RTS 2 - July To December 2022-52-62

CURRENT AFFAIR TEST SERIES-2023| RTS-2
69. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Union Minority Affairs Minister has inaugurated a national conference of
Central Wakf Council(CWC) in New Delhi (not in lucknow). The minister said here that the Central
Government has set a target to achieve 100% digitisation of Waqf properties across the country in its first 100
days.There are more than 6 lakh registered Waqf properties across the country.
● Statement 2 is incorrect:Central Wakf Council is a statutory body established in 1964 by the
Government of India under Wakf Act,1954. The council advises the government on matters pertaining to
the working of the State Wakf Boards and proper administration of the Wakfs in the country.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Wakf is a permanent dedication of movable or immovable properties for religious,
pious or charitable purposes as recognized by Muslim Law, given by philanthropists.
70. Answer: A
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: Parliamentary privileges are special rights, immunities and exemptions enjoyed by
the two Houses of Parliament, their committees and their members. These privileges are defined in Article
105 of the Indian Constitution. Under these privileges, the members of Parliament are exempted from any
civil liability (but not criminal liability) for any statement made or act done in the course of their duties.
● Statement 2 is incorrect: The members enjoy freedom from arrest in any civil case 40 days before and after
the adjournment of the house and also when the house is in session. (It does not include criminal cases)
● Statement 3 is incorrect: If the detention of any members of the parliament is made, the chairman or the
speaker should be informed by the concerned authority, of the reason for the arrest.But a member can be
arrested outside the limits of the house on criminal charges against him under the Preventive Detention act,
the Essential Services Maintenance Act (ESMA), the National Security Act (NSA), or any such act.
71. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect: The Bal Aadhaar, a precursor to a standard Aadhaar, is issued in blue colour to
children aged up to five. Upon expiration, a regular Aadhaar is issued. Bal Aadhaar is issued by the Unique
Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). Bal Aadhaar is issued with a remark that this is valid till the child
attains the age of 5 years
● Statement 2 is correct: Bal Aadhaar works as a facilitator in availing several welfare benefits, and also works
as a digital photo identity for children.
● Statement 3 is incorrect: Biometrics to establish uniqueness for the Bal Aadhar is not collected unlike in the
case of Aadhaar. A facial image of a child is instead taken for enrolment. Biometric authentication of the
parent/guardian and a proof of relationship document, preferably a birth certificate, are collected at the time of
enrolment.
72. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. When a central bank is successful in slowing down the economy without bringing
about a recession, it is called soft landing — that is, no one gets hurt. But when the actions of the central bank
bring about a recession, it is called hard-landing.
Statement 2 is not correct. Inversion of the bond yield curve has become a strong predictor of
Recessions, if such an inversion lasts for several months. Under normal circumstances, any economy would have
an upward sloping yield curve. That is to say, as one lends for a longer duration — or as one buys bonds of longer
tenure — one gets higher yields. Moreover, a longer tenure also implies that there is a greater risk of failure.
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Inverted Yield Curve: There are times when this bond yield curve becomes inverted. For instance, bonds with a
tenure of 2 years end up paying out higher yields (returns/ interest rate) than bonds with a 10-year tenure. Such an
inversion of the yield curve essentially suggests that investors expect future growth to be weak.
73. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 and 2 are correct. Masala Bonds, like any other off-shore bonds, are debt instruments that help
to raise money in local currency from foreign investors. Both the government and private entities can issue
these bonds. According to RBI, the maturity period is three years for the bonds raised to the rupee equivalent
of 50 million dollars in a financial year and the maturity period is five years for the bonds raised above the
rupee equivalent of 50 million dollars in a financial year.
 Statement 3 is not correct. As the ‘masala bonds’ are rupee-denominated bonds, the foreign exchange
fluctuations would not affect these bonds. Thus, if the rupee rate falls, the investor will bear the loss and not
the borrower.
74. Answer: B
Explanation
 Statement 1 and 3 are not correct. Digital Banks or DBs are full-scale banks to be licensed under the
Banking Regulation Act. Unlike traditional banks, which require brick-and-mortar infrastructure or physical
access points, digital banks simply leverage technology to provide banking services through mobile
applications and internet-based platforms. DBs behave like any other scheduled commercial bank like
accepting deposits, giving loans etc. They will follow all prudential and liquidity norms at par with the
commercial banks.
