NP2
Situation: Local Government Code known as
R.A. 7160 brought major shift in the roles of the
Department of Health. Under this law, all
structures, personnel and budgetary allocations
from the provincial health level down to the
barangays were devolved to the local
government units (LGUs) to facilitate health
service delivery
 
1. R.A. 7160 mandates devolution of basic
services from the national government to local
government units. Which of the following is the
major goal of devolution?
A. To make basic services more accessible to
the people
B. To strengthen local government units
C. To allow greater autonomy to local
government units
D. To empower the people and promote their
self-reliance
2. Lavinia recently passed the board exam and
now has her license to practice. She wants to
become a Public Health Nurse. Where will she
apply?
A. Department of Health
B. Provincial Health Office
C. Regional Health Office
D. Rural Health Unit
3. The public health nurse is the supervisor of
rural health midwives. Which of the following is a
supervisory function of the public health nurse?
A. Referring cases or patients to the midwife
B. Providing nursing care to cases referred by
the midwife
C. Formulating and implementing training
programs for midwives
D. Providing technical guidance to the midwife
4. One of the participants in a hilot training class
asked you to whom she should refer a patient in
labor who develops a complication. You will
answer would be, to the:
A. Public Health Nurse
B. Rural Health Midwife
C. Municipal Health Officer
D. Any of these health professionals
5. Community health nursing is a developmental
service. Which of the following best illustrates
this statement?
A. Community health nursing is intended
primarily for health promotion and prevention
and treatment of disease.
B. The goal of community health nursing is to
provide nursing services to people in their own
places of residence.
C. The community health nurse continuously
develops himself personally and professionally.
D. Health education and community organizing
are necessary in providing community health
services.
Situation:  You are now in the entry phase of
community organizing process, after establishing
rapport with the people in Barangay San Miguel.
The following questions apply.
6. With the community health activities started
and in the entry phase, which of these activities
should you not include?
a. Information campaign on health programs
b. Project Management (sustenance and
strengthening phase)
c. Core group formation
d. Conduct of deepening social investigation
7. Identification of potential leaders is crucial
during the entry phase. Which of these
characteristics may not be necessary to an
efficient and effective community leader?
a. Responsive and willing to work for change
b. Must have relatively good communication
skills
c. A respected member of the community
d. A college graduate with management skills
8. The best technique in identifying potential
leaders in the community proven to be affective
is to:
a. Ask community residents to directly name
person whom they consider as community
leaders
b. Ask volunteers who are willing to become
community leaders
c. Review family background properties and
academic records of community residents
d. Observe people who are active in small
mobilization activities that motivate residents
to start working
 9. The core group is composed of individuals in
the community who possess leadership
potentials organized into cohesive working unit.
The core group works with the team in:
a. Selecting community activities according to
their preferences
b. Monitoring the performance of the barangays
officials
c. Setting up community organization that will
serve the interest of a sector in the community
d. Mobilizing the community to act on their
most immediate felt needs and participate in
the delivery of essential health
10. The nurse as a community health
practitioner functions as a community:
A. Facilitator
B. Planner
c. Leader
d. Evaluator
Situation:  You are a beginning community
health nurse in your Health Center. You are
aware that meaningful integration is essential for
you to carry out your roles and functions. The
following questions apply.
 
11. Integration is the process of establishing
rapport with the people in the community. It can
best be achieved by:
A. Bringing in some gifts to win acceptance of
the people in the community
B. Cleaning the house and doing other
household chores
C. Conversing with the people where they are
participating in social activities
D. Sponsoring a sports festival to have an
opportunity to meet more people
12. Community organizing is an important part of
the community nursing function. Given the
following elements: choosing an organizational
structure, identifying and recruiting members,
defining mission, vision and goals, clarifying
roles and responsibilities at which stage do
these elements belong?
A. Program maintenance-consolidation
B. Community analysis/diagnosis
C. Design and initiation
D. Dissemination-reassessment
 
13. At which phase of the community organizing
process are the leaders or groups given training
to develop their knowledge, skills and attitude in
managing their own programs
a. Sustenance and strengthening phase
b. Pre- entry phase
c. Organizing- building phase
d. Entry phase
 
