SECTION

LISTENING COMPREHENSION
 SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talk in English. There are three parts to this section,
with special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is
stated or implied by he speakers you hear. Do not take notes or write in your test
book at any time. Do not turn the pages until you are told to do so.

Part A

Directions: In part A you will hear short conversations between two people. After
each conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The
conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the
four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example.
(man) That exam was just awful.
(woman) Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?

In your test book, you will read: (A) The exam was really awful.
(B) It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
(C) It couldn’t have been more difficult.
(D) It wasn’t that hard.

From the conversation you find out that the woman thinks the man thought the
exam was very difficult and that the woman disagreed with the man. The best
answer to the question, "What does the woman mean?" is (D), " It wasn’t that
hard." Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Questions

1. (A) They were in the regular room. 2. (A) She will lend it to the man.
(B) The key was misplaced. (B) She never lent the book to Jim.
(C) He’s taking a different class. (C) Jim wants to borrow the book.
(D) He has the key to the classroom. (D) Jim has the book.
3. (A) Paying bills.
(B) Talking to the landlord.
(C) Turning the lights off.
(D) Looking for an apartment.
4. (A) She has no time to go to the class.
(B) They are already late for class.
(C) It’s too early to go to class.
(D) She has to be on time for class.
5. (A) He is resuming his duties one more
time.
(B) He is assuming the class is
difficult.
(C) The class is terrible all the time.
(D) The class takes a lot of time.
6. (A) She needs a new coat.
(B) She likes the paint in the dorm
rooms.
(C) She has the same opinion as the
man.
(D) She left her coat in the dorm room.
7. (A) He needs to complete the math
assignment first.
(B) He’ll be ready in a couple of hours.
(C) He is going to history class now.
(D) He was ready a few minutes ago.
8. (A) She’s sorry she moved them.
(B) She really knows where they are.
(C) They haven’t been moved.
(D) Someone else moved them.
9. (A) A solution is not apparent.
(B) The problem can be fixed.
(C) There is really a pair of problems.
(D) The problem is difficult to solve.
10. (A) The professor gives quizzes
regularly.
(B) The woman is really quite
prepared.
(C) It is unusual for this professor to
give quizzes.
(D) He doesn’t think there’s a class
today.
11. (A) She couldn’t comprehend the
chemistry lecture.
(B) She has not had time to look at the
assignment.
(C) It was possible for her to complete
the problem.
(D) She couldn’t understand the
problem.
12. (A) He doesn’t know how far away the
exhibit is.
(B) He’s uncertain about the fee.
(C) The exhibit is not very far away.
(D) He’s sure the exhibit isn’t free.
13. (A) Not taking it at all.
(B) Taking it along with chemistry.
(C) Taking it later.
(D) Taking it instead of chemistry.
14. (A) An astronomer.
(B) A physician.
(C) A philosopher.
(D) An engineer.
15. (A) Nothing could surprise her.
(B) The gift really astonished her.
(C) She couldn’t have gotten more
gifts.
(D) She was expecting the gift.
16. (A) She’s wearing a new dress.
(B) She’s ready to study for hours.
(C) She’s exhausted.
(D) She has studies about the war for
hours.
17. (A) He’s really tall.
(B) He’s the best.
(C) He’s got a good head on his
shoulders.
(D) He always uses his head.
18. (A) He’s already talked to the professor
about the assignment.
(B) There is no assignment for
tomorrow.
(C) He’s not sure what the professor
will talk about.
(D) The professor discussed the
assignment only briefly.
19. (A) He went to it.
(B) He knew about it.
(C) He didn’t know about it.
(D) He gave it.
20. (A) It’s hard to lock the room.
(B) The cloak was delivered on time.
(C) Someone struck the crockery and
broke it.
(D) It is now midday.
21. (A) That she wouldn’t take the trip.
(B) That she would go to the beach.
(C) That she really liked the beach.
(D) That she would take a break from
her studies.
22. (A) They were disappointed.
(B) They didn’t get any gifts.
(C) They were unexcited.
(D) They were really pleased.
23. (A) She believes she can succeed.
(B) She decided to pull out of it.
(C) She wants to put off the speech for
a while.
(D) She thinks the speech is too long.
24. (A) She’d like to offer the man a
scholarship.
(B) The documents were returned to
her with a signature.
(C) She needs to sign the documents.
(D) She works in the scholarship
office.
25. (A) He doesn’t have time to pay the
bills.
(B) The bills weren’t paid on time.
(C) Of course, he paid the bills on time.
(D) He will pay the bills for the last
time.
26. (A) He thinks the lecture was really
interesting.
(B) He’s not sure if the ideas are
workable.
(C) He understood nothing about the
lecture.
(D) He’s not sure what the woman
would like to know.
27. (A) He missed an opportunity.
(B) He was late for his trip.
(C) He should take the next boat.
(D) He should send in his application.
28. (A) He agrees with what she said.
(B) He thinks she didn’t say anything.
(C) He couldn’t hear what she said.
(D) He did hear what she said.
29. (A) That John would pick them up for
the concert.
(B) That the concert would start earlier.
(C) That John would not be going to the
concert.
(D) That they would be late to the
concert.
30. (A) He enjoyed the trip immensely.
(B) The boat trip was really rough.
(C) He couldn’t have enjoyed the trip
more.
(D) The water was not very rough.
 Part B
Directions: In part B you will hear longer conversations between two people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in
your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

