Chemistry 12

Chapter 1 Solid State

1. Which of the following are not properties of solid?
a. They have definite mass, volume and shape
b. Inter molecular forces are weak
c. Inter molecular distances are short
d. They are incompressible and rigid
2. Amorphous solids are
a. solid substance in real sense
b. liquid in real sense
c. super cooled liquids
d. substances with definite melting point
3. Which of the following is not a crystalline solid?
a. common salt
b. sugar
c. iron
d. rubber
4. Solid carbon dioxide is an example of
a. ionic crystal
b. covalent crystal
c. metallic crystal
d. molecular crystal
5. In a simple cubic unit cell, an atom at the corner contributes to the unit cell
a. 1 part
b. 1/2 part
c. 1/4 part
d. 1/8 part
6. The vacant space in the bcc unit cell is
a. 32 %
b. 23 %
c. 26 %
d. None of these
7. If an atom is present at the center of the cube, the contribution of that atom per unit cell
a. ¼
b. 1
c. ½
d. 1/8
8. What is the coordination number in hcp lattice
a. 4
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
9. In a fcc unit cell, the contribution from the atom at the corner and face center of the cube are
respectively
a. 1/4, ½
b. 1/8, ¼
c. 1/8, ½
d. 1/2, 1/2
10. The octahedral voids in fcc or ccp are located at
a. edge centres and along diagonals
b. edge centres and body centre
c. along body diagonal and edge centre
d. all the edge centres only
11. In a face centred lattice of X atoms, Y atoms occupy 1/2 of tetrahedral voids and 1/4 of
octahedral voids. What is the possible formula of the compound?
a. X4Y6
b. X4Y5
c. X4Y8
d. X4Y9
12. In a face centered lattice of X and Y, X atoms are present at the corners while Y atoms are at
face centers. Then the formula of the compound is:
a. XY3
b. X2Y3
c. X3Y
d. XY
13. A compound contains P and Q elements. Atoms Q are in ccp arrangement while P occupy all
tetrahedral sites. The formula of the compound is:
a. PQ
b. PQ2
c. P2Q
d. P3Q
14. In a closest packed lattice, the no. of octahedral sites as compared to tetrahedral ones will be
a. Equal
b. Half
c. Double
d. None of these

15. The correct order of the packing efficiency in different types of the unit cell is
a. fcc < bcc < simple cubic
b. fcc > bcc > simple cubic
c. fcc < bcc > simple cubic
d. bcc < fcc > simple cubic
16. What is the relation between edge length (a) and radius ( r) in a simple cubic lattice
a. a = 4r
b. a=r
c. a=2r
d. a=r/2
17. types of Bravais lattices in 3D arrangement is
a. 8
b. 12
c. 14
d. 9
18. What is the packing efficiency of simple cubic lattice
a. 52%
b. 74%
c. 68%
d. none of these
19. Patterns of layers in ccp is
 a. ABAB type
b. ABCABC type
c. ABBA type
d. ABCBAC type
20. The no. of octahedral voids per sphere in a fcc lattice is
a. 8
b. 4
c. 2
d. 1
21. Following diagram represents

a. simple cubic unit cell

b. bcc
c. fcc
d. end centered
22. In the following diagrams X and Y represent

a. tetrahedral void, triangular void

b. tetrahedral void, octahedral void
c. octahedral void, tetrahedral void
d. triangular void, octahedral void
23. Calculate the number of atoms in a cubic based unit cell having one atom on each corner and
two atoms on each body diagonal.
a. 8
b. 16
c. 9
d. 1
24. What is the two-dimensional coordination number of a molecule in square close-packed layer?
a. 6
b. 12
c. 2
d. 4
25. Silver forms ccp lattice and X-ray studies of its crystals show that the edge length of its unit cell
is 408.6 pm. Calculate the density of silver ingram per cubic cm(Atomic mass = 107.9 u).
a. 11.5
b. 10.5
c. 1.05
d. 105
26. In the Schottky defect-
a. cations are missing from the lattice and occupy the interstitial sites
 b. equal number of cations and anions are missing
c. anions are missing and electrons are present their places
d. equal number of extra cations and electrons are present in the interstitial sites
27. As a result of Schottky defect
a. there is no effect on the density
b. density of the crystal increases
c. density of the crystal decreases
d. any of the above three can happen
28. F-centres in an ionic crystal are
a. lattice sites containing electrons
b. interstitial sites containing electrons
c. lattice sites that are vacant
d. interstitial sites containing cations
29. Doping of Si with P or Al increases the conductivity The difference in the two cases is
a. P gives rise to extra electrons while Al gives rise to holes
b. P gives rise to holes while Al gives rise to extra electrons
c. P is metal whereas Al is a non-metal
d. P is conductor while Al is semiconductor
30. In a Solid lattice, the cation has left a lattice site and is located at an interstitial position, the
lattice defect is
a. Interstitial defect
b. vacancy defect
c. Frenkel defect
d. Schottky defect
31. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Paramagnetic substances are weakly attracted by magnetic field
b. Ferromagnetic substances cannot be magnetized permanently
c. The domains in antiferromagnetic substances are oppositely oriented with respect to
each other
d. Pairing of electrons cancels their magnetic moment in the diamagnetic substances
32. A ferromagnetic substance becomes a permanent magnet when placed in a magnetic field
because—
a. all the domains get oriented in the direction of magnetic field.
b. all the domains get oriented in the direction opposite to the direction of magnetic field
c. domains get oriented randomly
d. domains are not affected by magnetic field
33. Which of the following defects is also known as a dislocation defect?
a. Frenkel defect
b. Schottky defect
c. Non-stoichiometric defect
d. Simple interstitial defect
34. Which type of defect has the presence of cations in the interstitial sites?
a. Frenkel defect
b. Schottky defect
c. Metal deficiency defect
d. Vacancy defect
35. The appearance of colour in solid alkali metal halide is generally due to:
a. Frenkel defect
b. Schottky defect
c. Vacancy defect
 d. F-Centres
36. Compound that can exhibit Frenkel as well as Schottky defect is
a. AgCl
b. AgBr
c. NaCl
d. ZnS
37. A group 14 element is to be converted into n-type semiconductor by doping it with suitable
impurity. To which group should this impurity belong?
a. Group 13
b. Group 14
c. Group 15
d. Group 12
38. What happens when Fe3O4 is heated at 850 K?
a. It converts into diamagnetic substance
b. It converts into ferromagnetic substance
c. it converts into paramagnetic substance
d. no effect
39. What is the effect of increasing temperature on the electrical conductivity of metals
a. Increases
b. Decrease
c. no change
d. can't predicted
40. The difference in the electrical conductivity of metals, insulators, and semiconductors can be
understood in terms of
a. VBT
b. Band theory
c. Resonance
d. Hybridization
41. Non-stoichiometric Metal Excess defects due to interstitial cations are found in
a. NaCl
b. ZnO
c. ZnS
d. AgBr
42. What type of defect can arise when a solid is heated?
a. vacancy defect
b. interstitial defect
c. Metal excess defect
d. impurity defect
43. Which compound is added to create an impurity defect in NaCl?
a. AgBr
b. AgCl
c. KI
d. SrCl2
44. Assertion : The total number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell is one.
Reason : Simple cubic unit cell has atoms at its corners, each of which is shared between eight
adjacent unit cells.
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
 c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

