The Ultimate Guide to

SSC Exam Prep

INDEX

1 SSC Exam Preparation 02

2. Combined Graduate Level (CGL) 05

3. Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL) 14

4. Central Police Organization (CPO) 20

5. General Duty (GD) Constable 23

6. Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS) 27

7. Preparation Strategy for SSC & Railway Exams 30

8. Previous Year Questions 36

01
 1
SSC Exam Preparation
A job under the Staff Selection Commission is considered one of the
most prestigious jobs in the country. It is the second most preferred
exam after UPSC. With the excellent perks, emoluments and esteem
associated with them, these jobs are highly called for.

The Main Function of SSC

is to recruit (i) all Group
“B” posts in the various
Ministries/Departments of
the Govt. of India and
their Attached and
Subordinate Offices which
are in the pay scales the
maximum of which is
Rs.10,500 or below and (ii)
all non-technical Group
“C” posts in the various
Ministries/Departments of
the Govt. of India and
their Attached and
Subordinate Offices,
except those posts which
are specifically exempt
from the purview of the
Staff Selection Commission.
List of Exams Under SSC

01 02 03
CGL CHSL
(Combined CPO
(Combined
Higher (Central Police
Graduate
Secondary Organisation)
Level)
Level)

04 05 06
MTS
SSC GD (Multi Selection
Constable Tasking Post
Staff)

07 08 09
JHT
JE (Junior (Junior
Stenographer
Engineer) Hindi
Translator)

03
Important Dates
S. No. Name of Examination Tier/Phase Date of Advt. Closing date Date of Exam
1 Constables (GD) in Central Armed CBE* 27/Oct/2022 30/Nov/2022 Jan-Feb, 2023
Police Forces (CAPFs), NIA, SSF (Thursday) (Wednesday)
and Rifleman (GD) in Assam Rifles
Examination, 2022
2 Combined Higher Secondary Tier-I (CBE)* 06/Dec/2022 05/Jan/2023 Mar/2023
(10+2) Level Examination, 2022 (Tuesday) (Thursday)
3 Multi Tasking (Non - Technical) Tier-I (CBE)* 17/Jan/2023 17/Feb/2023 Apr/2023
Staff, and Havaldar (CBIC & CBN) (Tuesday) (Friday)
Examination 2022
4 Selection Post Examination, Paper-I (CBE)* 24/Feb/2023 17/Mar/2023 May-Jun, 2023
Phase-XI, 2023 (Friday) (Friday)
5 Combined Graduate Level Tier-I (CBE)* 01/Apr/2023 01/May/2023 Jun-Jul, 2023
Examination, 2023 (Saturday) (Monday)
6 Combined Higher Secondary Tier-I (CBE)* 09/May/2023 08/Jun/2023 Jul-Aug, 2023
(10+2) Level Examination, 2023 (Tuesday) (Thursday)
7 Multi Tasking (Non - Technical) Tier-I (CBE)* 14/Jun/2023 14/Jul/2023 Aug-Sep, 2023
Staff, and Havaldar (CBIC & CBN) (Wednesday) (Friday)
Examination- 2023
8 Sub-Inspector in Delhi Police and Tier-I (CBE)* 20/Jul/2023 13/Aug/2023 Oct/2023
Central Armed Police Forces (Thursday) (Sunday)
Examination, 2023
9 Junior Engineer (Civil, Mechanical, Paper-I (CBE)* 26/Jul/2023 16/Aug/2023 Oct/2023
Electrical and Quantity Surveying & (Wednesday) (Wednesday
Contracts) Examination, 2023
10 Stenographer Grade ‘C’ & ‘D’ CBE* 02/Aug/2023 23/Aug/2023 Oct-Nov, 2023
Examination, 2023 (Wednesday) (Wednesday)
11 Junior Hindi Translator, Junior Paper-I (CBE)* 22/Aug/2023 12/Sep/2023 Oct-Nov, 2023
Translator and Senior Hindi (Tuesday) (Tuesday)
Translator Examination, 2023
12 Central Secretariat Assistants' Grade Paper-I (CBE)* 01/Sep/2023 22/Sep/2023 Dec, 2023 -
Limited Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Friday) Jan 2024
Examination 2014 - 2017
13 SSA/ UDC Grade Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 08/Sep/2023 29/Sep/2023 Dec, 2023 -
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Friday) Jan 2024
Examination 2018 - 2019
14 Grade 'C' Stenographer Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 15/Sep/2023 09/Oct/2023 Jan - Feb, 2024
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Monday)
Examination 2018 - 2019
15 JSA/ LDC Grade Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 22/Sep/2023 13/Oct/2023 Jan-Feb, 2024
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Friday)
Examination 2019 - 2020
16 Central Secretariat Assistants' Grade Paper-I (CBE)* 29/Sep/2023 20/Oct/2023 Jan-Feb, 2024
Limited Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Friday)
Examination 2018 - 2022
17 JSA/ LDC Grade Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 06/Oct/2023 27/Oct/2023 Feb - Mar, 2024
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Friday)
Examination 2021 - 2022
18 SSA/ UDC Grade Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 13/Oct/2023 02/Nov/2023 Feb - Mar, 2024
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Thursday)
Examination 2020 - 2022
19 Grade 'C' Stenographer Limited Paper-I (CBE)* 20/Oct/2023 09/Nov/2023 Feb - Mar, 2024
Departmental Competitive (Friday) (Thursday)
Examination 2020 - 202

*CBE- Computer Based Examination

04
 2
Combined Graduate
Level (CGL)
SSC CGL (Combined Graduate Level) is considered to be one of the
biggest examinations to be conducted for graduate students in India.
SSC conducts SSC CGL every year to recruit staff for various posts in
the various Ministries and Departments of the Government of India
and in its Subordinate Offices. SSC CGL 2022 will be a great
opportunity for students looking forward to a position in the reputed
organizations under the central government.

