Note: Green answers are correct

From the reference we can say that standard penetration test can be used for
estimating parameters like plasticity characteristics or atterberg limits which will
take less time for getting the result when compared to doing the laboratory work.

So the answer is "atterberg limits" is "liquid limit"

 PI = LL - PL
= 50 - 20 = 30

Chegg
Answer-(A) standard penetration test. Is the correct answer.
Explanation-Insitu testing can be used to determine the density or shear strength of
soils, particularly sands, gravels, saturated clays and silts. The main advantage of
testing in this way is that it can be undertaken without undue disturbance of the soil.

Compaction is a process that brings

about an increase in soil density or unit
weight, accompanied by a decrease in
air volume. There is usually no change
in water content. The degree of
compaction is measured by dry unit
weight and depends on the water
content and compactive effort
* Performance of a pile drilled in rock has a problem of
displacement mainly that can lead to buckle the pile
which is a fuction of rock mass stiffness not the strength
of rock mass.
B) A dense sand with sufficient amount of fines (i.e. more
than 30% fine) that will provide high strength soil under
the footing and also it will prevent the flow of water. As we
know that expansive soil are the soil which is prone to
large volume changes like swelling and shrinking, that are
directly related to changes in water content. We are going
to replace it with a dense sand having sufficient amount of
fines which helps in creating good compact bond between
the particles, which reduces voids and provides strength
to the foundation. We do not want to build foundation on
loose soil hence we require dense sand as the solid mass
is denser because of the interlocking of the particles
which enable it to support heavier loads.
100* Rise/ Run

=Min
= 1 g/cm3
6 Crew

crew =6

volume =720 m3

time =8 hr

required for 1 m3 is = (6*8) / 720

= 48 / 720

=0.06667 man.hr/m3
Performance bond is a surety bond which
ensures the completion of project by
contractors if goes broke on project the surety
will pay necessary amount to complete the job.
: The amount of time that a schedule activity can be delayed without delaying the
early start date of any immediately following schedule activ
t
The weight of 1 m3 of brick earth, is about: 1800 kg
# Mechanical Engineer
Civil 5 V. Imporant having Exam Questions

Q.2 : Consider the following characteristics regarding timber.

1. Stronger Variety
2. Ability to take very smooth finish
3. Toughness ‫ﺻﻼﺑﺔ‬
4. Difficult to season

Which of the above characteristics is/are essential for timber to be used as beams?

 a. 1 only
 b. 2 and 3
 c. 3 and 4
 d. 1 and 3

Q.3: Consider the following Statements:

Entertainment of air in concrete is done so as to

1. Increase the Workability

2. Increase the Strength
3. Increase the resistance to freezing and Thawing also to increase durability.
Which of the above statement is/are correct?

 a. 1,2 and 3
 b. 1 only
 c. 1 and 3 only
 d. 3 only

Q.4: Structures are most sensitive to:

 a. Uniform settlement
 b. Differential settlement
 c. Rate of settlement
 d. None of the above

Q.6: What is the yield strength for most reinforcing bars:

 A. 400 MPA Ans: 400 MPa.
 B. 300 MPA
 C. 600 MPA Most of the cases we use 400-550 Mpa yield strength
 D. 100 MPA bars.most of the beams behave like under-reinforced beams
Q.8 QSAS is: and that behavior is controlled by tensile strength of bars.
 Qatar Standards of Architectural Sustainability
 B. Qatar Sustainability Assessment System
 C. Qatar system for Assessing sustainability
 D. Qatar Sustainability Assessment standards.

Q.9 The slump test is used for :

  A. Concrete workability
 B. concrete strength
 C. Concrete mix design
 D. all of the above

Q.10 The factors that govern the workability of fresh concrete are?

 A. the qualities of cement paste and aggregate relatives to each other

 B. The plasticity of the paste itself
 C. the grading of the aggregate
 D. the shape and surface characteristics of the aggregate
 All of the above

Q.12 Which of the following situations required a change order:

 A. Change in owner scope of work

 B. Significant change in subsurface conditions
 C. Design error or omission
 D. All of the above
n
Q.15: the I terdosciplinary nature of engineering has implication for
appropriateness for specialization. Which of the following is correct?

 a)since all real engineering projects are interdisciplinary all engineers should be
expert in all fields of engineering
 b) the interdisciplinary nature of engineering means that all engineers should
study general engineering rather than specialize in a single area .
 c) most engineers will wish to specialize , but all engineers must be able to work
effectively alongside others with complimentary skills

Q17: The intersection of the WBS and the OBS is the:

 A. Responsibility matrix
 B. Functional matrix
 C. Cost account
 D. Sub deliverable
 E. Project overlap

Q.18: The flow immediately upstream of a hydraulic Jump is:

A. Always critical
B. Always sub critical
C. Always super critical
D. Depending of specific channel conditions ……….

Q.19: Road project needs a gravel base. Which gravel do you recommend for the
project?

Explanation: Well graded gravels haver partcals of different sizes and thus give
good compaction as the packing volume is good. In a compacted volume the
smaller particles take its position between the voids crareted by large particles and
thus resulting in better packing of particles and resulting higher strength.
a. well graded gravel since gravels are same size and easily compacted
b. poorly graded gravel since gravels are same size and easily compacted
c. poorly graded gravel since gravels are different sizes and easily compacted
d. Well graded gravel since gravels are different sizes and easily compacted.

Q.20: The following relation means: A  B -2

a. Activity A can start two days before the start of activity B

b. Acitivity B can start two days after the completion of activity A
c. Acitivity B can start two days before the completion of activity A
d. Acitivity B has to start at least two days before the completion of activity A

Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6
Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6 Civil 6

Q.3: In order to provide the geometric standard for each roadway/highway

component, what is that needs to be established first?
a) Functional classification
b) Traffic capacity
c) Road networks
d) Exiting designs

Q.4: What loads are considered as construction loads ? Exam#1

a) Wind load, dead weight, live load from construction workers, earthquake load
b) Wind load,dead weight, live load from construction workers, load due to wet
concrete
Remaining options are wrong
c) Wind load , dead weight, live load from workers, earthquake load because either wind load or
d) Wind load, dead weight, live load from workers, seismic load earthquake load only one load have
to be considered in construction
Q.5: Consider steady and uniform flow in a prismatic channel. The channel is
trapezoidal in cross section, with a base of width 5ft and sides . the channel
slopes 10 feet over its 0.5 mile length. Where is the velocity the greatest in the
channel?
a) At the upstream end it is maintained that the flow is steady and uniform thus the
flow parameters such as discharge and velocity will remain
b) At the downstream end the same throughout the channel if the frictional losses are
ignored. In case if loses are also considered then the flow
c) 2/3 of the distance from the upstream end parameter decreases along the flow direction.
d) None of the answers

Q.7: The forward pass in project network calculations determines the

time
a) Earliest itmes an activity can begin forward pass:
time
b) Earliest times an activity can be finished
*Early Start
c) The longest time that the project can take
Backward Pass *Early Finish
d) Critical path of the project
*Duration of the project
e) Only A and B are correct
f) A,B and C are all correct
backward pass:
#Late start
#Late finish
#Critical path of the project
Q.8: Consider the following statements Exam#1
In a simply supported beam subjected to uniformly distributed load throughout
the length, at which points is the stress due to (i) flexure and (ii) shear equal to
zero selectively is the stress

1. At support section at neutral fibre

M = 0 (at supports)
2. At mid span section at neutral fibre V = 0 (at mid-span)
3. At mid span section a top fibre
4. At support section at bottom fibre

Which of the above stream is correct?

a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 2 and 4
d) 1 only

Q.9) A bid for foundation construction is based on owner supplied soil boring test
results showing sandy clay to a depth of 6m. However during construction the
backhoe encounters Large pieces of concrete buried throughout the construction
site. This situation would normally be referred to a s?
a) A concealed conditions
b) Unexplained features
c) Unexpected characteristics
d) Hidden detriment