14. When you have already organized, follow up
home visits are likewise needed. Which of the
following should you do first?
A. Wash your hands and perform the necessary
procedure
B. Explain the purpose of the visit
C. Greet the patient/ resident, introduce self
D. Do an environmental surveillance
 
15. Which of the following priority conditions will
be determining factors on the frequency of home
health visits?
A. The need for health teachings and level of
family understanding
B. Acceptance of the family of their health
concerns and their coping strategies
C. The results of the studies conducted and level
of family understanding
D. Administration of medications and the
schedules set
 
Situation: A relevant DOH program addresses
community health conditions particularly
Tuberculosis. Again, safety and quality care is
every nurse’s concern. The following questions
apply.
 
16. Directly Observed Treatment Short-course
(DOTS) can do all of the following except:
A. stop resistance to anti-TB drugs
B. cure TB patients
C. increase health care cost
D. prevent new infection among children and
adults
 
17. Which vital statistics relating to Tuberculosis
(TB) in our country is inaccurate?
A. b. TB is the 6th leading cause of illness
among Filipinos
B. c. TB is the 6th leading cause of deaths
among Filipinos
C. The Philippines is among the 22 highly
burdened poor countries in the world
D. Most TB patients belong to the 0-15 age
groups
18. The elements of TB DOTS that need to be
fulfilled include all of the following except:
A. regular chest x-ray for diagnosis
B. standardized recording and reporting of TB
data
C. regular supply of anti-TB drugs
D. supervised treatment by a treatment partner
19. Pulmonary TB is suspected when client
manifests which symptoms?
A. hematemesis
B. sudden loss of weight
C. cough for more than 2 weeks
D. precordial chest pain
 
20. Which of the following statements about TB
treatment is incorrect?
A. combination of 3-4 anti-TB drugs is the
treatment of choice
B. single drug is appropriate
C. treatment renders patients non-infectious and
cured
D. tuberculosis is a curable disease
Situation: The case of Acquired
Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) in the
Philippines has been rapidly increasing. Official
records of the Department of Health (DOH)
showed that the number of HIV cases rose to
709 in 2009, compared to the 528 recorded the
previous year. Nurses have a pivotal role in
educating the public to prevent an increase in
occurrence of this transmissible disease.
21. The nurse looks for results of which
laboratory measurement that provides a reliable
indicator of lymphocyte status in a client with
HIV infection?
a. B lymphocytes
b. T-cytotoxic cells
c. T-helper cells (CD4)
d. Natural killer cells (NK)
 
22. A male client who has acquired
immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS) asks why
oral progesterone (Megace) is being prescribed
for treatment. What is the nurse’s best
response?
a. “Megace is used to treat the nausea
associated with this infection.”
b. “Megace is used as an appetite stimulant to
boost nutritional support.”
c. “Megace is used as an antineoplastic agent
for palliative treatment.”
d. “Megace provides symptomatic relief of
constipation.”
23. Which one of the following suggestions by
the nurse would be most helpful to a human
immunodeficiency virus (HIV) positive client who
has altered taste perception?
a. Drink plenty of salty broths and other fluids to
stimulate taste buds.
b. Try zinc supplementation to improve taste
perception.
c. Increase intake of meat to at least one serving
per day.
d. Avoid using plastic eating utensils.
24. Which of the following suggestions would the
nurse give to a client with human
immunodeficiency virus infection to best alleviate
nausea?
a. Drink liquids with meals.
b. Eat high-fat foods.
c. Eat small, frequent meals.
d. Lie down after eating.
25. The nurse is caring for a pediatric client with
acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS).
Which activity by the nurse should be reported to
the employee health department as an exposure
for the nurse?
a. While flushing out the used bedpan, fluid
splashes in the nurse’s eyes.
b. The nurse is stabbed with a sterile syringe to
be used to draw up the client’s medications.
c. Nurse does not wear a mask while in the
client’s room.
d. During the bath, the nurse removes gloves
when giving a backrub on intact skin.
Situation: Urethral catheterization requires a
physician’s order. Special care and strict aseptic
technique must be observed for clients with
indwelling catheter.
26. A day after the insertion of the urinary
retention catheter, the client complains of
discomfort in the bladder and in the urinary
meatus. The initial action of the nurse would be:
a. Establish patency of the catheter
b. Check the bladder if distended
c. Notify the physician
d. Milk the catheter toward the collecting
receptacle
 
