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Technology Multiple Choice Exam 2: Version 6 January 2013

1. How could arc blow be avoided?


A) Use A.C.
B) Use D.C.+
C) Use D.C.-
D) Increase travel speed

2. During a transverse tensile test, the first stage the specimen goes through is known as:
A) Plastic stage
B) Elastic stage
C) Deformed stage
D) UTS stage

3. Which of the following joint designs is preferred in cyclic loading condition?


A) View A
B) View B
C) View C
D) View D

View A View B View C View D

4. The WPS calls for a root gap to be between 2 and 3mm, the actual measured gap is 4mm, what
course of action would you take?
A) Accept it as its only 1mm.
B) Reject it.
C) The welder will decide, if it fails it will be his problem.
D) The welder insists he can weld the butt joint easily so let him go ahead.

5. Which Tungsten electrode is usually used to weld Aluminium?


A) Zirconiated
B) Thoriated
C) Large diameter
D) Pointed electrodes

6. A procedure is a document which:


A) Specifies the way to carry out an activity or a process
B) Provides binding legislative rules that are adopted by an authority
C) Specifies which resources shall be applied by whom and when, to a specific project, product,
process or contract
D) A written and verbal description of the precise steps to be followed
7. Which one of these statements is true concerning solidification cracking?
A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Never occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above

8. Which one of these tests would most probably be used for welder qualification on a plate butt
weld using 13mm low carbon steel
A) CTOD
B) Nick break test
C) Fracture fillet test
D) IZOD

9. An arc strike on a high carbon steel plate is likely to have the following microstructure beneath
its surface
A) Austenite
B) Martensite
C) Ferrite
D) Pearlite

10. If the torch was trailing when using the MIG/MAG process, which of the following appearances
of the weld is most likely to be observed during visual inspection?
A) No undercut and shallow penetration
B) Severe undercut and deep penetration
C) Moderate undercut and penetration
D) Minimum undercut and excess weld metal

11. The welders have increased the electrode stickout length of the SAW set, what would be the
effect on the weld?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased.
D) The deposition rate would be greater if wire feed rate is increased also.

12. Who should have access to the WPQRs?


A) NDT operators.
B) Inspectors only.
C) Welders only.
D) Welding engineer.

13. Half life is a term used to describe


A) The penetrating ability a gamma source
B) Half the total time a gamma source will be useful
C) The time taken for the gamma source to reduce its strength try half
D) The rate of decay of an X-ray tube
14. A typical minimum OCV requirements for MMA (111) using basic electrodes would be:
A) 70 Volts
B) 40 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 20 Volts

15. Why is the OCV voltage capped at certain level?


A) Save electricity
B) Reduce the risk of fatality
C) Prevent exploding of the consumable
D) Allow smooth transition into welding voltage range

16. Austenitic stainless steels are not susceptible to HIC because:


A) They are non-magnetic
B) They are stainless and contain chromium
C) They don't harden during heating and cooling
D) They are highly ductile

17. Which type of weld would you associate with the joint below?
A) A plug weld in a T joint
B) A spot weld is an edge joint
C) A fillet weld in a corner joint
D) An edge weld in a lap joint

18. In a martensitic grain structure which of the following mechanical preperties would be more
likely to increase?
A) Ductility
B) Hardness
C) Softness
D) Toughness

19. Who should select the specific welds for NDT, to cover the 10% contractual percentage
required by the specification Code?
A) Anyone can select the welds as its just a random choice
B) The welder as he known which welds are likely to produce the least defects
C) This will be referenced in the inspection and test plan
D) Nobody, as welding is always carried out to a high standard the use of percentage NDT is of
no real value
20. To assess the surface of a weld for direct inspection, the distance from the surface to the eye
should be a maximum of?
A) 200mm
B) 600mm
C) 60mm
D) 6000mm

21. Which of the following defects are unlikely to be detected by normal radiographic techniques?
A) Intergranular corrosion cracking
B) Porosity
C) Slag
D) Lack of penetration

22. To prevent hydrogen cracking which of the following would require the lowest preheat if all
other factors were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA welding with cellulosic coated electrode
B) MMA welding with rutile coated electrode
C) MMA welding with heavy rutile coated electrode
D) MMA welding with solid wire

23. Which BS EN standard is used for welding symbols on drawings?


A) BS EN 970.
B) BS EN 287.
C) BS EN 22553.
D) BS EN 4515.

24. The higher the alloy content of steels:


A) The lower the tendency for HIC to occur
B) The higher the tendency for HIC to occur
C) High alloy steels do not influence HIC susceptibility
D) None of the above

25. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 65mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36

33. A high level of surface cleaning is important prior to penetrant testing in order to
A) Reduce the amount of penetrant used.
B) Reduce the level of false indications.
C) Ensure a good bond for the developer
D) Improve the viscosity of the peentrant
34. A typucal minimum OCV requirement for MMA(111) using either rutile or cellulosic electrode
would be;
A) 40 Volts
B) 120 Volts
C) 100 Volts
D) 50 Volts

35. The main problem with solution treatment of Stainless steel is that
A) Controlling the rate of the temperature rise
B) Controlling the cooling rate
C) The length of the "soak" period
D) High risk of distortion

36. An advantage of the MMA(111) welding process is that it


A) Has higher current density than SAW(121) welding
B) Has a very is large of consumables for most welding applications
C) No core wire is lost during the process
D) Requires a lower skill level than other manual forms of welding

37. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick carbon steel plate with a tolerance of ±5mm you
notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes
present adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you like?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then
blend them

38. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG(GSMAW) precess, you notice a very
bright white inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to be a film mark

39. What unit of measurement is used for Charpy impact testing?


A) Joules
B) Nmm²
C) KJ
D) VPN

40. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterblum 169
41. Which process uses a constant current electrical characteristic
A) MIG/MAG
B) MMA
C) FCAW
D) All precesses use this

42. Using the MMA process, which polarity produces the greatest penetration?
A) A.C
B) D.C
C) D.C+
D) Depends on electrode size

43. Which of the following would be most unlikely to be found in a butt welded joint using the
conventional radiographic method of NDT?
A) Linear elongated slag inclusions in the root (wagon tracks)
B) Burn through
C) Lack of sidewall fusion
D) An elongated gas cavity

44. The welders have increased the voltage on the SAW set, what would be the effect on the weld
appearance?
A) No effect.
B) The weld width would be narrower.
C) Penetration will be increased
D) The weld width would be wider.

