Cor Ad - Whole Area (100 questions)

1. What satellite of NDP does RDC is situated?

a. Camp bukang-liwayway
b. Camp sampaguita
c. Main building
d. Medium security compound
2. It is defined as professional activity of helping individuals groups or communities in
hands or restore their capacity for psychological emotional and social functioning and
creating an environment favorable for the attainment of these goals
a. Counseling
b. Expulsion
c. Empathy
d. Warmth
3. In the new bilibid prison, all medium security prisoners are confined at?
a. NBP main prison
b. Camp bukang-liwayway
c. Camp sampaguita
d. Medium security prison
4. The maintenance or carry protection according to people who by authority of law are
temporarily incarcerated for violation of laws and also those who were sentence by the
court to serve judgment is called?
a. Custody
b. Safekeeping
c. Classification
d. Caring
5. A probationer is allowed to do the following except?
a. Stay away from bad associates
b. Work regularly to support his family
c. Make periodic office report
d. Go and play in a gambling den
6. Is the separation of different types of inmates for their sound execution of treatment
programs and custody?
a. Security classification
b. Classification
c. Isolation
d. Diversification
7. It is the strict and thorough implementation of searches including frisking on the inmates
and visitors while inside jail facilities to prevent entry of contrabands and confiscate
hidden contrabands.
a. Jail inspection
b. Oplan Slapshock
c. Oplan Greyhound
d. Censorship
8. An Act establishing the “Bureau of Fire and Protection and Bureau of Jail Management
and Penology Professionalization Act of 2004”.
a. R. A. 9262
b. R. A. 9263
c. R. A. 9346
d. R. A. 9243
9. It is a component of therapeutic community modality program that introduces the
concept and mechanics of the various shaping tools including morning meetings in order
to facilitate the management of and shape the behavior of the residents.
a. Therapeutic community
b. Behavior management
c. Morning meeting
d. Pre-morning meeting
10. These are sanctions to members who commits repeatedly in fractions or violations to the
cardinal rules by prohibiting disallowing or limiting activity or affiliation to a group.
a. Buns
b. Vans
c. Bans
d. Vain
11. Which of the following are the major goals of correction?
a. Punishment, confinement, retribution, treatment
b. Retribution, deterrence, incapacitation, rehabilitation
c. Deterrence, punishment, incapacitation, treatment
d. Deterrence, retribution, punishment, treatment
12. What organizational principle should be adopted since no one person can exercise all
the authority in making decisions?
a. Delegation of authority
b. Span of control
c. Unity of command
d. Line and staff work
13. A judicial action for legal disposition that allows the offender to remain in the community
subject to conditions imposed by the court?
a. Reprieve
b. Probation
c. Commutation
d. Parole
14. What theory provides that criminal behavior is learned through interaction with other
persons in the process of communication?
a. Strain theory
b. Psychoanalytical theory
c. Differential association theory
d. Social disorganization theory
15. Which of the following is an open correctional institution known to be the best and prison
without walls?
 a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
16. Which is called the finest penal farm in the world?
a. Davao penal farm
b. Sablayan penal colony
c. San Ramon prison and penal farm
d. Iwahig penal colony
17. Pedro was sentenced to serve a maximum term of imprisonment of not more than six
years. He applied for probation but his application will not be considered if:
i. He was previously granted parole
ii. He was previously convicted by final judgment of an offense punished by
imprisonment of not less that one month and one day and/or a fine of not
less than 200 pesos
iii. He was previously granted probation
iv. He was convicted of subversion or any crimes against national security or
public order
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 3, 4 and 1
e. Any of those listed
18. When does punishment have a deterrent effect?
a. Punishment reduces the capacity of an individual to commit a crime
b. Punishment serves as an example to the public thus discouraging the
commission of an offense
c. Punishment is serious compared with the nature of offense
d. Punishment disgraces the offender before the public.
