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BE N BY IAS Previous Year Questions 2023

2023 QUESTIONS
GEOGRAPHY 2. The proportion of irrigated area is more in
India as compared to China.
Q1. Consider the following statements:
3. The average productivity per hectare in
1. Jhelum River passes through Wular lake.
Indian agriculture is higher than that in China.
2. Krishna River directly feeds Kolleru Lake.
How many of the above statements are correct?
3. Meandering of the Gandak River formed
a) Only one
Kanwar Lake.
b) Only two
How many of the Statements given above are correct?
c) All three
a) Only one
d) None
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None Q5. Which one of the following is the best
example of repeated falls in sea level, giving rise to
present-day extensive marshland?
Q2. Consider the following pairs:
a) Bhitarkanika Mangroves
Port : Well known as b) Marakkanam Salt Pans
1. Kamarajar Port : First major port in c) Naupada Swamp
India registered as a company d) Rann of kutch

2. Mundra Port : Largest privately


owned port in India Q6. Ilmenite and rutile, abundantly available in
certain coastal tracts of India, are rich sources of
3. Visakhapatnam Port: Largest container port
which one of the following?
in Port of India
a) Aluminium
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? b) Copper
a) Only one pair c) Iron
d) Titanium
b) Only two pairs
c) All three pairs Q7. About three-fourths of the world's cobalt, a
d) None of the pairs metal required for the manufacture of batteries
for electric motor vehicles, is produced by
a) Argentina
Q3. Consider the following trees:
b) Botswana
1. Jackfruit (Artocarpus heterophyllus)
c) the Democratic Republic of the Congo
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
d) Kazakhstan
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)
How many of the above are deciduous trees? Q8. Which one of the following is a part of the Congo
a) Only one Basin?

b) Only two a) Cameroon

c) All three b) Nigeria


c) South Sudan
d) None
d) Uganda

Q4. Consider the following statements:


1. India has more arable area than China. Q9. Consider the following statements:
1. Amarkantak Hills are at the confluence of
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Vindhya and Sahyadri Ranges. d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is


2. Biligirirangan Hills constitute the easternmost correct
part of Satpura Range.
3. Seshachalam Hills constitute the Q12. Consider the following countries:
southernmost part of Western Ghats. 1. Bulgaria
2. Czech Republic
How many of the Statements given above are correct?
3. Hungary
a) Only one 4. Latvia
b) Only two 5. Lithuania
6. Romania
c) All three How many of the above-mentioned countries share a
d) None land border the Ukraine?
a) Only two
b) Only three
Q10. With reference to India's projects on c) Only four
connectivity, consider the following d) Only five
Statements:
Q13. With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which
1. East-West Corridor under Golden
one of the following statements is correct?
Quadrilateral Project connects Dibrugarh and
a) The total amount of insolation received at the
Surat. equator is roughly about 10 times of that
2. Trilateral Highway connects Moreh in Manipur received at the poles.
and Chiang Mai in Thailand via Myanmar. b) Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of
insolation.
3. Bangladesh - China - India - Myanmar
c) Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water
Economic Corridor connects Varanasi in Uttar
vapour that is concentrated in the lower
Pradesh with Kunming in China. atmosphere.
How many of the above statements are correct? d) Infrared waves are a part of visible spectrum of
electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.
a) Only one
b) Only two Q14. Consider the following statements:
c) All three Statements-I: The soil in tropical rain forests is
rich in nutrients.
d) None
Statements-II: The high temperature and
moisture of tropical rain forests cause dead
Q11. Consider the following statements: organic matter in the soil to decompose
Statement-I: India, despite uranium deposits, quickly.
depends on coal for most of its electricity Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
production. above statements?
Statement-II: Uranium, enriched to the extent of a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
at least 60%, is required for the production of and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
electricity. Statement-I
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
above statements? and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-1
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Q15. Consider the following statements:
incorrect
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Statements-I: The temperature contrast and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
between continents and oceans is greater for Statement-I
during summer than in winter. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Statements-II: The specific heat of water is incorrect.
more than that of land surface.
d) Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
correct.
above statements?
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Environment
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Q19. Consider the following statements:
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Statement-1: Marsupials are not naturally
for Statement-I found in India.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Statement-II: Marsupials can thrive only in
incorrect montane grasslands with no predators.
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
correct
above statements?
Q16. Consider the following statements: a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
than S waves. Statement-I
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and fro in the direction of wave propagation
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up
and down at right angles to the direction of for Statement-1
wave propagation. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? incorrect
a) 1 only d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
b) 2 only correct
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q20. ‘Invasive Species Specialist Group’ (that
Q17. With reference to coal-based thermal power develops Global Invasive Species Database) belongs
plants in India, consider the following statements: to which one of the following organizations?
1. None of them uses seawater. a) The International Union for Conservation of
2. None of them are set up in water-stressed
Nature
districts.
3. None of them is privately owned. b) The United Nations Environment Programme
How many of the above statements are correct? c) The United Nations World Commission for
a) Only one Environment and Development
b) Only two d) The World Wide Fund for Nature
c) All three
d) None
Q21. Consider the following fauna:
Q18. Consider the following statements: 1. Lion-tailed Macaque
Statement I: Switzerland is one of the leading 2. Malabar Civet
exporters of gold in terms of value. 3. Sambar Deer
Statement II: Switzerland has the second largest How many of the above are generally nocturnal or
gold reserves in the world. most active after sunset?
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
a) Only one
above statements?
b) Only two
a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct
c) All three
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
d) None
Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

