JUNIOR ENGINEER EXAM

FULL MOCK TEST SERIES

CIVIL ENGINEERING Test No. 05
Topic
All subjects as per previous syllabus
Duration: 2 hours Total Marks: 200
Read the following instructions carefully
There will be negative marking for wrong answer; 2/3 marks will be deducted
for each wrong answer.

1. As per Indian standards for bricks, a. 4% to 6%

minimum acceptable compressive strength b. 10% to 12%

of any class of burnt clay bricks in dry state c. 15% to 20%

is d. 100%

a. 10.0 MPa
4. The aggregate which is obtained from
b. 0.75 MPa
seashore or rivers and produces minimum
c. 5.0 MPa
voids in the concrete is known as
d. 3.5 MPa
a. Angular aggregate

2. Jumper is a tool used for b. Flaky aggregate

a. testing of stones c. Irregular aggregate

b. quarrying of stones d. Rounded aggregate

c. dressing of stones 5. A constituent of paint that helps in quick

d. none of the above drying of painted surface is

3. The moisture content in a well-seasoned a. Thinner

Timber b. Base
c. Vehicle

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 d. Drier d. None of the above
6. The main constituent of cement which is 11. The member which is placed horizontally
responsible for initial setting of cement is to support common rafter of a sloping roof,
a. dicalcium silicate is

b. tricalcium silicate (a) purlin

c. tricalcium aluminate (b) cleat
d. all of the above (c) batten

7. For testing compressive strength of (d) strut.

cement, the size of cube used is
12. Doglegged stairs are
a. 50 mm a. half turn stairs

b. 70.6mm b. quarter turn stairs

c. straight stairs
c. 100 mm
d. three quarter turn stairs
d. 150 mm 13. Nosing is the outer projecting edge of a
8. Standard concrete upper limit as per IS: a. riser
456 New Amendment b. tread
a. M55 c. baluster
d. landing
b. M60
14. The type of roof suitable in plains where
c. M80
rainfall is meagre and temperature is high
d. M100 is

9. Addition of pozzolana to ordinary a. pitched and sloping roof

Portland cement increases b. flat roof

c. shell roof
a. bleeding
d. none of the above
b. shrinkage
15. Pitched and sloping roofs are suitable for
c. permeability a. coastal regions

d. heat of hydration b. plain regions

c. covering large areas
10. Humidity causes
d. all of the above
a. Hardening of cement in a bag
16. Hooke’s law holds good up to
b. Setting of cement in a bag
a. Yield point
c. Strengthening of cement in a bag b. Elastic limit

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 c. Plastic limit b. P2 / 2
d. Breaking point c. (P1 - P 2) / 2
17. Young’s modulus may be defined as the d. (P 1 + P 2) / 2
ratio of 23. If a point in a strained material is
a. Linear stress to lateral strain subjected to equal normal and tangential
stresses, then the angle of obliquity is
b. Lateral strain to linear strain
a. 0°
c. Linear stress to linear strain
b. 45°
d. Shear stress to shear strain
c. tan-¹ (1/2)
18. When a bar of length l and diameter d is d. tan-¹ (1/2)
rigidly fixed at the upper end and 24. If the principal stresses at a point in a
hanging freely, then the total elongation strained body are P1 and P2 (P1 > P 2), then
produced in the bar due to its own weight the resultant stress on a plane carrying the
is maximum shear stress is equal to
a. wl/2E a. p12 + p22
b. wl2/2E
c. wl3/2E p12 + p22
b.
d. wl4/2E 2
19. The length of a conical bar is l, diameter of p12 − p22
c.
base d and weight per unit volume is w. It 2
is fixed at its upper end and hanging p12 + p22
freely. The elongation of the bar under the d.
2
action of its own weight will be 25. The plane of maximum obliquity is
a. wl2/2E inclined to the major principal plane at an
b. wl2/4E angle
c. wl2/6E  max
a. +
d. wl2/8E 2 4
20. A rod is enclosed centrally in a tube and  max
b. +
the assembly is tightened by rigid 4 2
washers. If the assembly is subjected to a  max
c. −
compressive load, then 4 2
a. Rod is under compression 
d. + max
b. Tube is under compression 4
c. Both rod and tube are under
Where, max is the angle of maximum
compression
obliquity.
d. Tube is under tension and rod is under
compression 26. A point in a strained body is subjected to a
21. When a member is subjected to axial tensile stress of 100 Mpa on one plane and
tensile load, the greatest normal stress is a tensile stress of 50 Mpa on a plane at right
equal to angle to it. If these planes are carrying
a. half the maximum shear stress shear stress of 50 Mpa, then the principal
b. maximum shear stress stresses are inclined to the larger normal
c. twice the maximum shear stress stress at an angle
d. none of the above a. tan-¹ (2)
22. At a point in a strained body carrying two b. 1/2 tan-¹ (2)
unequal unlike principal stresses P1 and P2 c. 1/2 tan-¹ (2/3)
(P1 > P2), the maximum shear stress is d. 1/2 tan-¹ (1/3)
given by 27. If a prismatic member with area of cross
a. P1/2 section A is subjected to a tensile load p,