45. Assertion : Total number of octahedral voids present in unit cell of cubic close packing including
the one that is present at the body centre, is four.
Reason : Besides the body centre there is one octahedral void present at the centre of each of
the six faces of the unit cell and each of which is shared between two adjacent unit cells.
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct
explanation for assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct
explanation for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
46. Following diagram represents

a. Frenkel defects
b. Schottky defects
c. Impurity defects
d. n-type semiconductor.
47. Following diagram represents

a. Frenkel defects
b. Schottky defects
c. Impurity defects
d. n-type semiconductor.

Chapter 2 Solutions
1. Example of the solid solution-
a. Air
b. Bronze
c. Tap water
d. Glucose dissolved in water
2. Which depends on the temperature?
a. Molarity
b. Molality
c. Mole fraction
d. ppm
3. 8 g NaOH is dissolved in one litre of solution, its molarity is:
a. 0.8 M
b. 0.4 M
c. 0.2 M
d. 0.1 M
4. The vapour pressure of a dilute solution of a non-volatile solute is not influenced by
a. pressure applied on solution
b. mole fraction of the solute
c. nature of the solvent
d. degree of dissociation of the solute
5. If Raoult's law is obeyed, the vapour pressure of the solvent in a solution is directly proportional
to:
a. Mole fraction of the solvent
b. Mole fraction of the solute
c. Mole fraction of the solvent and solute
d. The volume of the solution
6. Which of the following will form a nearly ideal solution?
a. Ethanol and water
b. Nitric acid and water
c. Chloroform and acetone
d. Benzene and toluene
7. Azeotropic mixtures are
a. Mixtures of two solids
b. Two liquids which boil at different temperatures
c. Two liquids which can be fractionally distilled
d. Constant boiling mixture
8. Which of the following solution containing components A and B follows Raoult's Law:
a. A-B attraction force is greater than A-A and B-B
b. A-B attraction force is less than A-A and B-B
c. A-B attraction force remains same as A-A and B-B
d. Volume of solution is different from sum of volume of A and B
9. The solubility of gases in liquids:
a. increases with increase in pressure and temperature
b. decreases with increase in pressure and temperature
c. increases with increase in pressure and decrease in temperature
d. decreases with increase in pressure and increase in temperature
10. An azeotropic mixture of two liquids boil at a lower temperature than either of them when
a. it is saturated
b. it does not deviate from Raoult's law
c. it shows negative deviation from Raoult's law
 d. it shows positive deviation from Raoult's law
11. Which of the following is the cause of low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of
people living at high altitudes?
a. high atmospheric pressure
b. low atmospheric pressure
c. low temperature
d. both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure
12. The value of Henery's Law constant is:
a. larger for gases with higher solubility
b. larger for gases with lower solubility
c. constant for all gases
d. not related to the solubility of gases
13. How many moles of NaOH are present in its 3M solution
a. 2 mole
b. 1 mole
c. 3 mole
d. 1.5 mole
14. The molality of pure water is:
a. 1
b. 18
c. 55.5
d. 36
15. A binary liquid solution is prepared by mixing n-heptane and ethanol. Which of the following
statements is correct regarding the behaviour of the solution?
a. Solution formed is an ideal solution
b. The solution is non-ideal, showing +ve deviation from Raoult’s law
c. The solution is non-ideal showing –ve deviation from Raoult’s law
d. n- heptanes shows +ve deviation while ethanol shows –ve deviation
16. The ratio of the no. of moles of solvent to the total no. of moles of solute and solvent is
called..................
a. Molarity
b. Molality
c. ppm
d. mole fraction
17. The vapour pressure of the solution containing non-volatile solute is:
a. greater than vapour pressure of pure solvent
b. lesser than vapour pressure of pure solvent
c. equal to the vapour pressure of pure solvent
d. the sum of the vapour pressure of the solute and the solvent
18. Which one is not the characteristic of the azeotropic mixture
a. have same composition in liquid and vapour phase
b. components boil at the constant temperatures
c. components can not be separated by fractional distillation
d. components boil at different temperatures
19. What are the medical conditions which can be explained using Henry'slaw
a. fever and bends
b. heart attack and bends
c. liver failure and anoxia
d. bends and anoxia
20. Which characterizes the weak intermolecular forces of attraction in a liquid
 a. High boiling point
b. High vapour pressure
c. High critical temperature
d. high heat of vaporization
21. On the basis of information given below mark the correct option.