Q.10) Inspections are also called

a) Product reviews An inspection is the most formal type of group
b) Audits review. Roles (producer, moderator, reader and
c) Walkthroughs
reviewer, and recorder) are well defined, and the
d) All answer are true
inspection process is prescribed and systematic.
Q.13) The maximum vertical shearing stress due to VQ/lb in teh beam with a
rectangular cross section
a) Occurs where the normal stress is maximum
b) Occurs at the neutral axis
c) Occurs at the outermost fober
d) Is linearly dependent on the distance from neutral axis

Q.14) A bid manager is in charge of a closed bid in which several firms are
involved. The last day of the bidding period arrives and one firm has not yet
submitted an entry. Bbob calls the firm and asks if they are going to submit a bid
and they say they have been too busy to write a proposal but might be able to
get one worked out by the next day. He should
a) Open the bids and reveal the lowest bid to enxourage the firm to enter
b) Open the bids and quote a false low bid so they will enter but he will bot giving
away the contract
c) Tell them he cant do anything for them
d) Allow the firm to enter a late bid

Q15) Structural fill is required to support a slab-on-grade in a n area with a deep

frost line. To avoid potential problem with frost heave, the best material for
structural fill would be
a) Low-plasticity cohesive soil compacted dry of optimum (CL)
b) Inelastic silt
c) Silty sand
d) Well graded sand

Q.16) Increased water-cement ratio(W/C) in concrete mix

a) Results in decreased strength
b) Reduces workability
c) Decrease hydration process
d) Reduce the slump value

Q.17) The ratio of the maximum normal stress due to maximum vertical shearing
stress in a cantilever beam of length (L), with and loaded at the end is given by
a) L/h
b) 2L/h
c) 4L/h
d) 2L/b

Q21) A line connecting points of equal elevations on a map is called

a) Property line
b) Critical areas line
c) Line of equal elevation
d) Contour line

Q22) The process of identifying and evaluating contractors for a bid list is called
a) Prequalification
b) Forecasting
c) Fast tracking
d) None of the above

Q23) Soil samples extracted form the standard penetration test (SPT) can be
used in
a) Liquid limit test Confirm

b) Sieve analysis
c) Hydrometer test
d) All of the above

Q24) The earth pressure that is developed behind a retaining structure depends
on the movement of the structure relative to the soil. The active earth pressure
is developed when
a) The structure moves toward the soil passive
b) The structure does not move
c) The structure moves away from the soil
d) The structure and the soil move away from each other

Q25) The main types of plastic movement occur in concrete are

a) Plastic settlement
b) Plastic shrinkage
c) A and amp; B
d) None of the above

Q27) QCS means Exam#2

a) Qatar construction services

b) Qatar contract standard
c) Qatar construction specifications
d) None of the above

Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8 Civil 8
Civil 8 Civil 8

Q.3) General conditions and home office overhead are examples of what type of
costs
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Both () a and b)
d) Contingency

Q.4) A city with an expected increase in its future population is to provide a

complete water treatment plant for a surface water source , including rapid
filtration and chlorination. The design flow is 22.5 MGD assuming alum is used
for coagulation the approximate area of the
a) is closest to 10000 ft² The amount of sedimentation will depend on the
b) jis closest to 20000 ft² contaminant concentration in the water. So, higher
c) depends on the dosage of alum the concentration, higher the sedimentation and in
d) depends on the quality of water source turn higher the required basin area.
So, area of sedimentation basin will depend on the
quality of water source. Hence option (d) is correct
Q.6) The moistureocntent of timber used in bulding frames can be
a) 1% to 4%
b) 8% to 12%
c) 12% to 18%
d) .>20%

Q.7) The factors that govern the workability of fresh concrete are ?
a) The quantities of cement paste and aggregate relative ot each other
b) The plasticity of the paste itself
c) The grading of the aggregate
d) The shape and surface characteristics of the aggregate
e) All of the above

Q.8) Referring to the figure , wat load combination produces the maximum uplift
on footing A?

a) Dead + live Factors which affect workability of concrete are:

b) Dead + wind
c) Dead Cement content of concrete
d) Dead + live + wind Water content of concrete
Which of the following is Mix proportions of concrete
Size of aggregates
Shape of aggregates
Grading of aggregates
Surface texture of aggregates
Use of admixtures in concrete
Use of supplementary cementitious materials

Q.9) Which of the following is not considered to be a characteristic of a project?

a) An established objective
b) A clear beginning and end
c) Complex tasks
e) ……………….

Q.10) A schematic of a waste water treatment plant is shown, treatment to

remove grit from the waste water

a) Decreases BOD
b) Is used to decrease mechanical failure
c) Involves the use of coagulations
d) Can come at any point in the treatment pain
 Q.11) The undrained shear strength of clay equals
a) Twice the unconfined compressive strength
b) The unconfined compressive strength
c) Half the unconfined compressive strength
d) Not related to the unconfined compressive strength

Q.15) Which of these is a reason to start a project

a) Problem
b) Market
c) Opportunity
d) All answers are true

Q.16) The --------------- beam theory provides a means of calculating the load –
carrying and defletion characteristics of beams
a) Ferris - witmer
b) Galileo - jacob
c) Leonhard - galilei
d) Eler – Bernoulli

Q.17) A 50-acre catchment containing cropland is converted ot a Qatar mail

retail center. Which of the following statements is true concerning the impact on
teh runoff hydrograph?
a) The postdevelopment hydro graph peak will occur sooner than the predevelopment
hydro graph peak
b) The postdevelopment hydro graph peak will be higher than the predevelopment
hydro graph peak
c) The area under the postdevelopment hydrograph will be greater than the area under
the predevelopment hydro graphs
d) All of the answers A post development hydrograph will have lower concentration time and lower
e) None of the answer infiltration losses and hence sooner peak and higher peak and more runoff or higher
area under graph. Therefore, all the answers are correct hence option

Q.18) Concreting has to be done in cold weather . what type of cement is not
desirable?
a) Type iiii
b) Type iii
c) Type iv
d) Type v

Q.19) Strength of material may be defined as

a) The maximum internal resistance offered by the materials to the externally applied
force
b) Capability of materials to absorb strain energy
c) Capability of materials to do work
d) The maximm internal resistance offered by the materials against deformation

Ability of Material to Resist External Forces

(Ability of Material to Resist the Deformations due to external forces)
Q.20) The immediate --------- must be completed before the next activity can start
in the project network
a) Critical activities
b) Burst activities
c) Predecessor activities ‫اﻟﺴﻠﻒ‬
d) Successor activities
e) None of the above
f) All of the above

Q.21) Cohesionless backfill is usually compacted with layers in thickness of Exam#2

a) 100 cm
b) 30 cm = 300 mm
c) 50 cm
d) 150 cm

Q.23) A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle
after primary classification. The solids retention time for the
a) Effluent quality
b) Recycle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier

Q.24) The interdisciplinary nature of engineering has implications for the

appropriateness of specialization. Which of the following is correct?
a) Since all real engineering projects are interdisciplinary all engineers should be
expert in all fields of engineering
b) The interdisciplinary nature of engineering means thaat all engineers should study
general engineering rather than specialize
c) Most engineers will wish to specialize, but all engineers must be able to work
effectively alongside others with complimentary skills

Q.27) The Construction estimate of the project is used by:

a.The owner of the facility

b. the consultant architect/engineer
c.the contractor of the project
d. all answers are true
 Moment frame buildings and
braced frame structures are used
to resist lateral loads like wind
load and earthquake loads.
Moment frame buildings has less
CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 stiffness
CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9of that this
and because
CIVIL 9 CIVIL 9
will have more deflection compare
Q.1) Weaving length is used for
to braced frame structures.
a) Stopping on roadway
Moment frame structures are easy
and simple to implement compare
b) Accelerating on roadway
to braced system. Moment frame
Changing Lane c) Changing position of vehicle interchanges
structures are also more labour
d) Speeding at interchanges
intensive than braced frame
Q.2) What is not true about moment frame buildings? structures.
Steel
a) Need less compared to brased frame structures Confirm
b) More labour intensive than brased frame structures Simon Book
c) Larger deflections can be expected compared to brased frame structures
d) Easy to design doorways and windows Chegg Study Website