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 then the maximum shear stress and its d. 60
inclination with the direction of load
34. Dry intervals in surface wetting leads to
respectively are
a. P/A and 45° __________
b. P/ 2A and 45°
a. Cracking
c. P/ 2A and 60°
d. P/A and 30° b. Fogging
28. The sum of normal stress is
c. High strength
a. Constant
b. Variable d. Good workability
c. dependent on the planes
35. What is the range of water in M20?
d. none of the above
29. The radius of Mohr's circle for two equals a. 34-36L
unlike principal stresses of magnitude p is
b. 29-32L
a. p
b. p/2 c. 26-30L
c. zero
d. 21-27L
d. none of the above
30. Shear stress on principal planes is 36. Creep is ____________
a. A Zero
a. Time dependent
b. Maximum
c. Minimum b. Time independent
d. none of the above
c. Pressure dependent
31. The maximum ratio of span to depth of a
d. Temperature dependent
slab simply supported and spanning in
37. If θ is creep coefficient then what is Elong?
two directions, is
a. Eshort /(1+θ)
a. 25
b. Eshort *(1+θ)
b. 30
c. Eavg /(1+θ)
c. 35
d. Eavg *(1+θ)
d. 40
38. This strain increases over time due to
32. IS code for Specification for ordinary
_________
Portland cement, 33 grade?
a. Creep
a. IS 269
b. Elastic modulus
b. IS 383
c. Short term modulus of elasticity
c. IS 455
d. Long term modulus of elasticity
d. IS 456
39. Creep is _________ to the strength of
33. In a dry environment, concrete strength
concrete.
will be loosed as much as _________ % in
a. Equal
the moist environment.
b. Similar
a. 30
c. Directly proportional
b. 40
d. Inversely proportional
c. 50

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40. In practice, shrinkage is measured simply b. Efficiency of vibrator
as a ____________ c. Placing conditions
a. Linear strain d. Type of mix, efficiency of vibrator,
b. Linear stress pacing conditions
c. Volumetric strain 46. According to IS classification, the range of
d. Volumetric stress silt size particles is
41. Durability of concrete is proportional to a. 4.75 mm to 2.00 mm
_________ b. 2.00 mm to 0.425 mm
a. Sand content c. 0.425 mm to 0.075 mm
b. Water cement ratio d. 0.075 mm to 0.002 mm
c. Aggregate ratio 47. Highway Research Board (HRB)
d. Cement aggregate ratio classification of soils is based on
42. Strength of concrete increase with a. Particle size composition
_____________ b. Plasticity characteristics
a. Increase with w/c ratio c. Both particle size composition and
b. Decrease with w/c ratio plasticity characteristics
c. Decrease in size of aggregates d. None of the above
d. Decrease in curing time 48. Inorganic soils with low compressibility
43. Which machine records the change in are represented by
length of specimen? a. MH
a. Impact testing machine b. SL
b. Universal testing machine c. ML
c. Rockwell tester d. CH
d. Brinell tester 49. The description of ‘sandy silty clay’
44. In charpy test specimen, the angle of v- signifies that
notch section is ____________ a. The soil contains unequal proportions
a. 30 degrees of the three constituents, in the order
b. 45 degrees sand > silt > clay
c. 60 degrees b. The soil contains equal proportions of
d. 90 degrees sand, silt and clay
45. When vibrators are used for compaction, c. The soil contains unequal proportions
the consistency of concrete depends upon of sand, silt and clay
the ___________
a. Type of mix

