell similar
1. Indifference curves are convex to the but not identical products is termed as
origin./

2. Higher indifference curve represents higher


(a) perfect competition/
level of satisfaction./
(b) imperfect competition/

3. Two indifference curves cut each other./


(c) monopolistic competition/

Which of the statements given above is/are (d) oligopoly/


correct?
76. Which one of the following hypotheses
postulates that individual's consumption in any
(a) 1 only/ time period depends upon resources available to
the individual, rate of return on his capital and
(b) 1 and 2/
age of the individual?
(c) 2 and 3/
(d) 3 only/
74. Consider the following statements about a joint-
stock company:
(a) Absolute Income Hypothesis./

(b) Relative Income Hypothesis/


1. It has a legal existence./
(c) Life Cycle Hypothesis/
2. There is limited liability of share- holders./ (d) Permanent Income Hypothesis/

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77. According to John Maynard Keynes, employment (a) The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)/
depends upon
(b) The National Disaster Management
Authority/
(a) Aggregate demand/
(c) The Ministry of Finance/
(b) Aggregate supply/
(d) The National Development Council (NDC)/
(c) Effective demand/
(d) Rate of interest/ 80. Which of the following are the benefits of the
78. Consider the following statements relating to Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana (PMJAY)?
Coal India Limited:

1. Free treatment available at all public and


1. It is designated as a 'Maha Ratna' company empanelled private hospitals in times of
need/
under the Ministry of Coal./

2. Cashless and paperless access to quality


2. It is the single largest coal- producing
health-care services/
company in the world./

3. The Headquarters of Coal India Limited is 3. Providing health insurance up to Rs 5,00,000


located at Ranchi, Jharkhand./ to each family from the government every
year/

Which of the statements given above is/are


correct? 4. Pre-existing diseases are not covered/

Select the correct answer using the code given


(a) 1 only/
below./
(b) 1 and 2 only/
(c) 2 and 3 only/ (a) (b)
(d) 1, 2 and 3/ (c) (d)
79. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is 81. Who will host the 11th BRICS (BRICS) summit in
operated by which one of the following bodies? 2019?
(BRICS)

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(a) China/ (b) Russia/
(c) Brazil/ (d) India/
82. Which one of the following is the correct
ascending sequence of States in terms of their
population density as per Census 2011? (a) Uttar Pradesh/
(b) Himachal Pradesh/
(c) Punjab/
(d) West Bengal/
(a) Arunachal Pradesh—Sikkim— Mizoram— 85. Which one of the following is the correct
Himachal Pradesh/ — ascending sequence of States with regard to
— —
percentage of urban population (2011)?
(b) Arunachal Pradesh—Mizoram— Sikkim—
Himachal Pradesh/ —
— —
(c) Mizoram—Arunachal Pradesh— Himachal
(a) Tamil Nadu—Mizoram—Goa— Maharashtra
Pradesh—Sikkim/ — —
— — —

(b) Goa—Mizoram—Maharashtra—Kerala/
(d) Arunachal Pradesh—Himachal Pradesh—
— — —
Sikkim—Mizoram/ —
— — (c) Maharashtra—Kerala—Mizoram—Goa/
— — —
83. The rate of population growth during 2001-2011
decade declined over the previous decade (1991- (d) Mizoram—Goa—Maharashtra— Kerala/
2001) in all of the following States, except — — —
86. According to the latest Reserve Bank of India
study on State finances, capital spending is
maximum on

(a) Tamil Nadu/


(b) Kerala/
(c) Goa/
(a) rural development/
(d) Andhra Pradesh/
(b) water supply and sanitation/
84. As per Census 2011, the concentration of
Scheduled Caste population (going by percentage
of Scheduled Caste population to total population (c) urban development/
of the State) is the highest in the State of (d) education/

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87. The Fourteenth Finance Commission assigned (c) Somnath (Gujarat)/
different weights to the following parameters for (d) Velankanni (Tamil Nadu)/
distribution of tax proceeds to the States:
90. According to the updated World Bank data for
2017, India is the sixth biggest economy of the
world (in terms of GDP). Which one of the
following is not ahead of India?
1. Income distance/
2. Population/ [
3. Demographic changes/ (GDP) ]
4. Area/
Arrange the aforesaid parameters in descending (a) Japan/
order in terms of their weights. (b) UK/
(c) France/
(d) Germany/
(a) 1–2–3–4 (b) 1–2–4–3 91. Which one of the following is correct about
(c) 1–3–2–4 (d) 4–3–2–1 'Aaykar Setu'?
88. As per the extant policy, FDI in Defense sector
under automatic route is permitted up to which
of the following limits? (a) It is a mechanism for achieving excellence
in public sector delivery related to GST./
GST

(a) 26 percent/ (b) With the use of a mobile app, it facilitates


(b) 74 percent/ online payment of taxes./

(c) 51 percent/
(d) 49 percent/
(c) It is a communication strategy designed to
89. Under the PRASAD Tourism Scheme, which one collect information and build a database of
of the following has not been identified as a tax defaulters./
religious site for development?
PRASAD
(d) It enables electronic filing and processing of
import and export declarations./
(a) Ajmer (Rajasthan)/
(b) Haridwar (Uttarakhand)/

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92. Which one of the following statements about 95. Which one of the following is not an objective of
Exchange-Traded Fund (ETP) is not correct? the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana
(ETF) (PMKSY)?
(PMKSY)
(a) It is a marketable security./
(b) It experiences price changes throughout the
(a) To achieve convergence of investment in
day./
irrigation at the field level/
(c) It typically has lower daily liquidity and
higher fees than mutual fund shares./
(b) To expand cultivable area under irrigation/

(d) An ETF does not have its net asset value (c) To improve on-farm water use efficiency to
calculated once at the end of every day./ETF reduce wastage of water/

93. Which one of the following is the maximum age (d) To protect farmers against crop failure due
of joining National Pension System (NPS) under to natural calamities/
the NPS- Private Sector?
(NPS)
NPS, 96. Which one of the following statements about
Niryat Bandhu Scheme" is correct?
(a) 55 years/
(b) 60 years/
(c) 65 years/
(a) It is a scheme for mentoring first generation
(d) 70 years/
entrepreneurs./
94. Which of the following states of India has the
maximum percentage of Scheduled Castes
population in their total population? (b) It is a scheme for crop protection./

(c) It is a scheme for the vulnerable section of


the society./
(a) Mizoram/
(b) Nagaland/ (d) It is a scheme for monitoring rural poor./
(c) Meghalaya/
(d) Arunachal Pradesh/

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97. Which one of the following statements about the (a) improve/
Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya
(b) diminish/
Yojana (DDU-GKY) is not correct?
(c) remain constant/

(DDU -GKY) (d) first diminish and then improve/

(a) It is a placement-linked skill training 100. The phenomenon of 'demographic dividend' of


programme exclusively for rural girls. a country relates to

(b) It aims to convert India's demographic (a) a sharp decline in total population/
surplus into a demographic dividend.

