NP3 PDF

NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTECH
LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM

NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT
REFRESHER PREBOARDS ONLINE EXAM

NP3
Situation: Janice went to a health center for her prenatal check-up. She is a G3P2 mother.
1. A nurse is providing instructions to a client in the first trimester of pregnancy regarding measures to assist
in reducing breast tenderness. The nurse tells the client to:
a. Avoid wearing a bra.
b. Wash the breast with warm water and keep them dry.
c. Wear tight-fitting blouses or dresses to provide support.
d. Wash the nipples and areolar area daily with soap, and massage the breasts with lotion.
2. Janice asks the nurse about the types of exercises that are allowable during pregnancy. The nurse should
instruct the client that the safest exercise to engage in is which of the following?
a. Swimming
b. Scuba diving
c. Low-impact gymnastics
d. Bicycling with the legs in the air.
3. During her check-up, the physician prescribed transvaginalsonography for Janice. She then asks the nurse
about the procedure. The nurse tells her that:
a. The procedure takes about 2 hours
b. It will be necessary to drink 1 to 2 quarts of water before the examination.
c. Gel is spread over the abdomen, and a round disk transducer will be moved over the abdomen to
obtain the picture.
d. The probe that will be inserted into the vagina will be covered with a disposable cover and coated
with a gel.
4. The nurse also performed a nonstress test on Janice. The fetal monitor strip was viewed and was
interpreted as reactive and understands this as:
a. Normal findings
b. Abnormal findings
c. The need for further evaluation
d. That the findings on the monitor were difficult to interpret
5. After a few days, she calls the nurse and reports that she has noticed a thin, colorless vaginal discharge.
The nurse should make which statement to the client?
a. “Go to an Ob-Gyn immediately.”
b. “Report to the emergency department of the nearest BeMONC center immediately.”
c. “The vaginal discharge may be bothersome, but it is a normal occurrence.”
d. “Use multiple maternity pads if the discharge is bothersome, and change every 2 hours.”
1 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

6. The nurse is teaching a postpartum client about breast-feeding. Which of the following instructions should
the nurse include?
a. Prenatal vitamins should be discontinued.
b. The diet should include additional fruits.
c. Organic, hypoallergenic soap should be used to cleanse the breasts.
d. Galactagogues should be avoided.
7. A nurse is planning to care for a post-partum client who had a vaginal delivery 2 hours ago. The client had
a 4cm midline episiotomy and has several haemorrhoids. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this
client?
a. Acute pain
b. Disturbed body image
c. Impaired urinary elimination
d. Risk for imbalanced fluid volume.
8. A nurse is caring for four 1-day postpartum clients. Which client has an abnormal finding that would
require further intervention?
a. The client with mild afterpains rated 4/10
b. The client with a pulse rate of 70 beats per minute
c. The client with colostrum discharge from both breasts
d. The client with lochia that is red and has a foul smelling color.
9. Robi, a nurse, is providing postpartum instructions to a client who will be breast-feeding her newborn.
Which of the following determines that the client understood the instructions? Select all that apply.
a. “magsusuot ako ng bra na may suporta”
b. “Nakakasama ang pag-inom ng alak para sa aking gatas-ina”
c. “Ang kape ay maaaring makakapagpababa ng aking gatas-ina”
d. “Sisimulan ko ang pag-inom ng estrogen pills pag karating sa amingbahay”
e. “Alam ko na kung ang aking suso ay panandaliang lumaki, ihihinto ko ang pagpapasuso”
f. “Iinom ako ng maraming tubig upang maparami ang aking gatas-ina”
10. A prolapsed umbilical cord is when the umbilical cord is displaced between the presenting part and the
amnion or protruding through the cervix, causing compression of the cord and compromising fetal
circulation. Which of the following assessment findings are not indicative of a prolapsed cord?
a. The client has a feeling that something is coming through the vagina.
b. Umbilical cord is visible or palpable
c. Sweating, cool and damp skin
d. Fetal heart monitor shows variable decelerations or bradycardia after rupture of the membranes.

11. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta?

a. Premature separation of the placenta of the uterine wall after the twentieth week of gestation and
before the fetus is delivered
b. The placenta penetrates the uterine muscle itself
c. An abnormally adherent placenta
d. Placenta goes all the way through the uterus.
12. A nurse in the labor room is preparing to care for a client with hypertonic uterine contractions. The nurse is
told that the client is experiencing uncoordinated contractions that are erratic in their frequency, duration,
and intensity. The priority nursing intervention in caring for the client is to:
a. Provide pain relief measures
b. Prepare the client for an amniotomy
c. Promote ambulation every 30 minutes
d. Monitor the oxytocin infusion closely.
13. Jenny, a nurse, is performing an initial assessment on a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test
is positive. Which assessment finding would indicate that the client is at risk for preterm labor?
a. The client is a 36- year old primigravida
b. The client has a history of cardiac disease
c. The client’s haemoglobin level is 13.5 g/dL
d. The client is a 20year old primigravida of average weight and height.
14. A nurse in a labor room is monitoring a client with dysfunctional labor for signs of fetal or maternal
compromise. Which of the following assessment findings would alert the nurse to a compromise?
a. Maternal fatigue
b. Coordinated uterine contractions
c. Progressive changes in the cervix
d. Persistent nonreassuringfetal heart rate
15. A client in labor is transported to the delivery room and prepared for ta caesarean delivery. After the client
is transferred to the delivery room table, a nurse places her in:
a. Supine position with a wedge under the right hip
b. Trendelenburg’s position with the legs in stirrups.
c. Prone position with the legs separated and elevated
d. Semi-Fowler’s position with a pillow under the knees.
16. The Ballard Tool is used to assess for the gestational age of a client. Which of the following statements on
ratings is not true?
a. An overall rating below the 10th percentile = Small for gestational age (SGA)
b. A rating between the 10th and 90th percentile = Appropriate for gestational age (AGA)
c. A rating above the 90th percentile = Large for gestation age (LGA)
d. The rating is marked on a graph along with the newborn’s weight and body circumference only.

