Phy Mock-P2

OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS
NEW SENIOR SECONDARY Name
PHYSICS AT WORK Class

(SECOND EDITION) Class number
MOCK EXAMINATION 2022

PHYSICS PAPER 2
Question-Answer Book
Time allowed: 1 hour
This paper must be answered in English
INSTRUCTIONS
(1) After the announcement of the start of the examination, you

should first insert the information required in the space
provided on Page 1.
(2) This paper consists of FOUR sections, Sections A, B, C

and D. Each section contains eight multiple-choice
questions and one structured question which carries
10 marks. Attempt ALL questions in any TWO sections.
(3) Write your answers to the structured questions in the

ANSWER BOOK provided. For multiple-choice questions,
blacken the appropriate circle with an HB pencil. You
should mark only ONE answer for each question. If you
mark more than one answer, you will receive NO MARKS
for that question.
(4) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets will be

provided on request. Insert the information required, mark
the question number box on each sheet, and fasten them
with string INSIDE the Answer Book.
(5) The Question-Answer Book and Answer Book will be

collected SEPARATELY at the end of the examination.
(6) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to

scale.
(7) The last two pages of this Question-Answer Book contain a

list of data, formulae and relationships which you may find
useful.
(8) No extra time will be given to candidates for inserting any

information or filling in the question number boxes after the
‘Time is up’ announcement.
New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

Mock Exam 2022 Paper 2 1
© Oxford University Press 2021
Section A: Astronomy and Space Science
Q.1: Multiple-choice questions
1.1 Which of the following represents the arrangement in ascending order of size?
A Nebula < star clusters < galaxy cluster
B Star clusters < galaxy cluster < nebula ABCD
C Galaxy cluster < star clusters < nebula
D Star clusters < nebula < galaxy cluster
1.2 Which of the following phases of Venus would NOT be observable from the Earth if the
Ptolemic model were correct?
(1)
(2)
(3)
A (1) only
B (1) and (2) only ABCD
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
1.3 The following gives some data about the planet Venus.
Radius (in units of Earth’s radius) 0.950

Mass (in units of Earth’s mass) 0.815
What is the escape velocity from the surface of Venus (in units of Earth’s escape velocity)?
A 1.31
B 1.08 ABCD
C 0.926
D 0.858

1.4 Consider the planets orbiting the Sun in the solar system. Which of the following graphs
correctly shows the relationship between the period T and the semi-major axis a of the planets’
orbits?
A
T
a2/3
0
B
log T
a
0
C
log T
log a
0
D
T
ABCD
log a
0

1.5 The diagram below shows the radiaiton curves from two stars P and Q as observed on the Earth.
intensity
star Q
star P
0 wavelength
Which of the following statements about the stars can be concluded by an observer on the
Earth?
(1) Star Q is hotter than star P.
(2) Star Q appears brighter than star P.
(3) Star Q appears bluer than star P.
A (1) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
1.6 Which of the following statements about the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram (H-R diagram) is
NOT correct?
luminosity
region I
region II
region III
region IV
surface
temperature
A Stars in region I is generally larger than stars in region IV.

B Stars in region II is larger than stars in region III.
C Stars in region II is redder than stars in region I.
D Stars in region III is about the size of the Sun.
ABCD

1.7 A student takes two photographs of the same region of the sky six months apart. W, X, Y, Z are
four stars.
0.1" 0.1"
W W
X X
Y Y
Z Z
Which of the following statements is/are correct?

(1) Star Y is 3.3 pc from the Earth.
(2) Stars W and X are at the same distance from the Earth.
(3) Among these four stars, star Y is nearest to the Earth.
A (3) only
C (1) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
1.8 The table below shows the apparent magnitudes and absolute magnitudes of stars P and Q.
Apparent magnitude Absolute magnitude

Star P 12.7 –10.8
Star Q –1.5 1.4
Which of the following can be concluded from the above informtion?

