333

SECTION I

ORGANISATION
AND
ADMINISTRATION
IN THE IAF

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JBPTC/GSK/1.1 CHAPTER 1

BRIEF HISTORY OF INDIAN AIR FORCE

PRE-INDEPENDENCE PERIOD

Introduction

1. The Indian Air Force is the youngest of the three Services. Even though young, it
has a bright history. The bravery, valour and achievements of the officers and airmen of
the IAF are an integral part of its proud heritage.

Birth of IAF

2. The origin of IAF can be traced to the Indian Sandhurst Committee otherwise
known as Skeene Committee. This Committee was set up by the Government of India
in 1925 with Sir Andrew Skeene, the Chief of General Staff as its Chairman to enquire
and recommend the rate at which Indians should be recruited for the grant of
Commission in the armed forces. The report of this committee was published on 01
April 1927. In its report, the Skeene Committee recommended that steps should be
taken to create an Air Arm of the Indian Army, and till such time facilities for flying
training could be made available in India, the newly recruited officers should be trained
at the Royal Air Force (RAF) College, Cranwell in UK. Accordingly, from 1928 onwards,
02 seats were reserved at the RAF College, Cranwell for Indians. In 1930, six Indians,
selected by the Government of India entered the College. They were HC Sarkar,
Subroto Mukerjee, Bhupinder Singh, Awan, Amarjit Singh and J N Tandon.

3. The first batch was granted their Commission as pilots with the exception of
Tandon. He failed to qualify as a pilot and was commissioned in the Equipment Branch
and thus he became first Equipment Officer in the Indian Air Force.

4. The next problem was the provisioning of efficient ground staff. Twenty two
airmen were selected on 19 January 1932. They began their training at Karachi on a
monthly salary of Rs. 19/-. They were kitted like Sepoys and were known as Hawai
Sepoys.

5. The Government of India decided to form the IAF as a separate service and
introduced a bill in the legislature known as the IAF bill. This bill was passed on 04 April
1932. The Indian Air Force came into being with the promulgation of the IAF bill on 08
October 1932. The then Governor General-in-Council, consequently ordered the
establishment of the Indian Air Force with effect from 08 October 1932, vide
Government of India Gazette Notification No 565 of 1932. It was on this day that the
first batch of Indian Officers who were trained at RAF College, Cranwell in UK were
granted Commission in the Indian Air Force. In view of the significance that is attached
to these events, the Indian Air Force anniversary is celebrated on 8th October, every
year.

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6. No 1 Squadron (A Flight) of the IAF was formed at Drigh Road Karachi. It
consisted 04 Wapiti aircraft, 06 Officers and 22 Airmen then known as Hawai Sepoys.
Out of the six officers Air Marshal Subroto Mukerjee OBE rose to become the first
Indian Chief of the Air Staff.

7. Two more flights (B&C) were formed and added to No 1 Squadron in 1936 and
1939 respectively. Flight Lieutenant S Mukerjee took over the Command of No 1
Squadron. He was the first Indian to be appointed as Commanding Officer of the
Squadron.

8. When World War II broke out in 1939, the problem of guarding India’s vast
coastline (4,800 km) arose and the IAF took active steps to solve it. Training of
volunteer reserves began in November 1939. Six Coastal Defence Flights (CDF) were
formed at Madras, Bombay, Calcutta, Cochin, Karachi and Vishakapatnam with Wapiti
and Atlanta aircraft. These flights did a good job in keeping the Indian waters free from
the enemies. Towards the end of 1942, these flights were disbanded and the personnel
were absorbed in the new Squadrons that were formed.

Growth and Expansion

9. In its early years, expansion of the IAF was rather slow. In September 1939, it
consisted of only one Squadron with a complement of 16 officers and 144 airmen.
During World War II, the increasing commitments of the RAF in Europe and the impact
of Japanese invasion in South East Asia accelerated the pace of expansion and by
October 1943 the strength of IAF rose to 08 full Squadrons with 911 officers and 40,146
airmen. By the end of the war, two more Squadrons were added to it. The Squadrons
were equipped with a variety of aircraft viz., Lysander, Wapiti, Audax, Hurricane,
Vengeance and Spitfire.

Burma Campaign

10. The most important theatre of operations of Indian Air Force was Burma. Japan’s
invasion of Malaya and Burma in 1941, was a direct threat to our frontiers. It was in
Burma that the ability of the young force to operate in real battle conditions was first put
to test. The pilots of No 1 Squadron took active part in the campaign under Squadron
Leader KK Majumdar who had the honour of being the first IAF officer to be awarded
the Distinguished Flying Cross (DFC) in recognition of his inspiring leadership and
fighting spirit.

End of the World War II and After

11. The commendable services rendered by the personnel of IAF won them many
honours and awards and the prefix ‘Royal’ was awarded to the IAF, which thus came to
be known as the Royal Indian Air Force from 12 March 1945. This prefix was dropped
when India became a Republic on 26 January 1950.

POST- INDEPENDENCE PERIOD

12. India became Independent on 15 August 1947 and with this came the partition of
the country and the Air Force. We lost 2 Squadrons to Pakistan and were left with 7
fighters and 2 transport squadrons. The IAF, which had to play only supplementary role
of assisting the RAF prior to independence, became fully responsible for the air defence

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of the country. The developments of the Air Force during the post-independence period
and its achievements as a Defence Force are described below:-

Re-organisation and Modernisation

13. The independence of the country placed heavier responsibilities on our

shoulders to effectively guard our air space and to improve our fighting capability for the
purpose. This meant re-organisation and modernisation of the Air Force and expansion
of the aircraft industry.

14 Accordingly, Operational and Training Commands were formed in 1949 and the
Maintenance Command in 1955. The task of the then Operational Command has since
been taken over by the Western, Eastern, Central, South Western and Southern Air
Commands. These Commands look after the respective sectors of our international
borders.

Training

15. The training of the personnel was another important aspect in the Air Force of
independent India. This became the responsibility of Training Command.

16. Airmen Training. Initial airmen training before independence was conducted
at Karachi, later on the training was shifted to Jalahalli (Bangalore) and Tambaram
(Chennai) in 1949. With the increase of number of technical trades and admin trades,
non-technical training was moved to Sambra, Belgaum. It was renamed as
Administrative Training Institute (ATI) in the year 1980. Again it was moved to
Tambaram in 2001. Air Force Station, Sambra was renamed as Airmen Training School
(ATS). Presently all newly enrolled airmen are imparted Joint Basic Phase Training at
ATS.

Operations

17. Evacuation of Refugees. Consequent upon the partition of the country

communal riots broke out in Pakistan. Thousands of persons were stranded in Pakistan
facing grave danger to their lives. The IAF rose to the occasion and No 12 Transport
Squadron did a commendable job by evacuating over 30,000 refugees in its Dakota
aircraft.

18. Kashmir Operations. Soon after Independence, Pakistani tribesmen

invaded Kashmir. The ruler of Kashmir appealed to India for help. Our Dakotas began
air-lifting troops to Srinagar, flying over difficult terrain. They ferried troops and supplies
and bombed the enemy concentrations. The operations were under the command of Air
Commodore Mehar Singh and later under Air Commodore AM Engineer. The combined
operations of the IAF and the Indian Army forced the enemy to withdraw, leading to a
ceasefire.

19. Congo Operations. As a member of the United Nations, India sent a

contingent of IAF to Congo to join hands with the UN forces in August, 1960 for peace-
keeping role.

20. Operation ‘Vijay’ (Goa Liberation). Under the able command of the late Air
Vice Marshal EW Pinto, the lAF took active part in Goa liberation which lasted for three

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days from 18 to 20 Dec 1961 resulting in the liberation of Goa from Portuguese. This
was also the first combined operation by the three Services of independent India.

21 lndo-China War 1962. The war started on 20 Oct 1962. The IAF Dakota
aircraft were deployed for dropping supplies from air base of Guwahati, Tezpur and
Jorhat during the frontier war with china. Combat air patrols carried out by Hawkers &
Hunters aircraft. On 21 Nov 1962, the war was over. After the war India modernised its
war potential.

22. lndo-Pak War 1965. Ever since independence, Kashmir has been the
main cause of conflict between India and Pakistan. To grab Kashmir by force, if
possible, Pakistan had been strengthening its armed forces. On 01 Sep 65, Pakistani
Forces crossed the international border in the Chhamb sector and also launched a
massive armed attack in the Akhnoor sector in Kashmir with Patton tanks and infantry
brigades. India launched a counter-attack into West Pakistan to destroy enemy bases
and troops’ concentrations. This was the beginning of the lndo-Pak War of 1965 which
lasted for 22 days. In the course of this War, Pakistani Air Force planes attacked Indian
Military and Civilian targets. Places like Jamnagar, Amritsar, Ambala and Kalaikunda
near Calcutta were bombed in a series of bombing raids. The IAF retaliated by bombing
Pakistani air bases at Chaklala near Rawalpindi and Sargodha near Lahore. On 13 Sep
65 our bombers bombed Peshawar and Kohat airfields. A series of air battles were
fought in the Lahore area where, Pakistan’s First Armoured Division was routed by
Indian soldiers with the help of IAF. Throughout the War, IAF planes also provided air
cover to advancing Indian Forces. On 22 Sep 65, India and Pakistan agreed to a
general ceasefire.

OPERATIONS-1971

23. In the election for national assembly of Pakistan which was conducted in Dec 69,
the first of their kind in Pakistan, Sheikh Mujibur Rehman and his Awami League Party
had captured 167 of the 169 seats in East Pakistan as against Mr Z.A. Bhutto’s
Pakistan People’s Party which had won 88 of the 144 seats (6 being reserved for
women) in West Pakistan. The Awami League and its Bengali supporters had
anxiously awaited the day when they could take control of the country. Having been
denied that, they were understandably restive and disturbances occurred in Dhaka and
elsewhere in East Pakistan. The Government’s reaction had been to bring more troops
into the area and setup strong points in major cities. The unrest occurred in East
Pakistan, was sought to be suppressed in a very brutal manner which led to further
unrest and exodus of refugees to India.

24. Public opinion in India at that time was divided over the action to be taken.
While everyone condemned the manner in which the Pakistan Government was
prosecuting its own nationals, there were some who thought that India should take
advantage of the disturbances in East Pakistan to neutralise that area militarily.
Obviously such a measure would have amounted to interference in the domestic affairs
of another country, and our Government did not give any support to it. By July, there
were estimated to be 7 million refugees, living on the Indian side of the international
border. The influx of refugees, created many difficulties for which assistance was
necessary from the armed forces. The Army was often called out to assist the Border
Security Force and the Air Force was frequently required to ferry supplies to the areas
where the refugees had been housed in camps. Simultaneously, the Mukti Bahini,

5
raised from volunteers amongst the refugees, was becoming active under the directions
of the provisional Government of Bangladesh. As its strength increased and training
improved, and more experience gained, the pressure it exerted began to fall on the
Pakistan forces. By the end of July 1971, the Mukti Bahini had begun to fray Pakistan
nerves. By October, the Pakistani Government had begun to use armoured vehicles
and aircraft in resisting the advance of the Mukti Bahini. During the war, India was able
to break the air support of PAF through ‘No Fly Zone’ over Indian Territory and the
intense bombardment of vital installations like Governor’s House in East Pakistan
culminated in surrender of Pakistan Army and subsequent creation of a new nation
‘Bangladesh’. During the war in Srinagar for exhibition of most conspicuous act of
bravery and supreme sacrifice for the motherland, the first ever Param Vir Chakra, the
highest decoration for any soldier was awarded to Fg Offr Nirmal Jit Singh Sekhon
posthumously.

25 Operation Pawan. Operation Pawan was the code name assigned to the
Operation by the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) to take control of Jaffna from the
LTTE (Liberation Tigers of Tamil Eelam), in late 1987 to enforce the disarmament of the
LTTE as a part of the Indo-Sri Lankan accord. In brutal fighting lasting about three
weeks the IPKF took control of the Jaffna peninsula from the LTTE, something that Sri
Lankan Army had tried and failed to achieve for several years. Supported by Indian
Army tanks, helicopters gunships and heavy artillery the IPKF routed the LTTE at the
cost of 214 soldiers. A total of seventy thousands sorties were flown by the IAF
transport aircraft and helicopters to and within Sri Lanka without a single aircraft lost
during thirty months. MI-8 of 119HU & 109HU operated to scores of scattered helipads
throughout the Northern and Eastern Provinces becoming a critical lifeline for the Field
forces as well as providing air transportation to Sri Lanka civil administration.

26. Operation Cactus. On 03 Nov 1988 a group of Maldivians led by Abdullah

Luthufe and assisted by armed mercenaries of Tamil secessionist organisation from Sri
Lanka, The Peoples Liberation Organisation of Tamil Eelam overthrew the dictatorship
in the Island Republic of Maldives. The coup failed due to intervention of the Indian
forces. The operation started when IL-76 ac of the IAF airlifted the elements of the 50th
Independent Parachute Brigade Commanded by Brigadier Farukh Bulsara, the 9 th
Batalion of the Parachute regiment and the 17 th Parachute field regiment from AF Stn
Agra and flew them nonstop over 2000 km to airdrop them over the Male International
airport. The Indian troops arrived in less than 12 hours after the appeal from Maldives
President. The Indian troops restored control of the capital to President Gayoom’s
government within hours.

KARGIL OPERATIONS

27. During May 1999, the Indian Armed Forces were drawn into an armed conflict
with Pakistani Forces along the LoC in Kargil area. The aim was to drive away the
armed intruders out of Indian territory.

28. By mid-May 1999, it had become clear that the Indian Army was up against no
ordinary intruders. The intruders were using sophisticated weapons, were entrenched
in well-fortified positions on commanding heights of the glaciated region, and were
getting reinforcements of logistics from across the border. It was going to be a long and
bloody operation to drive out the intruders. By that time, it was not known that it was
the Pakistan Army soldiers with a sprinkling of Mujahideen responsible for intrusion.

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29. At one of the CCS (Cabinet Committee on Security) meetings, Gen VP Malik,
Chief of the Army Staff, likened the situation of the Indian Army jawans trying to crawl
up the Qutab Minar in the face of heavy gun fire from the enemy entrenched firmly on
the top. Therefore, Gen Malik argued, the IAF had to be inducted into the Kargil war
zone. Once the decision to induct the IAF for bombing missions was taken, all aspects
relating to a full- fledged war were considered and planned. Then started a massive
war.

30. The induction of the IAF in the Kargil conflict on 26 May 1999 with the launch of
‘Operation Safed Sagar’ featured operations over some of the highest terrains on the
Earth, stretching along 140 kms of the LoC covering Mushkoh Valley, Dras, Batalik and
Turtok sectors, all falling within the geographical boundaries of the Western Air
Command. Never before, has any Air Force been tasked to achieve such military
objectives in an inhospitable terrain rising above 15,000 feet. The types of targets
required to be engaged were not conventional targets like mobile forces or armoured
columns, industrial targets, power plants or railway yards etc, for which the Air Force is
trained for. The targets were simply intruders, lightly burdened individuals, well trained
in the art of mountain warfare, well motivated and firmly ensconced across vital heights
in the harsh, mountainous terrain.

31. All the forward bases of the IAF were put on alert. All efforts of the IAF were
directed at denying the intruders any further movement across the Line of Control
(LOC) into Indian territory. The Army consolidated its positions in the Kargil sector and
more troops were inducted. Artillery and other equipment were also brought into this
sector to provide the Indian troops with covering fire and neutralise the intruders’ guns
and positions. Within days of the aerial strafing, intelligence reports indicated that
almost 160 of intruders had been killed. Many bodies were left under piles of stones
and even the wounded were not being attended to.

32 On the second day of the air strikes, one of the Indian MiG-27s suffered a
serious mechanical problem and the pilot, Flt Lt Nachiketa, had to eject. His flying
buddy, Squadron Leader Ajay Ahuja , remained over the area to look for Nachiketa.
Minutes later, Ahuja’s MiG-27 was shot down with a surface to air Stinger missile.
Pakistan later claimed that it had captured Nachiketa while Ahuja had died. When
Ahuja’s body was returned to India, it was clear that he had been murdered in cold
blood by his captors.

33. The next day, the IAF lost a MI-17 helicopter after it had mounted an attack on
Tololing in the Drass sub-sector. The chopper, too, was brought down by a Stinger
missile, killing all its four crew members. These were to be the last losses suffered by
the IAF in an unprecedented high altitude war.

34. It was the first time in the history of IAF that its bombers were required to fight
high altitude warfare with Pakistani soldiers comfortably entrenched on strategic heights
and armed with Stinger missiles and anti-aircraft guns.

35. After the initial losses of two aircraft, the IAF started relying on the French-built
Mirage 2000 and some selected MiG-series of aircraft for strike missions. Mirage 2000
is one of the most advanced fighter aircraft in the world and has a formidable array of
electronic counter measures. Before the mirages, or for that matter even the MiGs took
off, the enemy RADARs used to be jammed. Mirage-2000 itself is equipped with
jamming devices.

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36. Operation Safed Sagar involved a variety of aircraft. The helicopters were
represented by MI-17 armed as well as fighter versions and Cheetah light observation
helicopters. Fixed wing combat aircraft included the MiG-21, MiG-23 BN, MiG-27,
MiG-29, Jaguar, Mirage-2000 and Canberra. Operation Safed Sagar required the co-
ordination of different types of missions, the exact proportion or mix changing with the
situation. Relentless attacks by night and day effectively reduced the enemy’s will and
capacity to fight. Each air strike was preceded by exhaustive analysis of the target
through reconnaissance photographs in order to provide the target information that
ultimately guided the thrust of the strike missions.

37. During Operation Safed Sagar, IAF fighters flew approximately 580 strike
missions, supported by around 460 Air Defence missions like Combat Air Patrol and
escorts and about 160 Reconnaissance sorties, amounting to a total of approximately
1200 sorties. Helicopters flew approximately 2,500 sorties transporting more than 800
troops almost 600 causalities and close to 300 tons of load besides flying scores of
operational missions like strikes.

38. The large number of Air Defence missions were an effective deterrent to the PAF
and succeeded in creating an environment of air superiority as far as air opposition was
concerned.

IAF IN AID TO CIVIL POWER

39. One of the most significant contributions of the IAF of which all its personnel feel
proud is the role played during national calamities when the very existence of some
communities and groups were threatened. It is not infrequent that a ‘mercy mission’ for
a single person struggling for life in a forlorn inaccessible place is mounted at a
moment’s notice often in adverse weather and at very high altitude.

40. The first such task carried out was in March 1947 when the recently formed No.
12 Squadron equipped with Dakotas was called upon to evacuate civilians in the wake
of extensive communal disturbances in the country. In August 1947, one aircraft based
at Amritsar flew for as many as 362 hours in 280 sorties. The Squadron operated day
and night, evacuating stranded people, with the aircraft often carrying twice the number
of persons that it was designed for. An estimated 30,000 refugees were evacuated
from Pakistan by the IAF after the out-break of disturbances. Evacuation of refugees
was again undertaken from Srinagar, Poonch and Ladakh (Leh) during the hostilities in
J & K. On 22 August 1950, IAF Dakotas were called upon to drop food supplies to
areas devastated by earthquake and floods in Assam and Manipur. A task force was
formed with 4 Dakotas of No. 12 Squadron and ‘Operation Brahmaputra’ was launched.
The task force dropped/delivered over 6 lakh pounds of food, medicines and other
supplies in 240 sorties involving total of 350 hours of flying.

41. The helicopter crew of the IAF take has made great strides in the service of
nation. Some of them are rescue of a member of the Trishul expedition on 23 May 1976
by VK Malhotra, the rescue by FJ William of eight members of a family marooned on
the thatched roof of a hut in the swirling waters of a river in West Bengal; the dramatic
rescue of the Everest hero Sir Edmund Hillary, from an 18,100 ft base camp during his
‘Ocean to the Sky’ expedition in October 1977 by TR Singh and SS Sidhu ; the midnight
evacuation of an injured man from the ONGC platform ‘Sagar Samrat’ 100 miles out at
sea - all these form part of the saga of our helicopter pilots. The famous ‘Cable-Car
Rescue’ from 3000 ft at ‘Timber-Trail’ in the Shivaliks is another feather in the cap.

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Essentially it was an Air Force rescue operation through a web of high-tension cables,
requiring precise, accurate and intricate manoeuvring by our helicopter crew.

42. On 14 November 1986, more than 100 vehicles were trapped in the Zojila pass
at 3,400 metres above sea level in an unprecedented snowfall made worse by
landslides and avalanches. Wg Cdr M Dutt Flying Mi-17 helicopter, flew sortie after
sortie against raging wind and howling blizzard and personally rescued 145 people from
certain death. He mounted altogether 75 sorties, 56 of them in the first four days, which
has been acknowledged as a World Record.

43. At the end of Aug 96, the IAF once again rose to occasion and mounted 200 plus
assorted sorties in the high Himalayas, air-lifting more than 5,000 Jawans and 500 sick
Amaranth pilgrims stranded in the unseasonal snow and rain. More than 300 tons of
food, medicine and relief materials were air-lifted which helped save the lives of over
10,000 pilgrims. Rescue missions like these have, indeed, very few parallels in aviation
history.

Malpa Relief

44. On 18 Aug 98, just after midnight, the people at Malpa, a small village along
Mahakali river in Pithoragarh district of UP hills, woke up to a thundering sound. Before
they could orientate themselves, a huge chunk of the mountain towering above the
gorge broke-off and came crashing down on the tiny settlement near the river bed,
which was accommodating over 200 people that night including 60 pilgrims, Among the
pilgrims was the famous danseuse Protima Gauri Bedi.

45. In completing Malpa Operations, the Air Force helicopters flew 277 sorties in 35
hours. They carried 15 injured and 566 passengers to safety, brought out 37 dead
bodies and moved approximately 17, 110 kgs of rations and medicines. The total
quantum of load carried out by the Air Force in this short period from 22 Aug to 29 Aug
worked out to 43, 510 kgs. It is a continuous saga of endless number of missions that
continue to be mounted day after day, year after year, in aid to civil administration.

OP Meghdoot: Operations at Siachen

46. On 13 Apr 1984, ‘Op Meghdoot’ was launched and thus came into being the
highest battlefield in the world, the Siachen Glacier. The war is going on since then. It
is a conflict where records of human endurance, flying competence, extraordinary
technical skills and amazing innovations are being set nearly every day. The battlefield
ranges from 12,000 ft to 21,000 ft where not only the adversary but also the terrain and
weather are equally dangerous enemies. The temperature drops below -50’C, the
wind quickly picks up without any warning, a blizzard starts blowing, bringing bad
weather that lasts for days at a stretch. It is in these conditions that the IAF plays a
singularly vital role to safeguard our territory. Our helicopters Cheetahs and MI-17s
form an air bridge to ferry troops to posts that are otherwise inaccessible and then do
the even harder task of keeping them supplied with food and kerosene oil. When
Jawans fall sick, the Cheetahs become the lifeline to evacuate them to Base Camp.

47. It was in 1978 that the first High Attitude Warfare School (HAWS) expedition
went into the Siachen Glacier, IAF Chetaks kept them supplied with ‘fresh ration’ and
mail and evacuated the causalities. This became an annual feature till the launch of Op

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Meghdoot on 13 Apr 84. The intervening years have seen the operation increase in
size and intensity.

48. Operation Rahat. Operation Rahat was the code name given to India Air
Force rescue operation to evacuate civilians affected by Uttarakhand flash flood in
Kedarnath area in Jun 2013. It was the largest civilian rescue operation in the world
carried out by any Air Force using Helicopters. During the first phase of Operation the
IAF air lifted a total of 19600 people to safe locations flying a total of 2140 sorties and
droping/ landing a total of 382000 kg of relief material despite of unfavourable climatic
conditions. MI-27, MI-26, AN-32, IL -76 aircraft were used in this operation. During this
operation on 25 Jun 2013 one MI-17 helicopter of rescue mission from Gauchar to
Guptakashi and Kedarnath was crashed near Gaurikund due to bad weather. All five
crew members of the Chopper sacrificed their lives in the service of the Nation, proving
the adage, “Service before self”.

HEROES OF THE IAF

49. Since the day of its inception the IAF has ceaselessly operated in peace and
war and has never let down its guard. The IAF has had numerous heroes who have, by
their heroic and exemplary deeds honoured the service and the Nation.

Air Cmde Mehar Singh (Baba)

50 Mehar Singh was one of the pioneers of the IAF pilots. He was commissioned
on 01 Aug 36 from Cranwell and posted to No.1 Sqn Soon after, he saw action over the
wild mountainous country of N-W frontier and flew as many as 100 hours in one month
which included an experience which would have shaken anyone’s nerves. He was
attacking a force of tribesmen in a valley near shadier on his wood and fabric Wapiti.
During the attack, the fuel tank of the Aircraft was hit by ground fire. Every passing
second increased the risk of fire which could destroy the fragile fabric of the Wapiti
instantaneously. Mehar Singh force landed in the valley, crawled out of the aircraft with
his Hawai Sepoy gunner and after evading the tribesmen, reached his Sqn safely. Next
day, he was airborne again on a new operation.

51. Later, during the Kashmir Operations (1947-48), Air Cmde Mehar Singh was at
the head of the operational Group that was involved in the transportation of troops and
supplies and fought against the intruders by giving ground support to the Army. In
Poonch, there was a need to urgently transport vital supplies for the troops. A short
strip of 600 yards of a runway was created for the aircraft to land. This airstrip was on
top of a hill with rivers flowing on three sides and a cliff on the fourth. Air Cmde Mehar
Singh took the first Dakota to land on this strip with a huge load of cargo.

52. On 24 May 48, taking Maj Gen KS Thimayya GOC, 19 Div as his passenger,
Mehar Baba negotiated mountains towering upto 24000 ft in his ancient Dakota with no
deicing facilities, no pressurisation, and no route maps and reached Leh, 11500 ft
above sea level to land on an improvised airstrip. The reinforcements provided by
Mehar Baba and his team helped save Leh and other regions in Kashmir. The
challenge of providing immediate help to the Army in fighting the invaders was always
upheld by Mehar Baba, despite the constraints of the Aircraft and lack of other
infrastructure required for operations at such heights. For his gallantry in these
operations, Mehar Baba was awarded Maha Vir Chakra (MVC).

