JUNIOR ENGINEER EXAM

FULL MOCK TEST SERIES

CIVIL ENGINEERING Test No. 03
Topic
All subjects as per previous syllabus
Duration: 2 hours Total Marks: 200
Read the following instructions carefully
There will be negative marking for wrong answer; 2/3 marks will be deducted
for each wrong answer.

1. For one cubic meter of brick masonry, the c. sal and teak
number of modular bricks required are d. chir and deodar
a. 400
4. An aggregate is said to be flaky if its least
b. 450
dimension is less than
c. 500
a. 2/3 mean dimension
d. 550
b. 3/4 mean dimension
2. Which of the following sedimentary rocks c. 3/5 mean dimension
changes into quartzite by metamorphic action? d. 5/8 mean dimension
a. sand stone 5. The chief ingredient of a paint is
b. lime stone a. Alcohol
c. shale b. Drier
d. gypsum c. Oil
3. In which of the following pairs both trees yield d. Pigment
soft wood? 6. The ultimate strength of cement is provided by
a. deodar and shishum a. Silica
b. chir and sal
b. di- calcium silicate

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 c. tri- calcium silicate c. Zigzag Bond single Flemish bond
d. none of the above
d. tri- calcium aluminate
12. The differential settlement in case of
7. Gypsum is added in cement
foundations on Sandy soils should not exceed
a. After burning
a. 25 mm
b. Before burning b. 40 mm

c. After grinding c. 65 mm
d. 100 mm
d. At the time of mixing of raw materials
13. The type of footing which is used to transmit
8. The shrinkage of concrete is due to change in heavy loads through steel columns is
a. Length a. raft foundation
b. Cross sectional Area b. grillage foundation
c. well foundation
c. Volume
d. isolated footing
d. Surface area
14. The maximum total settlement for isolated
9. The initial setting time of rapid hardening foundations on clayey soils should be limited
cement should not be less than to
a. 30 min a. 25 mm

b. 1 hour b. 40 mm
c. 65 mm
c. 4 hours
d. 100 mm
d. 8 hours 15. The minimum depth of foundation in clayey

10. A splitting tensile test is performed on a soils is

cylinder of diameter ‘D’ and length ‘L’. If the a. 0.5 m

ultimate load is ‘P’, then the splitting tensile b. 0.7 m

strength of concrete is given by c. 0.9 m

𝑃 d. 1.2 m
a. 𝜋𝐷𝐿
16. A prismatic bar of volume V is subjected to a
2𝑃
b.
𝜋𝐷𝐿 tensile force in longitudinal direction. If

c.
4𝑃𝐿 Poisson’s ratio of the material is u and
𝜋𝐷3
longitudinal strain is e, then the final volume
2𝑃𝐷
d. 𝜋𝐿3 of the bar becomes

11. In brick masonry the bond produced by a. (1+ e) (1- u) ² V

laying alternate headers and stretchers in b. (1- e) ² (1 + u e) V

each course is known as c. (1 + e) (1 - u e) ² V

a. English bond d. (1- u e) ³ V

b. Double Flemish bond

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17. If a composite bar of a steel and copper is d. load curve between these two sections plus
heated, then the copper bar will be under concentrated loads applied between the
a. Tension sections
b. Compression 23. The variation of the bending moment in the
c. Shear portion of a beam carrying linearly varying
d. Torsion load is
18. Maximum bending moment in a beam occurs a. linear
were b. parabolic
a. deflection is zero c. cubic
b. shear force is maximum d. constant
c. shear force is minimum 24. The maximum bending moment due to a
d. Shear force changes sign moving load on a fixed ended beam occurs
19. A simply supported beam of span l carries over a. at a support
its full span a load varying linearly from zero b. always at the mid span
at either end to w/ unit length at mid span. The c. under the load only
maximum bending moment occurs at d. none of the above
a. quarter points and is equal to wl²/8 25. A cantilever beam AB of length l carries a
b. quarter points and is equal to wl²/12 concentrated load W at its mid span C. If the
c. mid span and is equal to wl²/8 free end B is supported on a rigid prop, then
d. mid span and is equal to wl²/12 there is a point of contra flexure
20. Rate of change of bending moment is equal to a. between A and C
a. shear force b. between C and B
b. deflection c. one between A and C and other between C
c. slope and B
d. rate of loading d. nowhere of the beam
21. The diagram showing the variation of axial 26. A prismatic beam fixed at both ends carries a
load along the span is called uniformly distributed load. The ratio of
a. shear force diagram bending moment at the supports to the
b. bending moment diagram bending moment at mid span is
c. thrust diagram a. 0.5
d. influence line diagram b. 1.0
22. The difference in ordinate of the shear curve c. 1.5
between any two sections is equal to the d. 2.0
a. load curve between these two sections 27. A beam of overall length l with equal
b. shear curve between these two sections overhangs on both sides carries a uniformly
c. bending moment curve between these two distributed load over the entire length. To have
sections numerically equal bending moments at centre

