3rd Periodical Test in MAPEH & SCIENCE 9

THIRD PERIODICAL TEST IN MAPEH 9
NAME: ____________________________ GR.& SEC._________ SCORE:________
MUSIC
Directions: Read the sentences below and identify what they refer to from the given choices below each. Write the letter
of your answer directly in the blank.
_____1. The composer who bridged the Classical Period to the Romantic Period.
A. Bach C. Berlioz B. Bruckner D. Beethoven
_____2. Frederic Chopin wrote most of his music for this instrument. What instrument is being referred to?
A. Violin C. Piano
B. Flute D. Orchestra
_____3. What does the term “Nationalism” mean in Romantic period music?
A. being patriotic
B. having a strong feeling for one’s own nation
C. pride in one’s own composition
D. inclusion of folk songs, dances, legends, and other national identity of composer’s
homeland in a composition
_____4. Which of the following is not a type of Program music?
A. song cycle C. concert overture
B. symphonic poem D. incidental music
_____5. Which of these following sentences is not a characteristic of the Romantic period?
A. Followed a strict rule in counterpoint.
B. Has a rich variety of musical pieces.
C. Has a wide range of dynamics – from pppp to ffff.
D. Chromatic harmonies were used by the composers.
_____6. He is a transitional composer between Classical to Romantic era.
A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period
B. Niccolo Paganini D. Nationalism
_____7. It is described as a cultural movement that valued emotions over reason, individualism, and freedom of
expression.
_____8. This ideology is commonly reflected in the music of the Romantic Era.
_____9. Frederic Chopin’s composition shows nationalism.

_____10. A dance composition for piano and is famous in Poland.
B. Niccolo Paganini D. Polonaise
_____11. It is an instrumental composition that conveys the images, scenes, a story without text or lyrics. What kind of
Romantic music is this?
A. Violin and string Music C. Program Music
B. Piano Music D. Instrumental Music
_____12. Who among the following composers is regarded as the "Poet of the Piano"?
A. Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky C. Hector Berlioz
B. Frederic Chopin D. Robert Schumann
_____13. Which of the following is a characteristic of a romantic music?
A. It appreciates the artworks.
B. It develops the skill of the composers.
C. It enriches the knowledge of the musician.
D. It portrays literature, history, emotional, and nature
_____14. What period of music refers to the cultural movement that stressed emotion, imagination, individualism, and
freedom of expression?
A. Music of Classical Period C. Music of Romantic Period
B. Music of Medieval Period D. Music of Baroque Period
_____15. What kind of music is “Symphonie Fantastique”?
A. Program music C. Piano Music
B. String Music D. Violin Music
_____16. The Romantic Period begun in the late ______ century.
A. Program music C. 18-19th century
_____17. It is in free form such as fantasy, rhapsody, and nocturne.
A. Program music C. concert overture
_____18. A dance composition for piano and is famous in Poland.
A. Polonaise C. concert overture
_____19. It is not a characteristic of the Romantic Period music.
A. Polonaise C. Basso continuo
_____20. Musical composition for an orchestra which is also called Tone Poem.
A. Polonaise C. Basso continuo
B. String Music D. Song Cycle

ART
_____21. Who was the first internationally acclaimed Danish artist?
A. Canova C. Goya
B. Thorvaldsen D. Barye
_____22. Whose masterpiece is the Library of Sainte-Genevieve?
A. Palais Garnier C. Henri Labrouste
B. David D. Guillermo Tolentino
_____23. Neoclassicism was originally a reaction against the style of which period/ movement?
A. rococo C. baroque
B. luminism D. gothic
_____24. What is the western movement that highlights the decorative and visual arts of the ancient Roman and Greek
civilizations?
A. Romanticism C. Neoclassicism
B. Baroque D. Renaissance
_____25. Antonio Canova was well known for his concepts throughout his works of art.
A. Mythological creatures and nude flesh
B. Religious creatures
C. Peristyle
D. More on history
_____26. The word neoclassic came from the Greek neos meaning new and the Latin word classicus which means ?
A. Light C. First class
B. Old D. Bright
_____27. The Neoclassical movement coincided with the 18th century Age of Reason also known as the ?
A. Age of Enlightenment C. Age of Bold Styles
B. Age of Development D. Age of Classics
_____28. Neoclassical art pieces such as paintings, sculpture and architecture generally portrayed ?
A. Greek history C. Philippine history
B. Roman History D. Italian history
_____29. These are the characteristics of neoclassical art EXCEPT
A. Local color C. Classic geo-structure
B. Overall lighting D. Emotional extremes
_____30. This style of Romantic painting became more popular due to the peoples’ romantic adoration of nature.
A. Landscape painting C. Portrait painting
B. Formal painting D. Emotional painting