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Sqn Ldr KK Majumdar (Jumbo)

53. Jumbo was one of the finest aviators in the history of the IAF. In fact, he was
adjudged to be one of the twelve best aviators in the entire allied forces during the
Second World War by the ‘Life’ magazine.

54. One of his outstanding feats was to use his Lysander Aircraft, primarily meant for
reconnaissance purposes, as a bomber on one of the major Air bases of the Japanese
in Burma. Flying low, skimming over the tree tops, Jumbo went in unescorted, bombed
the hangar with the aircraft in it and returned safely to his Squadron. The following day
he took his entire Sqn of Lysanders to bomb the airfield. Had there been any enemy
fighter in the near vicinity, the consequences would have been serious. However, such
men are never daunted by such considerations. KK Majumdar was the first IAF pilot to
be awarded the coveted Distinguished Flying Cross – the ultimate aspiration of a pilot in
those days. Two and a half years later, he was again the first to be awarded a bar to
the DFC – this time for his exceptional performance with No. 268 RAF Sqn Operating in
support of the allied invasion of Europe. Jumbo was and still is a legend for the IAF.

Fg Offr Nirmal Jit Singh Sekhon PVC

55. On 14 Dec 71, During the Indo-Pak war, the Srinagar Airfield was attacked by six
PAF H-86 Sabres. Flying Officer NJS Sekhon was still on the runway when the Sabres
attacked. Notwithstanding the exploding bombs, Sekhon got airborne and engaged the
Sabres in combat. In the unequal contest between the lone Gnat and half a dozen
Sabres, Sekhon Shot down one and set another on fire before he was overwhelmed by
the sheer weight of numbers and was himself shot down. For his exemplary act of
gallantry, NJS Sekhon was awarded the Param Vir Chakra posthumously, the first and
only IAF member to win the country’s highest award for valour in the face of the enemy.

56. The narrative of some of the heroes of the IAF is not complete, nor can it ever
be, for the valour and devotion to service exhibited by these heroes will continue to
inspire and raise more heroes.

Conclusion

57. The pioneers were a hardy few who set the pace for fearlessness and innovation
that has been followed and indeed honoured by generations of airmen. It has never
slackened its pace of operational activity or readiness, flying by day and night through
all seasons in India or, as required, abroad.

Must Know Points

1. Operation Pawan.
2. Operation Meghdoot and Malpa relief
3. The role of Indian Air Force in the Kargil Operations.
4. The legendary personalities of the Indian Air Force and their contributions

Should Know Points

5. Role of Air Force in other relief missions in aid to the civil power
6. Operation Rahat 2013
7. The circumstances, which forced to include IAF in the Kargil Operations.

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Could Know Points

8. Military and Political gains of the 1971 conflict.

9. Names of the Aircraft and Helicopters used in 1971 Indo Pak war.

MCQ

10. The code name of Kargil operation was known as

(a) Operation Safed Sagar (b) Operation Vijay
(c) Operation Pawan (d) Operation Meghdoot

True/False

11. Operation Meghdoot was the code name assigned to the Operation by the Indian
Peace Keeping Force (IPKF) in Sri Lanka

12. S Mukherjee was first Indian to be appointed as Commanding Officer of the

Squadron.

13. Coastal Defence Flights guarded the coast line of India with Wapiti and Atlanta
aircraft.

14. Air Commodore Mehar Singh was the first IAF pilot to be awarded the coveted
Distinguished Flying Cross.

Fill in the Blanks

15. The Indian Air Force is the ------------------------- of the three Services.

16. Initially Airmen were kitted like Sepoys and were known as --------------------------

17. The establishment of Indian Air Force came into effect from ----------------------,
vide Government of India Gazette Notification No --------------------.

18. -------------------------------- was awarded the Param Vir Chakra posthumously

VSA

19. Write a short note on Operation Rahat

20. Write a short note on Operation Cactus

SA

21. Give a brief Indo Pak War 1971.

22. Write a short note on Kargil Operation

12
JBPTC/GSK/1.2
CHAPTER 2

RANKS, BADGES AND DRESS REGULATIONS

Introduction

1. In the Services, the status of a person is indicated by his rank which is

recognised by an appropriate badge. The ranks and their corresponding badges are
given below:

AIR FORCE

Officers

RANK BADGES
JUNIOR OFFICERS
Flying Officer A row of 9/16" braid.
Flight Lieutenant 2 rows of 9/16" braid.
SENIOR OFFICERS
Squadron Leader 2 rows of 9/16" braid with a 1/4" braid in between.
Wing Commander 3 rows of 9/16" braid.
Group Captain 4 rows of 9/16" braid.
AIR OFFICERS
Air Commodore A band of 2" braid.
Air Vice Marshal A band of 2" braid with 1 row of 9/16” braid above it.
Air Marshal A band of 2" braid with 2 rows of 9/16” braid above it.
Air Chief Marshal A band of 2" braid with 3 rows of 9/16” braid above it.
Marshal of the Indian A band of 2" braid with 4 rows of 9/16" braid above it.
Air Force

Airmen

RANK BADGES
Aircraftsman (AC) Eagles on the sleeves.
Leading Aircraftsman(LAC) Eagles and propellers on the sleeves.
NON COMMISSIONED OFFICERS
Corporal Eagles and two Chevrons on the sleeves.
Sergeant Eagles and three Chevrons on the sleeves.
WARRANT RANKS
Junior Warrant Officer A coat of arms on the shoulders.
Warrant Officer A row of 1/4” braid on the shoulders with coat of
arms superimposed on it.
Master Warrant Officer A row of 9/16” braid on the shoulders with coat
of arms superimposed on it.

13
 ARMY

Officers

RANK BADGES
JUNIOR OFFICERS
Lieutenant 2 Stars
Captain 3 Stars
SENIOR OFFICERS
Major 1 National emblem.
Lieutenant Colonel 1 National emblem and 1 Star.
Colonel 1 National emblem and 2 Stars.
FIELD OFFICERS
Brigadier 1 National emblem and 3 Stars.
Major General Cross Sword, a baton and a star above.
Lieutenat General Cross Sword, a baton and a national emblem above.
General Cross Sword, and a baton with a star and a national
emblem above.
Field Marshal Laurel with cross sword and a baton and a national
emblem above.

Other Ranks

Sepoy --
Lance Naik 1 Chevron
Naik 2 Chevrons
Havildar 3 Chevrons
Quarter Master 3 Chevrons with national emblem over it.
Havildar
(by appointment)
Havildar Major National emblem around wrist.
(by appointment)
JUNIOR COMMISSIONED OFFICERS (JCOs)
Naib Subedar ½” red braid with yellow stripe in the middle and a star
above.
Subedar/Risaldar ½” red braid with yellow stripe in the middle and 2 stars
above.
Subedar Major/ ½” red braid with yellow stripe in the middle and national
Risaldar Major emblem above.

14
 NAVY

Officers

RANK BADGES
JUNIOR OFFICERS
Sub-Lieutenant 1 row of 9/16" gold braid with a loop on the top.
Lieutenant 2 rows of 9/16" gold braid with a loop on the top.
SENIOR OFFICERS
Lieutenant 2 rows of 9/16" gold braid with a loop on the top and a
Commander row of 1/4" braid in between.
Commander 3 rows of 9/16" gold braid with a loop on the top.
Captain 4 rows of 9/16" gold braid with a loop on the top.
FLAG OFFICERS
Commodore A band of 2" gold braid with a loop on the top.
Rear Admiral A band of 2" gold braid and 1 row of 9/16” braid with a
loop on top.
Vice Admiral A band of 2" gold braid and 2 rows of 9/16” braid with a
loop on top.
Admiral A band of 2" gold braid and 3 rows of 9/16” braid with a
loop on top.
Admiral of the Fleet A band of 2" gold braid and 4 rows of 9/16” braid with a
loop on top.

Other Ranks

Ordinary Seaman Has Unit’s name on the cap and no collar for shirt (e.g.,
INS VIKRANT written on the cap).
Able Seaman Two anchors on the left sleeve with the above said
uniform.
Leading Seaman Two cross anchors on the left sleeve with the above
said uniform.
Petty Officer With national emblem on the top and a shirt with collar;
wears peak cap with an anchor without laurels.
Chief Petty Officer No badges on arms but anchor and National emblem
on cap badge with laurels.
Master Chief Petty Anchor on the collar.
Officer (Class II)
Master Chief Petty Two cross anchors on the collar.
Officer (Class I)

15
 EQUIVALENT RANKS OF THREE SERVICES –– OFFICERS

AIR FORCE NAVY ARMY

JUNIOR OFFICERS
Flying Officer Sub-Lieutenant Lieutenant
Flight Lieutenant Lieutenant Captain
SENIOR OFFICERS
Squadron Leader Lieutenant Commander Major
Wing Commander Commander Lieutenant Colonel
Group Captain Captain Colonel
Air Commodore Commodore Brigadier
Air Vice Marshal Rear Admiral Major General
Air Marshal Vice Admiral Lt General
Air Chief Marshal Admiral General
Marshal of the Air Force Admiral of the Fleet Field Marshal

16
 EQUIVALENT RANKS OF THREE SERVICES OFFICERS
RANK BADGES

Field Marshal Admiral of the Fleet Marshal of the Air

Force

General Admiral Air Chief Marshal

Lieutenant General Vice Admiral Air Marshal

17
Major General Rear Admiral Air Vice Marshal

Brigadier Commodore Air Commodore

Colonel Captain Group Captain

18
Lieutenant Colonel Commander Wing Commander

Major Lieutenant Squadron Leader

Commander

Captain Lieutenant Flight Lieutenant

19
 Lieutenant Sub Lieutenant Flying Officer

EQUIVALENT RANKS OF THREE SERVICES ––OTHER RANKS

AIR FORCE NAVY ARMY

Aircraftsman Ordinary Seaman Sepoy

Leading Aircraftsman Able Seaman Lance Naik

Corporal Leading Seaman Naik

Sergeant Petty Officer Havildar

**Junior Warrant Officer Chief Petty Officer *Naib Subedar

**Warrant Officer Master Chief Petty Officer *Subedar

II Class
**Master Warrant Officer Master Chief Petty Officer *Subedar Major
I Class
* Personnel holding these ranks are called Junior Commissioned Officers
** Personnel holding these ranks are called Warrant Ranks

20
 EQUIVALENT RANKS OF THREE SERVICES –OTHER RANKS

RANK BADGES

Subedar Major Master chief Petty Master Warrant

Officer I Officer

Subedar Master chief Petty Warrant Officer

Officer II

Naib Subedar Chief Petty Officer Junior Warrant

Officer

21
 Havildar Petty Officer Sergeant

Naik Leading Sea Man Corporal

Lance Naik Able Sea Man LAC

No Rank
Badge

Sepoy Sea Man Aircrafts Man

22
Dress Regulations

2. Service personnel are to wear prescribed uniforms while on duty. The uniform
indicates the oneness of purpose of the Servicemen and builds-up a fine team-spirit in
them. A smart turnout reflects the discipline and morale of the individual and his general
attitude towards the Service.

3. The items to wear and the manner of wearing them are set out in regulations
issued from time to time. One must take pride in one’s uniform, wear it properly and
maintain it in a good condition.

General Instructions Regarding Wearing of Uniform

4. General instructions regarding the wearing of uniform are given below:

(a) The uniform is to be in good condition, neatly washed and well pressed.

(b) Shirts and trousers are to be of correct Service pattern.

(c) Proper shave and haircut are essential while wearing uniform. The Sikhs
are to tie the beard properly.

(d) The cap should be clean and of correct size. It should be worn slightly
tilted to the right, with the lower button of the cap in the centre of the forehead.
The buttons of the cap badge should be polished. Sikhs are to wear properly tied
turban.

(e) It must be ensured that lower button of the cap, nose tip, shirts button
line, centre of the metal buckle of the belt and seam line of the zipper of trouser
should be in single line.

(f) Entitled ribbons are always to be worn. The ribbons should be in correct
order and should not be faded.

(g) Pockets where applicable are to be buttoned-up.

(h) If webbing belt is worn, it should be properly blanchoed. The metal buckle
of the belt is to be worn in the centre of the waist and should be centrally fixed.
The nickel fittings of the belt are to be polished.

(j) Boots/Shoes and Socks are to be of correct Service pattern. Boots/Shoes

are to be well polished

(k) No ornament, religious threads and flashy or visible emblems except

authorised badges, medals, ribbons and decorations are to be worn while in
uniform.

(l) Items of civilian dress such as scarves, jackets, overcoats etc, are not to
be worn with uniform except authorised jackets.

(m) Shirts with long sleeves are to be worn between sunset and sunrise as
anti-malaria precautions.

23
When to Wear Uniform?

5. Uniform shall be worn while on duty, except when instructions to the contrary are
given.

When Wearing of Uniform is forbidden?

6. Service Personnel are forbidden from wearing uniform of any pattern in the
following situations:

(a) At functions where fancy dress is worn.

(b) When dancing in restaurants, hotels and other public places.

(c) When attending race meetings, except for meetings associated with
Defence Services.

(d) When visiting or passing through foreign countries subject to local

instructions.

(e) Wearing of uniform is discouraged when walking out or going out

shopping, unless specifically ordered for reasons of discipline or security.

Wearing of Plain Clothes

7. Plain Clothes may be worn.

(a) When not on duty.

(b) While going to or coming back from organized games and other
recreational activities, whether as participants or spectators.

8. Anti-Malaria precautions are to be observed even while wearing plain clothes.

Conclusion

9. Smartness in dress indicates good discipline. All airmen are to be properly and
smartly dressed at all times.

Must know Points

1. Rank and badges of Air Force / Dress regulations.

Should know Points

2. Rank and badges in comparison with Army and Navy.

3. Recognition of Ranks

4. Order of ranks in three Services.

24
Could know Points

5. Rank structure of other Paramilitary Forces.

MCQ

6. Equivalent rank of Wing Commander in IAF is __________in Indian Navy.

(a) Captain (b) Commander (c) Lt Cdr (d) None

7. Equivalent rank of Vice Admiral in Indian Navy is _______in Indian Army.

(a) Major General (b) Brigadier

(c) Lt General (d) None

True / False

8. Brigadier is a senior officer.

9. Colonel is a field officer

Fill in the blanks

10. Officers wear rank badges on their_____________.

11. One should take ___________ in ones uniform.

VSA

12. What are the occasions when plain clothes may be worn?

13. Enumerate the occasions when wearing of uniform is forbidden?

SA

14. What are the general instructions regarding wearing of uniform?

25
JBPTC/GSK/1.2

CHAPTER 3

SALUTING AND PAYING COMPLIMENTS

Introduction

1. Saluting is a military way of paying compliments. The military salute has its
origin in the offering of the open hand as a token of respect to authority. It symbolizes
discipline and pride in uniform. It is also the traditional form of exchanging greetings in
Services and is the symbol of mutual trust and confidence, initiated by the junior in
rank.

Manner of Saluting

2. The salutes are to be given with the right hand. In case of physical incapacity of
the right hand, salute with the left hand is permissible. Airmen and NCs(E) are to salute
commissioned officers, MWOs and WOs whom they know to be such, whether in
uniform or not. Likewise, Cadets are to salute all officers in uniform and in civilian
clothes.

Procedure for Saluting

3. The right arm is to be raised from the front by the shortest way and the plane of
the palm will be at an angle of 45 degrees to the forehead, right index finger will touch
the outer edge of the right eyebrow. The upper arm is parallel to the ground and
forward of the shoulder. After saluting, the hand will be brought down to the side
sharply by the shortest route. The form of saluting is illustrated in photographs annexed
to this chapter. The Saluting will be mandatory on the following occasions: -

(a) Personnel are to salute even when not wearing headgear/cap whether
inside a building or outside.

(b) The saluting is to be given and responded to in civilian clothes also.

(c) The salute will be offered and acknowledged even when seated, whether
in uniform or civil clothes.

(d) Compliments by way of saluting will be exchanged while at public places,

shopping areas etc, whether in uniform or wearing civil clothes.

(e) The only occasion when saluting will not be mandatory is while riding a
cycle/scooter/motorcycle or when engaged in physical activity where both hands
are occupied or due to physical disability. On such situations bracing up will be
acceptable form of paying compliments. However, road safety factors are to be
given a higher consideration over the need to brace up.

Orders for Saluting

4. General Orders for Saluting.

(a) Airmen and NCs(E) are to salute Officers/MWOs and WOs and their
equivalent in Army/Navy whom they know to be such, whether in uniform or not.
26
 (b) When two or more airmen are sitting or standing together, the senior
airman present is to face the officer and call the whole party to attention and
salute.

5. Saluting Flag Cars. Flag cars will be saluted by all airmen and officers junior in
rank to the officer plying the flag car.

6. Saluting While Travelling in a Vehicle.

(a) When Vehicle is in Motion. Salutes are to be offered while travelling in a

vehicle as a passenger.

(b) When Vehicle is Stationary. The Salutes are to be exchanged when a

vehicle is stationary.

(c) Saluting By Airmen/NCs(E) in a Group in MT Vehicle. The senior

passenger who occupies the front seat in a vehicle carrying a group of personnel
will salute the entitled officer/MWO/WO, flag car, car with star plate, when the
vehicle approaches them.

7. Saluting Funerals. Officers, airmen and NCs(E) when passing a funeral party
are to salute the body.

8. Saluting Naval Ships. Officers, airmen and NCs(E) when boarding or leaving
any of the Indian/Foreign Naval Ships are to salute the Quarter Deck.

9. Saluting Foreign Officers. Compliments are to be paid to officers in the service

of any foreign power formally recognised by the Govt of India, according to their
respective ranks.

10. Saluting IAF Ensign. When IAF Ensign is being hoisted or lowered, all officers
are to salute and other ranks to stand in ‘savdhan’.

11. Saluting When National Flag Hoisted/Lowered or National Anthem is

Played.

(a) When the National Flag is hoisted/unfurled or lowered, all officers are to
salute and other ranks are to come to savdhan position.
(b) Whenever the National Anthem is played not accompanied by
hoisting/unfurling of National Flag, all ranks are to stand at savdhan, facing the
band.
(c) When national anthem is part of a play, drama, film etc. all are to remain
seated. However if the Anthem is scheduled as opening/closing event, all are to
stand.

(d) During a ceremonial parade, when the National Anthem is played for a
National Salute accompanied by hoisting/unfurling of National Flag, all ranks
witnessing the parade are to stand at savdhan and all officers are to salute.
Officers in attendance on the personage receiving the salute are also to salute.

(e) During a ceremonial parade, when the National Anthem is played for a
National Salute not accompanied by hoisting/unfurling of National Flag, all

27
 officers and other ranks witnessing the parade are to stand at savdhan. Officers
in attendance on the personage receiving the salute are not to salute.

12. Saluting with Arms by Guards. Officers of the rank of Sqn Ldr and above in
the Air Force are entitled to a full salute, that is, Present Arms. Flt Lts and below are
entitled to preliminary movements of a full salute.

28
Must know Points

1. Procedure of saluting.

2. Manner of saluting.

3. Orders for saluting.

Should know Points

4. Saluting procedure when National flag hoisted/lowered or National Anthem is

played.

Could know Points

5. Saluting funerals, Naval ships.

MCQ

6. When National Anthem is played during opening/closing of any event, all are to-
(a) Salute (b) Stand up (c) Seat (d) Come to savdhan

7. Whom Airmen and NCs(E) are to salute?

(a) Commissioned officers (b) MWOs and WOs
(c) Both a and b (d) SNCOs

True / False

8. Personnel are to salute even when not wearing headgear/cap whether inside a
building or outside.

9. When the National Flag is hoisted/unfurled or lowered, all officers are to salute
and other ranks are to come to savdhan position.

10. Salutes are to be offered while travelling in a vehicle as a passenger.

Fill in the blanks

11. When ……………. is being hoisted or lowered, all officers are to salute and other
ranks to stand in ‘savdhan’

VSA

12. What are the general orders for saluting?

SA

13. Write in brief the procedure of saluting when National Flag is hoisted / lowered or
National Anthem is played.

14. What is the procedure for saluting?

15. What is the manner for saluting?

29
JBPTC/GSK/1.3

CHAPTER 4

BRANCHES, TRADES AND GROUPS: OFFICERS / AIRMEN

Introduction

1. The Indian Air Force is a highly technically skilled force and the officers/airmen
serving in it have to perform skilled jobs like flying of different types of aircraft, servicing
and repairing of various types of aircraft and allied equipments, performing various
ground duties and ensure smooth functioning of the organisation. To enable them to
perform their duties, they are trained in various branches/trades.

BRANCHES: OFFICERS

General

2. These branches fall under three categories:

(a) Flying Branch

(b) Technical Branch
(c) Ground Duties

3. The various branches in Indian Air Force are given below:

(a) Flying

(i) Flying Pilot F (P)

(ii) Flying Navigator F (N)

(b) Technical

(i) Aeronautical Engineering (Mechanical) AE (M)

(ii) Aeronautical Engineering (Electronics) AE (L)

(c) Ground Duties

(i) Administration
(ii) Logistics
(iii) Accounts
(iv) Education
(v) Meteorology
(vi) Medical

30
TRADES AND GROUPS: AIRMEN

4. The Indian Air Force is a big Organisation and the airmen serving in it have to
perform a variety of jobs, like working on various types of aircraft, servicing and
repairing of mechanical transport vehicles, maintaining office files, documents and other
records and guarding vital installations and equipment etc.. To enable them to perform
their duties, they are trained in various Technical and Non-Technical trades. These
trades are categorised in to two groups, viz. X and Y.

5. There are 14 trades in GP ‘X’, of which 09 are Technical trades, 03 are Airmen
Aircrew and two are Non-Technical trades.

(a) Technical trades (Gp X)

(i) Structures Fitter (Str Fit). Maintenance of Aircraft structure, its

hydraulic system and ground equipment, undercarriage system of aircraft,
hydraulic / nitrogen / oxygen trolley and hydraulic system involved in
arrester barrier. Charging/ discharging of air/oxygen of aircraft.

(ii) Propulsion Fitter (Prop Fit). Maintenance of aero-engines, ground

equipment related to aircraft, gas for ATF and refueling / defueling of
aircraft and duty crew.

(iii) Weapon Fitter (Wpn Fit). Maintenance of all existing weapon

systems in IAF. To carry out servicing and maintenance of arrester
barrier, aircraft marshaling and picketing, handling and operation of first
aid and fire appliances, carry out tests on safety equipment and carry
out first and second line servicing of parachutes and safety equipments,
dinghy and its associated equipment, survival clothing and flying clothing.

(iv) Electronic Fitter (Electro Fit). Maintenance and repair of ground

radars and radars fitted on aircraft. Repair and maintenance of signals
equipment used on ground and aircraft. Repair and maintenance of
various communication systems. To interpret different diagrams of
missiles. Operation and maintenance of equipment. Upkeep of tools and
their use. Installation and laying of cables for field telephone. Operation
and maintenance of TV and video camera and associated components.

(v) Electrical Fitter (Elect Fit (R)). Repair and maintenance of

electrical components of aircraft, battery charging, runway lighting and
arrester barrier. Operation and maintenance of power plants and air
conditioning plants of communication and radar installations. Repair and
maintenance of instruments, instrument panels fitted in aircraft. Work on
the working principles and operation of different electrical equipments
fitted on the launchers. Operate launchers, transport loader machine,
power generation and distribution device, identify different devices fitted
on missiles, to utilise special MT during mobility.

(vi) Mechanical System Fitter (Mech Fit). Maintenance of all aircraft

support vehicles / starting trolleys, prime movers of generators and
compressors / condensers of ac plants. Maintenance of ground to air

31
 missiles, warheads of missiles, missile launchers & small arms and
ammunition. Charging/ discharging of missile fuses.

(vii) Automobile Fitter (Auto Fit). Repair and maintenance of MT

vehicles, generator engines and various specialist vehicles, maintenance
of arrester barrier and maintenance of ground to air missiles, warheads of
missiles, missile launchers & small arms and ammunition.

(viii) Workshop Fitter (S) (Ws Fit (S)). Dutiues

(ix) Workshop Fitter (M) (Ws Fit (M) (R)). To carry out daily servicing
of lathes, do turning tasks in different metals, operate different types of
lathes, identify metals and operate drilling and horizontal milling
machines.

(b) Aircrew Trades (Re-mustered Trades). There is no direct

recruitment to Aircrew trades mentioned below. Entry is open to selected airmen
with an aptitude for flying and holding the rank of Cpl. They should be in the age
group of 20-35 years and medically suitable. They will be authorized to wear
Aircrew badges after training. They will then be posted against
establishment/vacancies and will be entitled to flying pay as authorized.

(i) Flight Engineer- remustered from Prop Fit.

(ii) Flight Gunner - remustered from Wpn Fit.

(iii) Flight Signaller- remustered from Electronic Fit.

(c) Non-Tech Trades (Group X).

(i) Education Instructor.

(ii) IAF (G).

6. There are 14 trades in GP ’Y’. Out of which 03 are Technical trades and 11 are
Non-Technical trades.

(a) Technical trades.

(i) Auto Technician (Auto Tech). To undertake first and second line
servicing of MT vehicles and minor adjustment of brake system. To drive
MT vehicles, removing of wheels, dismantling and rebuilding of MT
vehicles, assist in inspection & de-carbonisation, handling of first aid fire
appliances, drive and maintain all types of vehicles, care and
maintenance of tyres, tubes and batteries.

(ii) Communication Tech (Comn Tech). Operation of all the

communication systems held in the inventory of IAF. To maintain
telephone services, undertake the operations and carry out servicing of
other communication equipment, VHF sets, direction finding equipment,
trunk switch board, field telephones and their multiple switch boards.
(iii) Ops Assistant (Ops Asst). Manning of Base Ops Room and
provide assistance to Controllers for movement of the aircraft. Manning of
Radar Control Room and plotting and reporting of aircraft movement.
32
 Maintenance of all records pertaining to the functioning of Ops Room.
Operations of different systems of Air Traffic Control Tower and the Air
Field. Provide assistance to Air Traffic Control Officers in discharge of
their functions.

(b) Non-Technical trades.

(i) Adminstrative Assistant (Adm Asst). Responsible for

maintenance of records, files and correspondence. Supervision of
messing requirements.