The Staff Selection Commission (SSC) conducts the Combined Graduate

Level (CGL) Exam for recruitment to various subordinate services.
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Various Subordinate Services India

Inspectors of Central Excise & Customs

Inspectors of Income Tax

Preventive Officers in Customs

Examiner in Customs

Sub-Inspectors in Central Bureau of Narcotics & CBI

Assistant Enforcement Officer in the Directorate of

Enforcement, Department of Revenue

Divisional Accountant, Jr. Accountant, Auditor & UDCs in

various offices of Govt. of India

Auditor Offices under C&AG, CGDA, CGA & others

Accountant/ Junior Accountant

Tax Assistant in CBDT and CBEC

Compiler in Registrar General of India

06
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Age Limit*
There are different set of age limits for different posts in SSC CGL
Exam 2022, which are tabulated below:

Age group Name of post Department / Class Grade

Ministries Fiction pay

Auditor Officer under C&AG Group “C” 2800

Auditor Officer Under CGDA Group “C” 2800

Auditor Other Ministries/Dept. Group “C” 2800

Accountant Officer under C&AG Group “C” 2800

Accountant / Junior Other Ministry/ Dept. Group “C” 2800

Accountant
18-27 years
Senior Secretariat Central Govt. offices Group “C” 2400
Assistant / Upper Ministries other than
Division clerks CSCS cadres
Tax Assistant CBDT Group “C” 2400

Sub-Inspector Central Bureau of Group “C” 2400

Narcotics
Upper Division Dte. General Border Group “C” 2400
Clerk (UDC) Road Organisation
(MoD)
Only For Male
Candidates

Inspector Posts Department of Post. Group “B” 4600

18-30 years Assistant Other ministries / Group “B” 4600
Dept. / Org.
20-27 years Tax Assistant CBEC Group “C” 2400
Assistant Section Central Secretariat Group “B” 4600
officer Service
Assistant Section Ministry of Railway Group “B” 4600
20-30 years officer

Assistant Ministry of External Group “B” 4600

Section officer Affairs

*As on 01-01-2022

07
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Age group Name of post Department / Class Grade

Ministries Fiction pay

Assistant Section AFHQ Group “B” 4600

officer

20-30 Assistant Other Ministries / Dept. / Group “B” 4600

years Org.

Sub Inspector Central Bureau of Group “B” 4600

Investigation

Inspector, CBEC Group “B” 4600

(Central Excise)

Inspector Central Bureau of Group “B” 4600

Narcotics

Assistant Other ministries / Group “B” 4200

Dept. / Org.

Inspector CBEC Group “B” 4600

(Preventive officer)

Inspector CBEC Group “B” 4600

(Examiner)

Assistant Audit Indian Audit & Accounts Group B 4800

Officer Department Under CAG Gazetted
(Non-Minist
Not
erial)
Exceeding
30 years Assistant Audit Indian Audit & Accounts Group B 4800
Officer Department under CAG Gazetted
(Non-Minist
erial)

Assistant Section Intelligence Bureau Group “B” 4600

Officer

Assistant Section Other Ministries / Group “B” 4600

Officer Departments/
Organisations.

Assistant / Other Ministries / Group “B” 4200

Superintendent Departments/
Organisations

08
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Age group Name of post Department / Class Grade

Ministries Fiction pay

Inspector of CBDT Group “C” 4600

Income Tax

Divisional Officer under CAG Group “B” 4200

Accountant

Assistant Directorate of Group “B” 4600

Up to 30 Enforcement Enforcement,
years Officer Department of Revenue

Sub Inspector National Investigation Group “B” 4200

Agency (NIA)
Up to 32 Junior Statistical M/O statistics & Prog. Group “B” 4200
years Officer Implementation

Educational Qualification*
The educational qualifications varies according to the post for SSC
CGL 2022 and is listed below:

SSC CGL Post Educational Qualification

Assistant Audit Essential Qualifications: Bachelor’s Degree in any subject from a

Officer recognized University. Desirable Qualification: CA/CS/MBA/Cost
& Management Accountant/ Masters in Commerce/ Masters in
Business Studies

Junior Statistical Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University with minimum
Officer (JSO) 60% in Mathematics in Class 12th OR Bachelor’s Degree in any
discipline with Statistics as one of the subjects in graduation

Compiler Posts Bachelor’s Degree from any recognized University with

Economics or Statistics or Mathematics as compulsory or
Elective Subject

All Other Posts Bachelor’s Degree in any discipline from a recognized University
or equivalent

*As on 08-10-2022

09
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam Pattern

Subject No. of Questions Maximum Marks Time

Reasoning 25 50
60 minutes
General Awareness 25 50

Quantitative Aptitude 25 50 (80 minutes for the

English candidates eligible for
Comprehension 25 50 scribe as per Para-7.1
and 7.2)
Total 100 200

SSC CGL Tier 2 Exam Pattern

Paper Session Scheme of No. of Maximum Time
Examination Question Marks Allowed

Section-I:
Module-I: 30
Mathematical Abilities
60*3 = 180 1 hour
Module II: 30
Reasoning and General (for each section)
Session-I Intelligence. Total = 60 (1 hours and 20
Paper-I: (2 hours and Section-II: minutes for the
15 minutes) Module-I: English 45 candidates eligible
Language and for scribe as per
Comprehension 70*3 = 210 Para-7.1 and 7.2)
Module-II: General 25
Awareness Total = 70
Section-III: 15 Minutes
Module-I: Computer 20 (for each module)
20*3 = 60
Knowledge Module
(20 minutes for the
Session-II Section-III: candidates eligible
(15 minutes) Module-II: Data Entry One Data for scribe as per
-
Speed Test Module Entry Task Para-7.1 and 7.2)
Paper-II Statistics 100 100*2 = 200 2 hours
Paper-III General Studies 100 100*2 = 200 (for each Paper)
(Finance and Economics) (2 hours and 40
minutes for the
candidates eligible
for scribe as per
Para-7.1 and 7.2)

10
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

SSC CGL Tier 1 Exam Pattern

■ Tier-II will include conducting of  Section-III:
Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-III in
♦ Module-I: Computer
separate shift(s)/ day(s).
Knowledge Test
■ Tier-II will include conducting of
♦ Module-II: Data Entry
Paper-I, Paper-II and Paper-III in
Speed Test
separate shift(s)/ day(s).
■ Paper-I is compulsory for all the
posts. ■ Paper-I will be conducted in two
sessions - Session –I & Session II,
■ Paper-II will be for only those
on the same day. Session-I will
candidates who apply for the posts
include conducting Section-I,
of Junior Statistical Officer (JSO) in
Section-II and Module-I of
the Ministry of Statistics and
Section-III. Session II will include
Programme Implementation and
conducting Module II of Section III.
who are shortlisted in Tier-I for
Therefore, the duration of Session-I
these Posts.
will be 2 hours and 15 minutes and
■ Paper-III will be for only those the duration of Session-II will be 15
candidates who are shortlisted in minutes
Tier-I for Paper-III i.e. for the posts
■ It will be mandatory for the
of Assistant Audit Officer/ Assistant
candidates to qualify for all the
Accounts Officer.
sections of Paper-I.
■ Paper-I will include the following
■ There will be a negative marking of
three sections having two
1 mark for each wrong answer in
modules each:
Section-I, Section-II and Module-I
 Section-I: of Section-III of Paper-I and of 0.50
♦ Module-I: Mathematical marks for each wrong answer in
Abilities Paper-II and Paper-III

♦ Module II: Reasoning and ■ Merit list will be prepared on the

General Intelligence.
 Section-II:
♦ Module-I: English Language
and Comprehension
♦ Module-II: General
Awareness
basis of the overall performance of
candidates in Tier-II Examination
only.
■ In Paper-I of Tier-II, it will be
mandatory for the candidates to
qualify for all the sections.

