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I.E.S-(OBJ) 2000 1 of 17
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER – I)
1. The moisture content in a properly List II
seasoned timber will be in the range of 1. High early strength
a. 5% to 8% 2. Gypsum free cement
b. 8% to 10% 3. Selenetic cement
c. 10% to 12% 4. Used in mass concrete work
d. 12% to 15% 5. Used in chemical factories and mines
2. The strength of timber is maximum in the A B C D
direction a. 5 4 2 1
a. Perpendicular to the grains b. 4 3 2 1
b. Parallel to the grains
c. 5 4 3 2
c. 45o to he grains d. 4 5 1 2
d. At all angles 7. The fineness of cement is tested by
3. The maximum permissible slenderness a. Air-content method
ratio for masonry walls is
b. Air-permeability method
a. 40
c. Le-Chatelier apparatus
b. 30
d. Vicat’s apparatus
c. 20
8. The test on cement designed to accelerate
d. 10 the slaking process of the ingredient of
4. When the corner of a brick is removed cement and to determine the resulting
along the line joining mid-points of expansion in a short time is
adjoining sides, the portion left is called a. Setting time test
a. Closer b. Soundness test
b. Squint brick c. Normal consistency test
c. Queen closer
d. Accelerated test
d. King closer 9. Consider the following statements :
5. An arrangement for temporarily 1. Addition of a small quantity of slaked
supporting a structure from beneath for lime to Portland cement in cement
safety, is known as mortar increases the plasticity of the
a. Jacking mortar.
b. Underpinning 2. Light weight mortar is prepared by
c. Supporting mixing cement and finely crushed fire
d. Hauling bricks with water.
6. Match List I (Cement) with List 3. Fire resistant mortar is prepared by
II(Characteristics) and select the correct mixing aluminous cement and finely
answer : ground china clay wares with water.
List I Which of these statements are correct ?
A. High alumina cement a. 1 and 2
B. Blast furnace cement b. 1 and 3
C. Quick setting cement c. 2 and 3
D. Rapid hardening cement d. 1, 2 and 3
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10. A mortar for which both cement and lime c. 0.75
are mixed is called d. 1.0
a. Gauged mortar 16. A two-level section ABCD is shown in the
b. Cement mortar given figure with ground slope 1 on rand
c. Lime mortar formation slope 1 on s.EF is the centre line
(C/L) of the formation . Top width of the
d. Light weight mortar
formation is 2b and widths to the toe are
11. As per I.S. Code of Practice, concrete w1 and w2. The width ‘w1’ will be
should be cured at
a. 5 o
b. 1 o
c. 27o
d. 40o
12. The correct sequence of workability
test(s)/method(s) in the order of their
application from low to high workability is
rs  b
a. Slump test, compacting factor test and a. b  H  
rs r
Vee-bee consistometer
b. Compacting factor test, Vee-bee rs  b
b. b  H  
consistometer and slump test rs r
c. Vee-bee consistometer, Slump test and rs  b
Compacting factor test c. b  H  
rs r
d. Vee-bee consistometer, compacting
factor test and Slump test rs  b
d. b  H  
13. While testing the compressive strength of rs r
cement concrete, the correct standard 17. An equipment is available for Rs.
conditions (viz. temperature, age, humidity 2,00,000. It has an estimated useful life of
and size of the specimen) to be maintained 5 years. By the double rate declining
as per I.S. are balance method of depreciation, the book
a. 27  30 C, 28 days, 90% and 15 cu.cm value at the end of the second year will be
b. 26  20 C, 21 days, 80% and 15 cu.cm a. Rs. 1,28, 000
c. 25  10 C, 14 days, 75% and 10 cu.cm b. Rs. 1,20,000
d. 27  30 C, 7 days, 70% and 10 cu.cm c. Rs. 72,000
14. Which one of the following statements is d. Rs. 60, 000
correct ? 18. A 6 cu.m central concrete mixing plant
a. Bulking of sand always decreases with takes in 1875 kg of cement, 5120 kg of
increase in the quantity of water sand and 6060 kg of coarse aggregate
along with 865 kg of water per batch.
b. The quantity of water in ordinary There is a reduction of 1.5% in volume in
concrete should be 5% by weight of the freshly mixed wet concrete from the
cement and 25% by weight of nominal volume. The unit weight of the
aggregate freshly mixed wet concrete will be
c. While mixing by weight, bulking a. 2320 kg per cu.m
effect of sand is not taken into account
b. 2335 kg per cu.m
d. River sand is also known as standard
sand c. 2345 kg per cu.m
15. The ratio of direct tensile strength to that d. 2355 kg per cu.m
of modulus of rapture of concrete is 19. IC engines usable for earthwork are
a. 0.25 calibrated under standard conditions
(denoted by suffix ‘o’) relating its horse
b. 0.5 power Ho, standard barometric pressure P0
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and standard test temperature To, all in d. 4 1 2 3
absolute scales H, P and T refer to 22. The probability that the load on
corresponding values when used under scaffolding will exceed 2t is 0.15. The
other than standard conditions. The ratio of probability that the strength of the
Ho / H is scaffolding will be more than 2t is 0.8. The
a. P / Po T / To probability of failure of the scaffolding
will be
b. Po / P T / To a. 0.68
c. Po / P T / T b. 0.17
c. 0.12
d. Po / P T / To
d. 0.03
20. Match List I with List II and select the 23. Every cu.m of excavation requires either 3
correct answer : man-hours or 0.2 machine-hour. The
List I respective rates are Rs. 8 per man-hour
A. Self-loading scraper and Rs. 200 per machine-hour. A total
quantity of 4000 cu.m of excavation is to
B. Narrow tread high pressure tyre
be done. The possible minimum total cost
C. Supercharger for the complete job, by a suitable
D. Gear ratios combination of manual and mechanical
List II means of excavation will be
1. Reduce loss in power a. Rs. 80,000
2. Rim pull management b. Rs. 1,20,000
3. Lower rolling resistance c. Rs. 1,50,000
4. Compromise between loading and d. Rs. 1,80,000
hauling performances 24. The total number of errors in the given
A B C D AOA network is
a. 4 3 2 1
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 1 2
d. 3 4 2 1
21. Match List I(Feasibility) with List II
(Emphasises on or calls for) and select the a. 1
correct answer :
b. 2
List I
c. 3
A. Social
d. 4
B. Economic
25. A, B and C are three activities to be
C. Input executed in that order. Their total duration,
D. Co-ordination in days, are 15, 24 and 18 respectively.
List II However, fro better estimation of overall
1. Optimising marginal costs and benefits total duration; they are put into a ladder
network with 3 equal sub-parts of each.
2. forward and backward linkages The modified total duration for total
3. Interfaces completion of all the activities will be
4. Improving wealth
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2
a. 35 days
b. 4 1 3 2
b. 37 days
c. 1 4 2 3
c. 39 days
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d. 41 days a. 9 weeks
26. A part of the network with nomenclature b. 8 weeks
of a typical legend is shown in the given c. 7 weeks
figure. There can be other incoming d. 6 weeks
activities at nodes 5, 6 and 8 but there are
no other incoming activities at nodes 7 and 29. A project is of 4 months’ duration and
9. There are two outgoing activities at needs expenditure of Rs. 15, 000 per
node 9 but no other outgoing activity at month uniformly, which should be
any of the other node. The other float and available readily on hand at the beginning
free float in activity 6-7 are respectively of each month. Bills can be raised with
15% profit over cost at the end of each
month of work. The amount due on a bill
raised will be reimbursed with a further
month’ delay without any deductions. The
working capital required and the duration
for which its maximum is needed are
respectively
a. Rs. 15,000 and from beginning to end
of month 1
a. 5 and 1 b. Rs. 15,000 and uniformly beginning to
end of month 4
b. 6 and zero
c. Rs. 30,000 and from end of moth 1 to
c. 6 and 1
end of month 2
d. zero and zero
d. Rs. 45,000 and just at the end of the 2nd
27. There are four consecutive activities in a month
simple linear network, each with mean
30. Five activities are scheduled between
duration of T and each with ‘k’ as the
time–– 3 days and time –– 14 days in a bar
standard deviation of its duration. The
chart. Resources loading per day for these
overall project duration through these
activities, along with their durations are
activities is likely to be in the range
read on the bar chart grid are :
a. 4T  k
Activity A B C D E
b. 4T  2k
4– 7–
c. 4T  4k Duration 3–8 10–14 11–14
12 11
d. 4T  6k Resource lo-
28. A certain type of resource can be deployed ading per 5 4 8 3 2
day
in a variable strength during parts of the
duration of an activity. The following are Match List I (Resource loading per day)
the data in the context : with List II (Day number) derive from
1. Six weeks duration with 10 units of the above data and select the correct answer :
resource in each week, or List I
2. four weeks duration with 7 units in A. 16
each week followed by 5 weeks B. 15
duration with 5 units in each week, or C. 14
3. eight weeks duration with 7 units in D. 12
each week, or
List II
4. four weeks duration with 7 units in
1. 12th
each week followed by 3 weeks
duration with 10 units in each week 2. 14th
For developing the CPM network 3. None
involving this activity therein, the duration 4. 11th
of this activity will be considered as 5. 8th
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A B C D 34. Assertion (A) : The use of fly ash as an
a. 3 4 5 2 admixture in concrete reduces segregation
b. 4 3 1 5 and bleedings.
c. 4 2 5 1 Reason (R) : The use of fly ash as a
replacement of sand in a lean-mix increase
d. 3 4 1 5 the workability and has no significant
31. Assertion (A) : In a two-dimensional effect on drying shrinkage of concrete.
stress system, the direct stresses on two a. Both A and R are true and R is the
planes at 45o an 135o to the principal correct explanation of A
planes have the same magnitude and
nature and shear stress. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : Points representing these
stresses are on the ends of vertical c. A is true but R is false
diameter of the Mohr’s circle. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 35. Assertion (A) : Lime mortar is able to
correct explanation of A retain its bond with masonry unit and be
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT free from cracks.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : Lime mortar undergoes only
c. A is true but R is false negligible volume change after setting and
initial shrinkage.
d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the
32. Consider a circular shaft of radius ‘R’ correct explanation of A
having the maximum shear stress ‘fS’
developed by an applied torque. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Assertion (A) : The shear stress ‘q’ at a
point on the section having coordinate c. A is true but R is false
(0, y) if fS y /R. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : In the shaft, the shear stress 36. Assertion (A) : Shear capacity of a
‘q’ at a point of coordinate (x, y) is concrete beam increases with the increase
fS in tension reinforcement.
x2  y2 . Reason (R) : Increase in tension
R
reinforcement increases aggregate
interlocking force.
correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. A is true but R is false
33. Assertion (A) : Project-time-cost
schedules (inclusive of indirect costs)
always show decreasing overall cost for 37. Assertion (A) : Tensile reinforcement bars
decreasing overall project duration (so of a rectangular beam are bent at suitable
long a such compression is feasible). placed.
Reason (R) : Generally, the incremental Reason (R) : Bent tensile reinforcement
rate increases or consumption of a bars in a rectangular beam resist bending
resource increases. moment and provide local bond stress.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true d. A is false but R is true
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38. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of rigid b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
frames by the energy method, it is usually the correct explanation of A
considered sufficient to calculate the total c. A is true but R is false
strain energy due to flexure only d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : The strain energies due to 42. Assertion (A) : When a mild steel bar is
axial force and shear are normally tested in tension, the stress drops down
insignificant when compared to that for from upper yield point to lower yield point
flexure. without elongation.
a. Both A and R are true and R is the Reason (R) : The boundaries of grains of
correct explanation of A mild steel are composed of brittle material.
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
39. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of two- c. A is true but R is false
dimensional stresses, the normal stress on d. A is false but R is true
a plane will be greater than the average
principal stress, if the inclination of that 43. Assertion (A) : The vertical member of
plane with the plane of maximum principal Howe roof truss is made of steel.
stress is less than 45o. Reason (R) : ordinarily wood is not used
Reason (R) : The horizontal co-ordinate fro tension members.
of the point on the Mohr’s circle represents a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the stresses on the given plane which is correct explanation of A
greater than the coordinate of the centre of b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Mohr’s circle. the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. A is true but R is false
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 44. Assertion (A) : Battening of column shall
the correct explanation of A be done where the columns are subjected
c. A is true but R is false to eccentric loading in the plane of battens.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : Batten plates are designed to
40. Assertion (A) : Crawler mounted power resist moments and longitudinal forces
shovels have low speeds. arising due to transverse shear force.
Reason (R) : Power shovels are usable a. Both A and R are true and R is the
with all classes of earth and rocks. correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
correct explanation of A the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT c. A is true but R is false
the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
c. A is true but R is false 45. Assertion (A) : A through truss bridge is
d. A is false but R is true supported at the level of upper chord.
41. Assertion (A) : Crane and bucket Reason (R) : Wind has a tendency to
arrangement is always and at all places overtum the bridge about the lower chord
preferable over tower and buckets of leeward truss.
arrangements for placement of concrete. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
Reason (R) : With cranes, haul distances correct explanation of A
for buckets can be reduced. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. Both A and R are true and R is the the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
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46. Each bolt shown in the given figure is b. 25%
capable of resisting a shear force of 20 kN c. 33%
and tension of 15 kN. The interaction d. 50%
equation between the forces is
49. Consider the following statements
regarding pin connections :
1. Moment at pin connection is zero
2. Only one pin is used in a connection
3. Secondary stresses do not occur
4. They are rigid.
Which of these are the advantages of pin
P P connections ?
a.   1.4
40 30 a. 1, 3 and 4
P P b. 2, 3 and 4
b.   1.4
80 15 c. 1, 2 and 3
P P d. 1 and 3
c.   1.4
80 30 50. Which one of the following statements
P P regarding the riveted joint shown in the
d.   1.4 given figure is correct ?
40 15
47. Which one of the following plan views of
a gusseted base plate will result in
minimum base plate thickness ?
a. In elastic theory all rivets equal forces

b. In plastic theory all rivets carry equal
forces
a. c. Both in elastic and plastic theories all
rivets carry equal forces
d. In plastic theory the outer rivets A and
D carry greater proportion of load
51. In an eccentrically loaded bearing type
connection, Pdx and Pdy are the components
of the direct load. Ptx and Pty are the
b. components of the direct load. Ptx and Pty
are the components of the torsional load.
The maximum load on any connector is
given by
a. Pdx  Ptx ) 2  ( Pdy  Pty ) 2
c.
b. Pdx  Pty ) 2  ( Pdy  Ptx ) 2
c. Pdx  Ptx ) 2  ( Pdy  Pty ) 2
d. Pdx  Pty ) 2  ( Pdy  Ptx ) 2
d. 52. The economic spacing of a roof truss

48. The permissible stresses in rivets under depends upon the
wind load conditions as per IS : 800 can be a. cost of purlins and cost of roof
exceeded by about covering
a. 15% b. cost of roof covering and dead loads
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c. dead loads and live loads 58. A beam of constant El is shown in the
d. live loads and cost of purlins given figure :
53. Consider the following statements :
Bearing stiffeners are provided in a plate
girder
1. to avoid local bending failure of flange
2. to prevent buckling of web.
3. to strengthen the web
4. under uniformly distributed loads
Which one of the following sketches gives
Which of these statements are correct ? a probable failure mechanism of this beam
a. 1, 2 and 3 under plastic analysis ?
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 4
a.
54. As per IS : 800 in the case of a plate girder
with vertical and horizontal stiffeners, the
greater and lesser unsupported clear
dimension of a web panel in terms of web
thickness ‘tw’ should not exceed b.
respectively
a. 180 tw and 85 tw
b. 270 tw and 200 tw
c. 270 tw and 180 tw
d. 400 tw and 250 tw c.
55. In a truss girder of a bridge, a diagonal
consists of mild steel falt 400 ISF and
carries a pull of 800 kN. If the gross
diameter of the rivets is 26 mm, then the
number of rivets required in the splice is
a. 6 d.
b. 7 59. Consider the following statements :
c. 8 In the stiffness method of analysis,
d. 9 1. statically indeterminate structures
along are considered
56. Which one of the following is the load
factor ? 2. both statically determinate and
indeterminate structures can be
a. Live load / Dead load
considered.
b. Failure load / Working load
3. it is necessary to identify the
c. Total load / Dead load redundant.
d. Dynamic load / Static load 4. the displacements are considered a the
57. Ina cantilever of span ‘L’, subjected to a unknowns
concentrated load of ‘W’ acting at a 5. to calculate of equilibrium, it will be
distance of 1/3 L from the free end, the convenient to develop the stiffness
deflection under load will be matrix for the structure
a. WL3 / 3 El Which of these statements are correct ?
b. WL3 / 81 El a. 1, 3 and 4
c. 14 WL3 / 81 El b. 1, 3 and 5
d. WL3 / 81 El c. 2, 4 and 5
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d. 2, 3 4 and 5
60. Match List I(Actual beam) with List
II(Conjugate beam) on the basis of
analogy and select the correct answer :
List I
A. Curvature
B. Deflection
C. Slope
μl  l
List II a. h 
1. Shear EI  2
2. Load μl 2  l
b. h 
3. Moment EI  2
A B C μh 2  h 
a. 2 1 3
c.  l
EI  2 
b. 2 3 1
μh  h 
c. 3 1 2 d.  l
EI  2 
d. 1 3 2
64. A propped cantilever of uniform flexural
61. A simply supported beam of uniform rigidity is loaded as shown in the given
flexural rigidity is loaded as shown in the figure. The bending moment at fixed end
given figure. The rotations of the end ‘A’ A is
is
a. 150 kNm sagging

b. 3000 kNm sagging
a. PL2 / 9 El c. 600 kNm hogging
b. PL2 / 6 El d. 300 kNm hogging
c. PL2 / 18 El 65. The slope deflection equation at end 2 of
d. PL2 / 12 El the member 1-2 for the frame shown in the
62. A circular segmental three-hinged arch of figure is given by
span 36 m and a rise of 6 ml is hinged at
the crown the springings. It carries a
horizontal load of 1000 N/m covering full
height of the arch on left side. The
horizontal thrust on the right springing will
be
a. 6000 N
b. 4500 N
2 EI
c. 3000 N a. M 21   21  2 2   WL
L
d. 1500 N
2 EI  3 
63. A rigid cantilever frame ABC is fixed at b. M 21   21  
L  L 
‘C’ and carries a couple ‘’ at the free end
‘A’ as shown in the given figure. 2 EI  3 
Neglecting axial deformation and
c. M 21   21  
L  L 
assuming the flexural rigidity ‘EI’ to be
constant throughout the frame, the vertical 2 EI   3
d. M 21   1  2 2 
  WL
deflection of A is L   L
66. Consider the following assumptions :
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1. All members have same cross- 69. The total (both internal and external)
sectional area degree of static indeterminacy of the plane
2. The bending resistance of all the shown in the given figure is
members is small in comparison with
their axial force resistance
3. All the external loads are applied
directly or indirectly at the joints
4. All joints are idealized to be
frictionless hinges. a. 18
Which of these are the assumptions made b. 16
in the force analysis of simple trusses ?
c. 14
a. 1, 2 and 4
d. 13
b. 2, 3 and 4
70. If a point load acting at the mid-span of a
c. 1, 2 and 3 fixed beam of uniform section produces
d. 3, and 4 fixed end moments of 60 kNm, then the
67. The strain due to bending in the cantilever same load spread uniformly over the entire
beam shown in the figure is span will produced fixed end moments
equal to
a. 20 kNm
b. 30 kNm
c. 30 kNm
d. 45 kNm
71. Displacement coordinates for a beam are
shown in the given figure. The stiffness
a.
PL matrix is given by
3EI
P 2 L2
b.
6 EI
P 2 L2 3 EI EI 
c. a.  
EI  EI 2 EI 
P 2 L2  3 EI 0.5 EI 
d. b. 
2 EI  0.5 EI 2 EI 
68. In the portal frame shown in the given 3 EI 0 
figure, the ratio of sway moments in c. 
 0 2 EI 
columns AB and CD will be equal to
 3 EI 0.5 EI 
d.  
 0.5 EI 2 EI 
72. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
List I(Collapse load for a
A. Fixed beam with a central point load
a. 1/3 B. Fixed beam with a udl of intensity ‘wc’
b. 2/3 C. Propped cantilever with a central point
c. 9/8 load
d. 13/8 D. Simply supported beam with a central
point load
List II
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1. 8 Mp / L  64 8
 EI  
2. 16 Mp / L EI
a.  
3. 6 Mp / L  8 8 
4. 4 Mp / L  EI 3EI 
A B C D  64 8 
a. 1 2 4 3  3EI EI 
b.  
b. 2 1 3 4  8 64 

c. 2 1 4 3  EI 3EI 
d. 1 2 3 4
 64 8
73. The given figures show a beam with its  3EI EI 
influence line for shear force and bending c.  
moment at section ‘1’ :  8 4 
 EI EI 
 64 8
 3EI EI 
d.  
 4 8 
 EI EI 
76. The portal frame shown in figure I was
analysed, and the final column moments
The values of the shear force and bending were found to be as shown in figure II.
moment at section ‘1’ due to a The value of P is
concentrated load of 20 kN placed at mid-
span will be
a. 0.75 kN and 2.25 kNm
b. 5 kN and 5 kNm
c. 7.5 kN and 10 kNm
d. 10 kN and 30 kNm
74. If an analysis of the frame shown in the
given figure indicated final moment (−) 40
kNm at A and B of the column AB, then
the moment MCD will be
a. 25 kN
b. 41 kN
c. 45 kN
d. 50 kN
a. −5 kNm 77. For the beam AB shown in the figure, the
fixed end moments at ends A and B will be
b. −10 kNm
respectively
c. −20 kNm
d. −40 kNm
75. The flexibility matrix of the beam shown
in the given figure is
a. −3.6 kNm and + 1.1 kNm
b. −5.4 kNm and + 4.6 kNm
c. −2.4 kNm and + 3.6 kNm
d. −3.6 kNm and + 6 kNm
12 of 17
78. A beam with cantilevered ends is shown in
the given figure. Which one of the
following diagrams represent the influence
line diagram for shear for a section just to
the right of the support ‘A’ ?
a. 14 / 29 , 8 /29 and 7 /29

b. 7 / 29 , 14 /29 and 8 /29
c. 7 / 29 , 8 /29 and 14 /29
a.
d. 14 / 29 , 7 /29 and 8 /29
81. A member coordinate system is shown in
the given figure. The symmetric stiffness
b. square matrix obtained for the member AB
of length ‘l’ with flexural rigidity ‘EI’ by
using the slope deflection equation and
rules of matrix multiplication is as follows:
c.  M AB  Symmetric   A 
S     / l 
 AB   2 EL  Stiffness   A 
 M BA  l  Square   B 
     
 S BA   Matrix  dB / l 
d.
79. The failure mechanism for the rigid frame
shown in the given figure I (Assume
constant El)
The correct sequence of elements of the

first row of the symmetric stiffness square
matrix is
a. 2, 3, 1 and 3
a. b. 2, 3, −1 and −3
c. 2, 3, 1 and −3
d. 1, 3, 2 and −3
82. The influence line diagram for reaction B
of the beam shown in figure I is
b.
c. a.
d. can (a), (b) or (c) depending upon the
relative values of W, P and member
dimensions b.
80. For the frame shown in the figure, the
distribution factors for members CB, CD
and CG are respectively (Assume EI as c.
constant)
d.