a. Solution (B) and (C) will follow Raoult’s law.

b. Solution (A) will follow Raoult’s law.
c. Solution (B) will show negative deviation from Raoult’s law.
d. Solution (C) will show positive deviation from Raoult’s law.

22. For a binary ideal liquid solution, the variation in total vapour pressure versus composition of
solution is given by which of the curves?

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (i) and (iv)
c. (i) and (iii)
d. (iii) and (iv)

23. Assertion : Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature.

Reason : The volume of a solution changes with change in temperature.
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
 d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
24. Match the column 1 with column 2
Column 1 Column 2
a. A solution of gas in solid Soda water

b. A solution of gas in liquid Sugar solution

c. A solution of solid in liquid

25. van't Hoff actor is :

a. less than one in case of dissociation
b. more than one in case of association
c. always less than one
d. less than one in case of association
26. The van't Hoff factor for a dilute solution of K3[Fe(CN)6] is:
a. 10
b. 4
c. 5
d. zero
27. The experimental molar mass of an electrolyte will be less than its calculated value because of
the value of van't Hoff factor is
a. less than 1
b. greater than 1
c. one
d. zero
28. The substance A, when dissolved in solvent B, shows the molar mass corresponding to A3. The
van't Hoff factor will be
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1/3
29. The ratio of the value of any colligative property for KCl solution to that for sugar solution is
------- times
a. 1
b. 0.5
c. 2
d. 2.5
30. The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the non-volatile solute,
this statement was given by:
a. Raoult
b. Henry
c. Joule
d. Dalton
31. At higher altitudes, water boils at a temperature less than 100-degreecelsius because
a. temperature at higher altitudes is low
b. atmospheric pressure is low
c. the proportion of heavy water increases
d. atmospheric pressure becomes more
32. The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in boiling point to:
a. Molarity
 b. Molality
c. mole fraction of solute
d. mole fraction of solvent
33. NaCl is 100 % ionized in 0.01 molal aqueous solution. hence the ratio of elevation in boiling
point to molal elevation constant is :
a. 0.01
b. 0.015
c. 0.0175
d. 0.02
34. Which has the highest boiling point:
a. 0.1 M Sodium sulphate
b. 0.1 M glucose
c. 0.1 M Magnesium chloride
d. 0.1 M Aluminium nitrate
35. What is the effect of the addition of sugar on the boiling and freezing point of water
a. both boiling point and freezing point increases
b. both boiling point and freezing point decreases
c. boiling point increases and freezing point decreases
d. boiling point decreases and freezing point increases
36. Which of the following aqueous molal solution have the highest freezing point
a. Urea
b. Barium chloride
c. Potassium bromide
d. Aluminium sulphate
37. Which will show maximum depression in freezing point when concentration is 0.1 M:
a. NaCl
b. Urea
c. Glucose
d. Potassium sulphate
38. Colligative properties of the solution depend on:
a. Nature of the solution
b. Nature of the solute particles
c. Concentration of solute particles
d. All of these
39. Isotonic solutions must have the same:
a. osmotic pressure
b. density
c. elevation in boiling point
d. depression in freezing point
40. Osmosis is
a. flow of solute particles , from solution to solvent through SPM
b. flow of solvent particles , from solvent to solution through SPM
c. flow of solvent particles, from solution to solvent through SPM
d. flow of solvent particles, from high concentrated solution to low concentrated solution
through SPM
41. The compound whose 0.1 M solution has maximum osmotic pressure at the given temperature
will be:
a. Calcium chloride
b. KCl
c. Glucose
 d. Urea
42. Which of the following salt will have the same value of Vant Hoff’s factor(i) as that of
K4[Fe(CN)6]
a. Al2(SO4)3
b. NaCl
c. Al(NO3)3
d. Na2SO4
43. The osmotic pressure of the solution can be increased by
a. Increasing temperature of the solution
b. decreasing temperature of the solution
c. Increasing the volume of the solution
d. diluting the solution
44. If liquid A and B form ideal solutions
a. The enthalpy of mixing is zero
b. the entropy of mixing is zero
c. the free energy of mixing is zero
d. the free energy as well as entropy of mixing are zero
45. Van’t Hoff factor i is given by the expression _____________.

a. (i) and (ii)

b. (i) and (iii)
c. (ii) and (iii)
d. (ii) and (iv)
46. Assertion : When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
47. Assertion: Osmotic pressure is a colligative property.
Reason: Osmotic pressure depends on the nature of solute molecules
a. Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b. Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation
for assertion.
c. Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d. Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
48. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle, shrivels because
_____________ .
a. it gains water due to osmosis.
 b. it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
c. it gains water due to reverse osmosis.
d. it loses water due to osmosis.
49. Observe the following figure and state which is correct statement.

a. Water flows from fresh water to salt water side

b. Water flows from salt water to fresh water side
c. There is no flow of water
d. None of the above