Q.4) The purpose of curing is

a) To ensure that there is enough water in the concrete during dehydration
b) To ensure that this water is retained so that the chemical reaction continues until
the concrete has thoroughly hardened and strength is developed
c) To ensure that there is enough water in the concrete during dehydration & to
ensure that the chemical reaction continues until the concrete has thoroughly
hardened and strength is developed
d) None of all

Q5) Final as built drawings are submitted to

a) Give the architect more work
b) Keep records for later maintenance
c) Prepare for later renovations or additions
d) Both ba and c

Q7) In order to convert from metric system cm, to imperial system inch what
should you do ?
a) Multiply by 2.45
b) Multiply by 2.55
1 in=2.54cm
c) Divided by 2.54
d) Divided by 2.44

Q13) When an activity network is developed by using forward and backward pass
we can find out Exam#2
a) The longest time period that the project will take

By admin at 10:15 am, Jul 06, 2019

b) The number of total sacks that project managers might have
c) The number of free slacks in the network
d) The earliest and latest time that an activity can finish
e) A and B are correct
f) A, B and c are correct
g) A,B,C and D are all correct

Q15) In a two way slab the lifting of the edges of the slab occurs due
a) Resultant shear force at the ends
b) Torsional moments on the slab
c) Unbalanced moments on the slab
d) Heavy shear load at the mid span

Q.16) A two stage anaerobic digester is used to treat a combined primary and
secondary sludge compared to aerobic digestion, anerobic digestion
a) Produces more bacterial cells
b) Uses more energy
c) Is more expensive also this in one Q
d) Is more complex to ooperate

Q18) The slab is designed as one way if the ration of long span to short span is
a) Less tha 1
b) Between 1 and 1.5
c) Between 1.5 and 1.2
d) Greater than 2
Exam#2
Q20) What is a richer scale?
a) A scale for measuring the mass of an object
b) A logarithmic scale for measuring seismic energy of an earthquake
c) A scale for making angle measurement
d) A scale used to measure linear distances of structures and other large objects

Q21) Which of the following is an acceptable excuse for delay or non-

performance of contract
a) A strikes and labor troubles
b) Inability to obtain permit or license
c) Hardship and inconvenience
d) Failure of condition

Q22) For extracting rock samples of good quality we use

a) Double-tube core barrel
b) Single-tube core barrel
c) Standard split spoon sampler
d) Thin-wall tube (shell by tube)
 Q23) The minimum horizontal clear-zone width (ft) fot a low-speed rural collector
and rural local road is mostly
a) 24
b) 18
c) 14
d) 10

Q25) What type of instrument/control system would you specify to insure that a
softening plant precipitation process (i.e, the reaction chemistry) was open
correctly?
a) Flow meter with proportional controller
b) Ph meter with proportional controller
c) Hardness meter with proportional controller
d) None of the above

Q26) The arc definition of the degree of curve (D) is defined as the
Arc definition a) Central angle subtended by 100 ft of arc
Chord definition b) Central angle subtended by 100 ft of chord
c) Central angle subtended by 50 ft of chord
d) Total arc length of the curve in stations divided by the total central angle of degrees
CIVIL 11

Q1) Before the development of any site, construction companies work on site
set-up to ensure:

Select one:

A. Accessibility (during construction) and after and storage( construction material

and equipment)
B. Services (Water, electricity, drainage)
C. Safety and amp security during construction ( fences no trespassing)
D. Statuary requirements ( Building regulations, urban planning consents protect
tree …)
E. All of the above

Q7) From among the following activities which is the best example of a project?

Select one:

a Processing insurance claims

b Producing automobiles
c Writing a new textbook on project management
d Completing a college degree
e All of these are good examples of projects

Q8) A major flood has resulted in contamination of hundreds of domestic water

wells and the distribution system of a small town. The pH should be controlled
to less than 7 because:
The PH value should be less then 7
a It reduces the growth viruses
because at lower pH levels, the
b A PH of less than 7 will kill bacteria
hypochlorous acid will dominate
which has a high oxidation potential
c The chlorine will be in the CL2 from primarily
and is a more effective disinfectant.
d The chlorine will be in the HOCI from primarily

Q 10) What type of cement is known as general purpose cement?

a Type 1
b Type 2
c Type 3
d Type 4 not used in cold
 Q11) Delineators are to be placed on the outside of a horizontal roadway curve of
5°. The approximate spacing (ft) for the delineators along the curve is most
nearly.

Select One:
a 50
b 90
c 95
d 100

Q 12) Consider two beams with equal cross-sections, made of the same
material, having the same support conditions, and each loaded with equal
uniform load per length. One beam is twice as long as the other. The
maximum bending stress in the longer beam is larger by a factor of:

a 1.25
b 1.5
c 2
d 4

Q 14) Which one of the following represents an activity.

Select One:

a Excavation for foundation

b Curing of concrete
c Setting of question paper
d All answers are true

Q 19) A two-stage anaerobic digester is used to treat a combined primary

and secondary sludge. Compared to aerobic digestion, anaerobic digestion:
in one Question also this
a Produces more bacterial cells
b Uses more energy
c Is more expensive
d Is more compless to operate
Q 24) The backward pass in project network calculations determines the:

LF Select one:
LS
a. Latest times activities can begin
Critical path
b. Earliest times activities can begin
c. Critical Path
d. A and C are correct
e. A, B and C are all correct
Q26) Clayish substance is:
Select one:
a Excellent material for road construction
b Added material in road layers
c Bad substance for road construction
d Good material for road construction
CIVIL 12
Q1) Consider the following statements:
a. PERT is activity- oriented and adopts deterministic approach.
b. CPM is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach. *CPM activity oriented*
c. PERT is event-oriented and adopts probabilistic approach.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Select one:

Q4) The advantage in using plywood is that the Exam#1

CPI more than 1 means the project is

Select one: under budget and CPI less than 1
means the project is over budget and
CPI equal to 1 means the project is on
the budget.

SPI more than 1 means the project is

ahead of schedule and SPI of less than
1 means that the project is lagging
behind and SPI of 1 means the project
is on schedule
Q10) If a project has a CPI of 0.95 and an SPI of 1.01, this indicates:
CPI=EV/AC

Select one:

Q11) What is the primary use for fast Track scheduling? Answer D

Select one:
Q12 )A wastewater effluent is treated with chlorine gas (Cl2) to give a free residual
of 0.5 mg/l. The amount of chlorine required is:

Select one: *Note: here question option D is

not provided but if it means nil
then our answer is nil or Zero

Q16) Which of the following includes a weaving section? Answer B

Select one:
Q17) Which of the following can represent an activity on a project network?

Select one: Answer D *Project network diagram > It is the flow

AOA
of diagram consisting of activities and
events connected logically and
AON
sequentially.
*Network diagram are of two types:-
1.Activity-on-arrow network(A-O-A)
2.Activity-on-node network (A-O-N).
There is no any term like activity on line
network.so, correct option is D.
Q 19) A truss member: Answer A

Select one:
Tensile and Compression

Q20) What is the difference between normally consolidated soils and over
consolidated soils? Answer D Exam#2

Select one:
 i gave wrong ans

Normally means no Stress and overconsolidated

means stresses.

Q21) While working on the final stages of a job, you notice that one small clause in
the contract has been violated accidently. What should you do?

Select one:

File
Q22) The Archimedes Principle relates buoyancy to ___________

Select one:

Q24) The critical path in a project network is the:

Select one:
 Q26) Consider the following statements:
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure the strength of concrete is

1. Used to measure the strength of wet concrete.

2. Used to obtain estimate of concrete strength of finished concrete elements.
3. A destructive test.
4. A non-destructive test.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Select one:

WBS
Q27) The final step in the definition of a Work Breakdown Structure is to :
Select one:

Explanation:-

The final step is to document the structure created of the Work

Breakdown Structure. In this course, each subtask also receives
a code - the number of work packages. This ensures that there
is a fixed place in the structure of the division of labor and that
the work package is clearly defined.
Civil 13
Q1) Construction work should begin: Answer B

Select one:

Q6) What is meant by ethics? Answer B

Select one:

Q7) Which of the following statements regarding lateral earth pressure is correct?