31. (A) Two students. 34. (A) She thinks it’ll be boring
(B) Two professors. (B) She doesn’t want to take it.
(C) Two sociologists. (C) It sounds good to hear.
(D) Two lecturers. (D) She’d prefer a course with more
student participation.
32. (A) She wants his opinion of
sociologists. 35. (A) From a friend.
(B) She wants to hear him (B) From the newspaper.
lecturer. (C) From a discussion.
(C) She wants to know about a course (D) From the utility company.
he took.
(D) She wants to meet Professor 36. (A) In a far desert.
Patterson. (B) Close by.
(C) At the utility company’s
33. (A) A course where the professor headquarters.
lecturers. (D) The man has no idea.
(B) A course where the students just
listen and take notes. 37. (A) It’s cheaper in the short run.
(C) A course with Professor Patterson. (B) The utility company
(D) A course where the students take won’t need any extra money.
part in discussion. (C) The plants’ far away.
(D) It exists in large quantities.
38. (A) She’s concerned it’ll be
too costly.
(B) She thinks the price is too low.
(C) She thinks the plant is totally
necessary
(D) She thinks the utility company has
a good idea.

Part C

Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear
some questions. The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, you
will read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter
of the answer you have chosen.

Here is an example.

On the recording, you will hear:

(narrator) Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.

(man) Artist Grand wood was a guiding force in the school of painting known as
American regionalist, a style reflecting the distinctive characteristics of art from
rural areas of the United States. Wood begins drawing animals on the family
farm at the age of three, and when he was thirty-eight one of his paintings
received a remarkable amount of public notice and acclaim. This painting,
called “American Gothic,” is a starkly simple depiction of a serious couple
staring directly out at the viewer.
Now listen to a simple question.

(narrator) What style is painting is known as American regionalist?

In your test book, you will read: (A) Art form America’s inner cities.
(B) Art from the central region of the United States.
(C) Art from various urban areas in the United States.
(D) Art from rural sections of America.

The best answer to the question, “What style is painting is known as American regionalist?” is
(D), “Art from rural sections of America.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).

Now listen to another sample question.

(narrator) What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?
In your test book, you will read: (A) “American Regionalist.”
(B) “The family farm in Lowa.”
(C) “American Gothic.”
(D) “A Serious Couple.”

The best answer to the question, “What is the name of Wood’s most successful painting?” is
(C), “American Gothic.” Therefore, the correct choice is (C).

Remember, you are not allowed to take notes on write in your test book.

39. (A) The Employment Office manager.
(B) The university registrar.
(C) The bookstore manager.
(D) A student working in the bookstore.
40. (A) Prepare a schedule.
(B) Decide which workers to hire.
(C) Plan students course schedules.
(D) Train office workers.
41. (A) What the students’ majors are.
(B) When the students are able to work.
(C) Why the students want to work.
(D) In which jobs the students have
experience.
42. (A) Cashier.
(B) Shelf stocker.
(C) Business office worker.
(D) Phone operator.
43. (A) Soft, warm clothing.
(B) Problems in landfills.
(C) How fleece is obtained.
(D) Recycling soda bottles.
44. (A) They were left in landfill areas.
(B) They were reused.
(C) They were recycled.
(D) They were refilled.
45. (A) Dye.
(B) Warm, soft clothing.
(C) Computer chips.
(D) Glass bottles.
46. (A) Buying plastic bottles.
(B) Solving the problem in landfills.
(C) Buying these recycled products.
(D)Becoming aware of the environment.
47. (A) The Central Pacific Group.
(B) The Transcontinental Railroad
company.
(C) A group of Ogden, Utah.
(D) Two separate railroad companies.
48. (A) They had to lay track across a
mountain range.
(B) They had to cross all of Nebraska.
(C) They had to work for another
railroad company.
(D) They had to move westward to
Sacramento, California.
49. (A) Several days.
(B) Several weeks.
(C) Several months.
(D) Several years.
50. (A) Dynamite was used to blast out
access.
(B) A golden spike was hammered into
the last track.
(C) The workers laboured dangerously
and exhaustingly.
(D) The workers traversed the Sierra
Nevadas.
 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION
 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate for
standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.