Chapter 3Electrochemistry
1. Galvanic cell converts
 a. Potential energy into kinetic energy
b. Electrical energy into chemical energy
c. Chemical energy into electrical energy
d. Heat energy into electrical energy
2. Which one is not correct about the salt bridge
a. provide electrical contact between two solutions
b. completes the circuit
c. maintain the electrical neutrality of the solutions
d. make the both half cells charged
3. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
a. electrode at which oxidation takes place is called anode
b. in Galvanic cell anode is negative terminal
c. in Galvanic cell anode is positive electrode
d. in Daniell cell zinc is act as anode
4. Which is not correct regarding Daniell cell,
a. Direction of flow of electron- from –ve to +ve terminal
b. Direction of current- from +ve to –ve terminal
c. Anode is copper and cathode is zinc electrode
d. Direction of current is from cathode to anode
5. During Representation or Notation of Galvanic Cell
a. Keep the Anode on the left and cathode on the right side
b. Keep the Anode on the right and cathode on the left side
c. in any side anode and cathode can be kept
d. none of the above
6. For spontaneous reaction the emf of the cell or cell potential is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. can not say
7. For SHE, which is not correct
a. consists of a platinum electrode coated with platinum black.
b. pressure of hydrogen gas is one bar
c. concentration of hydrogen ion in the solution is one molar.
d. standard electrode potential is 1.00 V
8. The positive value of the standard electrode potential for copper electrode indicates that
a. copper ions get reduced more easily than 𝐻+ ions
b. hydrogen ions can oxidise Cu
c. hydrogen gas can not reduce copper ion
d. copper ions get oxidise more easily than 𝐻+ ions.
9. The standard electrode potential for fluorine is the highest is indicating that
a. fluorine gas (𝐹2)has the maximum tendency to get reduced to fluoride ions 𝐹−
b. fluorine gas is the strongest reducing agent
c. fluoride ion is the strongest reducing agent
d. fluoride ion is the weakest oxidising agent
10. Which is correct
a. 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 is an extensive parameter but Δ𝑟 𝐺 is an intensive property
b. 𝐸𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙 is an intensive parameter but Δ𝑟 𝐺 is an extensive property
c. Ecell and Δ𝑟 𝐺, both are intensive properties
d. Ecell and Δ𝑟 𝐺, both are extensive properties
11. Which is not correct about conductivity?
a. Conductivity of a material in 𝑆/ 𝑚 is its conductance when it is 1 m long and its area of
cross section is 1 m2.
b. The inverse of resistivity (1/𝜌), called conductivity
c. The inverse of resistance 1/R , called conductivity
d. Conductivity is generally expressed in S/cm
12. The electronic conductance depends on
(i) the nature and structure of the metal
(ii) the number of valence electrons per atom
(iii) temperature
a. Only on (i)
b. Only on (i) and (iii)
c. on (i), (ii), (iii)
d. None of the above
13. The electronic conductance
a. decreases with increase of temperature
b. increases with increase of temperature
c. decreases with decrease of temperature
d. independent of temperature
14. The conductivity of electrolytic (ionic) solutions
a. decreases with increase of temperature
b. increases with increase of temperature
c. Increases with decrease of temperature
d. independent of temperature
15. Cell constant is
a. 𝑅 Κ
b. R/K
c. A/l
d. A X l
16. Molar conductivity ---------------with the decrease in concentration or on dilution
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. first increases then decreases
d. first decreases then increases
17. When concentration approaches zero, the molar conductivity is known
a. final molar conductivity
b. limiting molar conductivity
c. zero molar conductivity
d. unlimited molar conductivity

18. Limiting molar conductivity for weak electrolytes is obtained by using

a. Ostwald dilution law
b. Equilibrium law
c. Kohlrausch law
d. Avogadro Law
19. Molar conductivity is not represented by the formula
a. Κ 𝑉
b. Κ/𝐶
c. Κ×1000/ molarity
d. Κ /𝑉
20. S m2 mol−1 is the SI unit of
a. Resistivity
b. Conductivity
c. Resistance
d. Molar conductivity

21. Electrolytic cell brings about a chemical reaction using

a. electrical energy
b. chemical energy
c. heat energy
d. kinetic energy
22. Faraday's first law is represented mathematically by
a. m= Z ×𝐼×𝑡
b. m= 𝐼×𝑡
c. m= Z ×𝐼
d. m= Z ×𝑡
23. 1 Faraday is the
a. charge on one electron
b. charge on one mole of electrons
c. charge on half mole of electrons
d. charge on two electrons
24. For the electrode reactions: Ag+ (aq)+e−→Ag(s) to deposit 1 mole Ag, how many Faraday is
required
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

25. How much charge is required for the following reductions:1 mol of 𝐶𝑢2+to Cu?
a. 193000 C
b. 96500 C
c. 93000 C
d. 482500 C
26. The chemical equivalent mass of Cu for the reduction of Cu(II) ion to 𝐶𝑢is (atomic mass of Cu is
63.5)
a. 63.5
b. 31.7
c. 51
d. 271
27. Products of electrolysis of aqueous sodium chloride solution are
a. NaOH, Cl2 and H2
b. NaOH, O2 and H2
c. NaOH, Cl2 and O2
d. sodium metal and Cl2 gas
28. In dry cell anode is made up of
a. Zn
b. Cu
c. Graphite
d. Lead
29. The products at anode and cathode when lead storage battery is in use are
 a. At anode Pb, at cathode PbO2
b. At anode PbO2, at cathode Pb
c. At anode PbSO4, at cathode PbSO4
d. At anode H2, at cathode Pb