11
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Minimum Qualifying Marks

Minimum qualifying marks in Tier-I,
Section-I, Section-II & Module-I of
Section-III of Paper-I of Tier-II, Paper-II
& Paper-III of Tier-II Examination are
as follows:
Maximum percentage of errors
allowed (i.e. minimum qualifying
standards) in Module-II of Section-III of
Paper-I of Tier-II Examination i.e. DEST
are as follows:

UR : 30% UR : 20%
OBC/ EWS : 25% OBC/ EWS : 25%
All other categories : 20% All other categories : 30%

Number of aspirants Appeared

Examination Stages Number of Aspirants- 2019

Candidates that apply for SSC CGL Exam 25- 30 Lakhs

Candidates that appearing SSC CGL Exam 9,78,103

Candidates shortlisted for Tier 2 1,53,621

Candidates shortlisted for Tier 3 43,896

Candidates shortlisted for CPT/ DEST/DV 45,461 (CPT/DEST overlapped)

Candidates finally selected 7700

12
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

Number of aspirants Appeared

Examination Stages Number of Aspirants- 2018

Candidates that apply for SSC CGL Exam 25- 30 Lakhs

Candidates that appearing SSC CGL Exam 10-15 Lakhs

Candidates shortlisted for Tier 2 174,136

Candidates shortlisted for Tier 3 50293

Appeared in tier 3 41803

Candidates shortlisted for CPT/ DEST 46,960 (CPT/DEST overlapped)

Candidates finally selected 11103

SSC CGL Tier 1 Cut off

160
147.78

140 137.07 135.04 135.95

132.37 132.37 130.18

120 115.35
119.23 117.87
131.18 109.64
111.01 104.91
103.22 100.93
100 93.75 94.58

81.52
80

60

40

20

0
2018 2019 2020 2021

UR EWS OBC ST SC
UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1 Cut off marks are shown.The total
SC- Scheduled Caste marks for Tier 1 is 200 for 100 questions i.e. 1 question is of 2 marks
ST- Scheduled Tribe and there is a negative marking of 0.5 for every wrong answer.
OBC- Other Backward
Classes The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

13
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

SSC CGL Tier 2 Cut off

600
528.38
500 478.82
433 434.68 433.61
400.33 405.12
400 381.12
354.74
327.05 331.52
309.87
300

200

100

0
2018 2019 2020

UR OBC SC ST
UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1+2 Cut off marks are shown i.e. the
SC- Scheduled Caste minimum marks required to appear for Tier 3 Exam.The total marks
ST- Scheduled Tribe for Tier 1+ Tier 2 is 600 for 300 questions i.e. 1 question is of 2 marks
OBC- Other Backward and there is a negative marking of 0.5 for every wrong answer.
Classes
The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

SSC CGL Tier 3 Cut off (CPT+ DV)

700
605.48
600 559.79 460.93
512.44 518.97 512.03 418.23
500 477.72
491 398.19

431.87
407.11
400

300

200

100

0
2018 2019 2020

UR OBC SC ST

14
Combined Graduate Level (CGL)

SSC CGL Tier 3 Cut off (CPT+ DV)

700
624.28
600 547.75
593.72
539.32 520.58 525.37 527.84
500 467.93
486.32
439.8 417.54 435.37
400
300
200
100
0
2018 2019 2020

UR OBC SC ST
UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1+2+3 Cut off marks are shown
SC- Scheduled Caste i.e. the minimum marks required to appear for Tier 4
ST- Scheduled Tribe Exam.The total marks for Tier 1+ Tier 2 + Tier 3 is 700 .
OBC- Other Backward
Classes The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

SSC CGL Final Cut off

800
691
700 643.75 642.5 656.77
610.5 619.38
600 556 558.5 662.25 569.25
590.1
534.25
508 596.75
500 469 467

400
300
200
100
0
2015 2016 2017 2018

UR OBC SC ST
UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1+2+3 Final Cut off marks are
SC- Scheduled Caste shown i.e. the minimum marks required to qualify for the SSC
ST- Scheduled Tribe CGL Exam. The total marks for Tier 1+ Tier 2 + Tier 3.
OBC- Other Backward
Classes The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

15
 3
Combined Higher Secondary
Level (CHSL)
The staff Selection Commission (SSC) is one of the most desirable
organizations for Government exams in India. SSC CHSL (10+2)
includes Lower Division Clerk, Junior Secretariat Assistant, and Data
Entry Operator posts. SSC will select and recommend candidates for
Assistants / Clerks posts through a computer-based test, descriptive
paper, and skill test, or typing test.

The Staff Selection Commission conducts the SSC CHSL exam every
year for recruitment in various Ministries/ Departments/ Organizations
of the Government of India. The Staff Selection Commission (SSC)
conducts the Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL, 10+2) Exam
for recruitment to various posts like:
Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)

Various Subordinate Services

Data Entry Operator (DEO)
Lower Divisional Clerk (LDC)
Court Clerk

SSC CHSL Age Limit

Age limit for the posts is 18-27 years. Permissible relaxation in upper
age limit for different categories are as below:

Code No. Category Permissible age relaxation beyond the

upper age limit

01 SC/ ST 5 years

02 OBC 3 years

03 Persons with 10 years

Disabilities (PwD-Unre-
served)

04 PwD + OBC 13 years

05 PwD + SC/ ST 15 years

06 Ex-Servicemen 03 years after deduction of the military

service rendered from the actual age as
on the closing date

07 Candidates who had

ordinarily been domiciled in
the State of Jammu &
Kashmir during the period
from 1st January 1980 to
31st December 1989

17
Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)

