Prime 11

Prime Mock 11 (CLAT) 2024
English
Directions for questions 1 to 30: Read the passages given below and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
Last week ended with the United States (US) Federal Reserve raising interest rates by 25 basis points once again,
taking the cumulative rate increase to 4.75 percentage points in the current cycle. Had the latest federal open market
committee meeting not been preceded by two bank failures and the possibility of a crisis in many others, the rate hike
would have been a given and widely accepted. But the crisis in mid- and small-sized banks in the US and the bailouts
they received - notwithstanding their erstwhile not-strategically-important description - have raised a question mark on
the rationale of inflation targeting.
While Left-leaning economists have always questioned the benefits of inflation targeting via rising interest rates (and
killing demand), mainstream macroeconomics has seen it as a necessary, even if painful, way to keep the economy
from going off the rails. This kind of a textbook argument does not account for situations when financial institutions
(such as Silicon Valley Bank) start going belly up because they did not account for potential losses in case the value
of their assets (bond prices) crashed after a big rate hike. Not rescuing these institutions carries the risk of possible
contagion, leading to a sharp recession in the economy, which is more than what even the votaries of demand
deflation to contain inflation are willing to accept. Bailing out banks by pumping in liquidity defeats the very purpose of
monetary tightening by raising interest rates. As is obvious from the growing debate on the issue, there are no easy
choices here.
To be sure, none of this is being experienced for the first time. But the gaps between economic theory and reality are
only evident during periods of acute crisis and forgotten when things return to normal, as they always do. There is
another set of commentators that believes that the root cause of the current crisis in the US, and even global
economy, is the inflationary stimulus which was unleashed by advanced countries, including the US, during the
pandemic. Theoretically speaking, they might have a point, but no stimulus during the pandemic would have meant a
sharp decline, perhaps a crisis, for the lives of the people who were affected by the pandemic's economic shock.
Therein lies another lesson for economists. Their wisdom can only be made applicable if it is politically palatable. As
India begins another financial year next week, likely with a rate increase on the cards, these are important lessons for
policy planners to ponder.
Q 1. 30630558 What is the main idea of the passage?
a)
The recent bank failures in the US have raised questions about the effectiveness of inflation targeting through interest
rate hikes.
b) Left-leaning economists support inflation targeting as a necessary way to keep the economy on track.
c) Bailing out banks by pumping in liquidity defeats the purpose of monetary tightening by raising interest rates.
d)
The current crisis in the US and the global economy is the result of the inflationary stimulus unleashed during the
pandemic.
Q 2. 30630558 Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the role of politics in economic
decision-making?
a) Economic theory can only be applied if it is politically acceptable.
b) Economic theory is always politically acceptable.

c) Economic decisions are made based on economic theory without considering political factors.
d) Political factors have no role in economic decision-making.
Q 3. 30630558 Based on the passage, which of the following can be inferred about the impact of pandemic-related
stimulus measures on the global economy?
a) Pandemic-related stimulus measures were unnecessary and have caused a crisis in the global economy.
b) Pandemic-related stimulus measures were necessary to prevent a sharp decline in the global economy.
c) The global economy would have remained unaffected by pandemic-related stimulus measures.
d) The impact of pandemic-related stimulus measures on the global economy is not discussed in the passage.
Q 4. 30630558 Which of the following titles best describes the passage?
a) The Challenges of Inflation Targeting and Financial Stability
b) The Economic Impact of Pandemic-related Stimulus Measures

c) Lessons for Economists from Recent Bank Failures and Bailouts
d) The Role of Politics in Economic Decision-making
Q 5. 30630558 Which of the following words is a synonym of the word "erstwhile" as used in the passage?
a) Present b) Future c) Former d) Contemporary
Passage – 2
The newness engendered by the crossing of the border is a constantly shifting, processual newness with its
immunities and rejections, its nostalgic regressions, its lurid openness and its undaunted dialogism. Newness is
processual, in constant, rhizomatic growth. This newness is encoded in the works of Indian diasporic writers in the
images of diverse forms of art. The artistic impulse of the subject made new by the transgressive act of stepping
across the line brings the cadences of the homeland into chimerical combinations with the music of the hostland. In
one part of the complex of the migrant imaginary, repetitions and translations of Indian songs, recreations of Indian
carnival images and rituals and the reprisal of Indian cuisine attests to the jingoistic separatism of the migrant.
Salman Rushdie laces his work the cadences, the desires and deferrals, of the transit space, the frontier where
cultural claims and identitarian iterations are negotiated across ethnic groups. In The Satanic Verses, the reprisal of
the subcontinent's rhythms at the very moment of breaching the border marks the opening of the novel. Gibreel
Farishta, as he tumbles into new territory, arranges the carnival of Indian cadences, the rhythm of the tabla, between
obsolescent patterns of English verse to generate a pastiche notable for its outlandishness. He goes on to sing the
popular Hindi song "Mera joota hai Japani" in its English translation, transmuting the India of his mind once again
against the on-rush of the new space. While Gibreel enunciates the languages and cadences of the India left behind,
he places it alongside "obsolescent" English verse from the memory of and England left perhaps further behind. This
is where the linearity of postcolonial thought finds its poststructuralist aporia: the Hindi song suggests an always-
already multiculturalism which precedes and intercedes in Farishta's experience of the borderline, as also the
learned, weathered-down English verse acquires new life and meaning in its utterance by an outsider at the frontier.
The purism of nationalist-patriotic narratives of the postcolonial time is destabilised by evoking negotiations,
interventions, creative miscegenations and chimaeric reinventions which seem to always have existed in the age of
essentialist, patriotist or repatriationist discourses. Farishta's reimaging of India and Britain, his resurrection of the lost
and the forgotten, his revisionist retelling of the history of cultures cast into opposing positionings, refining and
undermining the spatialisation of difference with irony and parody. It is also in this level of the complex that Jhumpa
Lahiri's description in The Namesake of the painting of the Rajastani landscape which Ashima hangs up in her new
American abode is positioned. This painting by her father assumes the renewed significance of a portal to an
alternative time-space, renders the homeland palpable in a way. At the same time, while experiences with non-identity
and non-Indianness are consistently deferred to this reimagined and pastoralised Indian landscape, the host
landscape becomes engaged in a negotiation, in a politics or translation and reference, rendering all articulation of
art, and of the performance of identity in general, intertextual and hybrid.
Q 6. 30630558 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate synonym of the word 'cadence' as used in
the passage?
a) Calibre b) Rhythm c) Catastrophe d) Repudiation
Q 7. 30630558 In the light of the passage, what is the significance of the Rajasthani painting in Ashima's house?
a) The painting reminds Ashima of her childhood. b) The painting reminds Ashima of her visit to Rajasthan.
c) d) The painting reminds Ashima of India.

The painting is precious to Ashima because it was
expensive.
Q 8. 30630558 The author of the passage would most likely agree with which of the following statements:
a) The Hindi song "Mera joota hai Japani" has been described by the author as canonical in Indian music.
b)
The Hindi song "Mera joota hai Japani" has been described by the author as one of the most enthralling piece of
music.
c) The Hindi song "Mera joota hai Japani" has been described by the author as an award winning song.
d) The Hindi song "Mera joota hai Japani" has been described by the author as characterising plurality of cultures.
Q 9. 30630558 What can be said about Salman Rushdie's work?
a) Salman Rushdie writes about multiple ethnic groups and their concerns.
b) Salman Rushdie writes about misogyny and its effects on society.
c) Salman Rushdie writes about a homogenous socio-cultural group.

d) Salman Rushdie writes about marginalisation of Indians in America.
Q 10. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:
a) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is an immigrant novel that focuses on world politics.
b) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is about racist issues that an immigrant faces.
c) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is about an immigrant's diasporic anxiety.
d) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is about male chauvinism.

Passage – 3
By formally establishing diplomatic relations with China on March 26, 2023, Honduras has joined a growing list of
countries that have recently switched recognition from Taipei to Beijing. Taiwan now has only 12 countries, besides
the Vatican, with which it has diplomatic ties, including four small Pacific island nations, Eswatini in southern Africa,
Paraguay, and six central American and Caribbean nations. Chinese Foreign Minister Qin Gang, who signed the
communiqué with his Honduran counterpart Eduardo Reina, said it showed Honduras made "a choice to stand on the
right side of history...". Taiwan has accused Honduras of seeking financial assistance as a precondition to continue
relations, and President Tsai Ing-wen said, after the switch, that Taiwan "will not engage in a meaningless contest of
dollar diplomacy with China". She also accused China of "persistently [using] any and all means to suppress Taiwan's
international participation, intensify its military intimidations... and disrupt regional peace".
The switch by Honduras, as well as Taiwan's concerns about its shrinking international space, point to the growing
stress on the current status quo across the Taiwan Strait. The status quo has generally served both sides across the
strait well, preserving peace against tall odds. In Taiwan, a thriving democracy with a highly developed economy, the
status quo remains the popular choice for most people, according to numerous public opinion surveys. A minority
support Taiwan declaring independence or unification with China. However, both Beijing and Taipei have been
accusing the other of changing this status quo. In Taipei's view, Beijing has exerted growing diplomatic pressure to
isolate Taiwan as well as stepped up military muscle-flexing, as seen in exercises that surrounded the island last year
following the visit of then U.S. House Speaker Nancy Pelosi. In Beijing's view, the ruling DPP in Taipei, with the
support of Washington, bears responsibility for the tensions by pursuing de facto independence. Beijing had warmer
relations with the previous KMT regime, with a landmark meeting between leaders Xi Jinping and Ma Ying-jeou in
2015. The Xi government has warned the U.S. that Taiwan remains a red line for China, but with worsening relations
between the two countries, Taiwan has yet again emerged as a friction point, as seen by the Pelosi visit last year.
Beijing continues to refuse to rule out the use of force for what it calls reunification, should Washington or Taipei cross
what it sees as a red line. The tussle between the world's two biggest powers has left the 23 million people of a
vibrant and prosperous island caught in the middle.
Q 11. 30630558 What can be inferred about the relations of Taiwan with China?
a) Their relations have come to a standstill with stabilized bilateral relations.

b) Their relations have turned into rivalry over Taiwan's economic excesses.
c) Their relations have sought reunification of China and Taiwan.
d) Their relations have stirred up the diplomatic status quo globally.
Q 12. 30630558 What does the author mean by this line: President Tsai Ing-wen said, after the switch, that Taiwan
"will not engage in a meaningless contest of dollar diplomacy with China"?
a) Taiwan has vowed to not fall for the dollar bound baits set by China.
b) Taiwan has resolved to not use its cultural-economic influence in diplomacy.
c) Taiwan will continue to not take sides in diplomatic international conflicts

d) Taiwan would not engage in any bilateral or multilateral conflict with others.
Q 13. 30630558 Which of the following, as per the passage, is a troubling concern for Taiwan?
a) Increased military and arms expenses to protect itself

b) Increased tensions between the USA and the EU
c) Reducing international trade between the USA and China

d) Deteriorating diplomatic relations of Taiwan with other nations
Q 14. 30630558 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word: flexing?
a) Flaunting b) Severing c) Perpetuating d) Ostracising
Q 15. 30630558 As per the passage, which of the following has a role to play in the China-Taiwan conflict?
a) The booming IT industry of South Asian nations b) The oil reserves of the USA
c) The opulence of citizens of Taiwan d) The history of Taiwan
Passage – 4
Baul is not just a form of folk music; it is a distinct philosophy of life embedded in music. The term, 'baul', is derived
from the Sanskrit word, 'Batul' or 'Baur', meaning a devotee who could merge with divinity through music. The
process of realisation demands a detachment from worldly affairs and the elimination of egotistical beliefs. Bauls, a
wandering community, lend their voice to an ecstatic call towards the divine or ponder the vicissitudes of human life.
Baul songs are of three layers: they express the spiritual goal to be attained, speak of the difficulties laid out on that
spiritual path, and offer guidance to overcome these difficulties. The bauls' quest is directed towards the
'monermanush' - the person within. The search for this 'inner person' is best expressed in the following song,
"Dekhechirupsagareymonermanushkanchasona / Tareydharidhari money kari, dhorteygeleydharadeyna (In the ocean
of beauty I have discovered the person within, pure as gold / I tried to catch hold of him but he remained elusive)".
The oral literature on the baul form of worship can be traced back to the Buddhist-tantrik era in the 10th and the 11th
centuries. But the baul tradition underwent a radical change in the 16th century with the advent of Shri Chaitanya
Mahaprabhu, the Vaishnavite reformer. Chaitanya gave a new impetus to baul music for the propagation of bhakti
(devotion) and bhalobasha (love) while having a perspective rooted in everyday life. Baul music thus became a happy
blend of the concepts of Paramatman of the Upanishads, the Sahajas of the Sahajiyas, and the Beloved of Sufiism.
Metaphysical considerations dominate baul music. Through their music, bauls seek to replenish their psychic
reservoir that gets depleted through the attrition of living. This pensive mystical quality of baul music is perhaps best
captured in the songs of Lalan Fakir (1775-1891). Interestingly, even the sexual act is seen by bauls as communion
with divine practice. For bauls, the body is as important a medium of seeking divinity as the mind. They celebrate
both. In fact, the process of choosing a spouse (baulani) is quite critical. Usually, the baulanis carry forward the
tradition of baul music. The women take up the task of singing so that the bauls can concentrate on composing
songs.
The bauls' metaphysical roots spring from their faith, deep introspection, bold intuition, and the teachings of their
guru. The experience they gather is communicated to others through their songs. The guru plays a vital role in the
baul cult, bridging the gap between idea and reality. This process is recognised as gurubadisiksha, an education that
is dependent on the master. The composers not only learn the intellectual subtlety of trained logicians but also the
intimate language of love and life. Baul composers also combine the rigorous training of mind and body with intuitive
knowledge.
Q 16. 30630558 Which of the following applies to a baulani?
a) To become a baulani is an arduous task.