(b) an increase in working age population/

(c) The scheme aims to benefit more than 55


million poor rural folk./
(e) a decline in infant mortality rate/

(d) It is a generational poverty alleviation (d) an increase in sex ratio/


programme./
101. Arrange the following events in sequential order
98. The first BRICS Summit, after the inclusion of as they happened in India:
South Africa, was held at
BRICS
1. Mahalanobis Model/
(a) Brasilia/ 2. Plan Holiday/
(b) Sanya/ 3. Rolling Plan/
(c) Yekaterinburg/ Select the correct answer using the code given
(d) Durban/ below.
99. According to the law of diminishing marginal
utility, as the amount of a good consumed
(a) 1, 2, 3
increases, the marginal utility of that good tends to
(b) 3, 2, 1
(c) 2, 3, 1
(d) 1, 3, 2

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102. The monetary policy in India uses which of the 105. Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct
following tools? answer using the code given below the Lists:
I II

1. Bank rate/
List-1 (Type of Deficit) List-II (Explanation)/
2. Open market operations/
II I
3. Public debt/
A. Fiscal Deficit/ Total Expenditure - Revenue
4. Public revenue/
Receipts & Non-debt Capital
Select the correct answer using the code given
Receipts/
below.

(a) 1 and 2 only/


B. Revenue Deficit/ Revenue Expenditure -
(b) 2 and 3 only/
Revenue Receipts/
(c) 1 and 4 only/
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4/
C. Effective Revenue Deficit/
103. Devaluation of currency will be more beneficial
Revenue Deficit - Grants
if prices of
for Creation of Capital Assets/

(a) domestic goods remain constant/

D. Primary Deficit/ Fiscal Deficit - Interest


(b) exports become cheaper to importers/
Payments/

(c) imports remain constant/


Code:/
(d) exports rise proportionately/
(a) A B C D
104. In India, the base year of the new GDP series has 1 2 3 4
been shifted from 2004-05 to
(b) A B C D
GDP
1 3 2 4
(c) A B C D
(a) 2007-08
(b) 2008-09 4 2 3 1
(c) 2010-11 (d) A B C D
(d) 2011-12 4 3 2 1

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106. Why was constitutional amendment needed for 108. UBI, as an alternative for subsidies in poverty
introducing GST? alleviation, stands for
GST
UBI

(a) States were not willing to agree with the (a) Union Basic Income/
Union for introduction of GST without (b) Undefined Basic Income/
amendment in the Constitution./ (c) Unconditional Basic Income/
GST (d) Universal Basic Income/
109. Which one of the following is not a feature of the
(b) GST was to be implemented on concurrent Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana (SAGY)?
base and Article 246 was inadequate for (SAGY)
such a case./GST
(a) It focuses on community participation./

(c) The Empowered Committee of Finance (b) It is to be guided by a Member of the


Ministers had recommended for Parliament./
constitutional amendment./ (c) It aims at creating infrastructure for the
village./

(d) The GST Council had recommended for (d) A Village Development Plan would be
constitutional amendment so that its power prepared for every identified Gram
enhances./GST Panchayat./

110. Which one of the following statements is correct


107. In the formula given by the 14th Finance in relation to the GST Bill passed by the Rajya
Sabha in August 2016?
Commission, which of the following criteria got
the most importance for determining the shares GST
of the states?

(a) It will replace all central taxes, duties, etc.,


only by a single tax./

(a) population/
(b) income gap/ (b) It will subsume central as well as State taxes,
(c) Area/ duties, etc./
(d) tax effort/

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(c) GST will be levied on alcoholic liquor for language is treated as a literate/
human consumption at a uniform rate of 25
percent./
GST
(d) Petroleum and petroleum products shall not (c) a person aged nine and above who can both
be subjected to the levy of GST./ read and write with understanding in any
GST language is treated as a literate/

111. Which one of the following statements is not


correct in respect of the South Asian Association
for Regional Cooperation (SAARC)?
(d) a person aged ten and above who can both
(SAARC) read and write with understanding in any
language is treated as a literate/
(a) Its Headquarters is located in Kathmandu./

(b) China is the only country with an Observer


status in SAARC./ 113. Which one of the following is not a component
SAARC of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government?
(c) The First SAARC Summit was held in Dhaka./
SAARC
(d) The Eighteenth SAARC Summit was held in (a) Corporate tax receipts/
Nepal./ SAARC (b) Dividends and profits/
(c) Disinvestment receipts/
112. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(d) Interest receipts/
114. Consider the following statements about the
For the purpose of Census 2011/ Second Five-Year Plan:

(a) a person aged seven and above who can


both read and write with understanding in
1. It was drafted under the leadership of K. N.
any language is treated as a literate/
Raj./

2. It proposed that industries like electricity,


railways, steel, machineries and
(b) a person aged eight and above who can both communication could be developed in the
read and write with understanding in any
public sector./

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2. It is generated through complex computer
software systems./
3. The drafters found balancing industry and
agriculture very difficult./ 3. The Reserve Bank of India recognized it as a
legal tender in January 2016./

4. The drafters found balancing industry and


agriculture really easy./ Select the correct answer using the code given
below.

Which of the statements given above is/are (a) 1 only/


correct? (b) 1 and 2 only/
(c) 2 and 3 only/
(a) 1 only/ (d) 1, 2 and 3/
(b) 1 and 2/ 117. Which of the following statements are correct
(c) 2 and 3/ about 'Saakshar Bharat' scheme?
(d) 3 and 4/
115. TRIPS Agreement pertains to
TRIPS 1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme which was
launched during the Eleventh Five-Year
(a) international tariff regime/
Plan./

(b) intellectual property protection/

2. The scheme applies to women in particular


(c) international practices on trade facilitation/ and disadvantaged groups in general.

(d) international taxation of property/

3. The scheme applies to persons above the


116. Which of the following statements about Bitcoin age of 10 years./
is/are correct?
(Bitcoin) 4. The scheme is anchored with Panchayati Raj
Institutions and Local Self-Government.
1. It is a decentralized virtual currency./

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Select the correct answer using the code given 120. Which one of the following sectors is not affected
below. by the changes made in the Foreign Direct
Investment Policy in June 2016?

(a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4


(c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4
118. The Twelfth Five-Year Plan focussed on inclusive (a) Multi-brand retailing/
growth. Which of the following were considered (b) Defence/
as challenges for inclusiveness? (c) Private security agencies/
(d) Manufacturing of small arms and
ammunitions covered under the Arms Act, 1959/

1. Poverty/
121. Which one of the following indices is now used
2. Group inequality/ by the Reserve Bank of India to measure the rate
3. Regional imbalance/ of inflation in India?

4. Unemployment/
Select the correct answer using the code given
below. (a) NASDAQ Index/NASDAQ
(b) BSE Index/BSE
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only/ (c) Consumer Price Index/
(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4/ (d) Wholesale Price Index/
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only/ 122. The Most Favoured Nation (MPN) Clause under
WTO regime is based on the principle of
(d) 2 and 3 only/
WTO
119. Which one of the following intellectual property (MFN)
rights is protected without making any
(a) non-discrimination between nations/
registration?
(b) discrimination between nations/

(a) Copyright/ (c) differential treatment between locals and


foreigners/
(b) Patent/
(c) Industrial design/ (d) uniform tariff across commodities/
(d) Trademark/

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123. Goods and Services Tax likely to be levied in India 126. Which of the following pairs of Indian State and
is not a tribal population are correct?