_____31. It is the fusion of substances to the body of the ceramics using fire.
A. Carving C. Glazing
B. Decorating D. Pottery
_____32 It is an intricate design that uses leaves and flowers commonly seen in wood carvings, stone reliefs on
buildings, textiles, and decorated books.
A. arabesque C. carving
B. calligraphy D. tessellation
_____33. Which one symbolizes the identity of the Kyrgyz people?
A. kalpak C. shyrdaks
B. keteni D. tush kyiz
_____34. Which is famous for its blue and white porcelain made from Iranian cobalt during the 9th century?
A. East Asia C. South Asia
B. North Asia D. West Asia
_____35.The symbols below are commonly depicted in the iconography of all three religions in India, EXCEPT for one.
A. Crown C. Lotus
B. Halo D. Wheel
PE
_____36. Which of the following terms refers to a goal that is developed with a finite amount of time in mind?
A. High goals C. Low goals
B. Long-term goals D. Short-term goals
_____37. Which of the following terms refers to the statements that are designed in a way to promote clear and mutual
understanding of what establishes levels of performance and successful fitness development? ‘
A. Goal C. Wants
B. Plan D. Wish
_____38. Which does NOT belong in SMART goal planning?
A. Artistic C. Relevant
B. Measurable D. Time-bounded
_____39. What should you consider if you place your goals and sub-goals within time frames?
A. Measurable C. Relevant
B. Specific D. Time-bounded
_____40. Which of the following terms refers to a goal that requires time and planning?
A. High goals C. Low goals
B. Long-term goals D. Short-term goals

_____41. What should you consider if you break down your main objective into smaller sub-goals and result is within the
parameters of your ability?
A. Achievable C. Specific
B. Measurable D. Relevant
_____42. What does letter R in the acronym S.M.A.R.T. refers to?
A. Random C. Rest
B. Rapid D. Relevant
_____43. What should you consider to make a goal clear and concise?
A. Be specific with your goals.
B. Be active in making the goal.
C. Be familiar with the end result.
D. Be attentive to your responsibilities.
_____44. What makes a goal relevant?
A. It is interesting. C. It is motivating.
B. It is boring. D. It is simple.
_____45.Which of the following is a long-term goal?
A. Alicia is aiming to learn freestyle in one day.
B. John is targeting to make 10 rounds of cycling per week.
C. Glenn is planning to improve his running time by 2 kilometers per hour each day.
D. Ana is aiming to walk a total distance of ten kilometers by the end of the school year.
_____46. Why identifying your fitness test results important?
A. It will keep you motivated.
B. It will help you plan your next fitness goals.
C. It will help you identify your areas for improvement.
D. All of the above.
_____47What does the acronym S.M.A.R.T. stands for?
A. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bounded
B. Stylish, Measurable, Attainable, Relevant, Time-bounded
C. Specific, Measurable, Artistic, Relevant, Time consuming
D. Simple, Meaningful, Achievable, Relevant, Time-bounded
_____48. Can we make goals without reviewing our previous fitness assessment results?
A.Yes, we can.
B. No, we cannot.
C. Yes, but we will not know what areas to focus on.
D. Yes, we will just make a plan anyway.
_____49. How will we know our fitness levels?
A. By performing physical fitness tests
B. By guessing your height and weight
C. By playing basketball, volleyball and baseball