b) Baulanis have to be extremely critical towards their approach to life to join the clan.
c) Baulanis are musically superior compared to their male counterparts.
d) Baulanis are in the forefront of performances.
Q 17. 30630558 Which of the following statements describe the shift in Baul music as described in the passage?
a) A more focused look at realism.

b) Realistic treatment of love and devotion.
c) Morbid obsession with divinity.
d) Applying practical lessons of love and devotion to everyday activities.
Q 18. 30630558 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?
a) A baul will give up their possessions.
b) A baul has to be physically imposing.

c) A baul can be a philosopher if they commit to writing.
d) A baul has given up on personal wellbeing in order to become one with God.
Q 19. 30630558 What does 'propagation' mean as used in the passage?
a) breeding b) spreading c) disrupting d) forcing
Q 20. 30630558 Which of the following is true with respect to baul's
a) Baul's are philosophically inclined to harbour selfish interest.
b) Baul did not know how to read or write.
c) Baul's has the foundation to showcase mathematical aptitude.

d) Baul's are better suited to find compatible partners compared to everyday human beings.
Passage – 5
The oceans hold untrammelled opportunities for the prosperity of our planet. It is therefore not surprising that the
most prosperous cities and countries are endowed with a coast. The G20 countries together account for around 45%
of the world's coastlines and over 21% of the exclusive economic zones (EEZs). The oceans are reservoirs of global
biodiversity, critical regulators of the global weather and climate, and support the economic well-being of billions of
people in coastal areas. The term 'blue economy' includes not only ocean-dependent economic development, but
also inclusive social development and environmental and ecological security. Recognising the contribution of the
ocean economy for sustainable development, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said, "To me, the blue chakra in India's
flag represents the potential of the... ocean economy."
The Government of India has launched bold initiatives to promote the development of a blue economy. The
Sagarmala initiative promotes port-led development. The Shipbuilding Financial Assistance Policy encourages
domestic ship-building. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana is actively engendering a 'blue revolution'
through sustainable and responsible development of the fisheries sector. The Sagar Manthan dashboard tracks
vessels in real-time. The Deep Ocean Mission explores deep-sea resources in the EEZ and continental shelf as well
as development of technology for harnessing them. India adopted the Coastal Regulation Zone notification to classify
and better manage coastal regions and conserve ecologically sensitive coastal and marine areas including
ecosystems. As the host of the World Environment Day in 2018, Mr. Modi gave a clarion call to eliminate single-use
plastic. In 2022, the global community rallied together for a multilateral treaty on addressing plastic pollution. The
same year, India introduced an amendment to the Plastic Waste Management Rules banning select single-use plastic
items and introduced policies for extended producer responsibility in waste management in order to combat plastic
pollution, including in the marine environment.
From this position of strength, as part of the India's G20 Presidency, the blue economy is articulated as a key priority
area under the Environment and Climate Sustainability Working Group. The aim is to promote adoption of high-level
principles that guide sustainable and equitable economic development through the ocean and its resources, while
simultaneously addressing climate change and other environmental challenges. This approach is consistent with Mr.
Modi's call for the global adoption of 'Lifestyle for the Environment' that promotes mindful utilisation over mindless
consumption patterns.
Over the last decade, the G20 forum has discussed some specific ocean-related issues. These include the G20
Action Plan on Marine Litter, the Osaka Blue Ocean Vision, and the Coral Research and Development Accelerator
Platform. Last year, holistic discussions on blue economy were initiated at the Ocean 20 launch in Bali. India's
commitment to prioritising oceans and the blue economy under its presidency would ensure continued discussions on
this crucial subject and pave the way for future G20 presidencies.
Q 21. 30630558 Which of the following can be termed as the title of the passage?
a) The Blue economy and international diplomacy b) The age of India's soft power in oceans
c) How India leads to save the oceans d) India's G20 vision for the ocean commons
Q 22. 30630558 What is the Sagarmala initiative?
a) A policy promoting port-led development
b) A financial assistance program for domestic ship-building
c) A sustainable fisheries development initiative

d) A technology development program for harnessing deep-sea resources
Q 23. 30630558 Which of the following best expresses the term blue economy?
a)
A term that refers to the economic benefits of exploiting the ocean's resources without considering environmental
impacts.
b) A term that refers to inclusive social development that prioritizes coastal regions.
c) A term that is not related to cross-border partnership for economic development
d) A term that refers to ocean environmental conservation through multilateral cooperation.
Q 24. 30630558 What was the reaction of other nations to India's call against plastics?
a) They joined forces with India. b) They declines to pledge any economic assistance.
c) They showed a lukewarm response to it. d) They affirmed their support only diplomatically.
Q 25. 30630558 What is India's goal for the blue economy as part of its G20 Presidency?
a) To prioritize the rising se-level concerns of the oceans of the world.
b) To promote sustainable and equitable economic development through the ocean and its resources
c) To focus on social development and ecological security only
d) To address climate change and other environmental challenges exclusively
Passage – 6
The rise of science in Europe in the eighteenth century coincided with the Western project of colonial expansion. The
rapid advancement of technology in the aftermath of the Industrial Revolution- the inventions of steamships, railways,
electric telegraphs- all started to be utilized for the European imperial practices. The Western colonial territories, in
this respect, appeared to be the appropriate testing grounds for a host of experiments in the application of science
and technology by the colonial state. Europe's rejuvenated interest to obtain the knowledge of science and
technologies in this sense was enmeshed with a discourse of power, with its interest to acquire, control and
understand the vast tracts of alien territory.
The reputed historian of science, George Basalla proposed a three-stage model to account for the origin and
development of Western science in the non-European colonial countries. Basalla's model proposes a universal
pattern of the diffusion of Western science, cutting across geographical, cultural and other differences among the
non-European societies. It points to the growth and evolution of the Western scientific knowledge to the colonial
territories from the stages of exploration to dependence and then to independence. Scholars of the history of science
have been more or less unanimous in their opinion to define the cultural encounter of India and Britain as a journey
from an uneasy acceptance, to a quest for identity and finally to the sowing of the seeds of decolonization. Though
deployed by the British with an imperialistic agenda, the very discourse of science nevertheless created a strong
interest among the colonized. Science with its metaphor of modernity and progress appeared before the indigenous
population with a sense of awe, so much so that it attained a magical status. In one of his essays, Bankim Chandra
Chatterjee marvelled at the vast strides made by science in expanding the knowledge of the universe.
This conceptualization of science as a syntax of reform and modernity, which first originated in the writings of
Rammohun Roy had been successfully carried forward by a band of socio cultural reformers, namely, Akshay Kumar
Dutta, Keshub Chandra Sen, Iswar Chandra Vidyasagar, Bankim Chandra Chatterjee, Rabindranath Tagore as well
as a group of emerging Indian scientists, like Mahendra Lal Sircar, Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose, Acharya Prafulla
Chandra Ray and others. These scientists and intellectuals argued in favour of a valiant Indian nation which could be
built with a synthesis of the Indian heritage and the scientific and intellectual vigour of Europe. Thus, in them we can
locate the emergence of two critiques- a critique of Western imperialism and an inward critique of indigenous dogma.
The debate on science was carried forward in these two directions. The diffusion of Western scientific knowledge in
India and the subsequent response of the Indian intelligentsia to the modern European discourse of science and
rationality can be contextualized within the theory of hybridity and mimicry as postulated by Homi Bhabha in Location
of Culture (1994). Bhabha locates the question of culture in the realm of the beyond, to a moment of transit.
Q 26. 30630558 Out of the following options, which one is an appropriate synonym of the word 'synthesis' as used in
the passage?
a) Isolation b) Plastic c) Amalgam d) Alliteration
Q 27. 30630558 Which of the following options can be defined as true in the light of the passage?
a) Bhabha tried to analyse the lives of the social reformers in Location of Culture.
b) Bhabha tried to analyse the dynamics of culture in his Location of Culture.
c) Bhabha tried to examine the various education policies pursued by different governments.
d) Bhabha attempted to record the lives of famous personalities in Location of Culture.
a) Science indicates the advancement of morality. b) Science is seen as promoting superstition.
c) Science is seen as ushering reform. d) Science indicates the progress of spirituality.
a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee supported the intellectual temperament of Europe.
b) Mahendra Lal Sircar was an Indian scientist who studied in England.
c) Rammohun Roy and other reformers felt that everything in India should be ignored.
d) Rammohun Roy was a freedom fighter himself who fought against the British.
Q 30. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) The Industrial Revolution saw modernisation of America for the first time.
b) The Industrial Revolution was followed by technological progress.
c) The Industrial Revolution was characterised by the proliferation of heavy American machineries.
d) The effects of Industrial Revolution was felt only in England and nowhere else.
Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

Passage – 1
USA President Biden announced that the United States is nominating [1], a business leader with extensive
experience leading successful organizations in developing countries and forging public-private partnerships to
address financial inclusion and climate change, to be President of the World Bank.
Statement from President Biden: "[1] is uniquely equipped to lead the World Bank at this critical moment in history. He
has spent more than three decades building and managing successful, global companies that create jobs and bring
investment to developing economies, and guiding organizations through periods of fundamental change. He has a
proven track record managing people and systems, and partnering with global leaders around the world to deliver
results. He also has critical experience mobilizing public-private resources to tackle the most urgent challenges of our
time, including climate change. Raised in India, [1] has a unique perspective on the opportunities and challenges
facing developing countries and how the World Bank can deliver on its ambitious agenda to reduce poverty and
expand prosperity."
Q 31. 30630558 What is the name person of the redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Sanjay K Jha b) Ajay Banga c) Vinya Kumar d) Neal Mohan
Q 32. 30630558 The Bretton Woods Conference led the creation of the _____________and the International Bank
for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD).
a) b) World Economic Forum c) ADB

