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IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS:
(2) The Test Booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
(3) There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry
having 30 questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part (subject) has two sections.
(i) Section-A: This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct
answer. Each question carries 4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
(ii) Section-B: This section contains 10 questions. In Section-B, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries 4 marks
for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer. For Section-B, the answer should be
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
MATHEMATICS
(2) 160
(3) 150
(4) 180
Answer (2)
x
Sol. x 2f ( x ) − x = 4 t f (t ) dt
0
Diff. w.r.t. x
x 2f ( x ) + 2 x f ( x ) − 1 = 4 xf ( x ) OQ = u + v
x 2f ( x ) − 1 = 2 x f ( x ) OR = v
OP = u
dy 2 1 dy
− y= Let y = f ( x ) dx = f ( x )
dx x x2 R will lie on angle bisector of OQ and OP
2
− x dx 1 OQ OP = 0
I.F = e = e −2ln x =
2
x
+ (v u ) = 0
2
=v
y 1
= dx + C + cos45° = 0
2
x x4
−
=
y 1 2 2
=− +C Now, f (1) =
x2 3x3 3
1
OQ OR = r2
2 1 2
= − +C
3 3
r2
( v + v ) ( v ) =
C =1 2
1 r2 r2
f (x) = − + x2 = +r2 =
3x 2 2
1 1
18 f (3) = 18 − + 9 = 160 = + =
9 2 2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
= 2 1
13
4. If the coefficient of x7 in ax − and the
bx 2
= –1
13
1
= –1, 2 = 2 coefficient of x– 5 in ax + are equal, then
bx 2
x2 – x – 2 = 0 a4b4 is equal to:
3. A line segment AB of length moves such that the (1) 11 (2) 44
points A and B remain on the periphery of a circle (3) 22 (4) 33
of radius . Then the locus of the point, that divides Answer (3)
the line segment AB in the ratio 2 : 3, is a circle of 13
1
radius Sol. Coefficient of x7 in ax −
bx 2
3 2
(1) (2) r
13 − r 1
5 3
Tr +1 =13Cr ( 9 x ) − 2
bx
19 19
(3) (4)
5 7 r =2
r =6
a7
Coeff. = 13C6
b6
2
4 + 9 + 12 ( cos ( 1 − 2 ) )
AB and AC is
h2 + k 2 =
25
8
(1) 3 (2)
3
2
= 19
25 7 10
(3) (4)
3 3
Radius = 19
5 Answer (1)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
dy x 2 + y 2
= 5i − 10 j + 10k Sol. =
dx 2 xy
Projection of OP on Put y = vx
AB AC =
(
OP AB AC ) dy
dx
=v +x
dv
dx
AB AC
dv 1 1
v+x = v +
=
( )(
5 −i − 2 j + 3k i − 2 j + 2k ) dx 2 v
5 1+ 4 + 4 dv 1 1 − v 2
x =
dx 2 v
=3
6. Let the first term a and the common ratio r of a 2v dx
geometric progression be positive integers. If the
1 − v 2 dv = x
− log 1 − v 2 = ln x + lnc
a = 11 y =4 3
r4 + r2 – 272 = 0 ( p q ) (q (~ r )) is
r2 = 16 (1) ( p r ) (~ q )
r =4 (2) ( ( ~ p) r ) ) ( ~ q )
a = 11
(3) ( ( ~ p) (~ q ) ) ( ~ r )
ar = 44
ar2 = 176
(4) ( ( ~ p) (~ q ) ) ( ~ r )
a + ar + ar2 = 231 Answer (2)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
C(4, 1, –4)
Image of C in x + 2y + 4z = 11 (30 – 2x) cm
− 4 −1 + 4 ( 4 + 2 − 16 − 11)
= = = −2 =2
1 2 4 16 + 4 + 1
−4