 Statement 2 is correct. They are example of Neo Banks. A neobank is a kind of digital bank without any
branches. Rather than being physically present at a specific location, neobanking is entirely online. Neobanks
are financial institutions that give customers a cheaper alternative to traditional banks. They leverage
technology and artificial intelligence to offer personalised services to customers while minimising operating
costs. Neobanks entered the financial system with the tag of 'challenger banks' because they challenged the
complex infrastructure and client on boarding process of traditional banks.
75. Answer: C
Explanation:
Statement 1, 2 and 4 are not correct. For the first time, in the 11th Agricultural Census, the data will be
collected through smart phones and tablets. The first edition of the census was conducted in 1970-71.
The agricultural census is the main source of information on a variety of parameters, such as the number and area
of operational holdings, their size, class-wise distribution, land use, tenancy and cropping pattern, etc. The basic
unit of data collection in Agriculture Census is the operational holding.
Statement 3 is correct. The Agriculture Census is conducted every 5 years by the Department of Agriculture,
Cooperation and Farmers Welfare under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
76. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. Twin deficit refers to a nation’s current account deficit and a simultaneous fiscal
deficit.
Fiscal Deficit - It is the shortfall in a government's income compared with its spending. Reasons for its Deficit:
Increasingexpenditures (e.g. Fertiliser Subsidy),Reduced revenues due to pandemic,excise duty cuts on diesel and
petrol etc.
Current Account Deficit - One of the two main accounts in theBalance of Payments (BoP), CAD (orSurplus)
records exports and imports in goods and services and transfer payments of a country. Reasons for its Deficit:
Increased energy imports and Global Commodity Prices (e.g. crude oil, edible oils), Higher domestic demand and
Uncompetitive Exports.
Statement 2 is correct.In following way twin deficit can be controlled -

● Rationalising non-capex expenditures
● Fiscal Consolidation through tight monetary policy.
● Import substitution/cuts, especially fossil fuels and nonessential goods.
● Fair valuation of Rupee for competitive exports.
● Ease of Doing Business reforms for continued Capital inflows.
Statement 3 is correct. Fiscal Slippage in simple terms is any deviation in expenditure from the expected. For
example let’s say a trader wishes to buy a certain stock at Rs.10 and 1000 in number. Fiscal deficit can cause
fiscal slippage.
77. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statements 1 and 3 are correct. CAQM is a statutory body formed under the Commission for Air Quality
Management in National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas, Act 2021. It aims to ensure better coordination,
research, identification and resolution of problems surrounding the air quality index and for matters connected
therewith or incidental thereto. Adjoining areas have been defined as areas in the states of Haryana, Punjab,
Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh adjoining the NCR where any source of pollution may cause an adverse impact on
air quality in the NCR.
The commission envisages for consolidated approach towards monitoring, elimination of pollution sources and
enforcement. The commission will have the power to coordinate with relevant state and central governments on
the multi-sector plan including industry, power plants, agriculture, transport, residential and construction.
Statement 2 is incorrect . The Commission is chaired by a Chairperson who should be a person with experience
of not less than 15 years in the field of environmental protection and pollution control or having administrative
experience of not less than 25 years.
78. Answer: B
Explanation:
Only statement 1 is correct and all other statements are not correct. The Ministry of Environment, Forests
and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) has notified amendments to the Environmental Impact Assessment(EIA) Rules,
making several exemptions to gaining environmental clearance. Following are the amendments made -
● Highway projects of strategic and defence importance ➔ The amendment exempt Highway projects of
strategic and defence importance, which are 100 km from the Line of Control, among other locations, from an
environmental clearance before construction.
● The exemption to be accorded to highways of strategic importance does away with the need for green
clearance for the construction of the controversial Char Dham project. The case is presently being heard in
Supreme Court, which has set up a high-powered committee to look into the matter.
● Biomass-Based Thermal Power Plants - Thermal power plants up to 15 MW based on biomass or non-
hazardous municipal solid waste using auxiliary fuel such as coal, lignite or petroleum products up to 15%
have also been exempted — as long as the fuel mix is eco-friendly.
● Fish Handling Ports and Harbour - Fish handling ports and harbours with less pollution potential compared to
others, and caters to small fishermen, are exempted from environmental clearance.
