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10/04/2023

Morning

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005 | Ph.: 011-47623456

Answers & Solutions


Time : 3 hrs. for M.M. : 300

JEE (Main)-2023 (Online) Phase-2


(Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry)

IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:

(1) The test is of 3 hours duration.

(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.

(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry

having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.

(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct

answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.

(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out

of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks

for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be

rounded off to the nearest integer.

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

MATHEMATICS

SECTION - A 2. An arc PQ of a circle subtends a right angle at its


centre O. The mid point of the arc PQ is R. If
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
OP = u , OR = v and OQ = u + v , then , 2 are
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. the roots of the equation
(1) x2 + x – 2 = 0
Choose the correct answer:
1. Let f be a differentiable function such that (2) x2 – x – 2 = 0
x (3) 3x2 – 2x – 1 = 0
x 2f ( x ) − x = 4  tf ( t )dt , f (1) =
2
. Then 18 f(3) is
0 3 (4) 3x2 + 2x – 1 = 0
equal to Answer (2)

(1) 210 Sol.

(2) 160
(3) 150
(4) 180

Answer (2)
x
Sol. x 2f ( x ) − x = 4  t f (t ) dt
0

Diff. w.r.t. x

x 2f ( x ) + 2 x f ( x ) − 1 = 4 xf ( x ) OQ = u + v

 x 2f ( x ) − 1 = 2 x f ( x ) OR = v

OP = u
dy 2 1  dy 
 − y=  Let y = f ( x ) dx = f ( x ) 
dx x x2    R will lie on angle bisector of OQ and OP
2
 − x dx 1 OQ  OP = 0
 I.F = e = e −2ln x =
2
x
+   (v  u ) = 0
2
=v
y 1
 = dx + C   +   cos45° = 0
2
x x4
−
 =
y 1 2 2
 =− +C Now, f (1) =
x2 3x3 3
1
OQ  OR = r2
2 1 2
= − +C
3 3
r2
 ( v +  v )  ( v ) =
 C =1 2

1 r2 r2
 f (x) = − + x2 =  +r2 =
3x 2 2

 1   1
 18 f (3) = 18  − + 9  = 160 = + =
 9  2 2

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

 = 2  1 
13
4. If the coefficient of x7 in  ax −  and the
 bx 2 
  = –1
13
 1 
  = –1, 2 = 2 coefficient of x– 5 in  ax +  are equal, then
 bx 2 
 x2 – x – 2 = 0 a4b4 is equal to:
3. A line segment AB of length  moves such that the (1) 11 (2) 44
points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle (3) 22 (4) 33
of radius . Then the locus of the point, that divides Answer (3)
the line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 3, is a circle of 13
 1 
radius Sol. Coefficient of x7 in  ax − 
 bx 2 
3 2
(1)  (2)  r
13 − r  1 
5 3
Tr +1 =13Cr ( 9 x ) − 2 
 bx 
19 19
(3)  (4) 
5 7  r =2

Answer (3) a11


 Coeff. = 13C2
Sol. b2
13
 1 
Similarly coeff. of x–5 in  ax + 
 bx 2 

 r =6

a7
 Coeff. = 13C6
b6

Let O be the origin and radius of circle is  and AB =  a11 13 a7


Now, 13C2 = C6
b2 b6
 1 = 2 − 2cos ( 1 − 2 )
 a4 b4 = 22
1
 cos ( 1 − 2 ) = 5. Let O be the origin and the position vector of the
2
point P be – i − 2 j + 3k . If the position vectors of the
2 cos 1 + 3 cos 2
 h=
5 points A, B and C are –2i + j − 3k , 2i + 4 j − 2k and

2 sin 1 + 3 sin 2 −4i + 2 j − k respectively, then the projection of the


k=
5
vector OP on a vector perpendicular to the vectors

2
 4 + 9 + 12 ( cos ( 1 − 2 ) ) 
AB and AC is
 h2 + k 2 =
25  
8
(1) 3 (2)
3
2
=  19
25 7 10
(3) (4)
3 3

 Radius = 19
5 Answer (1)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. OP = −i − 2 j + 3k 7. The slope of tangent at any point (x, y) on a curve


x2 + y 2
AB = 4i + 3 j + k y = y(x) is , x  0. If y(2) = 0, then a value
2 xy
of y(8) is
AC = −2i + j + 2k
(1) −4 2 (2) 2 3
i j k
(3) −2 3 (4) 4 3
AB  AC = 4 3 1
−2 1 2 Answer (4)

dy x 2 + y 2
= 5i − 10 j + 10k Sol. =
dx 2 xy
Projection of OP on Put y = vx

AB  AC =
(
OP  AB  AC ) dy
dx
=v +x
dv
dx
AB  AC
dv 1  1
v+x = v + 

=
( )(
5 −i − 2 j + 3k i − 2 j + 2k ) dx 2  v

5 1+ 4 + 4 dv 1  1 − v 2 
 x =  
dx 2  v 
=3
6. Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a 2v dx
geometric progression be positive integers. If the
  1 − v 2 dv =  x
 − log 1 − v 2 = ln x + lnc

sum of squares of its first three terms is 33033, then  1− y 2  x2 − y 2


 k = x  k=
the sum of these three terms is equal to  x2  x
 
(1) 241 (2) 231
y(2) = 0
(3) 210 (4) 220
 k=2
Answer (2)
x2 − y 2
Sol. a2 + a2 r2 + a2r4 = 33033  2=
x
a2(1 + r2 + r4) = 33033 Put x = 8
a2 (1 + r2 + r4) =3×7× (11)2 × 13
64 − y 2
2=  y 2 = 48
 a2 = (11)2 8

a = 11 y =4 3

 1 +r2 + r4 = 273 8. The negation of the statement

r4 + r2 – 272 = 0 ( p  q )  (q  (~ r )) is

 r2 = 16 (1) ( p  r )  (~ q )
r =4 (2) ( ( ~ p)  r ) )  ( ~ q )
a = 11
(3) ( ( ~ p)  (~ q ) )  ( ~ r )
ar = 44
ar2 = 176
(4) ( ( ~ p)  (~ q ) )  ( ~ r )
a + ar + ar2 = 231 Answer (2)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. ~ ( ( p  q )  ( q  (~ r ) ) ) 10. Let N denote the sum of the numbers obtained