45. Heat input can be altered from the original procedure according to EN1011, but by new much?
A) +10%
B) +20%
C) +25%
D) +30%

46. A maximum interpass temperature is generally given to control


A) High HAZ hardness
B) Low HAZ toughness
C) Lack of inter-run fusion
D) Excess levels of penetration

47. When transverse tensile testing a welded joint the excess weld metal is often removed. This
action is done to:
A) Allow the test piece to fit accurately into the equipment
B) Reduce stress concentrations to the weld toes.
C) Allow strain gauges to be placed over the weld face area.
D) Allow weld metal ductility to be measured.
48. Charpy impact tests show a 50% rough torn surface and a 50% flat crystaline surface after the
completed test, this would indicate which type of failure?
A) Fatigue to brittle.
B) Ductile to brittle
C) Ductile with gross yielding
D) Fatigue to ductile

49. A STRA test is carried out to determine which of the following?


A) A quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualitication tests
B) The test results can be used to verity that the material has not been adversely mechanically
dameged by the heat during welding
C) An indication of the meterial' elongation properties
D) An indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)

50. Due to the high heating effect in the electrode when TIG welding(141) with AC it is important
that a tungsten electrode used for AC welding is:
A) Ground to a fine vertex angle of <30˚ before welding
B) Used straight from the packet without any grinding
C) Lightly ground to a slight chamfer (corners only removed.)
D) Used without grinding and baked at 300˚C for an hour before use.

51. An advantage of the SAW process is that:


A) It can be used in the vertical down (PG) position
B) Little or no ozone or UV light is produced/emitted
C) It is not affected by arc blow
D) It is not prone to solidification cracking

52. When welding vertically up with the MMA process weaving is sometimes restricted to 2.5 x
electrode diameter, this restriction is mainly applied to
A) Reduce the overall width of the weld
B) Limit the heat input into the joint
C) Reduce the number of electrodes used in the joint
D) Reduce the time required to finish the weld

53. A post weld heat-treatment may also be of benefit in minimising the risk of weld decay. This
heat treatment would be called:
A) Stress relief
B) Normalising
C) Quench and Tempering
D) Solution treatment over 1000˚C

54. After PWHT, it has been noticed that a repair must be carried out. How should this be done?
A) With the minimum amount of heat input.
B) Welded, checked and PWHT again.
C) Defect removed via non-thermal process then checked.
D) Welded and allowed to cool in air.
55. What does the term WPQR mean?
A) Weld productivity quality review
B) Weld production quality requirements
C) welding procedure qualification record
D) Work production quality review

56. Which of the following electrode types would produce the lowest of hydrogen?
A) Cellulose coated electrodes sealed in a tin immediately after manufacture
B) Basic coated electrodes when baked correctly immediately prior to use
C) Rutile coated electrodes when dried at 150˚C prior to use
D) Heavy rutile coated electrodes when dried at 180˚C for 2 hours prior to use

57. With regards to Lamellar tearing, a buttering layer will:


A) Improve ductily
B) Disperse heat
C) Improve toughness
D) Improve hardness

58. Why is it sometimes necessary to preheat the base material before welding?
A) Remove oil and grease
B) Remove moisture from the inside of the material.
C) Prevent the possible risk of cracking
D) Not required if using cellulosic electrodes, as these will provide enough heat.

59. What is the recommended minimum range of illumination required by EN Standard for inspection
of a welded surface?
A) 90-120 lux
B) 150-250 lux
C) 350-500 lux
D) 35-50 lux

60. While making a symbol for a symmetrical fillet weld ________________


A) the size does not need not be mentioned.
B) the length can be mentioned to the left of the symbol
C) the finish is assumed to be flat.
D) the broken line can be omitted.
Technology Multiple Choice Exam 3: Version 6 January 2013

1. The purpose of a hot pass is to:-


A) Improve fusion
B) Improve profile
C) Remove hydrogen
D) Remove sulphur

2. Which of the following processes uses a flat characteristic?


A) MAG (GMAW)
B) Oxy-fuel gas welding
C) Resistance spot welding
D) SAW using more than 1000 amps

3. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 100mm in thickness would basic electrodes
require any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack opened 8 hours prior to use
B) None if they were in a sealed vacuum pack prior to use
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use

4. Standard on the same subject approved by different standardizing bodies, that establish
inter-changeability of products, processes and services, or mutual understanding of test results
or information provided according to these standards are called:
A) Codes of practice
B) Harmonized standards
C) Quality plan
D) Quality management systems

5. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 120mm in thickness would the basic electrodes
requure any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat to 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use

6. Which of the following is NOT a quantitative test?


A) Root bend
B) Macro hardness
C) Charpy
D) Tensile
7. When would you measure the minimum preheat temperature?
A) On completion of each pass
B) Immediately prior to commencing the first pass and subsequent passes
C) When the welding is complete
D) Minimum preheat temperature measurement is only required if the heat input is lower than
that specified in WPS

8. When SAW welding using twin wires with separate power supplies what should the electrical
characteristics be?
A) Both wires DC+ve
B) Both wires AC
C) The lead wire DC+ve polarity followed by the trailing wire using a AC polarity
D) Both wires DC-ve

9. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC-ve to DC+ve when MMA
(SMAW) welding?
A) More penetration
B) None
C) Greater deposition rate
D) Less penetration

10. Voltage and amperage meters have been removed from MIG/MAG (GMAW) equipment making
calibration invalid, the equipment should be:
A) Quarantined
B) Only used for tack welds
C) Only used if validated
D) Monitored closely by the welding inspector for amperage and voltage

11. Why is it essential to clean the weld area on completion of the production weld?
A) So it can be ready for painting
B) To remove ant test
C) To ensure it is suitably clean for visual inspection and NDT
D) To remove slag from the undercut

12. An 80mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographed using the double wall
single ima??? technique. The source to be used is iridium. Which of the following statements is
true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There in no problem with the technique
D) The preferred method is the double wall, double image technique
13. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observation were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 40mm X 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
190kN. What is the UTS
A) 237.5kN/mm2
B) 247.5N/mm2
C) 24.5N/mm2
D) 237.5N/mm2