● Toll Plazas - Toll plazas that need more width for installation of toll collection booths to cater to a large
number of vehicles, and expansion activities in existing airports related to terminal building expansion without
an increase in the airport’s existing area, rather than expansion of runways, etc., are two other projects
exempted.
79. Answer: D
Explanation:
\Statement 1 is not correct. There is no F Virus. Usually caused by a group of viruses known as the “hepatotropic” (liver
directed) viruses, including A, B, C, D and E. Other viruses may also cause it, such as the varicella virus that causes
chicken pox. SARS-CoV-2, the virus causing Covid-19 may injure the liver, too. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. Other
causes include drugs and alcohol abuse, fat buildup in the liver (fatty liver hepatitis) or an autoimmune process in which a
person’s body makes antibodies that attack the liver (autoimmune hepatitis).
Statement 3 is not correct. Hepatitis A and E are self-limiting diseases (i.e. go away on their own) and require no
specific antiviral medications. For Hepatitis B and C, effective medications are available.
Statement 4 is correct. Hepatitis B is included under India's Universal Immunization Programme (UIP) which
provides free of cost vaccination against eleven (excluding Hepatitis B) vaccine-preventable diseases i.e.
Tuberculosis, Diphtheria, Pertussis, Tetanus, Polio, Pneumonia and Meningitis due to Haemophilus Influenzae
type b (Hib), Measles, Rubella, Japanese Encephalitis (JE) and Rotavirus diarrhoea. Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal
and Thailand became the first four countries in the World Health Organization’s Southeast Asia region to have
successfully controlled Hepatitis B.
80. Answer: C
Explanation:
Both statements are correct. A cloudburst refers to an extreme amount of rain that happens in a short period,
sometimes accompanied by hail and thunder. India Meteorological Department(IMD) defines a Cloudburst as
unexpected precipitation exceeding 100 mm (or 10 cm) per hour over a geographical region of approximately 20
to 30 square km. All instances of cloudbursts involve heavy rain in a short period but all instances of heavy rain in
a short period are not cloudbursts if they do not fit this criterion. The relative humidity and cloud cover are at the
maximum level with low temperature and slow winds because of which a high amount of clouds may get
condensed at a very rapid rate and result in a cloudburst.
81. Answer: B
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. The Large Hadron Collider is a giant, complex machine built to study particles that
are the smallest known building blocks of all things. It is a 27-km-long track-loop buried 100 meters underground
on the Swiss-French border. It is Built by European Organization for Nuclear Research(CERN) between 1998
and 2008 in collaboration with over 10,000 scientists from hundreds of universities and laboratories. It is the
world’s largest and most powerful particle accelerator.
Statement 2 is correct. When you deal with nuclear physics, we usually come across matter that is made up of
particles such as protons, neutrons, and electrons. These particles are made up of subatomic particles called
Quarks.
Statement 3 is correct : A quark is a type of elementary particle and a fundamental constituent of matter and
when three quarks combine they produce a composite particle known as Hadron.
82. Answer: D
Explanation:
Statement 1 is not correct. It is an winter phenomenon and not summers. Azores High is a subtropical high
pressure system that extends over the eastern subtropical North Atlantic and western Europe during winter. It is
associated with anticyclonic winds in the subtropical NorthAtlantic.
Statement 2 is correct. It is formed by dry air aloft descending the subtropics and coincides
with the downward branch of the Hadley Circulation. A Hadley Cells are the low-latitude overturning circulations
that have air rising at the equator and air sinking at roughly 30° latitude. They are responsible for the trade winds
in the Tropics and control low-latitude weather patterns. Hadley cells could extend all the way to the poles.
Statement 3 is correct. Following are the impact of it – An annual drying of 5-10 millimetres per year per decade
has been recorded in the Iberian Peninsula throughout the second half of the 20th century. A further 10-20% drop
in winter precipitation is expected by the end of the 21st century. These projected changes make agriculture of the
Iberian region some of the most vulnerable in Europe.
83. Answer:B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect. A service charge is a tip or a direct transaction between the customer and the
restaurant staff, specifically the wait staff. It is a fee collected to pay for services associated with the purchase
of a primary product or service. It is collected by hospitality sectors and food and beverage industries as a fee
for serving customers.
 Statement 2 is correct. No hotel or restaurant shall force a consumer to pay the service charge and shall
clearly inform the consumer that the service charge is voluntary, optional, and at the consumer’s discretion.