when two dice are rolled. If the probability that
= ~ ( p  q ) ~ ( q  (~ r ) ) m
2N < N! is , where m and n are coprime, then
n
= ( ~ p ~ q )  ( ~ q  r ) 4m – 3n is equal to
(1) 6 (2) 12
= ( ~ p ~ q )  ( ~ q )  ( ~ p ~ q )  r
(3) 10 (4) 8
= ~ q  ( ~ p  r )  ( ~ q  r )  Answer (4)
Sol. 2N < N!
= ( ~ q  ( ~ p  r ))  (~ q  (~ q  r ))
N = 1 (not possible) → 0
= (~ q  (~ p  r ))  ~ q N = 2 (not possible) → 1
N = 3 (not possible) → 2
= ( ( ~ p )  r )  (~ q ) N = 4 (possible)
9. Let two vertices of a triangle ABC be (2, 4, 6) and 36 − (1 + 2 ) 11
 Required probability = =
(0, –2, –5), and its centroid be (2, 1, –1). If the 36 12
image of the third vertex in the plane x + 2y + 4z =  4m – 3n
11 is (, , ), then  +  +  is equal to = 44 – 36
(1) 70 (2) 76 =8
(3) 74 (4) 72 Option (4) is correct

Answer (3) 11. A square piece of tin of side 30 cm is to be made


into a box without top by cutting a square from each
Sol. Let the vertex ‘C’ be (a, b, c) corner and folding up the flaps to form a box. If the
2+0+a volume of the box is maximum, then its surface
2= a=4 area (in cm2) is equal to
3
(1) 800 (2) 675
4−2+b
1=  b =1 (3) 1025 (4) 900
3
Answer (1)
6−5+c
−1 =  c = –4 Sol.
3

 C(4, 1, –4)
Image of C in x + 2y + 4z = 11 (30 – 2x) cm
 − 4  −1  + 4 ( 4 + 2 − 16 − 11)
= = = −2 =2
1 2 4 16 + 4 + 1

−4
 =2=6 x cm
1
Volume = (30 – 2x)2·x = V(x)
 −1
=2=5 dV
= ( 30 − 2 x ) + 2 x ( 30 − 2 x )( −2 ) = 0
2
2 dx
+4  x = 5, x = 15 (not possible)
=2=4
4  Surface area = (30 – 2x) × 4 + (30 – 2x)2
  +  +  = 30 + 20 + 24 = 800 cm2 (x = 5)
= 74  Option (1) is correct

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

 2 4 8 16
14. If f ( x ) =
( tan1) x + loge (123 )
12. 96cos cos cos cos cos is equal to , x  0, then the
33 33 33 33 33 x loge (1234 ) − ( tan1 )
(1) 3 (2) 1   4 
least value of f ( f ( x ) ) + f  f    is
(3) 4 (4) 2   x 
Answer (1) (1) 0 (2) 8
cos  cos 2 cos 4 cos8 cos16 (3) 2 (4) 4
Sol. 96 · · · ·
33 33 33 33 33
Answer (3)

Let A = Sol. Let tan1° = a, loge(123) = b and loge(1234) = c
33
ax + b
96cosA·cos2A·cos4A·cos8A·cos16A  f (x) =
cx − a
32
=
( ) = 96 sin 33
96 sin 25 A
=3  f ( f ( x )) =
a f (x) + b
=x
 c f (x) − a
25 sin A 32sin
33
  4  4
 f ( f ( x )) + f  f    = x +
13. Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that
  
x x
2z − 3i
is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then y4 + 4
2z + i  x > 0, then least value = x· =2
y2 – y is equal to x

2 3 15. The shortest distance between the lines


(1) (2)
3 2 x+2 y z−5 x − 4 y −1 z + 3
= = and = = is
3 1 −2 2 1 2 0
4
(3) (4)
4 3 (1) 8 (2) 6
Answer (3) (3) 7 (4) 9

2z − 3i Answer (4)
Sol. is purely imaginary
2z + i x+2 y z−5
Sol. = =
1 −2 2
2( x + iy ) − 3i ( 2x + i ( 2y − 3 ) ) ( 2x − i ( 2y + 1) ) x − 4 y −1 z + 3
= is PI = =
2( x + iy ) + i ( 2x + i ( 2y + 1) ) ( 2x − i ( 2y + 1) ) 1 2 0

4 x 2 + (2y − 3)(2y + 1) ( a2 − a1 ) ( n1  n2 )
=0 SD =
4 x 2 + (2y + 1)2 n1  n2

 4 x 2 + 4y 2 − 4y − 3 = 0 iˆ ˆj kˆ
3 n1  n2 = 1 −2 2
x2 + y 2 − y − =0 1 2 0
4

x + y2 = 0 = − 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4kˆ

 x = –y2
SD =
(16 iˆ + jˆ − 8kˆ )( − 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4kˆ )
3 16 + 16 + 4
y4 + y2 − y − =0
4
3 −24 + 2 − 32 54
y4 + y2 − y = = = =9
4 6 6

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
16. Let P be the point of intersection of the line 18. Let the ellipse E : x2 + 9y2 = 9 intersect the positive
x + 3 y + 2 1− z x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let
= = and the plane x + y + z = 2. If
3 1 2 the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let
the distance of the point P from the plane 3x – 4y + the line passing through A and B meet the circle C
12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the at the point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices
equation m
A, P and the origin O is , where m and n are
n
(1) x2 – 18x – 72 = 0 (2) x2 – 18x + 72 = 0
coprime, then m – n is equal to
(3) x2 + 18x + 72 = 0 (4) x2 + 18x – 72 = 0
(1) 16 (2) 15
Answer (2)
(3) 17 (4) 18
x + 3 y + 2 1− z
Sol. = = = Answer (3)
3 1 2
Sol. Ellipse E: x2 + 9y2 = 9 …(i)
A(3 – 3,  – 2, 1 – 2)
x y
3 – 3 +  – 2 + 1 – 2 = 2 Line L: + = 1  x = 3 − 3 y …(ii)
3 1
2 = 6
Circle C: x2 + y2 = 9 …(iii)
=3
Let Q be foot of perpendicular from P upon major
P(6, 1, – 5) axis.
18 − 4 − 60 − 32 78 (ii) & (iii)  (3 – 3y)2 + y2 = 9
q= = =6
9 + 16 + 144 13
9
y= , 0
Equation with roots q and 2q is 5
x2 – 3qx + 2q2 = 0 9
PQ =
x2 – 18x + 72 = 0 5