27. The client is ordered to have closed
intermittent catheter irrigation. The nurse
performs the procedure in the following order:
1.Aspirate sterile solution into the syringe
2.Using aseptic technique, put sterile solution in
the sterile graduated cup
3.Clamp indwelling retention catheter
4.Withdraw syringe, leave solution for about 20
minutes
5.Slowly inject sterile  irrigant  into the catheter
and bladder6. Remove the clamp and allow
irrigant to drain into the collion bottle/bag
a. 1,2,3,4,5,6
b. 2,1,3,5,4,6
c. 2,3,1,4,5,6
d. 3,2,1,4,5,6
28. When a client has a retention catheter, the
nurse is expected to:
a. Clean the urinary meatus and the adjacent
skin periodically
b. Flush the catheter as needed
c. Perform perineal flushing as needed
d. Encourage liberal amount of fluid intake
 
29. After removing the indwelling catheter the
client complains of difficulty in her first attempt to
urinate. The nurse explains that this is due to:
a. Irritation of the urethra
b. Attempt of the body to adjust or normal
reflex mechanism
c. Fluid and electrolytes imbalance
d. Irritation of the urinary bladder
 
30. When considering the safety needs of a
client with a urinary catheter, which of the
following should the nurse observe?
a. Irrigate the catheter daily
b. Keep the bag lower than the bed
c. Measure intake and output daily
d. Keep a closed sterile drainage system
Situation: Professional Development is achieved
through participation in various trainings and
continuing professional education. This is to
keep nurses abreast with the latest development
in the profession and staying globally
competitive in skills development.
 
31.  Nurse Palomeno is attending a
cardiopulmonary resuscitation training to review
her previous CPR training as a requirement in
the new hospital where she was recently
employed. This is an example of:
a. Continuing education
b. Advanced training
c. In- service training
d. Professional training
 
32. A nurse who recently passed the nurse
licensure exam who is seeking employment
decided to attend training on IV therapy program
offered by an accredited nursing organization.
This is an example of:
a. Advanced training
b. Professional training
c. Continuing education
d. In- service education
33. After a year and a half of working in a
hospital, Nurse Palomeno decides to pursue a
master’s degree in nursing. Graduate education
in nursing prepares nurse Palomeno for the
following except:
a. Take advance training as a clinical specialist
b. Assume managerial positions in nursing
service
c. Carry out research to advance nursing theory
d. Take lead roles in nursing educational
settings
34. Nurse Prince believes that health is a
fundamental right of every individual. He
believes in the worth and dignity of each human
being and recognizes the primary responsibility
to preserve health at all costs. These statements
are part of the:
a. Philippine Nursing Act of 2002
b. Code of Good Governance
c. Standard of Nursing Practice
d. Code of Ethics for Registered Nurses/Board
of Nursing Resolution No.220
 
35. The objectives of continuing professional
education programs in nursing are the following
except:
a. Protect and promote the general welfare of
the public by attaining the lowest standards and
quality in the practice of profession.
b. Make the professional globally competitive by
maintaining capability for delivering professional
services.
c. Augment the nurse educational preparation
for admission to the practice of his profession.
d. Make available latest trends in the profession
brought about by scientific and technological
advancement in the profession.
Situation: A group of nursing students is
conducting a research on the medical ward of a
Laoag General Hospital with the topic “The
Effects of the Nursing Health Teachings in the
Reduction of Anxiety of Diabetic Patients
Undergoing Limb Amputation.”
 