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 d. The soil contains unequal proportions 56. In the tri axial compression test, the
of the three constituents such that application of additional axial stress ( i.e.
deviator stress ) on the soil specimen
clay > silt > sand.
produces shear stress on
50. The correct increasing order of the surface a. Horizontal plane only
areas of the given soils is b. Vertical plane only
c. Both horizontal and vertical planes
a. Silt, sand, colloids, clay
d. All planes except horizontal and
b. Sand, silt, colloids, clay vertical planes
c. Sand, silt, clay, colloids 57. In a tri axial compression test when
drainage is allowed during the first stage
d. Clay, silt, sand, colloids
( i.e. application of cell pressure ) only and
51. Shear strength of a soil is a unique function not during the second stage ( i.e.
of application of deviator stress at constant
a. Effective stress only cell pressure ), the test is known as
b. Total stress only a. Consolidated drained test
c. Both effective stress and total stress b. Consolidated un drained test
d. None of the above c. Unconsolidated drained test
52. Unconfined compressive strength test is d. Unconsolidated un drained test
a. Un drained test 58. When a sample of sand is sheared under
b. Drained test un drained condition, then
c. Consolidated un drained test a. Volume of dense sand increases and
d. Consolidated drained test that of loose sand decreases
53. In an unconfined compression test on a b. Volume of dense sand decreases and
clay specimen of initial volume V and that of loose sand increases
length l, the area of cross section at failure c. Volume of both dense sand and loose
is taken as sand decreases
a. V/ L – δL d. Volume does not change
b. V+ δV/ L – δL 59. The ratio of the undisturbed shear strength
c. V- δV/ L – δL to the remoulded shear strength in
d. V/ L + δL cohesive soils under un drained conditions
54. The angle that coulomb’s failure envelope is
makes with the horizontal is called a. Zero
a. Cohesion b. 1
b. Angle of internal friction c. Greater than 1
c. Angle of repose d. Between 0 and 1
d. None of the above 60. If an unconfined compressive strength of 4
55. In a tri axial compression test on a soil Kg/cm2 in the natural state of clay reduces
specimen the intermediate principal stress by four times in the remoulded state, then
is equal to its sensitivity will be
a. Major principal stress a. 1
b. Minor principal stress b. 2
c. Difference between major and minor c. 4
principal stresses d. 8
d. None of the above

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61. The corrosion for refraction as applied to b. Map study, preliminary survey,
staff reading is
reconnaissance and detailed survey
a. +1/7(d2/2R) c. Map study, reconnaissance,
b. -1/7(d2/2R)
c. +1/7(d2/R) preliminary survey and detailed
d. -1/7(d2/R) survey
Where R is radius of earth
d. Preliminary survey, map study,
62. A level was set up at a point A and distance reconnaissance and detailed survey
to the staff station B was 100m.The net
combined corrosion due to curvature and 67. A road camber is given in Fig
refraction as applied to the staff reading is

a. 0.00673m
b. 0.000673m
c. -0.000673m
d. -0.00673m

63. While doing leveling in undulating terrain,

it is preferable to set the level on For designing this camber, the equation to
a. the top of summit be used is
b. the bottom of a valley
c. one side of the slope a. y= x2/60
d. anywhere
b. y=x2/120
64. If the horizontal distance between the staff c. y=x2/210
point and the point of observation is d,
then the error due to curvature of earth is d. y=x2/225
proportional to
68. Which one of the following is associated
a. d
b. 1/d with “limiting gradient” on highways?
c. d2 a. Requirement of maximum tractive
d. 1/d2
effort for a short distance
65. Sensitiveness of a level tube is designed by
b. Requirement of minimum tractive
a. radius of level tube effort on the whole gradient
b. length of level tube
c. length of bubble of level tube c. Efficient drainage conditions
d. none of the above d. Alignment design in general

66. The sequence of four stages of survey in a 69. The radius of a horizontal curve is 100

highway alignment is meters. The design speed is 50 kmph and

the design coefficient of lateral friction is
a. Reconnaissance, map study,
0.15. What would be the rate of super
preliminary survey and detailed
elevation if full lateral friction is
survey
considered?

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 a. 1 in 21.2 b. 298 m
b. 1 in 15.8 c. 322 m
c. 1 in 25.0 d. 340 m
d. 1 in 32.6 74. A typical Marshall test graph is shown in
70. Psychological widening on road curves is
given by (symbols have the used meaning)
a. nL2/2R
b. 0.1V/root R
c. 0.1nV/root R
d. 0.1V/root R + nL2/2R
71. In the Los Angeles Abrasion Test on
a. Stability value
aggregate, if the speed of the drum is
b. Flow value
increased to 50 rpm, then the abrasion
c. Percentage of voids
value will
d. Unit weight
a. Increase
75. If allowable percentage error in the
b. Decrease
estimate of basic rainfall is E and
c. Remain unchanged coefficient of variation of rainfall is Cv, then
d. Be unpredictable the optimum number of rain gauge is
given by
72. The maximum super elevation to be
a. Cv/E
provided on a road curve is 1 in 15. If the b. √Cv/E
c. (Cv/E)2
rate of change of super elevation is
d. (Cv/E)3/2
specified as 1 in 120 and the road width is 76. Coefficient of variation is given by
10 m, then the minimum length of the a. (Standard deviation/mean) ×100
b. (variance/mean) ×100
transition curve on either end will be c. (mean/standard deviation) ×100
a. 180 m d. (mean/variance) ×100
77. Percentage of rain gauge stations which
b. 125 m
should be equipped with self-recording
c. 80 m gauge for knowing the intensity of
d. 30 m rainfall should be about
a. 5%
73. A summit curve is formed at the b. 10%
intersection of a 3% up gradient and 5% c. 15%
d. 20%
down gradient. To provide a stopping
78. If the coefficient of variation of rainfall
distance of 128 m, the length of summit values at 4 rain gauge stations is 30% and
curve needed will be permissible error in the estimation of
mean rainfall is 10%, then the additional
a. 271 m