17. If A is a 3 × 3 matrix and |A| = 2, then 1 1 9 27


Area =  OA  PQ =  3  =
(
3 adj 3 A A2 ) is equal to
2 2 5 10
m – n = 17
(1) 312  611 (2) 312  610 19. For the system of linear equations
(3) 310  611 (4) 311  610 2x – y + 3z = 5
Answer (4) 3x + 2y – z = 7

(
Sol. 3adj 3 A A2 = 33 adj 33 A A2 ) ( ) 4x + 5y + z = ,
which of the following is NOT correct?
3
= 3 adj 2  3 A ( 3 2
) (1) The system has infinitely many solutions for
 = –5 and  = 9
2
= 33 2  33 A2 (2) The system has infinitely many solutions for

2  = –6 and  = 9
3
( ) 
3
3 2
= 3  23 A  (3) The system in inconsistent for  = –5 and
 
=8
3 6 18 4
= 3 2 3 A (4) The system has a unique solution for   –5
= 26  321  24 = 210  321 and  = 8

= 610  311 Answer (2)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

2 −1 3 SECTION - B
Sol. D = 3 2 −1 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
4 5  contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
= 2(2 + 5) + (3 + 4) + 3(7) NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
D = 7 + 35
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
D  0    –5  unique solution. e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
  = –6 corresponds to unique solution.
the place designated to enter the answer.
2
20. If I ( x ) =  esin x ( cos x sin2x − sin x ) dx and I(0) =
21. The number of permutations, of the digits
1, 2, 3, …, 7 without repetition, which neither
 contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is
1, then l   is equal to
3
________.
3 Answer (4898)
1
(1) − e 4
2 Sol. 1, 2, 3, ….., 7
3 Total number of permutations = 7! = 5040
1 4
(2) e
2 Number of permutations containing strong 153 = 5!

3
= 120
(3) −e 4 Number of permutations containing strong 2467 =

3 4! = 24
(4) e4 Number of permutations containing strong 153 and
Answer (2) 2467 both = 2! = 2

2 n(AB) = n(A) + n(B) – n(AB) = 142


Sol. I ( x ) =  esin x ( cos x sin2x − sin x ) dx
( )
 n A  B = 5040 − 142 = 4898
2  1 
= e sin x
 cos x − 2cos x  sin2x dx
  22. Some couples participated in a mixed doubles
badminton tournament. If the number of matches
Put sin2x = t  sin2x dx = dt
played, so that no couple played in a match, is 840,
 1  then the total numbers of persons, who participated
I ( x ) =  et  1 − t −  dt
 2 1− t  in the tournament, is ________.

( )
=  et f ( t ) + f ' ( t ) dt = et f ( t ) + c
Answer (16)

Sol. Let total number of persons = 2n


2
 I ( x ) = et 1 − t + c = esin x
 cos x + c  n
C2  n − 2C2  2 = 840

I(0) = 1  c = 0  n(n – 1)(n – 2)(n – 3) = 5678

3 n=8
 1
 I   = e4
3 2  2n = 16

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
23. If the mean of the frequency distribution 25. The coefficient of x7 in (1 – x + 2x3)10 is ________.

Class : 0–10 10–20 20–30 30–40 40–50


Answer (960.00)
Frequency : 2 3 x 5 4 Sol. (1 – x + 2x3)10

is 28, then its variance is ________. 10!


Coefficient of x 7 = (2)2 ( −1)1
2!1!7!
Answer (151)
10! 10!
+ (2)1( −1)4 + (2)0 ( −1)7
( ) if i
fx 1!4!5! 0!7!3!
Sol. Mean x =
i = 960

26. The sum of all those terms, of the arithmetic


2  5 + 3  15 + x  25 + 5  35 + 4  45
= = 28
14 + x progression 3, 8, 13, ..., 373, which are not divisible
by 3, is equal to ________.
 x=6
Answer (9525.00)

) =  i ( fi i )
2
f x−x Sol. Tn = 3 + 5(n – 1) = 5n – 2
Variance  ( 2

 T1, T4, T7..... are divisible by 3

2  ( 23 ) + 3  (13 ) + 6  ( 3 ) + 5  ( 7 ) + 4  (17 )
2 2 2 2 2
i.e. 3, 18, 33, 48, ......, 363
2 =
20 Sum of numbers divisible by 3.

2 = 151 25
= (3 + 363) = (25)(183)
2
24. Let f : ( −2, 2) → be defined by
Sum of all numbers in A.P.
 x[ x ] , −2  x  0
f (x) =  =
75
(3 + 373) = (75)(188)
( x − 1)[ x ] , 0  x  2 2

where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. If m Required sum = 9525

and n respectively are the number of points in 27. Let a common tangent to the curves y2 = 4x and
(x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 touch the curves at the points P
(–2, 2) at which y = |f(x)| is not continuous and not
and Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to ________.
differentiable, then m + n is equal to ________.
Answer (32.00)
Answer (04.00)
1
Sol. y = mx +
Sol. m

⊥ r from (4, 0) = 4

1
4m +
m =4
m2 + 1

1
Or 16m2 + + 8 = 16m2 + 16
2
m
y = f(x) is same as y = |f(x)|
1 1
Or m2 = , if m = then
m = 1, n = 3 8 2 2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

 a 2a  29. Let y = p(x) be the parabola passing through the


P =  2 ,  = ( 8, 4 2 )
m m  points (–1, 0), (0, 1) and (1, 0). If the area of the

Q = foot of ⊥ r from (4, 0) on tangent region ( x, y ) : ( x + 1) 2



+ ( y – 1)  1, y  p ( x ) is A,
2

 
=  8, 8 2  then 12( – 4A) is equal to ________.
3 3 

2
Answer (16)
2
 16   
(PQ ) =   +  4 2 
2
 3  3  Sol. Given parabola is y = 1 – x2

256 + 32 Required area is as shown


= = 32
9 0
 2 
Area =   − x
2
+ 1 − ( x + 1)  dx
28. Let a, b, c be the three distinct positive real
−1 
numbers such that

( 2a )loge a = ( bc )loge b and bloge 2 = aloge c .