(1) Star P appears brighter than star Q as observed on the Earth.
(2) Star P is further away from the Earth than star Q.
(3) The distance of star Q from the Earth is smaller than 10 pc.
A (2) only
C (1) and (3) only
D (2) and (3) only

Q.1: Structured question
1 (a) Alpha Centauri A is a star in the Milky Way Galaxy. The following table shows some
data about the star:
Radius 8.54  108 m
Temperature 5790 K
Luminosity 5.83  1026 W
Distance from the Earth 4.1  1016 m
(i) Using the above data, show that the star radiates as a blackbody. (2 marks)
(ii) Calculate the intensity (in J s–1 m–2) of electromagnetic radiation reaching the Earth
from the star. (2 marks)
(b) During one stage in the life of Alpha Centauri A, its position on the Hertzsprung-Russell
diagram (H-R diagram) will change from position X to position Y as shown by the dotted
line.
luminosity
Y
X
temperature / 103 K
20 2
What will happen to the size of the star during this stage? (1 mark)
(c) The wavelength of a certain hydrogen spectral line on the Earth is 656.28 nm. This line
from the star is found to be blue-shifted by 0.05 nm.
(i) Estimate the radial velocity of the star relative to the Earth. Is it moving towards or
away from the Earth? (3 marks)
(ii) Explain whether this result violates the notion that the universe is expanding.
(2 marks)

Section B: Atomic World
2.1 In Thomson’s ‘plum-pudding’ model of atoms, electrons are embedded in a cloud of positive
charge. Which of the following observations CANNOT be explained by this model?
(1) An atom is electrically neutral.
(2) In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, most  particles nearly passed straight through the
gold foil.
(3) In the Geiger-Marsden experiment, a few  particles bounced back from the gold foil.
A (2) only
B (3) only ABCD
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
2.2 The diagram below shows some energy levels of a hydrogen atom. A large number of hydrogen
atoms in the ground state (n = 1) are collided by electrons with kinetic energy of 12.8 eV and
get excited. When the excited atoms drop to lower energy levels, how many spectral lines can
these atoms produce?
n = 5–0.54 eV
n = 4–0.85 eV
n = 3–1.51 eV
n = 2–3.40 eV
n = 1–13.6 eV
A 3
B 4 ABCD
C 6
D 7
2.3 The de Broglie wavelength of a proton moving with kinetic energy E is . What is the de
Broglie wavelength of an  particle moving with the same kinetic energy? The mass of an
 particle is about 4 times that of a proton.
A /4
B /2 ABCD
C 2
D 4

2.4 In a photoelectric effect experiment, metal X is illuminated by electromagnetic radiation of
different frequencies. The dotted lines on the graphs below show how the maximum kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectrons varies with the frequency of the incident radiation. Which
graph shows the results (solid line) for metal Y that has a lower work function than metal X?
A maximum
kinetic energy
X Y
0 frequency of
incident radiation
B maximum
kinetic energy
Y X
0 frequency of
incident radiation
C maximum
kinetic energy
Y
X
0 frequency of
incident radiation
D maximum
kinetic energy
X
Y
ABCD
0 frequency of
incident radiation

2.5 The figure below shows part of the emission spectrum of hydrogen gas. All the spectral lines
shown are produced by electron transitions from higher energy levels to the first excited state
(n = 2). Which of the following statements is/are correct?
X Y
(1) Spectral line X has a higher frequency than spectral line Y.

(2) The longest wavelength of these lines is about 660 nm.
(3) The lines have the same frequencies as those of the dark lines in the absorption spectrum
of hydrogen gas.
A (1) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
2.6 In Bohr’s model of the hydrogen atom, the radii of the electron’s orbits in the second excited
state and the third excited state are in the ratio of
A 2 : 3.
B 3 : 4. ABCD
C 4 : 9.
D 9 : 16.
2.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

