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Answer:

1. 25% probability of the child to be affected.


2. 0% chances to be affected.

Explanation:

Let us represent the dominant allele with an A and the recessive allele with an a.

Scenario 1:

The man and woman do not have SCA. However, each has one parent with the disorder.

They do not have SCA, which means that they have at least one dominant allele in their
genotypes (A-).

If each of them has a parent with the disorder, then that parent is homozygous recessive
(aa) and gave a recessive allele to the progeny. So the man and the woman also have a
recessive allele in their genotypes.

Cross:

Parentals) Aa x Aa

Gametes) A a A a

Proportion) 1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2

Punnett square) A (1/2) a (1/2)

A (1/2) AA(1/4) Aa (1/4)

a (1/2) Aa (1/4) aa (1/4)

F1) There are 3/4 = 75% of probabilities for their child to be normal

There are 1/4 = 25% of probabilities for their child to be affected by the disorder.

The man and the woman have 50% of the chances (each) of giving their child a recessive
allele.

50% (from the woman) x 50% (from the man) = 25% probabilities of the child to be
affected.

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Scenario 2:

The man is affected by the disorder, but the woman has no family history of SCA.

The man is affected which means that he homozygous recessive for the trait, aa.

The woman is normal as all the members of her family, so her genotype must be
homozygous dominant, AA.

Cross:

Parentals) AA x aa

Gametes) A A a a

Proportion) 1/2 1/2 1/2 1/2

Punnett square) A(1/2) A(1/2)

a (1/2) Aa (1/4) Aa(1/4)

a (1/2) Aa (1/4) Aa(1/4)

F1) The whole progeny will be heterozygous for the trait, Aa.

There are 1/4 = 100% of probabilities for their child to be normal, and 0%

chances to be affected.

The man can only give recessive alleles to the progeny, but the woman can only give
dominant alleles to the progeny.

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