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Q22. Which of the following organisms perform Q26. Which one of the following makes a tool with a
waggle dance for others of their kin to indicate the stick to scrape insects from a hole in a tree or a log of
direction and the distance to a source of their food? wood?
a) Butterflies a) Fishing cat
b) Dragonflies b) Orangutan
c) Honey Bees c) Otter
d) Wasps d) Sloth bear

Q23. Consider the following statements: Q27. Consider the following:


1. Some mushrooms have medicinal properties. 1. Aerosols
2. Some mushrooms have psycho-active 2. Foam agents
properties. 3. Fire retardants
3. Some mushrooms have insecticidal properties. 4. Lubricants
4. Some mushrooms have bioluminescent In the making of how many of the above are
properties. hydrofluorocarbons used?
How many of the above statements are correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) Only three
c) Only three d) All four
d) All four
Q28. Consider the following statements regarding
mercury pollution:
Q24. Consider the following statements regarding the 1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury
Indian squirrels: pollution in the world.
1. They build nests by making burrows in the 2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause
ground. mercury pollution
2. They store their food materials like nuts and 3. There is no known safe level of exposure to
mercury.
seeds in the ground.
How many of the above statements are correct?
3. They are omnivorous.
a) Only one
How many of the above statements are correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) All three
b) Only two d) None
c) All three
d) None Q29. With reference to green hydrogen, consider the
following statements:
1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal
Q25. Consider the following statements: combustion.
1. Some microorganisms can grow in 2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as
environments with temperature above the fuel for heat or power generation.
boiling point of water. 3. It can be used in the hydrogen fuel cell to run
2. Some microorganisms can grow in vehicles.
environments with temperature below the How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one
freezing point of water.
b) Only two
3. Some microorganisms can grow in a highly c) All three
acidic environment with a pH below 3. d) None
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one Q30. Consider the following activities:
b) Only two 1. Spreading finely ground basalt rock on
farmlands extensively
c) All three
2. Increasing the alkalinity of oceans by adding
d) None
lime

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3. Capturing carbon dioxide released by various d) Neither 1 nor 2