Code No. Category Permissible age relaxation beyond the

upper age limit

08 Defence Personnel disabled 3 years

in operation during
hostilities with any foreign
country or in a disturbed
area and released as a
consequence thereof

09 Defence Personnel disabled 8 years

in operation during hostili-
ties with any foreign country
or in a disturbed area and
released as a consequence
thereof (SC/ ST)

10 Central Government Civilian Up to 40 years of age

Employees: Who have
rendered not less than 3
years regular and continu-
ous service as on closing
date for receipt of online
applications

11 Central Government Civilian Up to 45 years of age

Employees: Who have
rendered not less than 3
years regular and continu-
ous service as on closing
date for receipt of online
applications (SC/ ST)

12 Widows/ Divorced Women/ Up to 35 years of age

Women judicially separated
and who are not remarried

13 Widows/ Divorced Women/ Up to 40 years of age

Women judicially separated
and who are not remarried
(SC/ ST)

18
Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)

Educational Qualification:
For LDC/ JSA, DEO (except DEOs in C&AG): The candidates who is planning to appear in
CHSL 2022 exam must have passed 12th Standard or equivalent examination from a
recognized Board or University.
For Data Entry Operator (DEO) in the Office of Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(C&AG): 12th Standard pass in Science stream with Mathematics as a subject from a
recognized Board or equivalent.

Exam Pattern
Tier Type Mode
Tier – I Objective Multiple Choice Computer Based (Online)
Tier – II Computer-Based Examination and Skill Test Computer Based (Online)

Tier Sections No. of Questions Maximum Marks Time Allotted

English 25 50
General Awareness 60 minutes
25 50
Tier I or 1 hour
Quantitative Aptitude 25 50
[80 minutes
General Intelligence 25 50 allotted to PWD
and Reasoning candidates]
Total 100 200

Tier Session Subject Number of Maximum Time allowed

Questions Marks

Session-I Section-I:
(2 hours & Module-I: 30
15 minutes) Mathematical Abilities
Module-II: 30
Reasoning & General
60*3 = 180 1 hour (for each section)
Intelligence Total = 60
(1 hour and 20 minutes for the
Section-II: candidates eligible for scribe as per
Para-8.1 and 8.2)
Tier - II Module-I: English 40
Language &
Comprehension
Module-II: 20
General Awareness Total = 60 60*3 = 180
Section-III: 15 Minutes (20 minutes for the
candidates eligible for scribe as per
Module-I: Computer Para-8.1 and 8.2)
Knowledge Module 15 15*3 = 45
15 Minutes (20 minutes for the
Session-II Section-III: Part A: Skill - candidates eligible for scribe as per
Module-II: Skill Test/ Test for DEOs. Para-8.1 and 8.2)
10 Minutes (15 minutes for the
Typing Test Module Part B: Typing - candidates eligible for scribe as per
Test for LDC/JSA. Para-8.1 and 8.2)

19
Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)

Number of aspirants appeared

Examination Stages Number of Aspirants-2019

Candidates that apply for SSC CHSL Exam Approx. 30 Lakhs

Candidates that appearing SSC CHSL Exam Approx. 19 Lakhs

Candidates shortlisted for Tier 2 45,480

Candidates shortlisted for Typing Test/ Skill test 28,508 (Dest/Typing Test Overlapped)

Candidates shortlisted for Document Verification 13,088

Candidates finally selected 4684

SSC CHSL Tier 1 Cut off

160 159.52
156.101
143.5
140 139
135.6 133.74
136.1
127.5 127.32
120 123.5
120 119
110 108 110.09
112
100 99 99 99.09
89.5

80
60
40
20
0
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019

UR SC ST OBC

UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1 Cut off marks are shown.The
SC- Scheduled Caste total marks for Tier 1 is 200 for 100 questions i.e. 1 question
is of 2 marks and there is a negative marking of 0.5 for
ST- Scheduled Tribe
every wrong answer.
OBC- Other Backward
Classes The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

20
Combined Higher Secondary Level (CHSL)

SSC CHSL Tier 1+2 Cut off

250
227.5
224.5 223.6 222.77
210.5 215.03
202 202.5 206.5 212
200 197.5 194 197.54
190.54
182.5
179.25 173.5 181.48 185.15
173.5

150

100

50

0
2015 2016 2017 2018 2019

UR SC ST OBC

UR- Unreserved Here in the bar graph the Tier 1+2 Cut off marks are shown
SC- Scheduled Caste i.e. the minimum marks required to appear for Tier 3 Exam.
The total marks for Tier 1+ Tier 2 is 300 for 200 questions
ST- Scheduled Tribe
(Tier 1) + 2 Questions(Tier 2) i.e. 1 question is of 2 marks in
OBC- Other Backward Tier 1 and 1 question is of 50 marks in Tier 2. There is also a
Classes negative marking of 0.5 for every wrong answer in Tier 1.

The cut off is calculated through the normalization process.

21
 4
Central Police
Organization (CPO)
The SSC CPO exam is conducted Police, Central Armed Police
to recruit candidates for various Forces (CAPFs) and Assistant
posts under the Central Police Sub Inspectors in Central
Force like Sub-Inspectors in Delhi Industrial Security Force (CISF).
Central Police Organization (CPO)

Posts
Through the SSC Central Police Organization exam, there are various
departments under which Sub-Inspector and Assistant Sub-Inspectors
are recruited, the same are mentioned below –

Sub-inspector in Delhi Police

Sub-Inspector in Border Security Force – BSF
Sub-Inspector in Central Industrial Security Force – CISF
Sub-Inspector in Central Reserve Police Force – CRPF
Sub-Inspector in Indo-Tibetan Border Police Force – ITBP
Sub-Inspector in Sashastra Seema Bal – SSB
Assistant Sub-Inspector in Central Industrial
Security Force – CISF

Age Limit
Minimum – 20 years
Qualification
Maximum 25 years

Educational Qualification
Bachelor’s degree from a recognized
Qualification
University/Institute

23
Central Police Organization (CPO)

Exam Pattern
The SSC CPO Exam is conducted in 4 stages-

Paper I
Paper-II
Physical Endurance Test/Physical Standard Test
Medical Examination
The last process is the selection which is done after the successful
verification of documents.