(a) gross value tax/ 1. Madhya Pradesh Largest tribal population/

(b) value-added tax/


2. Mizoram Highest percentage of tribal
(c) consumption tax/
population out of the total population of the
(d) destination-based tax/ State

124. Amartya Sen was awarded the Nobel Prize for his 3. Chhattisgarh Second largest tribal
contribution to population after Madhya Pradesh/

4. Arunachal Pradesh: Second highest


(a) Monetary Economics/
percentage of tribal population out of the
(b) Welfare Economics/ total population of the State after Mizoram/
(c) Environmental Economics/

(d) Development Economics/


Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
125. According to Census 2011, which one of the
following is the correct sequence of States in
decreasing order of their total size of population? (a) 1 and 2 only/
(b) 2 and 4 only/
(c) 1, 2 and 3/
(d) 2, 3 and 4/
(a) Kerala, Jharkhand, Assam, Punjab/ 127. The headquarters of Economic and Social
Commission for Asia and the Pacific' is located at
(b) Jharkhand, Kerala, Assam, Punjab/

(c) Kerala, Jharkhand, Punjab, Assam/ (a) Singapore/


(b) Manila/
(d) Jharkhand, Kerala, Punjab, Assam/ (c) Bangkok/
(d) Hong Kong/

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128. Which of the following with regard to the term 130. According to the Classical Theory of Employment,
'bank run' is correct? deviations from the state of full employment are

(a) The net balance of money a bank has in its (a) purely temporary in nature/
chest at the end of the day's business/

(b) permanent in nature/


(b) The ratio of bank's total deposits and total (c) imaginary situations/
liabilities/ (d) normal situations/
131. Capital deepening refers to
(c) A panic situation when the deposit holders
start withdrawing cash from the banks/
(a) going for more fixed capital per worker/

(d) The period in which a bank creates highest (b) emphasis on social overhead capital/
credit in the market/
(c) constant capital-output ratio/
129. Which of the following will be the outcome if an
economy is under the inflationary pressure?
(d) increasing capital-output ratio/

132. The All India Census was


1. Domestic currency heads for depreciation./

2. Exports become less competitive with 1. first attempted in 1872/


imports getting costlier./
2. regularly undertaken since 1881/
3. Cost of borrowing decreases./
3. always undertaken as a five-year exercise/
4. Bondholders get benefitted./

Select the correct answer using the code given


Select the correct answer using the code given
below. below.

(a) 1 and 2/ (a) 1 only/


(b) 2 and 3/ (b) 2 and 3 only/
(c) 1 and 3 only/ (c) 1 and 2 only/
(d) 1, 3 and 4/ (d) 1, 2 and 3/

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133. Which one of the following statements is correct 137. The members of NAFTA are
with respect to the composition of national
NAFTA
income in India?
(a) USA, Canada and Mexico/USA,

(a) The share of manufacturing sector has (b) USA, Canada and India/USA,
declined./
(b) The share of services sector has increased (c) USA, Canada and Japan/USA,
sharply./
(c) The share of agriculture has remained static./
(d) USA, UK and India/USA, UK

(d) The share of services sector has declined./ 138. Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high
priority to bring inflation under control and to
134. In India, the term "hot money' is used to refer to achieve stability in the economic situation?

(a) Currency + Reserves with the RBI/


(a) Fourth Plan (1969-74)/
(b) Net GDR/
(c) Net Foreign Direct Investment/ (b) Fifth Plan (1974-79)/

(d) Foreign Portfolio Investment/


(c) Sixth Plan (1980-85)/

135. Which of the following is/are credit rating (d) Seventh Plan (1985-90)/
agency/agencies in India?
139. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true
with respect to Phillips Curve?
(a) CRISIL
(b) CARE
(c) ICRA 1. It shows the trade-off between
(d) All of the above/ unemployment and inflation/
136. Who among the following is the Chairman of the
Fourteenth Finance Commission?
2 The downward sloping curve of Phillips
(a) C. Rangarajan/ Curve is generally held to be valid only in
(b) Vijay Kelkar/ the short run/
(c) Y. V. Reddy/
(d) Rakesh Mohan/

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3. In the long run, Phillips Curve is usually 1. development of high-yielding crops./
thought to be horizontal at the non-
accelerating inflation rate of unemployment
(NAIRU)/ 2. modernization of irrigation infrastructure./
(NAIRU)

Select the correct answer using the code given 3. introduction of synthetic fertilizers and
below: pesticides./

(a) 1 only/
Select the correct answer using the code given
(b) 2 and 3 only/ below:
(c) 1 and 2 only/
(d) 1, 2 and 3/
(a) I only/
140. Which one of the following nations is not a
member of the Eurasian Economic Union? (b) 2 only/
(c) 2 and 3 only/
(d) 1, 2 and 3/
(a) Belarus/
143. Which of the following is/are the example(s) of
(b) Russia/
Transfer Payment(s)?
(c) Kazakhstan/
(d) Uzbekistan/
141. Shishu, Kishor and Tarun are the schemes of:
1. Unemployment Allowance/

(a) Regional Rural Banks./ 2. Payment of Salary/


(b) Micro Units Development & Refinance 3. Social Security Payments/
Agency Ltd. (MUDRA)./
(MUDRA)
4. Old age Pension/
Select the correct answer using the code given
(c) Small Industries Development Bank of
India./ below:
(d) Industrial Development Bank of India./
(a) 1 and 3 only/
142. Norman Borlaug won Nobel Peace Prize for his
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only/
contributions in:
(c) 1, 3 and 4 only/
(d) None of the above/

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144. Which of the following statement(s) are true with (a) Electricity/
respect to the concept of 'EFFICIENCY as used in (b) National Defence/
mainstream economics? (c) Light House/
(d) Public Parks/
146. Which one of the following is not among the aims
1. Efficiency occurs when no possible of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-57 to 1960-
reorganisation of production can make 61)?
anyone better off without making. someone
else worse off/

(a) Rapid industrialization with particular


emphasis on the development of basic and
heavy industries/
2. An economy is clearly inefficient if it is inside
the Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)/
(b) Large expansion of employment.
(PPF) opportunities/
3. At a minimum, an efficient economy is on
its Production Possibility Frontier (PPF)/ (c) Achieve self-sufficiency in food grains and
increase agricultural production to meet the
(PPF) requirements of industry and exports/
4. The terms such as "Pareto Efficiency",
'Pareto Optimality' and 'Allocative Efficiency
are all essentially one and the same which
denote 'efficiency in resource allocation"/ (d) Reduction of inequalities in income and
wealth and a more even distribution of
economic power/

Select the correct answer using the code given


below:/ 147. Which of the following statements are correct?
(a) I and 4 only/
(b) 1 and 3 only/ 1. Ability to pay principle of taxation holds that
the amount of taxes people pay should
(c) 2 and 3 only/
relate to their income or wealth/
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4/
145. Which of the following is not a 'Public Goods'?