industries and pumping it into abandoned
subterranean mines in the form of carbonated Q33. Consider the following heavy industries:
waters
How many of the above activities are often 1. Fertilizer plants
considered and discussed for carbon capture and 2. Oil refineries
sequestration?
a) Only one 3. Steel Plants
b) Only two Green hydrogen is expected to play a significant role
c) All three
in decarbonizing how many of the above industries?
d) None
a) Only one
Q31. Consider the following statements: b) Only two
Statement-I: According to the United Nations’
c) All three
‘World Water Development Report, 2022’,
India extracts more than quarter of the world’s d) None
groundwater withdrawal each year.
Statement-II: India needs to extract more than
a quarter of the World’s groundwater each
ECONOMY
year to satisfy the drinking water and Q34. Consider the following statements:
sanitation needs of almost 18% of world’s Statement-I: Interest income from the
population living in its territory. deposits in Infrastructure Investment Trusts
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the (InvITs) distributed to their investors is
above statements? exempted from tax, but the dividend is
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct taxable.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-II: InvITs are recognized as
Statement-I borrowers under the ‘Securitization and
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Reconstruction of Financial Assets and
and Statement-II is not the correct Enforcement of Security Interest Act, 2002'.
explanation for Statement-I Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is above statements?
incorrect a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
correct for Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Q32. Consider the following statements: and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
1. In India, the Biodiversity Management for Statement-I
Committees are key to the realization of the c) Statement-I is Correct but Statement-II is
objectives of the Nagoya Protocol. incorrect
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
have important functions in determining correct
access and benefit sharing, including the
power to levy collection fees on the access of
Q35. Consider the following statements:
biological resources within its jurisdiction.
Statement-I: In the post-pandemic recent
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
past, many Central Banks worldwide had
a) 1 only carried out interest rate hikes.
b) 2 only Statement-II: Central Banks generally assume
c) Both 1 and 2 that they have the ability to counteract the

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rising consumer prices via monetary policy 4. Stock Market


means. How many of the above are included in capital
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the markets?
above statements? a) Only one
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct b) Only two
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for c) Only three
Statement-I d) All four
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Q39. Which one of the following best describes the
for Statement-I concept of 'Small Farmer Large Field'?
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is a) Resettlement of a large number of people,
incorrect uprooted from their countries due to war, by
d) Statement-1 is incorrect but Statement-II is giving them a large cultivable land which they
correct cultivate collectively and share the produce.
b) Many marginal farmers in an area organize
Q36. Consider the following statements: themselves into groups and synchronize and
Statement-I: Carbon markets are likely to be harmonize selected agricultural operations.
one of the most widespread tools in the fight c) Many marginal farmers in an area together
against climate change. make a contract with a corporate body are
Statement-II: Carbon markets transfer surrender their land to the corporate body of a
resources from the private sector to the State. fixed term for which the 6.onDorate body
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the makes a payment of agreed amount to the
above statements? farmers.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct d) A company extends loans, technical knowledge
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for and material inputs to a number of small
Statement-I farmers in an area so that they produce the
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct agricultural commodity required by the
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation company for its manufacturing process and
for Statement-I commercial production.
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect Q40. Consider the following statements:
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is 1. The Government of India provides Minimum
correct Support Price for niger (Guizotia abyssinica)
seeds.
Q37. Which one of the following activities of the 2. Niger is cultivated as a Kharif crop.
Reserve Bank of India is considered to be part of 3. Some tribal people in India use niger seed oil
'sterilization'? for cooking.
a) Conducting 'Open Market Operations' How many of the above statements are correct?
b) Oversight of settlement and payment systems a) Only one
c) Debt and cash management for the Central b) Only two
and State Governments c) All three
d) Regulating the functions of Non-banking d) None
Financial Institutions
Q41. Consider the investments in the following
Q38. Consider the following markets: assets:
1. Government Bond Market 1. Brand recognition
2. Call Money Market 2. Inventory
3. Treasury Bill Market 3. Intellectual property

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4. Mailing list of clients Q45. With reference to Central Bank digital


How many of the above intangible investments? currencies, consider the following statements:
a) Only one 1. It is possible to make payments in a digital
currency without using the US dollar or SWIFT
b) Only two
system.
c) Only three 2. A digital currency can be distributed with a
d) All four condition programmed into it such as a time-
frame for spending it.
Q42. Consider the following: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Demographic performance a) 1 only
2. Forest and ecology b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
3. Governance reforms
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. Stable government
5. Tax and fiscal efforts
Q46. In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers
For the horizontal tax devolution, the Fifteenth
to
Finance Commission used how many of the above as
a) the process of simultaneous buying and selling
criteria other than population area and income
of an asset from different platforms
distance?
b) an investment strategy of a portfolio manager
a) Only two
to balance risk versus reward
b) Only three
c) a type of systemic risk that arises where
c) Only four
perfect hedging is not possible
d) All five
d) a numeric value that measures the fluctuations
of a stock to changes in the overall stock
Q43. Consider the following infrastructure sectors:
market
1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
Q47. Consider the following statements:
3. Health rare
1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was
4. Renewable energy
originally initiated by the State Bank of India by
How many of the above does UNOPS Sustainable
providing microcredit to the financially
Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i)
deprived.
initiative focus on its investments?
2. In an SHG, all members of a group take
a) Only one
responsibility for a loan that an individual
b) Only two
member takes.
c) Only three
3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled
d) All four
Commercial Banks support SHGs.
How many of the above statements are correct
Q44. Consider the following statements with
a) Only one
reference to India:
1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium b) Only two
Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, c) All three
the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with d) None
investments in plant and machinery between
Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crores. Q48. Consider the following statements:
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small and Medium Statement-I: India’s public sector health care
Enterprises qualify under the priority sector. system largely focuses on curative care with
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative
a) 1 only care.
b) 2 only Statement-II: Under India’s decentralized
c) Both 1 and 2 approach to health care delivery, the States are
d) Neither 1 nor 2 primarily responsible for organizing health