World Trade Organization
d)
International Monetary
Fund
Q 33. 30630558 India is not a member of which of the following World Bank Group?
a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)
b) International Development Association (IDA)
c) International Finance Corporation (IFC)
d) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)
Q 34. 30630558 Which of the following institutions is known as 'soft loan window' of the World Bank?
a) IDA b) IBRD c) MIGA d) ICSID
Q 35. 30630558 Which of the following countries has become the latest and 189th member of the World Bank Group
in 2016?
a) Afghanistan b) Nauru c) Sudan d) South Sudan
Q 36. 30630558 Who among the following is the current President of World Bank Group?
a) Brent McIntosh b) David Malpass c) Kristalina Georgieva d) Anshula Kant
Q 37. 30630558 The first Indian to be appointed as Chief Economist of at the World Bank is____________,
a) Indermit Gill b) Kaushik Basu c) Raghuram Rajan d) Urjit Patel
Passage – 2
Russia and the U.S. clashed in the United Nations over Moscow's plans to deploy tactical nuclear weapons in
Belarus, which neighboring Ukraine denounced as a desperate Kremlin attempt to avoid military defeat and "threaten
the world with nuclear apocalypse." China, without naming Russia, made clear its opposition to the planned
deployment.
Ukraine's U.N. Ambassador Sergiy Kyslytsya called for the U.N. Security Council meeting following Russian President
Vladimir Putin's announcement on March 25 that his country plans to deploy tactical, comparatively short-range and
small-yield nuclear weapons in Belarus.
Belarusian President Alexander Lukashenko upped the ante just before the council meeting, saying Russia might also
deploy strategic nuclear weapons in Belarus, which Russian forces have used as a staging ground for the war in
Ukraine.
Kyslytsya said it took only four days for Putin to violate a pledge he made to China's President Xi Jinping in a joint
statement at their recent meeting in Moscow. It declared that all nuclear states should refrain from deploying nuclear
weapons outside their countries and withdraw those deployed abroad. The same point was emphasized by the U.S.
and Chinese deputy U.N. ambassadors, among others.
Q 38. 30630558 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Chemical Weapons Convention
(CWC)?
a) It is a multilateral treaty banning chemical weapons and requiring their destruction within the stipulated time.
b) The convention became effective from April 1997.
c) It makes it mandatory to destroy old and abandoned chemical weapons.

d) All of the above
Q 39. 30630558 Which of the following is an international organization established by the CWC in 1997 to implement
and enforce the terms of the Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC)?
a) Organisation for the Nuclear Disarmament b) Nuclear Supplier Group
c) Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons d) Organisation for Chemical and Biological Weapons
Q 40. 30630558 Biological weapons use microbiological agents (such as bacteria, viruses or fungi) or toxins to
intentionally cause death or harm to humans, animals, or plants. Which of the following conventions/protocol banned
the use of biological weapons in war?
a) The 1919 Paris Protocol b) c) d)

The 1925 Geneva Protocol The 1945 London Protocol The 1941 Tokyo Protocol
Q 41. 30630558 At present, how many member countries are there in Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG)?
a) 38 b) 48 c) 58 d) 68
Q 42. 30630558 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Nonproliferation Treaty (NPT)?
a) It is an international treaty, which came into force in 1970.
b) The main objective was to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons and weapons technology.
c) Apart from India, Pakistan and Israel have also not signed NPT.
d) All of the above
Q 43. 30630558 The Nuclear Suppliers Group (NSG) was founded in response to the __________ nuclear test in
May 1974 and first met in November 1975.
a) Israel b) China c) Pakistan d) India
Q 44. 30630558 Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban
Treaty (CTBT)?
a)
It was negotiated at the Conference on Disarmament in Geneva and adopted by the United Nations General
Assembly in 1996.
b) The Treaty intends to ban all nuclear explosions - everywhere, by everyone.

c)
Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty Organization (CTBTO) promotes the Treaty so that it can enter into force.
d) All of the above
Passage – 3
Thousands of policemen in Punjab are searching for Amritpal Singh, a controversial self-styled preacher whose
incendiary views and sudden rise to fame have sparked a political crisis in the north Indian state. The police have
declared Singh a "fugitive" after he escaped during a dramatic car chase in Jalandhar district. The 30-year-old is still
absconding. The chain of events has once again propelled Singh - who says he supports the Khalistan movement for
a separate Sikh homeland - to national attention. Last month, violence broke out in Punjab after hundreds of his
supporters stormed a police station, demanding the release of an arrested aide.
The mob of angry young men - many holding guns and swords - broke down barricades and only left the scene after
getting an assurance that the aide would be released. Police officials later claimed that they had been unable to stop
the crowd as they were carrying a copy of the Guru Granth Sahib - the holy book venerated by Sikhs - as a shield.
What also raised eyebrows was Singh's appearance, which resembled that of the man he claims to draw inspiration
from: [1], a preacher accused by the Indian government of leading an armed insurgency for a separate Sikh
homeland in the 1980s. He was killed in the Indian army's controversial Operation Blue Star in [2].
During the insurgency, which lasted about a decade, thousands of people lost their lives. These included prominent
leaders and ordinary people targeted by insurgents, while many young Sikhs were killed in police operations - some
of which Indian courts later ruled were staged. Punjab still bears the scars of that violence.
Q 45. 30630558 What is the name redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) b) Lakhbir Singh Rode c) Ranjit Singh Neeta d) Talwinder Singh Parmar
Jarnail Singh Bhindranwale
Q 46. 30630558 The Operation Blue Star was launched in [2], which of the following years has been redacted with
[2] in the passage above?
a) 1974 b) 1980 c) 1988 d) 1984
Q 47. 30630558 Who among the following was the India Prime Minister when operation blue star was launched?
a) Rajiv Gandhi b) Indira Gandhi c) PV Narasimharao d) Morarji Desai
Q 48. 30630558 Which of the following organisations/person declared terrorist organizations/ terrorist under the
provisions of the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA) in February 2023?
a) Khalistan Tiger Force (KTF) b) Jammu and Kashmir Ghaznavi Force (JKGF)
c) Harwinder Singh Sandhu Rinda d) All of the above
Q 49. 30630558 The National Investigation Agency (NIA) is the primary counter-terrorist task force of India. It was
formed in which of the following years?
a) 2002 b) 2006 c) 2009 d) 2011
Q 50. 30630558 What is the full form of NATGRID?
a) New Intelligence Grid for India Security b) National Intelligence Group of Rick Demonstrators
c) National Intelligence Grid d) National Intelligence Group of Demonstrators
Q 51. 30630558 Operation All Out is a joint offensive launched by Indian security forces in 2017 to flush out militants
and terrorists in___________.
a) Nagaland b) Assam c) Jammu and Kashmir d) Punjab
Passage – 4
The fifth submarine of the Project - 75, Kalvari Class submarines, Yard 11879 was delivered to the Indian Navy, 20
Dec 22. Project - 75 includes indigenous construction of six submarines of Scorpene design. These submarines are
being constructed at [1], under collaboration with M/s Naval Group, France. Launched on 12 Nov 20, [2] commenced
the sea trials from 01 Feb 22 and it is a matter of great pride that she has completed all major trials including the
weapon and sensor trials in the shortest time in comparison to the earlier submarines.
Submarine construction is an intricate activity as the difficulty is compounded when all equipment are required to be
miniaturised and are subject to stringent quality requirements. Construction of these submarines in an Indian yard is
another step towards 'Aatmanirbhar Bharat' and enhances self-confidence in this field, a notable achievement is that
this is the third submarine delivered to the Indian Navy in a span of 24 months. The submarine would shortly be
commissioned into the Indian Navy and enhance the Indian Navy's capability.
Q 52. 30630558 What is the name of the company redacted with [1] in the passage above?
a) Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd b) Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders Limited
c) Bharat Electronics Ltd d) Cochin Shipyard Ltd
Q 53. 30630558 What is the name of the fifth Kalvari Class submarines redacted with [2] in the passage above?
a) INS Vagir b) INS Karanj c) INS Vela d) INS Khanderi
Q 54. 30630558 Which of the following is the first Kalvari Class submarine?
a) INS Kalvari b) INS Vela c) INS Karanj d) INS Khanderi
Q 55. 30630558 Project-75(I) envisages indigenous construction of _________ modern conventional submarines.
a) Twenty Five b) Six c) Ten d) Seventy Five
Q 56. 30630558 INS Vikrant (IAC-I) is the first aircraft carrier built in India and the first Vikrant-class aircraft carrier
built by_____________.
a) b) Bharat Electronics Ltd c) d) Cochin Shipyard Ltd

Hindustan Aeronautics Ltd Mazagon Dock Shipbuilders
Ltd
Q 57. 30630558 India's first privately developed rocket is_____________.
a) Kalam-S b) Homi Bhabha-S c) Vikram-S d) Raman-S
Q 58. 30630558 The Nilgiri-class frigates, formally classified as the Project-17 are a series of__________.
a) Stealth guided-missile Frigates b) Anti -Tank Guided Missiles

c) Scorpene Submarines d) None of the above
Passage – 5
The PM-Ayushman Bharat Health infrastructure Mission (PM-ABHIM) has turned out to be a major laggard in the
financial year 2022-23 based on the expenditure of the fund allocated to the scheme, a parliamentary committee has
observed.
In its 144th report tabled in the Lok Sabha, the Department Related Parliamentary Standing Committee on Health and
Family Welfare highlighted that the department has been able to utilise just about 20 per cent of its budget estimates
allocation. It said 2021-22 is the second year of the implementation of the PM-ABHIM scheme. "Considering that the
scheme has a fixed timeline for completion, the committee is surprised that the activities under the scheme have not
moved beyond nascent stages of implementation," the report said.
The committee in its report stated that the scheme was allocated Rs 690.00 crore in budget estimates 2022-23, which
was reduced to Rs 378.27 crore in the revised estimated 2023-24. Again out of this reduced budget, the department
has only been able to spend Rs 135.56 crore till date i.e. fund to the tune of Rs 242.71 crore still remains unused.
The committee stated that the department should have done the preparatory work viz. exploring expenditure avenues
of the new scheme well in advance so that funds allocated do not remain unutilised.
Q 59. 30630558 Which of the following statements is true regarding the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
Arogya Yojana (AB PM-JAY)?
a)
It offers a sum insured of Rs.10 lakh per family for secondary and tertiary care hospitalization across public and
private empaneled hospitals in India.
b)
Under the scheme, cashless and paperless access to services are provided to the beneficiaries at the point of
service.
c) It is an entitlement-based scheme that targets the beneficiaries as identified by the Census 2011.
d) The scheme has not prescribed a daily limit for medical management.
Q 60. 30630558 Who is the current Union Health Minister of India?
a) V. Sadananda Gowda b) Mansukh Mandaviya c) Dr. Harsh Vardhan d) Bhagwanth Khuba
Q 61. 30630558 Which of the following has been constituted as an autonomous entity under the Society Registration
Act, 1860 for effective implementation of PM-JAY in alliance with state governments?
a) National Digital Authority b) National Health Authority
c) India Health Authority d) National Health Protection Authority
Q 62. 30630558 Which of the following statements is Not true regarding the Ayushman Bharat Pradhan Mantri Jan
Arogya Yojana (AB-PMJAY)?
a) It is the world's largest health insurance/ assurance scheme.
b)
Over 10.74 crore poor and vulnerable entitled families (approximately 50 crore beneficiaries) are eligible for the
benefits.
c) No restrictions on family size, age or gender.
d)
It covers up to 30 days of pre-hospitalization and 30 days post-hospitalization expenses such as diagnostics and
medicines.
Q 63. 30630558 Which of the following has created as a part of the Pradhan Mantri Digital Health Mission, which will
act as a framework for technology and product testing?
a) PM-DHM Redbox b) PM-DHM Sandbox c) d) PM-DHM Whitebox

PM-DHM Emergencybox
Q 64. 30630558 Who among the following is the first Health Minister of India?
a) C. Rajagopalachari b) Rajkumari Amrit Kaur c) Sushila Nayyar d) Maulana Azad
Q 65. 30630558 World Health Day is observed every year on____________.