17. Identify the parameter defined. It is elicited by flexing the newborn’s hand toward the ventral forearm until
resistance is felt and measuring the angle.
a. Arm recoil
b. Square window sign
c. Popliteal Angle
d. Scarf sign
18. One of your primary clients in the community is the Cruz family. They were selected because one of their
children, Jon, a 4 year old boy diagnosed with Down’s syndrome. They were referred to you for supportive
care. How will your approach be when assessing Cruz?
a. Treat him like a toddler and expect that he would exhibit developmental attributes younger than
his chronological age.
b. Treat him like a 4 year old and expect that he would exhibit developmental attributes according to
his age.
c. Treat him on the basis of your assessment findings.
d. Avoid handling the family as your primary patient.
19. You are assessing Alec, a 17-year-old college student for his annual physical examination. When asked
about his sexual activities, he admitted that he prefers to be in a relationship with persons of the same
sex. However, he could not express himself fully in fear of his parent’s rejection, given that he is the eldest
child who is to inherit his family’s business. What psychosocial stage is being compromised in this
situation?
a. Identity vs. role confusion
b. Intimacy vs. isolation
c. Integrity vs. despair
d. Autonomy vs. shame and doubt
20. Which of the following car safety devices should beused for a child who is 8 years old and is 4 feet tall?
a. Seat belt
b. Booster seat
c. Rear-facing convertible seat
d.Front-facing convertible seat
Situation: Student nurse Ginny reviews the different nursing theories for her upcoming board exam by
answering the following questions.
21. A psychiatric nurse dims the lights in the ward to help an insomniac patient be able to initiate sleep.
Manipulation of the environment is the focus of whose nursing theorist?
a. Dorothea Orem c. Imogene King
b. Betty Neuman d. Florence Nightingale
22. Which among the following nursing actions does not correspond to any of the 14 fundamental needs of
individuals according to Virginia Henderson?
a. A nasogastric tube is inserted to a post-operative patient for gavage
b. The air-conditioning units of the newborn unit are turned full blast during summer
c. An intubated patient is repositioned every 2 hours
d. The colostomy of a patient post-anorectal pull-through is cleaned every 8 hours or as needed
23. A patient with history of cerebrovascular accident 3 years ago is now able to walk even without assistance
from other people after sessions of physical therapy. Caring for and helping patients attain total self-care is
the goal of nursing in whose theory?
a. Callista Roy c. Jean Watson
b. Madeleine Leininger d. Dorotea Orem
24. Whose theory focuses on the interpersonal interaction between the nurse and the patient, and the
patient’s family?
a. Hildegard Peplau c. Betty Neuman
b. Dorotea Orem d. Jean Watson
25. Nurse Ginny has finally passed the board exam and is now a registered nurse. In the ward, she was given
a Jehovah’s Witness patient who requires infusion of recombinant platelets. With Leininger’s theory in
mind, it is best for Nurse Ginny to:
a. Advise doctor of her refusal to infuse the recombinant platelets
b. Obtain patient consent for the infusion
c. Carry out and obtain the required units of platelets.
d. Call their parish priest for guidance
Situation: Nurse Riri is assigned to do the assessments for newly-admitted patients in the ward. A nine-year-
old male patient is wheeled in. Nurse Riri begins her assessments.
26. Before taking the patient’s blood pressure, Nurse Riri should ensure that the cuff bladder width measures
how much of the patient’s upper arm circumference?
a. 20% c. 80%
b. 40% d. 100%
27. Nurse Riri measures the patient’s blood pressure on both arms. She knows that the normal pressure
difference between the two measurements is within which of the following ranges?
a. 2-3 mmHg c. 10-20 mmHg
b. 5-10 mmHg d. 0-5 mmHg
28. Upon inspection of the skin on the abdomen, Nurse Riri finds vesicles on an erythematous base in different
stages of healing. They appear like dewdrops on rose petals. History shows that the lesions began on the
trunk and spread peripherally. Which among the following should Nurse Riri suspect?
a. German measles c. Varicella
b. Condylomatalata d. Hand, foot, & mouth disease
29. What should be the position of a normal patient if Nurse Riri is to measure the jugular veins for distention?
a. Semi-Fowler’s c. Trendelenburg
b. High Fowler’s d. Flat, supine
30. Nurse Riri performs the Hirschberg test. This test assesses which among the following functions?
a. Visual acuity c. Extraocular muscles
b. Pupillary light reflex d. Corneal Reflex
Situation: The birth process affects the holistic aspects of the mother, to include physiologic changes to both
the mother and the fetus. Nursing students are now assigned at the OB Admitting Section of the National
Hospital.

31. A nurse is performing an assessment of a pregnant woman who is at 28 weeks of gestation. The nurse
measures the fundal height in centimeters and expects the finding to be which of the following? The
student nurse correctly identifies:
a. 22 cm
b. 30 cm
c. 36 cm
d. 40 cm
32. A nursing student is preparing a class on the process of fetal circulation. The instructor asks the student
specifically to describe the process through the umbilical cord. Which of the following statements from the
student is correct?
a. “The one artery caries freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placental to
the fetus”
b. “The two arteries carry freshly oxygenated blood and nutrient-rich blood back from the placental
to the fetus.”
c. “The two arteries in the umbilical cord carry blood that is high in carbon dioxide and other waste
products away from the fetus to the placenta.”
33. Which of the following are not presumptive sign/ symptom of pregnancy?
a. Amenorrhea
b. Urinary changes
c. Softening of the uterus
d. Nausea/ vomiting
34. Of the following probable signs of pregnancy, which describes the bluish discoloration of the vagina?
a. Chadwick’s sign
b. Hegar’s sign
c. Goodel’s sign
d. Ballotement
35. A nurse is reviewing the record of a client who has just been told that a pregnancy test is positive. The
physician has documented the presence of Goodel’s sigm. The staff nurse asks the student nurse and she
states that this is:
a. A softening of the cervix
b. The presence of fetal movement
c. The presence of HCG in the urine
d. A soft blowing sound that corresponds to the maternal pulse during auscultation of the uterus.
Situation: Knowledge of the physiologic and pathologic changes in pregnant women is necessary in order to
determine which situations require management and possible referral.