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services. Statement-II: In India, prisons are governed by


Which one of the following is correct in respect of the the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the
above statements? subject of prisons in the control of Provincial
Governments.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for above statements?
Statement-I a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation Statement-I
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
for Statement-I
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is for Statement-I
incorrect c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct
correct

Q49. Consider the following statement: Q52. Which one of the following statements best
Statement-I: India accounts for 3.2% of global reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a
export of goods. country?
Statement-II: Many local companies and some a) It determines the objective for the making of
foreign companies operating in India have taken necessary laws.
advantage of India’s ‘Production-linked b) It enables the creation of political offices and a
government.
Incentive’ scheme.
c) It defines and limits the powers of
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the government.
above statements? d) It secures social justice, social equality and
a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct social security.
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Statement-I Q53. In India, which one of the following
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to
be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
the Fundamental Rights?
for Statement-I
a) Ist Amendment
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is b) 42nd Amendment
incorrect. c) 44th Amendment
d) Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is d) 86th Amendment
correct.
Q54. Consider the following organization/bodies in
India:
POLITY 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
2. The National Human Rights Commission
Q50. In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law'
3. The National Law Commission
mean?
4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal
a) The principle of natural Justice
Commission
b) The procedure established by law
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
c) Fair application of law
a) Only one
d) Equality before law
b) Only two
c) Only three
Q51. Consider the following statements: d) All four
Statement-I: In India, prisons are managed by
State Governments with their own rules and Q55. Consider the following statements:
regulations for the day-to-day administration 1. If the election of the President of India is
of prisons. declared void by the Supreme Court of India,
all acts done by him/her in the performance of

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duties of his/her office of President before the 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as
date of decision become invalid. Scheduled Area takes place through an Order
2. Elections for the post of the President of India of the President.
can be postponed on the ground that some 2. The largest administrative unit forming the
legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is
elections are yet to take place. the cluster of villages in the Block.
3. When a Bill is presented to the President of 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States
India, the Constitution prescribes time limits are required to submit annual reports to the
within which he/she has to declare his/her Union Home Ministry on the administration of
assent. Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct? How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one a) Only one
b) Only two b) Only two
c) All three c) All three
d) None d) None

Q56. With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in Q59. Consider the following statements:
the Indian Parliament, consider the following Statement-I: The Supreme Court of India has
statements: held in some judgments that the reservation
1. When the Lok Sabha transmits the Finance Bill policies made under Article 16(4) of the
to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Constitution of India would be limited by
Bill. Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of
2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to administration.
the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Statement-II: Article 335 of the Constitution of
Bill, it can only make recommendations. India defines the term 'efficiency of
3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok administration'.
Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting above statements?
becomes necessary for the Finance Bill. a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
How many of the above statements are correct? and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
a) Only one Statement-I
b) Only two b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
c) All three and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
d) None for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
Q57. Consider the following statements:
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
Once the Central Government notifies an area as a
correct
'Community Reserve'
1. The Chief Wildlife Warden of the State
becomes the governing authority of such Q60. Consider the following statements:
forest. 1. According to the Constitution of India, the
2. Hunting is not allowed in such area.
Central Government has a duty to protect
3. People of such area are allowed to collect non-
States from internal disturbances.
timber forest produce
4. People of such area are allowed traditional 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States
agricultural practices from providing legal counsel to a person being
How many of the above statements are correct? held for preventive detention.
a) Only one
3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act,
b) Only two
c) Only three 2002, confession of the accused before the
d) All four police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
Q58. With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India,
consider the following statements: a) Only one
b) Only two