a) April 7 b) March 7 c) June 7 d) July 7
Legal Aptitude
Directions for questions 66 to 105: Each set of questions in this section is based on the reasoning and arguments,
or facts and principles set out in the preceding passage. Some of these principles may not be true in the real or legal
sense, yet you must conclusively assume that they are true for the purposes of this Section. Please answer each
question on the basis of what is stated or implied in the corresponding passage. Do not rely on any principle of law
other than the ones supplied to you, and do not assume any facts other than those supplied to you when answering
the questions. In some instances, more than one option may be the answer to the question; in such a case, please
choose the option that most accurately and comprehensively answers the question.
Disclaimer
All names and facts mentioned are hypothetical and are being used for educational purposes. Any resemblance with
any person, institution or situation is purely coincidental and unintentional.
Passage – 1
An indemnity contract is a legal arrangement between two parties in which one party agrees to pay another party for
a loss or harm that meets certain requirements and conditions unless other circumstances are specified. It is a form
of contingent contract which is characterized by all the essential elements of a valid contract.
Parties to a Contract: There must be two parties, namely, promisor or indemnifier and the promisee or indemnified or
indemnity-holder.
Protection of Loss: A contract of indemnity is entered into for the purpose of protecting the promisee from the loss.
The loss may be caused due to the conduct of the promisor or any other person.
Express Or Implied: The contract of indemnity may be express (i.e. made by words spoken or written) or implied (i.e.
inferred from the conduct of the parties or circumstances of the particular case).
Essentials of a Valid Contract: A contract of indemnity is a special kind of contract. The principles of the general law of
contract contained in Section 1 to 75 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 are applicable to them. Therefore, it must
possess all the essentials of a valid contract.
Number of Contracts: In a contract of Indemnity, there is only one contract that is between the Indemnifier and the
Indemnified.
Rights Of Promisee/ The Indemnified/ Indemnity Holder
As per Section 125 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872 the following rights are available to the promisee/ the indemnified/
indemnity-holder against the promisor/ indemnifier, provided he has acted within the scope of his authority.
Right To Recover Damages Paid in a Suit [Section 125(1)]: An indemnity-holder has the right to recover from the
indemnifier all damages which he may be compelled to pay in any suit in respect of any matter to which the contract
of indemnity applies.
Right To Recover Costs Incurred in Defending a Suit [Section 125(2)]: An indemnity-holder has the right to recover
from the indemnifier all costs which he may be compelled to pay in any such suit if, in bringing or defending it, he did
not contravene the orders of the promisor, and acted as it would have been prudent for him to act in the absence of
any contract of indemnity, or if the promisor authorized him to bring or defend the suit.
Right To Recover Sums Paid Under Compromise [Section 125(3)]: An indemnity-holder also has the right to recover
from the indemnifier all sums which he may have paid under the terms of any compromise of any such suit, if the
compromise was not contrary to the orders of the promisor, and was one which it would have been prudent for the
promisee to make in the absence of any contract of indemnity, or if the promisor authorized him to compromise the
suit.
Q 66. 30630558 A and B entered contract wherein A was to give Rs 5000 to B in exchange of study material.
However, B was sceptical as A had previously defaulted many payments. However, C promised that in case A
defaulted he would pay the amount to B. Later A defaulted on the loan and C too refused to give the amount to B.
Based on the above facts, choose the correct option.
a) B could move against C, because he promised to make good the loss incurred, in case A failed to pay the amount.
b) B could move against A as the initial party to the contract.

c) B could not move against C as he the party to the contract.
d) B could not move against A, as he knew that A is a defaulter.
Q 67. 30630558 R and G entered a contract which was indemnified by B. R defaulted on the payment and B too
refused to indemnify G. G filed a suit against B, he won however incurred huge losses.
Based on the above facts, discuss the recourse that G has in this case.
a) G has the right to recover the amount from R, who breached the contract.
b) G has the right to recover the amount from B, who promised to indemnify the amount.
c) G has the right to recover the amount from the state.
d) G does not have the right to recover as he was not compelled to file a suit against B.
Q 68. 30630558 Which of the following is correct regarding the rights of an indemnity holder?
a)
Indemnity holder has the right to recover the expenses incurred in the suit regarding any matter involving the
indemnifier.
b)
Indemnity holder has the right to recover the cost he must pay to defend the suit of the breach of contract on his part.
c) Indemnity holder has the right to pay the sum he has paid under a compromise.
d) Indemnity holder has the right to recover the cost, even if he has contravened the orders of the court.
Q 69. 30630558 Which of the following is true regarding the essentials of a contract of indemnity?
a) There must be at least three parties to the contract of indemnity.
b) Contract of indemnity has to be in express terms.
c) Contract of indemnity is a special contract and thus the essentials of a valid contract might not be present always.
d) In case of contract of indemnity, there is only one contract.
Q 70. 30630558 What is the objective of entering into a contract of indemnity?

a) Contract of indemnity protects the promisee from unanticipated losses.
b) Contract of indemnity protects the promisor from humiliation.

c) Contract of indemnity encourages promisee to enter a contract with a defaulter as well.
d) Contract of indemnity supports the contract of insurance.
Disclaimer
Passage – 2
Section 403 defines criminal misappropriation of property and prescribes penalty thereof. Before understanding the
section, the term dishonestly should be understood which has been defined in Section 24 of IPC as - A person is said
to do a thing dishonestly if he intentionally causes wrongful gain to one person and wrongful loss to another person.
The essential requirements of criminal misappropriation of property as given in the provision are :
I. The property must belong to a person other than the accused.
II. The accused must have misappropriated the property or converted it to his own use; and
III. There must be a dishonest intention on the part of the accused.
IV. Such property must be movable.
For a person to be dishonest he must have misappropriated the property with the intention of causing gain by
unlawful means of property to a person who is not legally entitled to it, and on the other side causing loss by unlawful
means of property to the person who is legally entitled to it. Where there is no intention to cause such gain or loss of
property and it is merely an intention to deprive the owner temporarily of the use of property, in such cases,
dishonesty is not made out. A person is said to misappropriate if he sets apart or assigns a particular thing to a wrong
person or for a wrong use; and this act must be done dishonestly. Also, if he uses it in a manner different from what
he was bound to use then he is said to have misappropriated the property. Converts means that the person
appropriates and deals with the property of another as if it is one's own property, without having the right to use it. The
essence of the offence is that some property belonging to another person which comes into the possession of the
accused innocently, is misappropriated or converted by the accused to his own use. There must be actual conversion.
Only movable property can be the subject matter of an offence under this section. There cannot be criminal
misappropriation of immovable property.
Q 71. 30630558 A found a currency note lying on the road, he picked it up and kept it in his wallet. He was later
accused of criminal misappropriation. Decide.
a) A is not liable for criminal misappropriation because dishonest intention cannot be proved.
b) A is not liable for criminal misappropriation, because it was not another's property.
c) A is liable for criminal misappropriation because he converted the note for his own use.
d) A is liable for criminal misappropriation because he has assigned the note for wrong use.
Q 72. 30630558 One day while travelling in a bus R finds a golden plate underneath the seat. There were also
certain engravings on the plate. He immediately sells it in the market, and earned a fortune.
From the above fact, decide whether R is liable for criminal misappropriation. Decide.
a) R is liable for criminal misappropriation because the property must have belonged to someone else.
b) R is liable for criminal misappropriation because he converts the property for his own purpose.
c) R is not liable for criminal misappropriation, because the owner of the plate cannot be ascertained.
d) R is not liable for criminal misappropriation, because the R accidently found the plate.
Q 73. 30630558 Y used to give his clothes for clothing to H, the washer man. One day, H took the clothes, for
washing, however later sold them in the market.
From the above facts, determine if H is liable for the offence of criminal misappropriation.
a) H is not liable for criminal misappropriation because the clothes were delivered to H by Y himself.
b) H is not liable for criminal misappropriation because there is no fiduciary relationship between them.
c) H is liable for criminal misappropriation because he sold the clothes, which was meant for washing only.
d) H is liable for criminal misappropriation because he had dishonest intention from the beginning.
Q 74. 30630558 A and B had jointly bought a house to live. However, A and B had fight and decided to move out of
the house. B wanted give it on lease, whereas A desired to sell the house. However after many arguments, A finally
agreed to give the house on lease. After sometimes, they realised that leasing the house was not a profitable
arrangement for them, rather they incurred loss. A filed a suit of criminal misappropriation against B.
a) B is liable for criminal misappropriation because he leased the house, against A's wishes.
b)
B is liable for criminal misappropriation because A wanted to sell the house, which would have been a profitable
option.
c) B is not liable for criminal misappropriation because profitability of an arrangement cannot be ascertained.
d) B is not liable for criminal misappropriation because A agreed to lease the house as well.
Q 75. 30630558 Which of the following is incorrect regarding the essential element of criminal misappropriation?
a) The presence of dishonest intention is necessary.
b) Dishonest intention means to gain unlawful advantage.
c) The property could be movable or immovable.
d) The property must belong to any other person apart from the accused himself.
Disclaimer
Passage – 3
The President of India can be impeached under Article 61, for the violation of the Constitution, on the basis of charges
preferred by either House of Parliament. A resolution with the proposal to prefer such charges must be signed by at
least one-fourth of the total members of the house. The resolution also needs to be passed by at least two-thirds
majority of the house. When the resolution is passed by one of the Houses, the other House must investigate the
charges. The President has been granted the right to be present or to be represented in such investigations. When
the House investigating the charges passes the resolution by a two-thirds majority and declares the charges as
sustaining, it results in removing the President from his office from the date of passing of the resolution. A charge
against the President has to be supported by at least 50 sitting members of either house. However, before removing
him/her from office, he/she can be given an opportunity to defend himself/herself by answering each accusation that
is brought against his/her office; this would be done through each house of parliament acting as a court (hearing all
evidence), and then voting on whether they agree with the changes made. If the house does not hold a vote on the
charges, then by default the president would be considered as acquitted and that would conclude any proceedings
against him/her. The Constitution specifies that the presiding officer - Vice-President - shall preside at all sittings in
which he takes part.
Q 76. 30630558 A is the president of the Republic of H. While the parliament was not in session, he passed an
ordinance which curbed free speech. However, since the situation was urgent, and a cabinet meeting could not be
called in such a short time, the president passed the ordinance without the consultation of the cabinet.
When the parliament re-assembled, impeachment proceedings were initiated against A. Decide.
a) A should be impeached because he violated the constitutional provision.
b) A should be impeached because he passed an ordinance that curbed free speech.
c) A should not be impeached because he passed the ordinance owing to the urgent situation.
d) A should not be impeached because free speech could be regulated.
Q 77. 30630558 G, the President of the state of J, was impeached, however in the entire proceeding of impeachment
he was not given any chance to defend himself. Decide whether the impeachment proceeding was fair?
a) Impeachment proceeding was not fair as G could be a part of the proceedings.
b) Impeachment proceeding was not fair as G was not given a chance to defend himself.
c) Impeachment proceeding was fair as G violated the constitution and must be ousted from the position.
d) Impeachment proceeding was fair as the proceedings could take place ex-parte.
Q 78. 30630558 Which of the following is the correct statement, regarding the impeachment process of the President
of India?
a) The resolution for the impeachment proposal must be signed by at least 2/3 of the members present in the house.
b) The Rajya Sabha cannot initiate the proceeding of impeachment against the President.
c)
The house investigating the charges, must pass the resolution by 2/3 majority to sustain the impeachment
proceeding.
d) The President may or may not be given opportunity to represent himself.
Q 79. 30630558 What would happen if the house does not hold any vote regarding the charges, after investigation?
a) The President would be automatically impeached.
b) The charges would be lapsed and the entire proceeding would have to be initiated again.
c) The votes of the other house would be considered as final.
d) The President would be acquitted of all the charges.
Q 80. 30630558 What is the role of the President during the investigation?
a) The President has the right to be represented during the investigation.

b) The President must be given leave during the period of investigation.
c) The President must give the responsibility to the Chief Justice of India.
d) The President should retire from the office.
Disclaimer
Passage – 4
In usual parlance, a person is held to be liable only if he or she has personally committed a crime. Detouring from the
usual concept, the concept of Abetment says, that he who has helped the criminal or provided him with any
assistance in any form can also be held to be liable. It signifies help, co-activity and support and incorporates within
its ambit, illegitimate reason to commit the crime. So as to bring an individual abetting the doing of a thing under any
of the conditions specified under Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code, it isn't just important to demonstrate that the
individual who has abetted has participated in the means of the transactions yet additionally has been associated with
those means of the transaction which are criminal. Abetment is constituted by: Instigating a person to commit an
offence; or Engaging in a conspiracy to commit it; or Intentionally aiding a person to commit it. The offense of
abetment by instigation relies on the intention of the individual who abets and not upon the act which is finished by
the individual who has abetted. The abetment might be by instigation, connivance or purposeful aid as given under
Section 107 of the Indian Penal Code However, the words articulated in an angry state or omission without any
intention cannot be termed as instigation. For an individual to be called liable for Abetment, and so as to proceed
against an individual for a criminal offense under Section 107, prosecution must claim the component of mens rea.
Negligence or carelessness can't be named to be abetment in order to punish the liable, according to the
arrangement of penal laws.
Q 81. 30630558 A and B entered D's house to kill him and steal all the precious items in his house. B was asked to
wait outside and inform in case of any danger to their plan. A went inside the house with a knife in his hand, which
was brought by B and given to A. Later both A and B were caught by the police. A was held liable for murder and B for
abetment. Decide.
a) B is liable for abetment, because he brought the knife with the knowledge that it would be used to kill D.
b) B is liable for abetment; because he assisted A is executing the entire plan.
c) B is not liable for abetment, because when A committed murder, B was outside the house.
d) B is not liable for abetment, because B was not aware that A would use the knife to kill D.
Q 82. 30630558 P had a grudge against Q because he pranked P the other day. One day, P and Q along with P's
brother R went to a jungle. They played outdoor games. In one such game P had hit R, being aware that it might hurt
Q as well. Meanwhile R lost his balance and accidently pushed Q into the well nearby. Q sustained injury. R was
accused for abetment. Decide.
a) R is not liable for abetment, because he did not had any grudge against Q.
b) R is not liable for abetment, because he did not had the intention to push Q into the well.
c) R is liable for abetment, because due to his action Q sustained injuries.
d) R is liable for abetment, because he lost his balance.
Q 83. 30630558 G was the driver of H. One day, H had to go out for some important work, so he called G to drive
him to the place. As H was getting late, he asked G to drive the car as fast as possible. So, he drove the car at a high
speed in a very disorderly manner due to which one of the pedestrian got hurt. He sued H for abetment. Decide.
a) H is not liable for abetment, because he was not driving the car.
b) H is not liable for abetment, because he had an important work.
c) H is liable because he did not stop G from rash driving.