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2. The Benefit Principle of taxation states that (a) I only/
individuals should be taxed in proportion to (b) 2 only/
the benefit they receive from Government
(c) 1,2 and 3/
programmes/
(d) 1.3 and 4/
149. Which one of the following terms is used in
Economics to denote a technique for avoiding a
3. A progressive tax takes a larger share of tax risk by making a counteracting transaction?
from poor families than it does from rich
families/

(a) Dumping/
4. Indirect taxes have the advantage of being
cheaper and easier to collect/ (b) Hedging/
(c) Discounting/
(d) Deflating/
Select the correct answer using the code given 150. In recent plans, certain words/phrases were used
below:/
in the title of the plan along with growth. They are
(a) 1 and 3 only/
(b) 2 and 4 only/
(c) 1,2 and 4 only/
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4/ 1. Inclusive/
148. Which of the following is/are example(s) of 'Near 2. Faster/
Money' ?
3. More inclusive/
4. Sustainable/

1. Treasury Bill/ 5. More sustainable/

2. Credit Card/ Which combination is true of the Twelfth Five


Year Plan (2012-17)?
3. Savings accounts and small time deposits/

4. Retail money market mutual funds/


(a) 1, 2 and 3/
Select the correct answer using the code given (b) 1,4 and 5/
below: (c) 2, 3 and 4/
(d) 1, 2 and 4/

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151. Demand for a commodity refers to (b) GATT was replaced by the World Trade
Organisation (WTO) in 1995./
(a) Desire for that commodity/ (WTO) (GATT)

(b) Need for that commodity/


(c) The Most Favoured Nation principle under
GATT provided that preferential trading
(e) Quantity demanded of that commodity/
agreements reached with one country
should be extended to other countries./GATT
(d) Quantity demanded at certain price during
any particular period of time

152. Which of the following is not true for SAFTA


(South Asian Free Trade Area)? (d) The WTO has been able to cover in its
agreements the agriculture and textile
SAFTA
sectors which are the principal concerns for
the Least Developed Countries (LDCs)./ WTO
(a) It is a step towards a South Asian customs
union and common market./

(LDC)

(b) The agreement came into effect in 2006./ 154. An exceptional demand curve is one that slopes

(c) The SAFTA is a trade liberalisation regime./ (a) downward to the right/
SAFTA (b) upward to the right/
(d) The SAFTA agreement takes precedence
(e) horizontally/
over any other agreement a member
country may have with states outside (d) upward to the left/
SAFTA./SAFTA 155. Which one of the following is not a part of service
SAFTA sector in India?

153. Which of the following statements is not true?

(a) Transport/
(a) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (b) Construction/
(GATT) had regulated global trade since
1947./ (c) Hotels and restaurants/
(GATT) (d) Insurance/

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156. Under flexible exchange rate system, the (a) Industrial clusters play an important role for
exchange rate is determined the MSME participants in their
inclusiveness, technology absorption and
efficiency improvement/
MSME
(a) predominantly by market/

(b) by the Central Bank/


(b) Industrial clusters are visible in traditional
(c) as a weighted index of a group of currencies/
handloom, handicrafts and modern SME/

(d) by the World Trade Organization/ SME


(c) Industrial cluster programmes in India are
157. When two goods are completely interchangeable, administered by various ministries/
they are

(a) Perfect substitutes/ (d) Industrial clusters lead to promotion of


(b) Perfect complements/ monopoly in the market/
(c) Giffen goods/
(d) Veblen goods/ 160. Which of the following statements in the context
of income-environment relationship is/are
158. Rise in the price of a commodity means
correct?

(a) rise in the value of currency only/

1. Pollution trends tend to follow an inverse-


(b) fall in the value of currency only/ U shaped relationship across different stages
of economic development./
(e) rise in the value of commodity only/

(d) fall in the value of currency and rise in the 2. In the beginning stage, pollution increases
value of commodity/ due to urbanization and industrialization./

159. Which one of the following is not correct in the


context of industrial clusters development in 3. In the later stage, pollution declines due to
India? structural changes towards services sector.

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Select the correct answer using the code given (c) Delhi Transport Corporation/
below. (d) Steel Authority of India/

(a) 1 only/ 164. What is meant by price discrimination?


(b) 1 and 2 only/
(c) 1, 2 and 3/ (a) Increase in price of a commodity over time/
(d) 2 and 3 only/
161. Which one of the following is not a member of (b) A situation where the same product is sold
MERCOSUR (Southern Common Market)? to different consumers for different prices/
MERCOSUR

(a) Argentina/ (c) Subsidization of a product by the


Government to sell it at a lower price/
(b) Paraguay/
(c) Uruguay/
(d) Chile/
(d) General decrease in price of a commodity
162. Which one of the following represents a over time/
progressive tax structure?

165. Which one of the following statements about the


Companies Act, 2013 is not correct?
(a) Tax rate is the same across all incomes/

(b) Tax rate increases as income increases/ (a) The Act regulates the corporate sector to
make it accountable./
(c) Tax rate decreases as income increases/

(d) Each household pays equal amount of tax (b) It provides for Corporate Social
pays / Responsibility./

163. Which one of the following is an example of a (c) It provides more opportunities for new
natural monopoly? entrepreneurs./

(d) It enables wide application of Information


(a) Indian Airlines/ Technology./
(b) Delhi Jal Board/

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166. What is meant by Public Good? 168. Who is the current Vice Chairperson of NITI
Aayog?
NITI
(a) A commodity produced by the Government/
(a) Raghuram Rajan/
(b) Arvind Panagariya/
(b) A commodity whose benefits are indivisibly
(c) Bibek Debroy/
spread among the entire community/
(d) V. K. Saraswat/
169. With reference to "Fair and Remunerative Price
(FRP)". Consider the following statements:
(c) A Government scheme that benefits the
(FRP)
poor households/

1. FRP is the price declared by the government,


(d) Any commodity that is very popular among which sugar mils are legally bound to pay to
general public/ farmers for the cane procured from them./FRP

167. Which of the following statements with regard


to New Development Bank BRICS, formerly
referred to as the BRICS Development Bank, is/ 2. It is fixed and announced by the Commission
are correct? for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP)./
(CACP)
BRICS BRICS

Which of the statements given above is/are


correct?
1. The Headquarters of the Bank is situated at
Moscow, Russia./ (a) 1 only/
(b) 2 only/
2. K. V. Kamath is the first President of the (c) Both 1 and 2/
Bank./
(d) Neither 1 nor 2/
Select the correct answer using the code given 170. Which of the following identifies Central Public
below. Sector Enterprises (CPSES) for strategic
disinvestment and advice on the mode of sale,
and percentage of shares to be sold of the CPSE?
(a) 1 only/
(b) 2 only/
(c) Both 1 and 2/ CPSE
(d) Neither 1 nor 2/

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(a) NITI Aayog/ 3. A company having a turnover of one
hundred crore rupees/
(b) Ministry of Finance/
(c) Department of Investment and Public Asset
Select the correct answer using the code given
Management (DIPAM)/
below.

(d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs/


(a) 1 and 2 only/
(b) 2 and 3 only/
171. Which one of the following is used as the official
classification criteria for Micro, Small, and (c) 1 only/
Medium Enterprises (MSME) in India? (d) 1, 2 and 3/
173. Which one of the following is not an objective of
(MSME) SEZ (Special Economic Zone)?

(a) Number of workers employed/


(a) Selection of additional employment
(b) Share in exports of total manufactured opportunities./
goods/ (b) Use of new technologies. /
(c) Investment and annual turnover/
(c) Creation of additional economic activities./
(d) Number of units of electricity consumed/
(d) Discourage foreign investment./
172. Under the provisions of the Companies Act, 2013,
which of the following companies is/are required 174. With reference to Corporate Social Responsibility
to spend a minimum of 2% of their net profit over (CSR), which of the statements is/are correct?
the preceding three years as Corporate Social (CSR)
Responsibility (CSR)?

1. Company Act-2014 introduces mandatory


CSR./
(CSR)
2% 2. Companies covered under this will have to
1. A company having a net worth of five spend atleast 1% of their annual net profit
hundred crore rupees or more/ in the activities under CSR./

2. A company having a net profit of two crore


rupees/

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Select the correct answer from the codes given 177. Consider the following statements regarding the
below: Repo Rate.