13 of 17
83. A simply supported I beam with its web diameter for one third of its length. It is
horizontal is shown in the given figure. It heated 30o C above room temperature,
is subjected to a vertical load. clamped at both ends and then allowed to
cool to room temperature. It the distance
between the clamps is unchanged, the
maximum stress is the bar
( = 12.510−6 per oC and E = 200 GN/m2
is
The shape of the shear stress distribution
in the cross-section of the beam under the a. 25 MN / m2
load would be b. 50 MN / m2
c. 75 MN / m2
d. 100 MN / m2
a. 86. A rigid beam CBDA is hinged at A and
supported by two springs at C and B with a
vertical load ‘P’ at point D as shown in the
given figure. The ratio of stiffness (k2 /k1)
of springs at B and C is 2. The ratio of
b. forces in spring at C to that at B is
c.
a. 3/4
d. b. 1
84. Match List I with List II and select the c. 4/3
correct answer : d. 2
List I 87. A bar of uniform section is subjected to
A. Tenacity axial tensile loads such that the normal
B. Plasticity strain in the axial direction is 1.25 mm per
m. If the Poisson’s ratio of the material of
C. Ductility
the bar is 0.3, the volumetric strain would
D. Malleability be
List II a. 2  10−4
1. Continues to deform without much
b. 3  10−4
increase of stress
c. 4  10−4
2. Ultimate strength in tension
3. Extension in a direction without d. 5  10−4
rupture 88. A square plot (a  a) rigidly held at three
4. Ability to be drawn out by tension to a edges is free to move along the fourth
small section without rupture edge. If temperature of the plate is raised
by temperature ‘t’, then the free expansion
A B C D at the fourth edge will be (coefficient of
a. 2 1 4 3 thermal expansion of the material = ,
b. 2 1 3 4 modulus of elasticity of the material = E
c. 1 2 4 3 and its Poisson’s ratio = v)
d. 1 2 3 4 a. a  t v
85. A Steel bar, 300 mm long and 24 mm b. a  t (1 + v)
diameter, is turned down to 18 mm
14 of 17
 t v  b. 5 1 2 4
c. a t +  
 E  c. 3 5 1 2
d. a  t (1 − v) d. 3 1 2 5
89. Match List I (Elastic constant) with List II 92. A member is made of structural steel.
(Definition) and select the correct answer : When it is subjected to simple tension, the
limit of proportionally is 280 N mm2. If
List I
the principal stress p1 and p2 developed in
A. Young’s modulus the member are 100 N/mm2 (tensile) and
B. Poisson’s ratio 40 Nmm2 (compressive) respectively and
C. Bulk modulus Poisson’s ratio is 0.30, then the factor of
D. Rigidity modulus safety according to maximum shear stress
theory would be
List II
a. 2.75
The ratio of
b. 2.5
1. Lateral strain to linear strain within
elastic limit c. 2.25
2. stress to strain within elastic limit d. 2.0
3. shear stress to shear strain within 93. A beam ABC has simply supported span
AB and overhanging span BC. The
4. direct stress to corresponding bending moment diagram for the beam is
volumetric strain given in the following figure :
A B C D
a. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 4 1 3
d. 3 4 1 2
90. For a linear, elastic, isotropic material , the The loading diagram for the beam would
number of independent elastic constants is correspond to
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 a.
91. Match List I(Theory of failures) with List
II (Scientists) and select the correct
answer:
List I
A. Maximum principal stress theory b.
B. Maximum shear stress theory
C. Maximum principal strain theory
D. Maximum distortion energy theory
List II
1. St. Venant c.
2. Beltrami and Ttaigh
3. Tresca
4. Von-Mises
5. Rankine
d.
A B C D 94. The load diagram and bending moment
a. 5 3 1 4 diagram of a beam are shown in the
following figures :
15 of 17
c. 1200 N/mm2 tensile
d. 1200 N/mm2 compressive
98. In the case of a square beam subjected to
couples acting about X-X axis, it is
advisable to cut off the edges and keep the
section as shown in the given figure
because it increases
The shear force at B would be
a. 93.33 kN
b. 120 kN
c. 146.66 kN
a. stresses in the beam
d. 200 kN
b. stresses and reduces the weight of the
95. A loaded beam PQRS is shown in the beam
given figure .
c. the moment of inertia of the beam
d. the section modulus
99. A solid shaft of 100 mm diameter in a
small hydraulic turbine is subjected to an
The magnitude of reaction at R will be axial compressive load of 100 kN and a
zero if the value of load ‘W’ is torque of 5 kNm. The maximum shear
a. 2 kN stress induced in the shaft is
b. 2.5 kN a. 20 3 N/mm2
c. 3 kN b. 20 8 N/mm2
d. 6 kN
c. 20 15 N/mm2
96. A cantilever beam is 2 m long. The cross-
section of the beam is hollow square, with d. 20 17 N/mm2
external sides 60 mm and the internal side 100. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a
is such that 1 = 6  105 mm4. If the safe torque “T” Nm, which produces a
bending stress for the material is 100 maximum shear stress of fS N/mm2 in the
N/mm2, the safe concentrated load at the shaft. These required diameter of the shaft
free end would be would be
a. 400 N 1
 16T 
b. 500 N a. 10  
c. 600 N   fS 
1/3
d. 1000 N  f 
b. 10  S 
97. A test is conducted on a beam loaded by  16T 
end couples. The fibres at layer CD are 1/2
found to lengthen by 0.03 mm and fibres at  16T 
c. 10  
layer AB shorten by 0.09 mm in 20 mm   fS 
gauage length as shown in the given figure 1/2
Taking E = 2105 N/mm2, the flexural  f 
d. 10  S 
stress at top fibres would be  16T 
101. The principal stresses at a point in a
strained material are p1 and p2. The
resultant stress pr on the plane carrying the
maximum shear stress would be
p  p22 
2 1/2
1
a. 900 N/mm2 tensile a.
2
b. 1000 N/mm2 tensile
16 of 17
1/2
p p 
2 2 m
b.  1 2 d. .D
 r
 2 
c.  2  p12  p22  
1/2
Bars that extend into a simple support
must be able to develop their full strength
d. 2[ p12  p22 ]1/2 at a designated point ‘1’ so that their
102. If a prismatic member having are a of moment capacity is more than the bending
cross-section ‘A’ is subjected to a tensile moment at that point. The clauses of the
load ‘P’, then the maximum shear stress code require that (s = 0.85 sy)
and its inclination with the direction of 1.3M 1
load will be 1. Ld   Lo
V
a. P/A and 45 o  s 1.3M 1
b. 2P /A and 45 o 2.   Lo
4 bd V
c. P/2A and 45 o
4 bd  1.3M 1 
d. P/A and 60o 3.    Lo 
 s  V 
103. A king closer is a
a. full brick Which of these statements are correct ?
b. ¾ brick a. 1 and 2
c. longitudinally ½ brick b. 2 and 3
d. crosswise ½ brick c. 1 and 3
104. Brick masonry walls and columns of a d. 1, 2 and 3
building are to be protected from 108. Lateral ties in RC columns are provided to
earthquake. The earthquake proofing is resist
done by providing a. bending moment
a. cross walls b. shear
b. less openings c. buckling of longitudinal steel bars
c. under-reamed piles d. both bending moment and shear
d. a steel band at corners above windows 109. For maximum sagging bending moment in
below ceiling a given span of a multiple span beam
105. When a beam or truss is placed on a a. that very span as well as alternate
masonry wall, it is supported on bed stone spans are loaded
or bed plate. The bed stone or bed plate is b. adjacent spans are loaded
necessary to
c. spans adjoining this span are loaded
a. Add to aesthetic appearance
d. adjacent spans are unloaded and next
b. Transfer the reaction over a larger spans are loaded
contact area
110. In post-tensioned prestressed concrete
c. Increase stability of beam or truss beam, the end block zone is the zone
d. Prevent outward thrust on the wall between the end of the beam and the
106. If modular ratio is ‘m’, effective depth is D section where
and stress ratio is r (r = st /cbc), the depth a. no lateral stresses exist
of neutral axis of a balanced section is b. only longitudinal stresses exist
m c. only shear stresses exist
a. .D
mr d. the shear stresses are maximum
m 111. Match list I with List Ii and select the
b. .D
mr correct answer
mr List I
c. .D
m A. Minimum percentage of tension
reinforcement of RC beam
17 of 17
B. Minimum percentage of shear 116. While checking shear resistance of
reinforcement of RC beam reinforced concrete beams for limit state of
C. Maximum allowable percentage of collapse as per IS : 456, which one of the
tension reinforcement of RC beam following nominal shear stress
D. Maximum allowable percentage of recommendations is to be adhered to ? (Vu
compression reinforcement of RC is shear force at vertical cross-section, ‘b’
beam and ‘d’ are overall breadth and effective
depth of beam respectively)
List II
a. 0.5 Vu /bd
1. 4
b. 2 Vu / 5 bd
2. 85 / fv
c. Vu / 0.5 bd
3. 40 SV / fy d
d. Vu / bd
A B C D
117. As per IS : 456, for a singly reinforced
a. 2 1 3 1 rectangular section,
b. 2 3 1 1 xu .max
c. 1 3 1 2 a. for Fe 415 is 0.48
d
d. 3 2 1 1 b. the depth of centroid of compression is
112. According to Whitney’s theory, the 0.43 xu. max
maximum depth of concrete stress block in c. the depth of the rectangular position of
a balanced RCC beam section of depth ‘d’ the stress block is 0.38 xu. max
is
d. The maximum value of lever arm is
a. 0.3 d d—xu. max
b. 0.43 d 118. Fro the purpose of design as per IS : 456,
c. 0.5 d deflection of RC slab or beam is limited to
d. 0.53 a. 0.2% of span
113. Partial safety for concrete and steel are 1.5 b. 0.25 % of span
and 1.15 respectively, because c. 0.4 % of span
a. Concrete is heterogeneous while steel d. 0.45% of span
is homogeneous
119. As per IS : 456, side face reinforcement,
b. The control on the quality of concrete not less than 0.05% of web area, is
is not as good as that of steel provided on each side when the depth of
c. Concrete is weak in tension web is not less than
d. Voids in concrete are 0.5% while those a. 300 mm
in steel are 0.15% b. 400 mm
114. The propagation of a shear crack in a c. 500 mm
prestressed concrete member depends on
d. 750 mm
a. Tensile reinforcement
120. The yield line theory is a
b. Compression reinforcement
a. lower bound method of design of over-
c. Shear reinforcement reinforced slabs
d. Shape of the cross-section of the beam b. lower bound method of design of
115. A compared to working stress method of under–reinforced slabs
design, limit state method takes concrete to c. upper bound method of analysis of
a. a higher stress level under–reinforced slabs
b. A lower stress level d. upper bound method of analysis of
c. The same stress level under–reinforced slabs
d. Sometimes higher but generally lower
stress level
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 14
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER – I)
1. In an axially loaded spirally reinforced stresses at top and bottom will be
short column, the concrete inside the core respectively
is subjected to
a. bending and compression
b. biaxial compression
c. triaxial compression
d. uniaxial compression
2. The maximum permissible shear stress c
max given in BIS 456-1978 is based on
a. –3.40 N/mm2 and 16.70 N/mm2
a. diagonal tension failure b. –3.40 N/mm2 and 19.60 N/mm2
b. diagonal compression failure c. –4.0 N/mm2 and 16.70 N/mm2
c. flexural tension failure d. –4.0 N/mm2 and 19.60 N/mm2
d. flexural compression failure 6. Consider the following statements :
3. If the loading on a simply supported pre- The design for the limit state of collapse in
stressed concrete beam is uniformly flexure is based on the following
distributed, the centroid of tendons should assumptions :
be preferably 1. Plane sections normal to the axis
a. a straight profile along the centroidal remain
axis 2. the maximum strain in concrete at the
b. a straight profile along with the lower outermost tension fibre is 0.0035
kem 3. The relationship between the
c. a parabolic profile with convexity compressive stress distribution is
downward concrete and the strain in concrete may
be assumed to the rectangular,
d. a circular profile with convexity
trapezoidal, parabolic or any other
upward
shape which results in prediction of
4. In the design of a masonry retaining wall, strength in substantial agreement with
the the results of tests
a. vertical load should fall within the Select the correct answer using the codes
middle-third of base width given below :
b. horizontal thrust should act as h/3 from a. 1 and 3
base
b. 1, 2 and 3
c. resultant load should fall within a
c. 2 and 3
distance of one-sixth of base width on
either side of its midpoint d. 1 and 2
d. resultant load should fall within a 7. In case of deep beam or in thin webbed
distance of one-eighth of base width on R.C.C. members, the first crack form is
either side of its midpoint a. flexural crack
5. In the prestressed concrete beam section b. diagonal crack due to compression
shown in the given figure (all dimensions c. diagonal crack due to tension
in mm is the figure), if the net losses are d. shear crack
15% and final prestressing force applied at 8. The stress block in concrete for an
‘A’ is 500 kN, the initial extreme fibre estimate of ultimate strength in flexure of a
prestressed beam
2 of 14
a. should be parabolic a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. should be parabolic-rectangular correct explanation of A
c. should be rectangular b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. may be of any shape which provides the correct explanation of A
agreement with the test data c. A is true but R is false
9. The chances of diagonal tension cracks in d. A is false but R is true
R.C.C. member reduce when 14. Assertion (A) : In the hydraulically-
a. axial compression and shear force act controlled bulldozers, the blade can be
simultaneously force into the ground more accurately than
b. axial tension and shear force act in the cable-controlled bulldozers.
simultaneously Reason (R) : High friction on the blade is
c. only shear force act produced in addition to its with in the
hydraulically-controlled bulldozers.
d. flexural and shear force act
simultaneously a. Both A and R are true and R is the
10. The probability of failure implied in limit
state design is of the order of b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. 10–2
b. 10–3
c. 10–4
15. Assertion (A) : Te failure surface of a mild
d. 10–5
steel torsion specimen subjected to a
11. Cross sectional area of metal core in torque about its axis along a surface
composite column should not be more than perpendicular to its axis.
a. 4% Reason (R) : Mild steel is relatively
b. 8% weaker in shear than in tension and the
c. 16% plane of maximum shear is perpendicular
d. 20% to its axis.
12. Assertion (A) : For equal distribution of a. Both A and R are true and R is the
moment at the support ‘B’ of the beam correct explanation of A
shown in the given figure the span length x b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
required = 3/4 l. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : For equal distribution of c. A is true but R is false
moment for the beam shown in the figure d. A is false but R is true
at ‘B’, I/l = 3l/4x. 16. Consider the loaded beam shown in the
given figure.

correct explanation of A Assertion (A) : The deflection at the free
end ‘C’ is ‘a’ times the slope at A.
the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The elastic curve for the
overhang portion AC or BD is a straight
c. A is true but R is false line tangential to the elastic curve at A and
d. A is false but R is true B.
13. Assertion (A) : Calcium chloride addition a. Both A and R are true and R is the
in concrete proves more effective in slow- correct explanation of A
hardening portland cement than in rapid- b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
hardening cement. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : Calcium chloride acts as an c. A is true but R is false
effective accelerator thereby increasing
rate of reaction. d. A is false but R is true
3 of 14
17. Assertion (A) : In a pin-jointed plane a. Both A and R are true and R is the
frame consisting of straight members the correct explanation of A
total strain energy ‘U’ of the system may b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
be expressed as the correct explanation of A
S 2L c. A is true but R is false
U=  2 AE d. A is false but R is true
Where S is the axial force, A the uniform 21. Assertion (A) : Over-reinforced design of
cross-sectional area and L the length of the reinforced concrete sections is undesirable.
individual member. E is the modulus of Reason (R) : Tension failure of reinforced
elasticity of the member material. concrete sections is sudden.
Reason (R) : In pin-jointed plane frames a. Both A and R are true and R is the
only axial forces are present. correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 22. On application of external stress on
d. A is false but R is true timbers, it behaves like
18. Assertion (A) : In a cantilever, the I.L. a. an elastic material
diagram for deflection at the free end is b. non-elastic material
same as elastic curve of the beam due to
c. viscoelastic material
unit load placed at the free end.
d. non-viscoelastic material
Reason (R) : By Maxwell’s Reciprocal
theorem, the deflection at the free end, due 23. The ratio of tangential shrinkage to radial
to various positions of unit load on the shrinkage of wood due to reduction in
span, equals deflection at those placed of moisture content is
unit moving load due to static unit load at a. in the range from 3.1 to 5.1
the free end. b. in the range from 2 to 3
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. in the range from 1 to 2
correct explanation of A d. less than or equal to 1
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 24. Which one of the following procedure is
the correct explanation of A applied to determine the soundness of
c. A is true but R is false bricks ?
d. A is false but R is true a. Immersing the brick under water for 16
19. Assertion (A) : Impact factor is used in the hrs and determining the quantity of
design of a gantry girder. water absorbed by the brick
Reason (R) : Loads transferred to the b. immersing the brick under water of 24
gantry girder are momentary. hrs and determining its expansion
a. Both A and R are true and R is the using Le Chatelier apparatus
correct explanation of A c. taking two bricks, hitting one against
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the other and observing whether they
the correct explanation of A break or not and the type of sound
produced while hitting
d. scratching the brick by finger nail and
noting whether any impression is made
20. Assertion (A) : According to BIS 456- or not
1978, over-reinforced sections are not
25. The number of bricks required per cubic
permitted.
metre of brick masonry is
Reason (R) : There is ductile failure of
a. 400
over-reinforced sections.
b. 450
4 of 14
c. 500 a. low heat portland cement
d. 550 b. rapid hardening cement
26. The bricks which are extensively used for c. ordinary portland cement
basic refractories in furnaces are d. blast furnace slage cement
a. Chrome bricks 31. The maximum bulking of sand is likely to
b. Sillimanite bricks occur at a moisture content of
c. Magnesite bricks a. 5%
d. Fosterite bricks b. 8%
27. Consider the following statements : c. 11%
High Alumina cement (HAC) d. 14%
1. has high early compressive strength 32. One of the main demerits in using the lime
and high heat of hydration than OPC- mortar is that it
43 grade. a. is not durable
2. is not suitable to be used in cold b. does not set quickly
regions c. swells
Which of these statements is/are correct ? d. is plastic
a. 1 alone 33. Which one of the following types of
b. 2 alone concrete is most suitable in extreme cold
c. both 1 and 2 climates ?
d. neither 1 and 2 a. Air-entrained
28. Consider the following statements : b. Ready mix concrete
when cement is tested for setting time; on c. Vacuum concrete
gauging its shows quick setting. This d. Coarse concrete
phenomenon known as “Flash set” of 34. Match List I(Workability test) with List II
cement is due to the presence of high (Measurements) and select the correct
1. Tricalcium Aluminate (C3A) in cement answer :
2. Alkalies in cement List I
3. Tricalcium Silicate (C3S) in cement A. Slump test
Which of these statements are correct ? B. Compacting factor
a. 1, 2 and 3 C. Vebe test
b. 2 and 3 D. Flow test
c. 1 and 2 List II
d. 1 and 3 1. 300 mm to 500 mm
29. Which one of the following statements 2. 75 mm to 125 mm
regarding the cement fineness is NOT 3. 0.80 to 0.98
correct ?
4. zero to 10 s
a. Fine cement is more liable to suffer
A B C D
from shrinkage cracking than a coarse
cement a. 2 4 3 1
b. Fine cement will show faster rate of b. 1 3 4 2
hardening than coarse cement c. 1 4 3 2
c. Fine cement shows faster rate of heat d. 2 3 4 1
evolution and total quantity of heat 35. Consider the following statements :
evolve is much larger than coarse Curing of concrete by steam under
cement pressure
d. Fine cement shows the same setting 1. increases the compressive strength of
time as coarse cement concrete
30. For marine works, the best suited cement 2. reduces the shear strength of concrete
is
5 of 14
3. increases the speed of chemical c. lintel level
reaction. d. roof level
Select the correct answer using the codes 41. A construction concrete mixer of capacity
given below : 0.8 m3 is used and the mixer discharges the
a. 1, 2 and 3 entire batch of concrete into a single
b. 1 alone hopper. The time per cycle may be taken
c. 2 and 3 for changing, mixing and discharging
mixes as 1.6 minutes and lost time may be
d. 3 alone
taken as 0.15 minutes. The number of
36. Which one of the following aggregates batches per hour is equal to
given maximum strength in concrete ?
60
a. Rounded aggregate a.
1.6  0.15
b. Elongated aggregate
 60 
c. Flaky aggregate b.    0.15
d. Cubical aggregate  1.6 
 60  0.15 
37. Consider the following statements : c.   0.8
Ultrasonic pulse velocity test to measure  1.6 
the strength of concrete is 60
d.
1. used to measure the strength of wet 1.6  0.15
concrete 42. Which of the following statements are the
2. used to obtain estimate of concrete advantages of surface vibrators?
strength of finished concrete elements Surface vibrators are best suited
3. a non-destructive test 1. for one way reinforced slabs and road
Of these statements surfaces
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct 2. when depth of the concrete to be
b. 2 and 3 are correct vibrated exceeds 250 mm.
c. 1 and 2 are correct 3. where immersion vibrations are
d. 1 and 3 are correct impracticable.
38. The given figure shows the Tee junction in a. 1, 2 and 3
brick masonry which is known as b. 1 and 2
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
43. The output Q of the earth moving
equipment like excavators, shovels,
loaders (where q is production per cycle in
a. English bond m3 and c is cycle time in seconds) is
b. English cross bond q  3600  efficiency 3
a. m / hr
c. Flemish bond c
d. Double Flemish bond b. q  3600  efficiency m3/hr
39. Guniting is the application of mortor c. qc  3600  efficiency m3/hr
a. on a surface under pneumatic pressure d. q  3600 m3/hr
b. on a vertical surface 44. For a given load rating, the operating
c. on brickwork by manual method radius of crane can be increased by
d. of fluid consistency for repair works a. increasing weight of the machine
40. In building construction, the place for b. increasing engine horse power
providing dampproof course is at the c. increasing the length of boom or arm
a. basement level d. operating the crane slowly
b. window sill level 45. Concreting at site can start on any one day,
with all preparations having been done on
6 of 14
the previous day. As per the past 2. The out-tum rate of the gang will
experience of owner, contractor and the decrease once it exceeds the optimal
architect, it is decided that the chance of number
any one being late is 0.4. The chance of 3. beyond the optimal number, the
starting on time on the appointed day is inefficiency of the gang will increase.
a. 0.064 Which of these statements are correct ?
b. 0.216 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 0.288 b. 1 and 2
d. 0.432 c. 2 and 3
46. In PERT analysis, the time estimates of d. 1 and 3
activities and probability of their 49. In the time-cost analysis, the cost slope is
occurrence follow defined as
a. Normal distribution curve Crash cost  Normal cost
b. –distribution curve a.
Crash time  Normal time
c. Poisson’s distribution curve Crash time  Normal time
d. Binomial distribution curve b.
Crash cost  Normal cost
47. Activity ‘C’ follows activity ‘A’ and
Crash cost  Normal cost
activity ‘D’ follows activities ‘A’ and ‘B’. c.
The correct network for the projects is Normal time  Crash time
Normal cost  Crash cost
d.