Pattern of Paper I & Paper II

Tier Subject Duration

Tier – I General Intelligence & Reasoning 2 hrs

General Awareness
Quantitative Aptitude
English Comprehension

Tier – II English language & Comprehension 2 hrs

Number of aspirants appeared

Examination Stages Number of Aspirants-2019

Candidates appearing for CBT 2,63,904

Qualified for PET/PST 46,436

Qualified for CPO Paper 2 5961

Medical Examination 5108

Candidates selected for DOC Verification 4003

Selected Candidates 2,726

24
 5
General Duty (GD) Constable
SSC GD Constable Exam is being
conducted by the Staff Selection
Commission of India to recruit
candidates for the General Duty
post of Constables (GD) in BSF,
CISF, ITBP, CRPF and Rifleman in
AR. SSC GD Constable 2021
Notification has been released
by the Commission to recruit
25271 posts of constables for
both male and female. SSC GD
Constable Recruitment 2021
Notification, Apply Online Dates,
Online Application Form, Exam
Date, Eligibility Criteria, Age
Limit, Educational Qualification,
Syllabus, Pattern and other
details are discussed below.
SSC GD Constable exam is a
national-level exam conducted
by Staff Selection Commission to
recruit candidates for the posts
of Constable (General Duty) and
Rifleman (General Duty) in the
following forces:
General Duty (GD) Constable

Forces for Recruitment of Constables (General Duty)

Border Security Force (BSF)
Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)
Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF)
Indo Tibetan Border Police (ITBP)
Sashastra Seema Bal (SSB)
National Investigation Agency (NIA)
Secretariat Security Force (SSF)

Forces for Recruitment of Rifleman (General Duty)- Assam Rifles

Age Limit
The minimum age to apply for GD Constable should be 18 years and
the maximum age should be 23 years. Candidates fulfilling the age
limit can apply for GD Constable 2021.

Educational Qualification
To apply for SSC GD Constable 2021 you must have a graduation
degree or diploma or 10th Pass from a recognized board or govern-
ment authorised educational institute.

Exam Pattern
The entire recruitment process of SSC GD 2022 will be completed in
four stages: Computer Based Test (CBT), Physical Standard Test (PST),
Physical Efficiency Test (PET) and at the last the Medical Test. The
candidates who will qualify the exam will have to appear for document
verification. The stages that will be conducted for SSC GD Constable
2021 Exam are discussed below:

26
General Duty (GD) Constable

Written examination (Computer Based)

Physical Efficiency Test (PET)/ Physical Standard Test (PST)
Medical Test

Parts Name of Disciplines Questions Marks Duration

Part-A General Intelligence & 20 40
Reasoning
Part-B General Knowledge & 20 40
General Awareness
60 Minutes
Part-C Elementary 20 40
Mathematics
Part-D English/ Hindi 20 40
Total 80 160

GD Constable Physical Efficiency Test / Physical Standard Test (PST)

Type For Male Candidates For Female Candidates
Race 5 Kms 1.6 Kms
Time 24 Minutes 8 Minutes

GD Constable Medical Test

Visual Acuity Uncorrected Refraction Color
Unaided Visual Acuity Vision

Near Vision Distant Vision - -

Better Eye Worse Better Worse - -
Eye Eye Eye
N6 N9 6/6 6/9 Visual CP-2
correction of
any kind is not
permitted even
by glasses

27
General Duty (GD) Constable

Number of aspirants appeared

Examination Stages Number of Aspirants-2018
Appeared in CBT 30,41,284
Qualified for PET/PST 5,54,903
Candidates that appeared 3,83,860
for PST/ PET
Candidates qualified PST/ PET 1,52,265
for Detailed Medical Exam
Qualified Detailed Medical Exam 1,09,552
Candidates finally selected 55,915

GS Constable SSF Cut off

100
90
80
70
60
50
40
30
20
20
10
0
Female Male

UR SC ST OBC

28
 6
Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)
The Staff Selection Commission
conducts the SSC MTS exam to
recruit General Central Service
Group ‘C’ Non-Gazetted,
Non-Ministerial posts in various
Central Government Ministries /
Departments / Offices, in
different States/ Union Territories.
SSC MTS is a great opportunity
for the 10th pass candidates to
get a government job in India.
SSC MTS Exam (Multitasking
Staff) is being organised by the
Staff Selection Commission or
SSC to recruit candidates for
various posts.
Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)

Posts
Peon Operator
Daftary Chowkidar
Jamadar Safaiwala
Junior Gestetner Mali etc.

Age Limit*
The age limits for the posts as per the Recruitment Rules of various User
Departments are:
i) A candidate must be of minimum 18 years of age and must not exceed
25 years of age, candidates born not before 02-01-1998 and not later
than 01-01-2005.
ii) 18-27 years, the candidates born not before 02-01-1996 and not later
than 01-01-2005.

Educational Qualification:
A candidate is required to pass Matriculation or its equivalent Exam from a
recognized State Board or University or Institute.

Information Regarding the SSC MTS

Paper 1 exam
1. A total number of marks is 270 as per the latest pattern.
2. Paper- I will be objective type(Multiple Choice Questions).
3. The questions will be set in English, Hindi, and in 13 regional
languages for Session-I and the General Awareness Section of
Session-II.

*as on January 01, 2023

30
Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)

Pattern of SSC MTS 2022-23 Paper-1

Subject No. Of Questions Marks Duration
Session 1
Numerical and 20 60
Mathematical Ability 45 minutes
Reasoning 20 60
Session 2
General Awareness 25 75
45 minutes
English Language 25 75
and Comprehension
Total 90 270

MTS Paper 1 Cut off

120

101 100.5
100 95
93 94.5 93.5
92.5 90 92.5
87
83.25 83.25
80
71.25 70 71.25

60

40

20
11

0
2015 2016 2017 2018

UR SC ST OBC

31
Multi-Tasking Staff (MTS)
If you are new to SSC and Railway
exams then this article will help you
create a base for your preparation.
As you know that SSC and Railway
have a huge craze in the graduates
and undergraduates as they serve as
a ticket to central and state govt jobs.
The syllabus part differs only in one
area i.e., in SSC exams more stress is
laid upon English whereas in RRB it is
general awareness. However, the
Number of aspirants appeared
Examination Stages
Candidates that apply for
SSC MTS Paper 1 Exam
Candidates appearing for CBT
Qualified for MTS Paper 2
Appeared for MTS Paper 2
Candidates selected for
DOC Verification
Selected Candidates
level of all other sections remains
almost the same. SSC conducts a
variety of Exams namely SSC
Stenographer, SSC CHSL, SSC CGL,
SSC CPO, SSC MTS etc. In the Railway
category, RRB NTPC RRB Group D
and DFCCIL are major exams. Out of
all the exams conducted by the SSC,
the SSC CGL exam holds the prime
category amongst aspirants.
Number of Aspirants-2019
38.58 lakh
19,19,004
1,20,713
96478
20902
8992
32
 7
Preparation Strategy for SSC
& Railway Exams
Preparation Strategy for SSC & Railway Exams:

SSC & Railway Exams Preparation

Things to Keep in Mind before starting off the preparation
Knowledge of the Syllabus is a must
The syllabus is like a Google map for the students. If you know the
destination but lack the map to reach there then all your efforts will prove
to be futile. The syllabus helps you throughout your preparations and will
help you in choosing the right study material for your preparation.
Time Management is mandatory
Certain things in life should not be neglected and it stands correct for the
time. One should know how to manage his or her time. Students should
divide their study time into various subjects. Give more time to weaker
sections and devote less time to stronger sections.
Importance of Good Study Material is necessary
Are you confused about which site/app to visit regularly to get the Best
Study Material for SSC Exams? The answer to this question is very simple.
We at BYJU'S Exam Prep are here to provide you with the best material
possible for SSC & Railway Exams.
Focus on Important Topics
List down Important Topics and make sure you study those topics and
practice a lot of questions.
Work on your weak areas
It is easy to go along well with your strong areas, but it is best to work on
your weaker areas and give it your best shot. Practice on the weak areas so
that it becomes easy for you to solve them in the actual examination.
Go through Previous Year Question Papers
This will help candidates to have an idea of the actual exam pattern.
Aspirants should practice the papers during the revision time so that they
can know the time limit and can work on their weak areas. Check out the
SSC & Railways question paper of previous years.
Practice is the ultimate way to succeed
The last thing you should do is practice more and more. The more you
practice, the more understanding you develop. So, practice the mock tests
& old year’s papers available at the Byju's Exam Prep app.
Don’t overburden yourself
It is important not to overburden yourself while preparing for the
examination. This is the most important requirement for maintaining focus
and concentration.

34
Preparation Strategy for SSC & Railway Exams:

Section-wise Tips & Strategy for SSC &

Railways Exams
The best approach is to do section-wise planning, focus on your strengths and
weaknesses and work on them accordingly.

1. General Awareness & Current Affairs

The general awareness section is common to both the exams and is
always taken for granted by many candidates, not realising how crucial it
can be in competition exams. This section acquires more importance
because this is the only section that can be attempted quickly i.e. in 6-8
minutes and at the same time, decent marks can be scored in this section
if prepared well.
Keep an eye on the latest happenings and read a daily newspaper
that will help you to be updated with the latest news.
Prepare notes of important news, economic news, and corporate
affairs and revise them meticulously to keep yourselves perfect in
General Awareness.
For science & the rest of the section, we advise you to follow our GK
& Science Topic-Wise One-Liners, Complete Gk Study plan with notes
& Sure-Shot Questions PDF.

2. General Intelligence and Reasoning

The Reasoning section is one of the most important sections for most of
the competitive exams. The reasoning is generally a scoring subject in
comparison to the quantitative section. Unlike numerical skills in the
reasoning section, you neither have to learn certain formulas nor have to
solve questions by applying the formula. You can master this section by
practicing more and more. Here are the important points you should
apply while preparing Reasoning for the SSC CGL exam.
Always remember that the given question will be solved by the given
data only. Don’t make unnecessary assumptions or judgments while
solving the problem. Use smart and appropriate tricks and methods
for solving any problem.

35
Preparation Strategy for SSC & Railway Exams:

Be very careful with words having negative prefixes like non-, un-.
They can fool you for facts. So you must read the question very
carefully and when you are sure about the question, find its solution.
The understanding of directions should also be accurate i.e. which
direction is West, North, East, and South.
Always remember the sequencing of alphabets i.e. which alphabet
comes after/before the particular alphabet and you should also
remember their numerical position as per 1 to 26.
You should also try to imagine the object in 3D like dice and paper
folding etc. it will help in solving such problems.
Reasoning problems take more time than other sections. Hence time
constraints must be kept in mind while attempting this section.

3. Numerical Ability
The quantitative Aptitude section is the most crucial area, or you can say
the deciding area for a candidate in the merit list. If you are having decent
basic concepts of Mathematics, this section will be your favourite and
highest-scoring section. The candidate must be able to solve questions
quickly without compromising on accuracy. Attempt your strong
sections first.
Take every practice test as seriously as you would while sitting in the
main exam. Time yourself for every quiz that you take.
Have a list of formulae that are important and make sure that you
memorise them all.
Save your time, attempt easy ones quickly and then come back to
tricky/ difficult questions

4. English Language
The English section is only limited to the SSC exams and is not asked in
RRB exams. The English Language is considered to be the most
challenging section for many students. They find vocabulary and grammar
hard to deal with. Below are some of the important points for this section.

36
Preparation Strategy for SSC & Railway Exams:

In this section, candidates need to make a grip on selected scoring topics

like Errors, Miss Spelt Words, One-Word Substitution, and
Comprehension.
Questions asked on synonyms/antonyms need extensive learning
habits and enough time to score even 5 out of 6. We would like to
suggest not to focus on this if you haven’t prepared
synonyms/antonyms before and don’t spend more time mugging
them.
Comprehensions are comparatively easy. You need to practice one
passage daily, and we are sure you will score well in this part.
Idioms should be attempted by eliminating other options. A basic
sense of correctness can help a lot in this section.

37
 7
Previous Year Questions
Maths

Maths
1. The average of eight consecutive Solution |||
numbers is 10.5. The largest
Number 87m6203m is
number is:
divisible by 6.
SSC MTS 06 Oct 2020
We know that a number is divisible
A. 14 by 6 if it is completely divisible by
B. 15 2 and 3 both.
C. 18
Consider: 87m6203m
D. 16
Divisibility by 2:
Solution |||
A number is divisible by 2 if the
Let the eight consecutive numbers
unit digit of that number is an even
are (x - 4), (x - 3), (x - 2), (x - 1), (x), (x
number.
+ 1), (x + 2), (x + 3)
Hence, Possible values of m = 0 ,
According to question,
2, 4, 6 , 8 …………………(1)
Divisibility by 3:
8x – 4 = 84
8x = 88 A number is divisible by 3 if the
x = 11 sum of digits of that number is
divisible by 3.
Therefore, the largest number = x
+ 3 = 11 + 3 = 14 Sum of digits of 87m6203m = 8 +
7+m+6+2+0+3+m = 26 + 2m
Hence, option A is correct.
Now, 26+2m is divisible by 3 then
Possible values of m = 2 , 5 ,
2. If the number 87m6203m is divis-
8……………(2)
ible by 6, then find the sum of all
possible values of 'm'. From (1) and (2)
Possible values of m = 2 , 8
SSC CHSL 5 Aug 2020
Hence, Sum of all possible values
A. 10 of 'm' = 2 + 8 = 10
B. 15
C. 16
D. 20