(a) Only 1/ 1. Repo is an instrument with RBI for


(b) Only 2/ borrowing funds only on an overnight
(c) Both 1 and 2/ basis./

(d) Neither 1 nor 2/


2. Both government and corporate sector
175. Which of the following is not included in the
securities can be used for borrowing under
assets of a commercial bank in India?
repo rate./

(a) Advances/
3. Increase in the repo rate will increase the
(b) Deposits/ liquidity in the market./
(c) Investments/
(d) Money at call and short notice/ Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
176. Which of the following sectors/categories fall
under Priority Sector Lending (PSL)?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 only
1. Loan to minorities/
(d) 1, 2 and 3
2. Education Loans/
178. With reference to Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR),
3. Loans for renewable energy/
consider the following statements:

4. Overdraft under Pradhan Mantri Jandhan


Yojana/
1. CRR is the percentage of deposits which a
bank must keep with itself in the form of
Select the correct answer using the code given
any liquid asset./
below.

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only


2. Higher the CRR requirement, lower will be
(b) 3 and 4 only the credit creation in the economy./
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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Which of the statements given above is/are 181. What is the Bank Rate?
correct?
(a) Rate at which Central Bank of a country
(a) 1 only advances loans to the other banks in the
(b) 2 only country./

(c) Both 1 and 2


(b) Rate at which banks advance loans to the
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 customers./
179. Which of the following statements are correct
regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (c) Rate at which banks lend among
(MPC)? themselves./
(MPC)
(d) Rate at which banks lend to money lenders./
1. It is a statutory body/
2. It is a six-member body headed by RBI 182. Which one of the following statements correctly
Governor/ describes the meaning of legal tender money?

3. It is responsible for determining the inflation


target./ (a) The money which is tendered in courts of
low to defray the feel of legal cases./
Select the correct answer using the code given
below.
(b) The money which a creditor is under
compulsion to accept in settlement of his
(a) 1 and 2 only
claims./
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) The Bank Money in the form of cheques,
(d) 1, 2 and 3 drafts, bills of exchange,etc./
180. Which of the following is a measure taken by the
RBI to control deflation in the country? (d) The metallic money in circulation in a
country./
183. What is the Reverse Repo Rate?
(a) Increase in CRR/
(b) Contraction in money supply/ (a) It is the rate of interest at which central bank
borrows money from the commercial banks
of the country./
(c) Raising repo rate/
(d) Decrease in SLR/

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(b) It is the rate of interest at which banks (c) Activities abroad of domestic banks/
deposit their surplus funds with themselves
for short periods./ (d) Performing banking activities and other
activities by foreign bank within other
country/
(c) It is the rate of interest at which banks can
borrow additional money.
186. Out of the four concepts of money supply used
in India M1, M2, M3 and M4, the Post Office
(d) It is the rate of interest at which the RBI buys
Savings are included in:
or rediscounts bills of exchange./
M1, M2, M3 M4

184. If RBI cuts down the repo rate, it will have the (a) M1 only/ M1
following impact: (b) M3 and M4 only/ M3 M4
(c) M4 only/ M4
(d) M2 and M4 only/ M2 M4
1. EMIs (equated monthly instalments) will
187. The reserve held by commercial banks over and
decrease./
above the statutory minimum with the RBI are
2. It will increase investment in the economy/ called-

3. It may lead to inflation in the country./

Which of the above statements are correct?


(a) Cash Reserve/
(b) Deposite Reserve/
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Monetary Reserve/
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) Excess Reserve/
(c) 1 and 3 only
188. The fiscal policy in India uses which of the
(d) 1, 2 and 3
following tools?
185. What is 'shadow banking'?

(a) Bank outsourcing/


1. Bank rate/
(b) Performing financial and other activities by
2. Open market operations/
non-banking financial institutions/
3. Public debt/
4. Public revenue/

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Select the correct answer using the code given (a) Interest paid to the states/
below.

(b) Grants/
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) Pension/
(b) 2 and 4 only
(d) Loan given to the states by the centre/
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4
189. Which one of the following is not a component Select the correct answer using the code given
of Revenue Receipts of the Union Government? below:

(a) 3 and 4 only


(a) Corporate tax receipts/ (b) 1 and 4 only
(b) Dividends and profits/ (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) Disinvestment receipts/ (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) Interest receipts/ 192. A country can be said to be trapped in a debt trap
190. Which of the following are included in the Capital if-
account of the Budget?

(a) It has to follow the conditions imposed by


1. Disinvestment proceeds/
the International Monetary Fund./
2. Borrowings from RBI/RBI
3. Loans to state governments/
4. Interest paid on loans/ (b) He has to take a loan to pay interest on the
Select the correct answer using the code given outstanding loan./
below.

(c) Foreign lenders have refused to give him


(a) 1 and 3 only/ loans or assistance./
(b) 2 and 4 only/
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only/ (d) The World Bank levies a very high rate of
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only/ interest on outstanding loans as well as new
191. What are the components of Revenue loans./
Expenditure of Central Government?

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193. When the interest payment is reduced from the (a) After the third plan/
fiscal deficit, the residual is called (b) After the fourth plan/
(c) After the fifth plan/
(d) After the sixth plan/
(a) Monetary deficit/
197. What as the prime target of the first five-year plan
(b) Primary deficit/
of India?
(c) Current account deficit/
(d) Revenue loss/
194. What is meaning of Guillotine in Parliamentary
Procedure? (a) Development of the industries/

(b) Development of Agriculture/


(a) To stop tge debate on the bill/
(c) Development of infrastructure/
(b) To continue the debate on the bill/
(d) Development of ports/
(c) Boycott of house by members/ 198. Who among the following formulated the
"Gandhian Plan"?
(d) To adjourn the house/
195. Which one of the following has been given the
highest weightage by the 15th Finance
(a) Mahatma Gandhi/
Commission of India while recommending the
distribution of income generated from central (b) Sriman Narayan Agarwal/
taxes among the states?
(c) M.N. Roy/
(d) Mahalanobis/
199. Economic planning is a subject of the following
list.
(a) Area/
(b) Financial discipline /
(a) Federal list/
(c) Population/
(b) State list/
(d) Income difference/
(c) Concurrent list/
196. When was the plan holiday declared?
(d) Not in a specific list/

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200. Contribution of service sector to national income 1. Bonds/
with economic growth- 2. Shares/
3. Fixed Deposits/
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Decreases/
below.
(b) Grows up/
(c) Remains constant/
(a) 1 and 2 only/
(d) All of the above/
201. The ex-officio secretary of the National (b) 2 and 3 only/
Development Council is- (c) 3 only/
(d) 1, 2 and 3/
(a) Secretary General of Lok Sabha/ 204. Which of these is teh regulatory body for the
capital markets in India?
(b) Secretary of the Ministry of Finance/

(c) Planning Commission Secretary/


(a) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development (NABARD)/
(d) Deputy Chairman of Planning Commission/

202. The main objective of the first five-year plan was (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(SEBI)/
(c) Insurance Regulatory and Development
(a) Completion of the loss to the economy
through war and partition/ Authority (IRDA)/

(b) Increase in agricultural and industrial (d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)/
population/
205. Which of the following is/are a component of
(c) Poverty reduction/ organised Indian money market?
(d) Improve the standard of living of people/

203. Which of the following financial instruments can


1. Commercial Papers/
be classified as securities?
2. Mutual Funds/
3. Treasury Bills/
4. Cash Managment Bills/

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Which of the above statement is true 208. Participatory Notes (PNs) are associated with
which one of the following?
(a) 1, 2, 3 (PNs)
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4 (a) Consolidated Fund of India/
(d) All of the above/
206. Which of the following statements about the (b) Foreign Institutional Investors/
Securities and Exchange Board of India is correct?
(c) United Nations Development Programme/

(a) One of the objectives of setting up SEBI was (d) Kyoto Protocol/
to protect the interests of investors./SEBI
209. ____________is a short-term unsecured
promissory note issued by reputed business
organisations at a price lower that its face value
(b) SEBI was established under the Securities
and redeemable at par.
(Contract and Regulation) Act, 1956./SEBI
----------------

(c) SEBI was formed from among the Directors


of stock exchanges in India./SEBI (a) Treasury Bill/
(b) Commercial Paper/
(c) Certificate of Deposite/
(d) SEBI issued various rules and regulations to
help bring monetary gains for investors./ (d) Promissory note/
SEBI 210. SIP is an investment vehicle offered by mutual
funds. What is the form of SIP?