Normal time  Crash time
a. 50. Which one of the following is the base for
resource levelling?
a. Delaying the completion of critical
activities
b. Delaying the start of non-critical
activities
b.
c. Reducing completion time of critical
activities
d. Not delaying the completion of critical
activities
c. 51. A construction equipment has a useful life
of 5 years after which it is to be replaced
by a new one. If the interest rate is 4%, the
sinking fund factor will be
a. 0.033
d. b. 0.184
48. Consider the following statements c. 0.224
regarding the curve shown in the given
figure : d. 0.232
52. Pay-back period gives an estimate of
a. profitability
b. liquidity
c. time-value of money
d. interest rate of return
As the gang size increases, 53. For supplying water to a city, two alternate
1. the out-tum rate of the gang will design concepts are beings considered with
always increase irrespective of the 8% p.a. discrete compounding as the
number of gang criterion. A rock tunnel of indefinitely
long life will cost Rs. 30 lakhs now, and
7 of 14
will need Rs. 60,000 per year for c. 4 and 5
operations. The alternative is by a pipe line d. 1 and 3
system, with an expected life of 20 years, 57. Out of the two beams of same material and
at a first cost of Rs. 20 lakhs now, and will same cross-sectional area one is of circular
need annual operating expenses of Rs. cross-section and other is of square cross-
92,000. In term of annualized costs, the section. If these are subjected to bending
tunnel system will have a relative moment of same magnitude, then
advantage of (give C.R.F. at 8% p.a.
a. both sections would be equally strong
discrete compounding for 20 years =
0.10185) nearly b. both sections would be equally
economical
a. Rs. 14,000
c. square section would be more
b. Rs. 11,000
economical than circular section
c. Rs. 8,200
d. square section would be less
d. Rs. 4,300 economical than circular section
54. Payment allowance is selected keeping in 58. A beam has a triangular cross-section
mind having base 40 mm and altitude 60 mm. If
a. overall cost this section is subjected to a shear force of
b. normal profit and total time 36000 N, the maximum shear stress in the
c. overall cost and total time cross-section would be
d. overall cost, normal profit and total a. 60 N/mm2
time b. 36 N/mm2
55. A unique relation between bending c. 45 N/mm2
movement (M) and intensity of load(w) d. 30 N/mm2
acting continuously on a beam of span (L) 59. Consider the following statements :
at a distance(x) along the axis (The
The shear stress over a beam section of
flexural rigidity of beam is El) is given by
any shape for a given loading does not
wL2 vary with
a. M =
8 1. shear force at the section
d 2M 2. area of the section
b. w 
dx 2 3. moment of inertial of the section
d 2M Which of these statements are correct ?
c. M  El a. 1 and 2
dx 2
b. 1 and 3
wL2
d. M  c. 2 and 3
12
d. 1, 2 and 3
56. Which of the following points are
considered while deriving the formula 60. Which one of the following shear stress
distribution diagrams is correct for cross-
M f E
  ? bar section shown in the given Figure-I ?
I y R
1. Type of material
2. Transverse shear force
3. The stresses in the remaining principal
direction
4. y = z = xz = zx = 0
5. Linear variation of strain.
Select the correct answer using the codes
given below :
a.
a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 5
8 of 14
b. shear force location
c. slope location
d. shear force location and also zero
b. bending moment location
65. Which of the following is/are determined
at a point of a given beam by moment area
method ?
c.
1. Shear force
2. Bending moment
3. slope
d. 4. deflection
61. A rectangular beam of width 100 mm is Select the correct answer using the codes
subjected to a maximum shear force of 60 given below :
kN. The corresponding maximum shear
a. 1 and 2
stress in the cross-section is 4 N/mm2. The
depth of the beam should be b. 3 alone
a. 150 mm c. 4 alone
b. 225 mm d. 3 and 4
c. 200 mm 66. Which one of the following rules
ascertains the maximum permissible
d. 100 mm
eccentricity of loads on circular column so
62. Consider the following statements : that stresses will always be compressive ?
When a beam of square cross-section is a. Middle fourth rule
used with a diagonal in a vertical position,
b. Middle third rule
1. the shear stress, distribution across the
c. Middle half rule
section of the beam will be zero both at
top and bottom d. Middle two-third rule
2. the shear stress distribution across the 67. The horizontal thrust at support ‘A’ in a
section of the beam will be zero both at three hinged arch shown in the given
top and bottom. figure is
3. the maximum stress does not occur at
neutral axis.
Which of these statements are correct ?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 3
c. 2 and 3 a. 2 kN
d. 1 and 2 b. 4 kN
63. A simply supported beam ‘A’ carries a c. 8 kN
point load at its midspan. Another identical d. 10 kN
beam ‘B’ carries the same magnitude of 68. A three-hinged symmetrical parabolic arch
load but it is uniformly distributed over the of span 20 m and 5 m carries a uniformly
entire span. The ratio of the maximum distributed load of 2 kN/m for the whole
deflections of beams ‘A’ and ‘B’ will be span. The bending moment at quarter point
a. 8/3 is
b. 2/3 a. 75 kNm (Hogging)
c. 3/5 b. 75 kNm(Sagging)
d. 8/5 c. 100 kNm(Sagging)
64. The maximum deflection of simply d. zero
supported beam occurs at zero
a. bending moment location
9 of 14
69. Consider a loaded truss shown in the given b. 50000 N (Compressive)
figure. Match List I(Member) with List c. 50000 2 N(Tensile)
II(Force) and select the correct answer :
d. zero
72. A loaded pin jointed truss is shown in the
given figure. The force in member AC is
List I
A. PR
B. RS
C. SU
D. RT
List II a. 10 2 kN (Tensile)
1. 40 kN(Tension) b. 10 2 kN (Compressive)
2. 40 kN(Compression) c. Zero
3. 60 kN(Tension) d. 10kN (Tensile)
4. 50 2 kN(Compression) 73. A solid shaft has diameter 80 mm. It is
A B C D subjected to a torque of 4 kNm. The
maximum shear stress induced in the shaft
a. 3 2 1 4
would be
b. 3 1 2 4
a. 75/ N/mm2
c. 4 1 2 3
b. 250/ N/mm2
d. 4 2 1 3
c. 125/ N/mm2
70. The pin jointed cantilever truss is loaded
as shown in the given figure. The force in d. 150/ N/mm2
member ED is 74. Two steel shaft ‘A’ and ‘B’ are used for
transmitting power. The ratio of
revolutions of shafts i.e. NA / NB = 2. The
ratio of torques on shafts i.e. TA / TB = 1/2.
The ratio of the horse power transmitted
by the shaft i.e. PA/PB would be
a. 1/2
a. 40 kN(Compressive) b. 1/4
b. 80 kN(Tensile) c. 1
c. 80 kN(Compressive) d. 2
d. 120 kN(Compressive) 75. A bar AB of diameter 40 mm and 4 m long
71. In the pin jointed plane frame shown in the is rigidly fixed at its ends. A torque of 600
given figure. The force in the member BD Nm is applied at a section of the bar, 1 m
is from end A. The fixing couples TA and TB
at the supports A and B, respectively, are
a. 450 Nm and 150 Nm
b. 200 Nm and 400 Nm
c. 300 Nm and 150 Nm
d. 300 Nm and 100 Nm
76. A short hollow CI column section ‘A’ is
150 cm2 and the section modulus Z = 10
a. 50000 N (Tensile) 105 mm3 carries
(i) an axial load of 250 kN, and
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(ii) a load of 50 kN on a bracket, the load b. elastic strain with time at constant load
line being 500 mm from the axis of c. plastic strain with time at varying load
column. d. elastic strain with time at varying load
The maximum and minimum stress 82. If a shaft is simultaneously subjected to a
intensities are torque T and a bending moment M, the
a. 50 N/mm2 tensile and 10 N/mm2 ratio of maximum bending stress and
compressive maximum shearing stress is given by
b. 45 N/mm2 compressive and 5 N/mm2 a. 2M/T
tensile b. M/T
c. 55 N/mm2 compressive and 5 N/mm2 c. 2T/M
tensile
d. T/M
d. 60 N/mm2 tensile and 10 N/mm2
83. If three close-coiled and two open-coiled
compressive
helical springs, each having the stiffness k
77. The strain energy in a member is are connected in series then the overall
proportional to stiffness is
a. total strain multiplied by the volume of a. 5 k
the member
b. k/5
b. product of stress and the corresponding
strain c. k/ 5
c. product of strain and Young’s modulus d. 6k/5
of the material 84. The ratio of tensile stress developed in the
d. the maximum strain multiplied by the wall of a boiler in the longitudinal
length of the member direction to the tensile stress in the
78. Strain energy in torsion of a shaft per unit circumferential direction due to an internal
volume is given by (q is shear stress, E- pressure is
modulus of Elasticity and G is modulus of a. 4
rigidity) b. 2
a. q2/2G c. 1/4
b. q2/2E d. 1/2
c. q2/4G 85. In a two dimensional stress system, the
d. q2/4E two principal stresses are 1 of 180 N/mm2
79. A simply supported beam of span ‘L’ is (tensile) and 2 (compressive). For the
subjected to a concentrated load W at material, yield stress in simple tension and
midspan. The strain Energy due to bending compression is 240 N/mm2 and Poisson
in the beam would be Ratio is 0.25. According to maximum
a. W2 L3 / 48 El normal strain theory, the value 2 of at
which yielding will commence, is
b. W2 L3 / 96 El
a. 240 N/mm2
c. W2 L3 / 24 El
b. 180 N/mm2
d. W L3 / 96 El
c. 195 N/mm2
80. A mild steel bar of uniform cross-section
‘A’ and length L is subjected to an axial d. 200 N/mm2
load ‘W’. The Strain Energy stored in the 86. A straight cantilever of uniform cross-
bar would be section carries a load ‘W’ distributed
a. Wl/2 AE evenly over its entire length. If the free end
of the cantilever is now popped upto the
b. W2L/4 AE
level of the fixed end, the vertical force
c. WL/4 AE required at the prop is
d. W2L/2 AE a. 3/8 W
81. Creep is the gradual increase of b. 5/8 W
a. plastic strain with time at constant load c. 3/4 W
11 of 14
d. W 91. A uniform beam of span ‘l’ is rigidly fixed
87. The total degree of indeterminacy (both at both supports. If carries a uniformly
internal and external) for the bridge truss distributed load w per unit length. The
shown in the given figure is bending moment at mid span is
a. wl2 / 8
b. wl2 / 12
c. wl2 / 16
a. 4 d. wl2 / 24
b. 5 92. Consider the following statements :
c. 6 A cantilever beam of length ‘l’ is loaded
d. 3 with uniformly distributed load ‘w’ on the
span. The beam is propped at the free end
88. Which one of the following steps is NOT having its level same as that of the fixed
correct in the application of moment end (El is constant).
distribution method ?
1. The prop reaction is wl / 2
a. The distribution factors are first
computed 2. The prop reaction is 3/8 wl.
b. All supports are assumed fixed or 3. The bending moment at the prop =
locked and fixed end moments are wl2/2
computer for each span, considered 4. SF is zero at x = 3/8 l from the proper
separate from every other span end.
c. Each support is not unlocked and the Which of these statements are correct ?
unbalanced moment is distributed to a. 1 and 3
each adjacent span. Then each support b. 2 and 3
is relocked c. 1 and 4
d. After distributing the unbalanced d. 2 and 4
moment to each adjacent span, one half
93. An applied couple ‘M’ is moving on a
of this amount, with opposite sign is
simply supported beam of span ‘l’ as
carried over to the other end of
shown in the given figure. The absolute
respective span.
maximum bending moment developed in
89. A correct solution of a statically the beam is
indeterminate structure as per the energy
method
a. is statically admissible
b. is kinetically consistent
a. M/2
c. makes the strain energy of the structure
a minimum b. M
d. can be given by (a), (b) and (c) of the c. 3 M/2
question d. 2M
90. While designing multistory in deeptrial 94. A continuous beam with constant El is
structures, BIS code suggests the reduction shown in the given figure. Collapse load
in live loads because for this beam will be equal to
a. all the floors may not be loaded
simultaneously
b. cross-section of the columns are
different at different floors a. 16 Mp/L
c. thickness of roof slab is smaller than b. 12 Mp/L
the thickness of floor slabs c. 8 Mp/L
d. of the cantilevering effect of the d. 6 Mp/L
building 95. Consider the following statements :
12 of 14
The Impact factor for reinforced concrete d. 2 Mp/L
4.5 99. A propped cantilever bean of span ‘L’ and
bridges = (where L is the length in
(6  L) constant plastic moment capacity Mp
metres of the span). carries a concentrated load at mid span,
The bridge is designed then the load at collapse will be
1. for spans upto 30 m a. 8 Mp/L
2. for spans between 3 m and 45 m b. 6 Mp/L
3. either for class A or class B loading c. 4 Mp/L
4. for class AA and class 70 R. d. 2 Mp/L
Which of these statements are correct ? 100. Match List I (Properties) with List II)
Stress points labeled 1, 2, 3 and 4) in the
a. 1 and 3 stress-strain figure an select the correct
b. 2 and 3 answer :
c. 1 and 4 List I
d. 2 and 4 A. Yield point
96. Which of the following statements is/are B. Proportional limit
correct ? C. Rupture strength
1. Plastic hinges are reached first at D. Ultimate strength
sections subjected to greatest
curvature. List II
2. Formation of plastic hinges allows a
subsequent redistribution of moment
until fully plastic moment is reached at
each critical section.
3. The maximum load is attained when a
mechanism forms.
a. 1, 2 and 3 A B C D
b. 1 and 2 a. 3 4 1 2
c. 1 and 3 b. 4 3 1 2
d. 2 and 3 c. 3 4 2 1
97. The number of possible independent d. 4 3 2 1
mechanisms for a portal frame shown in 101. A simply supported beam of 8 m effective
the given figure is span carries uniformly distributed load of
2 kN/m (inclusive of self load) over the
effective span. If the permissible bending
stress is 160 MPa, then most suitable
shape and size would be a
a. solid circular section of diameter = 110
mm, area = 9500 mm2 and section
a. 2 modulus = 130660 mm3
b. 4 b. solid rectangular section of size 60 mm
c. 1  100 mm deep, area = 6000 mm2 and
d. 3 maximum section modulus = 100,000
98. The collapse load of a simply supported mm3
beam of span L and fully plastic moment c. T-section of size 200 mm  200 mm 
Mp subjected to central concentrated load 10 mm thickness, area = 3900 mm2
is given by and maximum section modulus = 105,
a. 4 Mp/L 780 mm3
b. 6 Mp/L d. I-section of size 80 mm  150 mm
c. 8 Mp/L deep  10 mm thickness, area =
13 of 14
2900mm2 and maximum section
modulus = 129100 mm3
102. Which one of the following pairs is
correctly matched ?
a. Truss – Bending
b. Beam – Twisting a. Section 1–1
c. Column – Buckling b. Section 2–2
d. Shaft – Shortening c. Section 3–3
103. The maximum shear force at a section is d. Both section 1–1 and section 2–2
56 kN. An ISWB of height 350 mm,
breadth 200 mm, thickness of web 8 mm, 108. Match List I with List II and select the
with a section modulus of 887 cm3 is used correct answer :
as a beam at the section. The shearing List I(Methods of analysis)
stress is A. Exact plastic analysis
a. 10 N/mm2 B. Mechanism method of plastic analysis
b. 20 N/mm2 C. Equilibrium method of plastic analysis
c. 28.4 N/mm2 List II(Conditions satisfied)
d. 41.6 N/mm2 1. Equilibrium, sufficient plastic hinges
104. M 60 structural steel tube has a radius of and Non-violation of plastic moment
gyration 20 mm. The unbraced length upto capacity
which the tube can be used as a 2. Equilibrium and Non-violation of
compression member, is plastic moment capacity
a. 3.6 m 3. Equilibrium, continuity and Non-
b. 5.0 m violation plastic moment capacity
c. 6.0 m 4. Equilibrium and sufficient plastic
d. 7.2 m hinges
105. Which one of the following is the mode of A B C
failure in a fillet weld material ? a. 3 1 2
a. Tension b. 3 4 2
b. Shear c. 1 2 4
c. Bearing d. 1 4 2
d. Crushing 109. The distance of centroids of areas above
106. Load on connection is not eccentric for and below the equal area axis in a solid
circular section from its centre (R is the
a. LAP joint radius of circular section) is
b. Single cover butt joint
a. 4R/3
c. Double cover butt joint
b. 4/3R
d. All the joints mentioned in a., b., and c.
of the question c. 3R/4
107. Two steel plates each of 12 mm thickness d. 3/4R
are connected by a double cover butt joint 110. Neutral axis distance D1 at plastic moment
by rivets shown in the given figure. If the condition of a triangular cross-section in
rivet diameter is 22 mm rivet force value given figure having similar properties in
of 53150 N and permissible stress in tension and compression is
tension of plate is 142 N/mm2, which one
of the following section is the most critical
section ?
a. 2/3 D
b. D/2
14 of 14
c. D/ 3 d. along an axis inclined at 60o to the
grains
d. D/ 2
116. The minimum compressive strength of
111. Which of the following loads are to be first class bricks should be
considered in designing a gantry girder in
a. 5 N/mm2
an industrial building ?
b. 7.5 N/mm2
1. Gravity loads
c. 9 N/mm2
2. Lateral loads
d. 10 N/mm2
3. Longitudinal loads
117. Earthquake causes horizontal and vertical
4. Wind loads
accelerations in the masonry structure. The
Select the correct answer using the codes magnitude of the force induced in the
given below : structure depend on the
a. 1 and 2 a. age of the building
b. 1, 2 and 3 b. strength of mortar
c. 1 and 3 c. type of roof
d. 2, 3 and 4 d. Mass of the structure
112. The slenderness ratio in tension member as 118. For a reinforced concrete beam section the
per BIS code where reverse of stress is due shape of the shear stress diagram is
to loads other than wind or seismic shall
a. parabolic over the whole section with
not exceed
maximum value at the neutral axis
a. 350
b. parabolic above the neutral axis and
b. 180 rectangular below the neutral axis
c. 100 c. linearly varying as the distance from
d. 60 the neutral axis
113. In a plate girder bridge the thickness of d. dependent on the magnitude of shear
web is less than d’/200 where d’ is the reinforcement provided
unsupported depth of web. The web plate 119. In a reinforced concrete T-beam (in which
should be provided with the flange is in compression). The position
a. vertical stiffness of neutral axis will
b. horizontal stiffness a. be within in the flange
c. end stiffness b. be within the web
d. both vertical and horizontal stiffness c. depend on the thickness of flange in
114. In the design of steel bridges if wind or relation to total depth and percentage
seismic forces are also considered, the of reinforcement
allowable stresses as per BIS may be d. at the junction of flange and web
increased by 120. Consider the following statements :
a. 10% The reinforcement in reinforced concrete
2 shall have concrete cove, the thickness of
b. 16 %
3 such cover shall be not less than
c. 25% 1. 25 mm
1 2. the diameter of bar
d. 33 %
3 3. the spacing between bars
115. The compressive strength in structural 4. 5 mm
timber is minimum in a direction Which of the se statemtns are correct?
a. parallel to the grains a. 3 and 4
b. perpendicular to the grains b. 1 and 4
c. along an axis inclined at 45o to the c. 2 and 3
grains d. 1 and 2
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2001 1 of 15
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. Match List I(Unit) with List II(Purpose) 3. If the moisture content of a sludge is
and select the correct answer : reduced from 98% to 96% ,the volume of
List I sludge will decrease by
A. Leaping weir a. 2%
B. Gutter inlet b. 20%
C. Inverted siphon c. 25%
D. Catch basin d. 50%
List II 4. In a high-rate trickling filter, the problem
1. To prevent grit, sand, debris, etc. from of ponding can be solved by
entering the storm sewer a. flooding and raking
2. To carry the sewer below a stream or b. chlorination and supply of air
railway line c. ranking and chlorination
3. To drain rain water from roads to the d. flooding and supply of air
storm sewer 5. Consider the following statements :
4. To separate storm water and the The process of activated sludge can be
sanitary sewage explained as
A B C D 1. a physical action whereby the finer
a. 4 3 1 2 suspended particles of sewage form a
b. 4 3 2 1 sublayer for a bacterial film at the
c. 3 4 2 1 surface.
d. 3 4 1 2 2. a chemical action whereby the finer
suspended particles and colloidal
2. Match List I (Treatment units) with List II solids are combined into masses of
(Types of processes) and select the correct large bulk.
answer :
3. a biochemical action whereby the
List I sludge flocs so formed act as vehicles
A. Trickling filter for aerobic bacterial oxidizing the
B. Activated sludge process organic matter
C. Oxidation ditch Which of these statements are correct?
D. Oxidation pond a. 1, 2 and 3
List II b. 1 and 2
1. Symbiotic c. 2 and 3
2. Extended aeration d. 1 and 3
3. suspended growth 6. Sewage may be disposed of without
4. Attached growth treatment into a water body if the available
dilution is
A B C D
a. less than 150
a. 3 4 2 1
b. more than 150
b. 4 3 1 2
c. more than 300
c. 3 4 1 2
d. more than 500
d. 4 3 2 1
2 of 15
7. A certain waste has a BOD of 162 mg/l 12. Which of the following pairs are correctly
and its flow is 1000 cubic meters per day. matched ?
If the domestic sewage has a BOD of 80 1. Ringelmann chart : To grade density of
gram per capita, then the population smoke
equivalent of the waste would be 2. Pneumoconiosis : Disease caused due
a. 20.25 to coaldust
b. 1296 3. PAN : Secondary air pollutant
c. 2025 Select the correct answer using the codes
d. 12960 given below :
8. In sanitary plumbing of buildings, a two- a. 2 and 3
pipe system signifies b. 1 and 2
a. Separate soil pipes and waste pipe c. 1 and 3
without vent pipes d. 1, 2 and 3
b. A soil-cum-waste pipe and a 13. Which one of the following terms
ventilating pipe correctly described ‘Biomagnification’?
c. Separate soil and waste pipe and a a. Reproduction of micro-organisms
common ventilating pipe
b. Observation of micro-organisms under
d. Separate soil pipe and waste pipe, each
a microscope
with its own vent pipe
c. Ability of micro-organisms to form
9. Which of the following are storm water zoogleal film
regulators ?
d. Concentration of toxic materials in the
1. Side weir food chain
2. Leaping weir 14. Which one of the following
3. symphonic spillway comprehensive classifications is used for
4. Float actuated gates or values. different types of solid wastes ?
5. Inverted syphon. a. Residential, commercial and treatment
Select the correct answer using the codes plant wastes
given below : b. Food, demolition and construction
a. 1, 2 3 and 4 wastes
b. 1, 3 and 5 c. Municipal, industrial and harzardous
c. 2, 3 4 and 5 wastes
d. 1, 2, 4 and 5 d. Rubbish, special wastes and wastes
from open areas
10. When wastewater is disposed of into a
running stream, four zones are formed. In 15. Which one of the following methods
which one of the following zones will the would be best suited for disposal of plastic
minimum level of dissolved oxygen be and rubber waste ?
found ? a. Composting
a. Zone of degradation b. Incineration
b. Zone of active decomposition c. Pyrolysis
c. Zone of recovery d. Sanitary landfill
d. Zone of clear water 16. Which of the following pairs are correctly
11. The least expensive and most suitable matched ?
excrete disposal unit for rural areas would 1. Reverberation : time required to reduce
be the noise by 60 dB time
a. soak pit 2. NIPTS : Responsible for permanent
b. pit privy hearing loss
c. leaching cesspool
d. septic tank
3 of 15
3. Sound foci : Formed when sound b. 0.3
waves are reflected from convex c. 0.4
surface d. 0.5
4. TTS : Responsible for temporary 22. The following data were obtained when a
hearing loss sample of medium sand was tested in a
Select the correct answer using the codes constant heat permeameter :
given below : Cross-section area of sample : 100 cm2
a. 2, 3 and 4 Hydraulic gradient : 10
b. 1, 3 and 4 Discharge collected : 10cc/s
c. 1, 2 and 4 The coefficient of permeability of the sand
d. 1, 2 and 4 is
17. A dry soil sample has equal amounts of a. 0.1 m/s
solids and voids by volume. Its void ratio b. 0.01 m/s
and porosity will be
c. 110–4 m/s
Void ratio Porosity(%)
a. 1.0 100% d. 1  10–8 s m/s
b. 0.5 50% 23. Match List I (Test) with List II(Property)
and select the correct answer :
c. 0.5 100%
List I
d. 1.0 50%
A. Proctor Test
18. Based on grain distribution analysis, the
D10, D30 and D60 values of a given solid B. Vane Test
are 0.23 mm, 0.3 mm and 0.41 mm C. Penetration Test
respectively. As per IS Code, the solid D. Hydrometer Test
classification will be List II
a. SW 1. Grain Size Analysis
b. SP 2. Shear strength
c. SM 3. Bearing Capacity
d. SC 4. Compaction
19. The plasticity index and the percentage of A B C D
grain size finer then 2 microns of a clay
a. 2 4 1 3
sample are 25 and 15, respectively. Its
activity ratio is b. 4 3 1 3
a. 2.5 c. 4 2 3 1
b. 1.67 d. 2 4 3 1
c. 1.0 24. Which one of the following phase
diagrams represents a clay at its shrinkage
d. 0.6 limit ?