36. The group adviser will most likely suggest a
study to check the procedures of the research.
This is:
a. Proposal
b. Test-retest
c. Pretest
d. Pilot study
 
37. The independent variable of the study will be
a. Nursing health teachings
b. Insulin injection
c. Reduction of anxiety
d. Diabetic patients
 
38. Which of the following is the variable that
can be measured?
a. Reduction of anxiety
b. Diabetic Patient
c. Nursing helath teachings
d. Limb Amputation
 
39. What research design is likely to be utilized?
a. Descriptive
b. Quasi-experimental
c. Exploratory
d. Experimental
 
40. Which of the following is an example of
convenience sampling?
a. Subjects are purposively picked by the
researchers (purposive)
b. Selection of every 10th person on a patient
list(systematic)
c. Simple selection
d. Availability of subjects
Situation: Florence is a Charge Nurse of the
Charity Pediatric Ward. She is handling 45
patients for the morning shift, with 3 RNs, 2
Nursing Attendants, and 1 Ward Clerk.
41. The staff are able to wish their off schedule
with Florence, thereby their motivation to please
her all the time. What is her primary source of
power over the others in the unit?
a. Coercive power
b. Informational power
c. Reward power
d. Expert power
 
42. Annually, Florence assists the unit’s Head
Nurse during budgeting. This activity is under
what stage of management?
A. Planning
B. Organizing
C. Staffing
D. Controlling
 
43. In the ward, the staff work as a team.
Florence is responsible for carrying out the
orders of the doctors, while each of the nurses
are assigned to feed and bathe the patients,
administer due medications and therapeutics,
and monitor vital signs and fluid infusions. What
nursing care delivery system is utilized in the
unit?
A. Modular Nursing
B. Team Nursing
C. Primary nursing
D. Functional nursing
 
44. A new protocol for administering tube
feedings among neonates is introduced in the
unit. The staff are having problems in the
implementation. What is Flo’s first action?
A. Ask for a report from the staff nurses
regarding the new protocol and its
implementation
B. Call for a meeting with the staff to discuss
problems encountered
C. Interview each staff separately to effectively
identify areas for improvement in the protocol
D. Search for more evidence regarding the new
protocol and present in a meeting
 
45. Which of the following statements should be
avoided by Flo in giving feedback to the staff
after a performance appraisal?
A. “Gather all the staff in the meeting room so I
can announce the results of the evaluation.”
B. “Let us talk about how you can improve your
techniques in administering medications.”
C. “Go over this list of strengths and
weaknesses we have identified during your
evaluation.”
D. “If your weakness is in the computation of
fluid infusions, I will be assigning you that task
for one month so you can practice.”
Situation: In community Health Nursing the
realities of “cause- effect” relationship almost
always exist and the CH Nurse is in a very
strategic position to decipher these occurrences.
The following questions apply.
 
46. In a political rally, spaghetti and friend
chicken were distributed among the 1,500
people who attended. Around 2-3 hours after
lunch, people started experiencing
gastrointestinal symptoms such as stomach
pains, nausea and vomiting, diarrhea, fever and
dehydration. Health authorities confirmed that
the outbreak of illness was mainly due to
staphylococcal enterotoxins. This condition is an
illustration of a statistical association which is:
A. Direct causal
B. Non- causal
C. Indirect causal
D. Multifactorial
 
47. The above illness outbreak describes which
type of epidemic?
A. Cyclic variation
B. Point source
C. Secular variation
D. Propagated epidemic
 
48. This type of epidemic is characterized by the
following EXCEPT:
a. Epidemic terminates when supply of
susceptible persons is exhausted.
b. Simultaneous exposure of the susceptible
persons
c. Cause originated from single event
d. Low number of susceptible personal, high
number of immune persons
 
49. Here, the nurse would want to determine the
magnitude of the problem therefore she will
compute for:
a. Prevalence rate
b. Incidence rate
c. Disease rate
d. Attack rate
 
50. In cases like epidemics it is necessary for
the nurse to be able to call to action and
mobilize the community towards:
a. Community response
b. Individual response
c. Leaders response
d. Public officials response
Situation: One of your responsibilities as a
community health nurse is to conduct home
visits to evaluate the health condition of families
and communities.
 