A Nano particles of zinc oxide are effective in absorbing and scattering ultra-violet radiation
while zinc oxide in bulk form are not.
B Glass can be made self-cleaning by coating it with a water-attracting material in
nanoscale.
C Nano-sized silver particles are added to fabric to inhibit the growth of bacteria.
D Graphene is only one-atom thick.
ABCD
2.8 An imaging satellite is orbiting at a height of 700 km above the Earth’s surface. The camera in
the satellite has an objective lens of aperture 15 cm. Estimate the minimum separation of two
small objects on the Earth’s surface that can be distinguished by this camera. Assume that both
objects emit light of wavelength 500 nm.
A 2.33 m
B 2.85 m ABCD
C 4.67 m
D 5.69 m

2 When electromagnetic radiation with a wavelength of 244 nm is incident on a metal plate,
photoelectrons are emitted from the metal plate. Figure 2.1 shows the set-up to study the
maximum kinetic energy of the electrons emitted from the plate.
radiation vacuum
metal electrode C
plate
glass tube
electrons
V
A
+–
variable power supply
Figure 2.1
The metal plate and the electrode C are both in a vacuum. C is connected to the negative
terminal of the variable power supply. Figure 2.2 shows the variation of current I in the circuit
as the potential difference V between the metal plate and C is increased from 0 V to 3 V.
0 V/V
1 2 3
Figure 2.2
(a) (i) Explain why the maximum kinetic energy is independent of the intensity of the
incident radiation. (2 marks)
(ii) What is the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons? (2 marks)
(iii) Find the work function of the metal. (2 marks)
(iv) If experiment is repeated with electromagnetic radiation of a shorter wavelength,
how will the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons be affected? (1 mark)
(b) The current becomes saturated when the voltage of the variable power supply is gradually
decreased until it becomes –1.5 V.
(i) What is the maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons when they reach
electrode C? (2 marks)
(ii) Explain why not all photoelectrons reaching C possess the amount of kinetic
energy obtained in (b)(i). (1 mark)

Section C: Energy and Use of Energy
3.1 An air conditioner with a coefficient of performance (COP) of 3 releases 3.14 kJ of thermal
energy to the outside every second. Estimate the electrical power input of the air-conditioner.
A 785 W
B 1.05 kW ABCD
C 2.36 kW
D 9.42 kW
3.2 Which of the following are energy-saving devices?

(1) Vacuum cooker
(2) Timer switch
(3) Compact fluorescent lamp
A (1) and (2) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
3.3
wall
S D X
R
Y
A point source of light S illuminates a wall as shown. If the illuminance at X is E, what is the
illuminance at Y? S is the only light source shining on the wall and it emits light uniformly in all
directions. Neglect any reflections from other surfaces.
( )
3
D
A E
R
E( )
2
D ABCD
B
R
E( )
❑
D
C
R
D E
√ D
R

3.4 The temperature inside a shipping container is kept at 27 C by an air conditioner. The
temperature outside the container is 33 C. The heat flowing into the container from the outside
by radiation through windows and that by conduction are in the ratio 2 : 3. If the cooling
capacity is raised by 40% while the temperature outside the room is still 33 C, estimate the new
equilibrium temperature inside the container. Assume that the rate of heat flowing into the
container by radiation is unchanged.
A 23 C
B 24 C ABCD
C 25 C
D 26 C
3.5 The following graph shows the percentage of transmission of different electromagnetic
radiations when passing through three types of glass X, Y and Z.
percentage of
transmission
X
75%
50%
25%
Y
Z
0% frequency / 1012 Hz
300 380 780 2500
Which of the following statements about these three types of glass is NOT correct? It is known
that ultra-violet radiation causes fabrics and wall coverings to fade in colour.
A X blocks the least amount of visible light.
B Y is the best in reducing the need of air conditioning.
C Z is the best in protecting fabrics and wall coverings from fading in colour.
D Sunlight passing through Z looks different in colour than that passing through X and Y.
ABCD
3.6 Which of the following descriptions about a hybrid car are correct?
(1) It is propelled by the combustion engine and/or the electric motor.
(2) Its combustion engine is usually more energy effient than that in a petrol car.
(3) It is more energy efficient than an electric train.
A (1) and (2) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