30. In Hydrogen-oxygen fuel cell, the electrolyte used is

a. concentrated aqueous sodium hydroxide
b. concentrated aqueous barium hydroxide
c. concentrated alcoholic sodium hydroxide
d. diluted aqueous sodium hydroxide
31. Which cell will measure the standard electrode potential of copper electrode
a. Pt (s) | H₂(g,0.1 bar) |H⁺ (aq.,1 M) || Cu²⁺aq.,1M) | Cu
b. Pt(s) | H₂(g, 1 bar) | H⁺ (aq.,1 M) || Cu²⁺(aq.,2 M) | Cu
c. Pt(s)| H₂(g, 1 bar) | H⁺ (aq.,1 M) || Cu²⁺ (aq.,1 M) | Cu
d. Pt(s) | H₂ (g, 1 bar) | H⁺ (aq.,0.1 M) || Cu²⁺ (aq.,1 M) | Cu
32. Which of the following statement is correct
a. ECell and ΔᵣG of cell reaction both are extensive properties.
b. ECell and ΔᵣG of cell reaction both are intensive properties.
c. ECell is an intensive property while ΔᵣG of cell reaction is an extensive property.
d. ECell is an extensive property while ΔᵣG of cell reaction is an intensive property.
33. The difference between the electrode potentials of two electrodes when no current is drawn
through the cell is called
a. Cell potential
b. Cell emf
c. Potential difference
d. Cell voltage

34. Which of the following statement is not correct about an inert electrode in a cell
a. It does not participate in the cell reaction.
b. It provides surface either for oxidation or for reduction reaction
c. It provides surface for conduction of electrons.
d. It provides surface for redox reaction.

35. An electrochemical cell can behave like an electrolytic cell when

a. Ecell = 0
b. Ecell > Eext
c. Eext > Ecell
d. Ecell = Eext

36. Which of the statements about solutions of electrolytes is not correct

a. Conductivity of solution depends upon size of ions.
b. Conductivity depends upon viscosity of solution.
c. Conductivity does not depend upon solvation of ions present in solution.
d. Conductivity of solution increases with temperature.

37. The cell constant of a conductivity cell

a. changes with change of electrolyte.
b. changes with change of concentration of electrolyte.
 c. changes with temperature of electrolyte.
d. remains constant for a cell.

38. The standard reduction potential values of three metallic cations, X, Y, Z are 0.52, –3.03 and –
1.18 V respectively The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is
a. Y > Z > X
b. X > Y > Z
c. Z > Y > X
d. Z > X > Y

39. The function of the salt bridge is to

a. Allow ions to move from anode to cathode
b. Allow solution from one-half cell to the other half- cell
c. Allow the current to flow through the cell and keep the solution electrically neutral
d. Keep the level of solutions same
40. Zinc is used to protect the iron from corrosion because
a. Eoxi of zinc is less than Eoxi of iron
b. Ered of zinc is less than Ered of iron
c. zinc is cheaper than iron
d. zinc is abundantly available
41. The amount of substance deposited by the passage of 1 ampere of current for 1 second is equal
to
a. Equivalent mass
b. Molecular mass
c. electrochemical equivalent
d. specific equivalent
42. An increase in molar conductivity of a strong electrolyte with dilution is mainly due to
a. Increase in number of ions
b. increase in ionic mobility
c. 100% ionisation of electrolyte at normal dilution
d. increase in no. of ions & ionic mobility of ions
43. The Eᵒ value of standard hydrogen electrode is
a. 0.00 V
b. 1.00 V
c. 1.01 V
d. 0.10 V
44. The SI unit of resistivity is
a. Ω m
b. Ω cm
c. Ω⁻ m
d. Ω m⁻

45. In galvanized iron, the iron is coated with a layer of........................metal.

a. Sn
b. Zn
c. Al
d. Mg
46. What is the unit of electrical conductance?
a. Siemens
b. Ω⁻
c. Mho
d. all above

47. 1Faraday=
a. 96487 C mol
b. 96487 C mol⁻
c. 96487 C
d. 96487C⁻ mol⁻

48. Which of the following cells can convert the chemical energy of H₂ and O₂ directly into electrical
energy?
a. Mercury cell
b. Daniell cell
c. Lead storage cell
d. Fuel cell
49. The amount of electricity required to deposit 1 mol of aluminum from a solution of AlCl₃ will be
a. 0.33 Faraday
b. 1 Faraday
c. 3 Faraday
d. 1.33 Faraday
50. The potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 is
a. 0.59 V
b. 0.00 V
c. -0.059 V
d. -0.59 V

51. Assertion : Conductivity of all electrolytes decreases on dilution.

Reason: On dilution number of ions per unit volume decreases.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c. Assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. Assertion is false but the reason is true.

52. Assertion : λₘ for weak electrolytes shows a sharp increase when the electrolytic solution is
diluted. Reason : For weak electrolytes degree of dissociation increases with dilution of solution.
a. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
b. Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
c. Assertion is true but the reason is false.
d. Assertion is false but the reason is true.