20. A soil sample having a void ratio of 1.3,
water content of 50% and a specific
gravity of 2.60, is in a state of
a. partial saturation
b. full saturation
a.
c. oversaturation
d. undersaturation
21. The natural void ratio of a san sample is
0.6 and its density index is 0.6. If its void
ratio in the loosest state is 0.9, then the
void ratio in the densest state will be
b.
a.
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and minimum principal stresses were 100
kPa and 40 kPa, respectively. The pore
pressure measured at failure was 10 kPa.
The effective principal stress ratio at
failure is
c. a. 2.5
b. 3.0
c. 2.75
d. 2.0
28. An earth-retaining structure may be
subjected to the following lateral earth
d. pressures :
25. Which one of the following correctly 1. Earth pressure at rest
represents the dry unit weight of a soil 2. passive earth pressure
sample which has a bulk unit weight l of 3. Active earth pressure
at a moisture content of % ? The correct sequence of the increasing
ωγ l order of the magnitude of these pressure is
a.
100 a. 3, 2, 1
 ω  b. 1, 3, 2
b. γ l 1  
 100  c. 1, 2, 3
 100  d. 3, 1, 2
c. γ l   29. For a sand having an internal friction of
 100  ω 
30o, the ratio of passive to active lateral
γ l 100  ω  earth pressure will be
d.
100 a. 1
26. b. 3
c. 6
d. 9
30. The total, neutral and effective vertical
stresses (in t/m2) at a depth of 5m below
the surface of a fully saturated soil deposit
with a saturated density of 2 t/m3 would,
The figure given above shown the state of respectively, be
a simple of clay before and after a. 5, 5 and 10
consolidation. Based on these figures, the
settlement of a clay layer of initial b. 5, 10 and 5
thickness H will be c. 10, 5 and 10
e d. 10, 5 and 5
a.
1  e0  31.
H e
b.
1  e f 
e
c.
1  e f  Excess pore pressure distribution within
the thickness of a soil sample tested in
H e oedometry sometime after loading is
d.
1  e0  shown in the above figures labeled 1, 2, 3
and 4. Which one of these figures, refers to
27. A soil sample test in a triaxial compression
a situation where the operator forgot to put
apparatus failed when the total maximum
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on the porous stones at the top and bottom b. 3
of the sample before the test ? c. 4
a. 1 d. 6
b. 2 36. Two circular footings of diameters D1 and
c. 3 D2 are resting on the surface of a purely
d. 4 cohesive soil. The ratio D1/D2 = 2. If the
32. In soil consolidation process, the following ultimate load carrying capacity of the
events take place after loading : footing of diameter D1 is 200 kN/m2, then
the ultimate bearing capacity (in kN/m2) of
1. Decrease in excess pore pressure the footing of diameter D2 will be
2. Increase in total stress a. 100
3. Development of excess pore pressure b. 200
4. Increase in effective stress. c. 314
The correct sequence of these events is: d. 571
a. 3, 2, 1, 4 37. The minimum bearing capacity of a soil
b. 2, 3 1, 4 under a given footing occurs when the
c. 2, 3, 4, 1 groundwater table at the location is at
d. 3, 2, 4, 1 a. the base of the footing
33. b. the ground level
c. a depth equal to one-half of the width
of footing
d. A depth equal to the width of footing
38. In a Newmark’s influence chart for stress
distribution, there are 10 concentric circles
and 50 radial lines. The influence factor of
the chart is
The e-p curve for a soil is shown in the a. 0.0002
above figure. The coefficient of b. 0.002
compressibility (in m2/kN) of the soil is
c. 0.02
a. 4000
d. 0.2
b. 2000
39. In the case of a pile foundation, negative
c. 2.5  10–4 skin friction may occur at a load which is
d. 1.25  10–4 a. lower the an the designed load
34. A saturated clay layer with double b. higher then the designed load
drainage takes 5 years to attain 90% c. equal to the designed load
degree of consolidation under a structure.
If the same layer were to be single drained, d. of any magnitude
what would be the time (in years) required 40. In under-reamed pile construction, the
to attain the same consolidation under the ratio of shaft diameter to bulb diameter is
same loading conditions ? a. 1/1.5
a. 10 b. 1/2
b. 15 c. 1/2.5
c. 20 d. 1/4
d. 25 41. Match List I (Field test) with List II
35. In the Engineering News Record formula (Property) and select the correct answer :
for determining the safe load carrying List I
capacity of a pile, the factor of safety used A. Pumping test
is
B. Plate load test
a. 2.5
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C. Pile load test Based on this formation on particle size
List II distribution for use as subgrade, this will
1. Bearing capacity be taken to be
2. Load carrying capacity a. uniformly-graded sand
3. Permeability b. well-graded sand
c. very find sand
A B C
a. 1 2 3 d. poorly-graded sand
b. 3 1 2 45. Consider the following statements
regarding soil stabilization :
c. 2 3 1
1. Subgrade should be treated if it has a
d. 3 2 1 soaked CBR of 5 or less.
42. Match List I (Distress) with List 2. Sub-bases, after treatment, should have
II(meaning) and select the correct answer : plasticity index not less than 5.
List I 3. Base courses after treatment should
A. Settlement have plasticity index of not more than
B. Subsidence 2 and a CBR in excess of 100.
C. Depression Which of these statements(s) is/are
D. Distortion correct?
List II a. 1, 2 and 3
1. A localized, rather abrupt lowering of b. 1 and 3
the road surface c. 2 and 3
2. A general lowering of the road surface d. 1 alone
3. Irregular deformation of the road 46. While driving at a speed of 30 kmph (with
4. Dished localized deformations available friction 0.4) down the grade, the
driver requires a braking distance twice the
A B C D
required for stopping the vehicle when he
a. 2 1 4 3 travels up the same grade. The grade is
b. 1 2 4 3 a. 7%
c. 2 1 3 4 b. 10.6%
d. 1 2 3 4 c. 13.3%
43. Consider the following stages in the d. 33.3%
construction of concrete roads :
47. Modulus of subgrade reaction using 30 cm
1. Preparing the subgrade and the base diameter plate is obtained as 200 N/cm3.
course. The value of the same (in N/cm3) using
2. Mixing and placing the concrete. the standard plate will be
3. Placing the framework and water the a. 500
prepared base b. 200
4. Curing c. 85
5. Compaction and floating . d. 80
The correct sequence of these stages is 48. An observer travelling at a constant speed
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 of 70 kmph with the traffic stream over a 5
b. 1, 3, 2, 5, 4 km stretch is passed by 17 vehicles more
c. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4 than what he passes. When the observer
travels against the stream at the same
d. 1, 3, 2, 4, 5 speed, the number of vehicles he meets is
44. Given that 303. the flow of the traffic stream is
coefficient of curvature = 1.4, a. 4480 vph
D30 = 3 mm, b. 4160 vph
D10 = 0.6 mm
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c. 2240 vph a. adjusting the sleepers to be
d. 2002 vph perpendicular to the rails
49. If the total seven-day traffic volume for the b. adjusting the ballast under sleepers to
week is 3625 and the traffic volume for space them parallel to each other
Monday is 650, then the monthly c. cutting the edges of the sleepers to a
expansion factor for Monday is would be square shape
a. 5.6 d. adjusting the rails to be perpendicular
b. 1.25 to the sleepers
c. 0.8 55. In deep water waves, individual particles
d. 0.25 a. are translated
50. Which one of the following is the purpose b. are translated and rotated in a vertical
of divisional island ? plate about a horizontal axis
a. To divert the traffic into definite travel c. are not translate, but they rotate in a
path at the inter-section. vertical plate about a horizontal axis
b. To reduce the speed of traffic entering d. do not rotate in a vertical plate about a
the intersection horizontal axis.
c. To divert traffic from obstacles and 56. A surface longitudinally centered on the
expedite the flow of traffic extended runway centre lie and extending
d. To segregate opposing flow of traffic outward and upward is called
in a multi-lane high-way a. primary surface
51. Tunnel alignment is carried out y b. conical surface
a. surface theodolite traverse c. horizontal surface
b. triangulation d. approach surface
c. compass traverse 57. Which of the following factors are to be
d. aerial photography taken into consideration while designing
the taxiway system ?
52. With reference to tunneling, which of the
following factors are to be considered for 1. Volume of air traffic.
deciding the size to the shaft ? 2. Runway configuration.
1. system used for hoisting 3. Location of terminal building
2. size of the muck car. 4. Location of hangars.
3. Quantity of muck to be lifted. Select the correct answer using the codes
4. Eventual use of the shaft. given below :
Select the correct answer using the codes a. 1, 2 and 3
given below : b. 2 and 3
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 and 4
b. 1 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4 58.
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
53. Which one of the following is installed as
the second signal on the main signal post
for better visibility ?
a. Routing signal
b. Calling on signal
c. Co-acting signal In the above figure shown, “cockpit cutoff
d. Repeating signal angle” is the angle labelled
54. Squaring of sleepers through packing a. 
consists of
b. 
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c.  b. 2000 m
d.  c. 20 km
59. Which of the following Pairs are correctly d. 200 km
matched ? 63. The sensitiveness of a bubble tube in a
1. Telemeter : Measurement of level would decrease if
distance a. The radius of the curvature of the
2. Price meter : Measurement of internal surface of the tube is increased
difference in elevation between points b. The diameter of the tube is increased
3. Sounding sextant :Measurement of c. The length of the vapour bubble is
horizontal angles increased
4. Clinometer : Measurement of vertical d. The viscosity of the liquid is increased
angles 64. In a closed traverse with five sided, the
Select the correct answer using the code error found from the fore bearing and back
given below : bearing of the last line is +2o. The
a. 2, 3 and 4 correction to the third lien will be
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. 0 o 24’
c. 1, 2 and 4 b. 0 o 48’
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. 1 o 12’
60. Consider the following steps : d. 1o36’
1. Calculation of  L and  D 65. At a given place of observation, the
declination of a circumpolar star is
2. Correction of latitudes and departures.
a. greater than the latitude
3. Calculation of bearings.
b. equal to the latitude
4. Calculation of interior angles.
c. less than the co-latitude
5. Calculation of independent angles.
d. greater than the co-latitude
The correct sequence of these steps in
Gale’s transverse table calculations is 66. Theory of errors and adjustments deals
with minimizing the effects of
a. 3, 4, 5, 2, 1
a. instrumental errors
b. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5
b. mistakes
c. 2, 1, 3, 4, 5
c. systematic errors
d. 4, 3, 5, 2, 1
d. personal and accidental errors
61. A tower appears in two successive
photographs taken at an altitude of 4000 m 67. Assertion (A) : The available yield of a
above datum. The focal length of the tubewell can be doubled by doubling the
camera is 160 mm. The length of the air diameter of the well.
base is 300 m. The parallax for the top and Reason (R) : The yield of a tubewell varies
bottom of the pole are 72 mm and 63 mm inversely with the logarithm of the
respectively. The height of the top of the reciprocal of the diameter of the well.
tower above its bottom is nearly a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. 63 mm correct explanation of A
b. 72 mm b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. 95 mm the correct explanation of A
d. 135 mm c. A is true but R is false
62. A road section of length 1 km scales 8 cm d. A is false but R is true
on a vertical photograph. The focal length 68. Assertion (A) : Total drag is reduced if the
of the camera is 160 mm. If the terrain is boundary layer on the surface of a cylinder
fairly level, ten the flying height will be separated further downstream of the
a. 20 m leading point.
9 of 15
Reason (R) : As the separation point the downstream of a weir on permeable
moves further downstream, form drag is foundation.
reduced and the skin drag is only Reason (R) : Seepage lines are directed
marginally increased. upwards at the downstream of such a weir.
69. Assertion (A) : Break-point chlorination is 73. Assertion (A) : Effective vertical stress at
required to ensure free chlorine residuals some depth below a river bed is unaffected
for better disinfection. by the water depth in the river
Reason (R) : Free chlorine residuals have Reason (R) : Equal amounts of increase in
good disinfecting power and they are total stress and pore pressure will not
usually dissipated quickly in the change the effective stress.
distribution system. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
c. A is true but R is false d. A is false but R is true
74. Assertion (A) : Permanent lowering of
70. Assertion (A) : The design of all non- GWT result in settlements.
circular sections is based upon getting a Reason (R) : Increase in effective stress
“hydraulically equivalent section”. results in settlement sin soils.
Reason (R) : The chart of hydraulic a. Both A and R are true and R is the
elements is very useful in sewer design. correct explanation of A
75. Assertion (A) : When a sharp horizontal
d. A is false but R is true curve is to be introduced on a road which
71. Assertion (A) : black cotton soils are clays already had the maximum permissible
and they exhibit characteristic property of gradient, the gradient should be decreased.
swelling. Reason (R) : The gradient should be
Reason (R) : These clays contain decreased to compensate for the loss of
montmorillonite which attracts external tractive effort due to the introduction of
water into its lattice structure. sharp horizontal curve on the road.
72. Assertion (A) : The possibility of 76. Assertion (A) : The most common
quicksand condition occurring is more on approach or control of beach erosion is to
build groynes.
10 of 15
Reason (R) : Groynes are constructed 4. Nitrogen oxides
parallel to the shore. Select the correct answer using the codes
a. Both A and R are true and R is the given below :
correct explanation of A a. 2 and 3
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT b. 1 and 2
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. A is true but R is false d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. A is false but R is true 81. A soil sampler has inner and outer radii of
77. Assertion (A) : Gradients much steeper 25 mm and 30 mm respectively. The area
than the ruling gradient are provide in a ratio of the sampler is
hilly terrain and they are negotiated with a. 24%
the help of a pusher engine.
b. 34%
Reason (R) : Restricting the gradient to the
ruling gradient in hilly terrains would c. 44%
mean increasing the length of the track d. 54%
resulting considerably in heavy 82. Match List I with List II and select the
excavation. correct answer :
a. Both A and R are true and R is the List I
correct explanation of A A. Concentrated sugar solution
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT B. Sewage sludge
C. Blood
D. Air
List II
78. Assertion (A) : Whole circle bearing of a
1. Dilatant Fluid
line is preferred to a quadrantal bearing.
2. Bingham plastic fluid
Reason (R) : Bearing is completely
specified by an angle. 3. Pseudoplastic fluid
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 4. Newtonia fluid.
correct explanation of A A B C D
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. 1 2 3 4
the correct explanation of A b. 1 2 4 3
c. A is true but R is false c. 2 1 3 4
d. A is false but R is true d. 2 1 4 3
79. Assertion (A) : the centrifugal ratio 83. A metal cube of size 15 cm  15 cm  15
decreases along the length of the transition cm and specific gravity 8.6 is submerged
curve. in a two-layered liquid, the bottom layer
Reason (R) : The superelevation increases being mercury and the top layer being
along the length of the transition curve. water. The percentage of the volume of the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the cube remaining above the interface will be,
correct explanation of A approximately
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. 68
the correct explanation of A b. 63
c. A is true but R is false c. 40
d. A is false but R is true d. 25
80. Which of the following air pollutants are 84. A 30 cm diameter, 90o elbow has one limb
responsible for the green house effect ? vertical. Average velocity of flow of water
1. Methane through the elbow is 5 m/s and the
2. Carbon dioxide pressure intensity is 4 kPa. The vertical
3. Flurocarbons
11 of 15
component of force to keep the elbow in flow is given by R = Vx/v. The thickness
position will be of the boundary layer at x will be
a. 0.28 kN proportional to
b. 1.49 kN a. xR1/2
c. 1.77 kN b. xR–1/2
d. 2.05 kN c. R1/2
85. Which one of the following statements d. R–1/2
relating to Vortex Flow is INCORRECT? 89. Magnus effect may be used
a. In the formation of a free vortex, advantageously in games such as cricket,
streamlines are axisymmetric and tennis, table tennis and golf. In order to
irrotational obtain a lift, i.e. a rising curve for the
b. In a forced vortex, work transfer trajectory of the ball, form left to right, the
between the fluid and the surroundings nature of the spin to be given is
takes place and the flow is rotational a. anticlockwise in the vertical plane
c. In a free vortex, radial motion towards b. anticlockwise in the horizontal plane
the core takes place due to variation of c. clockwise in the vertical plane
depth of water in the whirlpool or due d. clockwise in the horizontal plane
to the difference of pressure resulting 90. Two tanks are connected in parallel by two
from higher velocity near the core pipes A and B of identical friction factors
d. In a free vortex, there is not variation and lengths. If the size of pipe A is double
of energy from streamline to that of pipe B, then their discharges will be
streamline and irrotationality is not in the ratio of
deviated from near the core a. 2
86. Consider the following measuring b. 4
structures :
c. 5.66
1. submerged broad-crested weir
d. 32
2. Free broad-crested weir.
91. Water of v = 1 centistoke flows through a
3. Free sharp-crested weir. 1 cm diameter pipe. Critical flow will
4. Free ogee spillway. correspond to a discharge of
The correct sequence of the increasing approximately
order of the discharge coefficient of these a. 0.008 l/s
structures is b. 0.013 l/s
a. 1, 2, 4, 3 c. 0.016 l/s
b. 2, 1, 3, 4 d. 0.025 l/s
c. 2, 1, 4, 3 92. Match List I (Surface) with List II
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 (Approximate range of Manning’s n) and
87. In a laminar flow between two static select the correct answer :
parallel plates, the velocity at mid-point is List I
found to be 2.0 m/s. If the space between A. Gravel river bed with 50 mm diameter
the plates is 10 cm, then the discharge per bed
unit width (in m3/s /m) will be
B. Badly maintained unlined irrigation
a. 0.01 channel with weed growth
b. 0.02 C. Concrete lined channel
c. 0.10 D. Channel with brick lining
d. 0.20
List II
88. A fluid with kinematic viscosity v flows in 1. 0.02 to 0.022
laminar stage along a flat plate with free-
stream velocity V. At a distance x from the 2. 0.025 to 0.04
leading edge, the Reynolds number of the 3. 0.013 to 0.017
12 of 15
4. 0.04 to 0.08 D. Hygrometer
A B C D List II
a. 4 3 2 1 1. Humidity
b. 4 2 3 1 2. Evapotranspiration
c. 1 3 2 4 3. Infiltration
d. 1 2 3 4 4. Wind speed
93. Water surface profiles that are asymptotic A B C D
at one end and terminated at the other and a. 4 3 1 2
would include b. 3 4 1 2
a. H2 and S2 c. 4 3 2 1
b. H3 and S2 d. 3 4 2 1
c. M2 and H2 97. The life of reservoir is determined by its
d. M2 and H3 capacity (C), volume of annual inflow into
94. A hydraulic jump is always needed in case the reservoir (I) and concentration of
of sediment in the incoming flow (CS). Life
a. an A2 profile followed by an A3 profile will be more if
b. an A3 profile followed by an M2 profile It has
c. an H2 profile followed by an M2 profile
d. and M1 profile followed by an M3
profile
95. Which of the following principles relate to
a unit Hydrograph ?
1. The hydrographs of direct run off due
to effective rainfall of equal duration a. voltage series feedback
have the same time base. b. voltage shunt feedback
2. Effective rainfall is not uniformly c. current shunt feedback
distributed within its duration. d. current series feedback
3. Effective rainfall is uniformly 98. The IF amplifier in a superheterodyne
distributed throughout the whole area receiver is
of drainage basin.
a. single-stage single-tuned amplifier
4. Hydrograph of direct run off from a
basin due to a given period of-effective b. two stages of single-tuned amplifier
rainfall reflects the combination of all c. double-tuned amplifier
the physical characteristics of the d. Class-C amplifier
basin. 99. RC network shown in the given figure can
Select the correct answer using the codes provide a maximum theoretical phase shift
given below : of
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
96. Match list I with list II and select the a. 90 o
correct answer : b. 180 o
List I c. 270 o
A. Anemometer d. 360o
B. Rain simulator 100. Which one of the following circuits is
C. Lysimeter most suitable as an oscillator at a
frequency of 100 Hz ?
13 of 15
a. Hartley oscillator 105. In a PLL, lock occurs when the
b. Colpitts oscillator a. input frequency and the VCO
c. Crystal oscillator frequency are the same
d. Twin-T oscillator b. phase error is 180o
101. A circuit is showing the given figure. The c. VCO frequency is double the input
largest value of RL that can be used , is frequency
d. None of these
106.
Item Canal data Drainage data
3
Flow(m /s) 5 500
Bed level(m) 120 116
Depth of flow (m) 0.8 10
Which one of the following types of cross-
a. 100  drainage should be recommended in this
b. 400  case ?
c. 2 k a. Aqueduct
b. Syphon aqueduct
d. 20 k
c. Syphon
102. A differential amplifier is invariable used
in the input stage of all op-amps. This is d. Superpassage
done basically to provide the opamps with 107. Consider the following statements :
a very high The down stream impervious flow of
a. CMRR concrete for a barrage has ruptured. This
b. bandwidth can be due to
c. slew rate 1. insufficient length of upstream
impervious floor.
d. open-loop gain
2. insufficient length of downstream
103. In the circuit shown in the given figure, the
impervious floor.
current T through the resistance R is
3. insufficient depth of downstream pile.
4. choking of inverted filter.
a. 1 and 2
b. 1 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
a. 100 A 108. Ten m3/s of water is diverted to a 32
hectare field for 4 hours. Soil proving after
b. –100 A
irrigation showed that 0.3 m of water had
c. 1 mA been stored in the root zone. Water
d. –1 mA application efficiency in this case would
104. The effect of a finite gain of an operational be
amplifier used in an integrator is that a. 96%
a. it would not integrate b. 66.67%
b. the slope of the output will vary with c. 48%
time d. 24%
c. the final value of the output voltage 109. Which one of the following statements is
will reduce correct ?
d. there will be instability in the circuit
14 of 15
In a river, silt excluder and silt ejector are 112. Which of the following statements are
constructed correct ?
a. at a location after the head regulator 1. Groundwater is generally free from
and at the head of the canal, suspended and dissolved impurities
respectively 2. Suspended matters often contain
b. at the head of the canal and at a pathogenic bacteria
location after the head regulator, 3. rain water is soft and tasteless
respectively 4. Lake water may contain microscopic
c. at the same location organisms.
d. at specific locations depending upon Select the correct answer using the codes
diverse factors and their locations do given below :
not follow a set pattern a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
110. The ideal efficiently of a single-jet Pelton b. 1 and 2
wheel is given by
2/V2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]
(symbols have their usual meanings)
If friction on the buckets reduces the
relative velocity by a factor k1 and if
windage losses reduce the effectiveness of
the affected parameters by a factor k2 ,
then the resulting efficiency multiplied by
V2 is given by
a. 2k1k2 [Vv + v(V–v)cos – v2]
b. 2[k2Vv + k2v(V–v)cos – v2]
a. in the active region
c. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – v2]
b. in the saturation region
d. 2[k2Vv + k1k2v(V–v)cos – k2v2]
c. in the saturation region
111. Match list I (Units in water treatment
plant) with list II (Impurities removed) d. either in the active or the saturation
and select the correct answer : region.