36. Nurse Dianne is observing a client in the labor room. Which of the following changes in the cardiovascular
system shows a pathologic response?
a. Increase in total cardiac volume by 40-50%.
b. Anasarca
c. Varicosities of the lower extremities
d. Heart is elevated slightly upward and to the left.
37. The gastrointestinal system is also one of the systems most affected by the pregnancy. Which of the
following is true?
a. Nausea and vomiting as a result of the secretion of the HCG, subsiding by the 6 th month.
b. Poor appetite caused by increased gastric motility.
c. Flatulence and heartburn due to decreased gastrointestinal motility and slowed emptying of the
stomach caused by a decrease in progesterone production.
d. Ptyalism as a result of increasing levels of estrogen.
38. Changes in the endocrine system also occur during the pregnancy process. Which of the following are true
A. BMR Increases
B. Metabolic function Increases
C. Anterior lobe of the pituitary gland reduces
D. Thyroid gland enlarges slightly
E. Thyroid activity decreases
F. Parathyroid gland increases
G. Aldosterone levels gradually decrease
H. Body weight increases
I. Water retention decreases
a. H, F, D, C, I
b. I, F, B, G, C
c. B, A, E, H, F
d. A, B, D, F, H
39. After the 8-hour shift, Nurse Dianne is asked to go on duty on another 8 hours.She is performing an
assessment of a primigravid mother who is being evaluated in a clinic during her second trimester. Which
of the following indicates an abnormal finding?
a. Quickening
b. Braxton Hicks Contractions
c. FHR of 180 beats per minute
d. Consistent increase in fundal height
40. She explains some of the purposes of the placenta to a client during a prenatal visit. The nurse determines
that the client understands some of these purposes when the client states that the placenta:
a. Cushions and protects the baby.
b. Maintains the temperature of the baby.
c. Is the way the baby gets food and oxygen.
d. Prevents all antibodies and viruses from passing to the baby.

41. The patient’s ABG result reveals presence of respiratory acidosis. Which among these values would you
expect to see?
a. pH 7.35, CO2 39 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L
b. pH 7.47, CO2 30 mmHg, HCO3 22 mEq/L
c. pH 7.32, CO2 49 mmHg, HCO3 29 mEq/L
d. pH 7.31, CO2 31 mmHg, HCO3 20 mEq/L
42.During the initial stages of cardiogenic shock, respiratory rate increases to improve oxygenation. Nurse
Froilan expects the patient’s ABG to present:
a. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
43. The nurse caring for a client with an ileostomy understands that the client is most at risk for developing
which acid-base disorder?
c. Metabolic alkalosis c. Respiratory alkalosis
d. Metabolic acidosis d. Respiratory acidosis
44. The nurse reviews the blood gas results of a client with atelectasis. The nurse analyzes the results and
determines that the client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which result validates the nurse’s findings?
a. pH 7.25, PCO2 50 mm Hg
b. pH 7.35, PCO2 40 mm Hg
c. pH 7.50, PCO2 52 mm Hg
d. pH 7.52, PCO2 28 mm Hg
45. The nurse is caring for a client with an IV who is experiencing dyspnea, hypotension, a weak, rapid pulse,
a decreased level of consciousness, and who is becoming cyanotic. The priority nursing intervention is to:
a. Notify the physician
b. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
c. Administer oxygen
d. Discontinue the IV
46. Mr. Antonio Sanchez, 47 y.o., was diagnosed with chronic renal failure. Which of the following ABG
findings would be expected?
a. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic acidosis
b. Respiratory alkalosis d. Metabolic alkalosis
47. A 60-year-old client is admitted to the hospital presenting shortness of breath, fever, and productive
cough. Which ABG finding is most related to the diagnosis of COPD?
a. pH 7.33, PaCO2: 48mmHg; HCO3: 24mEq/L
b. pH 7.48; PaCO2: 30mmHg; HCO3: 23mEq/L
c. pH 7.30; PaCO2: 40mmHg; HCO3: 20mEq/L
d. pH 7.49; PaCO2: 38mmHg; HCO3: 29mEq/L
48. A patient is taking furosemide, a potassium-wasting diuretic. Which among these ABG findings would you
expect in his long-term use of the diuretic?
a. pH 7.48, PaCO2: 46mmHg; HCO3: 28mEq/L
b. pH 7.26; PaCO2: 32mmHg; HCO3: 21mEq/L
c. pH 7.35; PaCO2: 40mmHg; HCO3: 25mEq/L
d. pH 7.30; PaCO2: 33mmHg; HCO3: 20mEq/L