51. Prior to the visit you have checked on your
clients’ records in the health center to have a
background of their case and to formulate
objectives of the visit. This phase is:
a. closing
b. planning
c. professional
d. socializing
52. In every home visit, you are not only
concerned with the client but you should also:
a. pay particular attention to the economics
status
b. observe the family and the environment
c. put emphasis on the children’s education
d. observe the family’s spiritual practices
53. In your community home visits, you have
met four clients. Who among them will you visit
first?
a. Family planning defaulters
b. A premature newborn
c. G4P3 3 days post-partum
d. G3P2 36 weeks AOG
 
54. During a home visit, socialization is
important in order to:
a. Do procedures
b. Establish rapport and put the client at ease
c. identify the needs of the client
d. evaluate the visit
 
55. To give clear and correct information to the
client, the nurse should consider the following
EXCEPT:
a. Give several instructions at one time
b. Listen to what the patient is saying
c. do not use medical terms
d. repeat important information
Situation: The Good Shepherd Parish Church in
Las Piñas City initiated a parish led 5 year
community health and development project.
Community diagnosis is needed to enable its
parish public health nurse prepare the necessary
community health nursing care plans and
programs which would be responsive to the
needs of the parishioners and various
communities. To realize all these collaborative
work is necessary.
 
56.  As the parish community health nurse
working with volunteer RNs and affiliate you will
assess community and environment
characteristics. Which of the following pertains to
environmental characteristics? 1. language,
religion and political orientation 2. occupation,
unemployment status and poverty level 3. air,
water and noise pollution 4. vegetation and
sanitation
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 3 and 4
d. 2 and 3
 
57. A step in the development of the community
health plan that answers the questions, what
health problems, health threats and health
deficits exist and how the community copes with
these health problems is referred to as:
A. assessment
b. Plan implementation
c. Plan formulation
d. Evaluation
 
58. Collaboration is strengthened by the parish
health team with the city health department and
the various health centers of the city stool
examination days were conducted where
majority of the children were found to have
ascaris. Which among the following community
nursing diagnosis will guide the nurse in setting
strategies to address the problems?
a. parasitism as a health threat
b. parasitism foreseeable crisis
c. malnutrition as a health deficit
d. parasitism as a health deficits
59. The following nursing interventions address
the problem on parasitism, EXCEPT:
a. teach proper disposal of stools and stress
that it shouldn’t be used as fertilizer
b. encourage handwashing before and after
eating
c. treat patients with broad spectrum
anthelmintic
d. stress that vegetables should be thoroughly
washed especially if eaten raw
 
60. Evaluating the nursing care given, which of
the following vital statistics in the communities
served indicates the BEST health status?
a. 0 infant mortality rate for the year 2006
b. 0 crude death rate for the year 2007
c. 50% Swaroop’s index for the year 2006
d. 0 crude birth rate for the year 2007
Situation: People empowerment is an important
purpose why Community Participatory Active
Research (COPAR) was created, it encourages
the community to generate community
participation in development activities.
 
61. In COPAR, people of the community are
being prepared as managers of development
programs in the future.  All of the following but
one are considered as principles of COPAR
a. People, especially the most oppressed,
exploited and deprived sectors are open to
change, have the capacity to change and are
able to bring about change
b. COPAR should lead to a self-reliant
community and society.
c. Community resources are identified and
mobilized for the poor, the powerless and the
oppressed
d. COPAR should be based on the interests of
the poorest sectors of the society
 
62. COPAR is people-based it is focused
towards the powerless and the oppressed.
Which developmental approach is related to
participatory?
a. Abandoning the traditional methods of doing
things and must adopt the technology of
industrial countries
b. Introduction of whatever resources are
lacking in the community adopting technological
development
c. Immediate or spontaneous response to
ameliorate the manifestation of poverty,
especially on the personal level
d. The process of empowering the poor so that
they can pursue a more just and humane
society
 