STRUCTURE
Directions: These questions are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see four
words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). choose the one word or phrase that best
completes corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following example.

Example I
The president ___________ the election by a landslide.
(A) Won
(B) He won
(C) Yesterday
(D) Fortunately

The sentence should read, “The president won the election by a landslide.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (A).

Example II
When __________ the conference?

(A) The doctor attended

(B) Did the doctor attend
(C) The doctor will attend
(D) The doctor’s attendance

The sentence should read, “When did the doctor sttend the conference?” Therefore, you should
choose answer (B).
QUESTIONS
1. The planet mercury ________ 5. Lapis lazuli, _____ stone, has been
rotations during every two trips around valued for ornamental purposes for
the Sun. more than 6,000 years.
(A) Three complete (A) An opaque deep blue
(B) Complete three (B) Is an opaque deep blue
(C) The completion of three (C) It is an opaque deep blue
(D) Completing three of the (D) That is an opaque blue

2. In prehistoric _________ of western 6. Mountaineers ________ climb mount

Utah was covered by Lake Bonneville. Everest must make reservations to do
(A) Times, a large part so, often up to seven years in advance.
(B) Times, there was a large part (A) Want to
(C) Part of the time (B) They want to
(D) For large parts of time (C) Who want
(D) Wanting to
3. The helicopter is able to hover in
________ power rotors produce lift 7. Created by dissolution of limestone,
even at zero forward speed. the underground cave system _______
(A) Flight because of the Mammoth Cave is not for its stalactites
(B) Flying the and stalagmites.
(C) The flying of the (A) Is known as
(D) Flight because the (B) It is known to be
(C) Known as
4. The upper levels of the Sun’s (D) To be known
atmosphere are of very low _______
heats the gases there to very high 8. Most slang terms are simply old words
temperature. _______ additional new meanings.
(A) Dense and solar (A) Give
(B) Density, solar activity (B) Given
(C) Density, but solar activity (C) Are given
(D) Density and activity of the Sun is (D) They are given
9. North Carolina’s Outer Banks are a 12. In the La Brea tar pits of Los Angeles
chain of low, narrow islands ______ _______ which have been preserved
the mainland from the frequent from the Pleistocene period.
Atlantic storms in the area. (A) Thousands of animals are
(A) They buffer (B) Thousands are animals
(B) That buffer (C) The thousands of animals
(C) To buffer them (D) Are thousands of animals
(D) That they buffer
13. ______ provided a living for nearly 90
10. It is at the age of approximately percent of the population of the
eighteen months _______ children American colonies.
begin to make combinations of two or (A) Farming was what
three words. (B) What farming
(A) When many (C) Farming was
(B) When are many (D) What was farming
(C) When do many
(D) When have many of the 14. Not only _____ more brittle than hard
maples, but they are also less able to
11. Story of the bad boy, a withstand high winds.
semiautobiographical novel by (A) Soft maples are
Thomas Bailey Aldrich, ranks high (B) Are soft maples
among books ______ have (C) They are soft maples
incorporated their boyhood (D) Soft maples
experiences.
(A) The American authors 15. _______ become blocked so that heat
(B) Which are American authors and moisture could not escape, death
(C) In which American authors would result.
(D) Are those which American authors (A) Were the skin’s pores to
(B) The pores of the skin were to
(C) The skin’s pores
(D) If the pores of the skin
 WRITTEN EXPRESSION

Directions: In these questions, each sentence has four underlined words or phrases. The four
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). identify the one underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on your
answer sheet find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter
of the answer you have chosen.

Look at the following examples.

Example I
The four string on a violin are tuned in fifths.
A B C D

The sentence should read, “The four strings on a violin are tuned in fifths.” Therefore, you
should choose answer (B).

Example II
The research for the book roots taking Alex Haley twelve years.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “The research for the book roots took Alex Haley twelve years.”
Therefore, you should choose answer (C).

QUESTIONS

16. The wave lengths of ultraviolet light are short than those of visible light but longer than
A B C D
those of X-rays.

17. All thoroughbreds are descended from three Arabian stallion imported into England
A B C D
between 1689 and 1724.

18. By measuring the rate of decay of potassium isotopes in volcanic ash, scientists can date
A B
the layers of volcanic ash and any human remains in they.
C D
19. Hundreds of partial to complete fossil skeletons of Triceratops have been gather in North
 A B C
America from rocks of the late Cretaceous period.
D
20. By the time of the dinosaurs, turtles have already developed the hard shell into which their
A B C
heads and legs could be drawn.
D
21. A zoom lens produces an inverted real image, either on the film in a camera and on the
A B C D
light-sensitive tube of a television camera.