Select one:

Q8) A doubly reinforced beam is used when: Answer D

 Select one:

Q9) For a plain cartoon steel, all of the following are true except: Answer D

Select one:

Q10) Ashgal is: Answer

Public AWorks Authority

Select one:

Q11) The ratio of maximum water demand to average water demand is called the:

Select one: Answer C

Q14) ___________ law of elasticity states that the extension of a spring is in direct
proportion with the load applied to it. Answer C

Select one:

Q16) A two stage anaerobic digester is used to treat a combined primary and
secondary sludge. Compared to aerobic, digestion, anaerobic, digestion.

Select one Answer C

Q18) All of the followings are true about work packages except:

Select one:

It should not set deadlines definitive

Q19) The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is: Work Packages

Select one: Answer B

Q23) Consider the following statements regarding the slope of cost time curve:
1. It is given by difference between normal cost and crash cost divided by crash
time.
2. It is given by difference between crash cost and normal cost divided by difference
between crash time and normal time.
3. It is given by difference of crash cost and normal cost divided by normal time.
4. It is given by crash cost divided by crash time.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Select one: Answer C

Q24) Which of the following activities is not considered a project?

Select one: Answer D

CIVIL 14
1.Consider the following activities
1. Pouring of Concrete 2

2. Erection of form work 1

3. Curing of Concrete 3

4. Removal of Form work 4

What is the correct sequence on a network of these activities? ANSWER C

Select one:

6.The moment diagram for a simply-supported with a load at the mid-

point is
Select One: ANSWER A

7. Mechanism of Secondary compression of clay soil is best described

Select one: ANSWER D
8. For construction of a building on soil that predominantly consists of
sand and gravel, the best in-situ test is: ANSWER C
Select one:

9. Which of the following is not required in the statement of special

inspections?
Select one: ANSWER A

12. As a quality control representative working for the contractor, if you

come across a potentially unsafe condition at a project site. Which initial
action should you take?
Select one: ANSWER B

chegg.com

13. According to Brundtland Report (WCED, 1987) defining the main

attributes of ἅ€‫ ک‬Sustainability and Sustainable Development. What are
the three main Pillars of Sustainable development?
Select one: ANSWER C
17. The concept of resource levelling works by:
Select one: ANSWER D
Q1) The sampler drive shoe is badly damaged or worn due to too many
driving to refual

a) Cobbles are encountered

b) The sampler
c) The groundwater in the borehole IS much lower than 111 situ conditions
immediately outside the bore hole

Q2) In order to provide the proper geometric standard for each roadway
highway component what is it that needs to be established

a) Functional classification
b) Road networks
traffic capacity
c) Exiting designs

Q6) a water main is to be designed to serve a proposed 100-home

residential subdivision on 50 acres . which of the following

a) the required fire flow is nearly the same as the average day demand
b) the required fire flow is between 2 times and 5 times the average day
demand
c) the required fire flow is between 5 times and 100 times the average day
demand
d) the reqired fire flow is more than 100 times average day demand

Q9) The legal area of peace of a land is measured

a) Vertically
In surveying land areas are treated as horizontal surface
b) Horizontally not as the actual ground surface area.
c) Along the ground surface Always horizontal distances are measured
d) Between the ellipsoid and geoid

Q10) Consider the following statements in work breakdown structure

1) It is a graphical representation of entire programme

2) The top-down approach to planning is adopted
3) The down-top approach to planning is adopted
4) It is suitable for complex projects
Which of the above statements is/are correct ?
a) 1 only
b) 2 and 4
c) 4 only
d) 3 and 4
Q16) Steel is preferred as reinforcing material in concrete because

a) It is easily available
b) It is the cheapest and good in strength
c) The coefficient of thermal expansion of steel and concrete are almost the
same
d) It forms a good bond

Q18) Hardness in water is defined as

a) The concentration of calcium and potassium in water

b) The ability of water to cause soap scum
c) The concentration of total suspended solids (TSS) in water
d) The ability of water to resist pH changes

Q21) Your boss has just approved the initiation of a project to celebrate
qatara. Sadia has been assigned the project manager by the boss. Sadia
very first task should be to

a) Establish the reporting process to the boss

b) Work on the project scope
c) Make a report for the required cost of a project
d) Develop the project charter to do the project
e) Ask the boss as the how many team members would be allowed in the
project

Q23) A structure is shown in the figure. For a stress check of colum A1,
which of the following statements is true?

a) Buckling in the north-south direction will control the column capacity

b) Buckling in the east-west direction will control the column capacity
c) Buckling in either direction will control the column capacity
d) Buckling will not control since both directions are stable
Q24) What type of bond guarantees if a contractor goes broke on a project,
the surely will pay the necessary amount to

a) Bid bond
b) Performance bond
c) Acceptance bond
d) Payment bond

Q25) If three non parallel forces holds a rigid body in equilibrium they
must

a) Be equal in magnitude
b) Be concurrent
c) Be non concurrent
d) Form an equilateral triangle
e) Be collinear

Q26) If the load acting on a commonly conventional sized RC column

increases continuously from zero to higher magnitudes , the magnitude of
the uniaxial ultimate moment that can be allowed on the column

a) Increases
b) Decreases E) Increases and then decreases
c) Increases and decreases
d) Remains constant

Q27) During a standard penetration test (SPT) unusually low blow counts
are encountered in a foundation expected to be medium sand . this is an
indication that the following condition may be present

a) The sampler drive shoe is badly damaged or worn due to too many
drivings to refusal
b) Cobbles are encountered
c) The sampler drive shoe is plugged
d) The ground water in bore hole is much lower than 111 situ conditions
immediately outside the borehole

Q28) Shelly tubes are used to

Shelby Tubes
a) Obtain oil samples in clay soils Soil samples
b) Obtain oil samples in sandy soils
c) Obtain oil samples in silty soils
d) Obtain rock cores
Civil 17

2. The first step of project scope definition is to

A. Analyse the strategic plan

B. Analyse the current budget plan
C. Meet the team members
D. Select team members
E. Define the major objectives to meet the customers needs

4. Of the following engineering disciplines, which would be BEST suited to

manage the construction
of a natural gas pipeline?

A. Petroleum engineer
B. Mechanical engineer
C. Civil engineer
D. Chemical engineer

6. Consider the following statements about the air-entraining admixture

in concrete

1. Improve workability
2. Improve durability
3. Reduce segregation during placing
4. Decrease concrete density

Which of the above statements are correct??

A. 1,2,3 and 4
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 and 4 only

9. Decisions on whether to use ready-mixed concrete or to mix on site are

influenced by

A. Cost
B. Availabillity
C. Reliability of deliveries
D. A and b only
E. All the above

10. Well point systems may be used as a dewatering method under certain
conditions. Which of the
following statements best describes the conditions where a single stage
wellpoint system is most
appropriate?
A. Deep cexacavation where the water table must be lowered more than 30 ft but less
than 50
ft
B. Permeable soils where draw down of the water table is greater than 30 ft but less
than 50 ft
C. A small, shallow excavation in dense or cement soils.
D. Permeable soils where draw down of the water table is less than 20 ft

14. The 0.2% yield stress is the Exam#2

A. stress at 0.2% elastic strain

B. Yield point of a carbon steel
C. Stress recovery after plastic deformation
D. Stress at the intersection point of a line drawn parallel to the elastic portion of the
stress-strain
Diagram at a total strain of 0.2%

16. What is proctor compaction test?

A. To check max dry density

B. To check min dry density
C. To check normal dry density
D. To check high density

19. What type of instrument control system would you specify to ensure
that a softening plant
precipitation (I.e., the reaction chemistry ) was operating correctly