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c) All three Q63. Consider the following statements in respect of


d) None the Constitution Day:
Statement-I: The Constitution Day is
celebrated on 26th November every year to
Q61. Consider the following statements in respect of promote constitutional values among citizens.
election to the President of India:
Statement-II: On 26th November, 1949, the
1. The members nominated to either House of constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting
the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R.
States are also eligible to be included in the Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of
Electoral College. India.
2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that above statements?
State.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Pradesh greater than that of Kerala Statement-I
4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
the ratio of total population to total number of for Statement-I
elective seats in Puducherry is greater as
compared to Arunachal Pradesh. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect
How many of the above statements are correct?
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
a) Only one correct
b) Only two
c) Only three Q64. With reference to India, consider the following
d) All four pairs:

Q62. Consider the following statements in respect of Action The Act under which it is
the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code covered
of India, 2002:
Statement-I: One of the standard sizes of the 1 Unauthorized The Official Secrets Act,
National Flag of India is 600 mm * 400 mm. wearing of police or 1923
Statement-II: The ratio of the length to the military uniforms
height (width) of the Flag shall be 3:2.
2. Knowingly The Indian Evidence Act,
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
misleading or 1872
above statements?
otherwise
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct interfering with a
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for police officer or
Statement-I military officer
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct when engaged in
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation their duties
for Statement-I
3. Celebratory gunfire The Arms (Amendment)
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
which can endanger Act, 2019
incorrect
the personal safety
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is of others
correct
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

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a) Only one 3. Kakatiya


b) Only two 4. Yadava
How many of the above dynasties established their
c) All three
kingdoms in the early eighth century AD?
d) None a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
HISTORY
d) None
Q65. In which one of the following regions was
Dhanyakataka, which flourished as a prominent
Q70. With reference to ancient Indian History,
Buddhist centre under the Mahasanghikas, located?
consider the following parts:
a) Andhra
Literary work Author
b) Gandhara
1. Devichandraguptam : Bilhana
c) Kalinga
2. Hammira-Mahakavya : Nayachandra
d) Magadha
Suri
3. Milinda-panha : Nagarjuna
Q66. With reference to ancient India, consider the 4. Nitivakyamrita : Somadeva Suri
following statements: How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. The concept of Stupa is Buddhist in origin. a) Only one
2. Stupa was generally a repository of relics. b) Only two
3. Stupa was a votive and commemorative c) Only three
structure in Buddhist tradition. d) All four
How many of the statements given above are correct?
a) Only one
Q71. "Souls are not only the property of animal and
b) Only two
plant life, but also of rocks, running water and many
c) All three
other natural objects not looked on as living by other
d) None
religious cects."
The above statement reflects one of the core beliefs of
Q67. With reference to ancient South India, Korkai, which one of the following religious sects of ancient
Poompuhar and Muchiri were well known as India?
a) Capital cities a) Buddhism
b) Ports b) Jainism
c) Centres of iron-and-steel making c) Shaivism
d) Shrines of Jain Tirthankaras d) Vaishnavism

Q68. Which one of the following explains the practice Q72. Who among the following rulers of Vijayanagara
of 'Vattakirutal' as mentioned in Sangam poems? Empire constructed a large dam across Tungabhadra
a) Kings employing women bodyguards River and a canal-cum-aqueduct several kilometres
b) Learned persons assembling in royal courts to long from the river to the capital city?
discuss religious and philosophical matters a) Devaraya I
c) Young girls keeping watch over agricultural b) Mallikarjuna
fields and driving away birds and animals c) Vira Vijaya
d) A king defeated in a battle committing ritual d) Virupaksha
suicide by starving himself to death