(ii) Accounts Assistant (Accts Asst). Preparation and maintenance of

documents related to Public Funds, documents related to pay and
allowances of all personnel. Maintenance of the accounts of items
purchased out of Public Funds. Preparation and maintenance of vouchers
pertaining to Equipment Accounting. Keeping updated records of all
receipt and issue through Logistics and other channels. Issue of ration on
prepayment.

(iii) Environmental Support Services Assistant (ESSA).

Maintenance of the Fire Fighting Section. Upkeep of hygiene of Air Force
camps by maintaining cleanliness and proper sanitation. Domestic
photography.
(iv) Logistics Assistant (Lgs Asst). Procurement, storage, handling,
issue and accounting of all Service stores.

(v) Medical Assistant (Med Asst). To assist the Medical Officers for
attending / treatment of sick reports, distribution of medicines,
investigations such as X-rays, Lab, Dental, Provision of First Aid to Air
Force personnel and families. Strict Vigilance on preventive aspects of the
diseases and environmental sanitation, Procurement and distribution of
medicines from AFMSDS.

(vi) Meteorological Assistant (Met Asst). Recording of hourly and

half hourly current weather conditions. Distinguishing different types of
clouds and estimating their heights. Identifying different weather
phenomena. Dispatching weather reports. Plotting of weather charts.

(vii) IAF (Police) (IAF (P))

(viii) IAF (Security) (IAF (S))
(ix) Ground Training Instructor (GTI) (Pre allotted by CASB)
(x) Auto Technician (Auto Tech)
(xi) Musician (Musn)

(xii) Cryptographer - Cryptographer is a re-mustered trade. Airmen

of the rank of of Cpl of Adm Asst, Accts Asst & Comm Tech are eligible
for remustering to this trade subject to fulfilling requisite QRs.

7. Apart from this all airmen of the rank of Cpl are eligible for remustering to Edn
Instr trade by fulfilling requisite QRs.

33
 TRADE TRAINING INSTITUTES (TTI) IN IAF

NAME OF TTI LOCATION TRADE TRAINING HELD

NTTI ATS, BELGAUM Accts Asst, Adm Asst, Edn Instr
AFSPF ATS, BELGAUM GTI
CTI AF Stn Jalahali, Comm Tech, Lgs Asst, Musician
Bangalore
E & ITI AF Stn Jalahali, Electrical Fit
Bangalore
ETI AF Stn Jalahali, Electronic Fit, Ops Asst
Bangalore
MTTI AF Stn Avadi Chennai Auto Tech & Automobile Fit
WTI AF Stn Tambaram Workshop Fit, Met Asst, Mech Sys Fit,
Chennai ESSA
MTI AF Stn Tambaram Propulsion Fit Structure Fit & Wpn Fit
Chennai
AFP & STI GRTC Delhi IAF(P), IAF(S), IAF(Garud)
MTC Medical Training Centre, Med Asst
Bangalore

Must Know Points

1. Various branches of officers in the IAF.

2. Trades falling under Groups X, Y.

Should Know Points

3. Flying, Technical and Ground Duty Officers.

4. Re-mustered trades and Aircrew trades.

Could Know Points

5. Selection of Airmen Aircrew.

6. Responsibilities of respective Officers’ Branches.

MCQ

7. Which of the following tech trades comes under Group ’Y’?

(a) Electrical Fitter (b) Communication Technician

(c) Automobile Fitter (d) Weapon Fitter
8. Musicians are placed under which group?

(a) Group X (b) Group Y (c) None

34
True/ False

9. Education Instructor comes under Group Y.

10. Cryptographer is a re-mustered trade.

Fill in the Blanks

11. In IAF, there are mainly_________ groups.

12. There are ____ Technical Trades in Group ‘X’.

SA

13. Write short note on Aircrew Trades.

35
JBPTC/GSK/1.4

CHAPTER 5

ORGANISATION OF IAF

Introduction

1. The President is the Supreme Commander of the Armed Forces of the Indian
Republic. He exercises control through the Ministry of Defence, which lays down the
policies and directs the functioning of the Army, Navy and Air Force. In this connection
the Chiefs of the three services; Chief of Army Staff (COAS), Chief of Naval Staff (CNS)
and Chief of Air Staff (CAS) owe their direct allegiance to the President of India.

Role of IAF

2. Primary Role. The primary role of the Air Force is the air defence of the
country, i.e. guarding of our air space from enemy intrusion and giving support to the
Army and the Navy in operations as well as supply of equipment and rations at forward
places where the usual mode of transportation are difficult

3. Secondary Role. During peace time the role is to maintain operational

readiness, aid the civil power in maintaining law and order and provide relief during
natural calamities.

Organisation of Air Headquarters.

4. Air Headquarters is the highest formation within the IAF. In the chain of
organisation of the defence of the country, it comes next to Ministry of Defence, parallel
to Army and Naval Headquarters. At Air Headquarters, besides being the head of the
IAF as an entire organisation, the CAS also heads the organisation of Air HQs and
controls the activities of all the six different branches. These branches in turn are
headed by Principal Staff Officers (PSOs) namely, the Vice Chief of the Air Staff
(VCAS), the Deputy Chief of the Air Staff (DCAS), Air Officer-in-Charge Administration
(AOA), Air Officer-in-Charge Maintenance (AOM), Air Officer-in-Charge Personnel
(AOP) and Inspector General Inspection and Safety {DG (I&S)}. These PSOs are
directly responsible to the CAS for efficient functioning of their respective branches.

5. The following diagrammatic sketch broadly indicates how the Air Force fits into
the defence set up of our country:

36
 President (Supreme Commander)

Ministry of Defence

Army Air Force Navy

Chief of the Air Staff

VCAS DCAS AOA AOP AOM DG (I&S)

6. The Vice Chief of Air Staff (VCAS) deals with operations-offensive and
defensive, signals and other matters connected with flying.

7. The Deputy Chief of Air Staff (DCAS) deals with planning and establishment.

8. The Air Officer-in-Charge Administration (AOA) deals with personnel matters and
other admin services such as accounts, legal, works services and Organisation.

9. The Air Officer-in-Charge Maintenance (AOM) deals with provisioning and

maintenance of aircraft, MT, armament and other equipment.

10. The Air Officer-in-Charge Personnel (AOP) deals with education and personal
matters of officers, airmen and civilians paid out of defence estimates.

11. The Director General Inspection and Safety {DG (I&S)} deals with Inspection and
Safety.

Must Know Points

1. Organisation of Air HQs.

2. Various Principal Staff Officers (PSOs) at Air HQ.

Should Know Points

3. Abbreviations used in this chapter.

4. Role of IAF.

Could know points

5. Various duties of PSOs at Air HQ

37
MCQ

6. The supreme commander of the Armed Forces is :

(a) Prime Minister (b) President

(c) Defence Minister (d) CAS

7. The primary role of IAF is:

(a) Guarding of our air space and support to the Indian Army and Navy.
(b) To prepare the pilot to fight.
(c) Helping only Army. (d) None of these.

Expand the following abbreviations

8. (a) COAS (b) CAS (c) VCAS (d) DCAS

(e) AOA (f) AOP (g) AOM (h) DG

Fill in the blanks

9. There are _______ branches at Air HQs.

10. _____________ deals with planning and establishment.

True/False

11. The Vice Chief of Air Staff (VCAS) deals with operations-offensive and
defensive, signals and other matters connected with flying.

VSA

12. What are the secondary roles of IAF?

SA

13. Write the designations of PSOs and their expansion at Air HQs.

14. Explain in brief the duties of VCAS and AOP.

38
JBPTC/GSK/1.5

CHAPTER 6

ORGANISATION OF COMMAND

1. There are seven Commands under Air Headquarters. These Commands control
the activities of the units placed under them. Their spheres of control are partly
functional and partly geographical. Commands of IAF and location of their Headquarter
are as follows:-

Commands Location of Headquarters

(a) Western Air Command (WAC) - New Delhi.

(b) Central Air Command (CAC) - Allahabad
(c) Eastern Air Command (EAC) - Shillong
(d) South Western Air Command (SWAC) - Gandhi Nagar
(e) Southern Air Command (SAC) - Triruvanathapuram
(f) Training Command (TC) - Bangalore
(g) Maintenance Command (MC) - Nagpur

Responsibilities of Commands

2. The Western, Central, Eastern, South Western and Southern Air Commands
control all operational Units. Operational Command executes the operational role of
the Air Force in War, i.e., air defence and land/air warfare, as well as the deployment of
elementary, bomber, maritime and reconnaissance forces available. Consequently,
they are also responsible in peacetime for operational training and efficiency of all
Squadrons and front line Units. They also handle the training of paratroopers in the
technique of airborne operations.

3. Training Command is responsible for training of Officers, Airmen and NCs(E) in

all flying and ground training at various Academy/Training Institutions/Colleges under it.

4. The Maintenance Command is responsible for the maintenance, repair and

storage of Aircraft, MT, Signal, Equipment, Armament, Ammunition and Explosives etc.,
and exercise functional and administrative control over Base Repair Depots (BRDs)
and Equipment Depots (EDs).

Set-up of the Commands

5. The designation of the Officer Commanding of these Commands is Air Officer

Commanding-in-Chief (AOC-in-C) with the rank of Air Marshal. The Western, Central,
Eastern, South Western, Southern Air Commands and Training Command each have
three main branches; Operations, Administration and Maintenance. The Technical and
Logistics Staff form part of the Maintenance branch at Operational and Training
Command. The heads of these branches are:

(a) The Senior Air Staff Officer (SASO).

(b) The Senior Officer-in-Charge Administration (SOA).
(c) The Senior Maintenance Staff Officer (SMSO).

39
6. Chart showing Organisation of Operational and Training Command is given
below:

ORGANISATION CHART- OPERATIONAL COMMAND

AND TRAINING COMMAND

Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief

(AOC-in-C)
Air Marshal

SO to AOC-in-C

Senior Air Staff Senior Officer in-charge Senior Maintenance

Officer (SASO) Administration (SOA) Staff Officer (SMSO)

7. As Maintenance Command has the role of supply and maintenance of Aircraft,

Missiles, radar etc., and its related equipments, it has a logistics branch which is unique
to this Command and is headed by Air Officer-in-charge Logistics Management
(AOLM). In Maintenance Command the Air and Admin branches are combined. The
head of the branches at Maintenance Command are:

(a) The Senior Maintenance Staff Officer (SMSO).

(b) The Air Officer-in-charge Logistics Management (AOLM).

(c) The Senior Air and Administration Staff Officer (SAASO).

8. Chart showing Organisation of Maintenance Command is given below:

ORGANISATION CHART- MAINTENANCE COMMAND

Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief

(AOC-in-C)
Air Marshal

SO to AOC-in-C

Senior Air and Air Officer in charge Senior Maintenance

Administration Staff Officer Logistics Management Staff Officer
(SAASO) (AOLM) (SMSO)

Must Know Points

40
1. Operational Commands and their operational roles.

2. Set up of the various Command HQs.

Should know points

3. Abbreviations of PSOs designations at Command HQs.

4. Organisation chart of an operational command.

Could know points

5 Duties of various heads at command HQ.

MCQ

6. TC is responsible for:

(a) Training of Officers and Airmen (b) Air Defence.

(c) Repair and storage of Aircrafts (d) None of these.

7. At Command level, head of the maintenance branch is:

(a) SASO (b) SOA (c) SMSO (d) AOM

Expand the Following Abbreviations

8. (a) AOC-in-C (b) SASO (c) SOA (d) SMSO

(e) AOLM (f) SAASO

Fill in the blanks

9. Directly under Air HQ, there are___________ Commands.

10. At TC, Logistics branch is a part of ________________.

True/False

11. At TC, Maintenance branch comes under Air Branch.

12. The MC is responsible for training of officers and airmen.

VSA
13. Write down the responsibilities of TC & MC.
14. Draw the organization chart of Operational Command

SA
16. What are the responsibilities of Operational Commands?

41
JBPTC/GSK/1.6

CHAPTER 7

ORGANISATION OF WING/STATION

1. The actual performance of the tasks, roles or functions of the IAF rests with the
executive units. The operational role of the Air Force is carried by Squadrons/ Units, the
basic executive unit of the Air Force.

2. The actual operations are carried out by Squadrons/Units and are to be kept free
from all administrative responsibilities to execute operation effectively. In peace time,
although the stress and strains of active operations are absent, training is a full time
task in all squadrons and often involves movements and exercises. Consequently,
whether in peace or in war squadrons cannot undertake its own administration. Further,
they are not large enough to be operationally self sufficient. Hence, they must be
placed under the care of a bigger unit, which relieves them of the burden of
administration and directs them in operations. The bigger unit may be called a
Wing/station.

Administrative Difference between Stations and Units

3. A Station or Wing is always called a self-accounting Unit, i.e., it is fully capable

and independently responsible for its own administration. A Squadron/Lodger Unit is
essentially a non-self-accounting Unit which it is a lodger to a Station and depends fully
on that Station for its administration. A Wing/Station exercises functional and
administrative control over its lodger Units.

Basic Organisation of an Air Force Station

4. Under the Commanding Officer every Station/Wing has three basic Division or
Wings, i.e., the functional Wing, Technical Wing and the administrative Wing.

5. In the case of Flying Stations, the functional Wing is the Flying Wing and in the
case of Training Stations it is the Training Wing and in the case of Technical Station it is
Technical Wing. The Administrative and Maintenance wing are common for all stations.
The nomenclature ‘Wing’ for these divisions though not yet officially authorized is
nevertheless a convenient way of visualizing the Organisation of a Station. A typical
Flying Station Organisation chart is given at appendix “A”.

6. The branch heads, responsible to the Station Commander for the working of their
respective divisions/branches are:

(a) Chief Operations Officer (COO).

(b) Chief Engineering Officer (C E O).
(c) Chief Administrative Officer (C Adm O).

7. In addition to these wings or divisions, there is a small element in the Station,

which can be regarded as the personal staff of the Station Commander. This staff
consists of the Station Adjutant, the Assistant Adjutant (if any), the Human Resources
Management Section and the Station Warrant Officer. Medical and accounts sections

42
function independently under SMO and SAO respectively and are directly coming under
Stn Cdr.

8. Under C Adm O, the following sections provide the administrative services.

(a) Non- Public Funds.

(b) Organisation and Quartering
(c) Catering.
(d) Canteen services.
(e) Fire.
(f ) Education
(g) Welfare and Sports
(h) Works services and Environment.
(j ) Security.
(k) Civilian administration

Special Services

9. Flying requires a number of specialist services. The sections responsible for

providing these services are controlled by the COO. These services are:

(a) Radio and Radar Aids to Navigation.

(b) Navigation.
(c) Weapons (Gunnery and bombing etc).
(d) Engineering (only in the case of tpt Squadrons with aircraft having flight
engineers).
(e) Air Traffic Control.
(f) Meteorology
(g) Photography.

Technical Wing (R & I Squadron)

10. With the introduction of Semi-Centralised Servicing System, the servicing flights
of one or more Squadrons located at Wing/Station will be pooled to form Central R & I
Squadrons under to the control of the C Eng O/CTO. The function and responsibility of
the technical wing are:

(a) Aircraft servicing.

(b) Signals.
(c) Armament.
(d) Refueling of aircraft.

Must Know Points

1. Organisation of a Wing/Station.

2. Administration difference between Stations and Units.

Should know points

3. Special Services required for flying.

43
4. Organisation chart of a flying station.

Could know points

5. Various duties of branch heads at Station.

6. Functioning of a Flying Station.

MCQ

7. Work Services come under:

(a) COO (b) C Adm O (c) C Eng O (d) Stn Adjt

8. Which of the following is not a special service required for flying?

(a) Navigation (b) ATC (c) Fire (d) Photography

Fill in the blanks

9. ________________ Unit is fully and independently responsible for its internal

administration.

True/False

10. The functional role of the IAF rests with Squadrons.

11. The head of the Administrative Wing is Chief Operations Officer.

VSA

12. What is a lodger unit?

SA

13. Mention any four special services required for flying.

14. What are the differences between Stations and lodger units?

44
 Appendix ‘A’

ORGANISATION CHART OF A TYPICAL WING / FLYING STATION

Air Officer Commanding/Station Commander

Station Adjutant

Assistant Adjutant

Lodger Units CIO COO SASIO C Adm O SAO SMO C E O

MSIO ASIO
SE (AC) SE (M) SE (L) SLO MCC

ATC Met Ops Room/TWCC Intelligence

Works & Environment Education Sports Catering Fire NPF Welfare Civil Adm Security Legal Org & Quartering

SASIO- Station Aero Safety & Inspection Officer MSIO- Maintenance Safety Inspection Officer ASIO-Aero safety Inspection Officer
IEW- Information and Electronic Warfare TWCC- Technical Weapon Control Centre

45
JBPTC/GSK/1.7
CHAPTER 8

COMMON SERVICE TERMS

Introduction

1. In the Air Force certain expressions are in common use. These terms
are explained in this chapter.

2. Active Service. As applied to a person subject to the Air Force

Act means the time during which such person:

(a) Is attached to, or forms part of, a force which is engaged in

operations against an enemy, or

(b) Is engaged in AF Operations in, or is on the line of march to, a

country or place wholly or partly occupied by an enemy, or

(c) Is attached to, or forms part of a force which is in military

occupation of any foreign country.

3. Commanding Officer. A Commanding Officer, in relation to a

person subject to Air Force Act, means the officer, for the time being in
command of the Unit or Detachment to which such person belongs to or is
attached.

4. Air Officer. An officer of the rank of Air Commodore or above.

5. Officer. Means a person commissioned, gazetted or in pay as an

officer in AF, and includes:

(a) An officer of any AF reserve or auxillary AF who is for the time

being subject to AF Act.

(b) In relation to a person subject to this Act when serving under

such conditions as may be prescribed, an Officer of the regular Army
or the Navy, but does not include a JCO, WO, Petty Officer or NCO.

46
6. Non-Commissioned Officer. An airman of the rank of Sgt or Cpl
and includes any person holding these ranks in any Air Force reserve or the
Auxillary Air Force when subject to AF Act.

7. Airmen. A generic term which includes all Master Warrant

Officers, Warrant Officers, Junior Warrant Officers, Senior Non-
Commissioned Officers (Sgt), Non-Commissioned Officers (Cpl),
Aircraftsmen, Apprentices and Trainees.

Airwarrior

8. Appointment. When used in relation to an officer or airman, it

denotes the position he holds, e.g., Sqn Cdr, Flt Cdr, Adjutant, S Adm O,
Medical Officer, Course Cdr, Station Warrant Officer etc. When used in
relation to a rank, it denotes the grant of acting rank, whether paid or unpaid.

9. Attestation. The administration of Oath or Affirmation of Service

Fidelity is known as attestation. All combatants, when declared fit for Air
Force duty are required to be attested. An airman is attested only after
successful completion of his initial training. An airman when attested
becomes eligible for promotion to non-commission rank and cannot be
discharged from service by his Commanding Officer.

10. Enrolment. The process of taking or initiating a person into the Air
Force as an airman or NC(E) is known as enrolment. It implies that he
accepts the terms and conditions of service as prescribed. On being
enrolled a person becomes subject to the Air Force Act and is entitled to the
Service privileges.

11. Absent Without Leave. Means absent without leave, overstaying

leave without sufficient cause, failure to appear at the time fixed at a parade
or place appointed for any duty/service activity.

12. Deserter. Absent with intention not to return to service or escape

some particular important service is deserter.

13. Detention. Detention is a punishment awarded to aircraftsmen. It

signifies confinement in an Air Force Station Cell or Military Detention
Barracks.

14. Termination of Service. Every person subject to Air Force Act shall
serve during the pleasure of the President. His services are liable to be
terminated, by competent authority in execution of the sentence of a court-
martial or as an administrative action. Such a person will normally be
47
allowed reasonable time to explain the reasons against the termination of his
service. He has, however, no right to complain of the wrongful termination of
service or ask for compensation in a court of law.

15. Reduction. This means the compulsory placing of a substantive

Master Warrant Officer, Warrant Officer or an NCO in a lower, substantive
rank or in the ranks by sentence of Court-Martial or by any other competent
authority.

16. Reversion. Reversion means the return of MWO, WO or a Non-

Commission Officer (Substantive or Acting) to a lower rank either
compulsorily, automatically or voluntarily.

17. Public Fund. All funds which are financed by Government

money are termed as Public Funds.

18 Non-Public Fund. Money held by local institutions and organisations

like the Messes, SI, Benevolent Association etc., are known as Non-Public
Funds.

19. Establishment. The establishment of a unit is the authorised

number of officers, airmen, civilians, aircraft, transport etc included in its
Organisation to carry out its tasks at a given time with due regard to its
commitments and responsibilities.

20. Strength. The strength of a Unit, at any particular time, is the

number of officers, airmen, NCs (E), civilians and Temporary Duty personnel
who are actually borne on the muster roll at the time exclusive of any
attached to the Unit. The strength is sub-divided into effective and non-
effective strength:

(a) Effective Strength. The effective strength of a unit at any

given time is the number of officers, airmen, NCs (E) and civilians on
the strength who are actually serving with unit (including those on
ordinary leave) and available for duty at the moment. Officers and
airmen attached to a Unit are not the part of the Establishment nor its
strength. They remain on the establishment and strength of the unit
from which they are detached.

(b) Non-Effective Strength. Non-effective strength at any

moment is the number of officers, airmen, NCs (E) and civilians on the
strength of the unit who are not available for duty for any of the
following reasons:

48
 (i) Sick in hospital or Station Medicare Centre.
(ii) Absent Without Leave/Deserter.
(iii) Under close arrest, detention or in prison.
(iv) Detached.
(v) On sick leave.

21. Unit. The term includes:

(a) A Command Headquarters.

(b) A Group Headquarters.
(c) A Wing or Station.
(d) An Air Force College/School, a Selection Board/Centre, a
Depot.
(e) A Squadron.
(f) A Flight under the direct administration of Air HQ.

22. Mustering. This term is used to denote the rank, group and trade in
which an airman is placed, on completion of training.

23. Pay. The term ‘Pay’ means the basic pay. It does not include
allowances.

24. Personnel Occurrence Report (POR). Every event or occurrence

affecting an airman is recorded in a Personnel Occurrence Report. Such
promulgation is known in the Air Force as POR action. A few examples,
when POR action is taken are enrolment, passing examinations, posting,
leave, marriage, birth of children changes in pay and allowances,
promotions, punishment etc.

25. Public Clothing. The clothing issued to an airman falls under two
categories- Public Clothing like mosquito net, blanket, durry, etc., and
Personal Clothing like shirt TC, trousers TC etc. Clothing can be obtained
free on completion of a specified life period.

26. Inventory. An inventory is a list of item held on charge of an officer

or airman.

27. IMMOLS. IMMOLS is an abbreviated form of Integrated Material

Management Online System. This project envisages the computerisation of
inventory management in IAF. This project has now reached a very

49
advanced stage and made it possible e-transaction in IAF in respect to
inventory management of IAF assets.

28. EQUOLS. EQUOLS is an abbreviated form of Equipment

Accounting Online System. This project aims at computerisation of
subsidiary accounting of document and correlated activities of the Eqpt Acct
Section in IAF. These activities relate to opening, modification and
maintenance of inventory ledger and inspection of inventory items

29. Recovery. Action taken to recover any excess payment of public

money or to make good any loss or damage to Service property by
negligence is known as Recovery Action. A few examples, when recovery is
made, are given below:

(a) Over-payment of pay and allowances.

(b) Not returning the loan or advance taken by him from Public
Funds.
(c) Loss of Public clothing issued, books/publication taken on loan,
etc.
(d) Willful damage to service-property such as wash basin, water
taps, cots, transport, etc.

30. Voucher. A voucher is a document which gives particulars of

transactions such as payment or receipt of money, issue, return or exchange
of equipment or clothing from Equipment Stores etc.

Must know points

1. Meaning of all terms.

Should know Points

2. Abbreviations of appointments / Trades / Common terms

Could know Points

3. Usage of various terms.

50
MCQ

4. The administration of oath or affirmation of service fidelity is known as:

(a) Attestation. (b) Detention.

(c) Reversion. (d) None.

5. An airman who is absent without authority for 30 days or overstays his

leave for 30 days and has not surrendered is known as:

(a) Defaulter (b) Deserter

(c) Remustered (d) Absent Without Leave

Fill in the Blanks

6. An appointment of an officer to command any IAF formation lower

than the command is ____________.

7. Any officer of the IAF above the rank of Group Captain is known as
_________.

True/False

8. Non-Commissioned ranks in the IAF includes MWO, WO, NCO, AC,

Apprentices and trainee.
9. Recovery means paying the pay and allowances.

VSA

10. Define Commanding Officer.

11. Differentiate between reduction and reversion.

SA

12. Differentiate between Effective and Non-Effective Strength.

13. Differentiate between Establishment and Strength.

14. Define recovery action.

51
JBPTC/GSK/1.8

CHAPTER 9

IAF ENSIGN, DISTINGUISHED FLAGS AND CAR PLATES

SERVICE DECORATIONS AND MEDALS

1. Similar to the National Flag that is respected by all Indian citizens,

each Service has its own ensign to which it pays respect. In addition to the
Air Force Ensign, high ranking officials of the Service are permitted to fly
flags at their offices, residences and their vehicles specifically authorised for
the purpose. They are also permitted to display distinguished star plates on
the vehicles which signify their rank.

Air Force Ensign

2. The Air Force Ensign is to be flown at all Air Force formations and
units and at inter-services installations where the flags of the three Services
are flown. It will not be flown at a unit situated within the perimeter of a
station or a care and maintenance unit (C& MU).

3. The ensign is to be flown daily and is to be hoisted in the morning and

lowered in the evening at hours laid down in local orders and may coincide
with the morning working parade and guard mounting parade.

4. Size of the Ensign. The size of the Air Force ensign to be flown at
Air Headquarters at the CAS office is 9’x6'. In front of the Air Headquarters
building and at all other Air Force Formations, ensign of size 6’x3' is to be
flown. At Units near Stations/Wings situated outside its perimeters, ensign of
size 4’x2' is to be flown.