 Statement 3 is incorrect. Service charge shall not be collected from consumers by any other name.
84. Answer: A
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. The Government of India has approved a government resolution for establishing the
Financial Services Institutions Bureau(FSIB) in place of the Banks Board Bureau(BBB).
 Statement 2 is correct. As a body of eminent professionals and officials to make recommendations for the
appointment of whole-time directors as well as non-executive chairpersons of public sector banks(PSBs) and
state-owned financial institutions
 Statement 3 is not correct. FSIB will do the same job but with a much larger, legally tenable mandate. It will be a
single entity for making recommendations for the appointments of whole-time directors, non-executive chairman in
Public Sector Banks(PSBs), state-run non-life insurance companies and other financial institutions.
85. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is correct. It allowed Indians to receive up to Rs 10 lakh annually from their relatives abroad
under FCRA. The limit earlier was Rs 1 lakh.
 Statement 2 is incorrect. Organizations receiving foreign funds will not be able to use more than 20% of
such funds for administrative purposes. This limit was 50% before 2020.
 Statement 3 is correct. FCRA has given individuals and organizations or NGOs 45 days to inform the ministry about
bank account(s) that are to be used for the utilization of such funds. This time limit was 30 days earlier.
86. Answer: B
Explanation:
 Statement 1 is incorrect. The Act recognizes the Rights of Self-cultivation and habitation which are usually
regarded as Individual rights. It also recognizes community Rights such as Grazing, Fishing and access to
Water bodies in forests, Habitat Rights for PVTGs, community right to intellectual property and traditional
knowledge or recognition of traditional customary rights.
 Statement 2 is correct. It also provides rights to the allocation of forest land for developmental purposes to
fulfill the basic infrastructural needs of the community.
 Statement 3 is correct. The Act further enjoins upon the Gram Sabha and rights holders the responsibility of
conservation and protection of biodiversity, wildlife, forests as well as to stop any destructive practices
affecting these resources or cultural and natural heritage of the tribal.
 The Gram Sabha is also a highly empowered body under the Act, enabling the tribal population to have a
decisive say in the determination of local policies and schemes impacting them.
87. Answer: A
Explanation:
Electromagnetic Waves are the electromagnetic spectrum in which electric and magnetic field vectors change
sinusoidal and are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the direction of propagation of the wave.
Electromagnetic waves are synchronized oscillations of electric and magnetic fields. The waves travel at the speed
of light while in a vacuum, the speed being commonly denoted as c.
A transverse wave is formed when oscillations of the two fields are perpendicular to each other and perpendicular
to the direction of energy and wave propagation, while the material it passes through has a homogeneous
composition.
The position of an electromagnetic wave within the spectrum can be characterized by either its frequency of
movement to and fro or its wavelength.
Electromagnetic waves of different frequencies are called by different names since they have different sources and
effects on matter. In order of increasing frequency and decreasing wavelength, these are radio waves, microwaves,
infrared radiation, visible light, ultraviolet radiation, X-rays, and gamma rays.
88. Answer: A
Explanation:
Statement 1 is correct. Co-operative Banks are legal entities with proper regulatory and administrative
mechanism, while Co-operative credit societies do not have any well established procedures. They simply
registered under Registrar Genera. Both are registered under either Co-operatives societies act of respective
states or Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act, 2002
What are Co-operative banks in India?
● Co-operative Banks are divided into two categories – urban and rural.
● Rural cooperative credit institutions could either be short-term or long-term in nature.
● Short-term cooperative credit institutions are further sub-divided into State Co-operative Banks, District
Central Co-operative Banks, Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
● The long-term institutions are either State Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks
(SCARDBs) or Primary Cooperative Agriculture and Rural Development Banks (PCARDBs).
● On the other hand, Urban Co-operative Banks (UBBs) are either scheduled or non-scheduled banks.
Co-operative Banks Regulation and Management
● Cooperative banks are registered under the States Cooperative Societies Act.
● They are registered and regulated by the Registrar of Co-operative Societies of the respective State
governments and by the Central Registrar of Co-operative Societies if these entities function in more than one
State.
● These banks also come under the regulatory ambit of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) under two laws,
namely, the Banking Regulation Act 1949 and the Banking Laws (Co-operative Societies) Act, 1955.