39
Maths

3. If A is equal to 20% of C and B is LCM (16,21,24,28) =

equal to 40% of C, then which
Largest 4 digit number = 9999
one of the following is
150% of B? B? When we divide 9999 by 336, 255
is obtained as remainder.
SSC GD Constable 11 March 2019
x be the largest 4-digit number
A. 50% of C
which is divisible by each of 16, 21,
B. 250% of A
24 and 28.
C. 65% of C
D. 300% of A Hence, x = 9999 – 255 = 9744
Solution ||| Sum of digits of 9744 = 9 + 7 + 4 +
4 = 24
Given,
A = 20% of C
A = 20C/100 = C/5 5. The marked price of an article is
C = 5A ……………….(i) Rs. x After allowing two succes-
And B = 40% of C sive discounts of 20% and 16% on
B = 40C/100 = 2C/5 …………..(2) the marked price, it is sold for Rs.
Also, 150% of B = 150B/100 504. What is the value of x?
Using (1) and (2):
= 300% of A SSC CHSL 19 April 2020
A. 740
B. 720
4. Let x be the largest 4-digit C. 750
number which is divisible by each D. 700
of 16, 21, 24 and 28. The sum of
Solution |||
the digits of x is: Given:
SSC MTS 05 OCT 2020 Marked price of an article = x Rs.
A. 19 Now, according to question,
B. 21 (x) × = 504
C. 24 (x) × = 504
x = 504 ×
D. 16
x = 750 RS.
Solution |||
Therefore, the marked price of an
Least number which is exactly
article = 750 Rs.
divisible by 16, 21, 24 and 28 =
LCM (16,21,24,28)

40
English
English
1. CGL 2020
The following sentence has been
divided into parts. One of them
contains an error. Select the part
that contains the error from the
given options.
All those students / who are par-
ticipating / in the play / have
been notify / to stay back for
rehearsal / after 3:00 p.m.
A. to stay back for rehearsal
B. have been notify
C. after 3:00 p.m.
D. who are participating
Answer : B
Solution :
The sentence is grammatically
incorrect, and the error lies in
option B.
• The error is related to Verb.
• As per the passive voice verb
structure, “have + been + third
form of the verb” should be
used.
For example:
They have been abandoned to
their fate.
• The given sentence is set in
passive voice because here the
actual doer of the action verb
(“notify”) is not the subject. In
the given sentence, the act of
“notify” is not being done by the
“students”. Thus, the third form
of the verb i.e. “notified” should
be used in place of the first form
of the verb “notify”.
• Thus, replace “notify” with “noti-
fied” to make the sentence
grammatically sound.
Thus, the correct sentence will be:
All those students who are partici-
pating in the play have been noti-
fied to stay back for rehearsal after
3:00 p.m.
2. MTS 2020
Select the most appropriate
meaning of the given idiom.
Change for the better
A. Exchange an old product for new
B. Pretend to be someone else
C. To keep loose change
D. An improvement in the situation
Answer : D
Solution :
The idiom “change for the better”
means a person, thing, situation
etc. that is better than the previous
or present one.
Example: Voters see the new
politician as a change for the
better.
Hence, option D is the correct
answer.
41
English
3. CHSL 2020
Select the correct passive form of
the given sentence.
Radha plays the sitar very well.
A. The sitar is being played by
Radha very well.
B. Radha has been playing the
sitar very well.
C. Radha is playing the sitar
very well.
D. The sitar is played very well by
Radha.
Answer : D
Solution :
The given sentence is an assertive
sentence. The sentence is in pres-
ent simple tense.
The structures for active/passive
voices are:
Active voice: Subject + V1+s/es+
object.
Passive voice: Object+ is/am/are+
V3+ by + subject.
So, with the help of the above
instructions, we can convert the
given sentence into passive voice:
The sitar is played very well by
Radha.
Hence, option D is the correct
answer.
4. CHSL 2020
Given below are four jumbled
sentences. Out of the given
options, pick the one that gives
their correct order.
A. One day the tailor and his wife
discovered that their son was
not in the house.
B. The father went to the roadside
and shouted, "John!"
C. No one answered.
D. They looked in the garden, and
did not find him there.
A. ABDC
B. BDAC
C. BACD
D. ADBC
Answer : D
Solution :
• The first sentence should be 'A'
as it introduces the subjects of
the passage i.e., 'the tailor and
his wife'.
• The sentence 'D' further tells
what the tailor and his wife did
when they discovered that their
son was not in the house, i.e.,
they looked in the garden in
vain.
• The sentence 'B' then tells what
the tailor did when he did not
find his son in the garden.
42
English
• The sentence 'C' finally tells that
no one answered when the
tailor shouted.
• Thus, the correct sequence is
ADBC.
The rearranged passage is - One
day the tailor and his wife discov-
ered that their son was not in the
house. They looked in the garden,
and did not find him there. The
father went to the roadside and
shouted, "John!". No one
answered.
Hence, option D is the correct
answer.
5. GD CONSTABLE 2018
Select the synonym of the given
word.
FLIMSY
A. general
B. coarse
C. sturdy
D. feeble
Answer : D
Solution : Let’s first see the
meanings of the given words:
Flimsy = Lacking solidity or strength.
E.g. :- You won't be warm enough
in that flimsy dress.
General = Applying to all or most
members of a category or group.
Coarse = Of textures that are
rough to the touch or substances
consisting of relatively large
particles.
Sturdy = Having rugged physical
strength; inured to fatigue
or hardships.
Feeble = Lacking strength or vigor.
E.g. :- He was a feeble, helpless
old man.
Hence, option D is the correct
answer.
43
GA/GK
GA/GK
1. Which among the following
Articles of the Constitution of
India deals with the right to free
and compulsory education of all
children in the age group of
6-14 years?
A. 74
B. 21A
C. 101
D. 31A
(SSC CPO 23 Nov 2020)
Answer- B
Solution
• Article 21A declares that the
State shall provide free and
compulsory education to all
children of the age of six to
fourteen years in such a manner
as the State may determine.
• This provision was added by the
86th Constitutional Amendment
Act of 2002. This provision
makes only elementary educa-
tion a Fundamental Right and
not higher or professional edu-
cation.
3. ............ is also known as ‘The
Light of Asia’.
2. Who was the founder of the
Mamluk dynasty in India?
A. Razia Sultan
B. Qutb al-Din Aibak
C. Bakhtiyar Khilji
D. Iltutmish
(SSC CHSL 5 Aug 2020 S3)
Answer - B
Solution
• Qutb al-Din Aibak was the
founder of the Mamluk dynasty
in India.
• He was the first ruler of the
Delhi Sultanate and He is also
known as Lakh Baksh.
• He is also known for having
commissioned the Qutb Minar in
Delhi and the Adhai Din Ka
Jhonpra in Ajmer.
• The Mamluk dynasty ruled from
1206 to 1290 and It was the first
of five unrelated dynasties to
rule as the Delhi Sultanate.
• Razia Sultan was the only
female Muslim ruler of Delhi.
• Iltumish was first Muslim sover-
eign to rule from Delhi and He
considered as the effective
founder of the Delhi Sultanate.
A. Rumi
B. Buddha
C. Gandhi
D. Swami Vivekananda
SSC GD Constable 11 Feb 2019
44
GA/GK
Answer - B
Solution
• Buddha is known as ‘The Light
of Asia’.
• Edwin Arnold wrote a poem
"Light of Asia" which describes
the character of Prince Siddhar-
tha and later Buddha.
• Three main holy spots during
Lord Buddha (The Light of Asia)
lifewere-
• Lumbini the birthplace
• Bodhgaya where he reached
Buddha-hood and got enlight-
ened
• Sarnath the place he first
preached
• Other names of personalities
given in options are as follows-
• Vivekanand – Narendra, Swami-
ji and Vireswar.
• Gandhiji – Father of nation,
Mahatma, Bapu etc.
• Rumi – Mevlana and Mullah
of Rum
4. Which of the following
islands is/are located in the
Bay of Bengal?
A. Minicoy
B. Meeru
C. Diu
D. Andaman and Nicobar
SSC CHSL 11 Aug 2020
Answer -D
Solution
• Andaman and Nicobar islands
are located in the Bay of
Bengal.
• It is a union territory of India
consisting of 572 islands.
• The total land area of the
islands is approximately 8,249
km2.
• Minicoy Island is the southern-
most island of Lakshadweep.
• Meeru Island is an island on the
easternmost tip of North Male
Atoll in the Maldives.
• Diu Island is an island off the
Southern coast of Gujarat's
Kathiawar peninsula.
• It is separated from the main-
land by a tidal creep.
• The Bay of Bengal occupies
an area of 2,600,000 square
kilometers.
45
GA/GK