3.7 The blades of a wind turbine are 25 m long. A wind of speed 2 m s –1 blows normally onto the
blades for one minute. What is the energy output in this period if the overall efficiency of the
turbine is 30%? Given: density of air is 1.2 kg m–3.
A 900 J
B 27 000 J ABCD
C 54 000 J
D 675 000 J
3.8 Which of the following is NOT correct regarding the pressurized water in a pressurized water
reactor?
A It absorbs the energy released by fuel rods.
B It slows down the fast-moving neutrons produced by fission reactions.
C It absorbs excessive neutrons to control the rate of fission.
D It heats up the water in the secondary circuit to produce steam.
ABCD

3 Fluorescent tube lamps (FTLs) are commonly used in offices, schools and at home. In recent
years, LED lamps in the form of FTLs have been developed. In such LED lamps, a large
number of LED elements are uniformly arranged inside a glass envelope (Fig 3.1). They can
replace old FTLs as they can fit into ordinary FTL fixtures.
(Photo credit: Pavel Drozda | Dreamstime.com)

Figure 3.1
(a) Why is a layer of phosphor coated on the tube of an FTL? (2 marks)
(b) In terms of the energy levels in an atom, describe how an LED emits visible light.
(2 marks)
(c) The table below gives some data about an FTL and an LED tube lamp. They both work at
their rated values when fitting into a fixture that supplies 220 V a.c.
FTL LED tube lamp
Input power / W 18 8
Luminous flux / lm 1025 1050
Mass / g 70 124
Price $10 $40
(i) Show, with calculations, that the LED tube lamp is more effective in converting
electrical energy into visible light. (1 mark)
(ii) Besides the LED elements, state one component that must be installed in the LED
tube lamp. (1 mark)
(iii) The lamps in an office are switched on 12 hours a day. Estimate how long it takes
for the saving in electricity bill to compensate for the difference in the prices
between the two lamps. Given: cost of electricity = $1.0/kW h (2 marks)
(d) Besides the effectiveness in converting electrical energy into visible light, state one
advantage and one disadvantage of an LED tube lamp when compared with an FTL.
(2 marks)

Section D: Medical Physics
4.1 The figure shows the receptor absorption curves of a normal person. If red cones are missing in
George’s eyes, what colour does he see if orange light of wavelength 600 nm enters his eyes?
A Red
B Orange ABCD
C Yellow
D Green
4.2 The diagram below shows the cross sections of two coherent bundles of optical fibres P and Q.
The two bundles have the same cross-sectional area, but Q has more and finer fibres.
P Q

(1) Only Q can transmit image.
(2) Both bundles transmit the same amount of light.
(3) P is cheaper to manufacture than Q.
A (3) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

4.3 Which of the following contribute(s) to the pressure amplification in the ear?
(1) The ear pinna collects and reflects sound waves towards the ear drum.
(2) The ear drum has a much larger area than the oval window.
(3) Different regions of the cochlea have different stiffness.
A (1) only
B (2) only ABCD
C (1) and (2) only
D (2) and (3) only
4.4 The sound intensity level at a distance 5 m from a speaker is 80 dB. Given that the intensity I is
related to the distance r from the speaker by I  r –2, what is the drop in sound intensity level if
you move to 10 m from the speaker?
A 3 dB
B 6 dB ABCD
C 74 dB
D 77 dB
4.5 The ultrasound B-scan image below shows a kidney stone (bright spot).
kidney
stone
Which of the following statements is correct?

A Q is closer to the scanner than P.
B The kidney stone appears bright because it absorbs most ultrasound.
C The region below the kidney stone appears dark because it contains air.
D The acoustic impedance of the kidney stone is significantly different from that of its
surroundings.
ABCD

4.6 Which of the following are the advantages of computed tomography (CT) scans over X-ray
imaging?
(1) A CT scan can generate 3-D image of the body structures while an X-ray imaging cannot.
(2) Overlapping structures can be shown separately in CT images but not in X-ray images.
(3) The radiation dose received by taking a CT scan is much higher than that received in X-
ray imaging.
A (1) and (2) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)
4.7 In the X-ray image of the lungs below, the circled grey area shows that there is an irregular
mass in the lungs.
(Photo credit: Gan Hui | Dreamstime.com)