22. The leaves and young twigs of the henna plant are ground into a powder to produce a paste
A B C
that can used as a dye.
D
23. Thirty-one pairs of spinal nerves are present in humans, and each pair have two.
A B C D

24. William Randolph Hearst built a chain of newspaper that included 25 dailies and 11
A B
Sunday editions at their peak in 1937.
D
25. The electromagnetic spectrum consists in bands of different wavelengths.
A B C D
26. Lemon trees a re similar in longevity and appear to orange trees but have more upright
A B C
growth.
D
27. Christopher Columbus, alike many other explorers, underestimated the size of the earth
A B C
and overestimated the width of Asia.
D
28. Manganese, found in trace amounts in higher animals, activates a large amount pf the
A B
enzymes involved in metabolic processes.
C D
29. The remains of homo erectus, an extinct species of early man, was first discovered on the
A B C D
island of Java by Dutch physician Eugene Debois.
30. The Ford Motor Company introduced the moving assembly line in 1914 so that it will be
A B
able to meet the huge demand for its Model T.
C D
31. By 1830, approximately 200 steamboats had become operationally on the Mississippi
A B C D
River.

32. The huge Meteor Crater was created when 63,000-ton iron meteorites stuck the earth near
A B C D
Winslow, Arizona.

33. Daniel Boone helped to build the Wilderness Road through the Cumberland Gap, creating
A B C
a route for settlers heading westerly.
D

34. The Appalachian Mountains extend Georgia and Alabama in the South to Canada in the
A B C D
north.

35. Howard Hughes once did more than half a billion dollars in one day in 1966 when he
A B
received a single bank draft for $546,549,171 for his share of TWA.
C D
36. The city of Tampa, Florida, is located on peninsula across Tampa Bay from Saint
A B C D
Petersburg.

37. The closer it gets to December 21, the first day of winter, the short the days become.
A B C D
38. Only about a hundred out of an estimating 3,000 known mineral species have been found
`A B
at least reasonably suitable for use as germs.
C D
39. Most of the year San Miguel Island is shrouded in fog, and strong northwest winds batter
A B C
relentlessly the island.
D
40. Women have admitted to the United States Military Academy at West Point since 1976,
A B
and the first women cadets graduated in 1980.
C D
 TEST OF ENGLISH AS FOREIGN LANGUAGE (TOEFL)
FACULTY OF SOCIAL AND POLITICAL SCIENCES
PASUNDAN UNIVERSITY
Jl. Lengkong Besar No.68 Bandung 40261 Indonesia
Tel: (022) 4205945, 4205946 Fax: (022) 4205945, 4210656

FULL NAME : DATE OF TEST :

MAJOR : DATE OF BIRTH :
STUDENT ID :
SEX : MALE/FEMALE

SECTION ONE SECTION TWO

1 A B C D 1 A B C D
2 A B C D 2 A B C D
3 A B C D 3 A B C D
4 A B C D 4 A B C D
5 A B C D 5 A B C D
6 A B C D 6 A B C D
7 A B C D 7 A B C D
8 A B C D 8 A B C D
9 A B C D 9 A B C D
10 A B C D 10 A B C D
11 A B C D 11 A B C D
12 A B C D 12 A B C D
13 A B C D 13 A B C D
14 A B C D 14 A B C D
15 A B C D 15 A B C D
16 A B C D 16 A B C D
17 A B C D 17 A B C D
18 A B C D 18 A B C D
19 A B C D 19 A B C D
20 A B C D 20 A B C D
21 A B C D 21 A B C D
22 A B C D 22 A B C D
23 A B C D 23 A B C D
24 A B C D 24 A B C D
25 A B C D 25 A B C D
26 A B C D 26 A B C D
27 A B C D 27 A B C D
28 A B C D 28 A B C D
29 A B C D 29 A B C D
30 A B C D 30 A B C D
31 A B C D 31 A B C D
32 A B C D 32 A B C D
33 A B C D 33 A B C D
34 A B C D 34 A B C D
35 A B C D 35 A B C D
36 A B C D 36 A B C D
37 A B C D 37 A B C D
38 A B C D 38 A B C D
39 A B C D 39 A B C D
40 A B C D 40 A B C D
41 A B C D
42 A B C D
43 A B C D TOTAL SCORE
44 A B C D SECTION I
45 A B C D
SECTION II
46 A B C D
47 A B C D SECTION III -
48 A B C D TOTAL
49 A B C D
50 A B C D
TOTAL CONVERTED SCORE
SECTION I
SECTION II
SECTION III -
TOTAL