D. None of the above
_____50.The following are the criteria for creating S.M.A.R.T. goals except
A. Achievable C. Specific
B. Meaningful D. Relevant
HEALTH
_____51. How will you apply first aid to a person experiencing Heat Exhaustion?
1 – Check for vital signs
2 – Transport the victim to a cool place
3 – Seek medical help
4 – Give him/her plenty of water
A. 4-3-1-2 C. 3-1-2-4
B. 2-4-1-3 D. 1-2-3-4
_____52. Rest the injured part, apply ice, compress the injured part, elevate the injured part arethe first aid applied to
the following injuries EXCEPT
A. Choking C. Strain
B. Sprain D. Both B & C
_____53. Which of the following statement describe “FRACTURE”?
A. is a partial or complete displacement of the bones
B. is an injury to the ligaments of a bone due to tearing or overstretching
C. is an injury to the muscles which is a result of improper use of muscle
D. is a break or crack in a bone, it can be open or close
_____54. How will you apply first aid to a victim suffering from “DISLOCATION”?
1 – Call for help immediately
2 – Splint the affected part
3 – Do not try to move a dislocated part
4 – Apply ice on the injured part to reduce swelling
A. 1-2-3-4 C. 1-4-3-2
B. 4-2-1-3 D. 3-1-4-2
_____55. The following first aid is applied to a victim of food poisoning EXCEPT
A. Help the person to lie down and rest
B. Give him plenty of flavorless fluids to drink and a bowl if he vomits
C. Call for medical help if the condition worsens
D. Check breathing and open the airway

_____56.The drug dependent decides on his/her own to be examined and admitted in rehabilitation centers.
A.Compulsory confinement
B.Voluntary thru representations
C.Voluntary
D.All of the above
_____57.The drug dependent is willing but wants to be represented by an immediate family member or legal guardian.
C.Voluntary
D.All of the above
_____58.The drug dependent needs to be confined as the condition is life-threatening or threatens the life of the family.
C.Voluntary
D.All of the above
_____59.This approach uses a holistic approach in the treatment process.
A. Eclectic Approach
B. Hazelden Minne-sotta Model
C. Spritual Approach
D. Therapeutic Community Approach
_____60.This approach uses Bible teachings as a source of inspiration to change drug dependents.
A. Eclectic Approach
B. Hazelden-Minne-sotta Model
C. Spritual Approach
D. Therapeutic Community Approach

MAPEH 9
KEY TO CORRECTION
MUSIC PE
1.D 16.C 36.D
2.C 17.C 37.A
3.B 18.A 38.A
4.A&D 19.C 39.A
5.A 20. 40.B
D
6.A 41.A
7.C 42.D
8.D 43.A
9.B 44.C
10.D 45.D
11.C 46.D
12.B 47A
13.A 48.C
14.C 49.A
15.A 50.B
ART HEALTH
21.D 51.B
22.C 52.A
23.A 53.D
24.B 54A
25.B 55.D
26.C 56.C
27.A 57.B
28.B 58.A
29.D 59.A
30.A 60.C
31.C
32.A
33.A
34.D
35.A
THIRD PERIODIC TEST IN MAPEH 9

TABLE OF SPECIFICATIONS
ITEM ITEM
SKILL
NO. PLACEMENT
MUSIC
MU9ROIIIa-2
describes musical elements of given Romantic period pieces; 5 1-5