63. The following statements do not relate to
community development, but one?
a. In participatory approach, then nurse must
devotedly adhere to what people want
b. In a peasant community where people are
fighting for land ownership, the nurse must not
participate as this is not a health concern
c. Nurses must not join protests action as
nurses should always be neutral at all times
d. If the people are not attending to the services
offered by the health staff, the team must
reassess the needs of the people
64. Carrying out the planned activities involving
maximum community participation is referred to
as:
a. Community Organization
b. Community assembly
c. Mobilization
d. Integration
65. Community organizing ends when the
community is already self-reliant. This signals
that the community organizers are now ready to
pull out of the community because:
a. It indicates that community organization is
finished
b. It will prevent dependency of the community
c. Organizers can expand to other poor
communities
d. It can evaluate the outcomes of the programs
Situation: Being the staunch leader in health in
the country, the Department of Health developed
numerous health programs over the years.
These programs address the leading health
problems or conditions of different populations.
 
66. Various nutrition programs are implemented
for a reduction in the common nutritional
deficiencies present in the country. Most
programs are structured to address the
deficiencies in these nutrients, namely: i.Vitamin
A ii.Iron iii.Vitamin C iv.Iodine v.Protein
a. i, ii, iv
b. i, ii, iii, iv
c. ii, iii, v
d. ii, iii, iv
 
67. Micronutrient supplementation of Vitamin A
aids infants and children in their growth and
development. How much Vitamin A should be
given to a 7-month-old infant?
a. 200,000 IU for one dose only
b. 200, 000 IU for two doses, with an interval of
two days
c. 100,000 IU for two doses, 1 month apart
d. 100, 000 IU for one dose only
 
68. When should a pregnant mother start taking
Vitamin A supplements?
a. As early as 2 months
b. During the 4th month of pregnancy (2nd
trimester)
c. Anytime during the last trimester
d. At the first onset of uterine contractions
 
69. In providing teachings to the livelihood
residents and mothers of a barangay in Cavite,
you explain to them that the Sangkap Pinoy Seal
means the food:
a. Is free from contamination from E. coli
bacteria
b. Underwent fortification with Vitamin A, iron,
or both
c. Can complete the daily nutritional
requirements of an infant or child
d. Has been inspected by the FDA and
considered safe to eat
 
Situation: Kylie Gardo Verzosa, public health
nurse of Barangay Niyugyog. You have just
finished implementing the programs for the
identified community health problems last b. Four
month. You are now preparing to check if the c. Five
target goals and objectives were met. The d. Six
following questions apply.
 
 
76. Student Nurse Nicole was doing her ocular
70. Evaluation involves which of the following
survey in Barangay Loma when a dog suddenly
processes?
attacked her and bit her. Mara’s school records
a. Exploration show she had complete prophylaxis for rabies.
b. Observation How many doses of rabies vaccine does she
c. B and D expect to be given to her afer the bite?
d. Measurement a. Three doses – two doses right away, and the
  other dose on the 3rd day
71. Which of the following phases of the b. Two doses – one dose right away, and the
PRECEDE-PROCEED Model correspond to the second on the third day
evaluation if the objectives and sub-objectives c. None, since the pre-exposure vaccines are
have been met?
already enough.
a. Process Evaluation (strategy)
d. Four doses – one dose right away, and the
b. Impact Evaluation
other doses on the 3rd, 7th, and 14th days
c. Effect Evaluation
 
d. Outcome Evaluation
77. Which of these vaccines is not given orally?
 
a. MMR (subq)
72. Which of the following is evaluated by the
b. Polio vaccine
outcome evaluation?
a. Objectives c. Rotavirus vaccine
b. Strategy Objectives d. Cholera vaccine
c. Sub-objectives  
78. All of the following vaccines except one are
d. Goal
examples of live attenuated vaccines. Choose
  the exception.
73. Which of the following evaluation indicators a. Varicella vaccine
is described by the statement, “what proportion
b. Measles vaccine
of those who need something are actually
receiving it”? c. MMR
a. Accessibility d. Tetanus (killed, inactivated)
b. Efficiency  
c. Coverage 79. In administering BCG to a neonate, how
much should Nurse Nicole withdraw from the
d. Effort
vial?
 
