MTS351X/201/1/2020

Tutorial Letter 201/2/2020

Mining Technical Services III

MTS351X

Semesters 2

Department of Electrical and Mining

Engineering

This tutorial letter contains important information

about your module.

BARCODE
 CONTENTS

Page
1 INTRODUCTION ....................................................................................................... 3
2 LECTURER AND CONTACT DETAILS .................................................................... 3
3 EXAMINATION ......................................................................................................... 4
4 ADDENDUM ............................................................................................................. 5

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1 INTRODUCTION
Dear Student,

The purpose of this Tutorial Letter is to provide you with feedback on Assignments
01, 02 and 03 you have done.

Please note that not all the questions listed in Assignments 01, 02 and 03 of Tutorial
Letter 101 are answered comprehensively in the present Tutorial Letter 201. Where
answers depend on individual experience and background knowledge, guidelines
and suggested solutions are provided.

I wish you success in the examination.

Rodney Nemutandani, Mr
Lecturer
Department of Electrical and Mining Engineering

2 LECTURER AND CONTACT DETAILS

If you experience any problems with the subject matter and the exam preparation,
you are welcome to contact me via the relevant discussion forum on myUnisa, or
via any of the following channels:

• by telephone on 011 471 …. (or +27 11 471 ….. if you are phoning from outside
South Africa) between 08:00 and 14:00 on weekdays (Mondays to Fridays)
• by fax on 011 471 3703/3054 ( or +27 11 471 3703/3054 internationally)
• by e-mail which is my preferred option (nemutra@unisa.ac.za)
• in person; however, please make an appointment in advance.

You may also find answers to some of your questions on the myUnisa discussion
forums. I will assist you with queries of an academic nature, especially those relating
to the exam preparation. Always have your student number at hand when you
contact the University.

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3 EXAMINATION
The Examinations Department will send you the necessary details concerning the
examination venue, actual date and time a few weeks before the examination
commences.

When writing an examination, there are a number of golden rules you would do well
to remember. The most important ones are listed below.

Make sure you fill in the correct information on the front cover of the assignment so
that the script reaches the right destination, i.e. the examiner/lecturer of the subject
concerned.

I also advise you to read through the exam paper first before you commence
answering the questions. This will give you an opportunity to get the feel of the paper
in general. You will be able, in doing so, to assess the value or weighting given to the
individual questions. The marks allocated to each question give the weighting. There
is no logic in writing pages and pages on a question carrying only five marks and only
four lines on a question worth ten marks.

The examination paper will be a 3-hour, closed-book format. Calculators will be

allowed. Therefore, remember to take a calculator with you to the examination hall.

The last note, visit the Virtual Campus, myUnisa at http://www.unisa.ac.za in

conjunction with your my Studies @ Unisa brochure for general examination
guidelines and examination preparation guidelines.

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4 ADDENDUM
ANNEXURE A: ASSIGNMENT 01 (COMPULSORY)

Unique Assignment Number: 504015

Use the following values for the calculations that follow: The answers are in bold
letters.

k = 0, 5
E = 70 GPa
v = 0, 22
ƿ = 2 750 kg/m3

1. The most suitable ventilation system for multi-blasting is:

1) Force-exhaust system
2) Exhaust system
3) Force system
4) Any of them (1)

2. Dust particles are considered harmful to human health when they are smaller
than:
1) 30 µm
2) 13 µm
3) 7 µm
4) None of the above (1)

3. The minimum vertical spacing between two drives, the upper being 3 m wide
and 3.2 m high and the lower being 4 m wide and 3.5 m high should be about:
1) 9 m
2) 10 m
3) 12 m
4) 20 m
5) None of the above (1)

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 The options given did not have the correct answer. The answer is 9.6 m.

4. The tangential stress on the perimeter of a circular tunnel is given by:

1) q(3-k)
2) q(3k-1)
3) There is no tangential stress on the tunnel perimeter
4) both 1 and 2
5) None of the above (1)

5. The highest compressive stress on a deep tunnel is:

1) In the hanging wall
2) In the sidewall
3) Both the hanging wall and sidewall
4) In the footwall
5) There is no compressive stress on a tunnel (1)

6. The virgin vertical stress 2 700 m below surface is about:

1) 86.7 MPa
2) 72.8 MPa
3) 103.2 MPa (1)

7. Read the following statements:

a. Stope panels close to a fault will de-stress the fault if they lag the other panels.
b. Overhand stope panels should lead or lag each other by at least 15 m.
c. When mining in a faulted zone, mine close to the fault first and then mine
away from it.

Which of the above statements are correct?