Prepared by: Er. Abhilash Jana, M.E. Jadavpur University, 8100407226 3

 of the beam and at supports, the distance
between the supports should be
a. 0.2771
b. 0.4031
c. 0.5861
d. 0.7071
28. A prismatic beam of length l and fixed at both
ends carries a uniformly distributed load. The
a. Section 1 – 1
distance of points of contra flexure from either
b. Section 2 – 2
end is
c. Section 3 – 3
a. 0.2071
d. Section 4 – 4
b. 0.2111
32. According to Unwin's formula, the diameter of
c. 0.2771
rivet in mm to suit the t mm thickness of plate
d. 0.251
is given by
29. A simple supported beam of length l carries a
a. 6 t
load varying uniformly from zero at left end to
b. 6 √t
maximum at right end. The maximum bending
c. 1.9 √t
moment occurs at a distance of
d. 1.5t + 4
a. 1/√3 from left end
33. A flat carrying a pull of 690 kN is connected to
b. 1/3 from left end
a gusset plate using rivets. If the pulls required
c. 1/√ 3 from right end
to shear the rivet, to crush the rivet and to tear
d. 1/3 from right end.
the plate per pitch length are 68.5 kN ,46 kN
30. If a cantilever beam carries a uniformly
and 69 kN respectively, then the number of
distributed load over its entire length; then
rivets required is
shapes of shear force diagram and bending
a. 10
moment respectively are
b. 12
a. quadratic parabolic and cubic parabola
c. 15
b. triangle and quadratic parabola
d. 20
c. rectangle and triangle
34. If the rivet value is 16.8 kN and force in the
d. quadratic parabola and triangle
member is 16.3 kN , then the number of rivets
31. The weakest section in a diamond riveting as
required for the connection of the member to a
shown in fig is
gusset plate is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

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35. In the riveted connection shown in fig, which d. None of these
of the rivets will be subjected to maximum 40. For a cantilever beam of length L continuous at
stress? the support and unrestrained against torsion at
the support and at the end, the effective length
(l) is equal to
a. l = L
b. l = 2L
c. l = 0.5L
d. l = 3L
41. Spans of continuous fillers are considered
a. Rivet A only
approximately equal if the longest span does
b. Rivets B and D
not exceed the shortest span by more than
c. Rivets C and D
a. 0.05
d. Rivets A and C
b. 0.1
36. In a steel beam section, the web carries c. 0.15
a. The compression d. 0.2
b. The tension 42. Web crippling generally occurs at the point
c. The moment where
d. The shear a. Bending moment is maximum
37. The steel beams of light section plain cement b. Shearing force is minimum
concrete are called c. Concentrated load act
a. Filler joists d. Deflection is maximum
b. Concrete joists 43. The concentration of one beam to another
c. Simple joists beam by means of an angle at the bottom and
d. Joists an angle at the top is known as
38. To calculate area of cover plates of a built-up a. Unstiffened seated connection
beam, an allowance for rivet holes to be added b. Stiffened seated connection
a. 10% c. Seated connection
b. 13% d. None of these
c. 15% 44. The gross section of the web of a beam is
d. 18% defined as
39. The problem of lateral buckling can arise only a. Depth of the beam multiplied by its web
in those steel beams which have___ thickness
a. Moment of inertia about the bending axis b. Width of the flange multiplied by its web
larger than the other thickness
b. Moment of inertia about the bending axis c. Sum of the flange width and depth of the
smaller than the other beam multiplied by the web thickness
c. Fully supported compression flange

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 d. None of these a. Saturated, submerged, wet dry
45. The effective length L of a simply supported b. Saturated, wet, submerged, dry
beam with ends restrained against torsion, and c. Saturated, wet, dry, submerged
also the ends of compression flange partially d. Wet, saturated, submerged, dry
restrained against lateral bending is given by 51. A soil has mass unit weight r, water content w
a. L = span (as ratio). The specific gravity of soil solids = G,
b. L = 0.85 span unit weight of water = rw ‘S’, the degree of
c. L = 0.75 span saturation of the soil is given by
d. L = 0.7 span a. S = 1 + w / rw / r (1+w) – 1 /G
46. Relative density of a compacted dense sand is b. S = w / rw / r (1+w) – 1 /G
approximately equal to c. S = 1 + w / rw / r (1+w) – 1 /wG
a. 0.4 d. S = w / rw / r (1+w) – 1 /wG
b. 0.6 52. The difference between maximum void ratio
c. 0.95 and minimum void ratio of a sand sample is
d. 1.20 0.30. If the relative density of this sample is
47. If the sand in situ is in its densest state, then the 66.6% at a void ratio of 0.40, then the void ratio
relative density of sand is of this sample at its loosest state will be
a. Zero a. 0.40
b. 1 b. 0.60
c. Between 0 and 1 c. 0.70
d. Greater than 1 d. 0.75
48. For sand of uniform spherical particles, the 53. A soil has a bulk density of 1.80 g/cm3 at a
ratio of void ratios in the loosest and the water content of 5%. If the void ratio remains
densest states is: constant, then its bulk density for a water
a. 2.6 content of 10% will be
b. 3.5 a. 1.98 g/cm3
c. 4.6 b. 1.88 g/cm3
d. 3.0 c. 1.80 g/cm3
49. The unit weight of a soil at zero air voids d. 1.70 g/cm3
depends on: 54. A sample of soil has the following properties:
a. Specific gravity Liquid limit = 45% plastic limit = 25%
b. Water content shrinkage limit = 17% natural moisture content
c. Unit weight of water = 30% The consistency index of the soil is
d. All the above a. 15/20
50. Which one of the following, gives the correct b. 13/20
decreasing order of the densities of a soil c. 8/20
sample? d. 5/20