(1) The linear attenuation coefficient of the irregular mass is higher than that of the rest of the
lungs.
(2) There is a strong reflection of X-rays at the irregualr mass.
(3) The lungs appear dark because they are filled with air.
A (1) only
C (2) and (3) only
D (1), (2) and (3)

4.8 The physical half-life and biological half-life of a certain radionuclide are 8 days and 2 days
respectively. A patient takes in a quantity of the radionuclide as tracer for radionuclide imaging.
After how many days will the amount of the radionuclide left in the patient’s body decrease to
1/16 of the original intake?
A 4.8 days
B 6.4 days ABCD
C 20 days
D 40 days

4 (a) John changes from looking at a near object to a distant object. Describe how the lenses in
his eyes change. (1 mark)
(b) John finds that his left eye cannot see objects 50 cm farther from him clearly. To correct
this eye defect, he has to wear a corrective lens.
(i) In the figure below, complete the light rays to show how the defect of the eye is
corrected by the corrective lens when John looks at a distant object. (2 marks)
corrective lens
50 cm away
from the eye
Figure 4.1
(ii) State the type of the corrective lens and find its power. (3 marks)
(c) John plans to receive a laser surgery to correct this eye defect. To determine whether John
is suitable for the surgery, the doctor measures the thickness of John’s cornea using
ultrasound scans. Figure 4.2 below shows the A-scan display of John’s eye.
READINGS
21.74
21.74
21.74
21.74
21.74
21.74
21.74
AL(mm)21.74
AC(mm)3.27
L(mm)4.29
| . . . . | . . . . | . . . . | . . . . | . . . . | . . . . | . . . . |
V(mm)14.18
. . . . | AVG.AL21.74
SD0.00
t1 t2
Figure 4.2
(i) The two peaks of signals from the front and the back of cornea are detected at
time t1 = 4.96 s and time t2 = 5.67 s respectively. Determine the thickness of the
retina. The speed of sound is 1532 m s–1. (2 marks)
(ii) Two transducers of different frequencies are available. One emits ultrasound of
0.75 MHz and the other emits ultrasound of 8 MHz. Explain which transducer is
suitable for the scan. (2 marks)
END OF PAPER

List of data, formulae and relationships
Data
molar gas constant R = 8.31 J mol1 K1
Avogadro constant NA = 6.02  1023 mol1
acceleration due to gravity g = 9.81 m s2 (close to the Earth)
universal gravitational constant G = 6.67  1011 N m2 kg2
speed of light in vacuum c = 3.00  108 m s1
charge of electron e = 1.60  1019 C
electron rest mass me = 9.11  1031 kg
permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  1012 C2 N1 m2
permeability of free space 0 = 4  107 H m1
atomic mass unit u = 1.661  1027 kg (1 u is equivalent to 931 MeV)
astronomical unit AU = 1.50  10 m11
light year ly = 9.46  1015 m

parsec pc = 3.09  1016 m = 3.26 ly = 206 265 AU
Stefan constant  = 5.67  108 W m2 K4
Planck constant h = 6.63  1034 J s
Rectilinear motion Mathematics
For uniformly accelerated motion: Equation of a straight line y = mx + c
Arc length = r
v = u + at
1 2 Surface area of cylinder = 2rh + 2r2
at
s = ut + 2 Volume of cylinder = r2h
v2 = u + 2as
2
Surface area of sphere = 4r2