=2=6 x cm
1
Volume = (30 – 2x)2·x = V(x)
−1
=2=5 dV
= ( 30 − 2 x ) + 2 x ( 30 − 2 x )( −2 ) = 0
2
2 dx
+4 x = 5, x = 15 (not possible)
=2=4
4 Surface area = (30 – 2x) × 4 + (30 – 2x)2
+ + = 30 + 20 + 24 = 800 cm2 (x = 5)
= 74 Option (1) is correct
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
2 4 8 16
14. If f ( x ) =
( tan1) x + loge (123 )
12. 96cos cos cos cos cos is equal to , x 0, then the
33 33 33 33 33 x loge (1234 ) − ( tan1 )
(1) 3 (2) 1 4
least value of f ( f ( x ) ) + f f is
(3) 4 (4) 2 x
Answer (1) (1) 0 (2) 8
cos cos 2 cos 4 cos8 cos16 (3) 2 (4) 4
Sol. 96 · · · ·
33 33 33 33 33
Answer (3)
Let A = Sol. Let tan1° = a, loge(123) = b and loge(1234) = c
33
ax + b
96cosA·cos2A·cos4A·cos8A·cos16A f (x) =
cx − a
32
=
( ) = 96 sin 33
96 sin 25 A
=3 f ( f ( x )) =
a f (x) + b
=x
c f (x) − a
25 sin A 32sin
33
4 4
f ( f ( x )) + f f = x +
13. Let the complex number z = x + iy be such that
x x
2z − 3i
is purely imaginary. If x + y2 = 0, then y4 + 4
2z + i x > 0, then least value = x· =2
y2 – y is equal to x
2z − 3i Answer (4)
Sol. is purely imaginary
2z + i x+2 y z−5
Sol. = =
1 −2 2
2( x + iy ) − 3i ( 2x + i ( 2y − 3 ) ) ( 2x − i ( 2y + 1) ) x − 4 y −1 z + 3
= is PI = =
2( x + iy ) + i ( 2x + i ( 2y + 1) ) ( 2x − i ( 2y + 1) ) 1 2 0
4 x 2 + (2y − 3)(2y + 1) ( a2 − a1 ) ( n1 n2 )
=0 SD =
4 x 2 + (2y + 1)2 n1 n2
4 x 2 + 4y 2 − 4y − 3 = 0 iˆ ˆj kˆ
3 n1 n2 = 1 −2 2
x2 + y 2 − y − =0 1 2 0
4
x + y2 = 0 = − 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4kˆ
x = –y2
SD =
(16 iˆ + jˆ − 8kˆ )( − 4iˆ + 2 jˆ + 4kˆ )
3 16 + 16 + 4
y4 + y2 − y − =0
4
3 −24 + 2 − 32 54
y4 + y2 − y = = = =9
4 6 6
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
16. Let P be the point of intersection of the line 18. Let the ellipse E : x2 + 9y2 = 9 intersect the positive
x + 3 y + 2 1− z x- and y-axes at the points A and B respectively. Let
= = and the plane x + y + z = 2. If
3 1 2 the major axis of E be a diameter of the circle C. Let
the distance of the point P from the plane 3x – 4y + the line passing through A and B meet the circle C
12z = 32 is q, then q and 2q are the roots of the at the point P. If the area of the triangle with vertices
equation m
A, P and the origin O is , where m and n are
n
(1) x2 – 18x – 72 = 0 (2) x2 – 18x + 72 = 0
coprime, then m – n is equal to
(3) x2 + 18x + 72 = 0 (4) x2 + 18x – 72 = 0
(1) 16 (2) 15
Answer (2)
(3) 17 (4) 18
x + 3 y + 2 1− z
Sol. = = = Answer (3)
3 1 2
Sol. Ellipse E: x2 + 9y2 = 9 …(i)
A(3 – 3, – 2, 1 – 2)
x y
3 – 3 + – 2 + 1 – 2 = 2 Line L: + = 1 x = 3 − 3 y …(ii)
3 1
2 = 6
Circle C: x2 + y2 = 9 …(iii)
=3
Let Q be foot of perpendicular from P upon major
P(6, 1, – 5) axis.
18 − 4 − 60 − 32 78 (ii) & (iii) (3 – 3y)2 + y2 = 9
q= = =6
9 + 16 + 144 13
9
y= , 0
Equation with roots q and 2q is 5
x2 – 3qx + 2q2 = 0 9
PQ =
x2 – 18x + 72 = 0 5
(
Sol. 3adj 3 A A2 = 33 adj 33 A A2 ) ( ) 4x + 5y + z = ,
which of the following is NOT correct?