5 . In which of the following states is • It is home to Saltwater croco-

the Bhitarkanika National Park dile, Indian python, king cobra,
situated? black ibis, darters and many
other species of flora & fauna.
A. Goa
B. Meghalaya • Odisha is the 8th largest state
C. Odisha by area and the 11th largest by
D. Kerala population.

SSC CGL 17 Aug 2020 • It has the third-largest popula-

tion of Scheduled Tribes in
Answer- C India.
Solution • It is known for its rich history &
• Bhitarkanika National Park is culture, temples, heritage sites
situated in Orissa. and national parks.

• It was designated on 16 Sep-

tember 1998 and obtained the
status of a Ramsar site on 19
August 2002.

46
Reasoning

Reasoning
1. Select the correct combination of A. 216
mathematical signs to sequential- B. 361
ly replace the * signs, to balance C. 316
the following equation.( SSC CGL D. 261
4 March 2019 S1)
3. Ans. B.
(12 * 7 * 6) * 13 * 6
Here the pattern is;
A. ×, -, ÷, =
2×1 = 2+2 = 4
B. -, ÷, ×, =
4×2 = 8-3 = 5
C. ÷, -, =, ×
5×3 = 15+4 = 19
D. ×, =, ÷, -
19×4 = 76-5 = 71
2. Ans. A. 71×5 = 355+6 =361 (missing term)
Check option A- Hence, option B is the correct
Given expression is- answer.
(12 * 7 * 6) * 13 * 6
After interchanging-
(12 × 7 - 6) ÷ 13 = 6
3. Select the option in which the
Apply BODMAS,
numbers share the same
(12 × 7 - 6) ÷ 13 = 6
relationship as that shared by
Or, (84 - 6) ÷ 13 = 6
Or, 78 ÷ 13 = 6 the given pair of numbers.
So, 6=6 (SSC CHSL16 April 2021 S1)

As we got the correct answer, so 9 : 50

no need to check more options. A. 8 : 42
Hence, Option A is the correct B. 5 : 16
answer. C. 11 : 63
D. 13 : 98

2. Select the number from among 4. Ans. D.

the given options that can As,
replace the question mark (?) in (9+1)*[(9+1)/2]
the following series. (SSC CHSL =(10)*[(10)/2]
12 Apr 2021 S1) =(10)*(5)
2, 4, 5, 19, 71, ? =50

47
Reasoning

Similarly, 5. The statements below are

followed by two conclusions
(13+1)*[(13+1)/2] labeled I and II. Assuming that
=(14)*[(14)/2] the information in the statements
=(14)*(7) is true, even if it appears to be at
=98 variance with generally
established facts, decide which
Hence, option D is the correct
conclusion(s) logically and
answer. definitely follow(s) from the
information given in the state-
ments.( SSC GD reasoning
4. In a certain code language, 12 feb s1 )
‘MANGO’ is written as ‘93425’
Statements:
and ‘GREAT’ is written as ‘28631’.
What will be the code for 1). All pupils are crows.
‘GREEN’ in that code language? 2). All crows are cats.
(SSC MTS 5 Aug 2019 S1) Conclusions:
I. All cats are crows.
A. 28664 II. Some crows are pupils.
B. 28994
C. 28661 A. Only conclusion I follows
B. Both conclusions follow.
D. 28665
C. Either conclusion I or
5. Ans. A. conclusion II follows.
D. Only conclusion II follows.
Take the corresponding letter
code given. 7. Ans. D.
From the above figure we can see
And
Conclusion I does not follow but
Therefore,
Conclusion II does.
Hence, option A is the correct
answer. Hence, option D is correct.

48
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