MU9ROIIIb-h-3
explains the performance practice (setting, composition, role of composers/performers, and audience) 5 6-10
during Romantic Period
MU9ROIIIc-h-7
relates Romantic music to other art forms and its history within the era; 10 11-20
ARTS
A9ELIIIb-1
analyzes art elements and principles in the production of work following a specific art style from the
Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9ELIIIa-2 5 21-25
identifies distinct characteristics of arts during the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9ELIIIa-3
identifies representative artists from the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9PLIIIh-1
reflects on and derive the mood, idea, or message from selected artworks
A9PLIIIh-2
explains the use or function of artworks by evaluating their utilization and combination of art elements
and principles
A9PLIIIh-3
uses artworks to derive the traditions/history of the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9PLIIIh-4
compares the characteristics of artworks produced in the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9PRIIIc-e-1
creates artworks guided by techniques and styles of the Neoclassic and Romantic periods (e.g., linear
style and painterly style)
A9PRIIIc-e-2
describe the influence of iconic artists belonging to the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9PRIIIc-e-3 5 26-30
applies different media techniques and processes to communicate ideas, experiences, and stories
showing the characteristics of the Neoclassic and Romantic periods
A9PRIIIf-4
evaluates works of art in terms of artistic concepts and ideas using criteria from the Neoclassic and
Romantic periods
A9PRIIIf-4
shows the influences of Neoclassic and Romantic periods on Philippine art forms 5 31-35
A9PR-IIIg -7
participates in an exhibit using completed artworks with Neoclassic and Romantic periods
characteristics
PE
PE9PF - IIIa - h -23
undertakes physical activity and physical fitness assessments
PE9RD - IIIb - h - 4
executes the skills involved in the dance
PE9PF - IIIb - h -30 15 36-50
performs appropriate first aid for injuries and emergency situations in physical activity and dance
settings (cramps,
PE9PF - IIIg - h -41
involves oneself in community service through dance activities in the community
HEALTH
H9IS -IIIb -37
demonstrates the conduct of primary and secondary survey of the victim (CAB)
H9IS -IIIb -38
assesses emergency situation for unintentional injuries
H9IS -IIIc.d - 40
explains the principles of wound dressing
H9IS -IIIc.d - 41 10 51-60
demonstrates appropriate bandaging techniques for unintentional injuries
H9IS -IIIe.f - 42
demonstrates proper techniques in carrying and transporting the victim of unintentional injuries
H9IS-IIIg.h43
demonstrates proper first aid procedures for common unintentional injuries
TOTAL 60 60
THIRD PERIODICAL TEST IN SCIENCE 9
NAME: ____________________________ GR.& SEC._________ SCORE:________
_____1. Which of the following BEST describes a volcano?

A. It is a place within the mantle where rocks melt to generate magma.
B. It is a long tube in the ground that connects the magma chamber to Earth’s surface.
C. It is an opening in the Earth's mantle through which lava, volcanic ash, and gases escape.
D. It is an opening on the surface of the Earth that allows material warmer than its
surroundings to escape from its interior.
_____2. Which of the following statements about volcanoes is TRUE?
A. Volcanic eruptions can be predicted.
B. Volcanic eruptions are always violent.
C. Volcanoes cannot be found in bodies of water.
D. Volcanoes give us information about inner Earth
For questions 3-5, refer to Figure 1 (Parts of a volcano)

_____3. Which part represents the magma chamber?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 7
_____4. What part of the volcano is represented by Part 1?
A. crater C. main vent
B. magma D. magma chamber
_____5. Which of the following statements correctly describes Part 8 in Figure 1?
A. It is cloud of ash formed by volcanic explosion
B. It is a fast-moving current of hot gas and rock that is moving away from a volcano.
C. It is a basin, circular in form, which can be large in radius and sometimes great in depth.
D. It is a silicate rock that is hot enough to be in liquid form, expelled from a volcano and
reached the Earth’s surface during an eruption.
_____6. What type of volcanoes are formed from wide thin layers of lava?
A. lava domes C. shield volcanoes
B. cinder cones D. composite volcanoes
_____7. What type of volcano is Mayon Volcano which is formed from alternating layers of lava flow, undissolved stone
and ash?
A. lava domes C. shield volcanoes
B. cinder cones D. composite volcanoes
_____8. At depth in the Earth, nearly all magmas contain gas dissolved in liquid. When do the gases form into a separate
vapor phase?
A. When volume of gas is reduced as pressure increased.
B. When volume of gas expands as pressure is increased.
C. When pressure is decreased as magma rises toward the surface of the Earth.
D. When pressure is increased as magma rises toward the surface of the Earth.
_____9. Which type of volcano ejects a basaltic magma?
A. Cinder cone C. Shield
B. Composite D. Stratovolcanoes
_____10. In magma formation, what should be the temperature and pressure requirements?
A. High temperature and high pressure
B. Low temperature and low pressure
C. High temperature and low pressure
D. High pressure and low temperature
For questions 11-12, refer to the table below:
Composition Source Material Viscosity Gas Silica Location of