A. A flow meter with proportion controller

B. pH meter with proportion controller
C. Weighing belt feeder
D. Hardness meter with proportion controller

21. Which of the following are typical characteristics of a modern

roundabout in Qatar

1. Yield on entry
2. Clockwise circulation
3. Deflection of entering traffic
4. Central island

A. 1,2,3
B. 1,2,4
C. 1,3,4
D. 2,3,4

22. RQD value of 100% indicates Exam#2

A. Fully fissured rock

 Confirm
B. Intact rock
C. Very soft clay
D. Very dense sand
 STRUCTURAL ANALYSIS

1. A structural member with the same material properties in all directions at any
particular point is

a) Homogenous
b) Isotropic
c) Isentropic
d) Holomorphic
e) Orthotropic

2. An I Shaped beam is used to carry a uniformly distributed load over a span L = 24ft
as shown. The maximum shear stress (kip/in2) in the beam most nearly.

a) 2.6
b) 3.8
c) 5.1
d) 6.3
3. Find the maximum vertical shear in the beam in fig (2) if W = P/L

a) P/4
b) P/2
c) 3P/4
d) P

4. Calculate the reaction at support B:

a) 20KN
b) 10KN
c) 40KN
d) Zero
5. Calculate the reaction Ra. A uniform load on a beam is hown below. It has a value
of 2.5 KN pee meter.
2.5*4=10 KN

2.5 KN/m

=5 KN = 5 KN

a) 5KN
b) 1.25KN
c) 10KN
d) 0

6. A beam is point load 1000kn and UDL 200N/m. The maximum moment in the
below is :

a) 4200 N.m
b) 5600 N.m (1000*4) + (200*4)2=5600 N.m
c) 6400 N.m
d) 6800 N.m
 7. For the shown figure. Find the maximum compressive stress (P= 1000lb, M=
3000lb/ft. B=D=Width of footing = 9 ft)

a) 60 psf
b) 30 psf
c) 49 psf
d) 12 psf *3000/1000=3
* 9+3=12

8. A steel beam supports a uniformly distributed live load W = 60kip/ft. Over a simple
span L = 25ft as shown below. The code permits a maximum live load deflection of
L/480. The required moment of interia of the beam section is most nearly.
5
∆
384

a) 2600 in2
b) 2800 in2
c) 2700 in2
d) 2000 in2

9. There is a weak soil layer 12ft below an existing column footing (5ftx5ft). The
maximum additional stress that can be applied at the midpoint of the weak soil layer
is 700 psf. Any stress more than 700psf would cause excessive settlement. What is
the maximum load that can be applied on the footing. Assume stress distribution to
be 1:1
 Weak soil layer

a) 428 tons
b) 341 tons
c) 178 tons
d) 487 tons

10. A 4ft tall 6ft x 20ft wide concrete block will be placed at the bottom of a take assume
100% contact with the late bed and uniform loading. The lake bed and uniform
density of the concrete is 150 lb/ft3. The resulting concrete pressure (lb/ft2) will be
most nearly.

a) 9000 150*4=600
b) 3000
c) 600
d) 350

11. A rigid beam weighting 300lb/ft is lifted using rigging cables as shown. The cables
are wire rope with an effective modulus of elasticity E=30,000ksi and effective cross
sectional area = 0.4 in2. The elongation of the cable is most nearly.
 a) 0.06 in
b) 0.08 in
c) 0.10 in
d) 0.13 in

12. The 0.2% yield stress is the

a) Stress at 0.2% elastic strain

b) Yield point of a carbon steel
c) Stress recovery after plastic deformation
d) Stress at the intersection point of a line drawn parallel to the elastic portion of the
stress strain diagram at a total strain 0.2%

13. Referring to the figure, what load combination produces the maximum uplift on
footing A?

a) Dead+ Live
b) Dead+Wind
c) Dead
d) Dead+Live+Wind
 14. Find the total force in the reinforcemnt in the beam shown. fy = 60,000 psi. no 5 bars
has a diameter of 5/8 in total force = fy As

a) 23.8 tons
60 * (5/8)= b) 45.7 tons
c) 76.9 tons
d) 36.8 tons

15. The maximum vertical shearing stress due to VQ/lb in the beam with a rectangular
cross section. The maximum vertical shearing stress occurs
along the neutral axis,

a) Occurs where the normal stress is maximum Shear stress dsitribution is maximum at
b) Occurs at the neutrual axis Neutral axis and minimum at outermost fibre
c) Occurs at the outermost fiber since Q is maximum at Neutral axis
d) Is linearly dependent on the distance from neutral axis

16. Consider the following conditions with respect to plastic analysis

1. Sum of internal and external forces and moments must be equal to zero
2. At ultimate collapse load the number of plastic hinges must be just enough to
form a mechically

a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Neither 1 nor 2
d) Both 1and 2
 TRANPORTATION ENGINEERING

17. A section of a major street an urban arterial with six traffic signalized intersections
is shown below. The traffic signals at each intersections have a total cycle length of
90 sec and 50 sec of green ( and yellow) time on the major street. It is required that a
progressive signal system having a maximum band width of green for movement
from Ist Avenue intersection toward the 6th Avenue intersection with a progressive
speed of 30 mph be designed. The offset (sec) at 6th avenue

a) 36
b) 43
c) 50
d) 63

18. An unsignalized T- intersection is three logs are each two way. What is most nearly
the total number of conflict points including crossing ,merging and diverging?

a) 3
b) 6 3*2=6
c) 9
d) 12

19. Road project needs a gravel base. Which gravel do you recommend for this project?

a) Well graded gravel since gravels are of same size and easily compacted
b) Poorly graded gravel since gravels are same size and easily compacted
c) Poorly graded gravel since gravels are different size and easily compacted
d) Well graded gravel since gravels are different size and easily compacted
20. Density of traffic is found to be 230 vehicles per mile speed of vehicles is
measured to be 60mph. what is flow or volume of traffic

a) 7500 veh/hr 230*60=13800

b) 13800 veh/hr
c) 18400 veh/hr
d) 29670 veh/hr

21. A 10 ft wide side walk has an effective walkway width of 6.5ft. The peak 15 minutes
pedestrian flow is 1200 pedestrians. The plantation adjusted LOS is most nearly.

a) LOS B
b) LOS C
c) LOS D
 SOIL MECHANICS AND FOUNDATION ENGINEERING

22. A consider the framing and structural details shown the load path for this design is

a) Stud – Beam – Strap – Column – Footing – Soil

b) Beam – Stud - Strap – Column – Footing – Soil
c) Soil – footing – column – beam – stud – strap
d) Stud – Strap – Beam - Column – Footing – Soil

23. The specific gravity of solids, GS for a soil 2.75. The zero air void dry unit weight
of the soil (KN/m3) at a moisture content of 20 percent is about.

a) 16.4
b) 17.4 m.c = 20% = 20/100
c) 18.2 Gs = 2.75 = 1/2.75
d) 16.5

9.81 ÷ ( 20 ÷ 100 + 1 ÷ 2.75) =17.4KN/m3

24. A soil profile is shown in the figure. The effective vertical stress (psf) at mid height
of the clay layer is most nearly.

a) 770
b) 2130
120 × 15 + 110 × 7 = 2570
c) 2570
d) 2900

25. Seismic response coefficient (Cs) of a building was found to be 0.10. The effective
seismic weight of a column is 300 tons. What is seismic shear force acting on the
column base?

a) 30 tons 300 × 0.1 = 30 t

b) 300 tons
c) 3,000 tons
d) 33 tons
 26. A sheet pile well pertaining a silly sand shown in the fugure. Using the Rankine
Formula, you determine the active earth preasure co efficient is most nearly
∅
Ka = tan2 ( 45 )

a) 0.25
b) 0.30
c) 0.45
d) 0.35

27. A pile foundation shown in the figure. The ultimate side resistance Qsu and ultimate
negative skin friction figure. A safety factor of 2.0 is required on the capacity. The
safety factor is not applied to downdrag forces. Assume that the downdrag capacity
of the pile. The allowable load P (kips) that can be applied to the top of the pile is
most nearly.

QR= 160+150=310
a) 115
b) 135 P= (310/2) - 40 = 115
c) 155
d) 310
FOS =2
28. A pile driven in clay soils. Capacity of the pile is not dependent on:

a) Cohesion of soil
b) Pile diameter
c) Pile adhesion coefficient
d) Depth of groundwater

29. Seismic design categories are developed select one:

SDC
a) Based on soil type and building type.
b) Based on risk and importance of the structure with regard to loss of life.
c) Based on soil type only.
d) Based on the probability of an earthquake in the region.