19. Where Rene Boy shall be confined if his sentence is 6 months or less?
a. National prison
b. Municipal jail
c. City jail
d. Provincial jail
20. Crimes with no private offended party?
a. Complex crime
b. Status offense
c. Simple crime
d. Victimless crime
21. A married prisoner is visited by his wife and they were granted the time for their marital
sexual obligation. What do you call this affair?
a. Sexual relation
b. Conjugal partnership
c. Conjugal privilege
d. Conjugal visit
22. What institution conducts the training program for uniformed personnel of the BJMP?
a. Fire Training Center
b. Philippine National Jail Academy
c. PNP Training Center
d. Jail Management Training Institute
23. Robin Padilla was convicted and ready to serve his sentence inside the prison. Why was
he photographed at the Reception and Diagnostic Center?
a. He is a actor and photogenic
b. It is rare opportunity to have his photograph
c. To have a souvenir photo of the actor
d. Photographing the inmate is part of the reception procedure
24. A penalty having its minimum and maximum duration is referred to as
a. Determinate sentence
b. Capital punishment
c. Corporal punishment
d. Indeterminate sentence
25. Which of the following executive clemency needs the concurrence of the congress?
a. Pardon
b. Amnesty
c. Probation
d. Parole
26. An act establishing the Probation System of the Philippines and their purposes.
a. PD No. 247
b. R.A. No. 4103
c. PD No. 968
d. R.A. No. 2035
27. It has the burden responsibility of carrying out the administration of justice; in fact, it also
serves as the catalyst of the complete revolution of the criminal justice system.
a. Law enforcement pillar
b. Community pillar
c. Court pillar
d. Correction pillar
28. It is believe that crime problem exist in this area?
a. Law enforcement
b. Community
c. Court
d. Correction
29. This code prescribed savage punishment on crimes against person, property and
decency on the early Babylonians.
a. Code of King Paraon
b. Code of King Zeus
c. Code of King Hammurabi
d. None of them
30. This is a rare method of correction prescribed by a code at about 500 A.D. where
punishment is imposed in accordance with the social status of the offender.
a. Benefit of clergy
b. Burgundian code
c. Twelve tables of wood
d. Holy inquisition
31. Penitential principles of John Howard were first adopted by…
a. Singsing Prison
b. Norfolk Island Prison
c. Elmira Reformatory
d. Walnut Street Jail
32. Presidential Decree 603 is also known as what?
a. Death Penalty Law
b. Child Trafficking Law
c. Child and Youth Welfare Code
d. Violence against women and their children
33. Republic Act 8369 is also known as what ?
a. Child and Youth Welfare Code
b. Child Trafficking Law
c. Family Courts Act
d. Death Penalty Law
34. A convicted defendant who files an application for Probation is known as?
a. Complainant
b. Defendant
c. Petitioner
d. Client
35. This refers to commutation of sentence granted by the President of the Philippines upon the
recommendation of the Board of Pardons and Parole.
a. Executive Clemency
b. Reprimand
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Pardon
36. Who may apply for executive clemency?
a. A prisoner not eligible for parole
b. A prisoner not eligible for probation
c. Upon grant with his Parole
d. Upon acquittal of case
37. This is a conditional release from prison of a prisoner who has served part of his sentence, allowing the
prisoner to complete his term of punishment outside the prison if he satisfactorily complies with the terms
of the parole.
a. Parole
b. Pardon
c. Probation
d. Reprieve
38. After the conviction and sentence, the judge will serve the sentence to the prisoner. The
document to serve the sentence is called?
a. Carpeta
b. Mittimus
c. Prison record
d. Information
39. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006 is known as
 a. RA 9344
b. RA 4439
c. RA 4433
d. RA 4349
40. You can apply for probation if you are?
a. Recidivist
b. Already convicted
c. on trial
d. Under investigation
41. This helps the prisoner/detainee in the resolution of his problems
a. Meeting
b. Working
c. Recreation
d. Counseling
42. Takes charge of financial matters especially in programming, budgeting, accounting,
and other activities related to financial services. It consolidates and prepares financial
reports and related statements of subsistence outlays and disbursements in the
operational of the jail.
a. Budget and finance branch
b. General services branch
c. Property and supply branch
d. Mess services branch
43. This will enhance the fenders self esteem; example: Barangay Quiapo giving testimony
to the youth.
a. Helping the disadvantage
b. Citizenship and civic participation
c. Community work service
d. Economic development
44. Under regular circumstances, the resident is expected at this stage to have internalized
the therapeutic community values and concepts to start life fresh.