Then 6a + 5bc is equal to ________.

Answer (8)

Sol. Given equation: ( 2a )ln a = (bc )ln b

 lna ·(ln2a) = lnb · ln(bc)

 lna·(ln2 + lna) = lnb (lnb + lnc)  1


A= −
4 3
let lna = x, lnb = y, lnc = z, x  y  z
Hence, 12( – 4A) = 16
 x(ln2 + x) = y(y + z)
30. The number of elements in the set
 xln2 = y2 – x2 + yz ...(i)

Similarly, from second equation n  : n 2 – 10n + 19  6

ln2· lnb = lnc·lna is ________.

 yln2 = xz ...(ii) Answer (6)

Now, (i) xy – xx (ii) Sol. |n2 – 10n + 19| < 6


 y3 – yx2 + y2z = x2z
 –6 < n2 – 10n + 19 < 6
 y2(y + z) – x2(y + z) = 0
 n2 – 10n + 25 > 0 and n2 – 10n + 13 < 0
 (y2 – x2)(y + z) = 0
 (n – 5)2 > 0 and
 (x – y)(x + y)(y + z) = 0
(n − (5 − 2 3 ))(n − (5 + 2 3 ))  0
 x  y  (x + y)(y + z) = 0
 n − {5} and n{2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8}
1
 y = –z  x = –ln2  a = & bc = 1
2 Hence n = 2, 3, 4, 6, 7, 8

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

PHYSICS
33. A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V is modulated by a
SECTION - A
sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3 V. The
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices in an amplitude modulated wave is
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 2
Choose the correct answer:
3
31. The equivalent capacitance of the combination (2)
2
shown is
(3) 1
(4) 5
Answer (2)
Amax 15 + 3 18  3 
Sol. = = =  
(1) 2C Amin 15 − 3 12  2 

5 34. The equivalent resistance of the circuit shown


(2) C below between points a and b is :
3

C
(3)
2
(4) 4C
Answer (1)
Sol. Ceq = C + C
= 2C
32. A physical quantity P is given as
(1) 16 Ω
a 2 b3
P= (2) 3.2 Ω
c d
(3) 24 Ω
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c
and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The (4) 20 Ω
percentage error in the measurement of quantity P Answer (2)
will be
 64 
(1) 13% Sol. R=
eq  =  3.2 Ω
 20 
(2) 16% 35. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr’s
(3) 12% orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in
second orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in
(4) 14%
angular momentum will be
Answer (1)
(1) Zero
 ∆P   2∆a   3∆b   ∆c   1 ∆d   (2) 2L
Sol.  =  + + + 
 P   a   b   c   2 d  
(3) L
 ∆P  1
  × 100 = 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + 3 + × 4 L
 P  2 (4)
2
= 13%
Answer (3)
- 11 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

nh h 1
Sol. L = ⇒ L1 = (1) λ1
2π 2π 2
For 2nd orbit (2) 2 λ1
2h
=
L2
= 2L 1
2π (3) λ1
2
∆L = 2L – L = L
(4) 2λ1
36. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around
the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. Answer (3)
The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites
Sol. V ∝ T
respectively is

(1) 3 :1 V1 T1 1
= =
V2 T2 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 1 1
λ∝
V
(4) 1 : 1
Answer (1) λ1  V2  2
= = 
λ 2  V1  1
 GM 
Sol. V =  
 r   1 
λ2 = λ1 
 2 
V1 r2 3r 3
= = =
V2 r1 r 1 39. The position-time graphs for two students A and B
returning from the school to their homes are shown
37. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass in figure.
R
density, the weight of a body at a depth d = from
2
the surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of
earth is 200 N, will be :
(Given R = radius of earth)
(1) 300 N
(2) 100 N (A) A lives closer to the school
(3) 400 N (B) B lives closer to the school
(4) 500 N (C) A takes lesser time to reach home
Answer (2) (D) A travels faster than B
 d (E) B travels faster than A
Sol. g ′ = g  1 − 
 R
Choose the correct answer from the options given
 1  g  below
=g ′ g=
1 −   
 2  2 (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
w 200 (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
Weight == = 100 N
2 2 (3) (B) and (E) only
38. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas (4) (A) and (E) only
at room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the
Answer (4)
temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K, then
the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas Sol. XA ∝ XB
molecule becomes and VB > VA

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
40. Consider two containers A and B containing
Sol.
monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P),
Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A is
1 A
compressed isothermally to of its original =t 0,=
x
8 2
volume while the gas in B is compressed
x = Asin (ωt + δ)
1
adiabatically to of its original volume. The ratio
8 dx
= Aω cos(ωt + δ) > 0
of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is dt

(1) 8 A
x= = A sin(0 + δ)
2
(2) 4
1 π
3 sin δ= ⇒ δ=  
2 6
(3) 82
42. The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained
1 in a small volume oscillates with
(4)
8
(1) Double the frequency of the wave
Answer (2) (2) The frequency of the wave
Sol. Isothermal (Pf)A = 8P (3) Half the frequency of the wave
Adiabatic (4) Zero frequency

5 5 Answer (1)