53. Which one is not correct about the salt bridge

 a. provide electrical contact between two solutions
b. completes the circuit
c. maintain the electrical neutrality of the solutions
d. make the both half cells charged

Chapter 7 The p-Block Elements

Group 15 Elements
1. The most stable hydride is
a) NH₃
b) PH₃
c) AsH₃
d) SbH₃
2. Group 15 elements are also known
a) Noble elements
b) halogens
c) chalocogens
d) pnictogens
3. The valence shell electronic configuration of group 15 elements is
a) ns²np³
b) ns²np⁴
c) ns²np⁵
d) ns²np⁶
4. There is a considerable increase in covalent radius from N to P. However ,from As to Bi only a
small increase in covalent radius is observed. This is due to
a) Increase in number of shells
b) increase in valence electrons
c) increase in ionisation enthalpy
d) the presence of completely filled d and/or f orbitals
5. The ionisation enthalpy of the group 15 elements is much greater than that of group 14
elements in the corresponding periods. Which is the most suitable reason
a) more effective nuclear charge
b) presence of stable half filled electronic configuration
c) smaller size
d) high electronegativity
6. Among group 15 elements which exists as gas at room temperature
a) Arsenic
b) Bismuth
c) Nitrogen
d) Phosphorous
7. The stability of +5 oxidation state decreases and that of +3 state increases down the group in
group 15 elements due to
a) inert pair effect
b) decrease in ionisation enthalpy
c) increase in size
d) shielding effect
8. Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4 because of
 a) absence of d-orbitals
b) presence of d-orbitals
c) absence of s and p-orbitals
d) none of the above
9. Catenation tendency is weaker in nitrogen, because of
a) single N–N bond is weaker
b) single N–N bond is stronger
c) ability to form pi bonds by N atoms
d) none of the above

10. correct order of the stability of the hydrides of group 15 elements is

a) NH3 > PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
b) NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
c) NH3 = PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
d) PH3 > AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3>NH3
11. Which is not correct order
a) Reducing character:- NH3 < PH3 < AsH3 < SbH3 < BiH3
b) Basic property:- NH3 >> PH3 >> AsH3 > SbH3 > BiH3
c) Boiling point:- BiH3 > SbH3 > NH3 > PH3 > AsH3
d) Melting point:- SbH3 > AsH3 > PH3>NH3
12. The oxide in the higher oxidation state of the element is ---------acidic than that of lower
oxidation state.
a) more
b) less
c) can't predict
d) none of the above
13. Which one is not correct statement
a) Nitrogen does not form pentahalide due to non-availability of the d orbitals in its valence
shell
b) Pentahalides are more covalent than trihalides.
c) In case of nitrogen, only NF3 is known to be stable
d) Trihalides except BiF3 are predominantly ionic in nature
14. Very pure nitrogen can be obtained by the thermal decomposition of
a) sodium or barium azide.
b) ammonium dichromate
c) ammonium chromate
d) sodium or barium nitride
15. On a large scale, ammonia is manufactured by
a) contact process
b) Haber’s process.
c) Decann's process
d) Tower process
16. The ammonia molecule is
a) trigonal pyramidal
b) tetrahedral
c) bent
d) square planner
17. On a large scale nitric acid is prepared mainly by
a) Haber's process
b) Ostwald’s process.
 c) Contact Process
d) Decann's process
18. Brown Ring Test is used to identify the
a) chloride ion
b) nitrite ion
c) nitride ion
d) nitrate ion
19. This is

a) Nitric acid
b) nitrous acid
c) hyponitrous acid
d) none of the above
20. The presence of a lone pair of electrons on the nitrogen atom of the ammonia molecule makes
it
a) Lewis base.
b) Lewis acid.
c) Bronsted base
d) Bronsted acid
21. Assertion:-Nitrogen is restricted to a maximum covalency of 4
Reason:-N exists as a diatomic molecule (N2)with a triple bond
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
22. Assertion:-The stability of hydrides decreases from NH3 to BiH3
Reason:-There is a decrease in bond dissociation enthalpy of bond E-H from NH3 to BiH3 (E=
Element of group 15)
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
23. Assertion:-Ammonia gas is highly soluble in water.
Reason:-Its aqueous solution is weakly acidic
a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for
assertion.
b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for
assertion.
c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
24. Very pure nitrogen can be obtained by
a) thermal decomposition of ammonium dichromate
b) thermal decomposition of sodium or barium azide.
 c) liquefaction and fractional distillation of air
d) treating an aqueous solution of ammonium chloride with sodium nitrite

25. State true or false

a) The oxide in the higher oxidation state of the element is more acidic than that of lower
oxidation state. True

Group 16 Elements
1. Group 16 elements are also known as
a) Noble elements
b) Halogens
c) Pnictogens
d) Chalcogens
2. Which is incorrect statement.
a) Oxygen is the most abundant of all the elements on earth
b) Organic materials such as eggs, proteins, garlic, onion, mustard, hair and woolcontain
sulphur
c) Selenium and tellurium are found as metal selenides and tellurides in sulphide ores
d) Livermorium is a natural radioactive element
3. Which is the correct statement.
a) valence shell electronic configuration of group 16 elements is ns1np4
b) the elements of group 16 have lower ionisation enthalpy values compared to thoseof
Group15 in the corresponding periods
c) Oxygen atom has more negative electron gain enthalpy than sulphur
d) oxygen has the highest electronegativity value amongst the elements
4. Acidic character of hydrides of group 16 elements is in the order
a) H2O < H2S < H2Se < H2Te
b) H2S < H2Se < H2Te<H2O
c) H2O < H2Se < H2Te < H2S
d) H2O < H2S < H2Te < H2Se
5. Boiling point of H2O is higher than H2S due to
a) Hydrogen bonding in H2S
b) Hydrogen binding in H2O
c) High molecular mass of H2S
d) Low molecular mass of H2O
6. Stability of hydrides of group 16 elements
a) increases down the group
b) decreases down the group
c) all hydrides are equally stable
d) none of the above
7. SO2 is ----------and TeO2 is -------- agent
a) reducing, an oxidising
b) an oxidising, reducing
c) reducing, reducing
d) an oxidising, an oxidising
8. Hybridisation of S in SF4 and geometry of SF4 are respectively
a) sp3d, trigonal pyramidal
b) sp3d, see saw
c) sp3, tetrahedral
 d) dsp2, square planner
9. Hybridisation of S in the following compound is
a) sp2
b) sp3
c) sp
d) dsp2