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1) a and c
2) a
3) b
4) c
5) None of the above (1)

8. Read the following statements:

a. The higher the co-efficient of friction on a fault, the bigger the chance that it
could cause a rock burst.
b. Slip type of rock bursts are caused by shear stress on a faults and dykes.
c. Gully sidings help to control stress damage in gullies.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) a
2) b
3) c and b
4) c and a
5) None of the above (1)

9. Read the following statements:

a. One of the requirements of a filter is that it should remove airborne dust but
still allow airflow.
b. One of the purposes of gravimetric sampling is to assess the exposure of the
labour force to dust.
c. Drilling and blasting are the only sources of dust inside mines.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) b and c
2) a and c
3) a and b
4) b
5) None of the above (1)

10. Read the following statements:

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 a. The operation of a diesel engine in an underground mine should be
discontinued when the air contains more than 100 parts of CO per million by
volume.
b. The amount of flammable gas in a mine may not exceed 1.4 parts per 100 by
volume.
c. The presence of a small amount of methane will usually be detected at the
footwall rather than the hangingwall of a tunnel.

Which of the above statements are correct?

1) b and c
2) a and c
3) a and b
4) b
5) None of the above (1)

11. Select the option that is not a sign of a fan that is running in the stall.
1) The fan vibrates excessively.
2) The fan makes unusual noises-whines.
3) An ammeter measuring the input amps shows rapid oscillations.
4) The pressure produced by the fan may alter considerably.
5) The quality of air produced by the fan is extremely high. (1)

12. The amount of ventilation air provided to the face of a tunnel by means of a
ventilation pipe (duct) will decrease as the pipe is extended.
1) True
2) False (1)

13. Low stress areas should be mined first to reduce the risk of stress and rockburst
damage.
1) True
2) False (1)

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14. Always mine in an underhand configuration to avoid the formation of isolated

remnants.
1) True
2) False (1)

15. A backstope is a stope from which there is no holing to the level above.
1) True
2) False (1)

16. The resistance of an airway that requires 240 Pa to deliver a quantity of 14 m 3/s
is:
1) 14 Ns2/m8
2) 0.06 Ns2/m8
3) 1.22 Ns2/m8 (1)

17. The horizontal spacing between two rectangular shafts that are both 8  7m in
cross section should be about:
1) 32 m
2) 24 m
3) 64 m
4) 86 m
5) None of the above (1)

18. The amount of flammable gas in a mine may not exceed:

1) 200 ppm
2) 1.4 %
3) None of the above (1)

19. To deliver a quantity of 6 m3/s (density = 1.2 kg/m3) through a circular ventilation
duct that is 400 mm in diameter and 800 m long (K = 0.003 Ns2/m3) will require a
presence drop of:

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 1) 550 Pa
2) 5.5 Pa
3) 89 Pa (1)
The options given did not have the correct answer. The answer is 55 kPa

20. The lower the energy release rate (ERR), the smaller the chance that a seismic
event will occur.
1) True
2) False (1)

TOTAL MARK: 20

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ANNEXURE B: ASSIGNMENT 02 (COMPULSORY)

Unique Assignment Number: 812813

Question 1 [24]
1.1 Define the following terms and concepts, give their units of measurement, and
briefly explain their importance in the field of rock engineering:

1.1.1 Density (2)

1.1.2 Force (2)

1.1.3 Stress (2)

1.1.4 Principal stress (2)

Here you need to go to the relevant study units and check the theory for
the above terms.

1.2 Calculate the virgin vertical stress 2 450 m underground assuming an

overburden density of 2 700 kg/m 3. (1)

σv = 𝜌gh

= 2700 x 9.81 x 2450

= 64.89 Mpa

1.3 Calculate the virgin horizontal stress if the k-ratio is 0.5. (1)

σh = k σv

= 0.5 x 64.89

= 32.45 Mpa

1.4 A block of rock with a density of 2 750 kg/m 3 and measuring 3.0 m long  2.5 m
wide  1.7 m thick rests on a 0.7 m  0.7 m square pack. Calculate the
following:

1.4.1 The load supported by the pack (3)

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 Load = mg

But m = volume x density

= 2.5 x 3 x 1.7 x 2750

= 35.06kg

Load = 35.06 x 9.81

= 344 kN

1.4.2 The stress generated in the pack (3)

Stress = Load / Area of pack

= 344x103 / (0.7)2

= 702 kPa

1.5 Assuming an absence of tectonic stress and making your own assumptions
regarding the density of the overburden strata

1.5.1 Calculate the virgin vertical stress 1 000 m below surface. State and
briefly explain your assumptions. (3)

Assumption: density = 2700 kg/m3

σv = 𝜌gh

= 2700 x 9.81 x 1 000

= 26.45 Mpa

1.5.2 What would you expect the magnitude of the horizontal stress to be at
this elevation if the k-ratio is given as 0.5? (3)

σh = k σv
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= 0.5 x 26.45

= 13.24 Mpa

1.5.3 Briefly describe the relationship between Poisson effect and k-ratio (2)

In confined compression, lateral ( horizontal) stress is induced by axial

(vertical) loading as a result of lateral dilation of a rock which in turn
governed by its Poisson ratio..