49. A clinical instructor observes SN Tina as she performs ET suctioning to an unconscious client. Which of
these indicates that Tina needs further teaching on carrying out the procedure?
a. Tina suctioned for 20 seconds on the last suctioning to ensure that the airway is clear.
b. Tina pressed the silent button of the mechanical ventilator momentarily prior to suctioning.
c. Tina suctioned a small amount of NSS after each suctioning.
d. Tina applied suction on the catheter while it was being withdrawn.
50. The nurse is planning to perform percussion and postural drainage. Which is an important aspect of
planning the client’s care?
a. Percussion and postural drainage should be done before lunch.
b. The order should be coughing, percussion, positioning, and then suctioning.
c. A good time to perform percussion and postural drainage is in the morning after breakfast when
the client is well rested.
d. Percussion and postural drainage should always be preceded by 3 minutes of 100% oxygen.
51. A client with chronic renal failure has completed a hemodialysis treatment. The nurse would use which of
the following standard indicators to evaluate the client’s status after dialysis?
a. Vital signs and weight gain
b. Potassium level and weight
c. Vital signs and BUN
d. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and creatinine
52. A client with chronic renal failure (CRF) returns to the nursing unit after following a hemodialysis
treatment. On assessment the nurse notes that the client’s temperature is 100.20C. which of the following is
the most appropriate nursing action?
a. Encourage fluids
b. Continue to monitor vital signs
c. Notify the physician
d. Monitor the site of the shunt for infection
53. A nurse is reviewing a list of components for peritoneal dialysis solution with a client. The nurse asks the
client of the purpose of the glucose contained in the solution. The nurse bases the response on the knowledge
that the glucose:
a. Increases osmotic pressure to produce ultrafiltration
b. Prevents disequilibrium syndrome
c. Prevents excessive glucose from being removed form the client
d. Decreases the risk of peritonitis
54 A nurse is caring for an 88-yaer-old woman suspected of having urinary tract infection (UTI). Which of the
following if noted on the client would alert the nurse for a possibility of a UTI?
a.Frequency
b. Urgency
c. Confusion
d. Fever
55. A nurse is caring for a client following a kidney transplant. The client develops oliguria. Which of the
following would the nurse anticipate to be prescribed in the treatment for oliguria?
a. Forcing fluids
b. Irrigation of Foley catheter
c. Restricting fluids
d. Administration of diuretics
56. A client is diagnosed of polycystic kidney disease. Which of the following the nurse would the nurse NOT
expect to be a component of the treatment plan?
a. Genetic counseling
b. Increased water intake
c. Antihypertensive medications
d. Sodium restriction
57. A client with chronic renal failure who is schedule for hemodialysis this morning is due to receive a daily
dose of enalapril (Vasotec). The nurse would plan to administer the medication:
a. Upon return from dialysis
b. Just prior to dialysis
c. The day after the dialysis
d. During dialysis
58. A nurse is reviewing the medication record of a client diagnosed with CRF. The nurse notes that the
client is receiving Aluminum hydroxide. The nurse plans care, knowing that the purpose of this medication is
to:
a. Combine phosphorous and help eliminate phosphates from the body
b. Prevent ulcers
c. Promote the elimination of potassium from the body
d. Prevent constipation
59. A female client with chronic renal failure (CRF) is receiving a hemodialysis treatment. After hemodialysis,
nurse Sarah knows that the client is most likely to experience:
a. hematuria.
b. weight loss.
c. increased urine output.
d. increased blood pressure.
60. Epoetinalfa (Epogen) is prescribed for a client with chronic renal failure. The client ask the nurse about
the purpose of the medication. The following appropriate response would be which of the following?
a. “It is used to lower your blood pressure”
b. “It is used to treat anemia”
c. “It will help to increase the potassium level in your body”
d. :It is an anticonvulsant medication given to all clients after dialysis to prevent seizure activity”
61. A client with renal failure is being managed by continous ambulatory peritoneal dialysis (CAPD). During
outflow, the nurse notes that only half of the 2L dialysate has been returned and the flow has stopped.
Which of the following interventions that the nurse should take to enhance the outflow?
a. Reposition the client
b. Encourage a low fiber diet.
c. Make sure the peritoneal catheter is kinked
d. Slide the peritoneal catheter farther into the abdomen.
62. The nurse is reviewing the client’s records and notes that the physician has documented that the client
has a renal disorder. On review of the laboratory results, the nurse most likely would expect to note which
of the following?
a. Decreased hemoglobin level
b. Elevated creatinine level
c. Decreased red blood cell count
d. Decreased white blood cell count
63. The client has been diagnosed to have acute renal failure. He has been prescribed low protein,
low potassium and low sodium diet. A teaching program should include:
a. Encouraging the client to include raw carrots, tomatoes, and cabbage in the diet
b. Recommending protein of high biologic value such as eggs, poultry and lean meat
c. Pointing out that raw fruits such as bananas, cantaloupe and oranges may be included in
the diet
d. Allowing the client to have cheese, canned foods, and processed foods
64. The client undergoes peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is least likely expected?
a. The fluid that drains during the first exchange is pink – tinged
b. The dialysis solution is warmed at body temperature
c. The urine and blood glucose levels are monitored
d. Blood transfusion is administered during peritoneal dialysis
65. The client with a diagnosis of end – stage irreversible chronic renal failure has been scheduled
for hemodialysis. She has A – V fistula created in her left forearm. Which of the following is not
included in the nursing care plan of the client?
a. Administer amphogel after meals
b. Omit the dose of antihypertensive during hemodialysis
c. BP taking or any procedure that involves puncturing on the affected arm should be avoided
d. Monitor urine and blood glucose levels
66. The physician orders exchange resin – kayexalate (Na polysterenesulfonate) to the client with
chronic renal failure, the expected outcome of this medication is to:
a. Lower serum potassium
b. Decrease blood sugar level
c. Reduce cerebral edema
d. Prevent thromboembolism
67. The client had undergone hemodialysis for the first time. Which of the following signs and
symptoms indicate that he is experiencing disequilibrium syndrome?
a. Headache, confusion, elevated BP, restlessness
b. Tachycardia, tachypnea, ankle edema
c. Rales, weight gain, chest pain
d. Puffy eyelids, flushed, dry skin, decreased BP
68. Patients with urolithiasis need to be encourage to:

a. Decrese fluid intake
b. Strain all urine
c. Supplement diet with calcium
d. Void every 6 to 8 hours
69. Which of the following medications would the client most likely receive after kidney
transplantation?
a. Imuran (Azathioprine)
b. Garamycin (Gentamicin 𝑆𝑂4 )
c. Tagamet (Cimetidine)
d. Vasotec (Enalapril)

70. Which of the following conditions is a common cause of pre-renal acute renal failure?
a. Atherosclerosis
b. Decreased cardiac output
c. Prostatic hypertrophy
d. Rhabdomyolysis
71. A client admitted for acute pyelonephritis is about to start antibiotic therapy. Which of the
following symptoms would be expected in this client?
a. Hypertension
b. Flank pain on the affected side
c. Pain that radiates toward the unaffected side
d. No tenderness with deep palpation over the costovertebral angle
72. A client is diagnosed with cystitis. Client teaching aimed at preventing a recurrence should include
which of the following instructions?
a. Bathe in a tub
b. Wear cotton underpants
c. Use a feminine hygiene spray
d. Limit your intake of cranberry juice
73. A client has just received a renal transplant and has started cyclosporine therapy to prevent graft
rejection. Which of the following conditions is a major complication of this drug therapy?
a. Depression
b. Hemorrhage
c. Infection
d. Peptic ulcer disease
74. A client received renal transplant 2 months ago. He’s admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of
acute rejection. Which of the following findings would be expected?
a. Hypotension
b. Normal body temperature
c. Decreased white blood cell counts
d. Elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
75. A client is diagnosed with chronic renal failure and told she must start hemodialysis. Client teaching
would include which of the following instructions?
a. Follow a high-potassium diet
b. Strictly follow the hemodialysis schedule
c. There will be few changes in your lifestyle
d. Use alcohol on the skin to clean it due to intergumentary changes
76. A client is to undergo a renal transplantation with a living donor. Which of the following
preoperative assessment is important?
a. Urine output
b. Signs of graft rejection
c. Signs and symptoms of infection
d. Client’s support system and understanding of lifestyle changes