30. During a standard penetration test (SPT) unusually low blow counts are encountered
in a foundation expected to be medium sand. this is an indication that the following
condition may be present
a) The sampler drive shoe is badly damaged or worn due to too many driving to
refusal
b) Cobbles are encountered
c) The sampler drive shoe is plugged
d) The ground water in bore hole is much lower than in-situ conditions immediately outsi
the borehole

31. Site with gray sandy still is shown below. Original groundwater was at 5ft below the
ground surface due to a severe drought groundwater level drops down 9ft below the
ground surface, what would happen to the effective stress at point A when
groundwater level drops down to 9ft below ground surface. Total density of soil is
110 pcf.
 a) Vertical effective stress increase by 249.6psf
b) Vertical effective stress increase by 254.6 psf
c) Vertical effective stress increase by 169.6 psf
d) No change

32. Engineers are planning to place a shallow foundation as shown.

Engineers have decided that loose sand and soft clay are not capable of supporting the
foundation without beight treated. What is the best.

a) Conduct dynamic compaction to treat soft clay and conduct pressure grouting to
treat loose sand.
b) Conduct dynamic compaction to treat loose sand and conduct surcharging to treat
soft clay.
c) Conduct vibro compaction to treat soft clay and conduct pressure grouting to treat
loose sand.
d) Conduct pressure grouting to treat soft clay and conduct surcharging to treat loose
sand.

33. Shelly tubes are used to

a) Obtain oil samples in clay soils

b) Obtain oil samples in sandy soils
c) Obtain oil samples in silty soils
d) Obtain rock cores
34. Clay soil is loaded in a consolidation test apparatus. The void ratio was measured
during loading and plotted and shown below. This clay

a) Normally Consolidated Clay

b) Over Consolidated Clay
c) Sility Clay
d) Organic Clay

35. A bridge footing is to be constructed is sand. The water table is at the ground
surface. The ultimate bearing capacity working weight?

a) Saturated unit weight

b) Buoyant unit weight
c) Total unit weight
d) Dry unit weight
 HYDRALICS ENGINEERING

36. The flow immediately upstream of a hydraulic jump is

a) Always critical
b) Upstream-Super critical, downstream-sub critical
c) Always sub critical
d) Always super critical

37. Which of the following has the most efficient hydraulic section?
a) Semicircle
b) Triangle with 450 included angle
c) Trapezord with 450 angles
d) Trapezord with 300 angles as measured from the horizontal.

IRRGIATION ENGINEERING

38. You are determining the unit hydro graph from an isolated storm event. The
difference between the total runoff and the base flow is the

a) Effective rainfall intensity

b) Runoff duration Total Runoff - base flow = Direct Runoff
c) Direct Runoff
d) Peak runoff

39. A monitoring station records the following pattern of discharge (cfs) in a stream
following a storm the catchment area for the stream is estimated to be 125acres,
1acre = 43,560ft2

Time (hr) 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7

Flow Rate 34 56 78 102 65 52 40 35

(ft3/sec)

The average depth of excess precipitation from the storm is most nearly;
a) 1.2 in
b) 1.5 in
c) 1.8 in
d) 2.1 in

40. A basic assumption of the rational method for determining peak runoff from a
watershed is that peak runoff for a given rainfall intensity

a) Occurs if rainfall duration is equal to or greater than time of concentration

b) Is independent of the rainfall intensity
c) Occurs only if peak discharge per unit area increase as the drainage area
increase
d) Occurs if rainfall duration is less than the time of concentration

41. A water is to be designed to serve a proposed 100-home residential subdivision on

50acres. Which of the following

a) The required fire flow is nearly the same as average day demand
b) The required fire flow is between 2 times and 5 times the average day demand
c) The required fire flow is between 5 times and 100 times the average day demand
d) The required fire flow is more than 100 times average demand
 SANITARY ENGINEERING

42. Traffic analyst have found that trips genertated per household per day is to be
0.8+1.5P+0.7A

P=Number of person per household

A= Number of automobiles per household

If the area under research includes 800 households and 3.5 persons per household
and 1.8 autos per household what is the number of trips generated per day
a) 4230
b) 5848
c) 6250
d) 10065

Trips Generated per household per day =

0.8+1.5P+0.7A=0.8+1.5×3.5+0.7x1.8=7.31 / house hold
The number of trips generated per day=7.31×800=5848

43. A circular clarifier is being designed to receive a flow of 4.8 MGD. If the circular
depth is 12ft and rentention times 1.5 hours, the tank diameter

a) 33
b) 65
c) 78
d) 55

44. Flow is delivered from a splitter box to an areation basin through a 12-in. Ductile
iron pipe. For a flow rate of 3MGD, the velocity head 9(ft) in the in the ductile iron
pipe is

a) 0.03
b) 0.54
c) 5.91
d) 59.1
45. A primary sedimentation basin for a municipal waste water treatment plant treats a
flow of 3 MGD and removes 70 percent of the total suspended solids. The basin is
60ft in diameter with a depth of 15ft. The solid flux (lb/ft2.d) in this basin is about

a) 2
b) 5
c) Independent of detention time
d) Independent of depth

46. A 10 MGD water treatment plant is to be designed with eight identical rectangular
clarifiers with length to width ratio 5:1. The clarifiers will the clarifiers are 16ft
deep with a horizontal velocity of 0.4 ft/min, the dimensions (ft) of each clarifier
need to be most nearly

a) L 40 W 8
b) L 90 W 18
c) L 300 W 60
d) L 675 W 135

47. Flow is delivered from splitter box to an aeration basin through a 12-in. Ductile
iron pipe, for a flow rate of 3MGD, the velocity head (ft) in the ductile iron pipe is

a) 0.03
b) 0.54
c) 5.91
d) 59.1

48. In preparation for the design of new water treatment plants, jar tests with slightly
turbid water (4TU) show following design alternative is the most appropriate.

a) A Increase the safety factors in design of the sedimentation plant.

b) Provide for substantial addition of polymer and coagulant aid (bentonite clay)
c) Provide for direct filtration without coagulation/flocculation
d) Use the minimum G Values in design of flocculation system
e) None of the above
49. Determine the total volatile solids (TVS) in g/ml. Based on the following data. Two
hundred fifty milliliter of wastewater sample was added to an evaporating dish, the
weight of the empty dish was 24.5087 g. The dish and the sample were placed in a
drying oven at 105°C and removed after all the water evaporated. Once the dish
returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and fond to be 26.7894 g. Then the
dish was put in a furnace at 550°c and removed after several hours. Once the dish
returned to room temperature, it was re-weighed and found to be 24.8904 g.

a) 0.0012 g/ml
b) 0.0091 g/ml
c) 0.0076 g/m
d) 0.0252 g/ml

50. A city with expected increase in its future population is to provide complete water
treatment plant for a surface water source, including rapid mix flocculation,
sedimentation, filtration and chlorination. The design flow is 22.5 MGD, assuming
alum is used for coagulation, the approximate area of the sedimentation basin.
The amount of sedimentation will depend on
the contaminant concentration in the water.
a) Is closet to 10,000 ft2 So, higher the concentration, higher the
sedimentation and in turn higher the required
b) Is closet to 20,000 ft3 basin area.
c) Depends on the dosage of alum
d) Depends on the quality of the water source So, area of sedimentation basin will depend
on the quality of water source. Hence option
(d) is correct.

51. A two stage anaerobic digester is used to treat a combined primary and secondary
sludge. The hydraulic detention time is

a) Equals to the solids retention time

b) Less than the soilds rentention time
c) Greater than solids rention time
d) Not an important design variable

52. The controlling design parameter in the design of settling tank is

a) A detention times
b) Percentage removal of BOD5
c) Percent removal of suspended solids
d) Overflow rate
e) Depth

53. Activated sludge process is beat described as

a) Re introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria.
b) Re introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria.
c) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
d) None of all.