The relationship k = v/(1-v) applies.

Question 2 [15]
2.1 Define the following terms:

2.1.1 Convergence (1)

2.1.2 Closure (1)

2.1.3 Energy (1)

2.1.4 Power (1)

Use the definitions in the study guide.

2.2 A stope at a depth of 2 000 m below surface is being mined at a width of 1.1 m.
The surrounding rock has the following characteristics:

Density = 2 700 kg/m3

Poisson’s ratio = 0.20
Modulus of rigidity = 30 GPa

A matpack is installed 3 m back from the face when the stope span is 200 m.

2.2.1 Calculate the height of the matpack at installation. (2)

2(1 − v)q 2 2  (1 − 0,2)  (2700  9,81  2000)

Sz = L − X2 = 100 2 − 972 = 0,068m
G 30  10 9

Height of matpack at installation is = 1.1 – 0.068 = 1.032 m

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 2.2.2 Calculate the height of the same matpack when the stope span has
increased to 206 m. (3)

2(1 − v)q 2 2  (1 − 0,2)  (2700  9,81  2000)

Sz = L − X2 = 1032 − 972 = 0,098m
G 30  10 9

Height of matpack at installation is = 1.1 – 0.098 = 1.002 m

2.2.3 Calculate the amount by which the matpack has compressed as the span
increased. (2)

Compression = 1.032 – 1.002 = 0.03 m

2.2.4 Express this compression as a percentage of the original matpack height.

(2)

Compression = 0.03/1.032 = 2.9%

2.2.5 Calculate the critical half-span of the stope. (2)

SmG 1,1  30  10 9
Lc = = = 389 m
2(1 - v)q 2  (1 − 0,2)  (2700  9,81  2000)

Question 3 [15]
3.1 In relation to the theory of rock failure, state whether each of the following
statements is TRUE or FALSE:

3.1.1 Fracture in rock always starts at very small flaws such as grain
boundaries. (1)

True

3.1.2 Flaws start to open into small cracks as stress increases from 20 % to 30
% of the strength of the rock. (1)

False

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3.1.3 Small cracks elongate at right angles to the direction of the major
principal stress. (1)

True

3.1.4 The failure process forms thin rock plates whose surfaces are smooth
and clean without indications of crushing or comminution. (1)

True

3.1.5 Concrete lining can contain dilation and bulking resulting from rockwall
fracturing. (1)

False

3.1.6 Dilation and bulking have a beneficial effect on the stability of the stope
hanging wall. (1)

True

3.2 Write brief notes on the following:

3.2.1 The formation of stress fractures ahead of a stope face at depth (3)

The stress ahead of the face decreases as you move away from the face.
The tangential stresses around the rectangular or square openings are
high on the sidewalls, which are at right angle to the direction of the
principal stress.

3.2.2 The effects of stress fractures associated with stopping activity at depth.
(3)

Most books use the assumptions that fracturing occurs at a stress of

more than 58% of UCS. The fracture zone surrounding an excavation is
the zone of rock of which the strength of material is exceeded by stress.
Once the rock has failed, the initial stress level can no longer exist, and
the stress is displaced to unfractured ground. Fractures within a fractured
zone can extend for a distance of 20m or more into the hangingwall or
footwall and 5m to 6m ahead of the face.

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3.3 With the aid of sketches, describe and illustrate the nature, orientation and
inclination of the various types of stress fractures associated with a typical
scattered stopping layout at depth. (3)

Look at your notes.

Question 4 [10]
4.1 Comment on the following layout and suggest ways of improving it. (5)

• Spacing between haulage and RAW too small- should be at least 3(3+3) =
18m

• Cross cut breakway too close to connecting cross cut – should be at

least 3 x 6 = 18m

• Connecting cross cut should be repositioned so that neither of them

would intersect the dyke

• Return airway should traverse fault at 90 o

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4.2 Comment on the following layout and suggest ways of improving it. (5)

• Excessive lead of panel E6 will cause high stress on the adjacent panels
and the dyke.