207. Which term is apt to describe the payout made


to shareholders representing their share in the
(a) Saving Investment Plan/
company's profits?
(b) Systematic Investment Plan/

(c) Systematic Investment Programme/


(a) Dividend/
(b) Coupon/ (d) Systematic Insurance Plan/
(c) Interest/
(d) None of the above/ (e) None of the above/

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211. A/an _____ stock is the stock of a large, well- 214. What is "NIKKEI"
established and financially sound company that
has operated many years.
(a) Share Price Indec of Tokyo Share Market/
--------

(b) Name of Japanese Central Bank/


(a) Blue-chip/
(b) Cyclical/ (c) The Japanese name of country's Planning
Commission/
(c) Income/
(d) Defensive/
(d) Foreign Exchange Market of Japan/
212. A bond issued at a price less than its face value
and payable on its due date at its face value
215. Which of the following measures should be taken
bearing no Rate of interest is called _______.
when an economy is going through in inflationary
pressures?

(a) Preference bond/


(b) Zero coupon bond/ 1. The direct taxes should be increased./
(c) Convertible bond/
(d) Perpetual bond/ 2. The interest rate should be reduced./
(e) Sovereign bond/
213. In the capital market, the term arbitrage means 3. The public spending should be increased./

Select the correct answer from the code given


(a) Simultaneous purchase and sale of
below.
securities to make profit from price.

(a) only 1/
(b) Sale of securities to reduce the loss on (b) only 2/
purchase./
(c) 2 and 3/
(d) 1 and 2/
(c) Purchase of securities to cover the sale./
216. Which is an appropriate description of deflation?

(d) Variation in different markets./ (a) It is a sudden fall in the value of a currency
against other currencies./
(e) None of the above./

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(b) It is a persistent recession in the economy./ 219. According to the World Bank's Classification of
economies into income group (on the basis of GNI
(c) It is a persistent fall in the general price level per capita using the Atlas method exchange rates)
of goods and services./ for the 2020-21 fiscal year, India falls in which of
the four incomes groups described below?
(d) It is fall in the rate of inflation over a period 2020–21
of time/

217. Reflation means-

(a) Low income country/


(a) An increase in the general price level that
often results from a decrease in the supply (b) Lower- Middle Income Country/
of money or debt/
(c) Upper-Middle Income Country/

(b) A fall in the general price level, often due to (d) High Income Country/
a shortage in the supply of money or debt/ 220. When savings leaks out of the circular flow
model, what happens to it?

(c) Considered reversal of deflation through a


monetary intervention from the
(a) It flows to borrowers who then inject it back
government/
into the economy.

(d) Decrease in inflation Rate/


(b) It shrinks the size of the economy./
218. Economic Growth in the country will invetiably
be, if- (c) It flows to the government./
X
(a) Technology progress takes place in the world (d) Savings does not leak out of the circular flow
economy/ model./

(b) There is a population growth in X /X 221. Which of the following has/have occurred in India
after its liberalization of economic policies in
1991?
(c) X has capital formation/X
(d) Trade in the world economy only grows/

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I. Share of agriculture in GDP increased 223. If a commodity is provided free to the public by
enormously./GDP the Government, then

II. Share of India's exports in world trade


increased./ (a) the opportunity cost is zero./

III. FDI inflows increased./ FDI


(b) the opportunity cost is ignored./

IV. India's foreign exchange reserves increased


(c) the opportunity cost is transferred from the
enormously./
consumers of the product to the tax-paying
public./
Select the correct answer using the codes given
below:

(d) the opportunity cost is transferred from the


(a) I and IV only/ I IV
consumers of the product to the
(b) II,III and IV only/ II,III IV Government./
(c) II and III only/ II III
(d) I,II,III, and IV/I,II,III IV 224. Which of the following best describes the term
222. Which of the following are the "factors of 'import cover', sometimes seen in the news.
production" used in the production of goods and
services in economic activity?

(a) It tells the ratio of import price to GDP of a


country/
1. Land/
2. Labor/ (b) It tells the total value of imports in a year of
3. Money/ a country./
4. Capital/
5. Enterpreneurship/ (c) It refers to the ratio of prices of exports and
imports between two countries./
Select the correct answer using the code given
below,

(d) It gives the number of months for which


(a) 1, 2 and 4 only/
imports can be paid by the country's
(b) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5/1, 2, 3, 4 5 international reserve./
(c) 3 and 5 only/ 3 5
(d) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only/ 1, 2, 4 5

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225. Equilibrium price in the market is determined by (c) when there is only one buyer and one seller
the of a product/

(d) when there are two buyers and two sellers


(a) equality between marginal cost and average of a product/
cost./

228. In which of the following situations is it necessary


(b) equality between average cost and average
to bear the selling cost?
revenue./

(c) equality between total cost and total


revenue./ (a) Perfect competition/
(b) Monopoly/
(d) equality between marginal cost and
(c) Monopolistic Competition/
marginal revenue./

226. Where one of the following is not an assumption (d) None of these/
in the law of demand? 229. In which of the following market forms, a firm
does not exercise control.

(a) There are no changes in the taste and


preferences of consumers./
(a) Monopoly/

(b) Income of consumers remains constant./ (b) Perfect competition/


(c) Oligopoly/
(c) Consumers are affected by demonstration (d) Monopolistic competition/
effect./
230. Normally, there will not be a shift in the demand
(d) There are no changes in the price of
curve when
substitute goods./

227. Bilateral monopoly situation is


(a) Price of a commodity falls/
(a) when there are only two sellers of a product/
(b) Consumers want to buy more at any given
(b) when there are only two buyers of a price/
product/

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(c) average income rises/
(d) population grows/
231. Marginal revenue is the latest addition made to (a) Incremental consideration of scale/
the
(b) Constant consideration of scale/
(a) Average revenue/
(b) Total production/ (c) Laughable byproduct of scale/
(c) Total revenue/
(d) None/ (d) Negative return of scale/
232. The output function expresses the relationship
between 236. When the total product is maximum, the
marginal product becomestc
(a) Cost and benefit/
(b) Stock and flow/
(c) Demand and supply/ (a) Zero/

(d) Input and output/ (b) Positive/


233. When the marginal cost is decreasing, the average (c) Negative/
cost is less than the marginal cost. (d) None of the above/
237. Demand curve is indeterminate under?