14. What is the most important information that the welding inspector should enter on an electrode
vacuum pack at the point of breaking the vacuum?
A) Welder's name.
B) Weld ID number
C) Air humidity content
D) Time and date of opening

15. Which of the following defects is usually associated with MAG (GMAW) welding process when
using Dip Transfer?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Lack of side wall fusing
C) Undercut
D) Tungsten inclusions

16. Weld decay can be minimised specifying a steel with:


A) higher carbon level
B) higher caromium level
C) lower carbon level
D) lower caromium level

17. Which welding process and mode is more susceptible to lack of sidewall fusion?
A) MAG Dip
B) SAW DC +
C) MAG Sparay
D) TIG Pulsed

18. The welding procedure calls for a minimum of 50˚C preheat: you notice the welder is using an
oxy-acetylene cutting torch to preheat butt weld joint, what course of action would you take?
A) I would check the preheat with a temperature indicating crayon (tempelstick) to ensure it is
correct
B) I would stop him and insist he used an approved method which is nominated on the WPS
C) It is acceptable to use this method of applying preheat so there is no problem
D) As long as he had a neutral flame it would be acceptable
19. During root welding. Which of the following would be the main cause of excess penetration?
A) The root gap is too small in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat not used
C) The current is too high
D) Root face is too large

20. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:


A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt wleds only

21. What information should be recorded as a minimum on a completed production weld?


A) Size and type of electrode used
B) Welding supervisor's name
C) Welder's identification, date and weld number
D) Welding inspectors neme

22. A 'weld all around' symbol is not required when:


A) Indicating a circumferential joint
B) Indicating a pipe to pipe butt weld
C) Indicating a nozzle to shell weld
D) All of the above

23. What would be the most likely SAW flux type for welding medium carbon steel which requires
impact testing:
A) Callulosic
B) Rutile
C) Fused
D) Agglomerated

24. Which one of these statements is true conceming lamellar tearing?


A) As material gets thicker the ductility decreases
B) As materials gets thicker the resistance to Lamellar tearing improves
C) As materials gets thicker the ductility improves
D) Thick materials don't suffer from Lamellar tearing

25. Which of the following defects are not associated with the SAW process?
A) Centreline cracking
B) Chevron cracking
C) Copper inclusions
D) Tungsten inclusions
26. Clustered porosity found internally in the body of an MMA weld is usually associated with:
A) Poor inter-pass cleaning
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Poor stop start technique or damp electrode coating
D) Low open circuit voltage

27. In which of the following modes of transfer is inductance usually a vatiable patameter in solid
wire welding(135)?
A) Dip transfer
B) Spray transfer
C) Pulse transfer
D) Globualr transfer

28. What are the three metal transfer modes when using MIG/MAG(OSMAW)?
A) Dip, drop and drag
B) Trailing, vertical, and leading
C) Pulse, dip and flood
D) Dip, spray and pulse

29. A 300mm diameter pipe, 10mm wall thickness is to be radiographically tested using the double
wall single image technique (DWSI). the source to be used is Iridium 192. Which of the
following statements is true?
A) It should not be done as the thickness is below that recommended
B) It would be better to use a cobalt 60 source in this instance
C) There is no problem with the technique
D) Only the double wall, double image technique should be used with Iridium

30. Solidification cracking occurs:


A) In the HAZ
B) In the parent metal
C) In the weld
D) All of the above

31. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 30mm × 20mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
200kN. What is the UTS?
A) 33 kN/mm2
B) 333 N/mm2
C) 3333 N/mm2
D) 33 N/mm2

32. AT what level is residual stress a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2 cracking?
A) The stress levels have no influence on H2 cracking
B) The stress levels will need to be between 30 to 40% of the material yield stress
C) The stress levels will need to be greater than 50% of the material yield stress
D) The stress levels will need to be greater than 75% of material UTS
33. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are: 
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"

34. Which is the most accurate method of ensuring that the correct preheat is applied?
A) Measure it with heat sensitive crayons (tempilsticks)
B) Using a calibrated digital thermometer
C) Using heat treatment equipment with thermocouples attached and a chart recorder
D) Temperature measuring paint

35. Hydrogen cracking is considered a cold crack as it will not form until the weldment cools to
below:
A) 500℃
B) 300℃
C) 300℉
D) 730℃

36. Is it permissible to allow a welder to carry out a MMA (SMAW) welding procedure test if he is
not qualified?
A) No
B) Yes as long as the Welding Engineer is happy to allow it
C) Yes as long as he has a TIG (GTAW) qualification
D) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld

37. When using DC-ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?


A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-400V
D) 200-240V

38. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 20mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type, 4mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of
the runs was 185 amps, 24 volts, using AC polarity, and an ROL of 145mm/min. What would be
the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.8 kJ/mm
C) 2.9 kJ/mm
D) 0.96 kJ/mm

39. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
DC-ve to AC?
A) None
B) Higher deposition rates
C) There would be more penetration or a slight decrease in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable
40. In a cross joint tensile test the following observations were made: Specimen width: 20mm,
Material thickness: 20mm, Max Load: 180kN, Break position: Parent Plate. What is the UTS?
A) 45 KN/㎟
B) 450 N/㎟
C) 39 KN/㎟
D) 39 N/㎟

41. In a transverse tensile test, if the break was in the weld metal, the sample would be:
A) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified welding consumable UTS but
below the minimum UTS of the parent material
C) Rejected
D) Retested

42. The ease in which materials can be welded together is termed?


A) Weldability
B) Jointability
C) Bonding
D) All of the above

43. Charpy impact tests showing a rough torn surface after the completed test would indicate which
types of failure?
A) Fatigue
B) Ductile
C) Fatigue to ductile
D) Brittle

44. One of the advantages of ultrasonic inspection in relation to radiographic testing is:
A) Access is generally only required from one side (surface) of the component being tested
B) The designated work area must be closed off by barriers, therefore safety is increased
C) Thin materials can be easily examined
D) A permanent image of the defect can be obtained

45. With which of the following NDE processes will BEST detect internal lack of side wall fusion
on a MAG(GMAW) weld 
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Ultrasonics
D) Radiography