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55. A soil sample has a shrinkage limit of 10% and c. Calcium carbide method
specific gravity of soil solids as 2.7. The d. Pycnometer method
porosity of the soil at shrinkage limit is 60. For proper field control, which of the following
a. 21.2% methods is best suited for quick determination
b. 27% of water content of a soil mass?
c. 73% a. Oven drying method
d. 78.8% b. Sand bath method
56. A soil sample is having a specific gravity of c. Alcohol method
2.60 and a void ratio of 0.78. the water content d. Calcium carbide method
in percentage required to fully saturate the soil 61. Which of the following errors can be
at that void ratio would be neutralized by setting the level midway
a. 10 between the two stations?
b. 30
a. error due to curvature only
c. 50
b. error due to refraction only
d. 70
c. error due to both curvature and refraction
57. The dry density of a soil is 1.5 g/cc. If the
d. none of the above
saturation water content were 50%, then its
saturated density and submerged density 62. Height of instrument method of levelling is

would, respectively, be a. more accurate than rise and fall method

a. 1.50 g/cc and 1.00 g/cc b. less accurate than rise and fall method
b. 2.00 g/cc and 1.00 g/cc c. quicker and less tedious for large number
c. 2.25 g/cc and 1.25 g/cc of intermediate sights
d. 2.50 g/cc and 1.50 g/cc d. none of the above
58. A fill having a volume of 1,50,000 cum is to be
63. The rise and fall method
constructed at a void ratio of 0.8. The borrow
pit soil has a void ratio of 1.4. The volume of a. is less accurate than height of instrument
soil required (in cubic metres) to be excavated method
from the borrow pit will be b. is not suitable for levelling with tilting
a. 1,87500 levels
b. 2,00,000 c. provides a check on the reduction of
c. 2,10,000 intermediate points levels
d. 2,50,000 d. quicker and less tedious for large number
59. Which of the following methods is most of intermediate sights
accurate for the determination of the water
64. If the staff is not held vertical at a levelling
content of soil?
station, the reduced level calculated from the
a. Oven drying method
observation would be
b. Sand bath method
a. true R.L.

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 b. more than true R.L a. Kerosene
c. less than true R.L. b. Benzene
d. none of the above c. Diesel
d. petrol
65. The difference between a level line and a
horizontal line is that 69. Carriage-way is protected by…………. Wide

a. level line is a curved line while horizontal shoulders.

line is a straight line a. 0.5 to 1.25 m

b. level line is normal to plumb line while b. 1.25 to 2 m

horizontal line may not be normal to c. 2 to 4 m

plumb line at the tangent point to level d. 4 to 6 m

line 70. The longest road constructed during the time

c. horizontal line is normal to plumb line of Shershah Suri was from

while level line may not be normal to the a. Delhi to Kolkata

plumb line b. Lahore to Delhi

d. both are same c. Lahore to Kolkata

d. Lahore to Agra
66. Which one of the following expressions gives 71. The roads connecting capital cities of states is
intermediate sight distance as per I.R.C called
standards? (SSD: stopping sight distance; a. National Highway
OSD : overtaking sight distance) b. Express way
c. State way
a. 2 SSD
d. Capital highway
b. ( SSD + OSD )/2
72. The central road organization (C.R.O.) was set
c. ( OSD – SSD )/2
up in
d. 2 OSD
a. 1930
67. Brake is applied on a vehicle which then skids
b. 1934
a distance of 16 m before coming to stop. If the
c. 1948
developed average coefficient of friction
d. 1956
between the tires and the pavement is 0.4, then
73. The Indian Road Congress (I.R.C.) was set up
the speed of the vehicle before skidding would
in
have been nearly
a. 1930
a. 20 kmph
b. 1934
b. 30 kmph
c. 1948
c. 40 kmph
d. 1956
d. 50 kmph
74. The Motor Vehicle act was enacted in
68. Rapid curing cutback bitumen is produced by
a. 1930
blending bitumen with
b. 1934