10. Electrolysis of water leads to the release of

a) hydrogen at the cathode and oxygen at the anode
b) hydrogen at the anode and oxygen at the cathode
c) hydrogen and oxygen at the anode
d) hydrogen and oxygen at the cathode
11. which is not the property of dioxygen gas
a) Dioxygen is a colourless and odourless gas.
b) Dioxygen is paramagnetic
c) Dioxygen is diamagnetic
d) dioxygen is soluble in water which support aquatic life
12. Which is not an acidic oxide
a) CO2
b) SO2
c) Na2O
d) Cl2O7
13. Which is not correct regarding ozone
a) powerful oxidising agent
b) thermodynamically unstable with respect to oxygen
c) Ozone is an allotropic form of oxygen
d) Pure ozone is a pale yellow gas
14. For decomposition of ozone
a) ΔH =negative, ΔS = positive, ΔG=negative
b) ΔH =positive, ΔS = positive, ΔG=negative
c) ΔH =negative, ΔS = negative, ΔG=negative
d) ΔH =negative, ΔS = positive, ΔG=positive
15. About H2SO4 which is incorrect
a) Reducing agent
b) Dehydrating agent
c) Sulphonating agent
d) Highly viscous
16. When conc. H2SO4 comes in contact with sugar, it becomes black due to..
a) Hydrolysis
b) Hydration
c) Decolourisation
d) Dehydration
17. Which liberates SO2 with dil H2SO4
a) Na2SO4
b) NaHSO4
c) Na2SO3
d) Na2S
18. Bleaching action of SO2 is due to
a) Reduction
b) Oxidation
 c) Hydrolysis
d) Its acidic nature
19. Oleum is a mixture of
a) H2SO4 +SO2
b) H2SO4 +SO3
c) H2S2O3 +SO3
d) H2S2O3 +SO2
20. Which is not correct about allotropes of sulphur
a) The stable form at room temperature is rhombic sulphur
b) Monoclinic sulphur is stable above 369 K and transforms into rhombic sulphur below it
c) At 369 K both the forms are stable
d) Monoclinic sulphur is soluble in CS2 while rhombic sulphur not

Group 17 Elements
1. Which statement correct about halogens?1 point
a) They are all diatomic and form univalent ions
b) They are all capable of exhibiting several oxidation states
c) They are all diatomic and form diatomic ions
d) They are all reducing agents
2. Fluorine react with water to give :
a) Hydrogen fluoride and oxygen
b) Hydrogen fluoride and ozone
c) Hydrogen fluoride and oxygen fluoride
d) Hydrogen fluoride, oxygen and ozone
3. Astatine is the element below iodine in the group 17 of the periodic table which of the following
statement is not true for astatine?
a) It is less electronegative than iodine
b) It will exhibit only – l oxidation sate
c) Intermolecular forces between the astatine molecule will be large than between iodine
molecule
d) It is radioactive
4. Hypochlorous acid and perchloric acid are, respectively:
a) HOCl and HClO4
b) HOCl and HClO3
c) HClO2 and HClO3
d) HClO2 and HClO4
5. Oxidising action increases from left to right in the order
a) Cl2 < Br2 < I2 < F2
b) Cl2 < I2 < Br2 < F2
c) I2 < F2 < Cl2 < Br2
d) I2 < Br2 < Cl2 < F2
6. Gaseous HCl is a poor conductor of electricity while its aqueous solution is a good conductor
this is because :
 a) H2O is a good conductor of electricity
b) a gas cannot conduct electricity, but a liquid can
c) HCl gas does not obey ohm’s law; whereas the solution does
d) HCl ionizes in aqueous solution
7. Iodine is placed between two liquids C6H6 and water :
(a) It dissolve more in C6H6
(b) It dissolve more in water
(c) It dissolve equally in both
(d) Does not dissolve in both

8. Among the C – X bond (where X = Cl, Br, I) the correct bond enthalpy order is:
(a) C – Cl > C – Br < C– I
(b) C – l > C – Cl > C – Br
(c) C – Br > C – Cl > C – I
(d) C – l > C – Br > C – CI
9. . Which of the following is a solid at room temperature?
(a) Fluorine
(b) Chlorine
(c) Bromine
(d) Iodine
10. Element of Group 17 show the following properties except for
(a) The acidity of HX increases down the group
(b) Thermal stability of HX decreases down the group
(c) Volatility of halogen increases down the group
(d) Boiling point of halogen increases down the group
11. Identify the correct order of acidic strength for H-X
(a) HCl>HBr>HI
(b) HCl>HI>HBr
(c) HI>HCl>HBr
(d) HI>HBr>HCl
12. Which is not correct about halogens
(a) The valence shell electronic configuration of these elements is ns2np5
(b) The halogens have the smallest atomic radii in their respective periods
(c) Atomic and ionic radii increase from fluorine to iodine
(d) Due to increase in atomic size, ionisation enthalpy increases down the group