   V 3
P (V ) 3  = Pf   1
8 Sol. E= ε0 E 2dV
2
(Pf)B = (25P) = 32 P
E = E0sin(ωt + φ)
(P )B 32P
= = 4 E 2 E02 sin2 (ωt + φ)
=
(PA ) 8P
E0
41. A particle executes S.H.M. of amplitude A along = [1– cos(2ωt + φ)]
2
A
x-axis. At t = 0, the position of the particle is x = 43. The range of the projectile projected at an angle of
2
and it moves along positive x-axis. The 15° with horizontal is 50 m. If the projectile is
displacement of particle in time t is x = Asin(ωt + δ), projected with same velocity at an angle of 45° with
horizontal, then its range will be
then the value δ will be
(1) 100 m (2) 100 2 m
π
(1)
2 (3) 50 2 m (4) 50 m
π Answer (1)
(2)
6
u 2 sin 20 u 2 sin30
Sol. R
= = = 50
π g g
(3)
3
u2
= 100 m
π g
(4)
4
u 2 sin(90) u 2
Answer (2) =
R = = 100 m
g g

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

44. Match List I with List II: In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
List I List II
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(A) 3 Translational (I) Monoatomic
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
degrees of gases
freedom (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(B) 3 Translational, 2 (II) Polyatomic
rotational degrees gases Answer (2)
of freedoms Sol. Pmax when XL = XC → Resonance condition

(C) 3 Translational, 2 (III) Rigid diatomic Pmax occurs in pure resistance circuit
rotational and 1 gases 46. Given below are two statements:
vibrational Statement I: If the number of turns in the coil of a
degrees of moving coil galvanometer is doubled then the
freedom
current sensitivity becomes double.
(D) 3 Translational, 3 (IV) Nonrigid Statement II: Increasing current sensitivity of a
rotational and diatomic gases moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the
more than one number of turns in the coil will also increase its
vibrational
voltage sensitivity in the same ratio
degrees of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
freedom
correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
below:
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) Answer (1)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) nAB
Sol. Si =
Answer (1) K

Sol. → Monoatomic gas has 3 translational degree of  nAB 


Sv =  
freedom  KR 

→ Rigid diatomic gas → 3 translation + 2 n


as R increases, ratio remains same.
rotational R
47. A zener diode of power rating 1.6 W is to be used
→ Non rigid diatomic gas → 3 translational + 2 as voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a
rotational + 1 vibration breakdown of 8 V and it has to regulate voltage
→ Polyatomic gas → 3 translational + 3 rotational fluctuating between 3 V and 10 V. The value of
resistance Rs for safe operation of diode will be
and more than one vibrational
45. Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Maximum power is dissipated in a
circuit containing an inductor, a capacitor and a
resistor connected in series with an AC source,
when resonance occurs.
Statement II: Maximum power is dissipated in a (1) 10 Ω (2) 12 Ω
circuit containing pure resistor due to zero phase
(3) 13.3 Ω (4) 13 Ω
difference between current and voltage.
Answer (1)
- 14 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
Sol. Power rating of zener diode = 1.6 W 50. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm in front
of a plane mirror. The virtual and erect image is
1.6 = 8 × I
formed by the mirror. Now the mirror is moved by
 1.6  4 cm towards the stationary object. The distance by
=I =  0.2 A which the position of image would be shifted, will be
 8 
For maximum voltage of 10 V (1) 4 cm towards mirror

So, potential across R is 2 V (2) 8 cm towards mirror

2 V = R × 0.2 (3) 8 cm away from mirror


(4) 2 cm towards mirror
2 20
=
R = = 10 Ω Answer (2)
0.2 2
48. A particle of mass m moving with velocity v collides Sol.
with a stationary particle of mass 2m. After collision,
they stick together and continue to move together
with velocity

v
(1)
3
Image moved 8 cm towards the mirror.
v
(2) SECTION - B
4
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(3) v
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
v questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(4)
2 NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Answer (1) correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
Sol. mv = (3mv)
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
v  the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
v = 
3 the place designated to enter the answer.

49. Given below are two statements: 51. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by

Statement I: Pressure in a reservoir of water is y(x, t) = 5 sin (6t + 0.003 x)


same at all points at the same level of water. where x and y are in cm and t in sec. The wave
Statement II: The pressure applied to enclosed velocity is _________ ms−1.
water is transmitted in all directions equally. Answer (20)
In the light of the above statements, choose the =
Sol. y 5 sin ( 6t + 0.003 x )
correct answer from the options given below:
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false 6 6000
=v = = 2000 cm/s
0.003 3
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
v = 20 m/s
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
52. The decay constant for a radioactive nuclide is
Answer (4) 1.5 × 10−5 s−1. Atomic weight of the substance is
Sol. P = P0 + ρgh 60 g mole−1, (NA = 6 × 1023). The activity of 1.0 µg
of the substance is ________ × 1010 Bq.
P will be same at same h
Answer (15)
and statement (II) is Pascal’s law
- 15 -
JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. λ = 1.5 × 10–5 s–1 (


⇒ 3 16 cos2 θ ⋅ sin2 θ
= )
Total number of atom in 1 µg
3
⇒ cos θ ⋅ sin θ =
1× 10−6 4
= × 6 × 1023 = 1× 1016 atoms
60
⇒ θ = 30°
Activity = λN0 55. 10 resistors each of resistance 10 Ω can be
= 1.5 × 10–5 ×1× 1016 = 15 × 1010 connected in such as to get maximum and
minimum equivalent resistance. The ratio of
1 maximum and minimum equivalent resistance will
53. If the earth suddenly to th of its original volume
64 be________.
with its mass remaining the same, the period of
Answer (100)
24
rotation of earth becomes h . The value of x Sol. Rmax = 10 × 10 = 100 Ω
x
is ________ Rmin = 10/10 = 1 Ω
Answer (16) Ratio = Rmax/Rmin = 100