(a) Decreases/
(a) Pure competition/
(b) Is more/
(b) Monopoly/
(c) Equals/
(c) Oligopoly/
(d) Not related to/
(d) Duopoly/
234. MC is equal to AC at the point at which ACMC
238. An economic consition when there is one buyer
AC AC-
and many sellers is called ______.
(a) Is zero/
(b) Is at its minimum/
(c) Increases/
(a) Monopoly/
(d) Decreases/
(b) Oligopoly/
235. If there is an 80% increase in production after a
100% increase in all the means of creation, then (c) Monopsony/
this situation is called- (d) Perfect Competition/

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239. Shut-down point is a point where price is equal (a) C. R. Rao/
to (b) P.C.Mahalanobis/
(c) V.K.R.V. Rao/
(a) AC/ (d) K. N. Raj/
(b) AVC/ 243. The most mentioned measure of economic
growth of a country is:
(c) AFC/
(d) MC/
240. A cartel is ______ .
(a) Gross Domestic Products/
(b) Net Domestic Product/
(a) A consortium of consumers/ (c) Net National Product/
(d) Per Capita Product/
(b) An organisation that sells oil/ 244. What is Real National Income?

(c) An institution that creates price ceilings/


(a) When national income is expressed at
current prices./
(d) A group of producers who mutually agree
to limit production, in order to sustain a (b) When national income is expressed at
price floor./ constant prices./

(c) Changes in the production of goods and


241. Who estimated the National Income in India for services./
the first time?
(d) Price level changes./
245. Green national accounting measures
(a) Prof. P.C. Mahalanobis/
(a) Environmental damage in the nation/
(b) Dr. V. K. R. V. Rao/
(c) Dadabhai Naoroji/ (b) Adjusting the negative effects on national
resources to national production/
(d) M. G. Ranade/
242. Who was the chairman of the National Income
Committee appointed by the Government of (c) To the agricultural power of the nation/
India in 1949?
(d) The country's food production capacity/

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246. National income is not assessed by the following 250. Disguised unemployment generally means
method.
(a) Large number of people remain
unemployed/
(a) Product method/ (b) Alternative employment is not available/
(b) Export-Import method/
(c) Marginal productivity of labour is zero/
(c) Income method/
(d) Expenditure method/
(d) Productivity of workers is low/
247. Which of the following economists first
developed the concept of National Income 251. The Government of India has decided to measure
Account? poverty line in terms of

(a) Household consumption/


(a) Sir William Patty/ (b) Household savings/
(b) Pro-keynes/ (c) Household investment/
(c) Simon Cajanets/ (d) Household Income/
(d) Frank john/ 252. Which of the following is the nodal agency for
248. Unemployment refers to a situation where some estimation of poverty at national and state level
workers are temporarily out of work while in India?
changing jobs.

(a) Finance Commission/


(b) Rural Ministry/
(a) Cyclical/
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs/
(b) Voluntary/
(d) Planning Commission/
(c) Frictional/
253. According to the estimates of poverty using
(d) Seasonal/ Tendulkar methodology, for the year 2011-12, the
249. 'Structural unemployment' arises due to poverty line for a person was fixed at ______ per
month for rural areas and ______ per month for
urban areas.
(a) Deflationary conditions/
(b) Heavy industry bias/
(c) Shortage of raw materials/
(d) Inadequate productive capacity/

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(a) Rs. 848; Rs. 1000 257. It aims to fast track taxpayer's grievance redressal,
(b) Rs. 842; Rs. 1024 ensuring early resolution by integrating all the
online and physical grievances received by the
(c) Rs. 816; Rs. 1000
department and keeping track of it until it reaches
(d) Rs. 860; Rs. 1024 its logical conclusion. What is it?
254. Laffer Curve is related to

(a) Poverty/
(b) Income Inequality/
(c) Taxation/
(a) Aaykar Seva Kendra/
(d) Inflation/
(b) Aaykar Setu/
255. In which tax system-Burden of Tax Higher on Poor (c) e-Nivaran/
category in Comparison to rich category
(d) TDS SMS alert scheme/

258. Tax evasion means


(a) Progressive/
(b) Regressive/ (a) Attempting to pay taxes illegally/
(c) Proportional/
(d) None of these/ (b) Attempt to save tax through savings Tax
256. What is GST Bill officially called? Avoidance/

(c) Attempt to avoid tax payment in a legal


(a) The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty-
manner Tax Avoidance/
Second Amendment) Bill, 2014
2014
(d) These all/
(b) The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirty-
259. With which of the following taxes is the Minimum
Second Amendment) Bill, 2014
Alternative Tax (MAT) imposed by the
2014 Governement of India?
(c) The Constitution (One Hundred and Twenty- (MAT)
Second Amendment) Bill, 2016
2016 (a) Personal income tax/
(d) The Constitution (One Hundred and Thirty- (b) Corporation tax/
Second Amendment) Bill, 2016 (c) Service tax/
2016 (d) Expenditure tax/

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260. Which of the following tax systems reduces (a) Green field companies/
income inequlities?
(b) Brown field companies/
(c) Life insurance business/
(d) Zero Tax Companies/
(a) Regressive/
264. In the Income Tax Act _______ there is a
(b) Proportional/
certificate, which the employer gives to his
(c) Progressive/
employees. This certifies that it certifies the
(d) All of the above/ amount of tax deducted from the salary of the
261. Tax revenue sharing in India is based on- employee by the employer.

(a) On the suggestions of the Central


Government/
(b) On the suggestions of the state
governments/ (a) Form 16/
(c) On the suggestions of the Planning
(b) Form 15/
Commission/
(c) Form 12/
(d) On the suggestions of the Finance
Commision/ (d) Form 26AS/ AS
262. Which of the following is not a deduction from 265. Which of the following is a tax that only the state
the total income for computing income tax? can recover?

(a) Interest payment on housing loan/ (a) Tax on capital value of assets of individuals
and companies/
(b) Interest on personal loan/
(b) Customs/
(c) Payment of health insurance premium/ (c) Surcharge on income tax/

(d) Interest on education loan/


(d) Land Revenue/
266. Which of the following fall within the purview of
263. MAT (Minimum Alternative Tax) is levied on
Capital account under the Balance of Payments?
_________.

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1. Dividends on foreign assets which are 2. Foreign Direct Investment/
abroad/ 3. Private Remittances/
4. Portfolio Investment/
2. Gifts from abroad/
Codes
3. Foreign institutional investment/
(a) 1, 2 and 3/
(b) 1, 2 and 4/
Select the correct answer using the code given
below (c) 2, 3 and 4/
(d) 1, 3 and 4/
(a) 1 only/ 269. If the balance of payments is in the opposite
direction in a country, what will be the beneficial
(b) 2 only and 3 only/ step for the economy?
(c) 3 only/
(d) 1, 2 and 3/
267. The main components of foreign exchange
reserves are in India. (a) to overvalue/
(b) to undervalue/
1. Foreign Exchange Assets of Reserve Bank of
(c) Demonetization/
India./
(d) None of these/
270. Which ministry of government of India is related
2. Gold treasures of 2nd century./RBI
to foreign trade policy of India?

3. Money collected with the government./


SDR
(a) Ministry of Defense/
4. Amount secured with money./IMF
(b) Foreign ministry/

(a) 1 and 2/ (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry/

(b) 1 A2 and 3/
(d) Home ministry/
(c) 1 and 4/
271. Which one of the following is not an objective of
(d) All of these/ SEZ (Special Economic Zone)?
268. Which of the following constitute capital
account?