Statement 2 is incorrect : Government has brought an ordinance amending the Banking Regulation 1949 Act
allowing Cooperative Credit societies to perform Banking activities .
89. Answer: C
Explanation:
The Central Government and the Board as the case may be, while exercising its powers, discharging its functions,
or undertaking any other activity under this Act, shall be guided by the following objectives, namely: -
(a) Optimizing production, sale, and consumption of Coffee, which may include: -
(i) promoting the export of Coffee;
(ii) promoting the sale and consumption of Coffee, including through e-commerce platforms;
(iii) promoting the quality of Coffee which is grown and consumed in India, and exported from India
with a view to enhancing consumer satisfaction and benefits to the Coffee industry;
(iv) promoting and furthering the interests of growers, curers, exporters, and other stakeholders in the
Coffee industry;
(v) assisting in the transfer of technology relevant to Coffee to growers, curers, and other entities carrying on
business in the Coffee industry;
(vi) promoting the sustainable cultivation of Coffee;
(vii) Increasing production of Coffee by bringing more suitable areas across India (viii)Increasing productivity
of Coffee to ensure remunerative income to growers;
(ix) providing support and encouragement to growers, including transfer of technology;
(x) encouraging fair and remunerative prices for growers;
(xi) safeguarding the interests of Coffee plantation workers; (xii) enhancing the capacity of Coffee
communities;
(xiii) Developing a sustainable Coffee sector in economic, social, and environmental terms; and
(xiv) Increasing awareness among the general public about the Coffee industry in India.
Hence, only option 4 is correct.
90. Answer: D
Explanation:
● According to the CERN release, most exotic hadrons discovered in the past two decades are tetraquarks or
pentaquarks containing a charm quark and a charm antiquark — with the remaining two or three quarks being
an up, down or strange quark or their antiquarks.
● Statement 1 is correct: Quarks are elementary particles that come in six “flavors”: up, down, charm, strange,
top, and bottom.
● Statement 2 is correct: They usually combine together in groups of twos and threes to form hadrons such as
the protons and neutrons that make up atomic nuclei.
● Statement 3 is correct: But they can also combine into four-quark and five-quark particles called tetraquarks
and pentaquarks.
● Open charm means that the particle contains a charm quark without an equivalent antiquark.
91. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement (a) 1 is Incorrect. It is a widespread, long-lived, straight-line wind storm that is associated with a
fast moving group of severe thunderstorms known as a mesoscale convective system
● Statement (b) is Correct. A warm-weather phenomenon, derechos occur mostly in summer, especially
during June, July, and August in the Northern Hemisphere (or March, April, and May in the Southern
Hemisphere), within areas of moderately strong instability and moderately strong vertical wind shear.
● Statement (c) is Incorrect. However, derechos may occur at any time of the year, and can occur as frequently
at night as during the day
● Statement (d) is Incorrect. Some states of USA were hit by a storm system called a derecho.
92. Answer: D
Explanation:
● India imports almost 85% of its petroleum needs, and due to rising oil prices, the country's import bill doubled
to $119 billion in the year that ended in March 2022. Increased import costs also cause inflation, a widening
current account and fiscal deficit, a decline in the value of the rupee against the dollar, and negative sentiment
on the stock market.
● A rise in crude oil prices also has an indirect effect on India because it raises the cost of coal, fertiliser, and
edible oils because these products utilise gas as a feedstock. Eighty percent of the total cost of producing
fertiliser is gas.
● Therefore, if an increase in crude oil prices could result in a significantly increased import burden, it leads to
reduction in demand in the economy which hurts growth. It could also lead to higher fiscal deficit if the
government chooses to bear the burden by way of subsidies.
93. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Vembanad Lake is one of the largest lakes in Kerala and the longest lake in the country. It is the second
largest wetland system in India after the Sunderbans in West Bengal.
● It is also known as Punnamada Lake, Kochi Lake, Vembanad Kayal and Vembanad Kol. The lake has its
source in four rivers, Meenachil, Achankoil, Pampa and Manimala. The lake lays right by the Arabian Sea,
with a narrow reef separating it from the sea.
● Recognition:
o The government of India has recognised the wetland under the National Wetlands Conservation
Programme.
o In 2002, it was included in the list of wetlands of international importance, as defined by the Ramsar
Convention.