List I 113. Which of the following regions of
operation are mainly responsible for
A. Aerator heating of the transistor under switching
B. Rapid sand filter operation ?
C. Slow sand filter 1. Saturation region.
D. Sedimentation tank(after coagulation 2. cut-off region.
and flocculation) 3. Transition from saturation to cut-off.
List II 4. Transition from cut-off to saturation.
1. Excess CO2 and H2S Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Settleable and colloidal matter given below :
3. suspended matter a. 1 and 2
4. suspended matter b. 2 and 3
5. suspended, colloidal and c. 3 and 4
bacteriological matter d. 1 and 3
A B C D
114. The circuit shown in the given figure
a. 1 3 2 4
b. 3 1 2 4
c. 3 1 4 2
d. 1 3 4 2
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a. is an oscillating circuit and its output is B. Chlorine
a square wave C. D.O.
b. is an whose output remains stable in D. Chloride
‘1’ state
List II
c. is one whose output remains stable in 1. Wenker’s method
‘0’ state
2. EDTA method
d. gives a single pulse of 3 times
propagation delay 3. Orthotolidine test
115. The circuit of a gate in the resistor 4. Mohr method
transistor logic (RTL) family shown in the A B C D
given figure is a/an a. 2 3 1 4
b. 2 4 1 3
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 1 4 2 3
119. The amount of bleaching power containing
20% available chlorine needed to
chlorinate a rural water supply covering a
population of 10000 at 50 lpcd at the rate
a. AND gate of 2 ppm is
b. OR gate a. 1 kg
c. NAND gate b. 5 kg
d. NOR gate c. 0.2 kg
116. The decoding error of the counter can be d. 20 kg
avoided by 120. Which of the following statements(s)
a. increasing propagation delay of flip- regarding industrial water supply is/are
flops used in the counter correct ?
b. using very fast logic gates 1. Industrial water supplies need not be
disinfected.
c. using the strobe signal
2. Water for industrial use requires
d. reducing the propagation delay of flip- chemical treatment.
flops used in the counter
3. Standards of purity and methods of
117. Which one of the following flags is not treatment of water for industrial use
used for branching in a microprocessor ? are often different from those for
a. Carry flag domestic water supplies
b. Auxiliary carry flag 4. If is more economical to use water
c. Overflow flag from surface sources than from
d. Parity flag groundwater sources for industrial
water supplies.
118. The number of comparator circuits
required to build a three-bit simultaneous Select the correct answer using the codes
A/D converter is given below :
a. 7 a. 1, 2 and 4
b. 8 b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 15 c. 3 and 4
d. 16 d. 3 only
determination) and select the correct
answer :
List I
A. Hardness
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002 1 of 17
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. Timber can be made reasonably fire- c. 2 4 1 3
resistant by d. 3 1 4 2
a. soaking it in Ammonium Sulphate 4. In some brick masonry walls, patches of
b. coating with Tar paint whitish crystals were found on the exposed
c. pumping creosote oil into timber under surfaces, also chipping and spalling of
high pressure bricks took place from the same walls.
Which among the following are the causes
d. seasoning process
of these defects ?
2. Which one of the following statements is
1. Settlement of foundation
the correct description of the structure of
fibre board ? 2. Over-loading of the walls
a. Thin slices of superior quality of wood 3. Sulphate attach
are glued and pressed on the surface of 4. Efflorescence
inferior wood a. 1 and 2
b. Streamed mass of wood dusts, wood b. 2 and 3
wool and other vegetable fibres are
c. 2 and 4
pressed hard to a thickness varying
from 3 mm to 12 mm d. 3 and 4
c. Thin and narrow wood shavings are 5. Match List I with list II and select the
soaked in a refractory binder material correct answer :
and pressed hard List I(Property)
d. Thin and narrow wood shaving are A. Specific heat of an aggregate
soaked in a refractory binder material B. Thermal conductivity of an aggregate
and pressed hard C. Thermal expansion
3. Match List I(Constituents of bricks) with D. Durability of concrete
List II(corresponding influence) and select
List II(Characteristic)
the correct answer :
1. Breaks the bond between the aggregate
List I
and the paste
A. Alumina
2. Is a measure of its heat capacity
B. Silica
3. Is affected by differences n thermal
C. Magnesia expansion of two different materials
D. Limestone 4. Is a measure of its ability to conduct
List II heat
1. Colour of brick A B C D
2. Plasticity recovery for moulding a. 1 3 2 4
3. Reacts with silica during burning and b. 2 4 1 3
causes particles to unite together and c. 1 4 2 3
development of strength
d. 2 3 1 4
4. Preserve the for on brick at high
6. Consider the following methods of
temperature and prevents shrinkage
preservation of timber :
A B C D
1. Pressure application
a. 2 1 4 3
2. Brush application
b. 3 4 1 2
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3. Dipping 4. Preserves the for of brick at high
4. Open tank application temperature and prevents shrinkage
The correct sequence of these methods in A B C D
the increasing order of their effectiveness a. 2 4 1 3
is : b. 3 1 4 2
a. 1, 3 4, 2 c. 2 1 4 3
b. 3, 4, 2, 1 d. 3 4 1 2
c. 2, 3, 4, 1 9. Match List I with List II and select the
d. 4, 2, 1, 3 correct answer :
7. Match List I with List II and select the List I(Type of cement)
correct answer : A. High strength Portland cement
List I (Name of defect) B. Super sulphated cement
A. Cupping C. High alumina cement
B. Bowing D. Rapid hardening Protland cement
C. Chucks List II(Property/Characteristic)
D. Knots 1. Should not be used with any admixture
List II(Definition) 2. Is extremely resistant to chemical
1. Caused by wood limbs encased by the attach
wood of the free trunk 3. Gives a higher rate of heat
2. Caused by grain irregularities in the development during hydration of
board and can be eliminated by proper cement
stacking 4. has a higher content of tricalcium
3. Small cracks appearing at the ends of silicate
boards caused by too rapid drying A B C D
4. Unequal shrinking in the radial and a. 3 2 1 4
tangential direction b. 4 1 2 3
A B C D c. 3 1 2 4
a. 1 2 3 4 d. 4 2 1 3
b. 4 3 2 1 10. Consider the following stages in the
c. 1 3 2 4 manufacturing of bricks :
d. 4 2 3 1 1. Weathering
8. Match List I with list II and select the 2. Moulding
correct answer : 3. Tempering
List I (Type of cement) The correct sequence of these stages in the
A. Ordinary Portland cement manufacturing of the bricks, is
B. Rapid hardening cement a. 1, 2, 3
C. Low heat cement b. 2, 3, 1
D. Sulphate resistant cement c. 1, 3, 2
List II(Characteristics) d. 3, 2, 1
1. The percentage of C3S is maximum 11. Four main oxides present in ordinary
and is of the order of 50% Portland cement are : CaO, Al2O3, SiO2
2. The percentages of C2S and C3S are and Fe2O3. Identify the correct ascending
the same and of the order of 40% order of their proportions in a typical
3. Reacts with silica during burning and composition of OPC
causes particles to unite together and a. Al2O3, Fe2O3, CaO, SiO2
development of strength b. Al2O3, CaO, Fe2O3, SiO2
c. Fe2O3, Al2O3, SiO2 , CaO
3 of 17
d. Fe2O3, SiO2 , Al2O3, CaO
Pozzolana used as an admixture in
concrete has the following advantages :
1. It improves workability with lesser b.
amount of water
2. It increases heat of hydration and so
sets the concrete quickly
3. It increases resistance to attach by salts
and sulphates
4. It leaches calcium hydroxide
c.
Select the correct answer using the code
given below :
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2, and 4
c. 1 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
13. The length of time for which a concrete d.
mixture will remain plastic is usually more 15. Consider the following statements :
depended on Mohr’s circle is used to determine the
a. the setting time of cement than on the stress on an oblique section of a body
amount of mixing water and subjected to
atmospheric temperature 1. direct tensile stress on one plane
b. the atmospheric temperature than on accompanied by a shear stress
the amount of mixing water and the 2. direct tensile stresses in two mutually
setting time of cement perpendicular directions accompanied
c. the setting time of cement and the by a simple shear stress
amount of mixing water than on 3. direct tensile stress in two mutually
atmospheric temperature perpendicular directions
d. the amount of mixing water used and 4. a simple shear stress
atmospheric temperature than on the Select the correct answer using the codes
setting time of cement given below :
14. a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3
16. A bar of square cross- section, having an
area of cross-section ‘A’ is subjected to a
compressive force ‘P’ as shown in the
Which one among the following is the figure
correct free body diagram for a portal
frame shown in Figure given above ?
The intensity of the tangential stress on the

oblique plane is given by
a. P sin 2
a. b. P cos 2
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c. P/2 sin2 2. Centroid
d. P/2 cos 2 3. The plane sections remain plain
17. The ratio of the torsional moment s of 4. Extreme fibre
resistance of a solid circular shaft of 5. The cross-section is circular
diameter D, and a hollow circular shaft A B C D
having external diameter d and internal
a. 5 4 1 2
diameter d is given by
b. 3 1 2 4
D4
a. c. 5 1 2 4
D4  d 4
d. 3 4 1 2
D4  d 4 22. A rectangular beam of width 200 mm and
b.
D4 depth 300 mm is subjected to a shear force
D3  d 3 of 200 kN. The maximum shear stress
c. produced in the beam is
D3
a. 10.0 MPa
D3
d. b. 7.5 MPa
D3  d 3
c. 5.0 MPa
18. Clapeyron’s theorem is applied to
d. 3.00 MPa
a. Simply supported beam
23. A symmetrical channel section is made of
b. Propped cantilever beam a material which is equally strong in
c. Fixed & continuous beam tension and compression. It is used as a
d. Continuous beam only simply supported beam with its web
19. The valiration of the hoop stress across the horizontal to carry vertical loads. It will
thickness of a thick cylinder is a. be strongest if the web is used as top
a. linear face
b. uniform b. be strongest if the web is used as
bottom face
c. parabolic
c. be equally strong in (a) and (b) above
d. hyperbolic
d. not be possible to state which of the
20. The bulk modulus of elasticity of a
above statements is correct
material is twice its modulus of rigidity.
The Poisson’s ratio of the material is 24. For which of the following conditions, the
virtual work should be zero according to
a. 1/7
the Principle of virtual work ?
b. 2/7
1. A body moving with constant
c. 3/7 acceleration
d. 4/7 2. A body rotating with constant speed
21. Match List I with List II and select the 3. A body in equilibrium
correct answer :
4. A body moving with constant
List I momentum
A. Assumption in the theory of simple Select the correct answer using the codes
bending given below :
B. The point at which the bending stress a. 1 only
is maximum for any cross-section
b. 1 and 2
C. The point at which the bending stress
c. 3 only
is zero for an y cross-section
d. 4 only
D. The point in the cross-section through
which the neutral axis passes 25.
List II
1. Neutral axis
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c. Zero
d. 12 kN compressive
29. A free body diagram of a body shows
a. A body isolated from all external
effects without considering its own
p1 and p2 are two equal tensile principal weight
stresses. On the plane AB inclined at 45o b. A body isolated form its surroundings
to the plane of p1 and all external forces acting on it
a. the shear stress is a maximum c. A body isolated from its surroundings
b. the normal stress is zero and all external actions on it
c. the shear stress is zero d. A body isolated fro its surroundings
d. the normal stress is maximum and all internal forces acting on it
26. 30. Neglecting self weight, which of the
following beams will have points of
contraflexure?
a. A simply supported beam with
uniformly distributed load over part of
the structure
b. An overhanging beam with loading
only over supported span and not on
overhangs
In the symmetrical channel section shown
in the figure, which point is likely to be the c. Fixed beam subjected to concentrated
shear center ? load
a. A d. Cantilever beam subjected to
uniformly varying load with zero load
b. B
at free end
c. C
31.
d. D
27.
The absolute maximum bending moment

The force in member AB is in the beam is
a. 5kN compression a.  2P  a 
b. 2 kN compression
c. Zero
b.  5P  a 
d. 7 kN compression c.  4P  a 
28. d.  7P  a 
32. Which one of the following pairs is NOT
correctly matched ?
Boundary conditions Euler’s buckling
of column load
The force in the member BD of the truss a. Both ends hinged :  El / l2
2
shown in the figure given above is b. Both ends fixed : 42El / l2

a. 4 kN tensile c. One end fixed and : El / 4l2
b. 4 kN compressive other end free
6 of 17
d. One end fixed and : 2  El/l
2 2 a. Both b and c are in tension
the other hinged b. Both b and c are in compression
33. For a two-hinged parabolic arch, V= is c. b is in tension, c is in compression
sum of the vertical forces on the left hand d. b is in compression, c is in tension
side of the section. H is the horizontal 36. Match List I with List II and select the
thrust. If  is the angle of tangent at the correct answer :
point on arch with the horizontal, the List I
shearing force at section form left hand
side is given by A. Torque-twist relationship for a circular
shaft
a. Vx sin  – H cos 
B. Strain energy of elastic torsion
b. Vx cos  – H sin 
C. Circumferential shear stress
c. Vx sin  + H cos  D. Maximum shearing stress due to
d. Vx cos  + H sin  combined torsion and direct stress
List II
1. 1/2  2  4 2
2. Gr / l
3. (GJ/2l)2
34.
GJ
In the truss shown in the figure given 4. 
above, which one of the following l
members has no force induced in it ? A B C D
a. CD a. 2 3 4 1
b. CE b. 4 1 2 3
c. CF c. 2 1 4 3
d. DF d. 4 3 2 1
35.
37.
A beam (El = constant) of span L is
subjected to clockwise moments M at both
the ends A and B. The rotation of end A
works out to be
a. ML / 2 El
b. ML / 3 El
c. ML / 4 El
d. ML / 6 El
The principle of superposition is not
applicable when
1. the material does not obey Hooke’s
law
2. the effect of temperature changes are
A joint of a roof truss has been isolated taken into consideration
and shown in Figure (i). the force polygon 3. the structure is being analysed for the
for the joint is the shown in Figure (ii). effect of support settlement
Member ‘a’ is in compression, member ‘d’
Which of the above statements is/are
is in tension.
correct ?
Which one of the following is correct ?
7 of 17
a. 1 only 42. A solid circular shaft, ABC, has a total
b. 1 and 2 length of ‘3 a’. A gear wheel positioned at
c. 2 and 3 B, at distance ‘a ‘from the left hand end A,
exerts a torque T. If the ends A and C are
d. 1, 2 and 3 instantaneously locked in position by
39. Which of the following apply to ‘fully brakes just before the torque is applied, the
rigid design’ of steel structures ? torsional moments induced in both
1. End connections are capable of segments T1 (AB) and T2 (BC) are in the
transmitting moments ratio
2. angle between member s at the joint a. 3 : 1
does not change b. 2 : 3
3. The structure is assumed to be pin- c. 1 : 2
pointed d. 2 : 1
4. A reduction in the maximum bending
moment is permitted to provide a
degree of direction fixity
given below : 43.
The degree of indeterminacy of the beam
a. 1, 2 and 3 given above is
b. 1 and 2 a. zero
c. 1, 3 and 4 b. one
d. 2, 3 and 4 c. two
d. three
40.
For the propped cantilever shown in the
figure, influence line for reaction at the
propped end is given by y1 = f(x). The
influence line ordinate (y2) for moment at
A is given by the equation
a. y2 = f(x) 44.
b. y2 = f(x) . x For the frame shown above, the
distribution factors for members BC and
c. y2 = x – f(x) .x
BA at joint B are
d. y2 = x – f(x). L
a. 0.4, 0.6
41. In a system two weightless rigid bars AB
b. 0.5, 0.5
and BC of length ‘a’ each having hinge
supports at the ends. A and C, c. 0.6, 0.4
respectively, are connected to each other at d. 0.7, 0.3
B by a frictionless hinge (internal hinge). 45. Creep of a material is a property indicated
The rotation at the hinge is restrained by a by
rotational spring of stiffness k and system a. a time-dependent strain of the material
assumes a straight line configuration ABC.
The rotation at the supports due to vertical b. elongation of the material due to
load P acting at joint B is changes in the material properties
a. Pa / 2k c. shortening caused by shrinkage of the
member
b. Pa / 4k
d. the decrease in the volume of the
c. Pa / k material affected by the weather
d. 2 Pa / k conditions
46. Principle of minimum strain energy is
8 of 17
1. a particular case of Castigliano’s first d. 3/2 t
theorem 51. The elements that are normally subjected
2. a particular case of Castigliano’s to combined bending and axial forces are
second theorem a. struts in reinforced concrete members
3. applicable only when the redundant b. the member s in long span bridges
supports do not yield
c. columns in framed structures
4. applicable even when the redundant d. space truss members
supports yield
52. Which among the following assumptions
Select the correct answer using the codes are made in the design of roof trusses ?
given below :
1. Roof truss is restrained by the
a. 1 and 3 reactions
b. 1 and 4 2. Axes of the members meeting at a joint
c. 2 and 3 intersect at a common point
d. 2 and 4 3. riveted joints act as frictionless hinges
47. Two shafts having same length and 4. Loads act normal to roof surface
material are joined in series and subjected Select the correct answer using the codes
to a torque of 10 kNm. If the ratio of their given below :
diameters is 2 : 1, then the ratio of their
angles of twist is a. 1, 2 and 4
a. 16 : 1 b. 2, 3 and 4
b. 2 : 1 c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1 : 2 d. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1 : 16 53. The effective flange area in tension of a
palte girder is equal to
48. Resilience is
a. Af
a. Maximum strain energy
A
b. Recoverable strain energy b. A f  w
2
c. Total potential energy
A
d. Shear strain energy(Beyond Hooke’s c. A f  w
law) 8
49. The slenderness ratio of a compression A
d. A f  w
member in the context of Rankine’s 6
formula is defined as where Af is the area of each flange and Aw
length is the web area
a.
least lateral dimension 54. The maximum deflection in timber beams
effective length or joints should not be greater than
b. a. span / 300
least radius of gyration
b. span / 325
effective length
c. c. span / 360
least lateral dimension
d. span / 380
length
d. 55. A simply supported rectangular beam of
least radius of gyration
spam 20.0 m is subjected to u.d.l. The
50. A propped cantilever of span 4 m is fixed minimum effective depth required to check
at A and propped at B. The beam carries a deflection of this beam, when modification
u.d.l. of 1 t/m over the entire span. The factor for tension and compression are 0.9
reaction at B is and 1.1 respectively, will be
a. 5/2 t a. 2.0 m
b. 2 t b. 1.8 m
c. 1 t c. 1.3 m
9 of 17
d. 1.0 m
56. Prestressing of indeterminate structure
should take care of the following :
1. High strength concrete
2. High tensile steel
3. Load balancing
4. particle safety factors
Select the correct answer using the codes 60.
given below : The effective length of the member shown
a. 1 and 3 in the figure is equal to
b. 2, 3 and 4 a. 1.2 L
c. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1.5 L
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 2.0 L
57. For a portai truss column fixed at the base, d. 3.0 L
the point of contraflexure is assumed at 61. In a compression member, plate element
a. a distance mid-way between the base may buckle locally before the entire
and the foot of the knee brace member fails. To avoid this, which of the
b. a distance mid-way between the base following recommendations are made ?
and top of the column 1. Thickness of members is taken in
c. the foot of the knee brace terms of lengths of compression
members
d. quarter distance between base and top
of the column 2. length of element is increased
58. As the span of a bridge increases, the 3. length of member is increased
impact factor 4. Outstand is decreased
a. decreases Select the correct answer using the codes
b. increases given below :
c. remains constant a. 1 , 2 and 3
d. increases up to a critical value of span b. 1, 2 and 4
and then decreases c. 2 and 3
59. A gantry girder has been provided with the d. 1 and 4
following section shown in the following 62. Figure given below shows a fixed beam of
figures steel
At the point of collapse, the value of load

In which case(s), the allowable stresses in W will be
being compression is equal to that in a. 10 Mp / L
tension ? b. 15 Mp / L
Select the correct answer using the cods c. 20 Mp / L
given below : d. 25 Mp / L
a. 1 and 2
b. 2 and 3
c. 4 only
d. 3 only
63.
10 of 17
A rigid plate C is fastened to steel rod A of A. For compression members carrying
area S and to steel pipe B of area 2S. The dead and superimposed loads
other ends of A and B are fastened to rigid B. For members carrying compressive
supports. When the force P is zero, there loads due to wind or seismic forces
are no stresses in A and B. The yield only
stresses in tension and compression y. C. Fro members carrying tension but in
The collapse load P under yield condition which the reversal of stress occurs due
is to wind or seismic forces
a. yS List II
b. 2 yS 1. 350
c. 3 yS 2. 180
d. y S/2 3. 250
64. A continuous beam ABC of two equal A B C
spans AB and BC carries a load P at Z, the a. 1 2 3
centre of BC. Then the magnitude of
b. 2 3 1
collapse load P is equal to
c. 3 1 2
d. 1 3 2
68. A buttress in a wall is intended to provide
a. lateral support to roof slab only
b. lateral support to wall
c. to resist vertical loads only
a. 2 Mp / l
d. lateral support to roof beams only
b. 4 Mp / l
69. A continuous R.C. beam spans six span
c. 6 Mp / l segments, each supporting a monolithic
d. 8 Mp / l reinforced concrete slab. The beam will
65. The shape factor for a solid circular best be designed
section of diameter D is equal to a. as a rectangular one throughout its
a. D / 2 span
b. 15 / 2 b. as a tee-beam throughout its span
c. 16 / 3 c. as a rectangular beam for span
moments and tee- beam for support
d. D / 8 moments
66. Gross flange area for a riveted plate girder d. as tee-beam for span moments and as a
is to be designed considering net area as rectangular beam for support moments
80% of its gross area. Consider width of
the flange as 500 mm while web plate as 70. Shrinkage in a concrete slab
1000 mm  12 mm. The girder is to resist a. causes shear cracks
a maximum BM of 4500 kNm. Maximum b. causes tension cracks
allowable bending stress in tension is 150 c. causes compression cracks
MPa. Gross flange area is d. does not cause nay cracking
a. 22000 mm2 71. The reinforcement for tension, when
b. 35500 mm2 required in members, shall consist of
c. 46000 mm2 a. only longitudinal reinforcement in the
d. 73000 mm2 tension face
67. Match List I(Type of member ) with List b. only longitudinal reinforcement in the
II (Slenderness ratio) and select the correct compression face
answer : c. only two legged closed loops enclosing
List I the corner reinforcement
11 of 17
d. both longitudinal and transverse W M
reinforcement b. 
A Z
72. The codal provisions recommend A Z
minimum shear reinforcement in the form c. 