Q73. Who among the following rulers of medieval


Q69. Consider the following dynasties: Gujarat surrendered Diu to Portuguese?
1. Hoysala a) Ahmad Shah
2. Gahadavala b) Mahmud Begarha
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c) Bahadur Shah incorrect


d) Muhammad Shah d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct
Q74. By which one of the following Acts was the
Governor General of bengal designated as the
SCIENCE
Governor General of India?
a) The Regulating Act Q78. Consider the following statements:
b) The Pitt's India Act 1. Carbon fibres are used in the manufacture of
c) The Charter Act of 1793 components used in automobiles and aircrafts.
d) The Charter Act of 1833 2. Carbon fibres once used cannot be recycled.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
Q75. With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea,
b) 2 only
A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and
Walter Elliot were associated with c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
a) archaeological excavations
b) establishment of English Press in Colonial Q79. Consider the following action:
India]
1. Detection of car crash/collision which results in
c) establishment of Churches in Princely States the deployment of airbags almost
d) construction of railways in Colonial India instantaneously.
2. Detection of accidental free fall of a laptop
towards the ground which results in the
Q76. Consider the following pairs:
immediate turning off the hard drive.
State Well known for
3. Detection of the tilt of the smart-phone which
1. Besnagar : Shaivite cave shrine results in the rotation of display between
2. Bhaja : Buddhist cave shrine portrait and landscape mode.
3. Sittanavasal : Jain cave shrine How many of the above actions is the function of the
accelerometer required?
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
a) Only one
a. Only one
b) Only two
b. Only two c) All three
c. All three d) None
d. None
Q80. Which reference to the role of biofilter in
Recirculating Aquaculture System, consider the
Q77. Consider the following statements:
following statement
Statement-I: 7th August is declared as the 1. Biofilters provide waste treatment by
National Handloom Day. removing uneaten fish feed.
Statement-II: It was in 1905 that the Swadeshi 2. Biofilters convert ammonia present in fish
Movement was launched on the same day. waste in nitrate.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the 3. Biofilters increase phosphorus as a nutrient for
above statements? fish in water.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct How many of the statements given above are correct?
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for a) Only one
Statement-I b) Only two
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct c) All three
and Statement-II is not the correct explanation d) None
for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is Q81. Consider the following pairs:
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Object in space Description c) Using air-borne devices to collect blood


1. Cepheids-Giant clouds of dust and gas in space samples from moving animals
2. Nebulae-Stars which brighten and dim d) Sending drones to inaccessible areas to collect
periodically plant and animal samples from land surfaces
3. Pulsars- Neutron stars that, are formed when and water bodies
massive stars run out of fuel and collaspe
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? Q86. ‘Microsatellite DNA’ is used in the case of which
a) Only one one of the following?
b) Only two a) Studying the evolutionary relationships among
c) All three various species of fauna
b) Stimulating ‘stem cells’ to transform into
d) None
diverse functional tissues
c) Promoting clonal propagation of horticultural
Q82. Which one of the following countries has its own plants
Satellite Navigation System? d) Assessing the efficacy of drugs by conducting
a. Australia series of drug trials in a population
b. Canada
c. Israel MISCELLANEOUS
d. Japan Q87. Which one of the following countries has been
suffering from decades of civil strife and food
Q83. Consider the following statements: shortages and was in news in the recent past for its
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic very severe famine?
speeds throughout their flights, while cruise a) Angola
missiles are rocket-powred only in the initial b) Costa Rice
phase of flight. c) Ecuador
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise
d) Somalia
missile, while BrahmMos is a solid-fuelled
intercontinental ballistic missile.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Q88. Consider the following statements:
a) 1 only Statement-I: Recently, the United States of
b) 2 only America (USA) and the European Union (EU)
c) Both 1 and 2 have launched the Trade and technology
d) Neither 1 nor 2 council.
Statement-II: The USA and the EU claim that
Q84. 'Wolbachia method’ is sometimes talked about through this they are trying to bring
technological progress and physical
with reference to which one of the following?
productivity under their control.
a) Controlling the viral diseases spread by
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
mosquitoes
above statements?
b) Converting crop residues into packing material
c) Producing biodegradable plastics a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
d) Producing biochar from thermo-chemical
Statement-I
conversion of biomass
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
Q85. ‘Aerial metagenomics’ best refers to which one and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
for Statement-I
of the following situations?
a) Collecting DNA samples from air in a habitat at c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
one go
b) Understanding the genetic makeup of avian d) Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is
species of a habitat correct.