5. Half Masting of Air Force Ensign. On occasions of mourning,

the ensign is to be flown at half-mast position, i.e. midway between the peak
and the base of the mast. The ensign is to be first raised to the peak and
then lowered to half-mast position. If it is already at the peak, it is to be
lowered directly to the half-mast position. When lowering for the day, the
half-mast ensign is to be first raised to the peak and then lowered.

6. The occasions of half-mast are, when ordered by higher authorities,

when requested by the State Government on the death of a high dignitary of
the State in which the Air Force Unit is located and when an announcement

52
to the effect that flags will be flown at half-mast on Government buildings is
broadcast by AIR.

Distinguishing Flags and Car Plates

7. Distinguishing Rank Flags of Formation Commanders.

(a) Officers of the rank of Wing Commander and above

commanding a Formation/Station/Unit (not detachments) are entitled
to fly a distinguishing flag, which measure 2' in hoist and 3' in the fly.

(b) The flag is to be flown at the head of the flag mast of the
Formation/Station/Unit (not detachment) and is not to be hoisted and
lowered daily or flown at half-mast. The flag will be flown at all times
except when replaced by the National Flag.

(c) In a Formation/Station where more than one Unit is located

only the AOC / Station Commander is entitled to fly the flag.

(d) At Air Headquarters and Command Headquarters, the only

distinguishing flag flown is that of the Chief of the Air Staff or the Air
Officer Commanding-in-Chief respectively. Officers Commanding
Headquarters Unit are not entitled to fly flags.

(e) The flag is to be flown only when the entitled officer is actually
present in the Headquarters/Station.

(f) When the Chief of the Air Staff/Air Officer Commanding-in-

Chief/Air Officers Commanding visits a Station, the distinguishing rank
flag of the Station Commander will continue to be flown and not the
rank flag of the inspecting officer.

8. Miniature Size Distinguishing Flag. Miniature size distinguishing

flag (6 inches in hoist and 9 inches in the fly) is flown on a Service vehicle
(not private car) when the entitled officer travels on official duty. When the
officer is actually not present in the vehicle the flag is to be effectively
covered or removed.

9. Distinguishing Star Plates.

(a) In addition to the miniature size distinguishing rank flags,

officers of the rank of Air Commodore and above when travelling on
duty in a Service car are entitled to display a distinguishing metal
plate of rectangular size, 18" long and 4" wide, with five pointed raised
53
 metal star of bright silver colour permanently fixed on azure blue
background, the stars being arranged in a horizontal line. One star for
Air Commodore, two for Air Vice Marshal, three for Air Marshal, four
for Air Chief Marshal and five for Marshal of the Air Force.

(b) The plates are to be mounted horizontally between the slotted

brackets fitted to the front and rear bumpers. The brackets are to be
so designed that the plates may be readily fixed and detached.

(c) When entitled officer is not present in the car, the plates are
either to be effectively covered with pouches or detached from the
car.

(d) The star plates are not to be displayed on private cars.

10. Residence Flags

(a) The Chief of the Air Staff, the Air Officer Commanding-in-Chief
and Air Officer Commanding Stations/Wings are entitled to fly flags at
their official residence. The size of the flag will be the same as given
in para-4 above.

(b) The residence flag is to be hoisted daily at sunrise and lowered

at sunset and is not to be flown while the entitled officers are away on
tour, leave etc.

AF ENSIGN

54
 DISTINGUISHING RANK FLAGS

MIAF AVM

CAS AIR CMDE

WG CDR
Air Marshal GP CAPT

STAR PLATES
Air Commodore

Air Vice Marshal

Air Marshal

Air Chief Marshal

55
Must know

1. Sizes of Air Force ensign at different formations.

2. Distinguishing Rank flags of Formation Commanders
3. Distinguishing star plates

Should know Points

4. Occasions of half mast of Air Force Ensign

Could know Points

5. Air force regulations 1964 dealing with the subject.

MCQ
6. The size of AF ensign to be flown at Air Headquarters at the CAS
office is:-
(a) 6’X3’ (b) 9’X6’ (c) 4’X2’ (d) None

7. The size of AF ensign to be flown in front of Air Headquarters

building:-
(a) 6’X3’ (b) 9’X6’ (c) 4’X2’ (d) None

Fill In the blanks

8. AF ensign is not to be flown at__________.

9. The AF ensign is to be flown at___________.

True/False

10. Flag cars will be saluted by all airmen and by officers senior in rank to
the officer flying the car flag.
11. When IAF Ensign is being hoisted or lowered, all officers are to salute
and other ranks to stand at savdhan.
12. Air force ensign is to be flown at all Air Force formations.
13. AF ensign is not to be flown at a unit situated within the perimeter of a
station.

VSA
14. Write the occasions where the AF ensign is to be at half mast.
SA
15. Write a short note on “Distinguishing Star Plates”.

16. What are the different sizes of AF ensign at different formations?

56
JBPTC/GSK/1.9

CHAPTER 10

SERVICE DECORATIONS AND MEDALS

Introduction

1. One of the most effective ways of maintaining the morale of the

members of the Armed Forces, who face death during war and hardships in
peace time, is to accord due recognition to their acts of gallantry and
devotion to duty. Such recognition is conveyed through the institution of
decorations and awards for gallantry and distinguished service.

Awards for Gallantry

2. Gallantry awards are of two types:-

(a) Acts of gallantry in the face of enemy, for which the following
awards are instituted:

(i) Param Vir Chakra (PVC).

(ii) Maha Vir Chakra (MVC).
(iii) Vir Chakra (Vr C).

(b) Acts of gallantry other than those in the face of the enemy, for
which the following awards are instituted:

(i) Ashok Chakra (AC).

(ii) Kirti Chakra (KC).
(iii) Shaurya Chakra (SC).

3. The Param Vir Chakra. This is conferred by the President and is

awarded for most conspicuous bravery or some pre-eminent act of valour, or
self-sacrifice in the presence of the enemy, whether on land, at sea, or in the
air. This decoration takes precedence over all other awards. It is worn on the
left side of chest. The ribbon is one-and-a-quarter inches wide of plain
purple colour symbolising valour.

4. The Maha Vir Chakra. This is conferred by the President and is

awarded for acts of conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy,
whether on land, at sea, or in the air. In the order of precedence MVC ranks
after PVC. It is worn on the left side of chest.

57
5. The Vir Chakra. Like PVC and MVC, this decoration is conferred by
the President. This ranks after MVC, in precedence. It is worn on the left side
of Chest. This is awarded for acts of gallantry in the presence of the enemy,
whether on land, at sea or in the air.

6. The Ashok Chakra (AC). Like the PVC, MVC and Vr C, this award
is conferred by the President and is awarded for acts of gallantry, other than
in the face of the enemy on land, at sea, or in the air. The Ashok Chakra
shall be awarded for most conspicuous bravery or, some daring or pre-
eminent act of valour or self-sacrifice.

7. The Kirti Chakra (KC). This is conferred as above for conspicuous

gallantry not in the face of the enemy.

8. The Shaurya Chakra (SC). This is conferred for conspicuous

gallantry not is the face of enemy.

Award for Distinguished Service

9. Awards have also been instituted for distinguished service by defence

personnel. These are:-

(a) Param Vishisht Seva Medal (PVSM).

(b) Ati Vishisht Seva Medal (AVSM) .
(c) Vishisht Seva Medal (VSM).

10. Vayu Sena Medal (VM). The decoration is awarded for such
individual acts of exceptional devotion to duty or courage, which have special
significance for the Air Force. Officers and airmen of the regular Air Force
and officers and airmen of auxiliary Air Force, Air Defence Reserve and
Regular Reserve when called up, under Section 26 of the reserve and
auxiliary Air Force Act, 1952 are eligible for this award.

11. Mention-in-Despatches. Mention-in-Despatches has been instituted

for recognition of distinguished and meritorious service in operational areas
and acts of gallantry which are not of a sufficiently high order to warrant a
gallantry award.

58
 CAS / VCAS / AOC-in-C COMMENDATIONS

Introduction

12. Commendations are awarded for individual acts of gallantry,

distinguished service or devotion to duty performed either in operational or
non-operational areas, provided they are not of a sufficiently high order to
qualify for a Presidential award. The commendations are awarded twice in a
year i.e. on 26 Jan and 08 Oct.

13. CAS / VCAS / AOC-in-C commendations are awarded to personnel of

Air Force, Army and Navy including those in uniform and civilians paid out of
the defence budget. . It would also be awarded to any other civilian, who
renders valuable service for the greater cause of Air Force. These are
awarded to the personnel working under following jurisdictions:

(a) CAS Commendation. Personnel posted in any Air Force

establishment

(b) VCAS Commendation. Personnel working in any Directorate

/ Unit / Establishment directly under the administrative control of Air
HQ.

(c) AOC-in-C Commendation. Personnel posted in any unit /

Establishment under the control of Commands.

Initiation of Recommendations

14. Screening of names at Unit level is done. An individual who has been
awarded either a CAS / VCAS / AOC-in-C or equivalent commendation
should not be recommended in the same year unless the individual has
carried out specific task, which deserves a repeat of award within that year.

15. The individual being recommended should not have incurred any
punishment (disciplinary or administrative) in the preceding one-year from
date of initiation of the award.

16. Personnel commended by the CAS /VCAS / AOC-in-C are authorised

to wear the respective Commendation Badge, on all occasions whenever
service uniform is worn. The Commendation badge is not to be worn on
flying overalls/over-coats, dress with jersey and Mess dresses

59
Special Awards

17. Flight Safety Commendations. Every year 30 commendations by the

CAS would be earmarked for contribution made by personnel towards Flight
Safety. These are to be given to aircrew and technical personnel for avoiding
/ preventing accidents / incidents or to any other person for making an extra
ordinary contribution in the field of Flight Safety. All commands are to
scrutinize and forward their recommendations under the Flight Safety to
DAS.

18. Commendation to Sports Personnel. There has been a marked

absence of recommendations in respect of sports persons despite many of
them having excelled in their respective disciplines and brought laurels to the
Air Force at National and International level.

19. Appreciation by Air Officer Commanding. If an AOC / Stn Cdr of a

formation/unit or a CO may, if so desires, convey his appreciation to any
person under his Command on any matter which in his opinion warrants
such appreciation, but copies of such letter conveying appreciation will not
be placed in the personal records of the individual concerned.

20. Award of Army / Naval Commendations. Air Force personnel

posted to inter-services units Army or Navy units or formations can be
recommended for Army / Naval commendations as per respective service
procedure.

Must know

1. Types of Gallantry Awards.

Should know Points

2. Types of Commendations in IAF.

Could know Points

3. Correct order and ribbons of different Gallantry Awards.

MCQ

4. _____ award is awarded for acts of gallantry in the face of enemy:

(a) PVC (b) SC (c) AC (d) Kirti Chakra

60
5. ______ award is not awarded for acts of gallantry other than those in
the face of the enemy:

(a) Ashok Chakra (b) Kirti Chakra

(c) Shaurya Chakra (d) Vir Chakra

Fill In the blanks

6. Gallantry awards are of ______________ type.

7. __________ confers all the gallantry awards.

True/False

8. Vir Chakra is the highest gallantry award.

9. Personnel working in any Dte/Unit /Establishment directly under the

administrative control of Air HQ are awarded VCAS commendation.

VSA

10. Mention different type of gallantry awards in the face of enemy.

11. List out the gallantry awards other than those in the face of the
enemy.

SA

12. Write short note on “Gallantry Awards”.

61
JBPTC/GSK/1.10

CHAPTER 11

TERMS AND CONDITIONS OF SERVICE: AIRMEN

1. General. Airmen of the IAF are governed by the prescribed terms

and conditions of service laid down in AFI 12/S/48 as amended from time to
time.

2. Term of Engagement. Airmen are enrolled for an initial-term of

engagement of 20 years of regular service. Extension of service for a period
of three / six years after completion of the initial term to complete 23/26
years of regular service is granted to airman at the discretion of the Chief of
the Air Staff. Subsequent extension of service is granted for a period of three
years at a time or such shorter period as deemed necessary up to the age of
superannuation, i.e., 57 years.

3. Liability to serve anywhere. An airman is liable to serve with any

of the Defence Forces, of the Government of India in and outside India and
to go whenever and wherever ordered, by land, sea or air.

4. Reserve Liability. The period of service in the reserve will be as laid

down from time to time by competent authority. At present an airman is liable
to serve in the Regular Air Force Reserve for a period of two years on
termination of his term of regular engagement. In case an airman is
discharged from the Air Force at his own request before he completes the
initial period of regular service or such further extension as has been granted
to him, the unexpired portion of the period of regular service or the further
extension will be added to the period of his reserve liability. The period of
reserve liability can however be extended by the Central Government.

5. Rank of Entry. A candidate is enrolled in the Air Force in the rank

of Aircraftsman (U/T) (under training) in the trade and group for which he is
considered suitable. Candidates for Edn lnstr trade are enrolled in the rank of
Sgt (U/T) in Gp X.

6. Mustering to a Trade. On completion of training, the trainees who

are educationally suitable and considered to have attained the necessary
standard of efficiency in their trades are given trade tests. On passing this

62
test, they will be mustered to the trade in a classification according to the
marks obtained by them.

7. Pay and Allowances. Pay and allowances including conveyance

and travelling allowance of an airman will be regulated in accordance with
the regulations issued from time to time.

8. Promotion. Promotion is the term used to denote a raise in

substantive rank. It does not apply to change in classification from AC to
LAC. The promotion to substantive rank and appointment to an acting rank
will be regulated in accordance with regulations issued from time to time.

9. Accommodation. Single accommodation will be provided free to all

airmen. Free married accommodation will be provided to eligible married
airmen within the authorised scale.

10. Compensation in Lieu of Quarters (CILQ). Where free

accommodation cannot be provided to the airmen coming within the
authorized scale, due to non- availability of accommodation, an allowance
will be granted in lieu, if admissible under the rules issued from time to time.

11. Ration. Free ration will be issued to the airmen in accordance

with the authorized scale. Where free rations are not issued, cash allowance
will be given in lieu, in accordance with the regulations issued from time to
time.

12. Medical and Dental Treatment. Airmen are entitled to free medical
and dental treatment for themselves, their families and their dependents as
per the rules laid down in regulations of the Indian Air Force. The family of an
airman consists of his wife and children for this purpose.

13. Leave. An airman is entitled to various types of leave as per the

regulations in force. Leave, however, cannot be claimed as a matter of right.
Grant of leave is subject to service exigencies.

Temporary Duty/ Attachment

14. Temporary Duty. Whenever a specific duty is to be performed

outside the individual’s unit for a short period which either cannot be treated
as attachment/detachment, such duty is called as ‘Temporary Duty’.

15. Attachment. Transfer of an airman temporarily from one unit to

another for special duty and for a short period not exceeding 89 days is
known as ‘Attachment’.
63
16. Detachment. When an airman proceeds on attachment to another
unit, the term ‘Detachment’ is used to indicate that airman is detached from
the unit on attachment to his new unit.

17. Pension/Gratuity. An airman is entitled to a service pension and

gratuity on completion of his term of engagement or 15 years of reckonable
service.

18. Discharge from Service. An airman may be discharged from the

Service at any time for any of the following reasons:

(a) On account of medical unfitness.

(b) On account of unsatisfactory conduct.

(c) If found inefficient in his rank or trade and unwilling to accept

the reduction or re-mustering.

(d) If his Services are no longer required.

(e) At his own request, on fulfilling the conditions of his enrolment.

Must know Points

1. Terms and conditions of Service.

Should know Points

2. Pay and Allowances

Could know Points

3. Temporary Duty and Attachment.

MCQ

4. Initial term of engagement of an airmen is_____________.

(a) 20 Yrs (b) 18 Yrs (c) 26 Yrs (d)15 Yrs

5. An airman can serve up to the age of___________.

64
 (a) 60 Yrs (b) 58 Yrs (c) 57 Yrs (d) 55 Yrs
True and False

6. Airmen are enrolled for an initial term of 20 years.

7. Extension of service is granted for a period of 5 years.

Fill in the Blanks

8. Subsequent extension of service is granted for a period of ________.

9. Candidates of Edn Instr Trade are enrolled in the rank of _________.

VSA

10. What do you mean by term of engagement?

11. Differentiate between Attachment and Detachment.

SA

12. What are the various reasons for which an airman may be discharged
from service?

65
JBPTC/GSK/1.11

CHAPTER 12

PAY BOOK, IDENTITY CARD, CARE AND CUSTODY

1. Identity Card. Indian Armed Forces Identity Card IAFZ-2015 is

an official document issued to the Defence personnel for establishing their
identity.

2. Issue of Identity Card. The Indian Armed Forces Identity Card

with photograph is issued to all the ranks of IAF, on their passing out after
completion of their training. During training, the trainees are issued with
Temporary Identity Cards IAFZ-2015 (B).

3. Obligation to Carry. All personnel are to carry their Identity Cards

in person at all times on duty. It is to be kept in the left breast pocket of
uniform shirt. In addition to this all should carry air warrior code card in right
breast pocket. The cards are not to be carried when engaged in PT or
organized games and also while in civil clothes, unless required for purposes
of identification. AFIC is not to be carried while flying over enemy territory.

4. Care and Custody. The card is not to be folded and special care is
to be taken to ensure that it does not become defaced or dirty. No money or
other papers are to be kept along with it. In order to safeguard it while
travelling, it is advisable to keep Identity Card in a pocket stitched in the
inner vest or it should be tied with a small chain and hung around the neck
Every day morning, before proceeding for work, we must ensure that we
carry the Identity Card. When not carried on the person, the Identity Card is
to be kept under lock-and-key.

5. Losses. The loss of AFIC is a serious matter because it may lead

to wrongful usage. If the lost AFIC reaches in wrong hands, the enemy agent
may get an access to enter inside AF units. Therefore, in the event of loss of
the Identity Card, the loser must immediately report the loss by fastest
means and in writing to the Commanding Officer. In addition, if one is away
from his unit (on leave or otherwise), the loss is to be reported to the nearest
police station. If travelling by train, to the Railway Police/IAF Police or the
nearest RTO if any.

6. If it is proved that the Identity Card was lost due to negligence, the
loser is liable for disciplinary action. The airman will get either a red ink entry
66
or black ink entry as punishment, which will be incorporated in his service
documents. This can have an adverse effect on his future career.

7. Replacement. In case of loss, a fresh Identity Card will be

issued only after authority has been received from Air Headquarters for fresh
issue. Identity Cards are to be replaced in the following circumstances:

(a) On change of name.

(b) When rendered unfit on account of fair, wear and tear over a
period of not less than three years.

(c) When holder becomes unidentifiable with reference to their

photograph as result of:

(i) Facial expression over a length of time not less than 5

years, or
(ii) Facial expression as a result of accident, injuries on the
face or owing to the growth, removal of beard/ moustaches on
medical advice.

(d) Loss of identity card not attributed to negligence.

(e) Any other occasion as specified by Provost Marshal (Air HQ).

8. Withdrawals of Identity Cards. Identity Cards will be withdrawn from

individuals in the following circumstances:

(a) On receipt of discharge orders/ 01 year before discharge when

the individual renders unwillingness for further service.

(b) In cases of death.

(c) Commanding Officers of hospitals are to withdraw Identity Card

in respect of patients when placed on SI/DI (Seriously ill/Dangerously
ill) list.

Pay Book

9. Pay Book contains two parts:-

(a) Airmen Pay Book Pt I (IAF (F) 1526 Pt I. This contains

important information about the individual pertaining to his service.
The airman’s service number, rank, name, trade, nearest railway
67
 station, particulars of next of kin, date of promotion, classification,
particulars of leave granted, award of medals, decorations, results of
medical examination, inoculation etc. are mentioned/ annotated in it.

(b) Airmen Pay Book Pt II (IAF (F) 1526 Pt II) Airmen get their
pay and certain special allowances through their pay book. The pay
book contains instructions regarding its use and custody and entries
regarding the airmen’s entitlement of pay and allowances, authorized
deductions etc.

10. Care and Custody It is the responsibility of every airman to

ensure that the pay book is kept in a neat condition. It should not be folded.
Airmen should also guard against its loss. When the pay book is lost, the
Commanding Officer must be informed immediately. If it is found that the
airman has lost the pay book due to negligence, the loser is liable to be
punished.

11. While receiving pay, every airman should ensure that he gets pay as
per his entitlement. If there is any discrepancy, he must report to the
Accounts Officer at the earliest.

12. Replacement. Pay Book will be replaced on completion of 40

payment entries. Airmen are to deposit the pay book with the Accts sec after
the 40th entry is made in the pay book as no further payment will be made till
fresh pay book is issued.

Pay Parade

13. General Pay Parade. General Pay Parades are held once a
month on the last working day except for the month of March, for which it is
held on the 1st April and in case, 1st is a holiday, on the next working day.
Now a days normally all payments are disbursed through banks.

14. Casual Pay Parade. Casual pay parades are conducted, during the
month on different dates, for those proceeding on leave or those who could
not attend the monthly pay parade on the last working day of the month.
They are also held for payment of various allowances due to the airmen.

Sick Parade

15. All personnel of Station/Unit who require medical attendance are

examined by SMO/MOs of the Station. It is not possible to attend each
patient at different timings with the limited staff available in the medical flight.
To save man hours and provide better treatment in every station the sick
68
parade is conducted at specified time daily. Reporting sick is explained in the
following paragraphs.

16. Reporting Sick. Any person who is sick or injured must ‘report
sick’ to the Medical Officer at the specified time. The Service provides
prompt medical aid for sick persons. When reporting sick, airman must carry
his small kit and give his particulars to the Orderly Sergeant who will enter
them in the sick report form (AFMSF-44). Those reporting sick are to march
to the MI Room where the roll call is taken before carrying out the medical
inspection. Sick parade takes place in the morning. It is an offence to be
absent from the sick parade, once a person has reported sick.

17. Special Sick Report. In case of emergencies like injuries

and sudden serious illness when it is critical and cannot wait till the next sick
report timings, airmen can report ‘special sick’. The Special Sick Report
Form will raised by the Section Commander during working hours and by the
Orderly Officer after working hours. This form is to be carried by the person
to the SMC when reporting Special Sick. If he is seriously ill and cannot go to
the SMC, he may request for ambulance.

Must Know Points

1. Issue, Obligation to carry, Care & Custody of Identity Card and Pay
Book & Procedure for all parades.

Should Know Points

2. Replacement of Identity Card and Pay Book

Could Know Points

3. Withdrawal Conditions of Identity Card

MCQ

4. IAFF (F) 1526 (Pt II) is ____________.

(a) Pay Book, Airmen (b) Kit Inventory

(c) Identity Card (d) None of them

5. IAF(Z) 2015 is _______________.

(a) Pay Book, Airmen (b) Kit Inventory

(c) Indian Armed Forces Identity Card (d) None of them
69
True or False

6. IAF (Z) 2015 is issued to trainees.

7. During training, trainees are issued with temporary identity card.

Fill in the blanks

8. The form number of pay book (Pt II) of airmen is ______________.

9. The form number of Identity card of airmen is _________________.

VSA

10. What are the occasions when Identity Card is not to be carried?

11. What are the points to be kept in mind for care and custody of Identity
Card?

12. What is casual pay parade?

SA

13. What are the circumstances under which Identity Card may be
replaced?

14. Write short notes on ‘General Pay Parade and Sick Parade’.

70
JBPTC/GSK/1.12

CHAPTER 13

BOOK IN/OUT, IN & OUT OF BOUND AREAS

Out of Bound Areas

1. For the purpose of maintaining discipline and to ensure high

standards of health, it is important that certain places or localities are not to
be visited by Service personnel. These places are known as ‘Out of Bounds’
areas. For discipline and security, certain places within the camp are also
placed out of bounds.

2. IAF Police normally patrol the ‘Out of Bound’ areas. Any Service
personnel found there, is liable to be punished.

3. The ‘Out of Bound’ areas are published in Station Standing Orders.

From time to time, it may be necessary to place additional areas ‘Out of
Bounds’, e.g., Cinema houses and restaurants in case of outbreak of
epidemics in the camp or city. Certain places may be put ‘In Bounds’ again.
Information about these will be published in Station Routine Orders and if the
change is of a permanent nature, it will be included in or deleted from the
Station Standing Orders. Generally the list of out of bound areas includes:

(a) Streets or localities those are unhygienic.

(b) Unclean hotels and restaurants.
(c) Certain places of public entertainment.
(d) Brothels.

Booking-Out/ Booking-In

4. Booking-Out. Airmen of the rank of Cpl and below including airmen

trainees are to ‘book-out’ at the Guard Room when they go out of the camp.
They are also to ‘book-in’ when they return to camp. Special registers are
maintained at the Guard Room, wherein they enter their Service particulars
and the time of their going-out and coming-in. The timings for booking in and
out differ as per the local conditions of station and season.

5. The purpose of maintaining the booking-in/booking-out registers is to

keep a record of all the airmen who have gone out of the camp. In case an
airman does not return to the camp in time, due to any reason, he is
considered as absent.
71
6. Airmen can book-out every day after duty hours. But airmen trainees
may be permitted to do so only on Saturdays, Sundays and days prior to
holidays during specified hours.

7. Dress and Turn-out. Airmen must ensure the following when

booking-out:

(a) The uniform or civil dress should be neat and well pressed.
(b) They should have proper shave and hair cut.
(c) Their conduct should be soldier-like.
(d) They must keep to ‘In Bound’ areas.
(e) They should not get involved in quarrel or affray with civilians.
(f) When in trouble, they must contact the IAF/Military police.

8. Booking-In. While re-entering the camp, airmen are to book-in at the

Guard Room. Failure to report back to the camp, within the laid down
timings, is an offence and will result in punishment.

Must Know Points

1. Out of bound areas, Book-in and Book-out procedure

Should Know Points

2. Dress and Turnout while going on book-out

Could Know Points

3. Conduct of IAF personnel while booking out.

MCQ

4. Information about ‘Out of bound’ areas are published in _______.

(a) Station Standing Orders (b) Station routine orders

(c) Notice Board (d) None of these

72
5. Which one of the following is not included in ‘Out of bound areas’?

(a) Streets that are unsanitary (b) Unclean hotels

(c) Brothels (d) Places of worship

True or False

6. ‘Out of bound’ areas are always located outside the camp.