● Geographical Features in the Lake –
o The Pathiramanal island or the Midnight sands is a small beautiful island in the Lake.
o The Kumarakom Bird Sanctuary is located on the east coast of the lake.
o In 2019, Willingdon Island, a seaport located in the city of Kochi, was carved out of Vembanad Lake.
o The 1252 m long saltwater barrier, Thanneermukkom, was built to stop saltwater intrusion into Kuttanad.
o The Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Vallam Kali) is a Snake Boat Race hosted in the lake every year in the
month of August.
94. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is correct: In ‘shallow-water mining’, metals such as gold, cobalt and copper are mined from
depths of 200 m below the sea. In ‘deep-sea mining’, valuable minerals are mined from ocean depths greater
than 200 m.
● Statement 2 is correct: Generally, shallow-water mining is considered a relatively low-risk and low-cost
option to satisfy the demand for metals and minerals. A new study by the University of Helsinki points out
shallow-water mining is not a ‘silver bullet’ to resolve growing global need for metals. It has highlighted that
the shallow-water mining also could trigger local extinctions of marine species. This is because extracting
minerals from the shallow-water ocean floor requires dredging large amounts of sediment. Removing this
sediment, which take thousands of years to accumulate, means removing the organisms that call it home.
95. Answer: C
Explanation:
● Precision agriculture (PA) is a farming management concept based on observing, measuring and responding to
inter- and intra-field variability in crops. PA is also sometimes referred to as precision farming, satellite
agriculture, as-needed farming and site-specific crop management (SSCM).
● Precision agriculture uses information technology (IT) to ensure that crops and soil receive exactly what they
need for optimum health and productivity. This also ensures profitability, sustainability and protection of the
environment. It considers aspects such as soil type, terrain, weather, plant growth and yield data when
managing crops.
● Following are the benefits of Precision agriculture:
o Increases agriculture productivity.
o Prevents soil degradation.
o Reduction of chemical application in crop production.
o Efficient use of water resources.
o Dissemination of modern farm practices to improve quality, quantity and reduced cost of production.
o Developing favourable attitudes.
● One of the biggest challenges is data management. The sheer volume of data collected by precision agriculture
sensors can be overwhelming, and it's difficult to make sense of it all.
● Another challenge is integrating all the different data sources. There are a lot of different data sets involved in
precision agriculture, and it's difficult to get them all to work together.
● Finally, precision agriculture requires a significant investment in technology. The equipment and software
required for precision agriculture can be expensive, and it takes time to learn how to use it all effectively.
96. Answer: D
Explanation:
National Food Security Act (NFSA), 2013:
● To provide for food and nutritional security in the human life cycle approach, by ensuring access to adequate
quantities of quality food at affordable prices to people to live a life with dignity.
The Act provides coverage for nearly 2/3rd of the country’s total population, based on Census 2011 population
estimates.
The eldest woman of the beneficiary household (18 years or above) is considered ‘Head of Family’ for the
purpose of issuing ration cards. NFSA assigns joint responsibilities to the federal and state governments.
● Statement 1 is Incorrect: The NFSA mandates the centre with the responsibility of allocating and
transporting food grains to designated depots in the states and UTs.
● Statement 2 is Incorrect: The centre must provide central assistance to states/UTs for the distribution of food
grains from authorized FCI godowns to the doorsteps of Fair Price Shops.
● States and union territories are responsible for identifying eligible households, issuing ration cards,
distributing foodgrain entitlements through fair price shops, licensing and monitoring Fair Price Shop (FPS)
dealers, establishing an effective grievance redress mechanism, and strengthening the Targeted Public
Distribution System (TPDS).
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Food Security Act (2013) also includes provisions for Targeted Public
Distribution System reforms, such as cash transfers for food entitlement provisioning.
97. Answer: A
Explanation:
● It all started with the theft of jewelry and other valuable gems from the palace of Prince Faisal bin Fahd, the
eldest son of King Fahd of Saudi Arabia, in 1989.
● Kriangkrai Techamong, a Thai worker employed as a servant at the palace, stole precious gems worth $20
million from Prince Faisal’s home, which also included a rare 50-carat blue diamond, which is still missing.
● The ensuing diplomatic repercussion was thus named after the gem.
● Hence, it is a dispute between the country of Thailand and Saudi Arabia.