Content content formation
Basaltic Upper mantle Low 1-2 % About 50 Both oceanic and

magma % continental
Andesitic Oceanic crust and Intermediate 3-4 % About 60 Continental margins

magma oceanic sediments % associated with
subduction zones
Rhyolitic Continental crust High 4-6 % About 70 Continental crust

magma %
_____11. Which of the following statements correctly compares the three magma compositions based on the table above?
I. Rhyolitic magma has the highest gas content and highest silica content and the most
viscous magma composition.
II. Basaltic magma has the lowest gas content, but the highest silica content and the least
viscous magma composition.
III. Andesitic magma has greater silica and gas content than basaltic magma but less than the
silica and gas content of rhyolitic magma.
A. I, II and III C. II and III
B. I and II D. I and III
_____12. Based on the given data about the gas and silica contents of magma, what would be the correct arrangement of
the three types of magma composition if you are to arrange them in an increasing order of explosiveness?
A. Basaltic, Andesitic, Rhyolitic
B. Andesitic, Rhyolitic, Basaltic
C. Rhyolitic, Andesitic, Basaltic
D. Basaltic, Rhyolitic, Andesitic
_____13. Based on the figure below, use numbers 1-5 to sequence the process on how magma is formed which lead to
volcanic eruptions.
_____ The magma rises and collects in chambers within the crust. As magma fills the chamber,
pressure grows until the pressure gets high enough.
_____ Oceanic plates sink into the mantle below. As the oceanic plate sinks, fluid is squeezed out of
it.
_____ When the pressure gets high enough, the magma can break through the crust and spew out in a
volcanic eruption.
_____ The fluid flows up into the mantle rock above and changes its chemistry, causing it to melt and
formation of magma.
_____ A denser oceanic plate collides with a continental plate.
_____14. Which gas from erupting volcano causes Global Warming?