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 c. 1939 81. Which of the following type of rain gauge is
d. 1948 used for measuring rain in remote hilly
75. The Central Road Research Institute (C.R.R.I.) inaccessible areas?
was started in Delhi, in a. tippling bucket type
a. 1951 b. weighing type
b. 1955 c. floating type
c. 1964 d. Simon's rain gauge
d. 1965 82. For supplying water to Rabi crop, Kharif crop
76. The headquarter of Indian Road Congress is at and sugarcane, the channel is designed for a
a. Mumbai capacity equal to the greater of the water
b. Kolkata requirement of
c. Chennai
a. Rabi or Kharif
d. New Delhi
b. Rabi and Kharif or sugarcane
77. Most of rainfall in India comes through, as:
c. Rabi a and sugarcane or Kharif and
(a) frontal cyclonic precipitation
sugarcane
(b) no frontal cyclonic precipitation
d. Rabi or sugarcane or Kharif
(c) convective precipitation
83. The ratio of the quantity of water stored in the
(d) orographic precipitation.
root zone of the crops to the quantity of water
78. The average annual rainfall over the whole of
actually delivered in the field is known as
India is estimated as
a. water conveyance efficiency
(a) 189 cm
b. water application efficiency
(b) 319 cm
c. water use efficiency
(c) 89 cm
d. none of the above
(d) 118 cm
84. The water utilizable by plants is available in
79. Which of the following is a non-recording rain
soils mainly in the form of
gauge?
a. gravity water
a. tipping bucket type rain gauge
b. capillary water
b. Simon's rain gauge
c. hygroscopic water
c. Steven's weighing type rain gauge
d. chemical water
d. floating type rain gauge
85. The amount of irrigation water required to
80. A rain gauge should preferably be fixed
meet the evapotranspiration needs of the crop
a. near the building
during its full growth is called
b. under the tree
a. effective rainfall
c. in an open space
b. consumptive use
d. in a closed space
c. consumptive irrigation required
d. net irrigation requirement

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86. With the increase in the quantity of water b. Duty
supplied the yield of most crops c. base period
a. increases continuously d. crop period
b. decreases continuously 92. Ground water is usually free from
c. increases up to a certain limit and then a. suspended impurities
becomes constant b. dissolved impurities.
d. increases up to a certain limit and then c. both suspended and dissolved impurities.
decreases d. none of the above
93. The depression of water table in a well due to
87. Bhakra dam is built on
pumping will be maximum
a. Beas river
a. At a distance R from the well.
b. Sutlej river
b. close to the well
c. Ganga river
c. At a distance R/2 from the well.
d. None of these
d. none of these
88. In arid areas with uneven land surface most
Where R is the radius of influence.
suitable method of irrigation is
94. Select the correct relationship between
a. Basin method
porosity (N), specific yield (Y) and specific
b. Check flooding
relation (R)
c. Furrow irrigation
a. N = Y + R.
d. Sprinkler irrigation
b. Y = N+R.
89. For cereal crops the most commonly adopted
c. R= N+ Y.
method of irrigation is
d. R> (N + Y)
a. free flowing method 95. The maximum discharge of a tube well is about
b. check method a. 5 litres / sec
c. furrow method b. 50 litres / sec
d. sprinkling method c. 500 litres / sec.

90. The ratio between the area of a crop irrigated d. 1000 litres / sec.

and the quantity of water required during 96. As compared to shallow well, deep wells have.

entire period of the growth, is known as a. more depth

a. Delta b. less depth.

b. Duty c. more discharge.

c. base period d. less discharge.

d. crop period 97. Water present in an artesian aquifer is usually.

91. The total depth of water required by a crop a. at sub atmospheric pressure

during the entire period the crop is in the b. at atmospheric pressure

field,is known as c. at 0.5 times of the atmospheric pressure

a. Delta d. above atmospheric pressure

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98. The construction of impounding reservoir is b. Excess of suspended and dissolved matter
required when are present in the water.
a. Average annual flow in the stream is lower c. There is a large variation in quantity of the
than average demand river flow from time to time.
b. The rate of flow in the stream, in dry season d. The flow is uniform throughout the year but
is more than the demand is insufficient.
c. The rate of flow in the stream, in dry season 100. Which one of the following is the purpose
is less than the demand of providing a surge tank in pipeline carrying
d. The rate of flow in the stream is equal to the water?
demand a. To store water
99. Storage of water by impounding is required b. to increase the pressure throughout the
where pipeline
a. Plenty of water is available in the stream in c. to store overflowing water
all seasons. d. to protect the pipeline against water
hammer

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