a. Phase I-ENTRY / ORIENTATION PHASE
b. PHASE II-PRIMARY TREATMENT
c. PHASE III-PRE-RE-ENTRY
d. PHASE IV-RE-ENTRY
45. The institution for dangerous but not incredible prisoners in the Philippines is the
a. NBP
b. Medium security institution
c. Maximum security institution
d. Minimum security institution
46. To link directly with a business project; examples: cleaning downtown area, tree
planting, maintenance of business zones, housing restoration, garbage and waste
management, cleaning esteros, recycling, construction, repair of streets and the like.
a. Monitoring and intergenerational service
b. Economic development
 c. Counseling
d. Citizenship and civic participation
47. The head of the BuCor is the
a. Director
b. Secretary of the dnd
c. Chief of executive
d. Prison inspector
48. It is a process upon which the offender accepts accountability for the financial and/or
non financial losses he/she may have caused to the victim.
a. Suspect
b. Conferencing
c. Circle of support
d. Restitution
49. Tanggol Dimagiba was placed where in the public will be protected if he is being held in
the conditions where he cannot harm others. He was punished by placing offender in the
prison so that society will be insured from further criminal depredations. This is called as:
a. Deterrence
b. Incapacitation and protection
c. Retribution
d. Atonement
50. The ideal ratio or escort____prison guard for every____number of inmates.
a. 1:2
b. 1:4
c. 1:12
d. 1:7
51. Maritess Dimagiba is an indigent. She is an accused which is released from
imprisonment on her promise to return to court as required for a pond undertaking of a
suitable person that she will guarantee the accused appearance in court. This is known
as?
a. Promise
b. Acknowledgement
c. Surety
d. Recognizance
52. What is the effect of pardon exercise by the president?
a. a. Extinguished both criminal and civil liability
b. b. Extinguished criminal liability
c. c. Does not extinguish the criminal liability
d. d. Does not no extinguish both criminal and civil liability
53. If the penalty is fine only, what is the maximum subsidiary penalty if the culprit is
prosecuted for less grave felony?
a. Not more than 30 days
b. Not more than 3 months
c. Not more than 60 days
d. Not more than 6 months
54. How many days are deducted from the term of imprisonment if the prisoner served from
5 years to 10 years.
a. 5 days per month
b. 10 days per month
c. 15 days per month
d. 8 days per month
55. The father of probation law in United States.
a. John Agustus
b. Teodulo Natividad
c. Mathew Davenford Hill
d. Peter Oxenberd
56. Is auto matically applied to reduce the sentence but may be taken away from the
prisoner if he fails to obey the rules and regulations of the prison.
a. Special time allowance
b. Good conduct time allowance
c. Good behavior for loyalty
d. Special loyalty for allowance
57. Rigor was convicted by final judgement at the age of 68 years old, and sentence to 10
years minimum to 20 years maximum of imprisonment. How do you classify the security
classification of Rigor as a prisoner?
a. Super Maximum Security
b. Maximum Security
c. Medium Security
d. Minimum Security
58. Are those who cannot be trusted to open conditions and pose less danger to society in
the event of their escape.
a. Super Maximum Security
b. Maximum Security
c. Medium Security
d. Minimum Security
59. Are those incorrigibles and dangerous prisoners who are difficult to manage.
a. Super Maximum Security
b. Maximum Security
c. Medium Security
d. Minimum Security
60. Is an administrative device of correctional institutions of providing varied and flexible
types of physical plants for more effective control of the treatment programs of its
diversified population. It is the separation of different types of inmates for sound
execution of their treatment and custody.
a. Classification
b. Security
c. Diversification
d. Diversification
61. The prescriptive period of penalty if the penalty is reclusion perpetua.
 a. 20 years
b. 15 years
c. 10 years
d. 5 years
62. Cardo was convicted and sentence to 12 years of imprisonment as maximum. After six
years of imprisonment, he evaded his sentence during the strong typhoon and surrender
after 24 hours following the issuance of a proclamation announcing the passing away of
the typhoon. Which of the following statement is correct?
a. He is entitled to S.T. Allowance of 1/5 of the unexpired portion of his sentence
which 1 year and two months.
b. He is entitled to S.T. Allowance of 1/5 of the entire portion of his sentence
which 2 years and four months.
c. He is not entitled to S.T. Allowance of 1/5 because he surrendered only after 24
hours and the law provides that it should be made within 24 hours.
d. Answer is not given.
63. The allowance for loyalty or good conduct is not enforceable if the prisoner is serving his
sentence in community based treatment.