13. Match the following

a) Yellow bromine
b) Greenish Chlorine
c) Yellow Fluorine
d) Red Iodine
e) violet
14. All halogens exhibit positive oxidation state except
(a) Chlorine
(b) Bromine
(c) Fluorine
(d) Iodine
15. Which is not correct
(a) acidic strength HF < HCl < HBr < HI
(b) stability HF > HCl > HBr > HI
 (c) bond (H–X) dissociation enthalpy H–F > H–Cl > H–Br > H–I
(d) Boiling Point- HF< HCl < HBr < HI
16. order of stability of oxides formed by halogens is
(a) I > Cl > Br.
(b) I > Br > Cl.
(c) I < Cl < Br.
(d) Cl > Br > I
17. In the periodic table of the elements, the phrase “middle row anomaly” refers to
(a) Middle elements of periodic table are transition metals
(b) Middle element of each group is unstable
(c) the relative instability of bromine oxides compared to the other halogen oxides
(d) The higher oxides of halogens tend to be more stable than the lower ones

18. The ionic character of the halides decreases in the order

(a) MF > MCl > MBr > MI where M is a monovalent metal
(b) MCl > MBr > MI>MF where M is a monovalent metal
(c) MF > MBr > MI> MCl where M is a monovalent metal
(d) MF > MCl > MI > MBr where M is a monovalent metal

19. Chlorine water on standing loses its yellow colour due to the formation of
(a) Cl and HOCl
(b) HCl and HOCl
(c) HOCl and HOCl2
(d) HCl and HOCl2
20. State true or false
a) Bleaching effect of chlorine is permanent True
b) Hydrogen chloride is a colourless and pungent smelling gas True
c) Thermal Stability HClO > HClO2 > HClO3 > HClO4 False
d) X–X′ bond in interhalogens is weaker than X–X bond in halogens except F–F bond True

21. Observe the shapes of different interhalogen compounds and predict the hybridisation of
centre atom

a) ClF sp3
b) BrF5 sp3d2
c) ClF3 sp3d
 d) IF7 sp3d3

Group 18 Elements

1. In group 18, He is unique because:

a. it does not have an octet configuration in its ground state
b. it has a higher reactivity than the other noble gases
c. it forms a stable salt containing the [He2]+ ion
d. it has a long liquid range
2. Which structures for XeO3 and XeF4 are consistent with the VSEPR model?
a. XeO3, trigonal pyramidal; XeF4, square planar
b. XeO3, trigonal planar; XeF4, square planar
c. XeO3, trigonal pyramidal; XeF4, tetrahedral
d. XeO3, trigonal planar; XeF4, tetrahedral
3. What are the elements in group 18 (the far right) of the periodic tablecalled?
a. Alkali metals
b. Alkaline earth metals
c. Halogens
d. Noble gases
4. Why is Helium used in divers' tank but not hydrogen gas?
a. Helium is lighter than hydrogen
b. Helium is inert to any chemical reactions
c. Helium is cheaper
d. Helium is easy to get from market
5. The idea that promoted to Bartlett to prepare first ever compound of Noble gases was
a. Low bond dissociation enthalpy of F-F bond in F2
b. High bond enthalpy of Xe-F bond
c. Ionization enthalpies of O2 and Xe are almost same
d. None of the above
6. Out of (i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 and (iii) XeF6 , the molecules having the same number of lone pairs on
Xe are
a. (i) and (ii) only
b. (i) and (iii) only
c. (ii) and (iii) only
d. (i) , (ii) and (iii)
7. Partial hydrolysis of XeF6 yields
(i) XeO3 (ii) XeOF4 (iii) XeO2F2
a) Only (i)
b) (i) and (ii) both
c) (ii) and (iii) both
d) only (ii)
8. When Xe reacts with Fluorine in 1:5 ratio at 873 K it forms
a. XeF2
b. XeF4
 c. XeF6
d. XeOF4
9. Which one has linear shape
a. XeF2
b. XeF4
c. XeF6
d. XeO3
10. Shape of XeF4
a. Tetrahedral
b. Square planar
c. Octahedral
d. linear
11. Which of the outer electronic configuration represent Argon?
a. ns2np4
b. ns2np3
c. ns2np6
d. ns1np6
12. The lowest boiling point of helium is due to its
a. Inertness
b. Gaseous nature
c. Weak van der Waals force between atoms
d. electronic configuration
13. Shape of XeOF4 is
a. Octahedral
b. Square pyramidal
c. Pyramidal
d. T-shaped
14. Which noble gas is used in discharge tubes and fluorescent bulbs for advertisement display
purposes?
a. He
b. Ne
c. Ar
d. Kr
15. Which of the following statement is false?
a. Radon is obtained from the decay of radium
b. Helium is an inert gas
c. Xenon is the most reactive among the rare gases
d. The most abundant rare gas found in the atmosphere is helium
16. Number of unpaired electron in inert gas is
a. Zero
b. 8
c. 4
d. 18
17. The number of lone pairs of electrons present on Xe in XeF2 is
a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 0
18. Complete hydrolysis of XeF6 will give
a. XeO3
 b. XeOF4
c. XeO2F2
d. all above
19. Which of the following is the correct sequence of the noble gases in their group in the periodic
table?
a. Ar, He, Kr, Ne, Rn, Xe
b. He, Ar, Ne, Kr, Xe, Rn
c. He, Ne, Kr, Ar, Xe, Rn
d. He, Ne, Ar, Kr, Xe, Rn
20. Which compound of Xe is explosive solid
a. XeF4
b. XeO3
c. XeOF4
d. XeF2