d) H is liable because he is the owner of the car.
Q 84. 30630558 Which of the following is false regarding the essential for the crime of abetment?
a) Instigating a person to commit a crime is a form of abetment.
b) A person who has engaged with someone to commit an offence would be liable for abetment.
c) If an individual with intention, aids an offender in committing a crime, then he would be liable for abetment.
d) Mens rea is irrelevant for imposing liability of abetment.
Q 85. 30630558 Which of the following is true regarding the crime of abetment?
a) A person could be held liable for a crime only if he has done the offence personally.
b) If an individual commits an offence due to incitement, then he is liable for abetment.
c) Intention of an individual would be of relevance only if the offence committed is grave.
d) Words articulated in an angry state without any intention would result in abetment.
Disclaimer
Passage – 5
"A contract cannot be enforced by a person who is not a party to it even though it is made for his benefit. He is a
'stranger to the contract' and can claim no right under it. This is known as the doctrine of Privity of Contract. A
stranger or a person who is not a party to a contract can sue on a contract in the following cases:
Trust: If a contract is made between the trustee of a trust and another party, then the beneficiary of the trust can sue
by enforcing his right under the trust, even if he is a stranger to the contract.
Family Settlement: If a contract is made under a family arrangement to benefit a stranger (person not a party to the
contract), then the stranger can sue in his own right as a beneficiary of the contract.
Assignment of a Contract: If a contract is made for the benefit of a person, then he can sue upon the contract even
though he is not a party to the agreement. It is important to note here that nominees of a life insurance policy do not
have this right.
Acknowledgement or Estoppel: If a contract requires that a party pays a certain amount to a third-party and he/she
acknowledges it, then it becomes a binding obligation for the party to pay the third-party. The acknowledgment can
also be implied.
A covenant running with the land: When a person purchases a piece of land with the notice that the owner of the land
will be bound by all duties and liabilities affecting the land, then he can sue upon a contract between the previous
land-owner and a settler even if he was not a party to the contract.
Contract through an agent: If a person enters into a contract through an agent, where the agent acts within the scope
of his authority and in the name of the person (principal).
Q 86. 30630558 A was the owner of the house, which was later sold to B on the condition that he would devote a part
of the house for religious purpose. B leased the house to C, who did not abide by the condition of maintaining a
religious purpose in the house. A sued C for breach of contract. C claimed that he was not party to the contract, thus
cannot be held liable. Decide.
a) C can be held liable, because it was a covenant running with the land.
b) C can be held liable, because it was an estoppel with the house.
c) C cannot be held liable, because he was not the party to the contract.
d) C cannot be held liable, because the rule of privity of contract would apply.
Q 87. 30630558 R and T entered a contract wherein, T was to drop S's child to school every day, in return of some
monthly charges. One day, T forgot to drop S's child to the school, S sued him for the breach of contract. T claimed
that S is stranger to the contract and thus cannot sue him. Decide.
a) S can sue T for the breach of contract because it concerns his child.
b) S can sue T for the breach of contract, because S is the beneficiary of the contract.
c) S cannot sue T for the breach of contract, because R had instructed T for the work.
d) S cannot sue T for the breach of contract, because the child is the beneficiary.
Q 88. 30630558 H leased his property to K, and promised him that woodwork would be completed before K would
shift in the house. However, when K shifted, some work was still left. A day after K moving in the house , L shifted to
the neighbourhood. L was annoyed with the constant sound of the wood work going on K's land. L came to know
about the promise made by H and sued him for the breach. Decide.
a) L can sue H because the sound from the wood work is a nuisance for L.
b) L can sue H because he is a beneficiary to the contract between H and K.
c) L cannot sue H because he is stranger to the contract.
d) L cannot sue H because he is being over sensitive in the given matter.
Q 89. 30630558 Which of the following statement is correct in reference to beneficiary of a contract?
a) Beneficiary of the contract cannot sue unless the benefit is pecuniary in nature.
b) Beneficiary of the contract is by default a party to the contract.
c) Beneficiary of the contract could be any person who draws benefit from the contract.
d) Beneficiary of the contract is the person who is intended to get the benefit from the contract.
Q 90. 30630558 Which of the following is incorrect with regards the exceptions to the rule of privity of contract?
a)
If a person buys a property, then he bound by the rights and liabilities of it, and could be sued by the stranger of the
contract if he does not abide by them.
b) If a party acknowledges that he is to do something for a stranger and fails to do so, then the stranger can sue him.
c) If a contract is entered into for the benefit of a stranger, then he could sue for the breach.
d) Familial settlement has no value in law, and thus cannot be sued upon, even if it benefits a stranger.
Disclaimer
Passage – 6
According to Winfield and Jolowicz, Negligence is the breach of a legal duty of care by the plaintiff which results in
undesired damage to the plaintiff.
Essentials of negligence
To commit the tort of negligence, there are primarily 6 main essentials that are required. An act will be categorized as
negligence only if, all the conditions are satisfied namely -
1. Duty Of Care: It is one of the essential conditions of negligence in order to make the person liable. It means that
every person owes, a duty of care, to another person while performing an act. Although this duty exists in all acts, but
in negligence, the duty is legal in nature and cannot be illegal or unlawful and also cannot be of moral, ethical or
religious nature.
2. The Duty must be towards the plaintiff: A duty arises when the law recognizes a relationship between the defendant
and the plaintiff and requires the defendant to act in a certain manner toward the plaintiff. It is not sufficient that the
defendant owed a duty of care towards the plaintiff but it must also be established which is usually determined by the
judge.
3. Breach of Duty to take care: It's not enough for a plaintiff to prove that the defendant owed him a duty of care but
he must also establish that the defendant breached his duty to the plaintiff. A defendant breaches such a duty by
failing to exercise reasonable care in fulfilling the duty.
4. Actual cause or cause in fact: In this scenario, the plaintiff who is suing the defendant for negligence has the
liability to prove is that the defendant's violation of duty was the actual cause of the damages incurred by him. This is
often called the "but-for" causation which means that, but for the defendant's actions, the plaintiff would not have
incurred the damages.
5. Proximate cause: Proximate cause means "legal cause," or the cause that the law recognizes as the primary cause
of the injury. It may not be the first event that set in motion a sequence of events that led to an injury, and it may not
be the very last event before the injury occurs. Instead, it is an action that produced foreseeable consequences
without intervention from anyone else. A defendant in a negligence case is only responsible for those damages that
the defendant could have foreseen through: It should also be proved that the failure of the defendant to exercise
reasonable care resulted in damages to the plaintiff to whom the defendant owed a duty of care. The harm may fall
into the following classes:- (a) Bodily harm (b) Harm to the reputation (c) Harm to property (d) Financial Loss (e)
Mental Harm.
Q 91. 30630558 A was a prominent fast bowler of the XYZ cricket team. During one of his matches, he went to take a
long run up to throw a speedy delivery. However, the sole of his shoes came out during the run up. A chose to ignore
that, which resulted him in losing his balance. As a result, the ball went on hitting the batsman's helmet. Strangely, the
helmet broke into two pieces, and caused severe injury to the batsman. Pick the most suitable option, given that the
helmets are usually capable of sustaining deliveries with even a higher pace than what A bowled.
a) A is liable because he negligently ignored the fact that his sole is not in a proper condition.
b) A is not liable because the consequence was not reasonably foreseeable.
c) A is not liable because the batsman himself gave the consent to such deliveries.
d) A is liable because the batsman sustained heavy injury.
Q 92. 30630558 Which of these statements is not true as per the passage?
a) The act shall be the first event towards the damage to make a case of negligence.
b) Breach of duty is sufficient to make a case of negligence.
c) The duty shall be recognisable by the law, towards the plaintiff.
d) More than of the above options.
Q 93. 30630558 Masur was a cricket enthusiast. He went to watch a match between India and Australia. Over there,
he got into an altercation with a security guard. The security guard took out his pistol angrily. Although he did not
intend to shoot, he lost his balance and pulled the trigger mistakenly. Masur dodged the bullet, but became extremely
scared due to the entire incident. He fainted on spot, owing to the severe mental strain. Now, he wishes to sue the
security guard for negligently handling his gun. Pick the most suitable option.
a) The security guard is liable under negligence because he caused mental injury to Masur.
b) The security guard is not liable because no real harm was caused to Masur.
c) The security guard is liable because he should have been more careful in handling his gun.
d) The security guard is not liable because he lost his balance unintentionally.
Q 94. 30630558 A and B were two coworkers, who were completing the finishing work for the recently constructed
road. They were covering one segment each, wherein they were supposed to fill potholes. Both A and B left for their
houses after work, but forgot to cover the potholes. C, a passerby, was crossing the road at night. Hence, he fell into
one of the potholes which was supposed to be covered by A. Now, he wishes to sue A for negligence, which resulted
in physical harm to himself. In defence, A stated that his act was not the cause for this incident. Had it not been this
pothole, he would have fallen into the one left open by B. Now, decide if C can impose the liability on A.
a) A is liable, since all the prerequisites of negligence are met.
b) A is not liable because the incident fails but-for test.
c) A is liable because he was negligent in keeping the potholes open.
d) A is not liable because C himself was careless.
Q 95. 30630558 A was passing by a park, wherein B was sprinkling some pesticides. Due to the proximity, a small
amount of pesticides got stuck on A's skin. Although this didn't affect A in any way, the pesticides caused infection to
A's kid, when A lifted him up right after reaching home. Now, A wishes to sue B for the damage caused to his child,
which is a result of B's act. Decide upon B's liability, under the concept of negligence as explained in the passage.
a) B is liable for his negligence because he failed to exercise due care.
b) B is not liable because he did not have a duty of care towards the child.
c) B is not liable because he never came in physical contact with the child.
d) B is liable because he caused damage to the child.
Disclaimer
Passage – 7
The doctrine of Res Judicata has been defined in Section 11 of the Civil Procedure Code. The doctrine of the Res
Judicata means the matter is already judged. It means that no court will have the power to try any fresh suit or issues
which has been already settled in the former suit between the same parties. Also, the court will not try the suits and
issue between those parties under whom the same parties are litigating under the same title and matter are already
been judged and decided by the competent court.
An issue of fact or an issue of mixed law and fact decided by a competent court is finally determined between the
parties and cannot be re-opened between them in another proceeding. However, a decision on an issue of law will be
as res judicata in a subsequent proceeding between the same parties only if:
• The cause of action of the subsequent proceeding be the same as in the previous proceeding
• When the law has since the earlier decision not been altered by a competent authority,
• When the decision doesn't relate to the jurisdiction of the Court to try the earlier proceeding,
• The earlier decision doesn't declare a transaction valid which is prohibited by law.
Before granting a decree of Red Judicata following conditions should be satisfied first:
• There must be two suits one former (previously decided) suit and the other subsequent suit.
• Parties of the former and subsequent suit or the parties under whom they or any of them claim should be the same.
• The subject matter of the subsequent suit should be identical or related to the Former suit either actually or
constructively.
• The case must be finally decided between the parties.
• The court of competent jurisdictions should decide the former suit.
• Parties in the former as well as in Subsequent suit must have litigated under the same title.
Some exceptions to the Plea of Res Judicata:

• Judgment in original suit obtained by the fraud
• When the previous Special Leave Petition is dismissed
• A different cause of action
• When there is Interlocutory Order
• When there is a change in Law
Q 96. 30630558 Which of the following statements would not form an important consideration while deciding upon
the applicability of res judicata?
a) The case must be decided upon previously.
b) The judgment shall not be based upon a biased opinion.
c) The judgment shall not have been obtained by unfair means.

d) The subject matter of the new suit shall not be identical to the previous one.
Q 97. 30630558 M had earlier accused N of killing his wife L, but the case was dismissed on the basis of insufficient
evidence to substantiate the claim made my M. Now, M gathered several testimonies and forensic samples in the
course of next one year. After this, he again filed a suit, this time with sufficient evidence to show that N was guilty of
L's murder. However, N claims that the competent court has already decided upon the same issue, and thereby
attracts the principle of res judicata. Pick the most suitable option.
a) Res judicata is applicable since the issue was already decided upon by the court.
b) Res judicata is applicable because the parties and issues are similar to the previous suit.
c) Res judicata is not applicable since the matter was not decided upon finally.
d) Res judicata is not applicable since the cause of action is different altogether.
Q 98. 30630558 X was being summoned by the disciplinary board of the company wherein he was employed as a
software engineer. The decision went against him, and he was being suspended for a period of six months. However,
X was of the opinion that he was completely innocent , and hence he went on approaching the district court for the
same. In defence, the disciplinary board stated that the matter has already been adjudged, and res judicata bars any
further trial. What would be the most appropriate response?
a) Res judicata is applicable since the board has already given its decision.
b) Res judicata is not applicable.
c) Res judicata is applicable since the board was competent to decide upon the issue.
d) Res judicata is not applicable because X filed a suit with malicious intention.
Q 99. 30630558 A and B once entered into a dispute over the sale of land. The suit was decided in favour of A. A
couple of years later, A and B again entered into a dispute over a new property which was being constructed by A.
Now, B wishes to file a suit in the court, since he feels that he has a strong case. However, A is not worried because
he will be claiming for res judicata, since the court has earlier decided upon the property dispute between them.
Based on your understanding of the passage, pick the most suitable option.
a) A is correct, since the court has decided upon the property dispute earlier.
b) A is not correct, since the cause of action is different altogether.
c) A is correct, since the court had competence in the matter previously.
d) A is not correct, since they are filing the case under new titles.
Q 100. 30630558 Amish and Vimish were fighting against each other in a lawsuit concerning the ownership of a
specific property. The same was decided by the court of competent jurisdiction in favour of Amish. After a couple of
years, Vimish's son got to know certain crucial information about the property, and hence filed a suit to acquire the
ownership of the same. Amish, in defence, claims res judicata in this case as the ownership of the property has
already been decided upon. Pick the most suitable option.
a) Res judicata is not applicable in this case since there can be a question on the competency of the court.
b) Res judicata is applicable in this case since the ownership of the same property is being deliberated upon.
c) Res judicata is not applicable in this case as the parties are different.
d) Res judicata is applicable in this case as the original judgement might have been obtained by fraud.
Disclaimer
Passage – 8
Section 2(a) of the Contempt of Court Act, 1971 states Civil Contempt as wilful disobedience to the order, decree,
direction, any judgment or writ of the Court by any person or willfully breach of undertakings by a person given to a
Court. Since Civil Contempt deprives a party of the benefit for which the order was made so these are the offences
essential of private nature. In other words, a person who is entitled to get the benefit of the court order, this wrong is
generally done to this person.
A person who is accused of Civil Contempt of case can take the following defences:
• Lack of Knowledge of the order: A person can not be held liable for Contempt of Court if he does not know the order
given by the court or he claims to be unaware of the order. There is a duty binding on the successful party by the
courts that the order that has passed should be served to the Individual by the post or personally or through the
certified copy. It can be successfully pleaded by the contemner that the certified copy of the order was not formally
served to him.
• The disobedience or the breach done should not be : If someone is pleading under this defence then he can say
that the act done by him was not done willfully, it was just a mere accident or he/she can say that it is beyond their
control. But this plead can only be successful if it found to be reasonable otherwise your plead can be discarded.
• The order that has disobeyed should be vague or ambiguous: If the order passed by the court is vague or
ambiguous or this order is not specific or complete in itself then a person can get the defence of contempt if he says
something against that order.
• Orders involve more than one reasonable interpretation: If the contempt of any order declared by the court and the
order seems to be given more than one reasonable and rational interpretation and the respondent adopts one of
those interpretations and works in accordance with that then he will not be liable for Contempt of Court.
• Command of the order is impossible: If compliance of the order is impossible or it can not be done easily then it
would be taken as a defence in the case of Contempt of Court. However, one should differentiate the case of
impossibility with the case of mere difficulties. Because this defence can be given only in the case of the impossibility
of doing an order.
Q 101. 30630558 Which of the following is not an essential point that shall be considered while deciding upon the
aspect of civil contempt?
a) The order has the scope of being interpreted in multiple ways.
b) The court has not clearly defined the scope of its order or the terms involved.
c) The court has not sent a written notice to the party involved for compliance towards the order.
d) More than one of the following options is correct.
Q 102. 30630558 M and N were involved in a divorce suit, wherein M was ordered to pay Rs. 20,000 per month to N
for her expenses. M started paying the same, but he soon realised that this is not allowing him to save over Rs.
25,000 per month from his salary. Hence, he stopped paying the money. N went on filing a suit for M's disobedience
of the court's order. In response, M claims that it is impossible for him to obey the order, considering his financial
condition. Based on your understanding of the passage, pick the most appropriate response.
a) M is not liable because it is impossible for him to obey the order.
b) M is liable because there is no such impossibility involved.
c) M is not liable because his financial status isn't allowing him to pay the money.
d) M is liable because he should have spoken to N about the same.
Q 103. 30630558 X and Y were involved in a dispute, which occurred because of X mishandling Y's money (which
amounted to the entire savings of Y). The suit was decided in favour of Y, and X was directed to pay for the expenses
of Y in the near future, till the time he attains stability. X started paying money to Y on a monthly basis. Recently, Y
has secured a high-paying job, and hence X stopped sending him money. Y was aggrieved from the same, and
approached the court for holding X liable for not complying with the court's order. Pick the most suitable option.
a) X is liable since he was directed to keep paying money to Y.
b) X is not liable because Y has secured a decent job.
c) X is not liable because the order was ambiguous.
d) X is liable because he should have informed the court about stopping the monthly allowance.
Q 104. 30630558 A (owner) and B (tenant) were involved in a property dispute upon some false documents
produced by B. It shall be noted that the property was jointly owned by C as well (who was settled in another country).
The suit was decided upon in favour of A, and it was held by the court that both the owners should conduct a
thorough examination of the documents held by all their tenants and submit the findings within a week. A forgot the
deadline of submission, as well as informing C about the same. Now, the court is of the opinion that this is a civil
contempt. Pick the most suitable option to decide upon the liability of C.
a) This is a civil contempt since A has not obeyed the court's order.
b) This is not a civil contempt, because there was no knowledge about the same to the concerned person.
c) This is a civil contempt because C was ought to be aware of the court's order.
d) This is not a civil contempt because B did not inform C about the court's order.
Q 105. 30630558 Ajay was recently involved in a matrimonial dispute, wherein the court held that he shall give an
allowance of Rs. 15,000 to his wife every month, on the first day of that month itself. He started paying the same to
his wife after the suit was settled. However during a particular month, he was extremely caught up with work and
hence forgot to send the money to his wife. His wife got angry and filed a suit against him for disobeying the court's
order. Decide upon the aspect of civil contempt in this case.
a) This is a civil contempt since Ajay has not obeyed the court's order.
b) This is not a civil contempt since he did not willfully act in that manner.
c) This is a civil contempt since he should have been careful about the compliance of the order.
d) This is not a civil contempt since there is no court order disobedience.
Logical Reasoning
Direction for questions 106 to 135: Read the following passages and answer the questions that follow.
Passage – 1
The UN refugee agency, the UNHCR, has come down strongly on the U.K. Prime Minister Rishi Sunak’s plan to pass
a new “Illegal Migration Law” that effectively stops the granting of asylum to migrants who reach the U.K. illegally. Mr.
Sunak, while standing at a dais marked “Stop the Boats”, said the government is worried about the numbers of those
attempting to travel to the U.K. and applying for asylum while on British soil, at considerable cost to the exchequer.
Instead, as Home Secretary Suella Braverman explained while introducing the Bill this week, asylum seekers who try
to enter illegally would either be returned to their own countries or a “third country”, presumably Rwanda, that has
entered into an agreement to provide processing facilities for them. They also face a lifetime ban on citizenship and
re-entry to the U.K. According to the UNHCR, the law would contravene international laws, including the 1951
Refugee Convention that Britain is a signatory to. To start with, those who flee their homes and countries often do so
without proper paperwork, as they are forced to leave to save their lives. Many of the estimated 45,000 who came to
the U.K. on “small boats” last year would have been economic refugees rather than political asylum seekers, and it is
problematic that the British government does not make a distinction between the two. The Bill makes exceptions for
those arriving directly from the countries they are fleeing, but those would be a small proportion given the short
distances “small boats” could travel. The British government, much like the U.S.’s Trump administration that latched
on to the equally catchy “Build That Wall” slogan, is long on political rhetoric, but short on the actual mechanics of
making such a plan work, if it fails to be a deterrent to small boats bringing in migrants. In addition, the plan to
transport asylum seekers to a third country, apart from sounding neo-colonial, will also come at considerable cost,
one that the hapless migrants are unlikely to be able to afford.
The British move is meant to stop the small boats, but must be seen in the larger political context of anti-immigrant
and xenophobic beliefs gaining salience in other democracies. While western countries have long quoted
international law and convention to India on its plan to forcibly deport Rohingya refugees to Myanmar, or to
discriminate on the basis of religion in the Citizenship (Amendment) Act, they must also introspect on their message
to the world by enacting such laws themselves. By rejecting asylum seekers and illegal immigrants, nearly all of
whom are coming to their shores by braving unsafe routes in search of a better life, they also belittle the real
contributions immigrants have made to their societies, including those like the parents of Mr. Sunak and Ms.
Braverman, who made their journey from Africa during more welcoming times.
Q 106. 30630558 Which of the following titles best describes the passage?
a) The Dangers of Illegal Migration