3
= 3 adj 2 3 A ( 3 2
) (1) The system has infinitely many solutions for
= –5 and = 9
2
= 33 2 33 A2 (2) The system has infinitely many solutions for
2 = –6 and = 9
3
( )
3
3 2
= 3 23 A (3) The system in inconsistent for = –5 and
=8
3 6 18 4
= 3 2 3 A (4) The system has a unique solution for –5
= 26 321 24 = 210 321 and = 8
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
2 −1 3 SECTION - B
Sol. D = 3 2 −1 Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
4 5 contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
= 2(2 + 5) + (3 + 4) + 3(7) NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
D = 7 + 35
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
D 0 –5 unique solution. e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
= –6 corresponds to unique solution.
the place designated to enter the answer.
2
20. If I ( x ) = esin x ( cos x sin2x − sin x ) dx and I(0) =
21. The number of permutations, of the digits
1, 2, 3, …, 7 without repetition, which neither
contain the string 153 nor the string 2467, is
1, then l is equal to
3
________.
3 Answer (4898)
1
(1) − e 4
2 Sol. 1, 2, 3, ….., 7
3 Total number of permutations = 7! = 5040
1 4
(2) e
2 Number of permutations containing strong 153 = 5!
3
= 120
(3) −e 4 Number of permutations containing strong 2467 =
3 4! = 24
(4) e4 Number of permutations containing strong 153 and
Answer (2) 2467 both = 2! = 2
( )
= et f ( t ) + f ' ( t ) dt = et f ( t ) + c
Answer (16)
3 n=8
1
I = e4
3 2 2n = 16
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
23. If the mean of the frequency distribution 25. The coefficient of x7 in (1 – x + 2x3)10 is ________.
) = i ( fi i )
2
f x−x Sol. Tn = 3 + 5(n – 1) = 5n – 2
Variance ( 2
2 ( 23 ) + 3 (13 ) + 6 ( 3 ) + 5 ( 7 ) + 4 (17 )
2 2 2 2 2
i.e. 3, 18, 33, 48, ......, 363
2 =
20 Sum of numbers divisible by 3.
2 = 151 25
= (3 + 363) = (25)(183)
2
24. Let f : ( −2, 2) → be defined by
Sum of all numbers in A.P.
x[ x ] , −2 x 0
f (x) = =
75
(3 + 373) = (75)(188)
( x − 1)[ x ] , 0 x 2 2
where [x] denotes the greatest integer function. If m Required sum = 9525
and n respectively are the number of points in 27. Let a common tangent to the curves y2 = 4x and
(x – 4)2 + y2 = 16 touch the curves at the points P
(–2, 2) at which y = |f(x)| is not continuous and not
and Q. Then (PQ)2 is equal to ________.
differentiable, then m + n is equal to ________.
Answer (32.00)
Answer (04.00)
1
Sol. y = mx +
Sol. m
⊥ r from (4, 0) = 4
1
4m +
m =4
m2 + 1
1
Or 16m2 + + 8 = 16m2 + 16
2
m
y = f(x) is same as y = |f(x)|
1 1
Or m2 = , if m = then
m = 1, n = 3 8 2 2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
= 8, 8 2 then 12( – 4A) is equal to ________.
3 3
2
Answer (16)
2
16
(PQ ) = + 4 2
2
3 3 Sol. Given parabola is y = 1 – x2
Answer (8)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
PHYSICS
33. A carrier wave of amplitude 15 V is modulated by a
SECTION - A
sinusoidal base band signal of amplitude 3 V. The
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20 ratio of maximum amplitude to minimum amplitude
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices in an amplitude modulated wave is
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
(1) 2
Choose the correct answer:
3
31. The equivalent capacitance of the combination (2)
2
shown is
(3) 1
(4) 5
Answer (2)
Amax 15 + 3 18 3
Sol. = = =
(1) 2C Amin 15 − 3 12 2
C
(3)
2
(4) 4C
Answer (1)
Sol. Ceq = C + C
= 2C
32. A physical quantity P is given as
(1) 16 Ω
a 2 b3
P= (2) 3.2 Ω
c d
(3) 24 Ω
The percentage error in the measurement of a, b, c
and d are 1%, 2%, 3% and 4% respectively. The (4) 20 Ω
percentage error in the measurement of quantity P Answer (2)
will be
64
(1) 13% Sol. R=
eq = 3.2 Ω
20
(2) 16% 35. The angular momentum for the electron in Bohr’s
(3) 12% orbit is L. If the electron is assumed to revolve in
second orbit of hydrogen atom, then the change in
(4) 14%
angular momentum will be
Answer (1)
(1) Zero
∆P 2∆a 3∆b ∆c 1 ∆d (2) 2L
Sol. = + + +
P a b c 2 d
(3) L
∆P 1
× 100 = 2 × 1 + 3 × 2 + 3 + × 4 L
P 2 (4)
2
= 13%
Answer (3)
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
nh h 1
Sol. L = ⇒ L1 = (1) λ1
2π 2π 2
For 2nd orbit (2) 2 λ1
2h
=
L2
= 2L 1
2π (3) λ1
2
∆L = 2L – L = L
(4) 2λ1
36. Two satellites of masses m and 3m revolve around
the earth in circular orbits of radii r & 3r respectively. Answer (3)