77. A client has a history of chronic renal failure and receives hemodialysis treatment three times a
week through an arteriovenous ( AV ) fistula in the left arm. Which of the following interventions is
included in this clients care?
a. Keep the AV fistula site dry
b. Keep the AV fistula wrapped in gauze
c. Take the blood pressure in the left arm
d. Assess the AV fistula for a bruit and thrill
78. A client is admitted with severe nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea and is hypotensive. She’s noted to
have severe oliguria with elevated blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels. The physician will
most likely write an order for which of the following treatments?
a. Force oral fluids
b. Give furosemide 20 mg. IV
c. Start hemodialysis after a temporary access is obtained
d. Start IV fluid of normal saline solution bolus followed by a maintenance dose.
79. A 80 year old man reports urine retention. Which of the following factors may contribute to this
clients problem?
a. Benign prostatic hypertrophy
b. Diabetes
c. Diet
d. Hypertension
80. Which of the following interventions is inappropriate for a client on hemodialysis?

a. Palpate for a thrill on the arm with the fistula
b. Auscultate for a bruit on the arm with the fistula
c. Report the absence of a thrill or bruit on the arm with the fistula
d. Take the blood pressure, or start an IV on the arm with the fistula
81. During the shock phase of burns, the following are manifested by the client except:
a. Hypovolemia, increased hct
b. Diuresis
c. Hyperkalemia, hyponatremia
d. Fluid shifts from IVC to ISC
82. The primary cause of dehydration during the first 48 hours of burns is:
a. Increased insensible losses
b. Shifting of plasma
c. Fluid loss through blister formation
d. Actual fluid through destruction by the burning
83. Which of the following acid – base imbalances occur due to excessive loss of sodium?
a. Metabolic acidosis
b. Metabolic alkalosis
c. Respiratory acidosis
d. Respiratory alkalosis

84. Which of the following should be given highest priority in a client with burns:
a. Intiation of fluid replacement
b. Securing an airway
c. Initiation of total parental nutrition
d. Prevention of infection
85. The drug of choice for burn clients because it penetrates eschar is
a. Silver nitrate
b. Silver sulfadiazine
c. Mafenide acetate
d. Povidone iodine
86. The stress ulcer that develops in burns is:

a. Curling’s ulcer
b. Cushing ulcer
c. Duodenal ulcer
d. Gastric ulcer
87. After 48 hours post – burns, which of the following is not an expected manifestation of the client?
a. Polyuria
b. Hypokalemia
c. Metabolic alkalosis
d. Hyponatremia
88. To relieve pain, the following are appropriate nursing measures except:
a. Avoid draft
b. Morphine sulfate per IV
c. Use bed cradle
d. Hydrotherapy with cold water
89. Which of the following skin graft is obtained from another human being?
a. Autograft
b. Syngeneic graft
c. Homograft / allograft
d. Heterograft / xenograft
90. Which of the following is NOT appropriate nursing intervention to control infection in a burn patient?
a. Practice reverse isolation technique
b. Use sterile NSS to irrigate affected part
c. Apply antimicrobial ointment in the affected part as ordered
d. Provide oral feedings as soon as possible