Sol. L = constant; Iω = constant 56. The current required to be passed through a


solenoid of 15 cm length and 60 turns in order to
⇒ r12 ω1 = r22 ω2 demagnetise a bar magnet of magnetic intensity
2.4 × 103 Am–1 is ________ A.
r 2ω
⇒ ω2 = = 16 ω Answer (6)
( r / 4 )2
B
Sol. =
H − M for M = 0
rf3 0.1 r µ0
3
= ⇒ rf =
( ri ) 64 4 B 
=H =  ni
2π  µ0 
=
T = 24 hr
ω 60
⇒ 2.4 × 103 = ×i
2π 24 0.15
=
T = hr
16 ω 16 2.4 × 103
=i = 6A
54. Unpolarised right of intensity 32 Wm−2 passes 400
through the combination of three polaroids such 57. Three concentric spherical metallic shells X, Y and
that the pass axis of the last polaroid is Z of radius a, b and c respectively [a < b < c] have
perpendicular to that of the pass axis of first surface charge densities σ, – σ and σ, respectively.
polaroid. If intensity of emerging light is 3 Wm−2, The shells X and Z are at same potential. If the radii
then the angle between pass axis of first two of X & Y are 2 cm and 3 cm, respectively. The
polaroids is _________o. radius of shell Z is _____cm.
Answer (30) Answer (5)
Sol.

Sol.

I 
=If  0 cos2 θ  × sin2 θ
2 

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
Vx = Vz
σa 2 σb 2 σc 2 σa 2 − σb 2 + σc
⇒ − + =
a b c c

a 2 b 2 (a + b )(a − b )
⇒ a−b= − =
c c c

c=a+b
c = 2 + 3 = 5 cm
Answer (245)
58. A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as
Sol. Total work done by tube on block is equal to loss in
shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is mechanical energy
perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density
1
0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5Ω, the force =w mv 2 + mgh
2
needed to move the rod in direction, as indicated,
1
with a constant speed of 4 m/s will be _______
= × 1× (22)2 + 1× 10 × 0.3
2
10–3 N. = 3 + 242
= 245 J
60. Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible
mass, one made of steel and the other made of
brass are loaded as shown in the figure. The
elongation of the steel wire is ______10–6m.
[Young's modulus for steel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and
g = 10 ms–2]
Answer (18)

Sol. F = iB

BV 
= × B
R

B 2 2V
=
R

(0.15)2 × (1)2 × 4 Answer (20)


=
5 Sol. F on steel wire = (2 + 1.14) g
= 18 × 10–3 N = (3.14) g
59. A closed circular tube of average radius 15 cm, F  ∆L 
=Y  
whose inner walls are rough, is kept in vertical A  L 
plane. A block of mass 1 kg just fit inside the tube.  FL  3.14 × g × 1.6
⇒=
∆L  = 
The speed of block is 22 m/s, when it is introduced  AY  π × (0.2)2 × 2 × 1011 × 10−4
at the top of tube. After completing five oscillations, 16
=
the block stops at the bottom region of tube. The .8 × 105
work done by the tube on the block is ________ J.
= 2 × 10–5
(Given g = 10 m/s2). = 20 × 10–6 m

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 62. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
preferred as a primary standard in volumetric
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices analysis over Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Statement II : K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in
Choose the correct answer: water than Na2Cr2O7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
61. The major product 'P' formed in the given reaction
correct answer from the options given below:
is
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (3)
Sol. K2Cr2O7 is used as a primary standard in redox
titration under volumetric analysis.
(1)
Na2Cr2O7 is more soluble than K2Cr2O7.
63. The pair from the following pairs having both
compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(1) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
(2) (2) cis-butene, trans-butene
(3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3
(4) Benzene, anisidine
Answer (3)
Sol. The CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 both have net non-zero
(3)
dipole moment. The 1,4-dichlorobenzene, trans-
butene, benzene have zero dipole moment. The
1,3-dichlorobenzene, cis-butene, anisidine has
non-zero dipole moment.
(4) 64. The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex
among the following is
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Answer (2)
(2) [CoF6]3–
(3) [CoCl6]3–
(4) [NiCl4]2
Sol.
Answer (1)
Sol. [Co(NH3)6]3+ has d2sp3 (inner orbital complex) with
zero unpaired electrons. Hence, it is octahedral with
diamagnetic character and low spin complex.
[CoF6]3– and [CoCl6]3– are octahedral but having
unpaired electrons.
[NiCl4]– – is not octahedral.

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
65. The enthalpy change for the adsorption process
and micelle formation respectively are Sol. can be prepared by Gabriel

(1) Hads > 0 and Hmic < 0 phthalimide synthesis because SN2 is possible in
(2) Hads > 0 and Hmic > 0
(3) Hads < 0 and Hmic > 0
(4) Hads < 0 and Hmic < 0 2 amine reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give solid
Answer (3) insoluble in NaOH.
Aromatic diazonium are prepared and used in
Sol. The adsorption process H = –ve.
diazocoupling.
For micelle formation H is +ve and S is +ve.
68. Match List I with List II
66. Prolonged heating is avoided during the
preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to List I List II
Industry Waste Generated
(1) Prevent hydrolysis
(2) Prevent reduction (A) Steel plants (I) Gypsum
(3) Prevent breaking (B) Thermal (II) Fly ash
(4) Prevent oxidation power plants
Answer (4) (C) Fertilizer (III) Slag
Sol. Prolonged heating may oxidise ferrous ions to ferric Industries
ions.
(D) Paper mills (IV) Bio-degradable
67. Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N wastes
give the following tests
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Isomer(P)  Can be prepared by Gabriel below :
phthalimide synthesis
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Isomer(Q)  Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
give solid insoluble in NaOH
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Isomer(R)  Reacts with HONO followed by
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
-naphthol in NaOH to give red dye.
Answer (1)
Isomers(P), (Q) and (R) respectively are
Sol. Slag is waste generated in iron extraction. Fly ash
is waste generated in thermal power plants.
Gypsum is the waste of fertilizer industry.
(1)
Non-cellulosic part of plant is wastes of paper
industry and it is biodegradable.
69. Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’
(2)
which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution
of ‘A’ is often used for the test of CO2, a test in which
(3) insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with
CO2 then soluble compound is formed. ‘A’ is
(1) Quick lime (2) Slaked lime
(4)
(3) White lime (4) Lime water
Answer (4) Answer (2)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. CaO ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯


Limited water
→ Ca(OH)2(s) the process is k/a Sol. In froth floatation process the pine oils, fatty acids,
(Lime)
xanthates are collectors and froth stabilisers
slaking of lime and the product is slaked lime. It is cresols, aniline are used.
an exothermic process.
Ref: NCERT
Ca(OH)2 aq. solution is k/a Lime water and used for
73. The compound which does not exist is
test of CO2.
(1) NaO2 (2) BeH2
(3) PbEt4 (4) (NH4)2BeF4
Answer (1)
Sol. Oxide and peroxides of sodium are stable (Na2O
and Na2O2) K, Rb, Cs form superoxides
74. Given
70. The one that does not stabilize 2° and 3° structures (A) 2CO ( g) + O2 ( g) → 2CO2 ( g) H1 = − x kJ mol−1
of proteins is
(B) C ( graphite ) + O2 ( g) → CO2 ( g) H2 = − y kJmol−1
(1) –S–S–linkage
(2) H-bonding The H for the reaction
(3) –O–O–linkage 1
C ( graphite ) + O2 ( g) → CO ( g) is
(4) van der Waals forces 2
Answer (3) 2x − y x + 2y
(1) (2)
Sol. The H bonding, van der waals forces as well as 2 2
–S–S– linkage are the responsible forces for the x − 2y
(3) (4) 2y – x
formation of secondary and tertiary structures of 2
proteins hence they stabilize the structure.
Answer (3)
71. Using column chromatography, mixture of two
Sol. (A) 2CO ( g) + O2 ( g) → 2CO2 ( g) H1 = − x kJ mol−1
compounds ‘A’ and ‘B’ was separated. ‘A’ eluted
first, this indicates ‘B’ has (B) C ( graphite ) + O2 ( g) → CO2 ( g) H2 = − y kJmol−1
(1) low Rf, stronger adsorption
Multiply eg–B by (2) and subtract eg. (A) from it
(2) high Rf, weaker adsorption
2Cgraphite + O2 ( g ) → 2CO ( g ) H = x – 2y
(3) high Rf, stronger adsorption
1 x – 2y
(4) low Rf, weaker adsorption Cgraphite + O2 → CO H =
2 2
Answer (1)
75. The number of molecules and moles in 2.8375 litres
Sol. That chemical species which is strongly adsorbed
of O2 at STP are respectively
will be eluted last, that weakly adsorbed eluted first
and will have more Rf so B will have low Rf and (1) 7.527 × 1023 and 0.125 mol
stronger adsorption. (2) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.250 mol
72. Which of the following is used as a stabilizer during (3) 1.505 × 1023 and 0.250 mol
the concentration of sulphide ores?
(4) 7.527 × 1022 and 0.125 mol
(1) Pine oils
Answer (4)
(2) Fatty acids
2.8375
(3) Xanthates Sol. Moles = = 0.125
22.7
(4) Cresols Molecules = 0.125 × 6.022 × 1023
Answer (4) = 7.527 × 1022
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
76. Which of the following statements are correct? 78. Identify the correct order of reactivity for the
(A) The M3+/M2+ reduction potential for iron is following pairs towards the respective mechanism
greater than manganese.
(B) The higher oxidation states of first row d-block (A)
elements get stabilized by oxide ion
(C) Aqueous solution of Cr2+ can liberate hydrogen
from dilute acid (B)

(D) Magnetic moment of V2+ is observed between


4.4 – 5.2 BM (C) Electrophilic substitution

Choose the correct answer from the options given


below:
(1) (B), (C) only (2) (A), (B), (D) only
(3) (C), (D) only (4) (A), (B) only
Answer (1)
Sol. The reduction electrode potential of Mn3+/Mn2+ is
+1.57 V while that of Fe3+/Fe2+ is +0.77 V, hence A (D) Nucleophilic substitution
is wrong. Higher oxidation state of smaller d-block
elements is stabilized (or say form compounds)
with smaller anion oxide that can be explained by
stearic reason hence B is correct.
The oxidation electrode potential of Cr2+/Cr3+ is
+0.41 V hence it can reduce H+ and so liberate H2.
The unpaired electrons in V2+ are 3 hence the
magnetic moment of V2+ will be lesser than 4.4 BM. Choose the correction answer from the options
Hence, only B and C are correct. given below:
77. Given below are two reactions, involved in the (1) (B), (C) and (D) only (2) (A), (B), (C) and (D)
commercial production of dihydrogen (H2). The two (3) (A), (B) and (D) only (4) (A), (C) and (D) only
reactions are carried out at temperature “T1” and
Answer (2)
“T2”, respectively
Sol. The 2°alkyl halide has lesser stearic hinderance as
C ( s ) + H2O ( g) ⎯⎯→ CO ( g) + H2 ( g)
T1
compared to 3°alkyl halides. Hence, the 2°RX are
more reactive for SN2 as compared to 3°RX.
CO ( g) + H2O ( g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯→ CO2 ( g) + H2 ( g)
2 ⎯ T
Catalyst
More stable carbocation formed, higher will be the
The temperatures T1 and T2 are correctly related as reactivity of SN1.
(1) T1 = T2 → NO2 is strong deactivating group for
(2) T1 < T2 electrophilic substitution.
(3) T1 = 100 K, T2 = 1270 K → NO2 is activating for nucleophilic substitution
(4) T1 > T2 over benzene ring especially when attached to
ortho/para position of leaving group.
Answer (4)
Hence A, B, C, D all are correct.
1270 K( T )
Sol. C ( s) + H2O ( g) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯→
1
CO ( g) + H2 ( g) is k/a
79. Suitable reaction condition for preparation of Methyl
coal gasification reaction. phenyl ether is
673 K ( T )
CO ( g) + H2O ( g ) ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
2
→ CO2 ( g ) + H2 ( g ) is (1) PhONa, MeOH (2) Benzene, MeBr
Catalyst
k/a water gas shift reaction. (3) Ph – Br, MeONa (4) PhONa, MeBr