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Neither
64. Effects of violation of parole.
a. The parolee shall be liable for additional penalty imposed under ISLAW.
b. The prisoner shall serve the remaining unexpired portion of the maximum
sentence for which he was originally committed to prison.
c. The prisoner is arrested and prosecuted for violation of parole law.
d. All of the foregoing
65. Is a security facility usually operated by the police department for temporary detention of
persons held for investigation or awaiting for trial.
a. Jail
b. Lock-up
c. Prison
d. diversification
66. The period of quarantine for each prisoner.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 5 days
d. 45 days
67. The period which prisoner may remain in RDC.
a. 30 days
b. 60 days
c. 15 days
d. 45 days
68. Is the imposition of both penalties imprisonment and fine?
 a. Criminal and Civil liability
b. Split sentence
c. Quasi penalties
d. Subsidiary penalty
69. Refers to government-sponsored assistance programs for individuals and families in
need, including programs as health care assistance, food stamps, and unemployment
compensation.
a. Reward
b. Award
c. Welfare
d. Privilege
70. This approach focuses on changing problematic behaviors, feelings, and thoughts by
discovering their unconscious meanings and motivations.
a. Behavior therapy
b. Psychodynamic therapy
c. Cognitive behavioral therapy
d. Humanistic therapy
71. A mental health approach that emphasizes the importance of being your true self in
order to lead the most fulfilling life. It's based on the principle that everyone has their
own unique way of looking at the world. This view can impact your choices and actions.
a. Behavior therapy
b. Psychodynamic therapy
c. Cognitive behavioral therapy
d. Humanistic therapy
72. Also known as integrative therapy
a. Behavior therapy
b. Holistic Therapy
c. Cognitive behavioral therapy
d. Humanistic therapy
73. Physical and mental wellness bring clarity and purpose to many inmates during their
sentence. Depending on the offerings in an individual facility, an inmate may be able to
participate in programs like yoga, tai chi, or meditation. Practicing these kinds of mental
and physical exercises are proven to provide long term benefits including stress/anger
management among others.
a. Counseling rehabilitation for inmates
b. Wellness rehabilitation for inmates
c. Community rehabilitation for inmates
d. Employment rehabilitation for inmates
74. The following are the effects of restorative justice as a rehabilitation program
a. Reintegration of the offenders to the social mainstream and encouraging them to
assume active responsibility for the injuries inflicted to the victims;
b. Proactive involvement of the community to support and assist in the rehabilitation
of victims and offenders;
 c. Attention to the needs of the victims, survivors and other persons affected by the
crime as participating stakeholders in the criminal justice system, rather than
d. None of the above
75. The probationer must present himself to his Probation Officer within _______ from the
receipt of the said order
a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 72 hours
76. The probationer must eport to his Probation Officer in-charge of his supervision at least
a. once a month at such time and place as specified by said officer.
b. once a year at such time and place as specified by said officer.
c. once a month at no such time and place as specified by the court
d. once a year at no such time and place as specified by the court
77. How long is the probation period if the probationer was sentence to imprisonment of
one (1) year or less
a. Not less than 2 years
b. Not more than 2 years
c. Not less than six years
d. Not more than six years
78. How many days does the defendant must file before the trial court an application for
probation after he has been sentenced but before he begins to serve the sentence.
a. Five days
b. 15 days
c. 20 days
d. 30 days
79. The Parole and Probation Administration is _____ agency of the Department of Justice
which provides a less costly alternative to imprisonment of the offenders who are likely
to respond to individualized community based treatment programs.
a. Under
b. An Attached
c. A separated
d. All of the above
80. The following are the objectives of parole, which is not?
a. To protect the society through controlled programs of supervision of
offenders
b. To uplift and redeem valuable human resources material to economic
usefulness;
c. To prevent unnecessary and excessive deprivation of personal liberty
d. All of these
81. What is the minimum age qualified for probation under PD 968?
a. 16 years old
b. 18 years old
c. 21 years old
 d. 25 years old
82. Probation may not be granted in cases of violation of the following special laws, except:
a. Offenders found guilty of any election offenses in accordance with Section 264 of
Batas Pambansang Bilang 881(Omnibus Election Code)
b. Offenders found guilty of violating RA No. 6727 (Wage RATIONALIZATION
Actas amended;
c. Offenders found guilty violating RA No. 9165, The Comprehensive Dangerous
Drugs of 2002, except section 12, 14, 17 and 70.