91. A nurse reviews the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the potassium level is 5.4
mEq/L Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the electrocardiogram as a result of the
laboratory value?
a. ST depression
b. b. Inverted T wave
c. c. Prominent U wave
d. d.TallpeakedTwaves
92. A nurse caring for a group of clients reviews the electrolyte laboratory results and notes a sodium level of
130 mEq/L on one client’s laboratory report. The nurse understands that which client is at highest risk for the
development of a sodium value at this level?
a. The client with renal failure
b. The client who is taking diuretics
c. The client with hyperaldosteronism
d. The client who is taking corticosteroids
93. A nurse is reviewing laboratory results and notes that a client’s serum sodium level is 150 mEq/L. the
nurse reports the serum sodium level to the physician and the physician prescribes a dietary instructions based
on the sodium level. Which food item does the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
a. Peas
b. b. Cauliflower
c. c. Low-fat yogurt
d. d. Processed oat cereals
94. A nurse is assessing a client with a suspected diagnosis of hypocalcemia. Which of the following clinical
manifestations would the nurse expect to note which of the following clinical manifestations would the nurse
expect to note in the client?
a. Twitching
b. Negative Trousseau’s sign
c. Hypoactive bowel sounds
d. Hypoactive deep tendon reflexes
95. A nurse caring for a client with hypocalcemia would expect to note which of the following changes on the
electrocardiogram?
a. Widened T wave
b. b. Prominent U wave
c. c. Prolonged QT interval
d. d. Shortened ST segment
96. A nurse caring for a client with severe malnutrition reviews the laboratory results and notes a magnesium
level of 1.0 mg/dL. Which electrocardiogram change would the nurse expect to note based on the magnesium
level?
a. Prominent U waves
b. Prolonged PR interval
c. Depressed ST segment
d. Widened QRS complexes

97. A female client has intractable vomiting. The nurse’s primary concern would be:
a. Metabolic alkalosis
b. Metabolic acidosis
c. Hyperglycemia
d. Hyperkalemia
98. A client with a 3-day history of nausea and vomiting presents to the emergency department. The client is
hypoventilating and has a respiratory rate of 6 breaths/min. The electrocardiogram (ECG) monitor displays
tachycardia with heart rate of 120 beats/min. Arterial blood gases are drawn and the nurse reviews the results,
expecting to note which of the following?
a. a decreased pH and an increased CO2
b. an increased pH and a decreased CO2
c. a decreased pH and a decreased HCO3
d. an increased pH with an increased HCO3
99. A client wh o is found unresponsive has arterial blood gases drawn and the results indicate the following;
pH is 7.12, pCO2 is 90 mm Hg, and HCO3 is 22 mEq/L. The nurse interprets the results as indicating which
condition?
a. metabolic acidosis with compensation
b. respiratory acidosis with compensation
c. metabolic acidosis without compensation
d. respiratory acidosis with out compensation
50. A nurse reviews the blood gas results of client with Guillain-Barre syndrome. The nurse analyzes the results
and determines th at th e client is experiencing respiratory acidosis. Which of the following validates the nurse's
findings?
a. pH 7.25, Pco2 50 mm Hg
b. pH 7.35, Pco2 40 mm Hg
c. pH 7.50, Pco2 52 mm Hg
d. pH 7.52, Pco2 28 mm Hg

NP3
ANSWER KEY
1. B 35. A 69. A
2. A 36. B 70. B
3. D 37. D 71. B
4. A 38. D 72. B
5. C 39. C 73. C
6. B 40. C 74. D
7. A 41. C 75. B
8. D 42. B 76. D
9. A, B, C, F 43. D 77. D
10. C 44. A 78. D
11. C 45. C 79. A
12. A 46. C 80. D
13. B 47. A 81. B
14. D 48. A 82. B
15. A 49. A 83. A
16. D 50. A 84. B
17. B 51. A 85. C
18. C 52. B 86. A
19. A 53. A 87. C
20. B 54. C 88. D
21. D 55. C 89. C
22. B 56. D 90. D
23. D 57. A 91. D
24. A 58. A 92. B
25. C 59. B 93. D
26. B 60. B 94. A
27. B 61. A 95. C
28. C 62. B 96. C
29. A 63. B 97. A
30. C 64. D 98. A
31. B 65. D 99. D
32. B 66. A 100. A
33. C 67. A
34. A 68. B

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NURSINGRADTECHDENTISTRYCRIMINOLOGYMIDWIFERY*MEDTECH

LETPSYCHOMETRESPIRATORY THERAPYCIVIL SERVICENAPOLCOM

REFRESHER PREBOARDS ONLINE EXAM

1 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

2 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

11. Which of the following is a proper description for Placenta Accreta?

3 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

5 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

6 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

7 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

8 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

68. Patients with urolithiasis need to be encourage to:

11 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

12 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

80. Which of the following interventions is inappropriate for a client on hemodialysis?

13 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

86. The stress ulcer that develops in burns is:

14 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

15 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

16 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY- NURSING MODULE

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