A. Carbon dioxide C. Methane gas
B. Sulfur dioxide D. Hydrogen sulfide
_____15.During the eruption of a volcano, different dissolved gases and dust particles were released into the atmosphere.
What might be the effect of these materials on the environment and on the living things?
A. Global Warming C. Disruption of aircraft travel
B. Respiratory illness D. All of the choices
_____16. Heat from the volcano can be utilized as energy source. Which energy comes from the volcano?
A. Biomass C. Geothermal
B. Dendrothermal D. Hydroelectric
_____17. Which locations can be good sources of geothermal energy?
A. Ocean, river, sea C. Geyser, hot spring, ocean
B. Geyser, ocean, river D. Geyser, hot spring, steam vents
_____18. Where is the first geothermal power plant located in our country?
A. Albay C. Leyte
B. Batangas D. Negros
_____19. Which statement is TRUE about geothermal energy?
A. Its supply is limited C. It generates greenhouse gases
B. It causes global warming D. It is a sustainable energy source
_____20. Which shows the correct sequence of the flow of energy in a Geothermal Power Plant?
A. electricity steam generator turbine hot water
B. hot water generator turbine steam electricity
C. generator turbine steam hot water electricity
D. hot water steam turbine generator electricity
_____21. Heat energy can be trapped and used for our daily activities. What are the two ways in doing this?
A. through the use of fossil fuels
B. through Geothermal heat pumps
C. through Geothermal power plant
D. Both B and C
_____22. How is geothermal energy harnessed as source of electricity?
A. Wells are drilled on Earth’s surface to pump steam or hot water
B. The steam from hot water spins the turbine to produce electricity
C. The turbines are connected to generators that generates electricity
D. All of the above
_____23. What is the positive effect of building a geothermal powerplant?
A. Lesser cost C. Nuclear Fallout
B. Lesser Pollution D. Global Warming
_____24. Which problem may occur as a result of building a geothermal energy facility?
A. The burning of fossil fuel.
B. Water pollution from the chemicals.
C. Toxic gases can be released when drilling.
D. All the above 10
_____25. Geothermal Power Plants is susceptible to trigger this natural calamity?
A. Earthquakes C. Hurricanes
B. Forest Fire D. All the above
_____26. Which of these are considered as the disadvantages of using geothermal energy?
I. Low carbon footprints energy source
II. Reservoirs are not permanent
III. Harmful gases maybe released into the atmosphere
IV. High cost of constructing the system
A. I and II C. I, III and IV
B. II and III D. II, III and IV
_____27. What is/are the advantages of using geothermal energy?
I. The production cost is cheaper
II. The main source of energy is the sun
III. Safe and friendly to the environment
IV. It is available everywhere on Earth
A. I and II C. III only
B. I and III D. IV only
_____28. Arrange the following sequence of conversion of geothermal energy into electrical energy in a geothermal
power plant.
I. Steam is used to turn the turbine
II. Cool water is injected to the ground
III. Generator converts mechanical to electrical energy
IV. Hot water is pumped up and steam is produced
A. I, II, III, IV C. II, IV, I, III
B. II, III, I, IV D. IV, I, III, II
_____29. Which volcano is located on the northwest slopes of North Cotabato and Davao Provinces?
A. Mt. Bulusan C. Mt. Olilia
B. Mt. Apo D. Mt. Taal
_____30. Why is the Philippines the best place to build geothermal power plants?
A. Because Philippines is a rich country.
B. Because the temperature in the Philippines is too hot.
C. Because the Philippines is in the of Pacific Ring of Fire.
D. Because there is lesser chance that an earthquake might happen.
_____31. Which statement BEST describes topography?
A. It is the total distance above sea level.
B. It is the side of the mountain that experiences floods.
C. It is the curve of the earth and the distance from equator.
D. It is the physical attribute, surface shapes and features of an area.
_____32. Which part of the mountain has more vegetation?
A. top C. sideward
B. leeward D. windward
_____33. Which BEST describes the leeward side of a mountain?
A. The side of the mountain that experiences floods.
B. The side of the mountain that receives less precipitate.
C. The side of the mountain that receives more precipitate.
D. The side of the mountain that experiences more vegetation.
_____34. How do oceans affect the climate of an area?
A. The solar radiation is absorbed by ocean.
B. Ocean currents act much like a conveyor belt.
C. The ocean helps to distribute heat around the globe.
D. All of the above.
_____35. In a theory, Earth’s surface was covered by vast sheets of ice. What do you call these vast sheets of ice?
A. glaciers C. ice
B. haze D. snow
_____36. Which refers to the angular distance from the equator that greatly affects the climate and weather of an area?
A. altitude C. height
B. elevation D. latitude
_____37. Why do mountainous areas have generally colder climate than the surrounding land? Because of …
A. higher altitude C. far from the ocean
B. higher elevation D. far from the lowland
_____38. What happens to the temperature as you go to the top of a mountain?
A. does not change C. temperature decreases
B. temperature increases D. temperature goes up and down
_____39. How does higher altitude affect the climate of an area?
A. The closer you get to the equator, the hotter it gets.
B. The higher you go above sea level, the colder it gets.
C. The farther you get from the equator, the colder it gets.
D. The process by which heat from the sun is trapped near Earth's surface.
_____40. What region receives the least amount of solar radiation?
A. equatorial C. temperate
B. polar D. tropical
_____41. Which of the following is the best practice to reduce the effect of climate change?
A. organic farming C. burning fossil fuel
B. livestock raising D. car manufacturing
_____42. Which is TRUE about greenhouse effect?
A. Greenhouse gases on the surface absorb heat from the atmosphere.
B. Greenhouse gases on the surface absorb heat from the earth’s interior.
C. Greenhouse gases in the upper atmosphere absorb heat from the outer space.
D. Greenhouse gases in the lower atmosphere absorb heat from the earth’s surface.
_____43. Which of the following is NOT likely result of global warming?
A. Rising sea level C. Increased storm frequency and intensity
B. Worsening health effects D. Increased agricultural productivity worldwide
_____44. Which condition happens during La Niña phenomenon?
A. Trade wind becomes stronger.
B. Upwelling of cold water is blocked.
C. Air pressure in the western Pacific increases.
D. Air pressure in the eastern Pacific decreases.
_____45. Which of the following gases is NOT a greenhouse gas?
A. Methane C. Water vapor
B. Nitrogen D. Carbon dioxide
_____46. Which of the following phenomena are included in climate change?
A. Decomposition and germination
B. Weather changes and precipitation
C. Volcanic eruptions and earthquake
D. Global warming and extreme change in weather patterns
_____47. Which of the following is NOT expected to increase with enhanced climate change?
A. Flood C. Less typhoons
B. Drought D. Sea level rising
_____48. Which activity contributes the MOST to carbon emissions?
A. Forestry C. Agriculture
B. Transport D. Energy supply
_____49. Which can cause global warming?
A. Deforestation
B. Industrial and agricultural activities
C. Air pollutants due to extraction of natural gas
D. All of the above
_____50. Which of the following is classified as natural factor that caused global warming?
A. Burning of fuels
B. Melting of ice caps
C. Typhoon and heavy rains
D. Methane release from arctic wetlands
_____51.Which of the following statement is TRUE about constellations?