46. With the DPI method of inspection, after the contact time has elapsed the dye should be
removed by:
A) Spraying the surface with the remover till all dye has gone then wipe with a clean cloth
B) Spraying with the developer then wiping with a cloth
C) Wipe clean, using a lint free cloth soaked in a solvent remover
D) It doesn't matter how it is done as long as all traces of dye are removed
47. Which of the following would you not need to check in a welding consumable store?
A) The oven temperatures
B) Quarantined consumables
C) Calibration of the oven
D) The humidity

48. Prior to production welding commencing you notice that the drawing has been revised and now
include a pipe with a wall thickness of 30mm, your WPS only covers wall thickness of 28mm,
what course of action would you follow?
A) Continue with production welding as the difference is less than 10%
B) Apply for a concession to change the thickness to permit the welding on the 30mm wall thick
pipe
C) Change the range on the WPS to 30mm and allow welding to commence
D) Allow welding to commence then apply for a concession

49. Who has the final responsibility of sentencing and accepting a weld on completion?
A) The contractor's inspector
B) Site manager
C) The welder
D) The client's inspector or certifying authority

50. Which one of these joints would be more susceptible to Lamellar tearing
A) U butt
B) Vee butt
C) Double butt
D) Compound weld

51. In general terms which of the following would require the highest preheat if all other factors
were the same as per ISO BS EN 1011?
A) MMA weld with cellulosic electrodes
B) MMA weld with rutile electrodes
C) MMA weld with basic electrodes
D) MAG weld with solid wire

52. Which of the following microstructures is critical to the likely formation of hydrogen cracks?
A) Austenite
B) Ferrite
C) Pearlite
D) Martensite

53. When examining a completed macro test, the recorded hardness figures were 5HV points over
the maximum permitted what would your course of action be?
A) Apply for a concession
B) Reject the whole procedure
C) Request a retest
D) Accept it as it is only just over the permitted value
54. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 70mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 40
B) % A is 60
C) % A is 30
D) % A is 36

55. Which of the following is a quantative test:


A) Bend test
B) Macro
C) Tensile test
D) Radiography

56. What is a typical carbon equivalent for carbon manganess steel?


A) 4%
B) 0.40%
C) 0.5%
D) 0.12%

57. During root welding, which of the following would be the main cause of lack of root
penetration?
A) The root gap is too large in accordance with WPS
B) Preheat was not used
C) The current is too low
D) Root face is too small

58. At what level is the hardness value a problem when trying to minimise the risk of H2
cracking?
A) 270 to 290HV
B) 300 to 350HV
C) 100 to 150HV
D) 160 to 200HV

59. Why would visual inspection of the excess weld metal at the bottom of a cross country pipeline
be important?
A) It is the most difficult area to weld
B) It is the dirtiest part of pipe as it is near the ground
C) Welders always forget to weld bottom
D) It is the most difficult area to radiograph

60. Weld decay may be minimised by adding elements called stabilisers. These may be:
A) Vanadium/ Titanium
B) Titanium/ Niobium
C) Niobium/ Vanadium
D) Vanadium/ Titanium/ Niobium
Technology Multiple Choice Exam 4: Version 6 January 2013

1. Would you consider using a 5mm electrode for vertical up root runs in a 6G (HL045) fixed
posion pipe?
A) Yes, it is compatible
B) Yes but this would depend upon the welder skill.
C) No, it is not the most suitable electrode coating type.
D) No, the electrode should have been smaller in diameter.

2. A document that is established by consensus and approved by a recognised body and provides,
for common and repeated use, guidelines, rules, characteristics for activities or their results,
aimed at the achievement of the optimum degree of order in a given context is called:
A) Normative document
B) Regulation
C) Specification
D) Standard

3. Which of the following defects are not associated with the MMA(SMAW) welding process?
A) Isolated pores
B) Lack of fusion
C) Undercut
D) Tungsten inclusions

4. In SAW at higher currents or in the case multiple electrode systems, AC is often preferred to:
A) Avoid the problem of lack of fusion
B) Avoid the problem of excess penetration
C) Avoid the problem of arc blow
D) Avoid the problem of dilution

5. On some applications (i.e cladding operations) by SAW, DC electrode negative is needed to:
A) Reduce penetration and dilution
B) Increase penetration and dilution
C) Reduce penetration and increase dilution
D) Increase penetration and reduce dilution

6. What is the mode of metal transfer for the TIG(GTAW) welding process?
A) Spray transfer
B) Globular trasfer
C) Dip trasfer
D) None of the above.

7. What would the effect be if the polarity were changed from DC+ve to DC-ve?
A) None
B) Greater deposition rate
C) Greater penetration
D) Less deposition rate
8. You notice that a welder is using an unapproved WPS for production tack welding carbon steel,
what action would you take?
A) Have the tacks removed and MPI the weld preparation for cracking
B) Nothing as it is only tack welds and they will probably be removed anyway
C) Nothing as long as the WPS covered the material type, wall thickness and diameter
D) Give him the correct approved one and allow him to continue as long as the welding
consumables were the connect type

9. In welder qualification testing of 20mm plates, why are side bends sued instead of root and face
bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment connot handle thick toor/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications.

10. Mechanical tests are divided in to two areas, identify these from the list below:
A) Destructive and non destructive tests
B) Quantitative and quantitative.
C) Visual and mechanical
D) Quantitative and visual

11. While inspecting a weld on a 100mm thick high carbon steel plate with a tolerance of ±5mm
you notice the weld is visually acceptable, however the parent material has several arc strikes
present adjacent to the weld approximately 3mm deep, what course of action would you take?
A) None I am only inspecting the weld
B) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth
C) Recommend that the area be dressed smooth followed by MPI
D) High carbon steel is not susceptible to cracking so I would weld over the arc strikes then
blend them

12. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was fould to be 185˚. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180˚.
A) They should be acceptable as the standard refecs to minimum forming angle.
B) The bends should be considered as failed
C) New bends should be produced and bent to 180˚ then re-examined.
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close enough to be acceptable.