Hence, T1 > T2 Answer (4)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. PhONa + MeBr → PhOMe + NaBr +2.2V


Sol. FeO24− ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe3 + G1 = − 6.6 F
Williamson’s Synthesis
+0.70V
Fe3 + ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe2+ G2 = − 0.7 F

Hence for

80. Match List-I with List-II. FeO24− ⎯⎯→Fe2+ G = − 7.3 F


= − nEF
List-I List-II
Polymer Type/Class −7.3 F
E0 = = 1.825, n = 4
FeO24 − /Fe+2 −4 F
A. Nylon-2-Nylon-6 I. Thermosetting
polymer = 1825  10 −3 V

B. Buna-N II. Biodegradable n = electron exchange of that half cell reaction.


polymer 82. In potassium ferrocyanide, there are ______ pairs
C. Urea- III. Synthetic rubber of electrons in the t2g set of orbitals.
formaldehyde Answer (3)
resin Sol. K4 [Fe(CN)6] has Fe at +2 state and forming low
D. Dacron IV Polyester spin octahedral complex with CN–, hence has d2sp3
hybridised state. On applying C.F.T. it shows that
Choose the correct answer from the options given
all the 6 electrons of d subshell are present in the
below:
form of three pairs in t2g orbitals. Hence answer is
(1) A → IV; B → I; C → III; D → II 3.
(2) A → II; B → III; C → I; D → IV 83. A molecule undergoes two independent first order
(3) A → IV; B → III; C → I; D → II reactions whose respective half lives are 12 min
(4) A → II; B → I; C → IV; D → III and 3 min. If both the reactions are occurring then
the time taken for the 50% consumption of the
Answer (2)
reactant is ______ min. (Nearest integer)
Sol. (A) Nylon-2-Nylon-6 – Biodegradable
Answer (2)
(B) Buna N – Synthetic rubber
Sol. For parallel reaction
(C) Urea-formaldehyde – Thermosetting
resin (due to cross links)
(D) Dacron – Polyester
SECTION - B
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five k = k1 + k2
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
1 1 1 5
NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the = + =
correct numerical value (in decimal notation, T1/2 12 3 12
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place; 12
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using Net T1/2 = = 2.4 min 2 min
5
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
the place designated to enter the answer. Hence time taken for 50% consumption of reactant
+2.2V +0.70V −0.45V
will be close to 2 min.
81. FeO24− ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe3 + ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe2+ ⎯⎯⎯⎯ → Fe0
84. The number of bent-shaped molecule/s from the
E 2− 2+ is x × 10–3 V. following is ______
FeO4 /Fe

The value of x is ________ N3− , NO2− , I3− , O3 , SO2


Answer (1825) Answer (3)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
− + − −− + 86. In the following reaction, the total number of oxygen
Sol. N3− (Azide) : N = N = N  N − N  N
atoms in X and Y is______
has sp hybridised central atom. Hence linear Na2O + H2O → 2X

Cl2O7 + H2O → 2Y
I3− (triiodide) : has linear geometry, sp3d
Answer (5)
hybridisation with three lone pairs at central atom.
Sol. Na2O + H2O ⎯⎯→ 2NaOH (X)

NO2− (nitrite) : Cl2O7 + H2O ⎯⎯→ 2HClO 4 (Y)

X has one O and Y has four O


Is (nonlinear) bent shaped as it has sp2
87. If the degree of dissociation of aqueous solution of
hybridisation with one lone pair at central atom.
weak monobasic acid is determined to be 0.3, then
the observed freezing point will be _____ % higher
O3 (ozone) :
than the expected/theoretical freezing point.
(Nearest integer).
Is bent with sp2 hybridisation and one lone pair at
Answer (30)
central atom.
Sol. i = 1 +  (n – 1)
SO2 (sulphur dioxide) : is bent with sp2 = 1 + 0.3 (2 – 1)
= 1 + 0.3
hybridisation and one lone pair at central atom.
= 1.3
85. The number of correct statement/s involving
equilibria in physical processes from the following Tf without considering dissociation = Kf × molality
is ________
Tf without considering dissociation = iKf × molality
(A) Equilibrium is possible only in a closed system
at a given temperature. = Tf

(B) Both the opposing processes occur at the same Tf – Tf = 0.3 (k f  molality)
rate.
Tf – Tf 0.3 (k f  molality)
(C) When equilibrium is attained at a given = = 0.3
Tf k f  molality
temperature, the value of all its parameters
became equal % value = 30

(D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility 88. The number of incorrect statement/s about the
is constant at a given temperature. black body from the following is______
Answer (3) (A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of
Sol. A, B and D statements are correct. electromagnetic radiation.

The equilibrium is possible when there is no (B) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation
exchange of matter between system and depends on temperature.
surroundings. (C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency
At equilibrium state the forward and backward curve passes through a maximum value.
processes occur with same rate (speed) (D) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency
When equilibrium is attained, the value of all its curve is at a higher frequency at higher
parameters became constant. temperature compared to that at lower
The solubility is function of solubility product, the temperature.
value of which is constant at a given temperature. Answer (0)

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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning

Sol. All the given statements A, B, C & D are correct. Sol. P2V2 = P1V1 Boyle's Law
The amount of electromagnetic radiation emitted 940.3  V1
P2 = V2 = V1 – 0.4 V1 = 0.6 V1
(intensity of radiation) from a black body and its 0.6V1
spectral (frequency) distribution depends only on its
= 1567.16
temperature.
 1567 mm Hg
Fig. 2.8 Wavelength-intensity relationship.
(Ref : Particle nature of electromagnetic radiation; 90. The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom
Planck's quantum theory, ncert chapter structure of of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 is______
atom.) Answer (1)
Shows as the temperature increases, maxima of Sol. IF5 has one lone pair at central atom and IF7 has no
the curve shifts to shorter wavelength or say higher any lone pair at central atom
frequency.
89. At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of
940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume
decreases by 40% is ______ mm Hg. (Nearest
integer)
Answer (1567)

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