• Underhand configuration of the east panels is incorrect - this will place

high stress on the dyke.

• Underhand configuration of the east panels meeting the overhand West

panels will cause the formation of a remnant and this is going to be
close to the intersection of the fault and dyke.

• W6 and W7 panels are lagging the others excessively and will be highly
stressed.

• Further advance of panels W2 to W5 will expose the fault over a large

area and this could cause seismic slip on the fault.

• Panels closest to the dyke should lead the others

• E4 gully should not be in the dyke.

Question 5 [10]
5.1 With the aid of sketches define the term “coefficient of friction”. (4)

Check the notes RM3 page 3.

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5.2 A 1 m3 rock with a density of 2 700 kg/m 3 rests on the smooth, horizontal
footwall of a strike gully. The coefficient of friction between the rock and the
footwall is 0.839. A scraper winch rope is attached to the rock and is used to pull
it along the gully.

5.2.1 If the winch has a maximum traction force of 20 kN, will it be able to
move the rock? (2)

Fs = վFn

= 0.839 x 1 x 2700 x 9.81

= 22.2 kN

A traction force of 20 kN would not move the rock.

5.2.2 What traction force should the winch be able to apply in order to just
move the rock? (2)

The winch need a traction force of 22.2 kN, to move the rock.

5.2.3 If the traction force provided by the winch is 25 kN, calculate the excess
force that the winch is capable of applying to this task. (2)

This winch would be able to apply an excess force of (25 – 22.2) =

2.8 kN.

TOTAL MARKS: 74

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ANNEXURE C: ASSIGNMENT 03 (COMPULSORY)

Unique Assignment Number: 506392

Question 1 [12]
1.1 Sketch and briefly describe the exhaust-overlap system of ventilating a
development end. List two advantages and two disadvantages of this system.(8)

The above sketch is in itself part of the answer. All you have to do is
to explain how it works. Here an exhaust column is installed to a point
about 30m from the face, and a smaller size force column is installed to
pick up air about 20m from the exhaust intake and force it into the face.
An overlap distance between the force and exhaust columns of 6m to 30m
is generally allowed and the volume of air handled by the force column is
usually not more than two-third of the exhaust intake volume. This is to
ensure that a sufficient volume of air flows in the overlap section, hence
minimising the possibility of gas accumulations and poor ventilation
conditions in that area.

1.2 Briefly describe how a development end should be ventilated by means of a

forcing system. Use a sketch to illustrate the flow of the air. (4)

Air is obtained from a point at least 10 metres upstream in the nearest

through ventilation and with the aid of a fan forced through the ventilation

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 duct and discharged as close to the face a practicable. The distance
between the duct discharge and the face is generally between 5 and 12
metres.

Question 2 [18]
2.1 Calculate the sample concentration, given the following:

Sample filter mass before sampling 47.66 mg

Sample filter mass after sampling 48.87 mg

Reference filter mass before sampling 47.63 mg

Reference filter mass after sampling 47.59 mg

Sampling time 8 h 35 min

Average flow-rate 1.93 l/min (2)

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 MTS351X/201/2/2020

Sample concentration = [(47.59 – 47.63) + (47.66 – 48.87)] x1 000/(1.93 – 515)

= 1,258 mg/m3

2.2 A quantity of 11.5 m3/s of fresh air containing 0.25 mg/m 3 of dust is mixed with
4.4 m3/s of air containing 3.2 mg/m3 of dust. Calculate the concentration of dust
in the mixture. (2)

Concentration of dust = [(11.5x0.25) + (4.4x3.2)] / (11.5 + 4.4) = 1,066

mg/m3.

2.3 What is the main purpose of a dust filter? List at least three requirements with
which an ideal dust filter should comply. (4)

It should remove dust that has become airborne from the air but allow the
flow of air. The following are requirements of dust filter:

• High filtering efficiency

• Reliable

• Easy to install

• Easy to clean and maintain

• Low capital and installation costs

• Low running costs

(Any three of the above)

2.4 Thirty-two flannel bag filters must be installed in a filter unit at a tip. Each bag is
2 m long and has a diameter of 200 mm. The tip downcast velocity is 0.5 m/s
and the filtering speed through the bag is 0.1 m/s.

Determine

2.4.1 The quantity of air that can be filtered (5)

2.4.2 The size of the tip served by this filter unit (5)

(These questions will not be marked. This is out of the scope of materials
that we need to study this semester).