7. IAF Police normally patrol the out of bound areas.

Fill in the blanks

8. Information about out of bound areas is published in

______________.

9. Airmen of the rank of _________ are to book out when going outside
the camp area.

VSA

10. What is meant by Out of bound areas?

11. What is the purpose of booking out/booking in?

SA

12. What is the dress and turn out an airman should ensure while booking
out of the camp?

73
JBPTC/GSK/1.13

CHAPTER 14

LEAVE RULES AND REGULATIONS

AND BRIEF ASPECTS ON MCO

Introduction

1. Detailed rules governing the leave entitlement of Airmen are

contained in DSR (I) LR. The grant of leave to an airman is entirely subject to
exigencies of the service. Leave is a privilege and cannot be claimed as
matter of right. The object of long leave is to take a break from the
environment one works in, the Airman taking leave should not spend the
same at their station of posting and this tendency should be discouraged
unless, a very urgent compelling reasons require so.

Types of Leave

2. An airman is eligible for the following types of leave:-

(a) Annual Leave.

(b) Casual Leave.
(c) Sick Leave.
(d) Special Casual Leave.

General Rules

3. Leave is a privilege and cannot be claimed as a matter of right. Grant

of leave is always subject to the exigencies of service.

4. Sundays and other gazetted holidays may be prefixed/suffixed to the

leave period at the discretion of the sanctioning authority. Such Sundays and
holidays will not be counted against the number of days for which leave is
granted.

Annual Leave

5. Airmen including MWOs and WOs may be granted annual leave as

follows:-

74
 (a) 60 days in a calendar year or 90 days in the second calendar
year if no leave has been taken during the previous year.
(b) 120 days in the third year if no leave is taken during the
preceding two years. This is applicable only to airmen serving outside
India in Embassies.

(c) Annual leave granted in a year may extend to the following

year, without prejudice to the leave entitlement of the year to which it
extends. But further annual leave will not be admissible until the
individual again performs duty in the New Year.

Casual Leave

6. Maximum amount of casual leave admissible in a calendar year is 30

days. Normally casual leave is not granted for more than 10 days at a time,
but in exceptional cases this period may be extended up to 30 days.

7. Casual leave cannot be combined with any other type of leave and it
cannot be accumulated or carried over to next year. If casual leave is
extending up to next year then the number of days of casual leave falling in
next year will be debited in the casual leave account of that year.

Sick Leave

8. The entire period spent in an Army/Navy/Air Force or a recognised

Civil Hospital under proper authority is treated as on duty. On discharge from
hospital, an airman may be granted sick leave on the recommendation of the
medical authorities. Sick Leave is normally debited against an individual’s
entitlement of annual leave account. Any period in excess of this is treated
as sick leave.

9. Special Casual Leave

(a) Special Casual Leave may be allowed to an airman not

exceeding 30 days for taking part in National and International events
(not on personal capacity).

(b) Personnel or their spouse, who undergo sterilisation operation,

will be granted special casual leave not exceeding six working days to
undergo such operation and to have some rest which is necessary
immediately after the operation or to look after their spouse.

Encashment of Annual Leave

75
10. An airman can avail himself of the concession of cash payment in lieu
of annual/accumulated annual leave to his credit on the date of retirement or
release. The maximum period of encashment permissible to airmen, NCs/(E)
is 300 days only, which is to be accumulated at the rate of not more than 30
days per year before retirement.

11. Service personnel can encash 10 days annual leave at the time of
availing LTC/FRW to the extent of sixty days during the entire service career.
The leave encashed in conjunction with LTC will not be deducted from the
maximum amount of accumulated annual leave encashable at the time of
retirement. Annual leave will also has to be availed simultaneously while
taking benefits of encashment of annual leave of that year during LTC. A
ceiling of 30 days encashment in a calendar year also includes encashment
of 10 days A/L with LTC. To get this benefit individual should have
accumulated a minimum of 30 days of leave encashment to his credit.

MOVEMENT CONTROL OFFICE (MCO)

12. Introduction. It has been observed that Jawan / Sailors / Air Warriors
move without reservation while going on leave or temporary duty. The
reasons for these moves are service exigencies or due to sudden leave etc
which compel move of personnel at short notice. Due to such unplanned
move of service personnel there will be inconvenience during marked
increase in act. Therefore movements are to be planned in advance to
ensure travel in comfort with security by the service personnel.

13. Directorate General Movement (Army). To ensure that timely

placement of men, material weapons equipments etc the Directorate General
Movement (Army) has set up various movement control office (MCO’s) at
various railway station which ensure that individuals travel with utmost
comfort and security.

14. Defence Department Quota (DDQ). DDQ of 7163 berth exists all
over India in various trains. Details of DDQ quota held by various MCOs are
displayed in the MCOs offices and also at various Air Force units.

15. Emergency Quota. In addition to DDQ quota available at various

MCOs at railway Stn. Emergency quotas are head by ADG (Mov). The
information regarding emergency quota can be held from MCOs.

16. Reservation on Warrants / Concession Vouchers. Defence

personnel can get seat / accommodation from DD quota 60 days in advance
at all the stations for all cases and all trains, however, to facilitate availability
76
of DD quota (MCO) for emergency cases at short notice, it is advisable that
reservation by all ranks should be done by defence PRS located at various
remote areas for defence personnel like transit camp Jammu, etc and at civil
reservation counter when time permits.

17. If a person is proceeding on leave / TD at a short notice and do not

get confirm reservation, then to get seat from MCO he has to approach MCO
office with the waitlisted ticket and has to check the availability of seat in
particular train. If seat is available he has to fill the form with PNR No and
deposit the same to MCO office. MCO office will endorse DDQ stamp as the
ticket and inform the personnel to check for the seat in coach No as informed
by MCO.

18. No reservation shall be made unless the railway warrants or

concessional voucher are exchanged for railway tickets or on payment from
railway booking counter. Reservation through MCO is done on first come first
service basis.

19. Reservation and Submission of Chart by MCO. Generally the

reservation is done on all days including Sundays/holidays. The personnel
must keep in mind the time of chart being submitted by the MCO to the
railways is 24 hrs in advance as the final charts are made by railways.

20. Procedure for Cancellation of Reservation. If the movement of

personnel moving on T/D or leave is cancelled due to service exigencies or
personal reason and the reservation has been done through MCO then that
person must intimate MCO at least 48 hrs before the departure of train so
that that seat can be given/allotted to other defence personnel who are in
need.

21. If the reservation has been done on free railway warrant, then
individual should approach the station master along with official letter well in
advance and obtain surrender certificate from railway authority.

22. Reservation of Tickets. Due to late coming trains service personnel

miss their re-validation of onward journey ticket only after which reservation
can be sought in the next available train either from MCO or from the
railways. In such case, we must immediately approach the station master/Dy
station superintendents (Commercial) who have the authority to revalidate
the tickets by giving due endorsement “Re-valid for next available train”.
Therefore, you can approach the MCO or any railway reservation counter for
reservation.

77
23. Superfast Charges from Defence Personnel. Railway board has
agreed to include superfast charges as cost of warrant which are not to be
paid in cash by defence personnel, Accordingly defence personnel while
travailing on warrant on duty/leave will no longer have to pay reservation
charges/supplementary charges in cash (Auth ADG (Mov) Army HQ letter
No. 12692/QMOVC dated 18 Apr 2001).

24. Conclusion. ADG (Movement) plays a very important role in the

functioning of MCO, who provides seats/accommodation to service
personnel proceeding on leave/TD due to short notice, for comfortable and
safe journey of the personnel. However the safety and comfortable journey
are in the hands of the personnel if they can plan their leave in advance as
per requirement to avoid discomfort during journey.

Must know Points

1. Types of Leave.
2. Role of MCO.

Should know Points

3. Number of days permissible for each category of leave.

4. Reservation of tickets through MCO.
5. Encashment of leave.

Could Know Points

6. Quotas in MCOs.

MCQ

7. Service personnel can encash ….. days annual leave at the time of
availing LTC/FRW to the extent of …… days during the entire service career.

(a) 10/30 (b) 30/60 (c) 10/60 (d) 60/90

8. In a calendar year an Airmen may be granted annual leave of______.

(a) 60 days (b) 90 days (c) 50 days (d) None

True/ False

9. Airmen may be granted annual leave of 90 days in a calendar year.

78
10. Airmen may be granted annual leave of 90 days in the second
calendar year if no leave has been taken during the previous year.
Fill in the Blanks

11. An airman is eligible for _______ types of leave for participating in

National/International sports event.

12. ________________________ has set up various movement control

office (MCO’s) at various railway station.

13. Leave is a ________ and cannot be claimed as a matter of right.

VSA

14. What is leave encashment?

15. On which occasion an airman can avail special casual leave?

SA

16. Write short note on “Special Casual Leave”.

17. Write a short note on Reservation on warrants / concession vouchers.

Important Telephone numbers of various MCO’s

(Only for Reference)
Locations Telephone No.

166 MC Det Guwhati 0361 – 2841814

157 MC Det Tinsukia 0374 – 2314851
412 MC Det H. Nizamuddin 011 – 23237980
170 MC Det Jammu 0191 – 2470795
153 MC Det Chandigarh 0172 – 2641034
167 MC Det Ambala 0171 – 2645138
418 MC Det Bikaner 0151 – 2546893
102 MC Det Allahabad 09935209303
432 MC Det Chennai 044 – 25350048
131 MC Det Mumbai Central 022 – 23014753
413 MC Det Howrah 033 – 266065486
104 MC Det Sealdah 033 – 23506412
431 MC Det Belgaum 0831 – 2422327
143 MC Det New Delhi 011 – 23237984
79
JBPTC/GSK/1.13

CHAPTER 15

RECLASSIFICATION AND REMUSTERING

Introduction

1. Indian Air Force has plenty of scope of advancement for those who
are efficient and professional. From the level of an Aircraftsman, an airman
can rise to the status of a Master Warrant Officer. The rise is in two stages -
reclassification as a Leading Aircraftsman and promotion thereafter.

Reclassification

2. Definition. Reclassification denotes the transition either upward or

downward between the two classifications of Aircraftsmen, i.e. Aircraftsman
(AC) and Leading Aircraftsman (LAC). On completion of training, an Airman
(U/T) is examined by the Regional Examination Board (REB), Training. If he
obtains minimum of 45% marks in aggregate, he is classified as AC and if he
obtains a minimum of 70% marks in aggregate, he is classified directly as
LAC.

3. Mustering to a Trade. On completion of training, the trainees who

are educationally suitable and considered to have attained the necessary
standard of efficiency in their trade are given Trade Tests. On passing this
test, they are mustered to the trade in a classification according to the marks
obtained by them. A minimum of 45% marks in workmanship and
educational examination will constitute a passing standard of Aircraftsman.

Remustering

4. Definition. Remustering means a change in trade of an airman. It

offers scope to airmen, particularly in the lower trade groups for improvement
of their prospects and advancement in service. A list of trades open for re-
mustering is notified to all units by Air Force Record Office. Eligible airmen
may apply for re-mustering.

5. A differentiation has been made between remustering of trade and

change of trade. They have been defined as under

80
 (a) Remustering of Trade. An airman shifting from Gp ‘Y’ to Gp
‘X’ for enhancement of career is called Remustering.

(b) Change of Trade. An airman shifting from Gp ‘X’ or Gp ‘Y’ to

Gp ‘Y’ due to medical reasons, inefficiency or not passing promotion
exams within three permissible chances may be given the option of
change of trade.

6. Types of Re-mustering. There are two types of remustering, viz.

(a) Direct re-mustering.

(b) Re-mustering after a course of instruction.

7. Direct Re-mustering. This implies remustering without undergoing

a course of instruction and is permitted in exceptional cases only.

8. Re-mustering after a Course of Instruction. An airman mustered in

a particular trade and group may be re-mustered as stated below:

(a) To another trade in the same group or any higher group.

(b) To an allied trade in the same or higher group is known as

conversion.

(c) On Grounds of Medical Unfitness or Redundancy of Trade. In

such cases, re-mustering is possible to any other trade in higher or
same or lower group for which the airman is recommended and found
fit.

(d) To Lower Group Trade. This is permitted only in case of

inefficiency or misconduct.

Eligibility Conditions for Remustering

9. For re-mustering to another trade in the same or higher group, an

airman must fulfill the following conditions:

(a) The airman should have the necessary educational

qualifications for the trade/group in which he volunteers for re-
mustering.

(b) Airman should volunteer for remustering within five years of

service from the date of enrolment.
81
 (c) Should be medically fit for new trade.

(d) Should be willing to serve for a period of six years after

completion of re-mustering course.

(e) Should have completed at least one year of service after ab-
initio trade training.

(f) Should have attained the classification of LAC.

(g) Should not have incurred any red ink entry during past two
years and black ink entry in the year of volunteering for re-mustering.

(h) Should not have been assessed less than ‘SAT’ in trade
proficiency in the last report.

10. However, re-mustering to the following trades is also open for eligible
airmen and is governed as per existing terms and conditions.

(a) Flight Gunner (Flt Gun)

(b) Flight Engineer (Flt Eng)
(c) Flight Signaller (Flt Sig)
(d) Para Jumping Instructor (PJI)
(e) Cryptographer
(f) Education Instructor (Edn Instr)

11. Extra weightage will be given for remustering, if an airman possesses

a suitable higher educational qualification.

12. Extra weightage is also given to outstanding sportsmen who have

represented the IAF/Services in National and international Sports Events.

Must know Points

1. Eligibility conditions of remustering.

Should know Points

2. Types of remustering

82
Could Know Points

3. Trades open for remustering subjected to fulfillment of existing terms

and conditions.

MCQ

4. From the level of an AC, an airman can rise to the status of a___

(a) JWO (b) SGT (c) WO (d) MWO

5. Airman should volunteer for remustering within----------year of service.

(a) Four (b) Five (c) Six (d) One

True/ False

6. On completion of training, an Airman (U/T) is examined by the

--------------------.

7. The minimum marks to pass as a direct LAC is 70 % in aggregate.

Fill in the Blanks

8. On completion of training, an Airman (U/T) is examined by the _____.

9. Airmen who apply for remustering should be willing to serve for a

period of -------- years after completion of re-mustering course.

VSA

10. Define reclassification.

11. What are the different types of remustering?

SA

12. What are the eligibility conditions for remustering?

83
JBPTC/GSK/1.15

CHAPTER 16

PAY AND ALLOWANCES: AIRMEN

Introduction

1. Pay and allowances of airmen are credited in the Individual Running

Ledger Accounts (IRLAs) maintained centrally at Air Force Central Accounts
Office (AFCAO). They are paid to an airman monthly in arrears. The
accounting unit of an airman maintains Guide to Cash Issue Card (GCIC) in
soft copy only to record pay and allowances due to him which are accounted
on IRLAs. IRLA-Cum-Pay slip are issued by AFCAO monthly in respect of all
airmen and with the help of it, payments are made to the airmen.

2. In addition to pay and allowances payable through IRLAs, certain

other entitled allowances are also payable to airmen and these are
accounted locally at units as per regulations issued from time to time. These
locally paid allowances are accounted on Unit Ledger Cards maintained at
Unit.

Commencement and Rates of Pay

4. Airmen receive pay from the date of enrolment as notified in the

Personnel Occurrence Reports of the Unit.

5. Pay and Allowances through IRLA

(a) Pay in band

(b) Grade pay
(c) Gp X pay
(d) Military Service Pay
(e) Good Conduct Badge Pay+ Classification Pay
(f) Dearness Allowance
(g) Transport allowance + Dearness Allowance
(h) HRA + L/FEE+FAA
(j) Comp Allowance
(k) CPMA
(l) Flying / PJI Allowance
(m) Leave Ration Allowance (except trainees)
(n) Gallantry Awards Allowance
(o) Spl Clothing/SF Allowance
84
 (p) Short Hand and Foreign Language Allowance
(q) Air Steward /Aeronautical Technical Allowance /FJA
(r) Officiating + Airworthiness Allowance
(s) Family Planning Allowance
(t) Bhutan/ Siachen /ISA
(u) Hindi/Sports/Instructor Pay
(v) Flight charge /Special Force
(w) Award for meritorious/long service medals

6. Allowances not Adjusted through IRLA

(a) Compensation in Lieu of Quarters (CILQ). All airmen who

are within the authorised married establishment (AME) of a unit are
entitled for free married accommodation. Wherever, sufficient
accommodation is not available they are paid CILQ. The rates of
CILQ are rank specific and depends on city wise classification. It is
incommensurate with the grade pay. Individuals have the option to
choose CILQ/HRA whichever is more beneficial. The rate of this
allowance increases by 25% every time the DA on revised pay bands
goes up by 50%.

(b) Living Out Ration Allowance. LORA @ Rs 65.09 per

day is being paid to living out personnel only through unit ledger card
as local allowances. It changes from time to time as notified.

(c) Transport Allowance. This is admissible to personnel

where the facility of Government transport for commuting between
place of residence and place of duty is not provided, at the rates
applicable as per the grade pay and classification of cities.

Other allowances

7. There are other allowances to which airmen are entitled to:

(a) Children Education Allowance (CEA).

(b) Hostel Subsidy.

(c) Composite Transfer grant on posting only (Pay band+Grade

pay+ MSP+ Classification pay).

(d) One time Outfit Allowance. When an airman is promoted from

Sgt to JWO.

85
(e) Signaller (Aircrew). Flight Signaller will receive the same
rate of pay as applicable to airmen of equivalent ranks in Group ‘X’ as
under :

(i) Signaller (u/t) –– Substantive ranks in ground

trade
(ii) Signaller III –– Cpl
(iii) Signaller II –– Sgt
(iv) Signaller I –– JWO
(v) Warrant Signaller –– WO
(vi) Master Signaller –– MWO

(f) Flight Engineers/Gunners. These categories of airmen will

receive pay as applicable to other airmen of their basic trades.

(g) Honorary Commissioned Officer. Rates are given in

Appendix ‘A’ to this Chapter for Honorary Flying Officer and Honorary
Flight Lieutenant.

(h) GCB Pay. Airmen upto JWOs are entitled to draw GCB Pay.
Details of these entitlements are as follows:

Qualifying Service Amount Admissible

For 1st Badge (4 years service) Rs.80/- pm
For 2nd Badge (8 years service) Rs. 160/- pm
For 3rd Badge (12 years service) Rs. 240/- pm

(j) Composite Personnel Maintenance Allowance. It is

given to all airmen through IRLAs monthly in arrears. The details of
this CPMA are given below:

Sl No Name of Allowance Rate

1 Hair Cutting Allowance 20/-
2 Washing Allowance 60/-
3 Rum Allowance 30/-
4 Soap Toilet Allowance 20/-
5 Clothing Maintenance 20/-
Total 150/-

Washing allowance is authorised only to those airmen wherein

their posting unit, services of dhobis are not provided.

86
 PAY STRUCTURE: AIRMEN

8. A new pay scale for the airmen under the provision of SAFI/1/S/08
came into force w.e.f 01 Jan 2006. The rates of pay for various ranks/groups
are as follows:-
GROUP ‘X’
REVISED PAY STRUCTURE
PAY PAY BAND/ GRADE
RANK MSP X PAY
BAND SCALE PAY
AC PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2000 2000 1400
LAC PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2000 2000 1400
CPL PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2400 2000 1400
SGT PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2800 2000 1400
JWO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4200 2000 1400
WO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4600 2000 1400
MWO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4800 2000 1400

GROUP ‘Y’

REVISED PAY STRUCTURE

PAY PAY BAND/

RANK GRADE PAY MSP
BAND SCALE
AC PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2000 2000
LAC PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2000 2000
CPL PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2400 2000
SGT PB – 1 5200 – 20200 2800 2000
JWO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4200 2000
WO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4600 2000
MWO PB – 2 9300 – 34800 4800 2000

87
 HONORARY COMMISSIONED OFFICERS

PAY PAY BAND/ GRADE

RANK MSP X PAY
BAND SCALE PAY
HFO PB – 3 15600 – 39100 5400 6000 NA
HFL PB – 3 15600 – 39100 6100 6000 NA

9. Stipend in Respect of Recruits on Entry. Recruits are authorized

for stipend of an amount of Rs 8550 per month.

10. All recruits receive stipend during training .On successful completion
of training they are paid, with retrospective effect, an amount equal to the
minimum of the pay scale including grade pay, Gp X pay (if applicable),DA
and allowances of the trade allotted to them, less the stipend already paid to
them. The rate of stipend will be increased by 50 % every time DA payable
goes up by 50 %.

MACPS (Modified Assured Career Progression Scheme).

11. This scheme aims to grant 3 financial upgradation to all airmen and
NCs(E) at the interval of 8/16/24 years of continuous service. Financial up
gradation under the scheme will be admissible whenever a person has spent
8 years continuously in the same grade pay. However, the individual must
have cleared the requisite promotion examination.

12. There will be no change in rank badge or designation. However,

financial and certain other benefits linked to pay like FAA, HRA, CILQ, house
building advance, transport allowance, travel entitlements and terminal
benefits would be admissible

Must know Points

1. Pay and allowances- Airmen.

Should know Points

2. Allowances adjusted through IRLA.

88
3. Allowances not adjusted through IRLA.

Could know Points

4. Amount admissible for other allowances.

MCQ

5. Individual Running Ledger Account (IRLA) in respect of airmen is

maintained at________.

(a) AFRO (b) AFCAO

(c) Parent unit (d) All of these

6. The rate of IInd badge GCB is

(a) Rs 40/- PM (b) Rs 80/- PM

(c) Rs 160/- PM (d) Rs 100/- PM

True/ False

7. Outfit allowance is authorised for an Airman promoted from JWO to

WO.

8. Unit Ledger Card in respect of an airman is maintained at his

accounting unit.

Fill in the Blanks

9. Airmen receive pay from the date of __________as notified in the

Personnel Occurrence Reports of the Unit

10. ____________ is authorised only to those airmen wherein their

posting unit, services of dhobis are not provided.

VSA

11. List out various rates of GCB pay.

12. List out the pay and allowances which are adjusted through IRLA.

SA

13. Write short note on “CILQ”.

89
JBPTC/GSK/1.16
CHAPTER 17

PROMOTION EXAMINATIONS FOR AIRMEN

AND ROLE OF GEB/REB

Promotions

1. The term is used to denote a rise in substantive rank. It therefore,

does not apply to the change in classification from AC to LAC. The
promotions of airmen are categorised as:

(a) Time Scale

(b) Selective

2. Time Scale Promotions. Promotions upto the rank of Sgt is on time

scale basis. An airman is eligible for promotion on fulfilling the conditions
specified from time to time.

3. Selective Promotions. Promotion to the rank of JWO and above

is by selection subject to fulfilling the conditions laid down.

4. Reclassification to LAC. Reclassification to LAC will be time

bound on completion of two years of service except those airmen who have
been categorised exceptional during trade training and pass out as direct
LAC by scoring 70 % marks.

5. Promotion Examinations

(a) LAC to Cpl: Test of Skill-Cpl Promotion Examination (TOS-

CPE). Promotion to the rank of Cpl is time-scale subject to fulfilling
following conditions:-

(i) The airman should be attested.

(ii) Should have been reclassified as LAC.

(iii) Should have completed three years of service as LAC or

should have completed five years of reckonable service,
without any break, with at least one year service as LAC.

90
 (iv) Promotion to the rank of Cpl is not limited by the number
of establishment vacancies available.

(v) Successful completion of Module –II.

(vii) Airmen are to clear Test of skill-CPE conducted by

Regional Examination Board (REB) Zonal.

(b) Failing to pass TOS-CPE in three attempts will render an

airman ineligible for promotion to the rank of Cpl

(c) Cpl to Sgt promotion.: Test of Skill-Sgt Promotion

Examination (TOS-SPE) Promotion to the rank of Sgt is time
scale and the time frame for this has been fixed at thirteen years of
service for all trades and groups subject to passing out requisite
promotion examination conducted by REB within the three chances.
Also successful completion of module III is required. Airmen of the
rank of Cpl after completion of eight years of service are eligible for
the Promotion.

(d) Sgt to JWO/JWO to WO/WO to MWO. Promotion to the rank

of JWO and above are authorised against the vacancies accruing
during the period based on their merit and seniority. Passing of Test
of Skill-JWO Promotion Examination (TOS-JPE) before the
preparation of promotion panel is mandatory for promotion from Sgt to
JWO. There is no promotion exam for the promotion to the rank of
WO & MWO.

(e) The minimum length of service required to be considered for

promotion in different grades is as follows:

Rank Minimum Length of Service

GD-III GD-II GD-I

Sgt to JWO 17-19Yrs 20-23Yrs >23Yrs

JWO to WO 23-25Yrs 26-29Yrs >29Yrs
WO to MWO 28-30Yrs 31-34Yrs >34Yrs

Recommendation for Promotion

6. In addition to the assessment, an airman’s suitability for higher rank is

considered before promotion/appointment to a higher rank. This suitability is
adjudged from the recommendation for promotion submitted in respect of all
91
airmen from Cpl to Sgt. The airman who is “Not Recommended” will be
informed by the CO of the reason for not being recommended. This is done
in order to offer him an opportunity to improve.
ROLE OF GEB/ REBs

Groundcrew Examining Board (GEB):

7. Groundcrew Examining Board is located at Chandigarh. It comes

under the functional control of Air HQs (Directorate of Education). It is
responsible for the following:

(a) To organize and conduct career progression examination for all

airmen in the IAF
.
(b) To suggest methods (including changes in syllabus and
Training Technique) to improve upon the deficiencies in skills.

(c) To exercise functional control over REBs (Regional

Examination Boards)

8. Presently GEB has been designated as the hub centre for conducting
Online Testing and Evaluation System (OTES).

Regional Examination Boards (REBs)

9. Role of REBs is to conduct career progression examination for all

airmen in the IAF upto the rank of JWO. There are five zonal REBs. They
are as follows:

(a) REB (North) - Chandigarh

(b) REB (Central ) - Kanpur
(c) REB (East) . - Guwahati
(d) REB (West) - Begumpet
(e) REB (South) - Tambaram

10. REB (Training). Its role is to conduct all parts of final examinations
including practical and viva-voce of airmen trainees at all the Training
Institutes of Training Command (TC). It is also responsible to conduct
examination for all personnel in the IAF at the end of each capsule at the
Training Institutes.

Must Know Points

1. Eligibility for Reclassification to LAC.

92
2. Number of chances permitted to pass any promotion examination.