54. An activated sludge sector with a solis retention time of nine days is to achieve
nitrification. PH Control may be necessary because.

a) Nitrification produces acid

b) The activated sludge process consumes alkalinity
c) Nitrification releases ammonia
d) (Nitrification produces acid) and (the activated sludge process consumes
alkalinity).

55. A secondary effluent that has “pinpoint” flow escaping over the weir indicates.

a) Over aeration
b) Too low of a return sludge flow
c) Nitrification
d) Rising Sludge
e) Bulkling Sludge

56. Phoshorus can be removed from waste water by:

a) Ferric chloride addition

b) Chlorine Addition
c) Air Stripping
d) Carbon Absorption
e) Rapid Sand Fitration

57. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the
Controlling phosphorous discharged from municipal and industrial wastewater treatment plants is a key
factor in preventing eutrophication of surface waters. Phosphorous is one of the major nutrients contributing
in the increased eutrophication of lakes and natural waters. Its presence causes many water quality
problems including increased purification costs, decreased recreational and conservation value of an
impoundments, loss of livestock and the possible lethal effect of algal toxins on drinking water.
a) Effluent Quality
b) removal
Phosphate Recyle TSS concentration
is currently achieved largely by chemical precipitation, which is expensive and causes
c) Hydraulic
an increase retention
of sludge volume by time
up to 40%. An alternative is the biological phosphate removal (BPR).
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier
Option (B) is correct. (Chlorine addition)

58. Disinfection with chlorine can be modelled as a first-ordered reaction. A reactor

has a flow rate of 12,000 litres per hour and the desired removal of organisms is
from 10*106/100 ml to less than 1/00ml. the decay coefficient is 0.35hr

Short circuiting in this complete mixed reactor will:

a) Increase treatment efficiency

b) Increased required volume
c) Make the reactor operate more like a plug flow reactor
d) Reduce the required volume

59. What type of instrument control system would you satisfy to ensure that a
softening plant preciption (i.e the reaction chemistry) was operating correctly

a) A flow meter with proportion controller

b) pH meter with proportion controller
c) weighting belt feeder
d) hardness meter with proportion controller

60. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the

a) Effluent Quality
b) Recyle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier

61. A municipal waste is treated with an activated sludge system with recycle after
primary classification. The solids retention time for the

a) Effluent Quality
b) Recyle TSS concentration
c) Hydraulic retention time
d) Efficiency of the primary clarifier
62. Activated sludge process is best described as

a) Re- introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria
b) Re-introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria
c) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
d) None of all

63. A schedmatic of a waste water treatment plant is shown, treatment to remove grit
from the waste water.

a) Decreases BOD
b) Is used to decrease mechanical failure
c) Involves the use of coagulations
d) Can come at any point in the treatment pain

64. What type of instrument/control system would you specify to insure that a
softening plant precipitation process (i.e the reaction chemistry) was open correctly
?
 a) Flow meter with proportional controller
b) Ph meter with proportional controller
c) Hardness meter with proportional controller
d) None of the above

65. Disinfection with chlorine can be modelled as a first ordered reaction. A reactor
has a flow rate of 12,000 liters per hour and the desired removal of organisms is
from 10x106/100 ml to less than 100 ml, the decay coefficient is 0.35/hr
Option B would me most appropriate.
Short circuiting in this complete mixed reactor will since short circuit reduces treatment efficiency.
For ideal plug flow short circuiting should not
a) Increase treatment efficiency take place.
Short circuit Increase the Volume required.
b) Increase the required volume
c) Make the reactor operate more like a plug flow reactor
d) Reduce the required volume

66. Activated sludge process is best described as

e) Re- introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to increase the level of
bacteria
f) Re-introduce aerated sludge back to the waste stream to decrease the level of
bacteria
g) Activate the sludge by adding chemicals
h) None of all

67. A wastewater effluent is treated with chlorine gas (Cl2) to give a free residual of 0.5
mg/l. The amount of chlorine required is:
a) Much greater than 0.5 mg/l
b) Dependent on the COD of the effluent
c) Dependent on the NH3-N concentration of the effluent
Dosage, mg/L= Pounds of Chemical
(8.34 lbs/gal) *(Flow, mgd)

If the measured effluent residual of the effluent was 3.5 mg/L, then subtracting 3.5 from 17.1 gives us
a chlorine demand of 13.6 mg/L. This means that the effluent demanded 13.6 mg/L of chlorine before
a residual value could be met. Demand = Dosage – Residual

68. An activated sludge reactor with a solids retention time of nine days is to achieve
nitrification ptt control may be necessary because
 a) Nitrification produces acid
b) The activated process sludge process consumes alkalinity
c) Nitrification releases ammonia
d) (Nitrification produces acid) and ( the activated sludge process consumes
alkalinity

69. Phosphorus can be removed from waste water by:

a) Ferric chloride addition

b) Chlorine addition
c) Air stripping
d) Carbon adsorption
e) Rapid sand filtration
 PROJECT MANAGEMENT

70. What is meant by the moral theory criteria mlsm

a) Act in your enlighted self-intrest

b) Construct a global utility happiness-objective function and to maximize it.

71. Your boss has just approved the initiation of project to celebrate Qatar national day
sadia has been as assigned the project manager by the boss.sadia very first task should
be
a) Establish the reporting process is the boss
b) Work on the project scope
c) Make a report on required cost for the project
d) Delivering the project chance to the project develop the project chart to do
project
e) Ask the boss as to how many team members would be allowed in to the
project.

72. Which is the following situations requires a change order

a) Change in owner scope of work

b) Significant change in suitable conditions
c) Design error or omission
d) All of above

73. Which of these is a reason to start a project

a) Problem
b) Market
c) Opportunity
d) All answers are true
 ENGINEERING MATERIAL

74. The Accreditation Board of Engineering and Techology (ABET) is an accrediting

agency for.

a) Engineering Education Programs

b) Engineering Fundamentals Examinations
c) Engineering Firms
d) All of the above

75. ABET Strands for Accoditation board fot Engineering and technology
a) True
b) False

76. Carbon brick is made from crushed coke bond bonded with
a) Sulphate
b) Carbon
c) Tar
d) Clay

77. How often shall a visual inspection be done on smoke detectors as per NFPA 72?

a) Monthly
b) Daily
c) Semi Annually
d) Weekly

78. If an absorption chiller load is 500 tons, the required heat input (Btu/hr) to a chiller

a) 4.8x106
b) 6.0x106
c) 7.5x106
d) 9.4x106

1 tonne = 12,000 Btu/hr

500 tonne = 500x12,000x1000
= 600,000,0000
 CONCRETE TECHNOLOGY

79. Increased water-cement ratio (W/C) in concrete mix

a) Results in decreased strength (Best Answer)
b) Reduces workability
c) Decrease hydration process
d) Reduce the slump value
Project management
1. What is primary use for fast track scheduling?

A. To decrease the cost of construction

B. To decrease the cost of professional services

C. To avoid future cost increase

D. To guarantee project cost prior to the start of building

2. Fast Tracking in Project means.

A. Start the project before the design complete

B. Fixed cost-plus fee

C. None

3. An engineer received new scope of work, which is not included at the original scope, what the
action he has to do?

A. Accept the scope and start for supplying the materials

B. He has to inform project manager first

C. Refuse to receive the new scope

4. Which of the following characteristics is not typical of a project manager:

A. Managing a temporary activity

B. Possesses in depth technical knowledge

C. Managing a non-repetitive activity

D. Manages independently of the formal organization

5. Which of the following is not opportunity to do the project?

A. Demand of the product

B. Emerging markets
C. Lot of Manpower
D. Favorable exchange rated
Because workers are now and again alluded to as labor when
they are being considered as a piece of the most common way of
delivering products or offering types of assistance.

E. None of these is Organizational opportunities

6. What is the common or usual method to ensure that the final set of construction documents satisfy
the clients program and design goals?

A. Make a checklist program requirement for the staff working on the project of use to continuously
monitor their progress as they prepare the drawings.

B. Have the client review a final check set for compliance with the program requirements and request
that any corrections be noted.

C. Have another architect who is unfamiliar with the project review the final set for compliance with the
original program requirement.