W M
of stirrups in the beams :
A Z
1. to cater for any torsion in the beam d. 
section W M
2. to improve ductility of the cross- 75. Which of the following deformations are
section important in case of deep beams when
compared to flexure along?
3. to improve dowel action of
longitudinal tension bars a. shear
Select the correct answer using the codes b. axial
given below : c. torsional
a. 1, 2 and 3 are correct d. bearing
b. 2 and 3 are correct 76. The maximum depth of neutral axis for a
c. Only 1 is correct beam with ad as the effective depth, in
limit state method of design for Fe 415
d. Only 2 is correct
steel is
73. The specified span to depth ratios of
a. 0.46 d
beams satisfying the limits of vertical
deflection are for spans up to 10 m. b. 0.48 d
1. for higher spans, these are to be c. 0.50 d
modified by multiplying the ratio y d. 0.53 d
(10/span in metrer) 77. The load factor to be used for plastic
2. For higher spans, these are to be design of steel structures for dead load and
modified by multiplying the ratios by imposed load is
(span in metre/10) a. 2.2
3. They get further modified depending b. 2.0
on area and type of tension c. 1.7
reinforcement
d. 1.5
4. However, they of not change further
with the area and type of compression 78. Match List I with list II and select the
reinforcement correct answer :
Select the correct answer using the codes List I
given below : A. A rubber bulldozer gives better output
a. 1 and 3 are correct B. A bulldozer mounted on crawler tracks
b. 2 and 3 are correct gives better output
c. 1 and 4 are correct C. A rubber tyred bulldozer
d. 2 and 4 are correct D. A crawler mounted bulldozer
74. When the tendon of a rectangular List II
prestresses beam of cross-sectional area A 1. While working on earth or soft ground
is subjected to a load W through the 2. Results in lesser operator fatigues
centroidal longitudinal axis of beam, 3. Has greater use and versatility on jobs
(where M = maximum bending Moment
4. When working on a hard surface
and Z = section modulus) then the
maximum stress in the beam section will A B C D
be a. 2 1 4 3
W M b. 4 1 2 3
a. 
A Z c. 2 3 4 1
d. 4 3 2 1
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79. A compression member has a centre to C. Portable tilting drum type concrete
centre length of 4.0 m. It is fixed at one mixers
end and hinged at the other end. The D. Portable non-tilting drum type concrete
effective length of the column is mixers
a. 4.0 m List II(Characteristics)
b. 3.2 m 1. Are very efficient especially with stiff
c. 2.8 m mixes and the drum rotates about a
d. 2.6 m vertical axis
80. Deck bridges have the main disadvantage 2. Are meant for small, scattered jobs
that using small-sized aggregates
a. their compression flanges have no 3. Are fed from on side of the drum while
lateral support the mixed concrete is discharged from
b. the traffic is exposed to winds the other end and the drum rotates
about a horizontal axis
c. it is not possible to provide portal
bracings 4. Are best suited for large sized
aggregates as in mass concrete
d. the road level has to be very high
A B C D
81. If cbc is permissible compressive stress in
a. 2 3 4 1
flexural compression in N/mm2 in service,
the modular ratio is of the order of b. 4 1 2 3
a. 280/ 3 cbc c. 2 1 4 3
b. 280 / 4 cbc d. 4 3 2 1
c. 19 85. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer :
d. 13
List I(Vibrators)
82. In a Pedestal, the factor by which the
effective length should not exceed the least A. Vibrating tables
lateral dimension is B. Screed vibrators
a. 2 C. Internal vibrators
b. 3 D. Form vibrators
c. 4 List II(Application)
d. 5 1. For thin tunnel linings
83. The losses in prestress in pre-tensioning 2. for mass concrete work
system are due to 3. Fro precasting concrete members
1. elastic deformation of concrete when 4. for thin slabs, pavements and floors
wires are tensioned successively A B C D
2. friction a. 3 1 2 4
3. shrinkage and creep of concrete b. 2 4 3 1
Select the correct answer using the codes c. 3 4 2 1
given below :
d. 2 1 3 4
a. 1, 2 and 3
86. An equipment of purchased of Rs. 40, 000
b. 2 and 3 and is fully depreciated by straight line
c. 1 alone method over 8 years. Considering interest
d. 3 alone on average annual cost at 15 p.a., the
84. Match list I with List II and select the charge on the Company due to use of this
correct answer : equipment, if made uniformly over the 8
years, is
List I(Type of mixers)
a. Rs. 5,750
A. Tilting, drum type concrete mixers
b. Rs. 8,000
B. Pan type concrete mixers
13 of 17
c. Rs. 8,350 90.
d. Rs. 14,000
87. Which of the following are the
disadvantages of non-tilting type concrete
mixers ?
1. They are not favoured when large
sized aggregates are use d
2. Mixing of the concrete occurs through In the network given above, the maximum
both rolling and pulling from buckets number of shovels and dumpers required
3. Content of fines is increased are
4. They are no easy to clean a. 6 shovels and 14 dumpers on days 9
Select the correct answer using the codes and 10
given below : b. 24 shovels and 10 dumpers on days 3
a. 1, 2 and 3 and 4
b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 30 shovels and 90 dumpers on all days
c. 1, 2 and 4 d. 10 shovels and 24 dumpers on day s3
and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4
91. For cleaning and grubbing of construction
site of 15000 m3 area, a bulldozer is used
correct answer :
which has effective width of 2 m of the
List I (Type of cranes) blade and an average speed of 2.5 kmph. If
A. Hydraulic crane hiring charges of bulldozer are Rs. 500/hr.,
B. Electric overhead crane then cost per m2 is
C. Travelling bridge crane a. Rs. 10
D. Hammerhead crane b. Rs. 12
List II(Characteristics) c. Rs. 15
1. Has legs moving on tracks laid on the d. Rs. 18
floor 92.
2. Has cantilever arms on both sides
3. Has the unique advantage that the
boom length and the angle can be
changed during operation
4. Has three-way motion in mutually
perpendicular directions In the network given above, the critical
A B C D path of activities is
a. 3 2 1 4 a. A-C-H
b. 1 4 3 2 b. B-E-F-H
c. 3 4 1 2 c. A-D-E-F-H
d. 1 2 3 4 d. A-D-E-G
89. The norm for providing standby equipment 93. The probability that the load on a
for one shift operation is scaffolding will exceed the design load of
a. 5% 3 tonnes is 0.15. At the same time, the
probability that the strength of the
b. 10%
scaffolding will be more than 3 tonnes is
c. 20% 0.85. The probability that the scaffolding
d. 30% will fail is
a. 0.2775
b. 0.1275
c. 0.0225
14 of 17
d. 0.0020 c. the deflection of beam remains within
94. The optimum duration is the permissible limit
a. the summation of normal-durations of d. the bending stress in compression is
each activity in the project within permissible limit
b. summation of the normal-duration of 98. Assertion (A) : Trees which have broad
activities on critical path leaves and shed in the autumn are
c. one, which givens minimum total cost classified as hard woods, while trees
for completing the project having needle-like leaves, broadly
evergreen are classified as soft woods.
d. summation of crash-time of activities
on critical path Reason (R) : The term hard wood and
95. In order to investigate a method of least-
cost scheduling, which of the following correct explanation of A
assumptions are made ? b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
1. the planned duration of an activity can the correct explanation of A
be any whole day value between the c. A is true but R is false
normal and crash duration d. A is false but R is true
2. the direct cost of an activity is linear 99. Assertion (A) : Flash set is the stiffening
between he normal and crash direct of the cement paste within a few minutes
costs after mixing.
3. The overhead costs I linear during the Reason (R) : Flash set occurs due to
entire project. insufficient gypsum to control the rapid
Select the correct answer using the codes reaction of C3A with water.
given below : a. Both A and R are true and R is the
a. 1 and 2 correct explanation of A
b. 1 and 3 b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. 2 and 3 the correct explanation of A
d. 1, 2 and 3 c. A is true but R is false
96. Which one of the following statements d. A is false but R is true
applies to the declining balance method of 100. Assertion (A) : The amount of cement
depreciation accounting? past should be sufficient to cover the
a. Uniform write-off of cost throughout surface of all particle for proper work-
the service is aimed ability and bond.
b. Greater write-off in the early years is Reason (R) : The water –cement ratio is
aimed fixed accordingly.
c. Smaller write-off in early years is
aimed correct explanation of A
d. A varying rate of depreciation is b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
applied on the basis of marker value of the correct explanation of A
the assets c. A is true but R is false
97. In selecting a roller I-section for a simply- d. A is false but R is true
supported beam, along with minimum 101. Assertion (A) : the coefficient of friction is
sectional modulus, a minimum value of the ratio of limiting frictional force to
span/depth ratio is also ensured. This is normal reaction between two bodies in
stipulated to ensure that contact and one body being just on the
a. the buckling of beam does not take sliding on the other.
place Reason (R) : The limiting friction is the
b. the shear stress in beam remains within maximum value of frictional force, which
permissible limit comes in to play, when a body just begins
to slide over the surface of the other body.
15 of 17
correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT 105. Assertion (A) : The salvage value is less in
the correct explanation of A the initial period of the equipment and
c. A is true but R is false increases as the equipment ages.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : The salvage value of an
102. Assertion (A) : The bending moment at a equipment is the actual amount the at can
section of a simply supported beam is a be realized on a trade-in for a replacement
maximum. machine.
(i) in the case of a concentrated load, a. Both A and R are true and R is the
where the S.F. changes sign. correct explanation of A
(ii) in the case of u.d.l where shearing b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
force is zero. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : Actually in both the above c. A is true but R is false
cases shearing force should be zero at the
section of maximum being moment, d. A is false but R is true
because dM/dx = f = 0, to satisfy the 106. Assertion (A) : Knots, one of the common
maxima condition. features in wood, are associated with the
a. Both A and R are true and R is the beginning of branches.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : Knots greatly improve the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT workability.
the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
c. A is true but R is false correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
103. Assertion (A) : The principle of super- the correct explanation of A
position for deflection of beams subjected c. A is true but R is false
to a number of loads can be applied in the
case of large deformation.
107. Assertion (A) : More uniformly burnt
Reason (R) : In the principle of
bricks are obtained form a downward
superposition, the resultant deflection s
draught kiln.
due to each load acting separately.
Reason (R) : The bricks are laid in a
circular form in their kiln.
104. Assertion (A) : In the working stress
design method the internal stresses at a
section of member are computed for 108. Assertion (A) : The higher percentage of
factored loads. Tricalcium silicate in cement results in
rapid hardening with an early gain in
Reason (R) : In the working stress design
strength at a higher heat of hydration.
method it is ensured that the internal
stresses due to working loads are less than Reason (R) : A higher percentage of
the allowable stresses. dicalcium silicate in cement results in
rapid slow hardening and less heat of
hydration and greater resistance to
chemical attack.
16 of 17
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 112. Assertion (A) : A beam of fixed length and
correct explanation of A for given weight of material, a rectangular
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT cross-section provides the greatest possible
the correct explanation of A moment of resistance.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : In a beam of 1 cross-section,
more material is positioned near the outer
d. A is false but R is true fibres representing regions of greatest
109. Assertion (A) : For a given composition, a stress and hence is stronger than beam of
finer cement will develop strength and rectangular cross-section.
generate heat more quickly than a coarse a. Both A and R are true and R is the
cement. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The reaction between water b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
and cement starts on the surface of the the correct explanation of A
cement particles and in consequence the
greater the surface area of a given volume c. A is true but R is false
of cement, the grater the hydration. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 113. Assertion (A) : Whenever a column
correct explanation of A section is subjected to an eccentric
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT loading, it causes a direct stress, as well as
the correct explanation of A the being stress to come into play. Since
both these stresses act normal to the cross-
c. A is true but R is false section, these can be algebraically added
d. A is false but R is true into a single resultant stress.
110. Assertion (A) : The strain and stress Reason (R) : The maximum and minimum
system for a bar of length ‘l’ subjected to intensities of stress at the base of the
an axial pull will be the same whether both column are
ends of the bar are free or one end is fixed
W  6e 
and the other end is free. pmax = 1+ 
b  b 
Reason (R) : Rigid body displacements
have no effect on the elastic deformations. W  6e 
pmin = 1  
a. Both A and R are true and R is the b  b 
correct explanation of A where
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT W = weight of column per unit length.
b = width of the column
c = eccentricity of the load.
111. Assertion (A) : for a section having an correct explanation of A
axis of symmetry, there will not be
twisting if the loading axis coincides with b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
the symmetrical axis. the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The plane of loading contains c. A is true but R is false
the bending axis. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 114. Assertion (A) : The intensity of the
correct explanation of A longitudinal stress is on half of the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT intensity of hoop-stress of hoop-stress or
the correct explanation of A circumferential stress in a thin cylindrical
shell subjected to internal pressure.
Reason (R) : The stress in the longitudinal
d. A is false but R is true and circumferential directions develop
when a thin cylindrical shell is subjected to
17 of 17
internal force which tries to burst the c. A is true but R is false
cylinder. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 118. Assertion (A) : In the analysis of pin-
correct explanation of A jointed plane frames, the force method is
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT generally preferable to the displacement
the correct explanation of A method.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : The degrees of freedom for
d. A is false but R is true pin-jointed plane frames are generally
much larger than the degrees of static
115. Assertion (A) : When attempting resource indeterminacy and thus force method
optimization, activity-time cost trade off requires less formulation and computation
information could be gainfully employed. than the displacement method.
Reason (R) : Generally, as activity time is a. Both A and R are true and R is the
extended beyond the minimum cost correct explanation of A
duration, splitting of the activity duration
is always possible. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT d. A is false but R is true
the correct explanation of A 119. Assertion (A) : In a built-in beam, the
c. A is true but R is false centroids of the fixed moment diagram and
the free moment diagram will lie on the
d. A is false but R is true same vertical line.
116. Assertion (A) : The more economical Reason (R) : the second theorem of area
alternative of replacing an equipment is to moment states that, if two points on the
redesign and improve the equipment. elastic line of the beam are at the same
Reason (R) : Redesigning and improving level, the moment of area of BMD
an equipment can result in labour saving. enclosed between these point about any
a. Both A and R are true and R is the one of these point is zero.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explanation of A
the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
c. A is true but R is false the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true c. A is true but R is false
120. Assertion (A) : The strength of a beam
does not depend upon the sectional area
provided.
Reason (R) : It depends upon the
117. disposition of the sectional area of the
Assertion (A) : Area of BMD represented beam in relation to its neutral axis.
by ‘X’ in the figure given above equals a. Both A and R are true and R is the
2/3Ml. correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : Area of the figure represented b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
by ‘Y’ equals ml/3. the correct explanation of A
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2002 1 of 16
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. Acidic soils are reclaimed by List I
a. leaching of the solid A. BOD5, (mg/l)
b. using limestone as a soil amendment B. COD, (mg/l)
c. using gypsum as a soil amendment C. Oil and grease
d. provision of drainage D. Total suspended solids, (mg/l)
2. The correct statement of comparison of List II
ultimate BOD, COD. Theoretical oxygen 1. 250
demand (ThOD) and 5-day BOD (BOD5) 2. 30
is
3. 20
a. BODu > COD > ThOD > BOD5
4. 10
b. COD > ThOD > BODu > BOD5
A B C D
c. ThOD > COD > BODu > BOD5
a. 3 4 1 2
d. COD > BODu > BOD5 > ThOD
b. 2 4 1 3
3. At a sewage treatment plant for a flow of
c. 3 1 4 2
3 m2/s, the cross-sectional area of grit
chamber will be about d. 2 1 4 3
a. 3 m2 6. In the preliminary treatment of
wastewater, skimming tanks are often
b. 10 m2
included in the treatment scheme. Various
c. 25 m2 features of skimming tanks are that these :
d. 30 m2 1. can remove general floating matter
4. Match list I (Different forms of nitrogen in 2. can remove oily and greasy matter
water) with List II (Inferences) and select
3. have detention time of 30 min.
4. employ compressed air blown through
List I
diffusers
A. Nitrate nitrogen
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
B. Total nitrogen
a. 1 and 3
C. Nitrite nitrogen
b. 2 and 4
D. Ammonia nitrogen
c. 2 and 3
List II
d. 1 and 2
1. Unsatisfactory microbial activity
7. The following is a well known formula for
2. satisfactory microbial activity estimating the plume rise :
3. Europhication may result
Vs d  Qh 
4. Recent organic pollution h   1.5  0.0096 
u  Vs d 
A B C D
a. 3 2 1 4 where the letters have their usual meaning
b. 1 4 3 2 The estimates plume rise (by the above
c. 3 4 1 2 formula) with a stack gas having heat
emission rate 2000 kJ/s, the wind speed 4
d. 1 2 3 4
m/s, stack gas speed 8 m/s inside a stack
5. Match List I(Standards of sewage effluents diameter of 1 m at the top is
for the discharge in surface) with list II
a. 7.8 m
(Tolerance limits) and select the correct
answer : b. 8.7 m
2 of 16
c. 3.15 m d. 4 3 1 2
d. 8000/ (1.5 + 0.0024) 11. ‘Air binding’ may occur in
8. In sampling of stack gases for a. Sewers
measurement of concentration of b. Artesian well
Suspended particular matter(SPM), the c. Aerator
flue gases are sucked in the instrument at d. Filter
a. any rate of flow from mid diameter of 12. Match List I with list II and select the
chimney correct answer :
b. any point of chimney cross-section and List I(Valves)
at any rate of flow
A. Sluice value
c. a constant rate of flow but at four
B. Check value
equidistant point along the diameter
C. Air inlet value
d. controlled position and controlled
velocities along the chimney diameter D. Ball valve
to get isokinetic conditions List II(Uses)
9. Match List I with List II and select the 1. Used where gravity flow is required
correct answer : through pipe line
List I (Air pollutants) 2. Used to maintain constant level of
A. SPM water
B. NO 3. Used for reversal of flow
C. CO 4. Used for isolating
D. SO2 A B C D
List II (Harmful effects) a. 1 3 4 2
1. Blood haemoglobin b. 4 2 1 3
2. Vegetation c. 1 2 4 3
3. Respiratory system d. 4 3 1 2
4. Building materials 13. Consider the following statements :
A B C D While deciding to locate an intake
structure for a city situated on a river bank,
a. 3 4 1 2
intake for water supply should be locate
b. 1 2 3 4
1. in deep waters
c. 3 2 1 4
2. sufficiently away from shore lines
d. 1 4 3 2
3. upstream of the populated city
4. near navigational channel
correct answer :
Which of these are correct ?
List I (Air pollutants)
a. 1, 2 and 4
A. Hydrocarbons
b. 1, 2 and 3
B. Particulates and gases
c. 2, 3 and 4
C. Sulphur dioxide
d. 1, 3 and 4
D. Carbon monoxide
14. The population figures in a growing town
List II(Emitted mainly by)
are as follows :
1. Coal burning
Year Population
2. Gasoline fuel
1970 40,000
3. Tyres
1980 46,000
4. Carburettor
1990 53,000
A B C D
2000 58,000
a. 3 4 2 1
The predicted population in 2010 by
b. 4 3 2 1 Arithmetic Regression method is
c. 3 4 1 2 a. 62,000
3 of 16
b. 63,000 2. Plastic soils of moderate cohesion
c. 64,000 3. Cohesionless soils
d. 65,000 4. Silty soils of low plasticity
15. The description of solid waste collected is A B C D
as follows : a. 4 2 1 3
Night soil – 35 t b. 3 1 2 4
Rubbish – 40 t c. 4 1 2 3
Debris – 25 t d. 3 2 1 4
Garbage – 40 t 19. The correct sequence of plasticity of
The organic solids in the above mineral in soil in an increasing order is
composition is a. Silica, Kaolinite, Illite,
a. 35 t Montmorillonite
b. 60 t b. Kaolinite, Silica, Illite,
c. 100 t Montmorillonite
d. 75 t c. Silica, Kaolinite, Montmorillonite
16. In a sanitary landfill, decomposition and Illite,
chemical changes within organic content d. Kaolinite, Silica, Montmorillonite
of the solid wastes goes on. Consequential Illite,
changes within landfill can be : 20. In a triaxial test at failure, major principal
1. Temperature changes within landfill stress was 180 kPa, minor principal stress
2. Production of gases like H2S, CO, was 100 kPa, and pore pressure was 20
CO2, and CH4 kPa. The tangent of the angle of shearing
resistance of the sandy soil tested is
3. Destruction of pathogens
a. 1/3
4. Production of other gases like SO2 and
NO2 b. 2/7
Which of these statements are correct ? c. 1/2
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1/6
b. 1, 2 and 3 21. Laboratory vane shear test can also be
used to determine
c. 1 and 3
a. Shear parameters of silty sand
d. 2 and 3
b. Shear parameters of sandy clay
17. In a soil specimen, 70% of particles are
passing through 3.75 mm I.S. sieve and c. Liquid limit of silty clay
40% of particle are passing through 75  d. Plastic limit of clayey silt
I.S. sieve. Its uniformity coefficient is 8 22. When movement of a wall under the earth
and coefficient of curvature is 2. As per pressures from the backfill was prevented
I.S. classification, this soil is classified as the coefficient of earth pressure was
a. SP recorded as 0.5. The ratio of the
b. GP coefficients of passive and active earth
pressure s of the backfill is
c. SW
a. 1/3
d. GW
b. 3
correct answer : c. 1/9
List I(Roller type) d. 9
A. Pneumatic roller 23. Taylor’s stability number Sn is given by
which one of the following expressions ?
B. Smooth wheeled roller
(C is cohesion, Fc is factor of safely,  is
C. Sheep foot roller density of soil and H, the height of the
D. Vibratory roller slope)
List II (Soil type)
1. Cohesive and granular soils
4 of 16
C  e 
a. c.  
Fc  γ
 1  e0 
C
b.  e 
γ H d. H .  
 1  e0 
C
c. 26. Which one of the following statement s
Fc  γ  H regarding coefficient of consolidation Cv
C is correct ?
d.
Fc (γ + H) a. Cv  k
24. Consider the following statements : b. Cv  1/k
Theory of consolidation predicts c. Cv  mv
settlement due to primary consolidation; it d. Cv  av
cannot include settlement due to initial 27. Consider the following factors :
compression nor due to secondary
1. Reaction time
consolidation. This happens because of the
following assumptions made by the theory: 2. Speed
1. Soil grains and water are 3. Coefficient of longitudinal friction
incompressible 4. Gradient
2. Soil is fully saturated Which of these factors are taken into
3. compression takes place in vertical account for computing braking distance ?
direction only a. 1 and 3
4. Time lag in consolidation is entirely b. 1, 2 and 4
due to low permeability of soil c. 2, 3 and 4
Which of these statemtns are correct ? d. 2 and 3
a. 1, 2 and 3 28. Consider the following factors :
b. 2, and 3 1. Period of construction, winter/summer
c. 3 and 4 2. Degree of foundation roughness
d. 1, 2 and 4 3. slab thickness
25. In the phase diagrams given, the change 4. Reinforced/unreinforced
due to initial state changing into final state Which of these factors are considered as
is shown due to consolidation. Depth of per IRC for obtaining the maximum
soil layer undergoing consolidation is H; expansion joint spacing in rigid
e0 is initial void ratio; e is final void pavements?
ratio; is change in void ratio. a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 4
29. Match list I(Type of construction) with
List II (% Bitumen content) and select the
correct answer :
Indicate which of the following expression List I
given settlement of the layer: A. Bituminous macadam
 e  B. Dense bituminous macadam
a. H . log10   C. Bituminous concrete
 1  e0  D. Bituminous mastic
 e  List II
b. log10  H . 