a. 0.1mL
74. What is the ultimate goal of community
b. 0.5mL
health nursing?
a. Community competence c. 0.05mL
b. Community self-actualization d. 1.0mL
c. Community organization
Situation: The Aquino administration initiated
d. Community integration
Pantawid Pamilyang Pilipino Program or
commonly called 4Ps as its flagship poverty
Situation: Immunization for different diseases alleviation program.
are important for health care workers who are  
frequently exposed to different patients and
80. Which of these government agencies is/are
environments.
partners in enrolling beneficiaries from different
  state universities and colleges?
75. Pre-exposure vaccination for rabies consists a. Philippine Association of State Universities
of how many doses?
and Colleges
a. Three
b. Department of Labor and Employment
c. Commission on Higher Education
d. All of the above
 
81. Which of these programs is not included in
the 4Ps?
a. Enrollment of children in daycare, elementary,
and secondary schools
b. Deworming of schoolchildren aged 6 to 14
years old
c. Health check-ups for pregnant women and
children aged 0 to 5
d. None of the above
 
82. How often are deworming pills given to
children aged 6-14?
a. Once a year
b. Twice a month
c. Twice a year
d. Once a month
 
83. To be able to receive the subsidies in 4Ps,
which among these is not part of the conditions
that should be met by the household-
beneficiaries?
a. Parents or guardians must attend the family
development sessions, which include topics on
responsible parenting, health, and nutrition
b. Pregnant women must avail pre- and post-
natal care, and be attended during childbirth by
a faith healer.
c. Children-beneficiaries aged 3-18 must enroll in
school, and maintain an attendance of at least
85% of class days every month
d. Children aged 0-5 must receive regular
preventive health check-ups and vaccines
 
84. Rona, G1P1, is on her 2nd postpartum day.
She asks Nurse Maja about the definition of
exclusive breastfeeding. Nurse Maja responds
based on his knowledge that exclusive
breastfeeding means:
a. Giving the baby breast milk and drops or
syrups consisting of vitamins, mineral
supplements, or medicines only.
b. Giving the baby breast milk only. Drops or
syrups consisting of vitamins, mineral
supplements, or medicines should not yet be
given until the 6th month of life
c. Giving the baby breast milk and water only.
d. Giving the baby breast milk and solid food
only.
Situation: Nurse Jabee Dayandante is caring for
the Aguilar Family and is currently doing his first
level assessment of the family’s nursing
problems.
 
85. Mrs. Aguilar was looking at the chance of
having a baby for the incoming year. Nurse
Jabee knows that in the event that Mrs. Aguilar
becomes pregnant, the family will have what
type of family health problem?
a. Health Threat (risk factor)
b. Health Deficit (disease/disability)
c. Wellness state (improve competence)
d. Stress point (anticipated periods of unusual
demand/foreseeable crisis)
 
86. Mrs. Aguilar gave birth to a baby girl named
Hetty. It was the second child of the family and
all of the couple’s attention was focused on their
new offspring. Twirly, who’s the elder sister of
Hetty, is becoming jealous of her. This was
noted by Mrs. Aguilar and she asked the advised
of the nurse. As a nurse, what would be the
most appropriate nursing intervention for this
scenario?
a. Tell Mrs. Aguilar that it’s normal phenomena.
b. Create a plan that would address the jealousy
of Twirly together with Mr. and Mrs. Aguilar.
c. Provide Mrs. Aguilar with a pamphlet
regarding child rearing practices.
d. Advise Mrs. Aguilar to reprimand Twirly for
her bad attitude.
 
87. Mr. Aguilar who is a 15 packs/year smoker,
approached Nurse Jabee and told him that he
was diagnosed by the Pulmonologist with
COPD. Knowing the pathophysiology of COPD,
Nurse Jabee knows that the disease is chronic
in nature. Given the situation, what type of family
health problem is the family experiencing?
a. Health Deficit
b. Health Threat
c. Stress point
d. Wellness state
88. Mrs. Aguilar found out that Hetty was not
able to get her last dose of immunization. This
problem of Mrs. Aguilar can be noted as what
type of of family problem?
a. Health Threat
b. Health Deficit
c. Stress point
d. Wellness state
 
89. The following are ways is the best way to
measure the skill of Mrs. Aguilar in caring for her
new infant, Hetty?
a. Demonstrating how to hold her new infant.
b. Asking her to identify the steps in swaddling
her infant.
c. Asking her to verbalize the different ways of
measuring the normal growth and development
of Hetty.
d. Demonstrating how to handle her stress.
Situation: Middle East Respiratory Syndrome is
a viral respiratory disease caused by a novel
coronavirus that was first identified in Saudi
Arabia in 2012.
 