D. Hold regular progress meetings with the client and staff involved to compare the current status of
the drawings with the original program requirements. At the conclusion of this phase, require that the
client provide the architect with written approval to proceed to the next phase.

7. Activity on arrow needs to use dummy activities to avoid precedence problem that

Can happen due to:

A. Parallel Activities

B. Critical Path Activities

C. Merge Activities

D. Burst Activities

E. Independent Activities

F. None of the above

8-First step of scope planning starts with :

A. Budgeting

B. Current earning estimations

C. Objective and requirements to satisfy customer

9-What type of bond guarantees that if a contractor goes broke on a project, the surety will pay the
necessary amount to complete the job?

A. Bid bond

B. Performance bond

C. Acceptance bond

D. Payment Bond
10-Which of the following choices is not one of the stages of a project life cycle?

A. Concept

B. Initiation

C. Planning

D. Execution

A. Delivery/Closure

11-From of the following activities which is the example of a project?

A. Processing insurance claim All of the above can be considered as a

B. Producing automobile project as every one of the above involves
C. Writing a new textbook on project management a step-by-step procedure. Each of the
D. Completing college degree above activities require the following
E. All of these steps to get the result
The steps are
12- The first step of project scope definition is to:
Define goals
A. Analyze the strategic plan Initiation
Planning
B. Analyze the current budget plan
Execution
C. Meet with team members Monitoring and control
D. Select team members

E. Define the major objectives to meet the customer needs

13-The forward pass in project network calculation determines the:

A. Earliest time’s activities can begin

B. Earliest time’s activities can be finished

C. Duration of the project

D. Critical path of the project

E. Only A & B are correct

F. A, B and C are all correct

14- An activity in a project network can be represented by which of the following?

A. Arrow

B. Line

C. Node

D. All of the above

15- Your boss has just approved the initiation of a project to celebrate Qatar National Day. Sadia has
been assigned the project manager as should be

: A. Establish the reporting process to the boss

B. Work on the project scope

C. Make a report on required cost for the project

D. Develop the project charter to do the project

E. Ask the boss as to how many team members would be allowed in the project

16- What is meant by Ethics?

A. Codes of behavior and courtesy.

B. General and abstract concept of right and wrong behavior culled from

philosophy, theology, professional societies.

C. A system of rules established by authority, society or custom where violation

carry penalties.

D. Accepted standards of right and wrong applied to personal behavior driven by

religious and or family and environment background

17- Which one of the engineering characteristics can best explain the following

concept? Base your decision on reason rather than emotion.

A. Quantitative Thinking

B. Interpersonal Skill

C. Honesty

D. Logical Thinking

18- TQM stands for:

A. Tool Quality Management

B. Test Quality Manager

C. Total Quality Manager

D. Total Quality Management

19- .The highest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is:

A. Major Deliverables

B. A cost accounts

C. Work package

D. The project

20- The lowest element in the hierarchical breakdown of the WBS is:

A. Deliverables

B. A Work Package

C. A Cost Account

D. A Lowest Sub deliverable

E. An Object

21- Splitting project into tasks and estimate time and resources required to complete

each task is called:

A. Project scheduling

B. Project optimization : involves using optimization techniques to optimize the cost or duration of the project.

C. Project Control : involves the application of control techniques for a project.

22- Which of the estimates listed would occur last in project time line?

A. Rough Order of Magnitude

B. Square Foot Estimate

C. Bid Estimate

D. Assemblies Estimate

23 -The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the project completion
timing called:

A. Total Slack (Total Float)

B. Total Slag

C. Critical Float

D. Float Pad

E. Critical Slag
24-.Among the sites being considered for a new main library are those adjacent to the following areas
or services. The most appropriate site is one that is adjacent to:

A. A residential neighborhood and recreation facilities

B. Mosques and government offices

C. Public schools

D. Shopping and public transportations

25-Project Control will be:

A. Before construction

B. During construction

C. Through the project duration

26- Which is not part of Scope Management?

A. Define scope

B. Verify Scope

C. Execute Scope

D. Create WBS

27- Process of decomposing deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is complete
when:

A. Project justification has been established

B. Change request have occurred

C. Cost and duration estimates can be developd

D. Each work element can be found in the WBS

28-Project life cycle is different than product life cycle in that project life cycle:

A. Does not incorporate methodology

B. Is different for each industry

C. Covers different project

D. Describes project management activities

29-Best time to assign a project manager to a project is during: At the beginning of the project
A. Execution B. Initiation

C. Monitoring and Controlling D. Closing

 30- Scheduling periodic tasks to execute on a processor based on assigning the highest priority to the
task that has the shortest period (greatest frequency) is:

A. Cyclic executive Scheduling periodic tasks to execute on a processor based on assigning the highest
priority to the task that has the shortest period (greatest frequency) is Rate monotonic.
B. Deadline monotonic
In highest priority to the task that has the shortest period there is no critical region.
C. Earliest deadline first If the longest period, the priority become lower.
Rate Monatic is the highest prioirity based approach.
D. Rate monotonic It is a semi fixed scheduling policy
31-The final step in the definition of a work breakdown structure is to:

A. Assign codes for each activity of the work package

B. Assign the cost account to a manager

C. Assign the work package to a manager

D. Develop the responsibility matrix

E. None of these are included in the final step

32-Project management is ideally suited except:

A. Accountability

B. Flexibility

C. Innovation

D. Speed

E. Repeatability

33-. Which of the following would not be classified as a direct cost?

IN Direct cost A. Safety and first aid expenses

B. Finishing labor for a concrete slab

C. Materials for a structural steel frame

D. Foundation excavation equipment expenses

34- During which of the following categories are you more likely to find status reports many changes
and the creation of forecasts?

A. Concept B. Initiation

C. Planning

D. Execution

E. Closure
35-The critical path in a project network is the:

A. Shortest path through the network

B. Longest path through the network

C. Network path with the most difficult activities

D. Network path using the most resources

E. Network path with the most merge resources

36-Of the following engineering discipline, which would be best, suited to manage the construction of
a natural gas pipeline?

A. Petroleum Engineer

B. Mechanical Engineer

C. Civil Engineer

D. Chemical Engineer

37-When an activity network is developed by using forward and backward pass we can find out:

A. The longest time period that the project will take.

B. The number of total slacks that project managers might have.

C. The number of free slacks in the network.

D. the earliest and latest time that an activity can finish.

E. Only A and B are correct.

F. Only A, B and C are correct.

G. A, B, C and D are all correct.

38- An engineer is offered some additional gifts and services in exchange for using superior materials
on a remodeling project. This was not detailed in the contract. He should:

A. Take the offer and use the special materials.

B. Reject the offer.

C. Ask her boss which of the gifts to accept.

D. Accept the gifts but use the materials specified in the contract in order to retain neutrality.

39-You are a project manager for a company that supplies parts to the government. Part of your
budget plan shows an average can reduce move units. What theory that describes the rationale for
the budget planning?

A. Theory of Constraints
B. Law of Diminishing Return

C. Economics of Scale Theory

D. Learning Curve Theory

40-____________ activities must be completed immediately before a particular activity.

A. Merge

B. Burst

C. Predecessor

D. Successor

E. Critical

41- An architect visits the site and found out the gypsum installation ongoing is of very low grade, what
immediate action should he take?

A. Stop the work.

B. Inform client that poor material is been used.

C. Inform the contractor and mention him that contract is rejected.

D. Inform the drywall about his observation at the site.

42-Which of the following is not opportunity to do the project?

A. Demand of the product B. Emerging markets

C. Lot of Manpower Because workers are now and again alluded to as labor when
they are being considered as a piece of the most common way
D. Favorable exchange rated of delivering products or offering types of assistance.

E. None of these are Organizational opportunities

QCS: (2010): Qatar Construction Specification

QCS: (2007): Qatar Construction Standards

QSAS: Qatar Sustainability Assessment System

PERT: Program Evaluation and Review Technique

CPM: Critical Path Method

PWA: Public Works Affairs

AASHTO: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials

ASTM: American Society for Testing and Materials

BS: British Standards

ABET: Accreditation Board for Engineering and Technology