4 3
πr
Volume of sphere =3
For small angles, sin   tan    (in radians)
Astronomy and Space Science Energy and Use of Energy
−
GMm Φ
E=
U= r gravitational potential energy A illuminance
P = AT 4
Stefan’s law A (T H −T C )
Q
Δf Δλ κ
| | v | | t = d rate of energy transfer by conduction
f 0  c  λ0 Doppler effect κ
U=d thermal transmittance U-value
1
ρ Av 3
P= 2 maximum power by wind turbine
Atomic World Medical Physics
1 1 .22 λ
mv
2 e max 2 = hf   Einstein’s photoelectric equation  d Rayleigh criterion (resolving power)
1
{ }
4
1 me e 13.6
−
n2 8 h2 ε 2 − 2 power = f power of a lens
En = 0 = n eV I
energy level equation for hydrogen 10 log
atom L=
I0 intensity level (dB)
h h Z = c acoustic impedance
 = p = mv de Broglie formula

1 .22 λ Ir ( Z 2 −Z 1 )
2
 d Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) 2

 = I 0 = ( Z 2 +Z 1 ) intensity reflection coefficient
I = I0ex transmitted intensity through a
medium
Q1 Q2
energy transfer during
A1. E = mcT D1. 4 πε 0 r 2 Coulomb’s law
heating and cooling
F=
Q
energy transfer during electric field strength due to a
A2. E = lm D2. 4 πε 0 r 2
change of state point charge
E=
equation of state for an

V electric field between parallel
A3. pV = nRT D3. d
ideal gas plates (numerically)
E=
1 ρl
A4. Nmc 2 kinetic theory equation D4. resistance and resistivity
3 A
pV = R=
3 RT
A5. 2NA molecular kinetic energy D5. R = R1 + R2 resistors in series
EK =
1 1 1
D6. R R1 R2 resistors in parallel
= +
Δv Δp
B1. m force D7. P = IV = I2R power in a circuit
Δt Δt
F= =
force on a moving charge in a
B2. moment = F  d moment of a force D8. F = BQv sin 
magnetic field
gravitational potential force on a current-carrying
B3. EP = mgh D9. F = BIl sin 
energy conductor in a magnetic field
1 2 μ0 I
mv magnetic field due to a long
B4. 2 kinetic energy D10. 2 πr straight wire
EK = B=
μ 0 NI
magnetic field inside a long
B5. P = Fv mechanical power D11.
l solenoid
B=
v
2
ΔΦ
B6. centripetal acceleration D12. N induced e.m.f.
r Δt
a= =r 2
=
Gm 1 m2 Vs Ns ratio of secondary voltage to
Newton’s law of
B7. r 2 D13. Vp Np primary voltage in a
gravitation
F=  transformer
λD fringe width in
C1. a E1. N = N0ekt law of radioactive decay
double-slit interference
y =
diffraction grating t 1 ln 2
C2. d sin  = n E2. 2 k half-life and decay constant
equation
=

1 1 1 activity and the number of
C3. + equation for a single lens E3. A = kN
u v f undecayed nuclei
=
E4. E = mc2 mass-energy relationship


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OXFORD UNIVERSITY PRESS

NEW SENIOR SECONDARY Name

PHYSICS AT WORK Class

MOCK EXAMINATION 2022

(1) After the announcement of the start of the examination, you

(2) This paper consists of FOUR sections, Sections A, B, C

(3) Write your answers to the structured questions in the

(4) Graph paper and supplementary answer sheets will be

(5) The Question-Answer Book and Answer Book will be

(6) The diagrams in this paper are NOT necessarily drawn to

(7) The last two pages of this Question-Answer Book contain a

(8) No extra time will be given to candidates for inserting any

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

Radius (in units of Earth’s radius) 0.950

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

A Stars in region I is generally larger than stars in region IV.

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Apparent magnitude Absolute magnitude

Which of the following can be concluded from the above informtion?

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

(1) Spectral line X has a higher frequency than spectral line Y.

2.7 Which of the following statements is INCORRECT?

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

3.2 Which of the following are energy-saving devices?

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

(Photo credit: Pavel Drozda | Dreamstime.com)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

Which of the following statements is correct?

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

(Photo credit: Gan Hui | Dreamstime.com)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

light year ly = 9.46  1015 m

Surface area of sphere = 4r2

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

 d Rayleigh criterion (resolving power) 2

equation of state for an

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

New Senior Secondary Physics at Work (Second Edition)

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