 1  e0  1. 3 –3.5%
2.  4%
3. 14–17%
5 of 16
4. Min. 4.5% 1. Fixing the tie bars with the C.I.
sleepers
A B C D
2. Measurement of ‘packing voids’ under
a. 4 2 1 3 the sleeper ands
b. 1 2 4 3 3. Measurement of unevenness of rail top
c. 4 3 1 2 and rectification f alignment
d. 1 3 4 2 4. Elastic rail fastening
30. A journey from work to home made by A B C D
walking to the bus, travelling by bus to the a. 1 3 2 4
station and completing the journey by train b. 4 2 1 3
is regarded as c. 1 2 3 4
a. 4 trips d. 4 3 2 1
b. 3 trips 35. Consider the following factors :
c. 2 trips 1. Mass of ships to be berthed
d. 1 trip 2. Overall transit time Speed of berthing
31. With addition of lime in soil 3. environmental conditions of the port
a. L.L. increases and P.L. decreases Which of these factors are taken into
b. Plasticity index increase account while selecting the type of fender
c. L.L. changes very slightly and P.L. system ?
increase a. 1, 2 and 3
d. L.L. and P.L. both decrease b. 2, 3 and 4
32. On a National Highway pavement section c. 1, 3 and 4
mean value of Benkelman beam deflection d. 1 and 4
was obtained 12 1.45 mm with standard 36. Which one of these methods of Tunnel
deviation of 0.017 mm. pavement construction is not suitable in rocks ?
temperature measured was 37oc and
a. Full face method
moisture correction was obtained as 1.6.
What is the value of characteristic b. Compressed air method
deflection considering the value of 2 ? c. Heading and benching method
a. 2.72 mm d. Drift method
b. 2.69 mm 37. Consider the following factors :
c. 2.63 mm 1. Air traffic control measures
d. 1.94 mm 2. aircraft traffic composition
33. If the curve lead of a broad gauge railway 3. VFR/IFR operation
turnout is 16.76 meters, the angle of 4. Runway configuration
crossing of the turnout will be given by Which of these factors affect the capacity
a. tan–1 10 of a runway?
b. tan–1 5 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. tan–1 1/10 b. 2 and 3
d. tan–1 1/5 c. 1 and 4
34. Match List I with List II and select the d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct answer : 38. Match List I with List II and select the
List I (Device) correct answer :
A. Pandrol clip List I (Imaginary surface)
B. Densometer A. Conical
C. Viseur’s mire B. Approach
D. Cotters C. Primary
List II(used for) D. Transitional
List II(Characteristic)
6 of 16
1. Longitudinally centered on a runway than the inflow hydrograph and it occurs
2. Longitudinally entered on the extended after the peak of the inflow.
runway Reason (R) : In linear reservoir routing,
3. Extending outward and upward from the storage is a fencing of both outflow
the periphery of the horizontal and inflow discharges.
structure a. Both A and R are true and R is the
4. Extending outward and upward at right correct explanation of A
angles to the runway centre line b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
A B C D the correct explanation of A
a. 3 1 2 4 c. A is true but R is false
b. 4 2 1 3 d. A is false but R is true
c. 3 2 1 4 43. Assertion (A) : cut-offs are provided on
d. 4 1 2 3 the down-stream base of hydraulic
structures.
39. Assertion (A) : Abrupt rise in pressure in a
pipe line results from sudden closure of a Reason (R) : Hydraulic structures fail by
value. overturning about the downstream based
of excessive erasing oat the base caused by
Reason (R) : Pressure wave propagates
overflowing water.
through elastic medium.
44. Assertion (A) : Sprinkler method of
40. Assertion (A) : Selection of turbine by
irrigation has a higher water applications
specific speed criterion is more scientific.
use efficiency.
Reason (R) : Specific speed is
Reason (R) : Sprinkler system causes less
independent of dimensions, size of both
interference in cultivation and to the
actual and specific turbine.
farming operations.
41. Assertion (A) :Unit hydrograph theory is
45. Assertion (A) : U.K. Royal commission on
not applicable to catchment areas larger
Sewage Disposal of 1898-1915 classified
than
British rivers on the basis 65o F, 5-day
Reason (R) : Rainfall is not uniformly BOD.
distributed on large catchment areas.
Reason (R) : British rivers do not have
a. Both A and R are true and R is the flow time to open sea more than 5 days.
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false the correct explanation of A
42. Assertion (A) :In routing a flood d. A is false but R is true
hydrograph through a reservoir, the peak
46. Assertion (A) : Settled sewage is subjected
of the outflow hydrograph will be smaller
to biological treatment .
7 of 16
Reason (R) : Any biological treatment is Reason (R) : The consistency index of a
preceded by a settling tank. soil is defined as ratio of (liquid limit
a. Both A and R are true and R is the minus the natural water content) to
correct explanation of A (natural water content minus plastic limit).
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
d. A is false but R is true the correct explanation of A
47. Assertion (A) : the surface of sea water is c. A is true but R is false
on the rise. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : A thick layer of gases 51. Assertion (A) : A clay layer of thickness,
enveloping the earth does not allow heat to H, with single drainage suffers an ultimate
pas into space from the earth at a rate settlement of S under increase in pressure
which is as much as the rate at which the of . When a thin sand layer is present at its
heat coming from space penetrates it mid depth, the layer, under otherwise
towards the earth. identical conditions, will have no change
a. Both A and R are true and R is the in ultimate settlements.
correct explanation of A Reason (R) : The path of travel of water
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT for the clay layer is H under single
the correct explanation of A drainage. When a thin sand layer is present
at mid depth of clay layer, the path of
travel in lower half of the layer gets reduce
d. A is false but R is true to H/2 and that in upper half of the layer
48. Assertion (A) : Wet scrubber removes gets reduced to H/4. This considerably
particulates from a gaseous stream. reduced the time required to realize
Reason (R) : In the wet scrubber water ultimate settlement.
droplets come into contact with the a. Both A and R are true and R is the
particulates. correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false 52. Assertion (A) : Terzaghi’s bearing
d. A is false but R is true capacity theory over-estimates the bearing
49. Assertion (A) : The shape of the impeller capacity of footings.
of rotodynamic pumps is such as to force Reason (R) : Terzaghi’s theory neglects
the water in a radial / mixed / or axial the hearing resistance of rupture surface in
flow patterns. the soil above the foundation level.
Reason (R) : A rotodynamic pump has a a. Both A and R are true and R is the
wheel or a rotating element which rotates correct explanation of A
the water in a casing and , thus imparts b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
energy to he water. the correct explanation of A
53. Assertion (A) : A skilful highway designer
‘builds in’ speed control at critical
c. A is true but R is false locations on horizontal curves rather than
d. A is false but R is true increase than increase the superelevation.
50. Assertion (A) : A soil is at its liquid limit Reason (R) : A driver slows down on
if the consistency index of the soil is equal horizontal curve due to feeling of
to zero.
8 of 16
discomfort because of increase in side a. 0.25 z
friction with reduced superelevation. b. 0.50 z
a. Both A and R are true and R is the c. 1.0 z
d. 2.0 z
the correct explanation of A 58. Which one of the following represents
relative density of saturated sand deposit
c. A is true but R is false having moisture content of 25%, if
d. A is false but R is true maximum and minimum void ratio of sand
54. Assertion (A) : At a given station, a are 0.95 and 0.45 respectively and specific
celestial body can be fixed by its co- gravity of sand particles is 2.6 ?
altitude and co-declination. a. 40%
Reason (R) : In the astronomical triangle b. 50%
ZPS, ZP is constant for the given place and c. 60%
s is the intersection of the vertical circle
and declination of circle. d. 70%
a. Both A and R are true and R is the 59. The correct sequence of the increasing
correct explanation of A order of the disturbance to soil samples
obtained from chunk, piston, split spoon
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT and remolded sampler is
a. Piston sampler, chunk sampler, split
c. A is true but R is false spoon sampler, remolded sampler
d. A is false but R is true b. Chunk sampler, piston sampler, split
55. Assertion (A) : The Marshall test, being a spoon sampler , remolded sampler
confined compression test has correlation c. Piston sampler, chunk sampler,
with deformation as it occurs on the road. remolded sampler, split spoon sampler
Reason (R) : In road, loaded area is d. Chunk sampler, piston sampler,
confined by the tyre, the surrounding remolded sampler, split spoon sampler
surfacing and the road base.
60. A rigid strip footing subjected to vertical
a. Both A and R are true and R is the central load fails under general shear
correct explanation of A failure. The rupture surface developed is
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT a. Circular one sided rotational failure
b. Plane surface of failure originating at
c. A is true but R is false the edge of footing and extending
d. A is false but R is true downwards with orientation of
56. Assertion (A) : The principal advantage of Rankine passive state equilibrium
the solid fill type of wharf substructure is c. Symmetrical failure surface consisting
that its great mass provides adequate of segment of log spiral and Rankine’s
resistance to the impact of mooring ships. passive state failure surface
Reason (R) : solid fill substructure are d. Symmetrical failure surface consisting
inexpensive (except in deep water) and of segments of log spiral and plane
require little maintenance. failure surface as per Rankine active
a. Both A and R are true and R is the state of equilibrium
correct explanation of A 61. The change in the vertical stress in the soil
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT mass estimated by Boussinesq’s equation
the correct explanation of A when Poisson’s ratio of soil changes from
c. A is true but R is false 0.3 to 0.5 will be
d. A is false but R is true a. reduction by 30%
57. z is the vertical stress at a depth equal to b. increase by 50%
Z in the soil mass due to a surface point c. reduction by 20%
load q. The vertical stress at depth equal to d. no change
2Z will be
9 of 16
62. A single pile, 50 cm in diameter and 15 m 66. Which one of the expressions given below
long is driven in clay having an average correctly relates natural frequency fn,
unconfined compressive strength of 100 spring stiffness k, mass m of the machine
kN/m2. The ultimate bearing capacity of foundation vibrating system with Cu, the
the pile, neglecting end bearing, if any, coefficient elastic uniform compression of
and assuming shear mobilization factor of the foundation soil ?
0.8 around the pile is a. f n = 1/2π k/m  CuA/M
a. 942 kN
b. 1884 kN b. f n = k/m  2 CuA/M
c. 1177.5 kN c. f n = k/m = 1/2π CuA/M
d. 1334.5 kN
d. f n = 1/2π k/m = 1/2π CuA/M
63. In a plate load test on sandy soil, the test
plate of 60 cm  60 cm undergoes a 67. Consider the following statements :
settlement of 5 mm at a pressure of 12  1. Quick condition and liquefaction of
104 N/m2. What will be the expected saturated sands are based on similar
settlement of 3 m 3 m footing under same phenomenon.
pressure ? 2. Quick condition is associated with only
a. 25 mm earth dams.
b. 20 mm 3. Liquefaction is possible in dry sand
c. 15 mm also
d. 9 mm 4. Liquefaction is associated with
increase in pore water pressure due to
64. Match List I (Method of estimating pile
vibrations.
capacity) with List II (Parameter to be
estimated) and select the correct answer : Which of these statemtns are corrects ?
List I a. 2 and 4
A. Dynamic formulae b. 1 and 4
B. Static formulae c. 1 and 2
C. Pile load test d. 1, 3 and 4
D. Cyclic pile load test 68. A wooden bridge in Assam failed and was
observed to have arched up in the middle
List II
after the earthquake. The right abutment
1. Bearing capacity of cast-in–situ settled 40 cm and left abutment 30 cm.
concrete pile The bridge was supported on wooden
2. Separating end-bearing and friction- piles, which floated up during the
bearing powers of a pile earthquake. The most probable cause of
3. Bearing capacity of a timber pile failure is
4. Settlement of a friction–bearing pile a. Shear failure of soil below abutments
A B C D b. Excessive settlement below abutments
a. 3 1 4 2 due to increased forces
b. 4 2 3 1 c. Liquefaction of foundation soil below
c. 3 2 4 1 abutments and piles
d. 4 1 3 2 d. Failure of abutments due to dynamic
65. For designing and bearing piles of square earth pressure behind abutments
cross-section in clays having average 69. Which one of the following surveys is
unconfined compressive strength of 6 t/m2, employed for collecting sufficient data in
the net ultimate bearing capacity may be connection with sewage disposal and water
taken as supply works ?
a. 15 t/m2 a. Topographic survey
b. 18 t/m2 b. Cadastral survey
c. 20 t/m2 c. Geodetic survey
d. 27 t/m2 d. Cross-sectioning & profile levelling
10 of 16
70. Match List I with List II ands select te 73. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer : correct answer :
List I(corrections) List I(Methods)
 h A. Traversing
A. ±L  1  
 R B. Resection
2 C. Intersection
1 W
B.    D. Radiation
24  P 
List II (Procedures)
C. ±  Tf  Ts  L 1. Rays are drawn to locate the station on
which the table is set up
D. ±
 Pf  Ps  L
2. At least two rays are drawn from two
AE
different stations to the details to be
List II (Name) located
1. Sag correction 3. Rays are drawn in the direction of
2. Pull correction details through the station point on
3. Temperature correction which the table is set up
4. Mean sea level correction 4. Rays are drawn on the map by setting
(where the letters have their usual up the table over each of the stations
meaning) towards the subsequent station
A B C D A B C D
a. 4 1 3 2 a. 4 3 2 1
b. 1 4 3 2 b. 2 1 4 3
c. 4 1 2 3 c. 4 1 2 3
d. 4 2 3 d. 2 3 4 1
71. The following readings were taken with a 74. The process of determining the location of
Dumpy level and a 4 m levelling staff on a the station (on the map) occupied by the
continuously sloping ground at 30 m plane is called as
intervals: 0.680 m, 1.455 m, 2.330 m, a. Intersection
2.885 m, 3.380 m, 1.055 m. The R.L. of b. Three-point problem
the fourth point was calculated to be c. Traversing
79.100 m. The R.L. of the point that was
d. Resection
read 0.680 m is
75. Which one of the following is the angular
a. 80.750 m
distance between the observer’s meridian
b. 79.780 m and the vertical circle passing through a
c. 78.420 m star measured along the celestial horizon ?
d. 77.740 m a. Right ascension
72. The object of chain and cross-staff survey b. Azimuth
is to c. Declination
1. locate the boundaries of an area d. Hour angle
2. plot the figure to a scale 76. A vertical photograph of a chimney was
3. find the area of the plot taken from and elevation of 500 m above
4. find the reduced levels of the plot M.S.L. the elevation of the base of the
Which of the above statements is/are chimney was 250 m. If the relief
correct ? displacement of the chimney was 51.4 mm
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 and the radial distance of the image of the
top of the chimney was 110 mm, the
b. 1, 2 and 3
height of the chimney is
c. 1 and 2
a. 233.64 m
d. 4 alone
b. 133.2 m
c. 116.82 m
11 of 16
d. 58.41 m The water jets through the orifices
77. Based on ‘30th hour volume’, for how a. intersect at point A
much percent time during the year can the b. intersect at point B
designer willingly tolerate the unfavorable c. strike the plane at points C and B
operating conditions ? respectively
a. 30 d. would be striking at E and F only
b. 29 81. A spillway of an irrigation project is to be
c. 2.5 studied by means of a model constructed
d. 0.33 to a scale of 1 : 9. The prototype discharge
78. Match List I with List II and select the is 1000 m3/s. neglecting the viscous and
correct answer : surface tension effects, the required flow
List I (Definitions) rate for the model is
A. Newtonian fluid a. 12.35 m3 / s
B. Ideal fluid b. 111.11 m3 / s
C. Thixotropic fluid c. 4.11 m3 / s
D. Rheological fluid d. 1.37 m3 / s
List II (Properties) 82. An oil of viscosity 9 poise is flowing
through a horizontal pipe of 60 mm
1. Frictionless and incompressible
diameter. If the flow is laminar, the
2. Viscosity is invariant with shear stress pressure drop in 100 m length of the pipe
3. Viscosity decreases at higher shear is 1800 kN/m2. The average velocity of
stress flow of the oil is
4. Viscosity increase at higher shear a. 2.25 m/s
stress b. 0.55 m/s
A B C D c. 5.5 m/s
a. 2 4 1 3 d. 22.5 m/s
b. 3 1 4 2 83. Match List I (Flow pattern past a
c. 2 1 4 3 cylinder)with List II (Pressure distribution)
d. 3 4 1 2 and select the correct answer :
79. An isosceles triangular plate of base 3 m List I
and altitude 3 m is immersed vertically in A.
an oil of specific gravity 0.8. The base of
the plate coincides with the free surface of
oil. The centre of pressure will lie at a
distance of (from free surface)
a. 2.5 m
b. 2 m
c. 1.5 m
B.
d. 1 m
80. One orifice is located at a distance x from
the free surface while another orifice is
located at the same distance x from the
bottom of the tank as shown in the figure.
C.
12 of 16
[Note : Re is Reynolds number,
f = friction coefficient,
/D = relative roughness,
V = velocity ]
a. assume f, compute : v, R, /D and
D. calculate f; and repeat is necessary
List II b. assume Re, compute f, check /D
c. assume v, compute Re and calculate f,
V again
1.
d. assume Q, compute V, Re and
calculate
86. The Chezy’s coefficient C is related to
2. Darcy-Weisbach friction factor f as
a. C = (g / 8 f )
b. C = (8 g / f 1/4 )
3.
c. C = (8 g / f )
d. C = ( f / 8g )
4. 87. For a hydraulically efficient rectangular
A B C D section, the ratio of width to normal depth
a. 2 5 1 3 is
b. 4 3 5 2 a. 0.5
b. 1.0
c. 2 1 5 4
d. 4 3 1 2 c. 2.0
84. Match List I with List II and select the d. 2 3
correct answer : 88. A rigid boundary rectangular channel
List I having a bed slope of 1/800 has its width
A. (u/y)y = 0 is zero and depth of flow equal to 2 m and 1 m
respectively. If the flow is uniform and the
B. (u/y)y = 0 is +ve value of Chezy’s constant is 60, the
C. Displacement thickness discharge through the channel is
D. Momentum thickness a. 1.0 m3/s
List II b. 1.5 m3/s
1. The flow is attached flow c. 2.0 m3s
2. The flow is on the verge of separation d. 3.0 m3/s

u u 89. Consider the following statements in
3.  U 1  U  dy
0
regard to the critical flow :
 1. specific energy is maximum for a
 u
4.  1  U  dy given discharge
0 2. Specific force is maximum for a given
A B C D discharge
a. 1 2 3 4 3. Discharge is maximum for a given
b. 2 1 3 4 specific force
c. 1 2 4 3 4. Discharge is maximum for a given
d. 2 1 4 3 specific energy
85. The procedure to be followed in solving Which of these statements are correct ?
for discharge in a simple pipe problem, a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
when hf, l, D, v and  are given is to b. 1 and 4
13 of 16
c. 2 and 3 Which of these statements are correct ?
d. 3 and 4 a. 2 and 3
90. Match List I with List II and select the b. 1, 2, 3 and 4
correct answer c. 1 and 2
List I(Slope) d. 1 and 3
A. Mild 93. Consider the following statemtns related to
B. Adverse centrifugal pumps :
C. Limit 1. Centrifugal pumps with blades facing
D. Critical backward have fast runners
List II (Description) 2. Multistage pumps have two or more
1. is when the flow is at Froude number impellers installed in series so that the
one along the channel discharge is increase
2. is n example of non-sustaining slop 3. Diffusion type centrifugal pumps are
called turbine pumps
3. always sustains uniform subcritical
flow 4. A centrifugal pump with rising
characteristic is used when actual lift is
4. is one which has smallest critical slope
small and the amount of flow is
for a given channel shape and
constant
roughness
Which of these statemtns are correct ?
A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 3 2 4 1
b. 1, 2 and 4
b. 1 4 2 3
c. 1, 3 and 4
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 2 4 3
94. The following items related to hydrologic
91. If F1 and F2 are the Froude numbers of
requirements in a hydropower system.
flow before and after the hydraulic jump
Match List I with List II and select the
occurring in a rectangular channel, then
correct answer :
F12
a. F22  List I
 1  
2
1  8 F12 A. Stream flow in order of magnitude is
plotted as ordinate and percent of time
8 F12 as abscissa.
b. F22 
 1   B. Cumulative value of stream flow is
2
1  8 F12
plotted against time for whose period
F12 of record
c. F22  C. Plot of available power against percent
 1/ 2  
2
1  8 F12 of time
D. Plot of flow in a stream against time at
8 F12 specific interval
d. F22 
 1/ 2  
2
1  8 F12 List II
1. Mass curve
92. Consider the following statemtns about a 2. Flow duration curve
hydraulic ram:
3. Hydrogaraph
1. Hydraulic ram does not need external
4. Power duration curve
power
A B C D
2. It works on the fundamental principle
of water hammer a. 2 3 4 1
3. The efficiency of a hydraulic ram is b. 4 1 2 3
only of the order of 8 to 10% c. 2 1 4 3
4. It can be termed as a low, intermittent d. 4 3 2 1
discharge lowhead pumping
installation
14 of 16
95. For a hydro-electric project with reaction d. 469 mm
turbine, the draft tube at the exist from the 100. Which one of the following statements is
turbine is correct ?
a. always immersed in water a. Reciprocating pumps are less efficient
b. always above the water than centrifugal pumps
c. may either be above or below the water b. Delivery from a reciprocating pump is
d. above or below the water depending on pulsating
the unit speed to the turbine c. Reciprocating pumps are suitable for
96. Consider the following statemtns in case large discharges and smaller heads
of impulse turbine: d. For a negative slip to occur, a
1. The pressure and velocity both change reciprocating pump must have a
as the water flows through the turbine coefficient of discharge less than unity
2. pressure throughout remains 101. Consider the following statements:
atmospheric and the velocity alone 1. An ephemeral steam is on which has a
changes base-flow contribution
3. All the available energy is converted 2. Flow characteristics of a stream
into kinetic energy depend upon rainfall and catchmetn
4. Water is admitted over the entire characteristic sna dalso the climatic
circumference of the runner factor which influence evapo-
5. Water is admitted only through the transpiration
nozzle 3. sequent Peak Algorithm is used for
Which of these statemtns are correct ? estimating run off from rainfall
a. 2, 3 and 5 Which of these statements is /are correct ?