A. The patterns of asteroids viewed from earth that resembled different images.
B.The earth-based interpretation of two-dimensional star patterns on the sky.
C.The patterns on the sky made up of stars with different brightness and distances from earth.
D.Both B and C.
_____52. Are all the constellations visible from anywhere on Earth in the entire year?
A. No, because as the Earth revolves around the sun.
B. No, because there are times that stars do not give off light.
C. Yes, because all constellations can be found in a one place.
D. Yes, because all the constellations do not change its position.
_____53. How do ancient Greek’s name stars within the constellation?
A. according to figure C. according to brightness
B. according to distance D. according to their position in the constellation
_____54. How are constellation being used?
A. in navigation
B. in keeping track of the calendar
C. in assessing when to plant crops
D. all of the above
_____55. Why are most of the constellations visible at night?
A. Because stars travel at night.
B. Because the sun is too bright.
C. Because they only appear at night.
D. Because of the motion of earth in its orbit around the sun.
_____56. Can you see the same stars every night?
A. Yes, stars do not change position.
B. Yes, we are seeing the same stars every night.
C. No, the stars travel from one place to another.
D. No, as the earth rotates the part of the sky you can see changes.
_____57. Why are some constellations not seen in certain months?
A. Because the earth revolves around the sun.
B. Because the brightness of the sun outshines their visibility.
C. Because of the gravity that affects the rotation and revolution of the earth.
D. Because of the tidal waves attracting each other, creating a huge tsunami that washed out
the constellation.
_____58. Is the sun the biggest factor why there are less visible constellations during daytime?
A. No, because the sun has nothing to do with it.
B. Yes, because it is closer, and brighter as seen on earth.
C. Yes, because it helps transform them into other celestial bodies.
D. No, because the sun is the one responsible to give light to the moon.
_____59. Which of the following statements BEST describes why Polaris is used widely in navigation?
A. It can be seen easily.
B. It changes its position every night.
C. It is often situated in a good position in the sky.
D. It does not change its position at any time of the night.
_____60. Knowing the altitude of Polaris will determine your latitude. If you are at the north pole, how many degrees is
the north star above the horizon?
A. 45 B. 90 C. 180 D. 360
KEY TO CORRECTION
1.D 31.D
2.D 32.D
3.B 33.B
4.C 34.D
5.D 35.A
6.C 36.D
7.D 37.A
8.C 38.C
9.B 39.B
10.A 40.B
11.D 41.A
12.A 42.A
13.4,2,5,3,1 43.D
14.A 44.D
15.D 45.B
16.C 46.A
17.D 47.C
18.D 48.D
19.D 49.D
20.D 50.D
21.C 51.D
22.A 52.A
23.B 53.D
24.D 54.D
25.D 55.D
26.C 56.D
27.B 57.A
28.D 58.B
29.A 59.D
30.C 60.B
THIRD PERIODIC TEST IN SCIENCE 9
TABLE OF SPECIFICATIONS
ITEM ITEM
SKILL
NO. PLACEMENT
S9ES–IIIb-26
Describe the different types of volcanoes and volcanic eruption