b) Stop the Boats: A Flawed Anti-Immigrant Plan
c) The Politics of Xenophobia in the Western World
d) The Contradiction in Western Countries’ Approach to Immigration
Q 107. 30630558 Which of the following is most likely true if the author’s statements in the passage are true?
a) The UN refugee agency supports the UK Prime Minister’s plan to pass a new “Illegal Migration Law.”
b) The British government does not differentiate between economic and political asylum seekers.
c)
Rejecting asylum seekers and illegal immigrants does not belittle the real contributions immigrants have made to their
societies.
d) Anti-immigrant and xenophobic beliefs are gaining salience in other democracies.
Q 108. 30630558 Which of the following can be a possible implication from the information present in the passage?
a) The British government is justified in passing the Illegal Migration Law to protect their economy and resources.
b)
The British government’s plan to transport asylum seekers to a third country might be an expensive and colonial
practice.
c) The UNHCR’s criticism of the Illegal Migration Law will have no effect on the British government’s decision.
d)
The issue of illegal migration and asylum seekers is unique to the U.K. and does not concern other western
democracies.
Q 109. 30630558 Which of the following has been used by the author to support his claims in the passage?
a) Personal anecdotes and opinions b) Statistics and data
c) Quotations from political figures d) Examples and facts from current events
Q 110. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
a)
Research shows that the majority of those who reach the UK illegally are economic refugees rather than political
asylum seekers.
b) The UK has a history of welcoming immigrants who have made significant contributions to society.
c)
The UNHCR has condemned the UK’s proposed Illegal Migration Law, stating that it violates international laws and
conventions.
d) The cost of transporting asylum seekers to a third country for processing is likely to be prohibitively high.
Q 111. 30630558 Which of the following statements would be the best illustration of the role of empathy in the
context of the passage?
a) “Empathy is overrated and has no place in politics.”
b) “The British government’s plan to reject asylum seekers and illegal immigrants lacks empathy.”
c) “The UNHCR’s criticism of the UK’s plan is an overreaction.”
d) “Political decisions should be made solely on the basis of economic considerations.”
Passage – 2
For the better part of the past four decades, the Forest Survey of India’s State of Forest Reports have shown a steady
increase in the country’s forests. The report of the latest survey released last year, for instance, showed that the
country added more than 1,500 sq km of forest between 2019 and 2021. But experts have maintained that these
reports are not satisfactory indicators of ecological health. The area under plantations has gone up while the country
has consistently lost good forests in the past three decades. Now, an investigation by this newspaper in association
with the International Consortium of Investigative Journalists (ICIJ) has revealed that bungalows of ministers and
senior officers, the Reserve Bank of India building and parts of the campuses of AIIMS and IIT in Delhi are classified
as “forests” in official maps. It shines a light on the ambiguities and grey areas that could prevent the country’s
afforestation programme from achieving its potential.
Forest restoration is critical to India’s climate goals. The country has committed to creating an additional sink of 2.5
billion to 3 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide equivalent by increasing its forest cover. This would require it to increase
its forest cover by about 25 million hectares in the next seven years. Plantations grow fast and on paper, they can
help attain carbon targets more quickly. But trees in such green patches are also cut down more frequently. Moreover,
plantations are mostly monocultures that are no substitute for biodiverse ecosystems. They are susceptible to fires,
pests and epidemics and often act as a barrier to natural forest regeneration.
In the last 10 years, more than 1,600 square km of forest land has been cleared for infrastructure or industrial projects
— nearly a third of this has been diverted in the past three years. But the government has also embarked on a
number of afforestation programmes. In 2016, it made it incumbent on developers to offset the loss of forests due to
developmental projects and initiated the Compensatory Afforestation Programme (CAP). The investigation shows that
large sums of money deposited in the afforestation fund are lying unused. Funds are, however, just one part of CAP’s
problem. The programme’s plantation-centred approach means that compensatory afforestation takes place in
discontinuous patches — the new green tracts are a far cry from the dense forests they are meant to replace. The
government’s reluctance to reveal the granular data of the country’s forest cover means that such anomalies rarely
come to light. The key takeaway of the investigation is that the government needs to be more transparent in the way it
maps the country’s forests.
Q 112. 30630558 Which of the following statements would the author of the passage most likely agree with?
a) The Forest Survey of India’s State of Forest Reports provide an accurate picture of the country’s ecological health.
b) Plantations are the best way to achieve India’s afforestation goals quickly.
c) The current Compensatory Afforestation Programme (CAP) is an effective way to replace lost forests.
d) The government needs to be more transparent in the way it maps the country’s forests.
Q 113. 30630558 Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would help in increasing the
afforestation in India?
a) Encouraging the planting of monoculture plantations.
b) Increasing the funding for the Compensatory Afforestation Programme (CAP).
c) Providing incentives to industries that use sustainable practices.
d) Continuing to divert forest land for infrastructure and industrial projects.
Q 114. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
a)
The Indian government has implemented several successful afforestation programmes in the past decade, resulting
in a significant increase in forest cover.
b)
Plantation forests can also support a variety of wildlife species and can contribute to the restoration of degraded land.
c)
India’s economy heavily relies on industrial and infrastructural development, which often requires clearing forest land.
d) The Indian government has recently increased transparency in its forest mapping and monitoring processes.
Q 115. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most strengthen the author’s arguments?
a) Many countries around the world have launched successful afforestation programs in the recent past.
b)
The Indian government has promised to provide financial assistance to farmers who want to plant trees on their land.
c)
A recent study found that the increase in forest cover in India has been accompanied by an increase in biodiversity.
d) The Indian government has not been able to achieve its target of afforestation 33% of the country’s land.
Q 116. 30630558 Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following must necessarily be true?
a) Plantations are not useful for biodiversity but can help in achieving carbon targets faster.
b) The government has successfully increased India’s forest cover by 25 million hectares in the last seven years.
c) The Forest Survey of India’s State of Forest Reports are reliable indicators of ecological health.
d) The Compensatory Afforestation Programme (CAP) has effectively replaced dense forests with new green tracts.
Q 117. 30630558 What is a suitable metaphorical title for the passage?
a) The Elusive Greenery: India’s Forest Cover Conundrum
b) Planting Trees: India’s Race Towards Carbon Neutrality

c) Smoke and Mirrors: The Illusion of India’s Afforestation Programmes
d) Progress at the Cost of Nature: India’s Infrastructure and Industrial Development
Passage – 3
Israel’s PM Netanyahu on Monday said his government will pause its effort to pass laws that would have allowed the
legislature to override the Supreme Court with a simple majority. Israel, a parliamentary democracy without a written
constitution, is fractured between supporters and opponents of the Netanyahu government’s attempt to make the
judiciary subservient to the legislature and political executive. These developments will echo in many other
democracies. If there’s a perennial challenge common to them, it’s the system of checks and balances. Or the
doctrine of separation of powers between the legislature, executive and judiciary.
Constitutions by their nature confine themselves largely to principles. It’s for the legislature to use this framework to
design laws that reflect popular will. However, a democracy’s system of checks and balances to prevent abuse of
power means that laws can be scrutinised by the judiciary to see if they are consistent with the constitution. This
judicial review is the source of friction and is often portrayed as a battle between popular will and an unelected elite.
India’s very first constitutional amendment in 1951 introduced the ninth schedule to shield some laws from judicial
review. Across democracies, time and again, the power of judicial review is the locus of dispute between legislature
and judiciary.
Separation of powers is intrinsic to a democracy. In its absence, power is concentrated, undermining the very idea of
a democracy. India’s basic structure doctrine evolved through the working of the Constitution over two decades as
successive governments, backed by a legislative majority, tested the boundaries of the system of checks and
balances. The basic structure doctrine provides the guardrails to safeguard democracy. However, to posit frustration
with this doctrine as a clash between popular will and obstructionism of the unelected is incorrect. Legislatures rarely
display unanimity on this issue.
The one recent occasion when they did in India was in clearing a constitutional amendment, NJAC, to break down the
judiciary’s unjustifiable monopoly over its appointments and transfers. However, NJAC, as Bibek Debroy has argued
on this page, was poorly drafted. Critical aspects were loosely worded. GoI should take the initiative to build a
consensus and come up with a tighter constitutional amendment. However, the friction between the judiciary and
legislature is unlikely to end anywhere. It’s not a bug in a democratic system. Rather, it’s a sign that power is not
concentrated.
Q 118. 30630558 Which of the following can be correctly inferred from the passage?
a) The basic legislative doctrine provides the guardrails to safeguard democracy,
b) The friction between the judiciary and legislature is likely to end by constitutional amendment.
c) The recent constitutional amendment, NJAC, would have had some impact if it had not been poorly framed.
d) A democracy cannot sustain without distribution of power among the three organs of the democracy.
Q 119. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would least weaken the author’s argument in the third paragraph:
‘Separation of powers is … provides the guardrails to safeguard democracy’?
a)
While the separation of powers is important for a democracy, it is not the only factor that determines the success of a
democratic system.
b)
In India, despite the basic structure doctrine, there have been instances of the government trying to undermine
democratic institutions such as the judiciary and the press.
c)
Democratic institutions can be influenced by various factors, such as corruption, and self-interest, which can
undermine democracy even in the presence of a system of checks and balances.
d) All of these
Q 120. 30630558 All of the following are true as per the passage, except:
a) Separation of powers is not necessary for a democracy to function effectively.
b) India’s basic structure doctrine has been successful in safeguarding democracy.

c) The power struggle between the legislature and judiciary is a sign of a healthy democracy.
d) India’s judiciary has an unjustifiable monopoly over its appointments and transfers.
Q 121. 30630558 Which of the following does not call the author’s support for ‘checks and balances in a democracy’
into question?
a)
When each branch of government has equal power and no branch can act unilaterally, it can be difficult to get things
done quickly and efficiently.
b)
When different branches of government are controlled by different political parties or factions, decisions can become
motivated more by politics than by the public interest.
c)
When different branches of government are responsible for different aspects of governance, it can be difficult to hold
any one branch accountable for mistakes or failures.
d)
By distributing power among different branches of a democratic government, a democracy can help ensure that
decisions are made in the best interests of the people.
Q 122. 30630558 Which of the following is true about Israel’s PM Netanyahu and his government?
a) Netanyahu has led a diplomatic course with regards to the powers of the judiciary.
b) Netanyahu had to retract his decision to make the judiciary subservient to the legislature.
c) Netanyahu has had a bitter relationship with the judicial body of Israel right from the start of his tenure.
d) Netanyahu doesn’t have much acceptance as a PM among the people of Israel.
Q 123. 30630558 Which of the following is an assumption made by the author in the given passage?
a) Judicial reviews always fall flat in the face of citizens of a democratic country.
b) India’s constitutional amendment in 1951 was not the first such amendment in world history.
c) Judiciary and legislature, in a democracy, remain at loggerheads most of the time.
d)
The system of appointments of judges and other government officials in the judiciary delegate judges authority to act
independently.
Passage – 4
To say that the university is now in crisis worldwide is to invoke a cliché. But the crises in India and the Anglo-
American West are not only different but, in some strange ways, complementary. Many universities in the United
States of America are haunted by declining student enrolments and skyrocketing tuition fees, while their counterparts
in England and Wales fret about the diminishing value of domestic student fees. By contrast, India, with an exploding
youth population and a traditionally State-sponsored higher education system with low tuition fees, suffers from a
serious problem of quality control. The relatively recent entry of private universities has, for the most part, brought
high tuition to the table without significantly raising quality, as most of them, barring a few exceptions, are
unrelentingly profit-seeking enterprises. Highly uneven and inconsistent research cultures and pedagogical
consciousness shape education of indifferent quality, particularly as one moves beyond the big cities.
On the face of it, then, the prospect of foreign universities coming to India seems like a win-win. First announced in
the new National Education Policy unveiled in 2020, the lifting of the ban on foreign branch campuses in India offers
Indian students the opportunity to tap into international quality and for Western universities to tap into India’s vast
higher education market. I mention the US and the UK as they are still the most coveted academic destinations for
most Indian students, but the case can be extended, with some modification, to other anglophone countries, such as
Australia, New Zealand and Canada.
But the mathematics rarely adds up easily in the real world. A quick look at overseas campuses of major American
universities shows that most of the funding, if not all, has come from local partners, be it the government or private
players from the particular regions. The universities have provided some of the academic resources, and most
importantly, a brand that has sold in the region, usually for a high price. It is unlikely that the Indian government will
ever underwrite such expenses to support foreign university campuses, and only marginally more likely that private
stakeholders will do so.
India, for instance, has no philanthropic bodies such as the Qatar Foundation, a semi-private, non-profit foundation,
which has established local campuses of several international universities, including Virginia Commonwealth
University, Texas A&M University, Carnegie Mellon University, Georgetown University School of Foreign Service, HEC
Paris, and University College London, all of them located in the larger campus of the foundation, Education City, in
Doha. However, the closure of UCL Qatar in 2020 attests to the fact that recent years have seen a withering of
enthusiasm for branch campuses, even in the rich Gulf region, amid management challenges and scant financial
returns. Partnerships with local universities in East Asia have seen some more success — such as DukeKunshan, a
partnership between Duke and Wuhan universities, and NYUShanghai, from the collaboration between New York and
East China Normal universities.
Q 124. 30630558 Which of the following is the author most likely to agree with?
a) Qatar has shown an unconditional inclination towards betterment of education.
b) India lacks the student quality to effectively encourage international universities to invest here.
c) Private venture into the education system in India is motivated by profiteering.
d) India’s education system will receive a positive overhaul with privatization.
Q 125. 30630558 Based on the author’s arguments, which of the following, if true, would make international
universities operating in India successful?
a) Public and private players invest heavily in international education.
b) By offering land to the campuses without making them go through gruelling paperwork.
c)
By mandating corporate bodies to undertake the financial burden of international education under social
responsibility.
d) Indian universities partnering with foreign universities.
Q 126. 30630558 Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s arguments?
a)
International campuses opening in India must be asked to pay higher taxes so that the government can help them in
the long run,
b)
The Indian government has signed an MOU with foreign universities, promising financial backing in a public-private
partnership model.
c) Foreign universities and corporate houses should tie up for mutual benefits.
d) Private players should use the infrastructure available in foreign universities and in return aid them financially.
Q 127. 30630558 Which of the following is an effective way of making Indian private universities up their quality?
a) The government ensures a minimum standard and incentivizes them on better performances.
b) Encouraging expats to invest in private universities.
c) By creating charitable trusts that can help private universities financially.
d) Doing away with outdated courses and focusing on technical skills suited for the global market.
Q 128. 30630558 Which of the following is the author most likely to disagree with?
a) Foreign universities partnering with local universities can be fruitful.
b) The universities of the US are suffering from diminishing student populations.
c) Funding universities for excellence has been India’s forte.
d) Indian students majorly look at English speaking nations for foreign studies.
Q 129. 30630558 Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome of what the author describes as
mathematics not adding up?
a)
Indians seeking quality education in foreign land will receive the same when those universities open up their
campuses here.
b) Western universities believe that they will get quality students from India.
c) State sponsored education receiving aid from foreign universities operating in India.
d)
Higher education in India receives the necessary financial backing that will help make India a global destination for
students.
Passage – 5
Our understanding of the term food and its categories can be very different from one culture to another for it had so
many things to do with a given community’s cultural experiences. In Mizo language, specifically for the Mizos in
Mizoram, food literally translates to chaw which has direct reference to buh (rice). A few hundred years back, when
the Mizo ancestors were lingering in the Chin Hills, food could not have as significant connection it has with rice today
as it had with corn, because the Chin Hills are much higher in altitude than the Lushai or Mizo Hills and rice could not
survive in those regions whereas corn prospered.
The Mizo tribe had tasted civilisation but backtracked on their way to reaching Mizoram. For many years they had no
formal contacts with mainland Burmese or Indians resulting in the diminishing of the civilising process; even poor
development of their culinary practice is one of the ramifications of this isolation. Moreover, the clans became so
divided among themselves that each village, regardless of the number of the population, separately functioned as a
single nation in their own territory. A Chief in such village used to be the sole authority of administration. Although
there was efficiency of administration, the divisions of the clans in small units brought more conflicts amongst the sub-
clans for every village had its own independence to safeguard or encroach others’ territories. For this reason, they led
an unsettling and migratory life which conditioned all of their traditional practices. Even the easy way of their
preparation of food reflects the lives they had carried on for hundreds of years; to an extent, the culinary practices act
as a reminder of the turbulent years. The smallness of their physique can also be attributed to the restlessness of
their life and the lack of good food.
Q 130. 30630558 What does the author think about the division of clans?
a) The Chief of every Mizo village is a martial arts expert. b)