Should Know Points

3. Rules for Substantive Promotion.

4. Location of REBs.

Could Know Points.

5. New Promotion Policy.

6. Role of GEB/REB.

MCQ

7. The length of service in years required to be considered for promotion

of a Sgt to JWO in Gd- III is

(a) 17-19 (b) 20-23 (c) >23 (d) 15-16

Fill in the Blanks

8. Successful completion of ________ is necessary for promotion to the

rank of Cpl.

9. Airmen are to clear Test of skill-CPE conducted by____________ .

True/False

10. Promotion to the higher ranks will be made only on the basis of
performance in promotion exam.

11. Promotion to the rank of JWO is time scale.

12. REB (W) is situated at Gandhinagar.

VSA

13. Write a note on minimum length of service required for promotion to

the rank of Sgt to JWO, JWO to WO and WO to MWO.
SA

14. What are the eligibility conditions for promotion to the rank of Cpl.
93
JBPTC/GSK/1.16

CHAPTER 18

GRADING OF CHARACTER AND TRADE PROFICIENCY

SKILL LEVEL IDENTIFICATION

Introduction

1. The IAF, a technologically intensive force, over the years has grown
as a formidable fighting force with a vast infrastructure. Many personnel have
mastered professional skills and shown great deal of competence and
involvement in their area of responsibility. There is a well-defined system of
selection, training and development of skills in the IAF for all tradesmen. The
extraordinarily skilled individuals out of those graded high or very high need
to be identified for transfer of their skills to others and to serve as role
models.

Preparation of Promotion Panels

2. For preparation of promotion panels, a limited number of airmen, at

least one and half times the numbers of airmen, based on the forecast
vacancies, who fulfill the requisite eligibility criteria, are considered in each
rank. The panel is prepared by AOC, Air Force Record Office, for a period of
one year i.e. from 01 Jul to 30 Jun of the next year. These promotions, now-
a-days are authorised on monthly basis. An individual not making the grade
has to compete with others in the next board.

Character and Trade Proficiency Grading

3. Assessments of Character and Trade Proficiency have a direct

bearing on the career of airmen in that they affect the awards of GCB,
promotions, appointments and extension of service.

Modes of Assessment

4. As per new assessment procedure airmen (Sgt &below) up to nine

years of service are assessed for the following traits:-

(a) Trade proficiency and Skill

94
 (b) Learning aptitude
(c) Dependability
(d) Work Output
(e) Sense of Duty
(f) Airman like Qualities
(g) Discipline/ Punctuality
(h) Turnout and Bearing
(j) Participation in Sports

5. Airmen (Sgt & Below) having more than nine years of service are
assessed for the following traits:-

(a) Professional Knowledge.

(b) Trade Proficiency and Skill Level.
(c) Work Output.
(d) Team Work.
(e) Responsibility.
(f) Drive and determination.
(g) Utilisation of resources.
(h) Care and Guidance of Subordinates.
(j) Turnout, Bearing and Attitude.
(k) Honesty and integrity.
(l) Communication Skill.

6. Warrant Officers are assessed for twenty two qualities for a total of
198 marks with each quality carrying a maximum of nine marks.

7. The performance in different attributes is graded on nine point rating

scale. In order to achieve objectivity in appraisal process, it is mandatory that
all appraisers use these standards as yardsticks for evaluation. Based on the
total marks obtained by an airman, the grading will be as follows:-

(a) High Exceptional. 90 to 99 marks will be written as ‘HI EX’. It

must be ensured that this grading is awarded to an outstanding
airman both in natural capacity and efficiency in the performance of
his duties.

(b) Exceptional. 80 to 89 marks will be written as ‘EX’. It must be

ensured that this grading is awarded to an exceptional airman both in
natural capacity and efficiency in the performance of his duties.

(c) Above Average. 70 to 79 marks will be written as ‘AA’. This

grading is to be awarded to an airman who is above average in the
qualities being assessed.
95
 (d) High Average. 60 to 69 marks will be written as ‘HI AV’. This
grading is awarded to an airman who is high average in the qualities
being assessed.

(e) Average. 50 to 59 marks will be written as ‘AV’. This grading

will be given to an airman whose performance is average.

(f) Below. 40 to 49 marks will be written as ‘BA’. This grading will

be given to an airman whose performance is below average.

(g) Inferior. Score less than 40 marks will be written as ’INF’. This
grading will imply that the airman’s retention in trade is questionable.
In such case it is mandatory to take necessary action as per para 263
and 264 of Regulations of Air Force 1964. This grading will be
construed as an Adverse Report.

Assessment of Sportsmen/Coaches

8. Airmen who participate/represent in any team sports or individual

event at the following levels are to be assessed as minimum “Superior” in the
trade proficiency.

(a) Command level.

(b) Air Force level.
(c) Services level.
(d) National level.
(e) International Level

Skill Level

9. Skill Level Identification of all airmen is done by the REBs during the
conduct of Airmen promotion examination (AIRPEX). The skill tests will be
related to the task requirement of the IAF and will not be dependent solely on
the basic trade/ system of an airman. All skill tests (except for Med Assts) will
be administered by Zonal REBs at field units as per their areas of
responsibility. Skill Tests for Med Assts will be administered by SMO (CO in
the case Medical/Dental Units). Skill grading for Warrant Officers, if required,
will be conducted by GEB. The grading of USTADs will be done through
BOO at station level. Details of the procedure are enumerated in the
paragraphs below :-

10. On passing out after the first phase of ab-initio training, all airmen will
be unskilled and will not be awarded any grade. Award of skill level grading
96
will commence from the time an airman becomes LAC. REBs are to award
four levels of skill as follows:-

(a) Skill Level E/Untested (Below 50 %). Not tested or marks

less than 50%.

(b) Skill Level D/Average (50% to 59%). An average worker.

(c) Skill Level C/High Average (60% to 69%). A lower skill

professional who can deliver average output but needs to be
motivated and pursued to upgrade his trade skill.

(d) Skill Level B/Above Average (70% to 79 %). An above

average skilled professional who delivers more than average output,
is knowledgeable on his trade practices and is confident of working
independently.

(e) Skill Level A/exceptional (80% and above). A highly skilled

individual, who is master of his trade, can perform any activity himself
with perfection.

11. The skill grades awarded by the REBs will be indicated in a separate
POR for further action by units/ AFRO/ other concerned agencies. In a
similar manner award of skill level ‘USTAD’ will be indicated through a
separate POR by stations for further action by unit/ AFRO/ other concerned
agencies.

12. Validity of Skill Level Grading. The skill level awarded to an airman
upto the rank of Sgt will be valid till he appears for the next skill test during
promotion exams. An airman if he so desires to upgrade his skill grading can
apply for the same by filling up IAFF (ED) 2290 (Revised) for appearing for a
skill test. On failing to attain a higher skill grade the airmen will continue to
retain his existing skill grade. A CO/ Section Commander can also order an
airman to undertake a skill grade revalidation through an executive order.

13. For Warrant officers the last awarded grading will remain valid
unless:-

(a) He upgrades his skill level through a skill test conducted by

GEB.

(b) It is revised by the skill test conducted by GEB on an executive

order issued by his CO.

97
14. The skill level will be valid even if an airman is posted to a new unit. It
would however demand revalidation if any change in system takes place (for
technical trades only).

USTAD

15. The acronym ‘USTAD’ stands for Ultra Skilled in Trade and
Development. Board of Officers constituted at the unit/ station level for
selection of USTADs from the Skill level A tradesmen:-

Responsibilities and Authority of ‘USTAD’

16. The selected USTADs would be responsible to their section

commanders for skill enhancement of tradesmen of respective section/ unit.
The USTADs are deputed as co-opted member for skill test by REBs at
exam centres for Airmen promotions exams.

Must Know Points

1. Character and Trade Proficiency Grading

Should Know Points

2. Skill level grading

3. Different assessment grading

Could Know Points

4. Responsibilities and Authority of ‘USTAD’.

5. Assessment criteria for sportsmen.

MCQ

6. A highly skilled individual, who is master of his trade, can perform any
activity himself with perfection is awarded which skill grading

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) E

98
7. ……….. grading is given to an outstanding airman both in natural
capacity and efficiency in performance of his duties

(a) Exceptional (b) Superior

(c) Above Average (d) Hi-EX

Fill in the Blanks

8. The responsibility of Skill Level identification lies with _________ .

9. Skill Tests for Med Assts will be administered by __________ in the

case Medical/ Dental Units.

10. It must be ensured that ……………. grading is awarded to an

outstanding airman both in natural capacity and efficiency in the performance
of his duties.

11. Acronym ‘USTAD’ stands for ……………?

12. An airman up to and including the rank of Sergeant scoring marks of

90 and above is graded as _______.

True/False

13. A highly skilled individual, who is master of his trade, can perform any
activity himself with perfection is awarded the skill level ‘E’.

14. Promotion to the higher ranks will be made only on the basis of
performance in promotion exam.

VSA

15. List out the Traits for which an Airman (Sgt & Below) having nine
years of service is assessed

SA

16. Describe in brief about Character and Trade Proficiency Grading

17. List out the Qualities for which a Sergeant having more than nine
years of service is assessed.

99
JBPTC/GSK/1.17
CHAPTER 19

DOCUMENTS AND PERUSAL OF DOCUMENTS

Introduction

1. A complete record of an airman’s service history is maintained on

standard forms, which are called Service Documents. Correct documentation
is essential in the interest of sound and efficient personnel administration.

2. Service documents furnish a legal proof and records of an airman’s

service. They enable a Commanding Officer, the O i/c Records and the
higher authorities, to know all about their men and their history. It is therefore
of utmost importance that Service Documents should be maintained neatly
and accurately at all times. They are preserved in original for 25 years after
the discharge of the individual.

3. Different types of documents in respect of each airman are held and

maintained by Air Force Record Office, the airman’s Parent Unit and the
airman himself. Most of the information is extracted from the Personnel
Occurrence Reports. Great care is to be exercised in the handling of
documents. They are to be kept flat at all times and never folded.

Documents Held by Air Force Record Office

4. The following documents are maintained by AFRO:-

(a) IAFF (P) 17- Sheet Roll. This is in book form and contains
the personal history of the airman from the date of the enrolment to
that of discharge. It is raised in duplicate by the training centre. One
copy is forwarded to the Record Office and the other is maintained by
his Parent Unit. It includes complete information such as enrolment,
postings, reclassification, re-mustering, promotion, results of courses,
award of Progressive Pay, Good Conduct Badge Pay, campaign stars
and medals, punishments and leave. It also contains particulars of
next-of-kin and other relatives of the airman.

(b) IAFF (P) 5 – Enrolment Form. This form is raised at the

Airmen Selection Centre (ASC) at the time of enrolment. It contains all
100
 the information furnished by the individual before enrolment. After
successful passing out of the airman from the Training Institute, it is
sent to AFRO along with Record Copy of the Sheet Roll (RCSR).

(c) IAFF (P) 42-Character and Trade Proficiency Proforma. All

assessment made on different occasions are recorded in this form.
This form is raised in duplicate at Training Centres and one copy is
forwarded along with the sheet roll to the Record Office.

(d) IAFF (T) 790-Trade Form. This form is raised in duplicate

whenever an airman is recommended for Regional Examination
Board (REB). One copy is forwarded to Record Office on completion
of the examination and the other is retained at the Unit along with the
airman’s service documents (Form 182 is raised in respect of Medical
Assistant and IAF F (T) 791 raised at Training Institutes to record the
results of examinations conducted by the REB).

(e) AFMS (F) 1-Medical History Envelope and Enclosures.

This contains the medical history of an airman, such as
admission to and discharge from hospital, result of medical
examinations, etc. The Unit copy is maintained by the SMO on behalf
of the Commanding Officer.

(f) IAFF (P) 16-Kindred Roll Proforma. This form is filled-in

duplicate by the airman from time to time, on instructions from Air
Force Record Office. It contains all personal particulars including
changes in permanent home address, next-of-kin etc. The original
copy is retained in the Unit while the second copy is forwarded to
AFRO.

(g) IAFF (PS) 1657. Certificate of receipt of campaign stars and

medals.

5. All these and other miscellaneous documents, e.g., Regular

engagement proforma, extension of service proforma are retained in IAFF
(P) 25 (Cover for Sheet Roll and its enclosures).

Documents Held by the Parent Unit.

6. These documents are held at the Parent Unit for local reference and
duplicates of these are maintained by AFRO.

(a) AFMS (F) 1 –– Medical History Envelope

(b) IAFF (P) 16 –– Kindred Roll Proforma
101
 (c) IAFF (P) 17 –– Sheet Roll.
(d) IAFF (P) 25 –– Cover for Sheet Roll and its enclosures.
(e) IAFF (P) 42 –– Assessment of Character and Proficiency.
(f) IAFF (I) 182 –– Trade Test Form (for Medical
Assistants only).
(g) IAFF (T) 790/791 –– Trade Test Form (non-trainees
and trainees).

7. Documents Held by Airmen

(a) IAFF (F) 1526 –– Airman’s Pay Book (Part II).

(Pay book)
(b) IAF (Z) 2015 –– Armed Forces Identity Card.

8. Access to Documents. Documents are to be considered as strictly

confidential. The Stn Adjt is responsible to the Commanding Officer for the
safe custody of all documents. No airman is permitted to see his documents
except once a year for scrutiny.

9. An airman is permitted to scrutinize his documents once a year, soon

after the assessment of character and trade proficiency has been made. It is
in his own interest as well as that of the Service that each airman utilises this
opportunity to check any discrepancy and omission in his documents which
is to be brought to the notice of his superior in writing, for necessary action.
The under mentioned points are to be checked while perusal of document
and discrepancy, if any, should be brought to the notice of Station Adjutant
for necessary rectification.

(a) Enrolment/regular engagement/extension of service.

(b) Attestation.
(c) Reclassification and promotion.
(d) Leave and leave encashment details.
(e) Absent without leave (AWL)
(f) Red/Black ink entries.
(f) Admission/Discharge from hospital.
(g) Authorisation of Good Conduct Badge pay/other allowances.
(h) Marriage/Divorce & Birth of children, next of kin, AFWWA Card
number.
(j) Assessment of Character and trade proficiency.
(k) Service/civil courses undergone.
(l) Posting/Attachment details.
(l) Any other changes effected in service/individual profile.

102
Punishment Entries in Documents

10. All punishments awarded to airmen are recorded on their Sheet Roll
i.e. IAFF (P) 17. These entries are extracted from the PORs and entered in
the conduct sheet. Serious offences are entered in red ink and minor
offences are recorded in black ink. The entries in red ink are of serious
nature and affect the award of airman’s Good Conduct Badge pay and also
his chances to further promotion and his service career.

COMMON FORMS USED IN SERVICE

FORM NO TITLE
IAFF P 1 Daily Parade State
IAFF P 3 Leave or Pass Form
IAFF P 5 Enrolment Form
IAFF P 9 IAF Route Form
IAFF P 13 Charge Sheet
IAFF P 14 Discharge Certificate
IAFF P 17 Sheet Roll
IAFF P 28 Proceedings of a Court of Inquiry/ Board of Officers
IAFF P 42 Assessment of Character and Trade Proficiency Airmen
IAFF O 307 Receipt of S&C Publication
IAFF O 308 File cover
IAFF Q 402 Voucher for articles handed over to store for safe custody
IAFF Q 406 Statement of equipment lost or damaged
IAFF Q 440 B Voucher for recovery action
IAFF Q 444 Loan Card
IAFF Q 448 Internal receipt & issue voucher
IAFF T 790 Trade Test Card- Airmen
IAFF T 791 Trade Test Card- Trainees
IAFF AT1513 Acquittance Roll
IAFF F1516 GCI Card
IAFF F1518 Clearance Certificate
IAFF F1523 Individual Running Ledger Account (Airmen)
IAFF T 901 Requisition for Govt Transport
IAFF S 1101 Message Form
AFMS F 44 Sick Report Proforma
AFMS F 48 Individual Medical History of AF Personnel

103
Must Know Points

1. Documents held by AFRO/Unit/Airmen.

2. Form No of each document.

Should Know Points

3. Purpose of each document.

MCQ

4. The documents of an airman are preserved in original for __________

after the discharge of the individual.
(a) 20 years (b) 25 years (c) 30 years (d) None

5. IAFF (P) 17 is ___________.

(a) Sheet Roll (b) Kinder Roll Performa (c) Trade form
(d) Medical History Envelope

6. Which form is used for Proceedings of a Court of Inquiry/BOO.

(a) IAFF P 17 (b) IAFF P 28 (c) IAFF T 901 (d) IAFF F1523

True/ False

7. Service documents of an airman are preserved permanently.

8. Award of good conduct badge pay is entered in IAFF (P) 16.

Fill in the Blanks

9. The information required to enter in service documents are extracted
from____________.

10. The personal history of an airman from the date of enrolment to that of
discharge is entered on___________.

VSA
11. What is the importance of correct documentation?

12. List out the documents held by AFRO.

SA

13. Write short note on “Punishment entries in documents”.

104
JBPTC/GSK/1.18
CHAPTER 20

STATION STANDING ORDERS,

UNIT/STATION ROUTINE ORDERS,

Introduction

1. Orders and Instructions are the means by which the intentions of

Commander and his directions are conveyed to his subordinates. They may
be conveyed in written, Signal or verbal form.

Difference between Orders and Instructions

2. Orders. Orders are issued when a Commander is in a position,

to state exactly how he is going to carry out his intention. In that he can
make detailed plan covering the whole operation.

3. Instructions. Instructions are issued when a Commander is in

such a position that he can tell the recipients his intentions, and leave them
to decide the manner of carrying out their tasks.

Station Standing Orders

4. The aim of standing orders is to adapt existing regulations with a view

to lay down standard operating procedure to save constant repetition of
details in orders. Standing Orders are thus, a means of shortening routine
orders, operation orders and administrative orders. Station Standing Orders
(SSOs) are a set of rules and regulations issued by a Commanding Officer to
cover the administrative and disciplinary matters of his Station. SSOs include
instructions on the organisation and administration of the Station and also
assign the duties and functions of the various officers and sections.

5. The Object of Station Standing Orders is:

(a) To adapt existing regulations to the local conditions.

(b) To avoid frequent repetition of certain orders in routine and

other orders.

105
6. Station Standing Orders are divided into five parts, viz.

(a) Organisation

(b) Discipline

(c) Security

(d) Medical and Hygiene

(e) Barrack and Equipment

7. With these, Orders like Fire Orders, Orders for Duty Officer, Orderly
Officer, Orderly Sergeant, Guard Commander etc. are issued from time to
time.

8. It is the personal responsibility of all officers and airmen to acquaint

themselves with the SSOs, copies of which are available at the Unit Library,
Unit Headquarters, and UWO’s Office etc.

Station /Unit Routine Orders (SROs/UROs)

9. Unit/Station Routine Orders (SROs/UROs) are the orders issued by a

Commanding Officer for the purpose of communicating to all persons under
his command the general instructions, orders and information which affect
the Unit/Station and the personnel as well. Everyone must read these
orders everyday as failure to comply with these orders is an offence.
These are issued as often as necessary or whenever they are required for
the promulgation of instructions and information. In big Stations where there
are enough entries every day, they are issued daily, whereas in smaller Units
they may be issued twice or thrice a week as the case may be.

10. Subject Matter. SRO/URO generally contains the following

headings:

(a) Proclamation
(b) Special orders of the Day
(c) Change of Command
(d) Station Duties
(e) Parades, Visits and inspections
(f) Courses/examinations
106
 (g) Bounds of Discipline
(h) Assembly of Court-Martial, Court of Inquiry, Board of Officers.
(j) Reference to and interpretation of AFOs and AFIs.
(k) Allocation of Buildings and Quarters
(l) Permissions to appear civil exam, keep & use pvt vehicles etc
(m) Special and other notices of a non official nature may be
inserted in SROs under the heading of NOTICES below the signature
of issuing officer.

11. Routine orders are classified as ‘RESTRICTED’. These do not contain

anything of secret or confidential nature. They are numbered consecutively
starting from 1 at the beginning of the calendar year.

12. After Orders. If the Routine Orders for the day have already been
issued and further orders are required to be brought to the notice of
personnel, an After Order is published. After Orders are numbered in relation
to the Routine Orders that precede them, i.e., “After Orders to SRO/URO
Sl. No. ……….. date ……………” They are not numbered separately.

Must Know Points

1. Definitions of SSOs, SROs/UROs.

Should Know Points

2. Different parts of the SSOs & SROs/UROs.

Could Know Points

3. Difference between orders and instructions.

MCQ

4. SSOs are issued by ________________.

(a) Stn Adjt (b) CO (c) C Adm O (d) Sec Offr

5. The object of Station Standing order is _____________.

(a) To adapt existing regulations to the local conditions.

(b) To avoid frequent repetition of certain orders in Routine orders.
(c) Both of the above.
(d) None of the above.
107
True or False

6. SSOs include instructions on the organisation of the station.

7. SSOs are the daily orders issued by a Commanding Officer.

Fill in the Blanks

8. Orders like fire orders, orders for Orderly officer etc. are published in
__________.

9. SSOs are divided into _________ parts.

VSA

10. What are Station Standing Orders?

SA

11. Enlist all five headings generally contained in ‘Station Standing

Orders’.

108
JBPTC/GSK/1.16

CHAPTER 21

TYPES OF COMMISSIONING

1. Officers required for the service in the IAF are inducted into the Air
Force through a process of selection and training. After successful
completion of training, they are granted commission by the President of
India.

2. Following are the types of commission in the IAF:-

(a) Permanent Commission (PC). Officers granted PC are to

serve in the Air Force until retired or reaching the age of
Superannuation prescribed for branch and rank held.

(b) Short Service Commission (SSC). Officers granted SSC are

only bound to serve for the prescribed number of years (usually ten).
After that period, the officer may get released or apply for extension or
grant of PC, if required.

(c) Emergency Commission (EC). Officers are granted EC

during the declaration of emergency or war and are required to serve
so long as the emergency exists or till they are released by Govt.

(d) Temporary Commission (TC). Temporary Commission is

granted to the officers from the other two services, for the period they
serve with the Air Force. Generally this applies to the medical and
dental branches.

(e) Service Entry Commission (SEC). All airmen of the rank of

Sgt and above are eligible for SEC subject to fulfilling other eligibility
criteria.

Provision of Commission for Airmen

3. AFCAT. A screening test, for commissioning in all branches

called the Air Force Common Admission Test, is conducted twice every year
on the 4th Sunday of February and August for Courses commencing in
January & July of the next year respectively. After qualifying the written test
the candidates are called for SSB at different AFSB. The test is common for
109
service and civil candidates. The civil format of the Application form can be
downloaded from www.careerairforce.nic.in

Qualification for Service Candidates.

(a) Passed graduation with minimum 60 % marks in aggregate or

passed post graduation with minimum 50 % marks.

(b) The maximum age limit for airmen is 36 years as on

commencement of the course (01 January/01 July).

4. ACC (Army Cadet College). Airmen can also get commissioning

in Indian Army through ACC. Following are the eligibility conditions.

(a) Should be within the age limit of 20-27 years

(b) Should have completed minimum 02 years service

(c) Educational qualification is minimum 12th or its equivalent.

(d) Should not have been awarded more than one red ink entry
and also no red ink entry in the preceding year.

(e) Candidates awarded punishment under debarable offences are

not eligible

5. Service Entry Commission Airmen between the age of 34 -42

can apply for Service Entry Commission (SEC) in different Ground duty /
technical branches as per their existing trades. Following are the eligibility
conditions.

(a) Should be within the age limit of 34 -42 years.

(b) Should have completed minimum 10 years service & attained

the rank of Sgt.

(c) Educational qualification is minimum 12th or its equivalent.

(d) Should be medically fit.

6. Direct Entry Through CDS. Airmen with first class graduation

degree in any stream with Physics and Mathematics as mandatory subjects
in 10+2 are eligible for commissioning in the flying branch. A Combined
Defence Services Examination (CDSE) is held bi-annually at various centers
110
all over India. Graduates in Science/Arts/Commerce streams with NCC 'C'
certificate are also eligible for direct entry selection process without
undergoing CDS examination. The eligibility conditions are same as
applicable to civil candidates. The airman has to apply for the same with
permission of his Commanding Officer /Station Commander.

7. Officers are commissioned in the Flying or Ground Duties Branches.

Branches of Commission Officers in IAF

Flying Ground Duty

Non- Technical Technical

F(P) F(N) AE (L) AE (M)

Edn Adm Lgs Met Med Accts

Must Know Points

1. Provision of commissioning of airmen in IAF.

111
Should Know Points

2. Provision of commissioning of airmen in Army.

3. Eligibility criteria for airmen to get commissioning in IAF.

MCQ

4. Airmen within the age limit of ………… are eligible for SEC.

(a) 30-35 (b) 25-42 (c) 30-37 (d) 34-42

Fill in the Blanks

5. All airmen of the rank of Sgt and above having a minimum of ……….
years of service are eligible for SEC.

6. Airmen within the age limit of -------to----------- years can also get
commissioning in Indian Army through ACC.

VSA

7. What are the eligibility criteria for airmen for commissioning through
AFCAT?

8. What are the non-technical branches for officers in IAF?

SA

9. What are the eligibility conditions for SEC and ACC.

112
JBPTC/GSK/1.21

CHAPTER 22

INTRODUCTION TO FILING SYSTEM

1. Purpose. The purpose of a file is to collect and present the history

of one particular aspect or a subject under one cover, in chronological order
and in a manner which facilitates reference and preserve the
correspondence from loss or damage.

2. Parts of a File. A file consists of the following three parts, File

Cover, Note Sheet and Enclosures.

113
(a) File Cover. The cover is a printed folder IAF (Z) 3081 in
which all the letters dealing with one particular subject are placed.
The letters are fastened inside the folder on the right hand side by
means of a tag. Note sheets are also attached inside the folder on
the left hand side. On the outer side of the cover, the following
particulars are printed:

(i) Security Grading

(ii) Formation/Unit
(ii) File Number
(iii) Volume Number
(iv) Section
(v) Date opened
(vi) Subject
(vii) Connected Files/References
(viii) Columns for Particulars of Movement of File
(ix) Bring Forward Columns
(x) Disposal Instructions

(b) Note Sheet. Note sheets are the pages on the left hand side
of a file. It is a special paper with a wide margin printed/ruled on both
the sides of the note sheet. First sheet should bear the file reference
on the top right hand corner and the note sheet bears the same
security classification as the file. On the right hand side of the margin
the title “Sheet No” is to be written below the reference number. Note
numbers consist of Arabic Numerals and are underlined to
differentiate them from the page number.