13. In welder qualification testinh of 45mm thick plates, why are side bends used instead of root
and face bends?
A) They are easier to produce
B) The testing equipment cannot handle thick root/face bends
C) Root defects are not important for welder qualification
D) They give more accurate indications
14. For the structure termed martensite to from in a C-Mn Steel it must first be heated to:
A) Just below its lower critical temperature and rapidly cooled.
B) A maximum temperature of 550˚C then rapidly cooled.
C) Above its upper critical temperature and slowly furnace cooled.
D) A full transformation to austenite than rapidly cooled.

15. A main element involved in solidification crackinh is


A) Chrome
B) Molybednem
C) Sulphur
D) Sitica

16. Preheats are used on steel joints of high hardenability mainly to:
A) Slow the cooling rate of the steel.
B) Remove surface moisture from the joint.
C) Reduce the formaion of surface oxides.
D) Increase the diffusion rate of hydrogen into the HAZ.

17. Weld Decay will cause which of the following problems:


A) a reduced resistance to corrosion
B) a lower tensite strength
C) the toughness is reduced
D) the hardness will increase

18. Why is it essential to clean the surrounding parent metal adjacent to the weld metal made by
MMA(SMAW) which is to be ultrasonically tested?
A) Sound waves will not travel through paint
B) Remove any rust.
C) The spatter will impede the contact of the probe and the parent material surface.
D) Spatter will reflect the backwall echo signal and give spurious indications.

19. Which of the following would not be required to be checked before welding?
A) The welding consumables
B) The welder qualificaton
C) Calibration of the welding equipment
D) The workshop humidity

20. According to AWS 2.4, where does the symbol go for welding on the arrow side?
A) Below solid line
B) Above solid line
C) Depends on the joint
D) Always weld where the arrow is pointing
21. In depicting infermittent fillet welds, BSEN 22553 and AWS 2.4 differ in:
A) The way in which staggering is shown
B) The pitch distance definition
C) Both the above
D) None of the above

22. Root and Face bends from an 8mm thick butt require testing. The specimens are cut to 20mm
wide. The code calls for a 4t bend. Which one of the following former should be selected for
the testing.
A) 80mm redius
B) 80mm diameter
C) 32mm radius
D) 32mm diameter

23. one of the factors used to avoid HAZ hydrogen cracking is to reduce the influence of hydrogen
by checking the amount of moisture present in the shielding gas by means of the dew point
temperature. The dew point temperature should be _____________.
A) above 5˚C
B) below -60˚C
C) below -30˚C
D) above 27˚C

24. Some codes require the excess weld metal (weld cap) on cross weld joint tensile specimens to
be flush this is because:
A) Flushed caps will always break in the weld metal area
B) This is to remove any porosity in the excess weld metal (weld cap)
C) It is easier to calculate the cross sectional area of the joint when flushed
D) Flushed caps have fewer stress raisers and therefore give a more accurate result

25. Which of the following commonly used radioactive isotopes has the longest half life?
A) Iridium 192
B) Cobalt 60
C) Thulium 170
D) Ytterbium 169

26. Which one of these statements us true concerning solidification cracking?


A) Only occurs in MMA welding
B) Increased depth to width ratio will increase stress
C) Nver occurs in MIG/MAG welding
D) All of the above

27. Is it always necessary to preheat the base material before welding?


A) Not on a sunny day
B) Only in accordance with the WPS
C) If the equipment is available it must be used
D) If using cellulosic rods these will provide enough heat
28. What does the term WPS mean?
A) Weld productivity specification
B) Weld production scheme
C) Welding procedure specifications
D) Work productivity standard

29. Corss sectional area dimensions are shown according to EN 22443:


A) To the left or the symbol
B) To the right of the symbol
C) Under the reference line
D) In the tall at the end of the symbol

30, You find several unacceptable welds and reject them, the welding supervisor irisists they are
acceptable, he signs them off and requests NDT, what action would you take?
A) Nothing as he is a welding supervisor and knows a great deal about welding
B) Raise the issue with the QC department supervisor
C) It is not my problem as he has signed them off so I will not be blamed.
D) Look at the NDT resilts and if they look reasonable I would accept them.

31. How is preheat for tack welds during assembly and fit up determines?
A) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
B) The fabrication specification/WPS will give the requirements
C) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D) Any temperature will do as it is only a tack weld

32. During inspection of a fillet weld you notice slag in the toes of the weld, what action will you
take?
A) As a fillet weld does not need to be strong slag will not be a problem
B) Measure the slag if it is less than 3mm it will not be a problem
C) Have the welder remove the slag as this could mask any discontinuties
D) Tell the welder to leave the slag in as it will add strength to the fillet weld

33. In a transverse WELD tensile test, if the break was in the Parent material, the sample would
be:
A) Rejected
B) Acceptable if the UTS is equal to or greater than the specified UTS of the plate
C) Retested
D) Acceptable if the UTS is between 80-90% of the specified UTS of the plate

34. Charpy testing is carred out on a welding procedure test plate because?
A) It give an indication of the through thickness ductility (in the Z direction)
B) The impact test results can be used to verify that the material has not been adversely
affected by the heat of the welding
C) it give an indication og the materials elongation properties
D) It gives a quick indication of the weld quality for welder qualification tests.
35. When examining a completed bend test, the angle of the bend was found to be 175˚. The
testing specification calls for the sample to have been formed through 180˚
A) The bends should be considered as failed
B) They should be bent to 180˚ then re-examined
C) They should be acceptable as the reduction in angle is due to material spring back
D) They should be rejected as the angle is not close to be acceptable

36. Which one of these elongation valves would be more susceptible to lamellar tearing?
A) Greater than 20%
B) Less than 20%
C) 30% and above
D) They would all be susceptible

37. Lamellar tearing is a problem in steels which is always associated with


A) Sensitisation in the HAZ
B) Low through thickness ductility
C) Hydrogen levels above 15ml/100g of weld metal
D) Rapid cooling from above the upper critical

38. When MMA welding what will be the iffect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
A) None
B) Lower deposition rate
C) It would be less penetration or a slight increase in deposition rate
D) The arc would become unstable

39. When reviewing a radiograph of a weld made by the MAG (GSMAW) process, you notice white
inclusion in the weld, which of the following best describes this indication:
A) Tungsten inclusion
B) Spatter on the cap
C) Copper inclusion
D) It is most likely to bo a film mark

40. What is the greatest disadvantage of radiographic inspection?


A) Its inability to size defects accurately
B) The physical size of the equipment
C) The skill level of the operators
D) The harmful effects of ionising radiation