15 1-15
S9ES - IIIb -28
Explain what happens when volcanoes erupt
S9ES – IIIc - d -29

15 16-30
Illustrate how energy from volcanoes may be tapped for human use
S9ES -IIIe - 30
10 31-40
Explain how different factors affect the climate of an area
S9ES -IIIf - 31

10 41-50
Describe certain climatic phenomena that occur on a global level
S9ES -IIIj - 35
Show which constellations may be observed at different times of the year using 10 51-60
models
TOTAL 60 60

3rd Periodical Test in MAPEH &amp; SCIENCE 9

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THIRD PERIODICAL TEST IN MAPEH 9

NAME: ____________________________ GR.& SEC._________ SCORE:________

A. Bach C. Berlioz B. Bruckner D. Beethoven

B. having a strong feeling for one’s own nation

C. pride in one’s own composition

_____4. Which of the following is not a type of Program music?

A. song cycle C. concert overture

B. symphonic poem D. incidental music

A. Followed a strict rule in counterpoint.

B. Has a rich variety of musical pieces.

C. Has a wide range of dynamics – from pppp to ffff.

D. Chromatic harmonies were used by the composers.

_____6. He is a transitional composer between Classical to Romantic era.

A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period

B. Niccolo Paganini D. Nationalism

A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period

B. Niccolo Paganini D. Nationalism

A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period

B. Niccolo Paganini D. Nationalism

_____9. Frederic Chopin’s composition shows nationalism.

A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period

_____10. A dance composition for piano and is famous in Poland.

A. Ludwig Van Beethoven C. Romantic Period

B. Niccolo Paganini D. Polonaise

A. Violin and string Music C. Program Music

B. Piano Music D. Instrumental Music

A. Peter Ilyich Tchaikovsky C. Hector Berlioz

B. Frederic Chopin D. Robert Schumann

_____13. Which of the following is a characteristic of a romantic music?

A. It appreciates the artworks.

B. It develops the skill of the composers.

C. It enriches the knowledge of the musician.

D. It portrays literature, history, emotional, and nature

A. Music of Classical Period C. Music of Romantic Period

B. Music of Medieval Period D. Music of Baroque Period

_____15. What kind of music is “Symphonie Fantastique”?

A. Program music C. Piano Music

B. String Music D. Violin Music

_____16. The Romantic Period begun in the late ______ century.

A. Program music C. 18-19th century

B. String Music D. Violin Music

_____17. It is in free form such as fantasy, rhapsody, and nocturne.

A. Program music C. concert overture

B. String Music D. Violin Music

_____18. A dance composition for piano and is famous in Poland.

A. Polonaise C. concert overture

B. String Music D. Violin Music

_____19. It is not a characteristic of the Romantic Period music.

A. Polonaise C. Basso continuo

B. String Music D. Violin Music

A. Polonaise C. Basso continuo

B. String Music D. Song Cycle

_____21. Who was the first internationally acclaimed Danish artist?

_____22. Whose masterpiece is the Library of Sainte-Genevieve?

A. Palais Garnier C. Henri Labrouste

B. David D. Guillermo Tolentino

A. Mythological creatures and nude flesh

A. Light C. First class

A. Age of Enlightenment C. Age of Bold Styles

B. Age of Development D. Age of Classics

A. Greek history C. Philippine history

B. Roman History D. Italian history

_____29. These are the characteristics of neoclassical art EXCEPT

A. Local color C. Classic geo-structure

3rd Periodical Test in MAPEH & SCIENCE 9

3rd Periodical Test in MAPEH & SCIENCE 9

NAME: ________________________ GR.& SEC._ SCORE:____

_16. The Romantic Period begun in the late __ century.

NAME: ________________________ GR.& SEC._ SCORE:____