The ratio of orbital speeds of the satellites
Sol. V ∝ T
respectively is
(1) 3 :1 V1 T1 1
= =
V2 T2 2
(2) 3 : 1
(3) 9 : 1 1
λ∝
V
(4) 1 : 1
Answer (1) λ1 V2 2
= =
λ 2 V1 1
GM
Sol. V =
r 1
λ2 = λ1
2
V1 r2 3r 3
= = =
V2 r1 r 1 39. The position-time graphs for two students A and B
returning from the school to their homes are shown
37. Assuming the earth to be a sphere of uniform mass in figure.
R
density, the weight of a body at a depth d = from
2
the surface of earth, if its weight on the surface of
earth is 200 N, will be :
(Given R = radius of earth)
(1) 300 N
(2) 100 N (A) A lives closer to the school
(3) 400 N (B) B lives closer to the school
(4) 500 N (C) A takes lesser time to reach home
Answer (2) (D) A travels faster than B
d (E) B travels faster than A
Sol. g ′ = g 1 −
R
Choose the correct answer from the options given
1 g below
=g ′ g=
1 −
2 2 (1) (A), (C) and (D) only
w 200 (2) (A), (C) and (E) only
Weight == = 100 N
2 2 (3) (B) and (E) only
38. The de Broglie wavelength of a molecule in a gas (4) (A) and (E) only
at room temperature (300 K) is λ1. If the
Answer (4)
temperature of the gas is increased to 600 K, then
the de Broglie wavelength of the same gas Sol. XA ∝ XB
molecule becomes and VB > VA
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
40. Consider two containers A and B containing
Sol.
monoatomic gases at the same Pressure (P),
Volume (V) and Temperature (T). The gas in A is
1 A
compressed isothermally to of its original =t 0,=
x
8 2
volume while the gas in B is compressed
x = Asin (ωt + δ)
1
adiabatically to of its original volume. The ratio
8 dx
= Aω cos(ωt + δ) > 0
of final pressure of gas in B to that of gas in A is dt
(1) 8 A
x= = A sin(0 + δ)
2
(2) 4
1 π
3 sin δ= ⇒ δ=
2 6
(3) 82
42. The energy of an electromagnetic wave contained
1 in a small volume oscillates with
(4)
8
(1) Double the frequency of the wave
Answer (2) (2) The frequency of the wave
Sol. Isothermal (Pf)A = 8P (3) Half the frequency of the wave
Adiabatic (4) Zero frequency
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
44. Match List I with List II: In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
List I List II
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(A) 3 Translational (I) Monoatomic
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
degrees of gases
freedom (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(B) 3 Translational, 2 (II) Polyatomic
rotational degrees gases Answer (2)
of freedoms Sol. Pmax when XL = XC → Resonance condition
(C) 3 Translational, 2 (III) Rigid diatomic Pmax occurs in pure resistance circuit
rotational and 1 gases 46. Given below are two statements:
vibrational Statement I: If the number of turns in the coil of a
degrees of moving coil galvanometer is doubled then the
freedom
current sensitivity becomes double.
(D) 3 Translational, 3 (IV) Nonrigid Statement II: Increasing current sensitivity of a
rotational and diatomic gases moving coil galvanometer by only increasing the
more than one number of turns in the coil will also increase its
vibrational
voltage sensitivity in the same ratio
degrees of
In the light of the above statements, choose the
freedom
correct answer from the options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options given (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
below:
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(1) (A)-(I), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(II)
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(2) (A)-(IV), (B)-(III), (C)-(II), (D)-(I) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) (A)-(IV), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(III) Answer (1)
(4) (A)-(I), (B)-(IV), (C)-(III), (D)-(II) nAB
Sol. Si =
Answer (1) K
v
(1)
3
Image moved 8 cm towards the mirror.
v
(2) SECTION - B
4
Numerical Value Type Questions: This section
(3) v
contains 10 questions. In Section B, attempt any five
v questions out of 10. The answer to each question is a
(4)
2 NUMERICAL VALUE. For each question, enter the
Answer (1) correct numerical value (in decimal notation,
truncated/rounded-off to the second decimal place;
Sol. mv = (3mv)
e.g., 06.25, 07.00, –00.33, –00.30, 30.27, –27.30) using
v the mouse and the on-screen virtual numeric keypad in
v =
3 the place designated to enter the answer.