41. When welding medium carbon steel plates over 90mm in thickness would the basic electrode
any pre-treatment before use?
A) None if they were in a vacuum pack
B) None if they were used in a factory
C) Heat 50 500˚C for 2 hours if used outside
D) Baked at 150˚C for 4 hours prior to use
42. With which of the following NDE processes is it possible to detect both surface and slight
defects up to 2mm below the surface (Charter 2 참조)
A) Visual
B) Dye penetrant
C) Magnetic particle using DC
D) Magnetic particle using AC

43. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm thick impact tested steel plate. The welding
electrode used was a basic type. 5mm diameter. The measures welding parameters for one of
the ???? was 220amps, 21 volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 270mm per min. What
would be the arc energy?
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the arc energy
B) 1.54KJ/mm
C) 1.026KJ/mm
D) 2.82KJ/mm

44. When using DC+ve polarity, what is the typical OCV?


A) 10-40V
B) 50-90V
C) 100-140V
D) 200-240V

45. When MMA welding what will be the effect on the weld if the electrode was changed from
DC+ve to AC
A) None
B) It would have been easier for the welder to strike the arc.
C) If would slightly increase the depth of penetration
D) It would give less penetration

46. You find out that the contractor has carried out radiography as per the 10% contractual
percentage required by the specification/Code. The specification also insists that an additional
2 welds are rediographed for every weld that has failed. One of the pipe spools had an
unacceptable defect which the contractor has ignored and radiographed another weld in its
place which is acceptable, what would your course of action be?
A) As long as the other radiographed butt weld is acceptable its OK as the 10% contractual
percentage required by the specification/Code has been satisfied
B) This is usual practice as 10% NDT is not really important
C) Review the original failed weld and insist that they have the additional 2 welds radiographed
D) Review the original failed weld and have it repaired, radiographed, then I would insist that
they have an additional 2 welds radiographed
47. During post weld heat treatment what is the sequence for the PWHT chart?
A) Restricted heating rate, soak time, unrestricted cooling rate
B) Unrestricted heating rate, restricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate,
unrestricted coolding rate
C) Unresticted heating rate, soak time, resticted cooling rate
D) Restricted heating rate, unstricted heating rate, soak time, restricted cooling rate, unstricted
cooling rate

48. Hydrogen induced cold cracking (HICC) is often referred to by other names that describe
various characteristics of hydrogen cracks, which one of the following would not be a correct
term as applied to HICC?
A) Cold cracking
B) Delayed cracking
C) Under-bead cracking
D) Stepped like cracking

49. Who has the responsibility of ensuring the welder is using the correct polarity during welding?
A) The welder and the welding inspector
B) Store man and the welder
C) Welding Engineer
D) The Q/A department

50. Is it permissible to allow a trainee welder to carry out production welding?


A) Never
B) Yes as lond as the supervisor is happy with his workmanship standard
C) Yes as long as he has the approved qualification to cover the intended scope of work
D) Yes as long as no NDT is required on the finished weld

51. Inspection for hydrogen cracking is often specified to be done between 48 to 72hrs after co??
the weld, this is because?
A) The stress level will have reduced by then
B) It is the maximum time it takes for all the H2 to diffuse out of the weld
C) Usually after 48hrs such cracking is unlikely to occur
D) It is to ensure the weld has properly cooed down to ambient temperature

52. Which of the following electrode types would produce the highest levels of hydrogen?
A) Basic electrode when baked correctly
B) Cellulose in a sealed tin
C) Rutile
D) Heavy rutile

53. At what level is H2 considered to be more critical in cracking?


A) Less than 5ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
B) Between 5 and 10ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
C) Between 10 and 15ml per 100g of weld metal deposited
D) Over 15ml per 100g or weld metal deposited
54. What is a typical ARC voltage setting when welding with the TIG (GTAW) process?
A) 18-20V
B) 24-26V
C) 10-12V
D) 70-90V

55. A butt weld has been made by MMA in a 50mm Thick impact tested steel plate. The weld used
was a basic type, 5mm diameter. The measured welding parameters for one of 220amps,
24volts, using DC+ve polarity, and a ROL of 180mm per min. What would be ???? (답 : D)
A) Insufficient information given to calculate the Arc energy.
B) 1.9KJ/mm
C) 1.87KJ/mm
D) 2.0KJ/mm

56. Slag lines found in MMA welds are usually associated with:
A) The voltage being too low
B) The open circuit current being too high
C) Improper cleaning between weld runs
D) Low open circuit voltage

57. In a shop floor scenario you are faced with a problem of a consistent porosity in all the welds
what would be your course of action?
A) Check the consumable issue, handling procedures
B) Check the welding machine, set up and parameters
C) Check the welder
D) All of the above

58. Who determines what the correct weld preparation (root cap, root face, included angle) should
be?
A) The welding engineer
B) The welding supervisor
C) The welder will decide
D) The inspector will recommend what is suitable

59. The temperature at which chromium carbides are foemed in Austenitic stainless steel is
approximately between?
A) 350-550˚C
B) 600-850˚C
C) 800-1050˚C
D) 1050-1500˚C

60. Sensitisation is a term applied to the formation of which intermetallic compound at the grain
boundaries in the HAZ of austenitic stainless steels?
A) Chromium carbide
B) Titanium carbide
C) Nioblum Carbide
D) Molibdenum carbide.
Technology Multiple Choice Exam 5:Version 6 January 2013

1. What is meant by operating factor(O/F)in welding


A) The safety value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
B) The specific current at 60% and 100% in a given time i.e. 305A 60% and 300A 100%
C) The rate of weld progression
D) The arc time in hours divided by the total hours worked or the welding process is operated

2. Surface breaking solidification cracks can be detected by:


A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonic testing
C) Visual inspection
D) All of the above

3. In TIG(pulsed)welding which parameters can be adjusted?


A) Pulse peak current
B) Pulse frequence
C) Pulse duration
D) All of the above

4. In the MMA process the effect of polarity on welding may be described as:
A) Electrode positive(DCEP/DC+) results in an increase in the depth of the weld penetration
B) Electrode negative(DCEN/DC-) results in decreased depth og weld penetration
C) Elec
D) All of the above