The schisms between clans caused a reduction in fights.
c) The rifts between clans encouraged more fights. d) Every Mizo clan trains its children in firearms training.
Q 131. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:
a) The Mizo clans travelled only because they were avid tourists.
b) The Mizo clans disliked travelling to unfamiliar territories.
c) The Mizo clans stayed in only one place.

d) The Mizo clans travelled from place to place.
a) The Mizo people eats only rice and nothing else. b) It is difficult to grow rice in higher altitudes.
c) Rice grows better in higher altitudes. d) The Mizo are mainly vegetarian in nature.
Q 133. 30630558 With respect to the physical appearance of the Mizos, the author feels that:
a) The Mizos do not cook their food properly and so, they suffer from ailments.
b) Malnutrition is responsible for the Mizos’ stunted growth.
c) The Mizos have become dwarfs over the past few decades.
d) The Mizos are short heighted because they are necessarily fighters.
Q 134. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that
a) Food can have multiple meanings in various cultures.
b) Food has a singular meaning across all cultures.
c) The cultural connotations of food are rarely found to be diverse.
d) Food pattern indicates the spiritual terrain of tribes.

a) The Chief of a Mizo village was only the titular head.
b) The Chief was never responsible for the administration of a village.
c) The Chief was responsible for the administration of a village.
d) The Chief had his own council of ministers who were responsible for the administration.
Mathematics
Directions for questions 136 to 140: Answer the questions on the basis of the information given below.
In the year 2018, 4600 start-up companies were set up across 6 main industry domains - Food, E-commerce, Travel,
Health, Education and Entertainment. The first pie chart shows the percentage distribution of the number of start-ups
that were set up across various industries and the second one shows the number of successful start-ups among
them.
Q 136. 30630558 What is the absolute difference between the number of unsuccessful start-ups in the Travel
industry and the Health industry?
a) 497 b) 507 c) 527 d) 537
Q 137. 30630558 Which of the following is the correct order of industries on the basis of percentage increase of
successful start-ups?
a) Food < E-commerce < Entertainment b) Food < Health < Education
c) E-commerce < Entertainment < Food d) E-commerce < Education < Health
Q 138. 30630558 How many industries have number of unsuccessful start-ups more than the average number of
unsuccessful startups in each industry?
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) More than 4
Q 139. 30630558 The number of start-ups from which of the following two industries together form 45% of the total
start-ups set up in 2018?
a) b) E-commerce and Food c) E-commerce and Health d) Food and Entertainment
E-commerce and
Entertainment
Q 140. 30630558 How many industries witnessed more than 60% of start-ups becoming unsuccessful?
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) More than 3
In the year 2021, the total production of tea in the world was 32,00,000 tonnes. India, China and Sri Lanka accounted
for 30%, 25% and 9% of the world's tea production respectively. Tea production in Kenya was one-third that of India
while tea production in Indonesia was half that of Kenya. Tea production in Turkey was two-third that of Sri Lanka
while the remaining tea production was from other countries.
The states of West Bengal, Assam and Himachal Pradesh accounted for 30%, 25% and 20% of India's tea production
respectively in 2021. The production of tea in Kerala and Karnataka each was half that of Himachal Pradesh while the
remaining tea production was from other states.
Q 141. 30630558 What was the total production of tea (in tonnes) in Assam in the given year?
a) 2,88,000 b) 2,40,000 c) 3,40,000 d) 3,60,000
Q 142. 30630558 What is the respective ratio of the total production of tea in China to that of Indonesia in 2021?
a) 1 : 5 b) 2 : 1 c) 1 : 6 d) 5 : 1
Q 143. 30630558 What is the difference between the production of tea (in tonnes) in Turkey and Kerala in 2021?
a) 96,000 b) 82,000 c) 92,000 d) 76,000
Q 144. 30630558 The production of tea in West Bengal was what percentage of the production of tea in Kenya in
2021?
a) 111.11% b) 30% c) 90% d) 85%
Q 145. 30630558 If the world's production of tea in the year 2022 is increased by 10% as compared to the previous
year and the percentage contribution of all the industries is the same as in 2021, then the total production of tea in
Himachal Pradesh and Karnataka together was what percentage of the total production of tea in Sri Lanka and
Turkey together in the year 2022?
a) 50% b) 58% c) 62.5% d) 60%
Three friends - Animesh, Bhavesh and Jignesh - invest their total savings in three different types of mutual funds at a
bank, namely Large Cap, Mid-Cap and Small-Cap mutual funds which offer returns at 12%, 10% and 8% per annum
at simple rate of interest. The investments made by Animesh, Bhavesh and Jignesh are withdrawn by them after 2, 3
and 4 years respectively.
Animesh invests 60% of his total savings in Large Cap MF and 10% in Small Cap MF. He receives Rs.9,000 as
returns from his investment in Mid Cap MF.
Bhavesh receives three times the returns received by Animesh from his investment in Small Cap MF. Bhavesh invests
60% more in Large Cap MF than Small Cap MF and the ratio of his investments in Mid Cap and Small Cap MFs was
7 : 5 respectively.
Jignesh invests 50% of his savings in Mid Cap MF and equal amounts in the other two MFs. The ratio of the total
savings of Bhavesh and Jignesh are in the ratio 12 : 13.
Q 146. 30630558 What was the total investment made by Jignesh?
a) Rs.1,20,000 b) Rs.1,50,000 c) Rs.1,30,000 d) Rs.1,40,000
Q 147. 30630558 What was the total return earned by Animesh at the end of 2 years?
a) Rs.31,000 b) Rs.35,000 c) Rs.34,500 d) Rs.33,000
Q 148. 30630558 What was the ratio of the returns earned by Jignesh and Bhavesh from Large Cap MF
respectively?
a) 65 : 72 b) 62 : 75 c) 67 : 77 d) 56 : 75
Q 149. 30630558 If the returns for Large Cap MF was at the same rate but compounded annually, then how much
more would Animesh earn?
a) Rs.1,576 b) Rs.1,324 c) Rs.1,782 d) Rs.1,296
Q 150. 30630558 What was the total investment made by the three friends in Small Cap MFs?
a) Rs.68,500 b) Rs.77,500 c) Rs.75,500 d) Rs.72,500

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Prime Mock 11 (CLAT) 2024

a) Economic theory can only be applied if it is politically acceptable.

b) Economic theory is always politically acceptable.

d) Political factors have no role in economic decision-making.

Q 4. 30630558 Which of the following titles best describes the passage?

a) The Challenges of Inflation Targeting and Financial Stability

b) The Economic Impact of Pandemic-related Stimulus Measures

d) The Role of Politics in Economic Decision-making

a) Present b) Future c) Former d) Contemporary

a) Calibre b) Rhythm c) Catastrophe d) Repudiation

c) d) The painting reminds Ashima of India.

Q 9. 30630558 What can be said about Salman Rushdie's work?

b) Salman Rushdie writes about misogyny and its effects on society.

c) Salman Rushdie writes about a homogenous socio-cultural group.

Q 10. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

c) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is about an immigrant's diasporic anxiety.

d) Jhumpa Lahiri's The Namesake is about male chauvinism.

a) Their relations have come to a standstill with stabilized bilateral relations.

c) Their relations have sought reunification of China and Taiwan.

d) Their relations have stirred up the diplomatic status quo globally.

b) Taiwan has resolved to not use its cultural-economic influence in diplomacy.

c) Taiwan will continue to not take sides in diplomatic international conflicts

a) Increased military and arms expenses to protect itself

c) Reducing international trade between the USA and China

Q 14. 30630558 Which of the following is closest in meaning to the word: flexing?

a) Flaunting b) Severing c) Perpetuating d) Ostracising

a) To become a baulani is an arduous task.

c) Baulanis are musically superior compared to their male counterparts.

d) Baulanis are in the forefront of performances.

a) A more focused look at realism.

c) Morbid obsession with divinity.

d) Applying practical lessons of love and devotion to everyday activities.

Q 18. 30630558 Which of the following can be inferred from the passage?

a) A baul will give up their possessions.

b) A baul has to be physically imposing.

Q 19. 30630558 What does 'propagation' mean as used in the passage?

a) breeding b) spreading c) disrupting d) forcing

Q 20. 30630558 Which of the following is true with respect to baul's

a) Baul's are philosophically inclined to harbour selfish interest.

b) Baul did not know how to read or write.

c) Baul's has the foundation to showcase mathematical aptitude.

Q 22. 30630558 What is the Sagarmala initiative?

a) A policy promoting port-led development

b) A financial assistance program for domestic ship-building

c) A sustainable fisheries development initiative

c) To focus on social development and ecological security only

d) To address climate change and other environmental challenges exclusively

a) Isolation b) Plastic c) Amalgam d) Alliteration

d) Bhabha attempted to record the lives of famous personalities in Location of Culture.

Q 28. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be understood that:

a) Science indicates the advancement of morality. b) Science is seen as promoting superstition.

c) Science is seen as ushering reform. d) Science indicates the progress of spirituality.

a) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee supported the intellectual temperament of Europe.

b) Mahendra Lal Sircar was an Indian scientist who studied in England.

Q 30. 30630558 In the light of the passage, it can be inferred that:

b) The Industrial Revolution was followed by technological progress.

Current Affairs Including General Knowledge

a) Sanjay K Jha b) Ajay Banga c) Vinya Kumar d) Neal Mohan

a) b) World Economic Forum c) ADB

a) International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD)

b) International Development Association (IDA)

c) International Finance Corporation (IFC)

d) International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID)

a) IDA b) IBRD c) MIGA d) ICSID