49. Given below are two statements: 51. A transverse harmonic wave on a string is given by
Sol.
I
=If 0 cos2 θ × sin2 θ
2
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
Vx = Vz
σa 2 σb 2 σc 2 σa 2 − σb 2 + σc
⇒ − + =
a b c c
a 2 b 2 (a + b )(a − b )
⇒ a−b= − =
c c c
c=a+b
c = 2 + 3 = 5 cm
Answer (245)
58. A 1 m long metal rod XY completes the circuit as
Sol. Total work done by tube on block is equal to loss in
shown in figure. The plane of the circuit is mechanical energy
perpendicular to the magnetic field of flux density
1
0.15 T. If the resistance of the circuit is 5Ω, the force =w mv 2 + mgh
2
needed to move the rod in direction, as indicated,
1
with a constant speed of 4 m/s will be _______
= × 1× (22)2 + 1× 10 × 0.3
2
10–3 N. = 3 + 242
= 245 J
60. Two wires each of radius 0.2 cm and negligible
mass, one made of steel and the other made of
brass are loaded as shown in the figure. The
elongation of the steel wire is ______10–6m.
[Young's modulus for steel = 2 × 1011 Nm–2 and
g = 10 ms–2]
Answer (18)
Sol. F = iB
BV
= × B
R
B 2 2V
=
R
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A 62. Given below are two statements:
Statement I : Aqueous solution of K2Cr2O7 is
Multiple Choice Questions: This section contains 20
preferred as a primary standard in volumetric
multiple choice questions. Each question has 4 choices analysis over Na2Cr2O7 aqueous solution.
(1), (2), (3) and (4), out of which ONLY ONE is correct. Statement II : K2Cr2O7 has a higher solubility in
Choose the correct answer: water than Na2Cr2O7.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
61. The major product 'P' formed in the given reaction
correct answer from the options given below:
is
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer (3)
Sol. K2Cr2O7 is used as a primary standard in redox
titration under volumetric analysis.
(1)
Na2Cr2O7 is more soluble than K2Cr2O7.
63. The pair from the following pairs having both
compounds with net non-zero dipole moment is
(1) 1,4-Dichlorobenzene, 1,3-Dichlorobenzene
(2) (2) cis-butene, trans-butene
(3) CH2Cl2, CHCl3
(4) Benzene, anisidine
Answer (3)
Sol. The CH2Cl2 and CHCl3 both have net non-zero
(3)
dipole moment. The 1,4-dichlorobenzene, trans-
butene, benzene have zero dipole moment. The
1,3-dichlorobenzene, cis-butene, anisidine has
non-zero dipole moment.
(4) 64. The octahedral diamagnetic low spin complex
among the following is
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+
Answer (2)
(2) [CoF6]3–
(3) [CoCl6]3–
(4) [NiCl4]2
Sol.
Answer (1)
Sol. [Co(NH3)6]3+ has d2sp3 (inner orbital complex) with
zero unpaired electrons. Hence, it is octahedral with
diamagnetic character and low spin complex.
[CoF6]3– and [CoCl6]3– are octahedral but having
unpaired electrons.
[NiCl4]– – is not octahedral.
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JEE (Main)-2023 : Phase-2 (10-04-2023)-Morning
65. The enthalpy change for the adsorption process
and micelle formation respectively are Sol. can be prepared by Gabriel
(1) Hads > 0 and Hmic < 0 phthalimide synthesis because SN2 is possible in
(2) Hads > 0 and Hmic > 0
(3) Hads < 0 and Hmic > 0
(4) Hads < 0 and Hmic < 0 2 amine reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to give solid
Answer (3) insoluble in NaOH.
Aromatic diazonium are prepared and used in
Sol. The adsorption process H = –ve.
diazocoupling.
For micelle formation H is +ve and S is +ve.