5. Submerged arc welding is noted for its ability to employ high weld currents owing to the
properties a functions of the flux. Generally what polarity is used up to about 1000A?
A) AC
B) DC electrode negative
C) DC electrode positive & negative
D) DC electrode positive

6. What is the significance of OCV in MMA welding using a transformer?


A) There is no significance
B) It helps in arc initiation
C) It decides the current
D) It decides the depth of penetration

7. Regarding the operating factors(O/F) for MMA and MIG/MAG which one is correct?
A) MMA has a low O/F of approximately 30%
B) Manual semi-automatic MIG/MAG O/F is approximately 60%
C) Fully automated MIG/MAG O/F is I the region of 90%
D) All of above
8. In a welding procedure transverse joint tensile test the following observations were made. The
specimen CSA was recorded as 25mm × 12mm and the maximum load applied was recorded as
150kN. What is the UTS?
A) 50 kN/mm2
B) 5500 N/mm2
C) 500 N/mm2
D) 50 N/mm2

9. In an all weld tensile test, the original specimen gauge length was 50mm, and after the test the
increased gauge length was 60mm, what is the elongation percentage?
A) % A is 50
B) % A is 20
C) % A is 29
D) % A is 36

10. X-ray used in the industrial radiography of welds generally have photon energies in the range
of:
A) 30keV up to 20MeV
B) 300kV up to 400kV
C) 3MeV up to 20MeV
D) 3kV up to 20kV

11. In which method may the grain size be an important factor?


A) Liquid penetrant testing
B) Magnetic particle testing
C) Ultrasonic testing
D) Radiographic testing

12. Which statement below best describes lateral expansion with respects to the increase in width
of back of the specimen behind the notch in an impact toughness test?
A) Non lateral expansion ductile fracture
B) The larger the value the less tough the specimen
C) The larger the value the tougher the specimen
D) High lateral expansion brittle fracture

13. In mechanical testing the term 'necking' is used when:


A) The elastic region is reached
B) When the pendulum strikes the sample
C) When the cross sectional area is reduced
D) When 180° is reached

14. How are the lengths of tack welds during assembly and fit up determined?
A) By the welders as they have extensive knowledge
B) The fabrication specification will give minimum tack length requirements
C) The fabrication drawing will give all the information
D) Any length of tack weld will do for assembly
15. Magnetic particle testing id applicable only to ferromagnetic materials which are at a
temperature below the ___________________
A) curie point (about 950℃)
B) curie point (about 650℃)
C) curie point (about 150℃)
D) curie point (about 450℃)

16. A welder's qualification begins from the date of welding of the test piece. The European
Standard allows a qualification certificate to remain valid for a period of two tears, provided
that:
A) The welding co-ordinator or other responsible person can confirm that the welder has been
working within the initial range of qualification.
B) Working within the initial qualification range is confirmed every six months
C) Both A & B
D) Since they have passed the performance test, their certificate will be valid for 2 years and no
more assessment is required.

17. Which of the following could be used to minimise the occurrence of solidification cracks in
steels welds?
A) Increase sulphur levels to a minimum of 0.5%.
B) Reduce the dilution into the base metal.
C) Increase carbon content in the weld metal.
D) Reduce the manganese content in the weld metal.

18. In a heavy plate fabrication where S is residual @ 0.3%, which may cause problems in the
welded joint, additions of Mn may be added to prevent.
A) Laminations in the plate through thickness.
B) Stress corrosion cracks
C) Manganess sulphides (MnS)
D) Solidification cracking

19. A homogeneous welded joint is a:


A) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have no significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition.
B) Welded joint in which the weld metal and parent material have significant differences in
mechanical properties and/or chemical composition.
C) Welded joint in which the parent materials have significant differences in mechanical properties
and/or chemical composition.
D) Welded joint made without filler metal

20. The similarities between BS EN 22553 and AWS A2.4 in depicting welding symbols are: 
A) Both have the same rule for depicting "weld all around"
B) Both have the same rule for depicting the "other side"
C) Both have the same rule for depicting "sequence of operations"
D) Both have the same method for depicting "welding processes"
21. Asymmetrical weld symbols to EN 22553 are:
A) The same both sides of the arrow
B) Different each side of the arrow
C) Show fillet welds only
D) Show butt welds only

22. The Welding Superintendent before welding has asked for UT examination (longitudinal wave)
on a 100mm each side of the intended weld, what is the most probable reason for this?
A) To check the grain structure of the base material
B) To check for any side in the base material
C) To check the material has not been process hardened
D) To check for any laminations in the base material

23. With respect to preheat and inter-pass temperatures, which of the following is true?
A) Preheat is higher than the inter-pass temperature
B) Inter-pass temperature is higher than the preheat temperature
C) Inter-pass temperature is always the minimum
D) Preheat temperature is always the maximum

24. Lamellar tears in steel weldments may only be formed when:


A) Using deep penetration welding processes (high current density).
B) High levels of stresses act in the short transverse direction in the steel.
C) Martensite has formed in the weld HAZ.
D) Low melting point iron sulphide (FeS) has formed in the fusion zone.

25. Which test from below measures the material property known as 'fracture toughness':
A) CTOD test
B) Fillet weld fracture test
C) Impact test
D) Nick-break test

26. Usually liquid penetrant testing is applicable at a temperature range of approximately


_____________
A) 0℃ ~ 100℃
B) -5℃ ~ 90℃
C) -20℃ ~ 60℃
D) 5℃ ~ 60℃

27. After welding is completed the inspector would assess which of the following:
A) Weld contour
B) Weld width
C) Weld profile
D) All of the above
28. Who or what determines the necessity of a post weld heat treatment?
A) Senior welding inspector and WPS
B) Welding inspector and WPQR
C) Welding supervisor and PQT
D) Welding engineer and code requirements

29. According to EN 22553, if the symbol is on the identification line, where dose the weld go?
A) On both sides
B) On the arrow side
C) Opposite arrow side
D) It dose not matter

30. On inspecting a completed 150mm OD pipe weld some small smooth, shallow areas of undercut
have been found < 0.25mm deep. The welder says he can quickly put this right by depositing a
thin narrow bead along the undercut. In this situation would you?
A) Agree to go ahead with no preheat as the weld is so small
B) Only allow the welder to cosmetically blend out the undercut providing the wall thickness
remains within the specification tolerances.
C) Agree to go ahead with a preheat 50℃ above original.
D) Cut out the joint and re-weld

31. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, do those welders
that are going to weld temporary handling attachments also need to have taken performance
qualification test?
A) No, if they will be removed
B) Yes, even if they will be removed
C) It depends on the material
D) Only those who will work on pressure parts need to take the test

32. Before and during welding in the cleaning stage which statements from below would you
consider are correct?
A) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on stainless steels
B) Only stainless steel brushes and tools shall be used on nickel and non-ferrous steels
C) Grinding discs containing sulphur (iron sulphite) shall not be used on stainless steels
D) All of the above

33. Before welding components the welder's qualifications need to be checked, dose a tack welder
also need to do a performance qualification test?
A) Yes
B) No
C) Only piping tack welders shall take the test
D) Only those working on pressure parts shall take the test
34. Lamellar tearing can be detected by which of the following NDE methods?
A) Radiography
B) Ultrasonics
C) Eddy current
D) MPI using AC

35. Of the following heat treatments which will be the most effective in reducing the chances of
HAZ?(안보임)
A) Stress relieving after 6 days
B) Post heating and stress relieving after one day
C) Post heating and immediate stress relieving
D) Post heating

36. HIC is usually delayed because:


A) There is a specific time gap between completion of welding and cracking
B) The diffusion of hydrogen atoms takes time to build pressure which leads to cracking
C) Formation of new phases takes time
D) The strength of the weld metal changes with time

37. GTAW water cooled torches should be used when the amperage exceeds:
A) 50A
B) 100A
C) 150A
D) 200A

38. Bend tests are used for which of the following?


A) To check tensile strength and fusion
B) To check yield strength and fusion
C) To check ductility and fusion
D) To check yield strength and ductility

39. In a transverse tensile test if the test piece breaks in the weld metal it is:
A) Rejected
B) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is not less than the minimum tensile strength
specified
C) Acceptable
D) Acceptable provided the calculated strength is above 95% of the minimum base metal strength

40. The test method for assessing resistance to brittle fracture, by measuring the energy to initiate
and propagate a crack from a sharp notch in a standard sized specimen is called:
A) An impact toughness test
B) A transverse tensile test
C) A hardness test
D) An all-weld tensile test
41. By which of the following welding processes can autogenous welding NOT be achieved?
A) TIG
B) Plasma
C) Oxy-fuel gas welding
D) SAW

42. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning fracture tests?
A) It is a test method that can be used for welder qualification testing
B) It is a test method that can be used for welding procedure qualification
C) The quality/soundness of a fillet weld can be assessed
D) This method may be specified by application standards as an alternative to macroscopic
examination.

43. To prevent excess weld metal in SMAW/SAW the polarity used should be:
A) DCEP
B) DCEN
C) AC
D) Polarity doesn't have any effect

44. Generally in brazing the melting point of the filler metal is above ________ but always below the
melting temperature of the parent material.
A) 350˚C
B) 550˚C
C) 450˚C
D) 250˚C

45. What is duty cycle?


A) A productivity value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
B) A safety value as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
C) A quality value given as the % of time a conductor can carry a current
D) The percentage (%) of arc time in a time span

46. Weld decay occurs in which of the following steel types


A) Carbon/Manganese
B) Low Alloy
C) Any stainless steels
D) Austenitic stainless steels

47. During welding, you observe that the welder is weaving excessively high. What mechanical
property is moat likely to deteriorate because of this?
A) Percentage elongation
B) Impact properties
C) Chemical composition
D) All of the above
48. What is a hot pass?
A) The pass made before root pass
B) The pass made with higher preheat
C) The pass made in the final layers
D) The pass made immediately after the root pass

49. A number of changes and deviations have happened during the fabrication of a component, how
will they be indicated to every one for future reference?
A) By verbal communication
B) By written communication
C) By incorporating them in the 'as-built' drawings
D) No need to mention these changes to every one as they are insignificant

50. One way to reduce the chances of hydrogen cracking is by:


A) Using an E 7018 on a short arc length
B) Using an E 6010 electrode
C) Using an E 7018 on a long arc length
D) None of the above will reduce the chances of hydrogen cracking

51. In which material from below will hydrogen cracking not happen?
A) Carbon steel
B) Carbon Manganese Steel
C) Ferritic Steel
D) Nickel Alloys

52. Which grain structure from below is most susceptible to hydrogen cracking?
A) Ferrite
B) Bainite
C) Martensite
D) Pearlite

53. The which to depth ratio of the weld bead is generally naturally higher in which of the
following weld processes?
A) Plasma
B) Electron beam welding
C) MMA
D) GTAW

54. The welding technique in which the electrode points to the opposite direction of welding is
called?
A) Forehand technique
B) Backhand technique
C) Back step sequence
D) Push technique
55. Productivity in the GTAW process can be increased by:
A) Hybrid welding
B) Using carbon dioxide gas mixtures with argon
C) Hot wire additions
D) All of the above

56. One of the duties of the Visual/Welding inspector is to carry out materials inspection. Looking
below where/when may the inspector be required to carry out materials inspection:
A) At the plate or pipe mill
B) During fabrication or construction of the material
C) After installation of material, usually during a planned maintenance programme, outage or
shutd??
D) All of above

57. You have notices several times that a certain welder is having his welds rejected due to
profile, what course of action would you take?
A) None
B) None as long as they pass the radiography
C) Dismiss the welder
D) Suggest a period of retraining followed by a requalification test

58. Which statement from below is NOT true concerning weld decay?
A) It is also known as inter-granular corrosion
B) It causes transverse cracking in the weld HAZ
C) It may occur in austenitic stainless steels
D) It is also known as knife line attack

59. Which of the following IS true?


A) If run out length reduce heat input decreases
B) If run out length increases heat input increases
C) If weaving is reduced heat input increases
D) None of the above

60. Which of the following processes is most prone to solidification cracks?


A) MMA with basic coated electrodes.
B) MMA with rutile coated electrodes.
C) TIG.
D) SAW.
Exam 2
No. 답 참고 No. 답 참고
Exam 3
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Exam 4
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Exam 5
No. 답 참고 No. 답 참고

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