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 number of rain gauge stations required in b. the depth of water consumed by
the catchment is
transpiration
a. 3
b. 4 c. the depth of water consumed by
c. 5 evaporation and transpiration during
d. 9
crop growth, including water
79. The normal annual precipitation at
stations X, A, B and C are 700 mm, 1000 consumed by accompanying weed
mm, 900 mm and 800 mm respectively. If
growth
the storm precipitation at three station A,
B and C were 100 mm, 90 mm and 80 mm d. none of the above
respectively, then the storm precipitation 84. The field capacity of a soil depends upon
for station X will be
a. 70 mm a. capillary tension in soil
b. 80 mm
b. porosity of soil
c. 90 mm
d. 105 mm c. both (a) and (b)
80. The double-mass curve technique is d. neither (a) nor (b)
adopted to
(a) check the consistency of rain gauge 85. Super fluous water is also called
records
(b) to find the average rainfall over a a. capillary water
number of years b. gravitational water
(c) to find the number of rainguages
c. hygroscopic water
required
(d) to estimate the missing rainfall data d. all of these
81. Out let discharge for a particular crop is 86. A useful soil moisture for plant growth is
given by a. capillary water
a. Area/outlet factor b. gravitational water
b. Outlet factor/Area c. hygroscopic water
c. Area × outlet factor d. all of these
d. none of these 87. The amount of water required to fill up the
82. The optimum depth of kor watering for pore spaces in soil particles by replacing all
wheat in the plains of north India is air held in pore spaces is known as
a. 13.5 cm a. field capacity
b. 16.5 cm b. saturation capacity
c. 19 cm c. available moisture
d. 21 cm d. all of these
83. Consumptive use of water by a crop is 88. The moisture content of the soil,after free
equal to drainage has removed most of the gravity
a. the depth of water consumed by water is known as
evaporation a. field capacity

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 b. saturation capacity c. total hardness - total alkalinity
d. non-carbonate hardness
c. wilting co –efficient
95. If the methyl orange alkalinity of water
d. available moisture equals or exceeds total hardness, all of the
hardness is
89. The water content at which plants can no
a. Non carbonate hardness
longer extract sufficient water from the soil b. Carbonate hardness
c. Pseudo hardness
for its growth, is called
d. Negative non carbonate hardness
a. field capacity 96. If the total hardness and alkalinity of a
b. saturation capacity sample of water are 300 mg/l and 100
mg//l (CaCo3 scale) respectively, then its
c. permanent wilting point
carbonate and non-carbonate hardness (in
d. available moisture units of mg/l) will be respectively.
90. Available moisture may be defined as the a. 100 and 200
b. 400 and 300
a. moisture content at permanent wilting
c. 100 and 400
point d. 400 and zero
b. difference in water content of the soil 97. The maximum permissible limit for
fluoride in drinking water is
between field capacity and permanent a. 0.1mg/litre
wilting point b. 1.5mg/litre
c. 5mg/litre
c. maximum moisture holding capacity d. 10mg/litre
d. all of these 98. The dissolved oxygen level in natural
unpolluted waters at normal temperature
91. Which of the following values of pH is found to be of the order of
represents a stronger acid? a. 1 mg/litre
a. 2 b. 10 mg/litre
b. 5 c. 100 mg/litre
c. 7 d. 1000 mg/litre
d. 10 99. The phenolic compounds in public water
92. Standard EDTA (ethylene diamine tetra
supply should not be more than
acetic acid) solution is used to determine
the a. 0•1 ppm.
a. Hardness in water b. 0•01 ppm.
b. turbidity in water c. 0•001 ppm.
c. dissolved oxygen in water d. 0•0001 ppm
d. residual chlorine in water 100. Which of the following is not a water
93. Alkalinity in water is expressed as borne disease?
milligrams per litre in terms of equivalent
a. dysentery
a. calcium carbonate
b. magnesium carbonate b. cholera
c. sodium carbonate c. typhoid.
d. calcium hydroxide d. malaria
94. If the total hardness of water is greater than
its total alkalinity, the carbonate hardness
will be equal to
a. total alkalinity
b. total hardness

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