90. The clinical spectrum of MERS-CoV can
include all of the following, except:
a. Asymptomatic
b. Severe acute respiratory disease
c. Mild respiratory symptoms
d. None of the above
 
91. The said novel coronavirus is believed to
originate from what animal?
a. Donkeys
b. Camels
c. Bats
d. Lambs
92. Which of the following clients bear the most
risk of acquiring a severe disease if infected with
MERS-CoV?
a. An 18-year-old female client who has a history
of rheumatic heart disease.
b. A 26-year-old male who works as a call-center
agent.
c. A 32-year-old female client who is on her 5th
month of pregnancy.
d. A 46-year-old male client who has diabetes.
 
93. Typical findings in patients infected with
MERS-CoV include which of the following:
a. cough
b. hypothermia
c. bradypnea
d. vomiting
 
94. Your relative who is currently working as an
OFW in the United Arab Emirates called you and
asked how he can prevent acquiring the
infection. You are correct by instructing him to
do the following, except:
a. “Practice general hygiene measures before
and after touching animals like camels.”
b. “Avoid close contact with potential sick
individuals.”
c. “Have yourself vaccinated.”
d. “Ensure that animal products be cooked
thoroughly.”
 
Situation: Documentation and management of
the patient’s records are two important tasks of
the nurse. The following questions apply.
 
95. During the interview of a patient, she starts
to moan and curl up due to pain. History
revealed that the pain occurs about an hour after
taking black coffee without breakfast. It has been
occurring for three weeks now. This is recorded
as:
a. Claims to have abdominal pains after intake
of coffee unrelieved by analgesics
b. After drinking coffee, the client experienced
severe abdominal pain
c. Client complained of intermittent abdominal
pain an hour after drinking coffee
d. Reported abdominal pain usually an hour
after drinking black coffee. Pain has been felt
for three weeks now.
96. Which of the following entries in the Nurses
Notes is most appropriate?
a. “Large hematoma noted in the right arm.”
b. “The client appears to be happy.”
c. “Provided oral care.”
d. “Clear breath sounds. Suctioning performed,
as ordered and as needed.”
 
97. The nurse is writing down his progress
notes. Should a recording mistake occur, which
of the following should he do?
a. Erase the erroneous entry using correction
fluid and write down the new entry above the
erased entry.
b. Draw a single line through it and write his
initials or name above or near the line.
c. Use multiple lines to strike through the
erroneous entry then write his initials or name
above or near the lines.
d. Draw a single line through the erroneous entry
and write error above the said entry.
 
98. The attending physician of one of the
patients called to give a new order. The nurse
should do which of the following when receiving
telephone orders? i. Write the order down on the
patient’s Kardex. ii. Ask the prescriber to speak
slowly and clearly. iii. Read the order back to the
prescriber using the abbreviations which he
used. iv. Have a colleague listen on extension. v.
Write down only the medication order and the
date and time that the order was given.
a. ii, iii, iv, and v
b. i, iii, and v
c. ii and iv
d. i, ii, iii, iv, v
 
99. The nurse decided to call the attending
physician of one of his patients because latter
suddenly collapsed. Which of the following
should avoid when giving a telephone report?
a. Include the client’s name and medical
diagnosis.
b. Begin the report with the main reason for the
telephone call.
c. Specify that the nurse would like the attending
physician to come and assess the client.
d. Inform the physician of the pertinent changes
in the patient’s baseline data.
 
100. A physician orders 2000 ml of D5NSS to
infuse over 12 hours. The drop factor is 15 drops
per ml.  Nurse Lykee sets the flow rate at how
many drops per minute?  
a. 42 drops per minute
b. 35 drops per minute
c. 21 drops per minute
d. 50 drops per minute