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Q89. Consider the following statements: b) Only two


The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union c) All three
is a treaty that d) None
1. Limits the levels of budgetary deficit of the
countries of the European Union.
Q92. Consider the following pairs:
2. Makes the countries of the European Union
share their infrastructure facilities. Regions often Reason for being in
3. Enables the countries of the European Union mentioned in news news
to share their technologies.
How many of the above statements are correct? 1 North Kivu and Ituri War between Armenia
and Azerbaijan
a) Only one
b) Only two 2. Nagorno-Karabakh Insurgency in
c) All three Mozambique

d) None
3. Kherson and Dispute between Israel
aporizhzhia and Lebanon
Q90. Consider the following statements:
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. Recently, all the countries of the United
Nations have adopted the first-ever compact a) Only one
for international migration, the ‘Global b) Only two
Compact for Safe, Orderly and Regular c) All three
Migration (GCM)’.
d) None
2. The objectives and commitments stated in the
GCM are binding on the UN member countries.
3. The GCM addresses internal migration or Q93. Consider the following statements:
internally displaced people also in its Statement-I: Israel has established diplomatic
objectives and commitments. relations with some Arab States.
How many of the above statements are correct? Statement-II: The ‘Arab Peach Initiative’
a) Only one mediated by Saudi Arabia was signed by Israel
and Arab League.
b) Only two
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the
c) All three above statements?
d) None a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are correct
and Statement-II is the correct explanation for
Q91. With reference to Home Guards, consider the Statement-I
following statements: b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
1. Home Guards are raised under the Home and Statement-II is not the correct explanation
Guards Act and Rules of the Central for Statement-I
Government. c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
2. The role of the Home Guards is tow serve as an incorrect.
auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of d) Statement-I- is incorrect but Statement-II is
the internal security correct.
3. To present infiltration on the international
border/coastal areas, the Border Wings Home Q94. Consider the following pairs with regard to
Guards Battalions have been raised in some sports awards.
States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
a) Only one

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1. Major Dhyan For the most spectacular and 3. Tigray North Yemen
Chand Khel outstanding performance by
Ratna Award a sportsperson over period How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
of last four years a) Only one
b) Only two
2 Arjuna Award For the lifetime achievement
by a sportsperson c) All three
d) None

3. Dronocharya To honor eminent coaches


Award who have successfully Q97. In the recent years Chad, Guinea, Mali and Sudan
trained sportsperson or caught the international attention for which one of
teams the following reason common to all the them?
a) Discovery of rich deposits of rare earth
4. Rashtriya Khel To recognize the elements
Protsahan contribution made by
Puraskar sportspersons even after b) Establishment of Chinese military bases
their retirement c) Southward expansion of Sahara Desert

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched? d) Successful coups

a) Only one
b) Only two Q98. Consider the following statements about G-20:

c) All three 1. The G-20 group was originally established as a


platform for the Finance Ministers and Central
d) All four Bank Governors to discuss international
economic and financial issues.
Q95. Consider the following statements in respect of 2. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-
the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022 20 priorities.
1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
was held in India. a) 1 only
2. The official mascot was named ‘Thambi’. b) 2 only
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open c) Both 1 and 2
section is the Vera Menchik Cukp.
d) Neither 1 nor 2
4. The trophy for the winning team in the
women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.
How many of the statements given above are correct? Q.99 Consider the following statements in the context
of intervention being undertaken under Anaemia
a) Only one Mukt Bharat Strategy:
b) Only two 1. It provides prophylactic calcium
c) Only three supplementation for pre-school children,
adolescents and pregnant women.
d) All four
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping
at the time of child birth.
Q96. Consider the following pairs:
3. It provides for periodic deworming to children
Area of conflict mentioned Country where it is and adolescents.
in news located 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia
in endemic pockets with special focus on
1 Donbas Syria malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.
How many of the statements given above are correct?
2. Kachin Ethiopia
a) Only one
b) Only two
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c) Only Three 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among


d) All four poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health
facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.
Q100. Consider the following statements in relation
to Janani Suraksha Yojana: How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the a) Only one


State Health Departments. b) Only two
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and c) All three
neonatal mortality among poor pregnant d) None
women.

******

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