(c) Enclosures. Enclosures are also one of the three parts of a

file. They are the papers pertaining to the subject for which the file is
opened. They are placed inside the cover of the right hand of the file
and numbered consecutively, ie., 1,2,3,4,5 etc. If two or more
different letters form one enclosure, it should bear the same enclosure
number followed by the letter A, B, C, D etc., for individual
identification. The letter `A’ is used for the first paper of the enclosure,
only if there are other papers with the enclosure letter. Thus, if a
paper was received, attached to a covering letter, the covering letter
would be marked `1A’ and the attached paper `1B’. The same
procedure is used for a paper with appendices. In exceptional cases
if a paper has to be filed between two existing enclosures, it should be
given the number of the earlier of the two enclosures, followed by
114
 number `i’. Thus, if it is filed between enclosures 12 and 13 it will
become 12 `i’. This avoids the need for re-numbering all the
enclosures from 13 onwards.

(d) File Numbering. A block of numbers is assigned for each

section by the Station Headquarters. A section is at liberty to open file
files within the allotted block. Eg. ATS/497/1/Edn. Here ATS denotes
the station, ‘497’ is the block allotted, Edn is the user section and ‘1’
denotes that it is a correspondence file.

Filing System – Filing Of Letters, Cross-Reference

3. Filing System. There are two methods of allotting file numbers in

the service, namely, the “Whitehall System” and “Branch Number System”.

(a) Whitehall System. The Whitehall filing system is used mainly

by Air Headquarters where the number of files in use is very large. In
this system, the files are numbered from a consecutive series of
numbers and a record of the files is maintained by means of an
alphabetical index. For this purpose block numbers are allotted to
each Directorate.

(b) Branch Number System. Branch Number system is used in

all Stations/Units/Formations other than Air HQs where the number of
files in use is not large. In this system each file is numbered
according to the subject to which it relates and these files are split into
groups such as Accounts, Photography, Dental etc, and each group is
given a consecutive series of numbers, so that when a new file is
opened, it is placed in its proper group and given the next number.
Further in the Branch Number system, files are sub-divided into
“Policy” and “Sub-files”.

4. Policy Files. Policy files are those files which are the master
files dealing with a new subject and they contain letters dealing with the
actual policy on a subject matter and not detailed action on that policy which
will be found in sub-files under each aspect of that one policy (subject).

5. Sub-heading. In the Branch Number system all subjects are

classified under one of the sub-headings which indicate the branch
originating the file. No other sub-headings are to be used.

6. Cross Reference. Immediately after placing an enclosure in a file, it

is the responsibility of the clerk concerned to link up the enclosure with
connected papers. If a letter in a file refers to a previous letter in the same
115
file, it is to be annotated with the enclosure number of the previous letter.
Similarly, the previous letter is also to be annotated with the enclosure
number of the new letter. Thus, by looking at either of the enclosures, one
will be able to refer to any connected correspondence without the loss of
time in searching through all the enclosures of the file. This system is known
as “CROSS REFERENCE”.

7. Files which deal with different aspects of the same subject or the
former or subsequent parts of a file on the same subject are to be “CROSS
REFERRED” when necessary by inserting the particulars, in the appropriate
space on the file cover.

8. Closing of Files. A file on which no further action is required should

be closed and sent to the Registry for custody. When this is done the file
should be marked ‘DI’ (Disposal Instructions) in the space provided at the
bottom right hand corner of the cover and the marking should be signed and
dated by the Officer-in-Charge of the Section responsible for opening the
same. It is the responsibility of the Section/Branch concerned to ensure that
necessary action has been taken on the enclosure in a file before it is
marked DI and returned to the Registry.

9. Disposal of Files. A Board of Officers should be assembled

annually for the examination, survey and disposal of correspondence not in
current use and in no way required for the work of the Unit. To facilitate the
work of the Board of Officers, all files should be carefully examined before
disposal action is taken.

Must Know Points

1. Types of filing system used in Air Force.

Should Know Points

2. Parts of a file.

Could Know Points

3. Meaning of Cross reference.

MCQ

4. White Hall Filing System is used at ________________.

(a) Command HQs (b) Air HQs

116
 (c) Units and Formations (d) None of these

True or False

5. There are four parts of a file.

6. Enclosures in a file are numbered as I, II, III and so on.

Fill in the Blanks

7. Note sheets are the pages on the ___________ side of a file.

8. ___________ files are those files which are the master files dealing
with a new subject.

VSA

9. What are the parts of a file?

10. What is the purpose of maintaining a file?

SA

11. Write a short note on various filing systems prevalent in the IAF.

117
JBPTC/GSK/1.2

CHAPTER 23

AIR FORCE WELFARE ORGANISATIONS

Introduction.

1. Indian Air Force has several welfare organisations such as IAFBA,

FAS, IAFCWF, CCWF, CO’s Benevolent Fund, AFWWA, AFGIS etc. Each
one meets the various welfare needs of Air Force personnel and their
families.

Indian Air Force Benevolent Association (IAFBA)

2. IAFBA is a self administered body, registered under the Societies

Registration Act (XXI) 1860. It provides assistance to serving and retired AF
personnel and their families and dependents. It also operates various
scholarship schemes. A few of them are as follows:

(a) Subroto Memorial Scholarship Scheme

(b) IAFBA HAL Scholarship scheme.

(c) IAFBA Merit Scholarship Scheme.

(d) IAF Golden jubilee Mentally Retarded and Physically

Handicapped Children’s Scholarship Scheme.

(e) IAF Golden Jubilee Merit Scholarship Scheme.

(f) IAFBA Sports Scholarship Scheme.

3. Its aims and objects are:

(a) To remove hardship or distress among serving/retired AF

personnel and their family including dependents.

(b) To organise a fund known as ‘IAFBF’ and develop the same.

(c) To work in conjunction with any other society having similar

aims.

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 (d) To acquire and dispose movable/immovable property for the
benefit of AF personnel.

(e) To invest the surplus fund in profitable organisations.

(f) To maintain homes or educational institutions for the benefit of

the member of the association.

Family Assistance Scheme – Officers/Airmen/NCs(E)

4. The object of scheme is to provide grants for rehabilitation of families

of deceased Officers/Airmen/NCs (E) who are members of the scheme and
die whilst in service irrespective of cause of death. In addition, the scheme
would also consider assistance towards the settlement of deserving cases of
retired or released Officers/Airmen/NCs (E) and their families, if the death
occurs within 10 years after the retirement.

5. The monthly contribution for the scheme are as follows:

Officers : Rs. 150 pm.

Airmen : Rs. 75 pm.

NCs (E) : Rs. 75 pm.

Payment of the contribution ceases after leaving service or on death.

Contributions will not be refunded until retirement.

6. It provides the following benefits:

(a) Grants to families and children of deceased personnel.

(b) Re-settlement grants.

(c) Income tax exemption.

Indian Air Force Central Welfare Fund (IAFCWF)

7. It is the central organisation which controls all NPF of IAF that are not
maintained either at commands or at Stations/Wings/Units. It also disburses
the income accrued to the IAF from the outside sources/agencies.

8. Its main objective is to provide finances for group welfare activities

which are incidental or conducive to any of the following:

(a) Messes, Canteens, Hospitals, Dental Centre etc.

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 (b) Educational Institutions such as AF Schools.

(c) Charitable Organisations, Societies, Clubs, Holiday Homes.

(d) Family Welfare, Collective Care of disabled Airmen.

(e) AFASC (Air Force Adventurous Sports Cell).

(f) M & CWC (Maternity and Child Welfare Centre)

(g) AFSCB (Air Force Sports Control Board),

(h) Provisioning anything that is considered essential for the

general welfare and wellbeing of AF personnel and which is not
provided by Govt expenses.

(j) To invest the surplus funds in profitable institutions.

(k) To compensate units in case of loss of NPF due to theft or fire.

(l) Miscellaneous grants of purposes considered desirable in the

interest of IAF.

Command Welfare Fund (CWF)

9. With an aim to promote welfare activities, each Command

Headquarters is authorised to operate Command Welfare Fund whose main
objectives are:

(a) To give interest free loans and grants to Unit Non-Public Funds
under the Command.

(b) TO incur expenditure for improving educational, medical and

sports facilities at units under the Command.

(c) To provide scholarships to deserving children of AF personnel

studying in professional courses.

(d) To finance the AOC-in-C contingency fund.

(e) To give donations to charitable institution engaged outside the

Air Force.

(f) To raise and accept funds/donations in cash or kind.

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 (g) To acquire immovable property for the purpose of the welfare
of the AF personnel and maintain it.

(h) To invest the surplus fund in profitable institutions.

(j) To meet the expenditure necessary for the welfare of the AF

personnel.

CO’s Benevolent Fund (CO’s BF)

10. This fund is administered at the Unit/Station level under the

chairmanship of AOC/Stn Cdr/CO with the sole object to help the Air Force
personnel and their families from financial hardship.

Air Force Wives Welfare Association (AFWWA)

11. It is voluntary welfare organisation run by the wives of AF personnel to

promote welfare services and amenities for serving, retired and disabled Air
Force personnel and their dependents. It functions at three different levels as
follows:

(a) AFWWA (Central) at Air HQ level under the chairmanship of

the wife of CAS.

(b) AFWWA (Regional) at Command HQ level under the

chairmanship of the wife of AOC-in-C.

(c) AFWWA (Local) at Station/Unit level under the chairmanship of

the wife of AOC/Stn Cdr/CO.

12. This Organisation has undertaken a number of welfare measures in

the field of education, vocational training, re-habilitation, health and family
welfare etc. Regular monthly meetings by the wives of the AF personnel are
held where useful welfare activities are discussed and efforts are made to
implement them in full.

13. The wives of the AF personnel can become life members of this
association by making one time payments as under:

(a) Officers’ wives : Rs. 100/-

(b) Wives of MWO/WO/JWO/Sgts : Rs. 75/-

(c) Wives of Cpl & below : Rs. 50/-

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 (d) Wives of NCs (E) : Rs. 25/-

14. Group Insurance Scheme 2011. This scheme provides a

cover of Rs. 50 lakhs, Rs. 25 lakhs and Rs.12.5 lakhs to officers, airmen and
NCs(E) respectively. A basic contribution of Rs. 4690/- p.m. for flying branch
and Rs 3450/- for other branch officers, Rs. 1730/- p.m. by airmen and Rs.
850/- p.m. by NCs(E) is to be made. The benefits of this scheme accrue to
all members of this scheme. Its benefits are:

(a) Death benefits.

(b) Disability benefits subject to certain exceptions.

(c) Survival benefit.

16. Beneficiaries. All married/unmarried members are eligible for the

benefits. Nominations are allowed.

Must Know Points

1. Benefits provided by IAFBA and AFGIS.

2. Scholarships awarded under IAFBA.

Should Know Points

3. Various assistances/ facilities available at station level by different

welfare organisations.

Could Know Points

4. Financial assistance/scholarship awarded by different state

governments for wards of defence personnel.

MCQ

5. AFWWA (Central) at Air HQ level functions under the chairmanship of

the wife of ………..

(a) AOC-in-C (b) CAS (c) President (d) VCAS

6. ……. is the central organisation which controls all NPF of IAF that are
not maintained either at commands or at Stations/Wings/Units

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 (a) CCWF (b) IAFCWF (c) IAFBA (d) AFWWA

7. ……… finances the AOC-in-C contingency fund.

(a) CCWF (b) IAFCWF (c) IAFBA (d) AFWWA

8. Which of the following scholarship scheme is not provided under

IAFBA?

(a) Subroto Memorial Scholarship Scheme

(b) IAF Golden Jubilee Merit Scholarship Scheme.

(c) Grants to families and children of deceased personnel.

(d) IAF Golden jubilee Mentally Retarded and Physically

Handicapped Children’s Scholarship Scheme.

True/False

9. AFWWA (Local) at Station/Unit level functions under the chairmanship

of the wife of AOC/Stn Cdr/CO.

10. IAFCWF compensates units in case of loss of NPF due to theft or fire.

SA

11. What are the aims of IAFBA?

12. Write a short note on GIS 2011.

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 SECTION II

INTRODUCTION TO AIRCRAFT

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JBPTC/GSK/2.1
CHAPTER 24

INTRODUCTION TO AIRCRAFT AND ITS PARTS

Know how an Aircraft flies.

1. Just as a ship heavier than water floats on the sea due to the upward
force exerted by the water, an aircraft which is heavier than air is kept up in
the air due to the upward force of air, flowing past it. This upward force
supporting the weight of the aircraft is called ‘Lift’. But unlike the upward
force of water which is exerted on the ship even when it is stationary, the
‘Lift’ required to keep the aircraft up, can only be developed by the forward
movement of the aircraft. A force known as ‘Thrust’ is therefore necessary to
propel (to pull or push) the aircraft forward. This force is provided by the
aircraft engine. While the aircraft moves in the air it always experiences a
‘drag’ caused by the resistance offered by the air. The shape of the aircraft
is so designed as to have minimum drag and maximum amount of lift. Thus
when the aircraft flies, four forces act upon it, i.e., the thrust, the drag, the
lift and its weight.

2. Lift is developed by the wings when air flows over them. The wings
have a curved top surface and set an angle to the relative wind. Due to this,
the air flows at faster speed over its top surface than under the wing.
According to the principle of airflow, there is a decrease of pressure over the
wing and build up of pressure under it. This difference in pressure gives rise
to the lift of the Aircraft.

Main Parts of an Aircraft

3. An aeroplane is commonly referred to as an aircraft in the service.

Following are the main parts and controls of an aircraft.

(a) Cockpit. The place where the pilot(s) sits and controls the
aircraft.

125
 Figure of aircraft

(b) Fuselage. It is the main body of the aircraft which contains

cockpit, passenger/cargo compartments, fuel tanks, engines in case
of fighters etc.

(c) Wings or Main Plane. Fixed on either side of the fuselage

(the left and right wings are known as port and starboard wings
respectively). These are the main lift giving components and
generally house engine, fuel tanks, undercarriages, ailerons, and
flaps. In a fighter/bomber aircraft bombs, missiles, drop tanks, rockets
etc. are also carried on the wings.

(d) Tail Unit. It consists of tail plane and elevators, rudder and fin
which are also known as horizontal and vertical stabilizers. It is
usually fitted in the rear of the fuselage. It provides control of pitching
and yawing movements.

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 (e) Undercarriage. IT is usually of fixed or retractable type and
attached to the wings or fuselage to provide the main supporting
component to the aircraft on ground while stationary or moving. The
arrangement of undercarriage can be a combination of nose and main
or tail and main wheels with single or multiple wheel arrangements.

Control Surfaces

4. (a) Ailerons. They are attached to the wings and are generally
on the outside towards the wing’s tip. They are movable components
and being a control surface, are used for rolling movement of aircraft,
operated by the control column.

(b) Rudder. A vertical movable surface attached to the rear of

the horizontal stabilizer and operated by the control column.

(c) Elevator. A pair of horizontal surfaces attached to the rear

of the horizontal stabilizer and operated by the control column.

(d) Flaps. They are usually fitted on trailing edge on the

underside closer to the fuselage and augment the lift and increase the
drag beyond certain degree of their extension.

Must Know Points

1. Main parts of the aircraft.

Should know Points

2. Location of various parts of an aircraft.

Could Know Points

3. Functions of various parts of an aircraft.

MCQ

4. A vertical movable surface attached to the rear of the horizontal

stabilizer is called____________.

(a) Elevator (b) Flap (c) Under-carriage (d) Rudder

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5. A pair of horizontal surfaces attached to the rear of the horizontal
stabilizer is called__________.

(a) Elevator (b) Flap (c) Aileron (d) Rudder

True / False

6. Rudder is operated by control column.

7. Ailerons are used for varying lift and drag.

Fill in the blanks

8. The control surface used to vary lift and drag is_________________.

9. ______________ are used for rolling movement of aircrafts.

VSA

10. Write down the function of wings.

11. What is the function a tail unit?

SA

12. What are the main controlling surfaces of an aircraft?

128
JBPTC/GSK/2.2
CHAPTER 25

TYPES AND ROLE OF AIRCRAFT ON THE INVENTORY OF IAF

Introduction

1. In IAF the aircraft are mainly used for combat operations and
transportation of men and materials. Accordingly, the aircraft are classified
into five categories as per their role viz., Trainer, Fighter, Bomber, Transport
and Helicopter.

2. Trainers. Trainers are used to train the pilots. Generally, trainers

are twin seated, one for instructor and other for the trainee. The following
aircraft are used in IAF for training purposes:

(a) Kiran MK-IA

(b) Kiran MK-IIA

(c) HPT-32 (Hindustan Piston Trainer- 32)

(d) Hawk

(e) Pilatus PC-7 MK-II

3. Fighters. The main task of fighter aircfaft is to guard our skies

from enemy intrusion, attain air superiority by interception of enemy aircraft
and successfully repulsing it. In addition to the role of interception of enemy
bombers and fighter aircraft, the fighters are employed for ground attack in
support of land forces. They are also used for the purpose of tactical
reconnaissance. Following fighter aircraft are in use in IAF:

(a) MiG-21

(b) MIRAGE 2000

(c) MiG-29

(d) SUKHOI-30 MK-I

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4. Bombers. Bombers are used to destroy the war potential of enemy
country by bombing important targets like military barracks, industrial
installations, armament factories, railway structure, dams, radio stations etc.
The following medium and heavy bombers are in IAF:

(a) Jaguar.

(a) MIG 27.

5. Transport Aircraft. In Indian Air Force transport aircraft are

used to support ground based troops by ferrying men and material to the
designated locations. It is also used to train paratroopers, rescue operations
and supply of essential items during natural calamities. The following types
of transport aircraft are mainly used in IAF:

(a) Dornier-228 - Light Transport.

(b) HS-748 AVRO (Chitra)- Medium Transport.

(c) Embraer - Medium Transport (VIP use)

(d) Boeing 737 - Heavy Transport (VIP use)

(e) AN-32 (Sutlej) - Medium Range Tactical Transport.

(f) Hercules C-130J - Medium Range Tactical Transport.

(g) IL-76 (Gajraj) - Heavy airlift freighter.

(h) IL-78 - Heavy Air to Air Refueller.

(j) C-17 Globe Master III - Heavy and strategic airlift Transport.

6. Helicopters. Helicopters are used in the IAF for transporting men

and material where transport a/c cannot operate and also support ground
troops by providing air-cover and by transporting men and essential
commodities across the battlefield. Various types of helicopters in use in IAF
are:

(a) Mi-8 (Pratap)

(b) Mi-17 (Rane)

130
 (c) Mi-25/35 (Hind)

(d) HAL Dhruv

(e) HAL Cheetah

(f) HAL Chetak

(g) ALH

7. UAVs. Unmanned Aerial Vehicles (UAVs) are pilotless aircrafts,

operated from a remote control station. They are used for various functions
like surveillance and reconnaissance, target acquisition and artillery
adjustment, battle damage assessment, to monitor disaster sites and
dangerous areas, provide coverage of oceanic areas etc. Some of the UAVs
are:

(a) Nishant.

(b) Searcher-II.

(c) GAGAN.

(d) Pilotless Target Aircraft (Lakshya).

Must Know Points

1. Types of aircraft available in IAF.

Should Know Points

2. Role of different types of aircraft.

Could Know Points

3. Strategic roles of different aircraft.

MCQ

4. MiG-21 is a tactical ______________________aircraft.

131
 (a) Bomber (b) Fighter

(c ) Transport (d) Reconnaissance

True/False

5. IL-76 is a heavy airlift freighter.

6. Jaguar is used to transport men and material in IAF.

Fill in the Blanks

7. Hawk is a ___________________aircraft.

8. Bombers destroy the _____________________of the enemy country.

9. ALH is a ________________ aircraft

Very Short Answer Question

10. Write down the names of various helicopters used in IAF.

11. What are the types of fighter aircraft available in IAF inventory?

SA

12. List out the various trainers and transport aircrafts operating in IAF.

132
JBPTC/GSK/2.3
CHAPTER 26

GROUND DEFENCE WEAPONS IN IAF

Introduction

1. Ground defence weapons are those weapons which are stored at

base armament section for the purpose of ground defence and training. They
include rifles, revolvers, carbines, LMGs, Pistols and shot guns.

2. A fire arm is a device which propels a missile, propulsion being

obtained through the combustion of explosive material within the device. The
word “Gun” is synonymous with the fire arm. The guns are divided by their
calibre (diameter) into small arms and cannons or artillery, but the dividing
line is not sharp.

3. Small arms are those guns/fire arms whose calibre is less than
20 mm.

Small Arms in Air Force

4. Rifle 5.56 MM INSAS. The 5.56 mm Indian Small Arms System

(INSAS) consists of a family of following three types of weapons: -

(a) Assault Rifle

(i) Fixed Butt Version (ii) Foldable Butt Version

(b) Light Machine Gun (LMG)

(i) Fixed Butt (ii) Foldable Butt Versions

(c) Carbine Foldable Butt s

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 Fig of Rifle 5.56 mm INSAS

5. Advantages. The assault rifle or Rifle 5.56 mm INSAS 1A is the

basic weapon of the system. As compared to the Rifle 7.62 mm 1A1 it is
25% lighter, more compact, having 70% less recoil and consequently more
comfortable to handle and fire. A foldable butt version of this rifle has also
been developed resulting in considerable reduction in length for use by the
paratroopers.

6. Self Loading Rifle 7.62 MM. This rifle represents a considerable

advancement over the former bolt operated 0.303” Rifle. It has been mainly
designed and developed to give the soldier all the essential features of an
individual weapon. Main features of SLR are as follows:

(a) Safety.

(b) Accuracy.

(c) Stability.

(d) Handiness.

(e) Gas regulated,

(f) Easy maintenance.

(g) Protection from weather.

134
 Fig of SLR 7.62 mm

7. Pistol Auto 9 MM PARA. Pistol 9 mm PARA is recoil operated,

magazine fed, self loading pistol. The recoil energy of a fired cartridge is
utilized to extract and eject the fired cartridge case, push the slide to its rear
most position, cock the hammer and compress the main spring. The weapon
is provided with a magazine safety which prevents the firing of the weapon
unless the magazine is in position in the butt of the pistol.

Fig of Pistol Auto 9 mm (LH View)

135
 Fig of Pistol Auto 9 mm (RH View)

8. Bren Light Machine Gun. The Bren Light Machine Gun is a fully
automatic, gas operated gun which fires standard 0.303" ammunition, and
has a rate of fire of approximately 500 rounds per minute. The gun is fully
automatic. There are three marks of gun in service namely Mk 1, 2 & 3. The
Mk 1 is the basic gun and the other two marks differ slightly from it. The
operation of each mark is same.

136
 Fig of Bren LMG

9. Sten Machine Carbine MK 1A. This carbine provides the soldier

with alight and easily handled weapon which is capable of producing a
volume of automatic fire at short notice. The weapon is particularly suitable
for street fighting, jungle war fare, patrol and at close combat operations.

Sten Machine Carbine MK 1A

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10. Bore Shot Gun. The shot gun is double barreled 12 bore hammer
less gun which fires the 12 bore cartridges. The left hand barrel is chocked to
limit the spread of shots. The range of the gun against clay pigeon is 50
yards. This is not the maximum range of the gun and it is dangerous at a
much greater range.

Fig of Shot Gun 12 Bore

138
Must Know Points

1. Types of small arms available in IAF.

Should Know Points

2. Main features of different types of small arms available in IAF.

Could Know Points

3. Features of pistol and bore shot gun

MCQ

4. Which of the following is not a feature of SLR?

(a) Safety (b) Accuracy (c) Instability (d) Handiness.

5. Which weapon is particularly suitable for street fighting, jungle war

fare, patrol and at close combat operations?

(a) Sten MC Carbine (b) LMG (c) Pistol (d) SLR

True/False

6. Small arms are those guns/fire arms whose calibre is less than 20
mm.

Fill in the Blanks

7. ……………….. are those weapons which are stored at base

armament section for the purpose of ground defence and training

8. ………. is double barreled 12 bore hammer less gun which fires the
12 bore cartridges.

VSA

10. Write down the main features of SLR.

11. Write a short note about Sten Machine Carbine MK 1A.

139
JBPTC/GSK/2.3
CHAPTER 27

INTRODUCTION TO GUIDED WEAPONS

Introduction

1. In the year 1240 BC, the Chinese were the first to discover and use
the gun powder. Continued research and work on gun powder led to further
development of missile, rocket propellant and war heads. No guided weapon
was available for use during First World War. However, during Second World
War the need of guided weapon was felt because of lethality and precision in
which it can be dropped on a target.

Definition of Guided Weapon Equipment

2. Missile in general can be defined as an object that is thrown, dropped,

projected or propelled for the purpose of making it to strike a target. The
missile meant for military purpose is guided, carries explosive (warhead) and
is used to destroy, damage, injure or kill. In military usage, weapon projected
towards a target are broadly categorised as followings:-

(a) Bomb. An unpowered munition not fired from a gun

whether guided or not, is called bomb.

(b) Rocket. A powered, unguided weapon is called rocket.

(c) Torpedo. A powered weapon that travels through water is

called torpedo.

(d) Missile. A missile is self propelled, unmanned air or space

vehicle carrying payload (warhead) whose flight path is capable of
being altered by means of guidance system.

Characteristics of a Guided Weapon.

3. The basic characteristics of a guided weapon are listed as:

(a) It is unmanned.
(b) It carries a payload (warhead)
140
 (c) It responds to guidance during entire or part of flight.
(d) It has propulsion system.

Guided Weapon

4. As the subject matter is vast and beyond the scope of this class, in
the succeeding paragraphs we shall discuss only about surface to air
guided weapons (SAGW) used in IAF

(a) OSA-AK-M. The OSA-AK-M missile system, which is one of

the products of Russian Missile Programme, falls under short range
SAM category. The OSA-AK-M missile is a command guided SAM
used against aerial targets. The word ‘OSA’ means WASP, which
signifies its stinging nature. In the Russian surface to air missile
system, this is known as SAM-VIII. The single stage anti-aircraft
guided missile is designed to destroy piloted as well as pilotless
hostile combat aerial vehicles. It can engage targets flying with
subsonic and supersonic speeds at average and low altitudes. The
missile can also be used against hovering helicopters.