Question 3 [28]

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3.1 A fan exhausts 5 m3/s of air from a development end. A forcing column with a
10 m overlap delivers air onto the face. A methane blower on the face emits
0.07 m3/s of methane. Three different force fans are available:

3.1.1 2.5 m3/s

3.1.2 5.0 m3/s

3.2.3 7.5 m3/s

In all three cases, what percentage methane would be present in

a) The exhaust column? (6)

b) The overlap? (3)

c) The forcing column? (6)

d) The face? (3)

3.1.1 (a) 0.07/5 x 100 = 1.4%

(b) 0 %

(c) 0 %

(d) 0.07/(2.5 + 0.07)x 100 = 2.72%

3.1.2 (a) (0.07 / 5) x 100 = 1.4%

(b) 1.4%; Q = [1.4 x (5 - 5 + 0.07)]/100 = 0.00098 m3/s

(c) (0.00098 x 100) x 100)/5 = 0.0196%

(d) ((0.07 + 0.00098) x 100)/(5 + 0.07) = 1.4%

3.1.3 (a) 1.4%

(b) 1.4%; Q = [1.4 x (7.5 -5 + 0.07)]/100 = 0.03598 m3/s

(c) (0.03598 x 100)/7.5 = 0.48%

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 MTS351X/201/2/2020

(d) [(0.07 + 0.03598) x 100)/(7.5 + 0.07)]x100 = 1.4%

3.2 An LHD operates in a tunnel and emits 0.23 m 3/s of exhaust gas containing 0.2
% carbon monoxide. The cross-sectional area of the tunnel is 3.6  3.6 m. The
ventilation quantity in the tunnel is 8.2 m3/s. Calculate the carbon monoxide
percentage content of the air on the immediate return side of the LHD, when

3.2.1 The LHD is stationary (3)

Quantity CO = 0.2 /100 x 0.23 = 0.00046 m3/s

CO % = [0.00046/8.2] x 100 = 0.00561%

3.2.2 The LHD is travelling at 2.5 km/h in the same direction as the ventilation.
(4)

Speed of air in haulage = v = Q/A = 8.2/(3.6x3.6) = 0.633 m/s

Speed of LHD = 2500/3600 = 0.694 m/s

Relative speed (velocity of air going over LHD) = 0.694 – 0.633 = 0.0617
m/s

Relative Q (quantity of air going over LHD) = 0.0617 x 3.6x3.6 = 0.8 m 3/s

%CO = (0.00046/0.8)x100 = 0.0575%

3.2.3 The LHD is travelling at 6 km/h in the opposite direction to the ventilation. (3)

Speed of LHD = 6000/3600 = 1.667 m/s

Relative speed (velocity of air going over LHD) = 1.667 + 0.633 = 2.30 m/s

Relative Q (quantity of air going over LHD) = 2.3 x 3.6x3.6 = 29.81 m3/s

%CO = (0.00046/29.81)x100 = 0.00154%

Question 4 [12]
4.1 List three instruments, which can be used for measuring air velocities. (3)

• Vane anemometer

• Smoke method

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 • Pitot tube

4.2 In the diagram below, the barometric pressures measured at points A and B are
100.3 kPa and 101.0 kPa respectively. Air quantities flowing in each of the
airways are as follows:

Airway 1: 25 m3/s

Airway 2: 50 m3/s

Airway 3: 35 m3/s

The air density is 1.2 kg/m3

An air quantity of 40 m3/s is required in each of the three airways.

4.2.1 Indicate on the sketch where you would install one or more regulators
and/or booster fans. (3)

Install a regulator in airway 2 and booster fans in airway 1and 3.

4.2.2 What would the size of the regulator(s) and the duty of the booster fan(s)
be? (6)

Pressure difference between points A and B = 0.7 kPa = 700 Pa

Aiway 1

R1 = 700/252

Pressure required for 40 m3/s to flow

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 MTS351X/201/2/2020

P = R x Q2 = 700/252 x 402 = 1 792 Pa, therefore 1 092(1 792 – 700)

must be generated by the booster fan.

Airway 2

R1 = 700/502

Pressure required for 40 m3/s to flow

P = R x Q2 = 700/502 x 402 = 448 Pa, therefore pressure to be

“destroyed” by the regulator is 700 – 448 = 252 Pa.

Ar = 1.2Q(w/p)1/2 = 1.2 x 40 x (1.2/252)1/2 = 3.312 m2

Airway 3

R1 = 700/352

Pressure required for 40 m3/s to flow

P = R x Q2 = 700/352 x 402 = 914.3 Pa, therefore 214.3 Pa (914.3 – 700)

must be added by the booster fan.

TOTAL MARKS: 70

© UNISA
2020

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