● Three decades after diplomatic relations between Thailand and Saudi Arabia broke down over the 'Blue
Diamond Affair', the countries are working to mend ties.
● Saudi Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman met Thailand’s prime minister recently in Bangkok and signed
agreements to expand diplomatic relations between the two countries.
● The relations were restored only earlier this year, three decades after a high-profile jewellery theft, also known
as the Blue Diamond Affair, snapped ties between the two nations.
98. Answer: B
Explanation:
● Statement 1 is incorrect:The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy has notified the National Bioenergy
Programme in November 2022. MNRE has continued the National Bioenergy Programme for the period from
FY 2021-22 to 2025-26. The Programme has been recommended for implementation in two Phases:
o The Phase-I of the Programme has been approved with a budget outlay of Rs. 858 crores.
● Statement 2 is correct:
The National Bioenergy Programme will comprise the following sub-schemes:
o Waste to Energy Programme
o It is Programme on Energy from Urban, Industrial and Agricultural Wastes /Residues to support the
setting up of large Biogas, BioCNG and Power plants.
o Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) will be the implementing agency for the
program.
o Biomass Programme
o It is a Scheme to Support Manufacturing of Briquettes & Pellets and Promotion of Biomass (non-bagasse)
based cogeneration in Industries to support setting up of pellets and briquettes for use in power generation
and non-bagasse based power generation projects.
o Biogas Programme
o To support setting up of family and medium size Biogas in rural areas.
● Statement 3 is incorrect:Bioenergy is not entirely clean: While biomass is carbon neutral, the use of animal
and human waste escalates the amount of methane gases, which are also damaging to the environment.
Additionally, the pollution created from burning wood and other natural materials can be considered just as
bad as that resulting from burning coal and other types of energy resources.
99. Answer: D
Explanation:
● Option D is correct: Countries around the world have varying greenhouse gas emissions policies to help limit
climate change, with some stricter than others. Carbon leakage refers to a situation where a company decides
to move their production from a country with stringent policies, to a country that is more lenient, leading to an
increase in greenhouse gas emissions.
● While some countries and states strive to reduce their contributions to global climate change, there are
legitimate concerns that stricter pollution regulations come at the risk of losing businesses and jobs to
competing nations with more lax policies. And while a country may see a reduction in greenhouse gas
emissions from a company leaving, the move may result in additional global greenhouse gas emissions if the
company moves to a country with more lenient polices and produces more emissions. The additional
emissions resulting from the move is considered carbon leakage.
● Ex: For years carbon emissions in the U.S. and Europe have been dipping, but in developing countries such as
China and India, emissions are rapidly increasing. While the rise in greenhouse gas emissions in developing
countries is largely due to domestic growth, it’s no secret that companies from wealthy countries set up
factories in foreign countries to cut costs and avoid regulations, thus further contributing to global pollution.
100. Answer: D
Explanation:
Denotified Nomadic Tribes (DNTs):
● Statement 1 is Incorrect: DNTs are the tribes which were notified as criminal tribes under the Criminal
Tribes Act, of 1871, by the British colonial government.
● Under this Act, millions of nomadic and semi-nomadic communities were declared criminals and put under
continuous surveillance.
● After decades of facing the horrors of this racial Act, they were denotified by the Government of independent
India on August 31, 1952.
● Statement 2 is Incorrect: While most DNTs are spread across the Scheduled Castes (SC), Scheduled Tribes
(ST) and Other Backward Classes (OBC) categories, some DNTs are not covered in any of the SC, ST or
OBC categories.
● The DNTs are a heterogenous group engaged in various occupations such as transport, key-making, salt
trading, and entertaining — acrobats, dancers, snake charmers, jugglers — and pastoralists.
● Ananthasayanam Ayyangar Committee in 1949 it was based on the report of this committee the Criminal
Tribes Act was repealed.
● Statement 3 is correct: The National Idate Commission was constituted in 2015 under the chairmanship of
Shri Bhiku Ramji Idate. Based on the recommendation of this commission, the Government of India set up the
Development and Welfare Board for DNTs, SNTs &NTs (DWBDNCs) in 2019.
******

RTS 2 - July To December 2022-52-62

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CURRENT AFFAIR TEST SERIES-2023| RTS-2

Statement 2 is correct.In following way twin deficit can be controlled -

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