(b) Pechora. The Pechora Guided Weapon complex is popularly

known as SAM-III system. Pechora is an anti aircraft surface to air
missile designed to destroy aircraft flying at low, medium, and high
altitude. It can also be used against radar visible ground and water
targets.

(c) IGLA Missile. It is also low level surface to air guided

weapon. It is Russian missile and known as SAM-VIII in India. It has a
range of 5.2km and uses Infra Red Homing guidance

141
 (d) AKASH Missile System. It is all weather medium range
missile with range of 25 kms and altitude of 15000 mtrs. The weapon
uses command guidance system and can simultaneously engage
several air targets in fully automatic mode of operation.

Must Know Points

1. Definition of guided weapon.

Should Know Points

2. Surface to Air Guided Weapons held by Indian Air Force.

Could Know Points

3. Characteristics of guided weapons.

MCQ

4. An unpowered munitions not fired from a gun whether guided or not is

called bomb.

(a) Bomb (b) Rocket (c) Missile (d) Torpedo

True/False

5. The Pechora Guided Weapon complex is popularly known as SAM-III

system

Fill in the Blanks

7. A ……………. is self propelled, unmanned air or space vehicle

carrying payload whose flight path is capable of being altered by means of
guidance system.

VSA

8. What are the characteristics of a Guided Weapon?

SA

10. Write a short note about OSA-AK-M missile system

142
JBPTC/GSK/2.4

CHAPTER 28

AEROSPACE SAFETY

Introduction

1. Air Force has been established to defend the airspace of our country
from any foreign invasion. To accomplish this assigned task aerospace
safety is of paramount importance and is a concern of every personnel of
IAF.

Aerospace Safety

2. Our IAF, at majority of bases except a few maintains runway and

surrounding area (called airfield) by our own manpower and resources.
Aerospace safety means all measures undertaken by each and every one of
us to ensure that there is no chance of causing damages to aircraft while on
ground or in the air. It involves all actions and agencies that contribute
towards safe flying operations. It includes precautions during flying activities,
and non-flying activities like maintenance of aircraft and administrative
measures adopted to ensure safe flying ambience. Its main objective is to
prevent any aircraft accident that will be a huge loss to our nation.

Importance of Aerospace safety

3. Almost all the accidents are preventable. We lose valuable men and
aircraft due to flying accidents. A number of measures are taken and
Standard Operational Procedures (SOPs) have been laid down to prevent
these accidents, but still accidents do occur due to lack of awareness
amongst the personnel about aerospace safety or negligence on the part of
personnel. Aerospace Safety is the concern of all air warriors and we are
duty bound to follow the rules and regulations laid down for the Aerospace
safety.

Relevance of Aerospace Safety to Air Warriors

4. In IAF majority of airbases except few maintains runway and

surrounding area called airfield by our own manpower and resources. In few
other places, runway is used by civil aeroplanes in addition to our IAF flying
commitments.

143
5. The flying zone has to be kept clean and free from vegetation to avoid
bird movements. In addition to this, wild animals and human movements
should be restricted in and around the runway to avoid colliding with aircraft
while landing or take-off. Even hard objects like small stones, small pieces of
iron objects or even twigs can cause severe damage to aircraft engine while
at ground or near to ground. These objects sometimes get sucked by the
powerful jet engines causing huge damage to aircraft. All these objects are
referred to as ‘Foreign Object Damage (FOD)’. It is the duty of all the Air
Force personnel to ensure that we keep the aircraft maneuvering area clean
and free from FODs.

6. All air warriors can contribute their best by following the aerospace
safety measures laid by the authorities. All air warriors are to maintain a high
standard of cleanliness all around including at home and workplace. Taking
due care while disposing of waste food articles, used materials, poly bags,
papers etc may go a long way in maintaining clean and hygienic environment
which is of paramount importance for safe flying. If the waste materials are
not disposed of properly, it will attract birds and animals that are considered
to be enemies of Aerospace Safety.

7. Safe flying operations are the combination of the following:-

(a) Men

(b) Machine

(c) Management

(d) Medium

Men are considered to be the most important factor responsible for

safe flying. Accidents can be avoided if each one of us take due care while
discharging our duties. Therefore, Aerospace Safety which is pertinent to
maintain high level of operational preparedness, needs safety conscious air
warriors.

Detrimental Factors for Aerospace Safety

8. The following are considered to be the detrimental factors for

Aerospace safety as most of the flying accidents known so far took place
due to them:-

(a) Human Errors. Flying operations involve a large number of

activities coordinated by various agencies. Failure on the part of any
144
of them may result in flying accidents. Almost 45% of flying accidents
in IAF occur due to human errors. These errors may be due to the
following reasons:-

(i) Piling of garbage around the airfield area attracting

animals and birds.

(ii) Fish market and abattoirs located near the runway or

airfield where waste flesh of animals and fish attracts bird
causing flying hazards.

(iii) Crossing the runway by humans while flying activities

are on.

(iv) Non clearance of thick vegetations near the runway.

(v) Lack of aerospace safety consciousness among the

personnel and population living around the airfield.

Air warriors including air crew, servicing staff, supervisory /

supporting staff and others like personnel detailed for Foreign Object
Removal (FOR) parade, birds/animals control duties etc are liable to
commit errors. They also need to be very cautious and vigilant while
performing duties.

(b) Technical defects. Technical defects are the second most

detrimental factor for aerospace safety and are a matter of great
concern. Timely inspections, servicing, thorough checks by trained
crew, change of damaged or unserviceable spares, removal of foreign
objects, fixing of loose or missing parts etc are some of the important
factors that are directly linked with safe flying or flight safety.

(c) Natural / Operational risk. There is always natural or

operational risk involved in flying operations. Natural risks include
areas affected by uncertain weather, earthquake, gale,
floods,restricted maneuvering areas etc. Operational risks include
attack by enemy missile or other weapons on aircraft.

(d) Bird / Animal strike. An aircraft flies at a very high

speed. When a bird, which seems to be very small, hits airframe or
engine of an aircraft while landing/takeoff or flying; it causes
tremendous damage to the aircraft. A small bird may cause a huge
loss of men and material if ignored. Therefore, we need to take due
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 care of our surroundings and refrain from doing such acts which
attract birds. Animals also pose a great threat to an aircraft while
takeoff/landing or sucked by the highly powerful engine and cause
huge damage. As per Aircraft Act 1934 (Amendment 1988), if any
person contravenes any provision of any rule prohibiting the slaughter
and flaying of animals and depositing rubbish, filth and other polluted
and obnoxious matter within a radius of 10 Kms from the Aerodrome
reference point, he will be liable to get punished with imprisonment or
such less punishment as in this act mentioned.

Measures to be adopted to avoid Bird Menace around the Airfield

9. The following are some of the measures adopted to avoid bird

menace around the airfield:-

(a) Maintaining high standards of cleanliness around the airfield.

(b) Bird Hazard Combat Team (BHCT). Bird Hazard Combat

Team (BHCT) directly functions under the Station Aerospace Safety
and Inspection Officer (SASIO). This team is responsible for
eradicating birds around the runway. The team gathers necessary
information about various types of birds found in the area and their
habits. They also monitor mass movement of birds and take
preventive measure to control bird menace around the airfield.

(c) Prevent food source within airfield area.

(d) Do not dispose mess food, waste in the open areas which
would attract stray animals and birds.

(e) Garbage disposal should be in closed garbage bins only.

(f) Reduction in fruit bearing tress that attract birds.

(g) Control of fish population in water bodies in and around airfield.

(h) Aerospace safety meetings are conducted on quarterly basis to

spread awareness and smooth implementation of aerospace safety
measures.

(j) Meetings with local heads are also conducted to spread

awareness amongst civilian community residing around the airfield
and educate them to keep the area around airfields free from garbage.

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 (k) Regular checks of surrounding areas of the airfield are carried
out to prevent any undesirable activity which may be hazardous for
the aerospace safety.

(l) Additional measures such as deployment of Drum Beating

Teams, display of Scare Crows, placing zon-guns that give booming
sound periodically to scare away birds etc are taken to avoid bird
menace.

(m) Cleaning of vegetation in and around airfield is undertaken

frequently to prevent birds.

(n) Blue Bull Chasing Team (BBCT). Some Stations located at

Rajasthan and at Northern part of our country have porous perimeter
fencing wherein Blue Bull enters the campus from outside. These
animals enter camp during night hours or wee hours and they gather
at runway area causing serious hazards to landing / taking-off of
aircraft. In order to chase these animals away from the Air Force
campus, a team called Blue Bull Chasing Team comprising of
specially detailed personnel is formed to drive these animals away
from the campus. The BBCT gets a light vehicle, powerful search
lights and fire crackers to scare away these animals.

Measures to be adopted to avoid Animal Menace around the Airfield

10. The following are some of the measures adopted to avoid animal
menace around the airfield:-

(a) Provision of perimeter wall or fencing around the airfield to

check the entry of animal.

(b) Removal or eradication of stray animals inside the airfield.

(c) Provision of teams for chasing and eradicating stray animals.

(d) Spreading awareness amongst the personnel to adopt

measures to prevent stray animals. This include, not feeding animals
and avoid throwing away waste food in the open.

(a) Preventing from throwing or storing of food items around the

runway.

(e) Cleaning of vegetation in and around airfield is undertaken

frequently to prevent animals.
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Foreign Object Damage (FOD)

11. Foreign object damage is one of the major causes of aircraft

accidents. FOD are those foreign objects that find their way into the engine.
These are nuts, bolts, washers and other parts removed during disassembly
and were never counted and accounted for until they are refitted. FOD in
engines takes place by entry of foreign object through air intake. FOD is not
confined to engines only but they can cause obstruction to control
movements, shorting of electrical plugs etc. Conscious approach by all to
eliminate this servicing lapse is essential.

12. Preventive measures to avoid FOD related accidents. Proper

container should be used for storing removed parts. During subsequent
assembly presence of surplus parts should be viewed with as much
suspicion as deficiencies. The importance of counting and daily accounting
of tools should be a compulsory practice in every servicing section. Daily
issue and receipt of tools from a well managed tool crib will greatly assist
FOD control. To prevent FOD unwanted movement should be restricted
around the aircraft maneuvering area. Entry control points are made around
aircarft maneuvering area.

13. FOD Lane. FOD lane is a yellow lane on Taxi track away from
aircraft maneuvering area. The purpose of this lane is to restrict all vehicular
movements near the aircraft. This FOD lane is also to ensure that in case of
foreign object that falls from service vehicles or by personnel are away from
the aircraft. During cleaning up operations, special attention is given in these
FOD lanes to clear up any foreign solid objects that can cause serious
damages to aircraft.

14. Foreign Object Removal Parade. It is performed by a group of

personnel to detect, collect and report any object found in the runway or
aircraft maneuvering area. This team is responsible for picking up of
unwanted objects from these areas, put them in bags given for the purpose
and deposit the same with the concerned supervisory staff. During FOR
parade, personnel are not to wear or keep any metallic item with them which
may itself become a cause for FOD if falls on the runway or aircraft
maneuvering area. This parade is conducted prior to commencement of
flying.

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 Foreign Object Removal Parade

Crossing the Runway

15. In certain inevitable circumstances, MT vehicles or individuals may

need to cross the runway. In such cases due care to be exercised while
crossing the runway. There are designated traffic crossing points which are
to be used to cross the runway. Traffic signals/Guards are deployed at the
runway to control the traffic crossing the runway. One has to adhere to the
signal from the traffic light or the guard before crossing. In addition to the
clearance to cross, one has to ensure that there is no aircraft in the
approach.

Rewards and Recognition for Flight Safety

16. Directorate of Aerospace Safety at Air HQs had instituted special

commendations, rewards and cash awards for any air warrior who innovates
various measures / devices that contribute to flight safety in IAF.

17. The directorate publishes monthly magazine called ‘Flight Safety’

wherein any good article/write-up contributing to aerospace safety is
rewarded suitably.

Some DOs and DON’Ts pertaining to Flight Safety

18. The following are some DOs and Don’ts pertaining to flight safety.

DOs
(a) Ensure absolute cleanliness in the aircraft maneuvering area.

(b) Report immediately any sort of electrical spark, fuel leak in

hangers, where aircraft are parked, to the concerned authorities.

(c) Cross runway only through authorized locations.

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 DON’Ts

(a) Do not drive private vehicles in aircraft maneuvering area.

(b) Do not drive service vehicles beyond FOD lane.

(c) Drive slowly in aircraft maneuvering area.

(d) While crossing the runway through authorized locations,

ensure that green light is on, before you cross the runway.

(e) While a helicopter has landed or before it takes off do not go

near the vicinity of aircraft when the rotors are in rotation. Approach
the aircraft only when the rotors stop.

(f) In case of propeller driven aircraft, do not approach the aircraft

for any reason when the propellers have started its rotation. Approach
the aircraft only when the propellers have stopped rotation.

(g) In case of latest fighter aircraft the engine suction and the
exhaust may be enough powerful to cause damage to life. Hence do
not approach these aircraft when the engine is running. Keep safe
distance when the engine is on. Even the headgear (Side Cap) gets
sucked by the engine from 10-15 feet distance.

Conclusion.

19. Aerospace safety is of immense importance for all air warriors. We are
duty bound to follow the rules and regulations made for aerospace safety.
Knowledge of these rules and regulations, and safety consciousness on the
part of all personnel may largely benefit IAF enabling it to safeguard the
aerospace of the country. Our contribution in this regard will make us worthy
air warrior of this great organization.

Must Know Points

1. Importance of Aerospace Safety.

Should know Points

2. Preventive measures to be adopted to minimize flying accidents.

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Could Know Points

3. Salient features of Aerospace Safety and its effect on Organisation.

MCQ

4. Aerospace Safety is the concern of _________________.

(a) SASIO (b) COO (c) Security Section (d) All Air Warriors

Fill in the blanks

6. BHCT directly functions under __________________ at Station level.

True/False

6. Runways should be located away from thickly populated area.

7. Bird hit is one of the major causes of aircraft accident.

VSA

8. Define the concept of ‘Aerospace Safety’.

9. Write down any four causes which may contribute towards accidents
in flying.

SA

10. Write down the salient feature of ‘Aerospace Safety’.

11. What are the DOs and DON’Ts pertaining to Flight Safety?

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SECTION –III

FIRE

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JBPTC/GSK/3.1
CHAPTER 29

CAUSES AND TYPES OF FIRE

Introduction

1. The risk of fire at Air Force Station is exceptionally great as highly

inflammable materials are constantly used and handled. We must remember
that prevention of fire is more important than putting it out. Let us know what
is fire?

2. What is Fire? Fire is a chemical process in which one or more

substances combine with oxygen in the air and in the process, produces
heat and light.

Causes of Fire.

3. If the cause of fire is known, immediate measures can be adopted for

its prevention. The causes of fire can be classified under the following main
headings:

(a) Carelessness.
(b) Ignorance
(c) Accidents

4. Other than this there can be many direct causes. Every fire has its
own direct cause. Never allow actions which may lead to a fire. For example:

(a) Careless disposal of matches, cigarette ends, pipe ashes etc.

(b) Careless ironing of clothes.
(c) Careless use of petrol.
(d) Smoking near petrol store or near prohibited area.
(e) Improper storage of inflammable materials.
(f) Improper use of electrical appliances.
(g) Spring loaded cigarette lighters being dropped near aircraft or
petrol installations.
(h) Piling of domestic refuse without proper protection.
(j) Short- circuit in electrical circuits.
(k) Electrical Leakage.

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Types of Fire

5. There are different types of fire as mentioned.

(a) Solid Fire. It is a fire occurring in any solid material such as

wood, grass, coal, fabric, paper etc. It is also termed as class A fire.

(b) Liquid Fire. This type of fire occurs in any inflammable liquid
like petrol, oil etc. It is also termed as class B fire.

(c) Electrical Fire. It occurs as result of shorting of electrical

circuit or due to electric leakage. In this case when the electric supply
is put off it is treated same as a class “A” fire.

(d) Gas Fire. It occurs in any inflammable gas. It is also termed

as class C fire.

(e) Metallic Fire. It occurs in metals. It is also termed as

class D fire.

Precautions against Outbreak of Fire

6. In order to ensure that fire does not break out, the following
precautions must be taken:

(a) Do not smoke in prohibited places.

(b) Do not throw empty tins of fuel.

(c) Exposure of inflammable liquids near lighted stove, naked fire

or running engine is prohibited. Due care must be taken in handling of
inflammable liquids and they should be wiped out immediately, if spilt.

(d) Inflammable materials are to be kept inside authorised stores

only and due care must be taken while handling them.

(e) Before closing any section, it must be ensured that all lights,
heaters and electric mains are switched-off and fire in stoves and fire
appliances are put off.

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Station / Unit Fire Orders

7. At every Station, there is a Fire Section, where all the major fire
fighting appliances are kept ready for use. In addition to these, first-aid fire
fighting equipment like buckets full of water, sand and extinguishers are also
kept at fire points. The upkeep and serviceability of all fire equipment is the
responsibility of the Station Fire Section. Actions to be taken in the event of
fire are enumerated in Station Fire Orders which are a part of Station
Standing Orders.

First Aid in Fire Accidents

8. The following first aid should be provided to the victim of fire accident:

(a) The patient whose cloths are burning should not be allowed to
run. He should be covered with blanket and made to roll.
(b) Cloths are to be cut away, taking care not to pull any portion of
the skin.
(c) Blisters are not to be opened.
(d) Burns are to be covered with a clean towel or dressing. The
patient may be given hot coffee, tea or brandy.

Conclusion

9. ‘Prevention is Always Better than Cure’. So we must acquaint

ourselves with fire orders which are kept in the SWO’s office and displayed
at important places in the Unit. In case of fire, proper action as laid down in
fire orders must be taken. If everyone knows how to fight a fire, there is no
reason for panic in case there is fire. Prevention of fire is everybody’s
responsibility. So we must exercise care at all times and at all places and
guard against outbreak or fire.

“Fire is a good servant and a bad master”

Must Know Points

1. Precautions against outbreak of fire.

Should Know Points

155
2. Prevention of fire.

Could Know Points

3. Fire orders.

MCQ

4. The most common cause for the outbreak of fire is:-

(a) Ignorance (b) Accident (c) Carelessness (d) None of these

True/False

5. Carelessness is the most common cause for the outbreak of fire.

6. Improper use of / leakage in electrical appliances causes fire.

Fill in the Blanks

7. Fire is caused due to carelessness, ignorance and………..

Very Short Answer Questions

8. List out the common causes of fire.

9. Enumerate different types of fire.

Short Answer Question

10. What precautionary measures one should adopt against outbreak of

fire?

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JBPTC/GSK/3.2
CHAPTER 30

FIRE EXTINGUISHERS – TYPES AND USE

Introduction

1. There are three constituents of fire, i.e., Fuel, Oxygen and Heat. Fire
cannot exist if any one of them is removed. Thus, there are three principal
methods of extinguishing fire. They are:

2. Starving. Isolating the material, which is not on fire, from that, which
is already on fire. Depending on the type of fire, starving can be achieved by
removing material not actually burning, demolition of buildings, cutting off the
patch of land on which dry grass is burning, by cutting avenues around that
patch etc., This will break up the fire into smaller fire which can be more
easily and readily dealt with.

3. Smothering. Not allowing oxygen to come in contact with the burning

material. The application of smothering agent to prevent oxygen reaching the
fire will cause combustion to cease. Some of the smothering agents are the
smothering blanket made of asbestos, loose sand, foam, CO 2 gas, etc.

4. Cooling. Cooling the material or reducing the temperature of the

fuel.
157
Water should be applied freely on the burning object. A large amount of heat
is required in vaporizing the water, so applied. This heat absorption by the
water results in a rapid reduction of heat production.

Types and Uses of Fire Extinguishers

Photographs Of Fire Point

5. There are various types of fire extinguishers in use. It is important that

the appropriate type of extinguisher is used on a particular type of fire.
Various extinguishers in use in the Air Force are described in the succeeding
paragraphs.

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6. Class “A” Solid Fire. In order to control solid fire, 09 ltr Water CO2
extinguisher is used. The description & operation of this extinguisher is as
follows:

(a) Identification. Painted in Red colour and nozzle is fitted on the

main body at 45˚ angle.

(b) Contents. Main body contains water and a CO2 Gas

Cartridge.

(c) Operation. By striking the plunger, cartridge is punctured. The

extinguisher is operated upright and the jet is directed towards the
base of the fire.

7. Class “B” Liquid Fire. Water cannot be used to put out liquid fire as
the liquid (e.g., oil) being lighter, will float on the surface of water and
continue burning. It is, therefore, to be put out by smothering, i.e., by cutting
out oxygen supply. For this purpose, foam extinguishers are used. Foam
floats on the surface of burning liquid and cuts off the oxygen supply and
also brings down the temperature of the burning material. The description
and operation of the extinguisher is given below:
(a) Identification. Painted in Red colour and is fitted with a
special rubber hose.

(b) Contents. The main body contains AFFF (Aqueous Film

Forming Foam) and portable water solution and a CO2 Gas Cartridge.

(c) Operation. By striking the plunger, cartridge is punctured.

Foam jet is directed to the seat of fire.

8. Electrical Fire. Fire caused due to electrical short circuit cannot be

extinguished by foam or other fire extinguishers as they are conductors of
electricity. Electrical fire is not classified into any class of fire because after
cutting off of power supply it is classified into any class of fire. For this
purpose, Carbon-di-oxide gas extinguisher or dry chemical powder
extinguisher is used.

(a) Carbon-di-Oxide Gas Extinguisher. Carbon-di-oxide is a gas

at ordinary pressure but under high pressure, it liquifies.

(i) It is made of steel.

(ii) It contains liquid Carbon-di-oxide under high pressure.

159
 (iii) When the seal is broken, the liquid vaporises into gas
which is directed at the base of fire. Being a heavy gas, it
covers the fire and puts it out.
(b) Dry Chemical Extinguisher. Sodium-bi-carbonate mixed with
metallic striate and Carbon-di-oxide, kept under high pressure in a
strong steel cartridge is used for metallic fire.

Conclusion

10. Timely action and right use of the suitable fire extinguisher helps to
control fire. We must be conversant with all types of fire extinguishers and
their operation, so that in the event of an outbreak of fire we can act quickly
to put out the fire instead of being helpless spectators.

Types of Fire Extinguishers

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Must Know Points

1. Various types of fire extinguishers used in the service.

Should Know Points

2. Identify the various types of fire extinguishers.
161
Could Know Points

3. Operational procedure to use various fire extinguishers.

MCQ

4. Which of the following is not a constituent of fire:-

(a) Fuel (b) Oxygen (c) Kerosene (D)

Heat

5. Which of the following is not a principal method of extinguishing fire:-

(a) Starving (b) Fire precaution (c) Smothering (d) Cooling

True/False

6. Cooling the materials or reducing the temperature of the fuel is a

method to extinguish fire.

7. The principle of starving means not allowing oxygen to come in

contact with burning material.

Fill In the Blanks:-

8. Isolating the materials which is not on fire from that which is already
on fire is called ___________

9. ________ means not allowing oxygen to come in contact with the

burning materials.

VSA

10. What are the three principal methods of extinguishing fire?

11. Explain the functioning of soda acid extinguisher.

SA

12. Describe in brief about “Methyl Bromide” fire extinguisher.

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JBPTC/GSK/3.3
CHAPTER 31

FIRE TENDERS: TYPES AND THEIR USES

Introduction

1. Fire appliances such as water, CO2 or Foam extinguishers are known

as First-Aid fire extinguishers. These can be used to put out small fire but
are inadequate to put out major fire due to their limited capacity and
effectiveness. Truck Fire Fighting large (TFFL) and Truck Fire Fighting (TFF)
are used to extinguish major fire.

Domestic Fire Tenders

3. In case of a major fire incident in any building/ place the first aid fire
extinguishers may not be effective in controlling the fire. To meet such
eventualities, a Domestic Fire Tender (DFT) is used. A DFT has provisions
for storing water as well stocking fire extinguishers and related accessories
to control major fire. The DFT is also effective, wherever, there is a shortage
of water. The DFT Crew are also trained to carry out rescue operations in
case of such emergencies.

Truck Fire Fighting (TFF)

Truck Fire Fighting (TFF)

4. In case of a major fire incident in any building/ place the first aid fire
extinguishers may not be effective in controlling the fire. To meet such
eventualities, a Truck Fire Fighting (TFF) is used. A TFF has provisions for
storing water, Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF) as well as stocking fire
extinguishers and related accessories to control major fires. The TFF is also
effective, wherever, there is a shortage of water. The TFF Crew are also
trained to carry out rescue operations in case of such emergencies.
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Crash Fire Tender

5. In case of aircraft related accidents a Crash Fire Tender (CFT) is

used. As the name suggests, it is mainly used for fire caused by air crashes,
burning of Aviation Turbine Fuel (ATF) etc. Crash tenders have good speed
to reach the place of the crash site quickly. Foam making compounds and
CO2 is used for extinguishing the fire. As a secondary role, the crash tender
can also be used as normal fire tender.

6. Conclusion. Proper maintenance of the major fire appliances

has special importance. The life of a pilot or valuable stores could be saved
only if the tenders are always serviceable and kept ready round the clock.
Chief Engineering Officer is responsible for proper servicing and
replacement of Fire Fighting Equipment.

Must Know Points

1. Brief description of TFFs and CFTs.

Should Know Points

2. Practical operational procedure of TFFs and CFTs.

Could Know Points

3. Different types of fire extinguishers.

MCQ

4. DFT stands for …………

(a) Domestic Fire Trailer (b) Daily Fire Tender

(c) Domestic Fire Tender (d) Daily Fire Task

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Fill in the Blanks

5. In case of aircraft related accidents a ……………………. is used.

6. In case of a major fire incident in any building/ place …………is used.

True/False

7. In case of aircraft related accidents a Crash Fire Tender (CFT) is

deployed.

VSA/SA

8. What is domestic fire tender?

9. What is crash fire tender?

165