d. None of the above
83. When safety compromised; if there is a clear and convincing evidence that the release of
parole will endanger his own life or those of his/her relatives or of the victim his/her
relatives, witnesses and the community on the basis of pre-parole investigation, the
release shall _______
a. Continue because of one's rights
b. Deferred until the danger ceases
c. Revoked
d. Suspended
84. Who grants parole?
a. Court
b. PPA
c. BPP
d. President
85. Following are the purpose of commutation of sentence except:
a. To break the rigidity of law.
b. To extend parole in cases where the parole law does not apply.
c. To save the life of a person sentenced to death.
d. None of these
86. Is either a visual search or a manual internal inspection of body cavities for prohibited
materials (contraband), such as illegal drugs, money, jewelry, or weapons.
i. Strip search
ii. Body cavity search
iii. Frisking
iv. Plainview search
87. The following are the times when pat-frisk search is required, except
a. Upon initial admission or readmission to the facility
b. When a resident moves from one area of the facility to another.
c. After the resident leaves a work assignment
d. When a resident returns to the supervision of a staff member after being in an
unsupervised situation such as religious activity conducted by an outside
volunteer.
88. A Facility within the prison reservation where court hearings are held to minimize risk
and untoward incidents to happen on a high profile inmate and other security factors
involved.
a. Cell
 b. Judge's chamber
c. Courtroom
d. Dormitory
e.
89. A person whose political or religious ideologies are considered far outside the
mainstream attitudes of the society or who violates common moral standards and who
has adopted an increasingly extreme ideals and aspirations resorting to the employment
of violence in the furtherance of his/her beliefs.
a. Violent extremist offender
b. High risk inmates
c. High value target
d. Terrorist group
90. Early form of prison discipline where giving the same food that is “off” diet, or requiring
the prisoners to perform drab or boring daily routine.
a. Deprivation
b. Monotomy
c. Degradation
d. Hard labor
91. Early form of prison discipline where uttering insulting words or languages on the part of
prison staff to the prisoners to degrade or break the confidence of prisoners.
a. Deprivation
b. Monotomy
c. Degradation
d. Hard labor
92. The application of probation will be denied by the court when:
a. The offender is a recidivist
b. The offender is more than 70 years of age
c. Probation will depreciate the seriousness of the offense committed
d. All of the foregoing
93. Is automatically applied to reduce the sentence but may be taken away from the prisoner
if he fails to obey the rules and regulations of the prison.
a. Special time allowance
b. Good conduct time allowance
c. Good behavior for loyalty
d. Special loyalty for allowance
94. A kind of pardon which extinguishes all the penalties imposed upon the offender
including accessory disabilities.
a. Plenary Pardon
b. Absolute Pardon
c. Conditional Pardon
d. Partial Pardon
95. The state must punish the criminal to prevent or suppress the danger to the state arising
from the criminal acts of the offender.
a. Prevention
 b. Self – defense
c. Reformation
d. All of them
96. To restore full political and civil rights of persons who have already served their
sentences and have waited the prescribed period is what concept of correction?
a. Purpose of Absolute Pardon
b. Effect of Absolute Pardon
c. Purpose of Amnesty
d. Purpose of Commutation
97. Is to bring about the return of dissidents and recalcitrant elements of our population to
their homes and to ensure the resumption of their lawful pursuits, or occupations as loyal
and law-abiding citizens; to accelerate the rehabilitation of the war-devastated country;
restore peace and order; and secure the welfare and happiness of the communities is
what concept of correction.
a. Purpose of Pardon
b. Purpose of Parole
c. Purpose of Amnesty
d. Purpose of Commutation
98. To uplift and redeem valuable human material, and prevent unnecessary and excessive
deprivation of personal liberty and economic usefulness.
a. Purpose of ISLAW
b. Pardon
c. Amnesty
d. Commutation of sentence
99. It stands on the legalistic approach of punishment as a legal ground of calling justice.
a. Relative Theories
b. Absolute Theories
c. Compromissual Theories
d. None of them
100. Duration of reclusion temporal.
a. 20 yrs and 1 day to 30 yrs
b. 12 yrs. and 1 day to 20 yrs
c. 6 yrs and 1 day to 12 yrs
d. 6 mos. and 1 day to 6 yrs