(a) Selection of additional employment


1. Foreign Loans/ opportunities./

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(b) Use of new technologies./ 274. Consider the following statements:

(c) Creation of additional economic activities./ 1. Most of India's foreign debt is due to the
debt of government entities./
(d) Discourage foreign investment./

272. In which year was the Export-Import (Exim) Bank 2. All of India's foreign debt is in
formed in India? denominations of USD./
US
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1980
(b) 1982 (a) only 1/
(c) 1981 (b) only 2/
(d) 1989 (c) Both 1 and 2/
273. Which of the following things will be included in (d) Neither 1 nor 2/
foreign direct investment in India? 275. Consider the following statements regarding e-
RUPI prepaid digital vouchers:
e-RUPI
1. Subsidiaries of foreign companies in India/
1. The maximum amount of e-RUPI is rupees
2. Majority foreign equity holding in Indian one lakh./e-RUPI
companies/
2. Beneficiaries can receive e-RUPI without
3. Companies exclusively funded by foreign having a bank account. e-RUPI/
e-RUPI
companies/
3. To receive e-RUPI on mobile phones,
beneficiaries need a smart phone with
4. Portfolio Investment/
Internet connection./ e-RUPI
Choose the correct answer based on the following
codes:/
Which of the statements given above is/are
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4/ correct?
(b) 2 and 4 only/
(c) 1 and 3 only/ (a) 1 and 2 (b) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only/ (c) 1 and 3 (d) 2 only

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276. Department of Public Enterprises is a part of (b) Global terror finance detection system/

(a) Ministry of Finance./ (c) Global money transfer system/


(b) Ministry of Heavy Industries./
(d) Global stock-market information sharing
(c) PMO./ system/

(d) Ministry of Commerce and Industry./ 279. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
(IBBI) was established in the year

277. Which of the following is/are social security (IBBI)


scheme(s)?
(a) 2014 (b) 2015
(c) 2016 (d) 2017
1. Atal Pension Yojana/ 280. Among the given options, what can be included
2 Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojana/ in National Income?

3. Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana/


(a) Financial help to earthquake victims/

Select the correct answer using the code given


below: (b) Pocket money of a child/
(c) Winning of a lottery prize/
(d) Construction of a new house/
(a) 1 only/
(b) 2 and 3 only/ 281. Consider the following statements about
Companies (NBFCs) in India.
(c) 1, 2 and 3/
(NBFC)
(d) 1 and 3 only/
278. The SWIFT (The Society for Worldwide Interbank
1. They cannot engage in the acquisition of
Financial Telecommunication) frequently
securities issued by the government./
mentioned in news, is essentially a
SWIFT

2. They cannot accept demand deposits like


(a) Global financial intelligence agency/ Savings Account./

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Which of the statements given above is/are 284. Which one among the following is the most
correct? populated State in India as per Census 2011?

(a) 1 only/
(a) Goa/
(b) 2 only/
(b) Mizoram/
(c) Both 1 and 2/
(c) Meghalaya/
(d) None of these/
(d) Sikkim/
282. Which of the following is known as an agency
285. Which one of the following best describes BRICS?
function of commercial banks in India?
BRICS

(a) A group of five nuclear powers/


A. Receiving deposits/
B. Advancing loans/ (b) A group of five industrialized nations/
C. Collecting income taxes/
D. Transfer of funds/ (c) A group of five major emerging economies/

(a) Only A and B/ A B


(d) A group of five potentially strong UN
(b) Only A, B and C/ A, B C
Security Council members from the
(c) Only C and D/ C D Countries of the Global South/
(d) Only B and C/ B C
283. Which of the following is NOT a feature of
National Income? 286. Which one of the following is not a dimension of
the Human Development Index?

(a) It is a macroeconomic concept./


(a) A long and healthy life/

(b) It is a flow concept./ (b) Knowledge/


(c) It is always expressed with reference to the (c) Access to banking and other financial
financial year./ provisions/

(d) It is included only in intermediate goods./ (d) A decent standard of living/

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287. Gini Coefficient or Gini Ratio can be associated 291. Find the correct arrangement of the following
with which one of the following measurements urban agglomerations in descending order as per
in an economy? their population size according to Census 2011.

(a) Rate of inflation/ (a) Delhi-Mumbai-Kolkata-Chennai


(b) Poverty index/
(c) Income inequality/ (b) Mumbai-Delhi-Kolkata-Chennai
(d) Personal income/
288. Which mega public sector undertaking is (c) Mumbai-Kolkata-Delhi-Chennai
designated with 'Navratna' status?
(d) Kolkata-Chennai-Mumbai-Delhi

(a) IndianOil Corporation Limited/


292. Consider the following statements with respect
to the adolescent population (age group of 10 to
(b) Gas Authority of India Limited/
19 years) of India, according to the 2011 Census:

(c) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited/

(d) Bharat Electronics Limited/


1. Adolescent population comprises half the
289. Who among the following was the founder of the population of the country./
Virashaiva Movement in Karnataka?
2. The group is regarded as youthful
population with high potential./
(a) Basavanna/
(b) Appar/
3. In this group there are greater number of
(e) Sambandar/
females than males./
(d) Sundarar/
290. Which one of the following cities was not
included in the list of smart cities in India? Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?

(a) Silvassa/ (a) 1 only


(b) Jorhat/ (b) 2 only
(c) Itanagar/ (c) 1 and 2 only
(d) Kavaratti/ (d) 2 and 3 only

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293. Which one of the following may lead to (b) A rise in the rate of literacy due to
movement along the demand curve of a development of educational institutions in
commodity? different parts of the country/

(c) A rise in the standard of living of the people


(a) Change in its price/
due to the growth of alternative livelihood
(b) Change in price of the other commodities/ practices/

(c) Change in income of the consumer/ (d) A rise in the gross employment ratio of a
country due to government policies/

(d) Change in tastes and preferences of


consumers/
296. Which of the following statements with regard
to the 'Make in India' initiative is/are correct?
294. Which one of the following is the opportunity
cost of a chosen activity?

1. It was launched in the year 2018./

(a) Out of pocket cost/ 2. Its objective is to foster innovation./


(b) Out of pocket cost plus cost incurred by the
Government/ Select the correct answer using the code given
below:

(e) Value of all opportunities forgone/


(a) 1 only/

(d) Value of next best alternative that is given (b) 2 only/


up/ (c) Both 1 and 2/
(d) Neither 1 nor 2/
295. What do you mean by 'Demographic Dividend'? 297. Who is the chairman of National Disaster
Management Authority?

(a) A rise in the rate of economic growth due to


(a) Prime Minister/
a higher share of working age people in a
population/ (b) Home Minister/
(c) President/
(d) Health Minister/

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298. Sub-prime crisis' is a term associated with which (c) They can be expressed only through
one of the following events? equations./

(d) They are helpful in gaining an insight into


(a) Economic recession/ causality./
(b) Political instability/
300. Which of the following is equal to personal
(c) Structural adjustment programmes/
disposable income?

(d) Growing social inequality/

(a) Personal income paid by households – direct


299. Which of the following statements is not correct tax and miscellaneous duty, penalty, etc./
regarding economic models?

(b) Savings of Private Income Private Corporate


(a) They involve simplification of complex Sectors – Corporate Tax/
processes./
(c) personal income tax/
(b) They represent a theory in whole or in part./ (d) Total expenditure of households, income
tax, gifts received/

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