68. Match List I with List II
66. Prolonged heating is avoided during the
preparation of ferrous ammonium sulphate to List I List II
Industry Waste Generated
(1) Prevent hydrolysis
(2) Prevent reduction (A) Steel plants (I) Gypsum
(3) Prevent breaking (B) Thermal (II) Fly ash
(4) Prevent oxidation power plants
Answer (4) (C) Fertilizer (III) Slag
Sol. Prolonged heating may oxidise ferrous ions to ferric Industries
ions.
(D) Paper mills (IV) Bio-degradable
67. Isomeric amines with molecular formula C8H11N wastes
give the following tests
Choose the correct answer from the options given
Isomer(P) Can be prepared by Gabriel below :
phthalimide synthesis
(1) (A)-(III), (B)-(II), (C)-(I), (D)-(IV)
Isomer(Q) Reacts with Hinsberg’s reagent to
(2) (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
give solid insoluble in NaOH
(3) (A)-(II), (B)-(III), (C)-(IV), (D)-(I)
Isomer(R) Reacts with HONO followed by
(4) (A)-(IV), (B)-(I), (C)-(II), (D)-(III)
-naphthol in NaOH to give red dye.
Answer (1)
Isomers(P), (Q) and (R) respectively are
Sol. Slag is waste generated in iron extraction. Fly ash
is waste generated in thermal power plants.
Gypsum is the waste of fertilizer industry.
(1)
Non-cellulosic part of plant is wastes of paper
industry and it is biodegradable.
69. Lime reacts exothermally with water to give ‘A’
(2)
which has low solubility in water. Aqueous solution
of ‘A’ is often used for the test of CO2, a test in which
(3) insoluble B is formed. If B is further reacted with
CO2 then soluble compound is formed. ‘A’ is
(1) Quick lime (2) Slaked lime
(4)
(3) White lime (4) Lime water
Answer (4) Answer (2)
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Hence for
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− + − −− + 86. In the following reaction, the total number of oxygen
Sol. N3− (Azide) : N = N = N N − N N
atoms in X and Y is______
has sp hybridised central atom. Hence linear Na2O + H2O → 2X
Cl2O7 + H2O → 2Y
I3− (triiodide) : has linear geometry, sp3d
Answer (5)
hybridisation with three lone pairs at central atom.
Sol. Na2O + H2O ⎯⎯→ 2NaOH (X)
(B) Both the opposing processes occur at the same Tf – Tf = 0.3 (k f molality)
rate.
Tf – Tf 0.3 (k f molality)
(C) When equilibrium is attained at a given = = 0.3
Tf k f molality
temperature, the value of all its parameters
became equal % value = 30
(D) For dissolution of solids in liquids, the solubility 88. The number of incorrect statement/s about the
is constant at a given temperature. black body from the following is______
Answer (3) (A) Emit or absorb energy in the form of
Sol. A, B and D statements are correct. electromagnetic radiation.
The equilibrium is possible when there is no (B) Frequency distribution of the emitted radiation
exchange of matter between system and depends on temperature.
surroundings. (C) At a given temperature, intensity vs frequency
At equilibrium state the forward and backward curve passes through a maximum value.
processes occur with same rate (speed) (D) The maximum of the intensity vs frequency
When equilibrium is attained, the value of all its curve is at a higher frequency at higher
parameters became constant. temperature compared to that at lower
The solubility is function of solubility product, the temperature.
value of which is constant at a given temperature. Answer (0)
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Sol. All the given statements A, B, C & D are correct. Sol. P2V2 = P1V1 Boyle's Law
The amount of electromagnetic radiation emitted 940.3 V1
P2 = V2 = V1 – 0.4 V1 = 0.6 V1
(intensity of radiation) from a black body and its 0.6V1
spectral (frequency) distribution depends only on its
= 1567.16
temperature.
1567 mm Hg
Fig. 2.8 Wavelength-intensity relationship.
(Ref : Particle nature of electromagnetic radiation; 90. The sum of lone pairs present on the central atom
Planck's quantum theory, ncert chapter structure of of the interhalogen IF5 and IF7 is______
atom.) Answer (1)
Shows as the temperature increases, maxima of Sol. IF5 has one lone pair at central atom and IF7 has no
the curve shifts to shorter wavelength or say higher any lone pair at central atom
frequency.
89. At constant temperature, a gas is at a pressure of
940.3 mm Hg. The pressure at which its volume
decreases by 40% is ______ mm Hg. (Nearest
integer)
Answer (1567)
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