b. 2 and 3 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1, 4 and 5 b. 1 and 3
d. 1 and 4 c. 2 and 3
97. In case of semi-circular vanes, the d. 2 alone
theoretical maximum efficiency of the 102. Match List I with List II and select the
wheel can be correct answer :
a. 50% List I
b. 67% A. –index
c. 75% B. Lysimeter
d. 100% C. Dilution technique
98. Without residual whirl in the flow at the D. Syndel’s equation
entrance to a draft tube, the best cone List II
angle is 1. Used for measurement of evapo-
a. < 6o transpiration for given vegetation
b. 9o to 11o 2. Used for flow measurement
c. 18o 3. Average rainfall above which the
d. 24o rainfall volume is equal to the runoff
99. Two geometrically similar pumps are volume
running at the same speed of 1000 r.p.m. 4. Relates the basin lag to the basin
and lifting water against he heads of 25 m characteristics
and 16 m respectively. First pump is A B C D
having an impeller diameter of 300 mm. a. 3 1 2 4
The impeller diameter of second pump b. 4 2 1 3
shall be
c. 3 2 1 4
a. 192 mm
d. 4 1 2 3
b. 240 mm
c. 300 mm
15 of 16
103. A 6-hour rainstorm with hourly intensities 108. The performance of a well is measured by
of 7, 18, 25, 17, 11 and 3 mm/hour its
produced a runoff of 39 mm. Then, the – a. Specific capacity
index is b. Specific yield
a. 3 mm/hour c. Storage coefficient
b. 7 mm/hour d. Permeability coefficient
c. 8 mm/hour 109. Regional hydrological cycle is shown in
d. 10 mm/hour the figure
104. In a water-shed, four rain gauges I, II, III
and IV are installed. The depths of normal
annual rainfall at these stations are 60, 75,
80 and 100 cm respectively. The rain
gauge at station III went out of order
during a particular year. The annual
rainfall for that year, recorded at the
remaining three stations was 90, 60 and 70
cm. The rainfall at station III can be
considered as
a. 60 cm
b. 70 cm
c. 80 cm
d. 120 cm Identify the correct hydrologic budget
105. The unit-hydrograph theory is based on the equation :
assumption of a. P + R1 –R2 + R2 –Es–Ts–I = Ss
a. Nonlinear response and time b. 1 + G1 –G2 –Rs –Es–Ts = Ss
invariance
c. P – (R2 –R1) – (Es + ES) – (Ts + TS) –
b. Linear response and nonlinear time
– (G2 –G1) = (Ss –SS)
variance
d. P–R–G–E–T = Ss
c. Time invariance and linear response
d. Nonlinear response and nonlinear time 110. A two hour storm hydrograph has 5 units
variance of direct runoff. The two-hour units
hydrograph for this storm can be obtained
106. An effective storage of a flood control by dividing the ordinates of the storm
reservoir is hydrograph by
a. The amount of water which can be a. 2
supplied from it in a particular interval
of time b. 2/5
b. The storage between the minimum and c. 5
maximum reservoir levels under d. 5/2
ordinary operating conditions 111. The slope area method is extensively used
c. The useful storage plus the surcharge in
storage less the valley storage a. development of rating curve
d. The storage volume of flood water b. estimation of flood discharge base on
above maximum reservoir level high-water marks
107. The Penman’s evapo-transpiration c. cases where shifting control exists
equation is based on d. cases where back-water effects is
a. Water budget method present
b. Energy balance method 112. Consider the following :
c. Mass transfer method Garret’s diagram for the design of
d. Energy balance and mass transfer irrigation channel is based on
approach 1. Kennedy’s theory
16 of 16
2. Lacey’s theory d. rate of change of discharge of an outlet
3. Kutter’s formula to the rate of change of water level of
4. Manning’s formula the channel
Which of these are correct? 118. A canal was designed to supply the
irrigation needs of 1000 ha of land
a. 1 and 3
growing rice of 140 days base period and
b. 1 and 4 having a delta of 130 cm. If the canal
c. 2 and 3 water is used to irrigate wheat of base
d. 2 and 4 period of 119 days and having delta of 50
113. The total number of independent equations cm, the area that can be irrigated is
that form the Lacey’s regime theory is a. 452 ha
a. 2 b. 904 ha
b. 3 c. 1105 ha
c. 4 d. 2210 ha
d. 6 119. A canal fall is a control structure
114. Balanced depth of cutting of canal is a. located at a place where the country
a. half the total depth of a canal slope is flatter than the canal bed slope
b. half of full supply depth b. located most economically where the
c. the maximum cut that an excavator can depth of cutting is less than the
take balancing depth
d. where volume of cutting is equal to c. the location of which is independent of
volume of filling the command to be served
115. At a certain point in the floor of weir, the d. designed to secure raising of water
uplift pressure head due to seepage is 4.5 surface on its upstream
m. If the relative density of concrete is 2.5, 120. Match List II(Equation) with List
the minimum thickness of floor required at II(Applicability or principle of equation)
this point to counteract the uplift pressure and select the correct answer :
is List II
a. 1 m A. Theim’s equation
b. 2 m B. Dupit’s assumption
c. 3 m C. Bernoulli’s equation
d. 4 m D. Continuity equation
116. A constant angle arch dam when compared List II
to a constant radius arch dam utilizes 1. is base on energy conservation
concrete quantity of about principle
a. 33% 2. is based on mass conservation
b. 43% principle
c. 73% 3. is applicable to steady flow towards a
d. 143% well confined aquifer
117. Modular limit of a canal outlet is the ratio 4. is applicable to steady flow in an
of unconfined aquifer
a. rate of change of discharge of outlet to A B C D
that of distributary a. 4 3 2 1
b. water depth above outlet crest to the b. 3 4 2 1
full supply depth of the channel c. 4 3 1 2
c. water depth above the crest on d. 3 4 1 2
downstream to that on upstream of
outlet
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 14
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. A well-seasoned timber has a moisture b. 40 minutes
content of about c. 15 minutes
a. 15% to 20% d. 5 minutes
b. 10% to 12% 8. Match List I (Cement Mortar for Different
c. 5% to 85 Work) with List II(Proportion of Cement
d. 2% to 3% and sand in Mortar ) and select the correct
2. Dry rot in timber is caused by answer :
a. Lack of ventilation List I
b. Lack of light A. Cement mortar for normal brick work
c. Immersion in water B. Cement mortar for plastering works
d. Alternate wet and dry atmosphere C. Cement mortar for grouting the
3. Wood is impregnated with creosote oil in cavernous rocks
order to D. Cement mortar for guniting
a. Change its colour List II
b. Protect against fungi 1. 1 : 4
c. Protect the annular layers 2. 1 : 3
d. Fill up the pores 3. 1 : 6
4. Consider the following statements : 4. 1 : 1.5
Bricks are soaked in water before use in A B C D
masonry work a. 3 4 2 1
1. to remove dust b. 1 2 3 4
2. to remove air voids c. 3 1 4 2
3. so that they do not absorb water from d. 1 4 2 3
cement mortar 9. Match List I(Admixture) with list II
Which of these statements is/are correct ? (Action in Concrete) and select the correct
a. 1, 2 and 3 answer :
b. 1 only List I
c. 2 and 3 A. Calcium lignosulphonate
d. 3 only B. Aluminum powders
5. The proper size of mould for testing C. Tartaric acid
compressive strength of cement is D. Aluminum sulphate
a. 7.05 cm tube List II
b. 10.05 cm cube 1. Anti bleeder
c. 15 cm cube 2. Retarder
d. 12.05 cm cube 3. Air entrainer
6. The specific gravity of commonly 4. Water reducer
available ordinary portland cement is A B C D
a. 4.92 a. 3 2 1 4
b. 3.15 b. 4 3 2 1
c. 2.05 c. 3 4 1 2
d. 1.83 d. 4 2 3 1
7. A quick-setting cement has an initial 10. A mortar in which both cement and lime
setting time of about are used in definite proportions as binding
a. 50 minutes materials is reffered to as
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a. Light weight mortar c. Parabolic up to 0.002% strain value
b. Fire resistant mortar and then a straight line up to failure
c. Gauged mortar d. Hyperbolic up to 0.002% staring value
d. Water resistant mortar and then a straight line up to failure
11. In order to improve the workability of 15. Consider the following statements :
harsh cement mortar which of the Ultrasonic pulse velocity test is
following items is/are added ? 1. used to measure the straight of wet
1. water concrete.
2. Plaster of Paris 2. used to obtain estimate of concrete
3. Lime strength of finished concrete elements.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. a destructive test
given below : 4. a non-destructive test.
a. 1 only Which of these statemtns are correct ?
b. 1 and 2 a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 3 only b. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4
12. Bleeding of concrete leads of which of the d. 1 and 3
following ? 16. The material in which large deformation is
1. Drying up of concrete surface possible before the absolute failure or
2. Formation of pores inside. rupture is termed as
3. Segregation of aggregate a. Brittle
4. Decrease in strength b. Elastic
Select the correct answer using the coded c. Ductile
given below : d. Plastic
a. 1 only
b. 1 and 2
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 and 4
13. Match List I (material Characteristics)
with List II (Property of Concrete) and
select the correct answer : 17.
A rigid bar AC is supported by three rods
List I of same material and of equal diameter.
A. Water cement ratio The bar AC is initially horizontal. A force
B. Water content P is applied such that the bar AC continues
C. Minimum cement content to remain horizontal. Forces in each of the
D. Segregation shorter bars and in the longer bar are,
List II respectively.
1. Durability a. 0.4 P, 0.2 P
2. Compressive strength b. 0.3 P, 0.4 P
3. Stability of mix c. 0.2 P, 0.6 P
4. Workability d. 0.5 P , zero
A B C D 18. A member having length L, cross-sectional
a. 4 1 3 2 areas A and modulus of elasticity E is
b. 2 4 3 1 subjected to an axial load W. The strain
c. 4 1 2 3 energy stored in this member is
d. 2 4 1 3 a. WL2 / AE
14. Stress-strain curve of concrete is b. WL2 / 2AE
a. A perfect straight line up to failure c. W2L2 / 2AE
b. Straight lien up to 0.002% string value d. W2L / AE
and then parabolic up to failure 19. Elastic limit is the point
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a. Up to which stress is proportional to
strain
b. At which elongation takes place
without application of additional load c.
c. Up to which if the load is remoed,
original volume and shaped are
regained
d. At which the toughness is maximum
20. Match List I with list II and select the d.
correct answer : 23. Two co-axial springs are subjected to a
List I(Material) force of 1 kN. Spring constant of larger
diameter spring is 80 N/mm and that of
A. Isotropic
smaller diameter spring is 120 N/mm. The
B. Homogeneous
deformation in the spring combination will
C. Viscoelastic be equal to
D. Brittle a. 5 mm
List II b. 15 mm
1. Time dependent stress-strain relation c. 125/6 mm
2. No plastic zone d. 135/7 mm
3. Identical properties in all directions 24. Match List I (Method of Analysis) with
4. Similar properties throughout the List II(Unknown Being Evaluated) and
volume select the correct answer
A B C D List I
a. 3 1 2 4 A. Flexibility method
b. 4 1 2 3 B. Stiffness Method
c. 3 4 1 2 C. Kanis method
d. 4 3 1 2 D. Moment distribution method
21. As per the elastic theory of design, the List II
factor of safety is the ratio of 1. Degrees of freedom
a. Working stress to stress at the limit of 2. Redundant forces
proportionality
3. Rotations by incremental iteration and
b. Yield stress to working stress unknown sways of plane frames
c. Ultimate stress to working stress 4. Displacement rotations and sways of
d. Ultimate load to load at yield plane frames
22. The shear stress distribution for a A B C D
rectangular section under the action of a. 2 1 4 3
shear force S is shown below. The
b. 3 4 1 2
rectangular section is bd. Select the
c. 2 4 1 3
correct shear stress distribution form the
d. 3 1 4 2
following:
25. The principal strains at a point are + 800 
10–6 cm/cm, +400  10–6 cm/cm and –
1200  10–6 cm/cm. The volumetric strain
is equal to
a. + 1200  10–6 cm/cm
a.
b. + 800  10–6 cm/cm
c. – 1200  10–6 cm/cm
d. zero
26. In a riveted joint, failure will occur due to
b. which one of the following ?
a. Shear failure of rivet
b. Bearing failure of rivet
c. Tearing failure of plate
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d. Minimum load value of shearing , 32. If the shear force diagram of a simply
bearing or tearing failure supported beam is parabolic, then he load
27. The radius of Mohr’s circle is zero when on the beam is
the state of stress is such that a. Uniformly distributed load
a. Shear stress is zero b. Concentrated load at mid span
b. There is pure shear c. External moment acting at mid span
c. There is not shear stress but identical d. Linearly varying distributed load
direct stresses in two mutually e.
perpendicular directions 33. For determining the deflection y of a
d. There is no shear stress but equal direct loaded beam at a distance x by Macaulay’
stresses, opposite in nature, in two method, which one or more of the
mutually perpendicular directions following is/are used ?
28. 1. The basic difference equation for
deflection El (d2y / dx2) = –M.
Where El is the flexural rigidity of the
beam, M is the bending moment
2. Successive integration of the
differential equation given in 1.
3. Known positions of zero slope and
zero deflection in the beam.
The above figure shows the stress
condition of an element. The principal Select the correct answer using the codes
stresses are given below :
a. 1 only
a.  2 
b. 1 and 2
b.  /2
c. 3 only
c.  
d. 1, 2 and 3
d.  2/3
29. If the principal stresses at a point in a
stressed body are 150 kN/m2 tensile and 50
kN/m2 compressive, then maximum shear
stress at this point will be
a. 100 kN/m2
b. 150 kN/m2
34.
c. 200 kN/m2 The above figure shows the cross-section
d. 250 kN/m2 of a fitched beam consisting of a steel
30. In the Mohr’s circle for strains, radius of plate sandwiched between two wooden
Mohr’s circle givens the blocks. The second moment of area of the
a. Minimum value of normal strain composite beam about the neutral axis XX
b. Maximum value of normal strain is
c. Maximum value of shear stain bh 3 mth 3
d. Half of maximum value of shear strain a. +
12 12
31. A thin cylindrical tube with closed ends is
bh t(mh)3
3
subjected to b. +
1. Longitudinal stress 1 = 14 N/mm2 12 12
3
2. Hoop stress 2 = 2 N/mm2 h
c. (b+t)
3. Shearing stress  = 8 N/mm2 12
3
Then the maximum shearing stress is bh
d.
a. 14 N/mm2 12
b. 12 N/mm2 (where m is modular ratio of steel and
c. 10 N/mm2 wood )
d. 8 N/mm2
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35. Match list I(End conditions of Columns) d. 2, 3 and 4
with List II(Effective Length, l3) and select
List I
A. Both ends fixed
B. Both ends hinged
C. One end fixed, other free
D. One end fixed, other hinged
List II
1. le = 2 l
2. le = l / 2
39.
3. le = l / 2 A pin jointed truss is loaded as shown in
4. le = l the above figure match List I with list II
where l is the length & le is the effective and select the correct answer :
length of the column) List I (member)
A B C D A. Member AB
a. 2 4 1 2 B. Member AC
b. 3 1 2 4 C. Member BD
c. 2 4 3 1 D. Member CD
d. 3 4 1 2 List II (Force induced)
36. A symmetrical parabolic arch of span l an 1. 30 kN
dries h is hinged at both the supports. The 2. 50 kN
arch carries a uniformly distributed load of 3. 0
/unit length along the entire span. 4. 10 kN
Which one of the following is correctly A B C D
matched ?
a. 3 2 1 4
a. Horizontal thrust : l2 / 8h b. 4 3 2 1
b. Bending moment at crown : l2 / 8 c. 3 4 2 1
c. Radial shear at springing : d. 4 3 1 2
[(l2 / 2) –(l2 / 8h)]
d. Vertical reaction at supports : l
37. A three-hinged semi-circular arch of radius
R carries on the arch at the hinge would be
a. W / 2
b. W / 2
c. 2/3 W
d. 4/3 W/ 40.
Member(s) of the frame shown above
38. From consideration of earthquake loading
which carries/carry zero force is/are
and lateral stability of tall building, which
of the following measures are taken? a. EC only
1. Minimize gravity loads b. EC and AB
2. Add masses at floor levels. c. EC and AC
3. ensure ductility at the location s of d. EC, AC and AB
maximum moments
4. provide shear walls
5. Provide stilt (ground) storey
given below :
a. 1 and 5 41.
b. 2, 3 and 5 What is the force in the member CE of a
c. 1, 3 and 4 cantilever truss shown in the above figure?
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a. P(tensile)
b. P(compression)
c. 2 P(tensile)
d. zero
42. A solid circular shaft of diameter d is
subjected to a twisting moment T. The
maximum shear stress in the shaft is 48.
A portal frame with all member s having
proportional to
the same El, has one end fixed and the
a. d2 other hinged. Due to side-sway, the ratio
b. d of fixed end moments MBA / MCD would
c. 1/d2 be
d. 1/d3 a. 1 : 1
43. When a cantilever shaft of brittle material b. 1 : 2
is subjected to a clockwise twisting c. 1 : 3
moment at the free end, the possible crack d. 2 : 1
propagation will be
49.
a. 45o clockwise with respective to the
axis of shaft
b. 45o anticlockwise with respective to
the axis of shaft
c. Perpendicular to the axis Which one of the following diagrams
d. Parallel to the axis represents the influence line for force in
44. For a solid circular section of diameter d, the member DG ?
the stress in a column will be compressive a.
only if the eccentricity of the line of action
of the compressive force is within b.
a. d/4
b. d/8 c.
c. d/6
d. d/16
45. The stresses in concrete in a reinforced d.
50. Match List I (Assumption/Theorem) with
concrete element under sustained load due
list II(Analysis and strength) an select the
to creep
correct answer :
a. Increase with time
List I
b. Decrease with time
A. Plane section remains plane before and
c. Remain unchanged after bending deformations
d. Fluctuate B. Elasticity and small deformations
46. Fro the analysis of thick cylinders, the C. Uniqueness theorem
theory applicable is
D. Large deformations
a. Lame’s theory
List II
b. Rankine’s theory
1. Elastic analysis and superposition
c. Poisson’s theory
2. Strain distribution and plastic moment
d. Courbon’s theory of resistance
47. A thin hollow cylinder of diameter d, 3. Non-linear analysis and buckling load
length l and thickness t is subjected to an
4. Collapse load
internal pressure p. The hoop stress in the
A B C D
cylinder is
a. 1 2 3 4
a. pd / 8t
b. 2 1 4 3
b. pd / 4t
c. 1 2 4 3
c. pd / 2t
d. 2 1 3 4
d. pd / t
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51. At the location of the plastic hinge of a b. 75 N/mm2
deformed structure c. 150 N/mm2
a. Curvature is infinite d. 750 N/mm2
b. Radius of curvature is infinite 57. The centre to centre maximum distance
c. moment is infinite between bolts in tension member of
d. Flexural stress is infinite thickness 10 mm is
52. The order of elongation which a specimen a. 200 mm
of mild steel under goes before fracture is b. 160 mm
a. 0.1% c. 120 mm
b. 1% d. 100 mm
c. 10% 58. The type of stress induced in the
d. 100% foundation bolts fixing a column to its
53. An electric pole 5 m high is fixed into the footing is
foundation. It carries a wire at the top and a. Pure compression
is free to move sideways. The effective b. Bearing
length of the pole is c. Pure tension
a. 3.25 m d. Bending
b. 4.0 m 59. Which of the following does not describe a
c. 5.0 m weld type ?
d. 10.0 m a. Butt
54. Match List I with list II and select the b. Plug
correct answer : c. Zig-Zag
List I(Failure Mode) d. Lap
A. Shear failure of plates 60. A plate used for connecting two or more
B. Bearing failure of plates structural members intersecting each other
C. Tearing failure of plate is termed as
D. Splitting failure of plate a. Template
List II(Reason) b. Base plate
1. Insufficient edge distance c. Gusset plate
2. Strength of plate is less than that of the d. Shoe plate
rivets 61. In the context of the ultimate load theory
A B C D for steel, the stress-strain curve for steel is
a. 1 1 2 1 idealized as
b. 2 1 2 1 a. A single straight line
c. 1 2 1 2 b. Bi-linear
d. 1 1 1 2 c. A quadratic parabola
55. Design of a sample element is steel used d. A circular arc
one of more of the following : 62. Consider the following statements about
1. Net area of cross-section shape factor :
2. Full area of cross-section. 1. It indicates the increase of strength of a
3. Buckling criterion. section due to plastic action over
4. Crushing (or yielding) criterion. elastic strength.
Which of the above criteria are valid for 2. It is a ratio of plastic moment of
the design of a column ? resistance to yield point moment of
a. 1 and 3 resistance.
b. 2 and 4 3. Beam sections which have bulk of area
near neutral axis will have a low shape
c. 2, 3 and 4
factor.
d. 1, 3 and 4
56. The working stress for structural steel in
a. 1, 2 and 3
tension is of the order of
b. 1 and 3
a. 15 N/mm2
8 of 14
c. 1 and 2 67. For a compresion member having the same
d. 2 and 3 effective length about any cross-sectional
63. Which of the following conditions are to axial, the most preferred section from the
be satisfied by an ideal plastic material ? point of view of strength is
1. It should follow Hooke’s law up to the a. A box
limit of proportionality. b. An I-section
2. Strains up to the strain hardening in c. A circular tube
tension and compression are to be the d. A single angle
same. 68. A trapezoidal combined footing for two
3. The material property should be axially loaded columns is provided when
different in tension and compression. 1. Width of the footing near the heavier
4. The values of yield stress in tension an column is restricted.
compression should be different. 2. Length of the footing is restricted.
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Projections of the footing beyond the
given below : heavier columns are restricted.
a. 1 and 2 Select the correct answer using the codes
b. 1 and 4 given below :
c. 2 and 3 a. 1 and 2
d. 2, 3 and 4 b. 1 and 3
64. c. 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3
69. In case of two-way slab, the deflection of
the slab is
a. Primarily a function of the long span
b. Primarily a function of the short span
c. Independent of the span, long or short
For a fixed beam shown above, it has been d. Mostly long span but sometimes short
decided to weld coverplates at ends so that span
moment capacity doubles at the ends. If 70.
maximum advantage has to be derived, the
length x of the plate should be
a. l / 2
b. l / 3
c. l / 4
d. l / 6
65. A steel column in a multi-storeyed
building carries an axial load of 125 N. It
is built up of 2 ISMC 350 channels A rectangular reinforced concrete footing
connected by lacing. The lacing carries a is to be designed to support a column
load of which transfers axial load and uniaxial
a. 125 N moment to the footing as shown in the
b. 12.5 N above figure. The footing is to be designed
c. 3.125 N to have uniform upward soil pressure. The
d. zero dimensions L1 and L2 (L = L1 + L2) of the
66. A structure has two degrees of footing would be
indeterminacy. The number of plastic a. L1 = L2
hinges that would be formed at complete b. L1 > L2
collapse is c. L1 < L2
a. 0 d. L1 = ½ L2
b. 1 71. A reinforced concrete beam of 10 m
c. 2 effective span and 1 m effective depth is
d. 3 supported on 500 mm  500 m columns. If
9 of 14
the total uniformly distributed load on the d. Generally less but sometimes more
beam is 10 MN/m, the design shear force depending upon the magnitude of UDL
for the beam is 76. The critical section for two-way shear of
a. 50 MN footing is at the
b. 47.5 MN a. Face of the column
c. 37.5 MN b. Distance d from the column face
d. 43 MN c. Distance d/2 from the column face
72. Match List I with List II and select the d. Distance 2d from the column face
correct answer : 77. In pre-stressed concrete, high grade
List I concrete is used for
A. Loss of pre-stress a. Controlling the pre-stress loss
B. End block b. Having concrete of low ductility
C. Transmission length c. Having concrete of high brittleness
D. Partially pre-stressed structures d. Having low creep
List II 78.
1. Class 3
2. Predetermined members
3. Bursting tension
4. Elastic shortening
A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 4 3 2 1
73. In pre-tensioning process of pre-stressing,
the tendons are
a. Bonded to the concrete
b. Partially bonded to the concrete
c. Not bonded to the concrete
d. Generally bonded but sometimes
remain unbounded to the concrete
74. A reinforced concrete beam is to be post-
A reinforced concrete rectangular slab is
tensioned is such a way that no tensile
built-in (fixed) on three edges and the
stress develops at the time of post-
other edge is free. The possible yield line
tensioning. The distance of the tendon
patterns for the slab subjected to a
from the nearest face must be
uniformly distributed load and reinforced
a. Between d/5 and d/4 isotropically are shown above as 1, 2, 3
b. < d/6 and 4.
c. Between d/4 and d/3 Which of these correctly exhibits the yield
d. > d/3 line pattern ?
(where d is the depth of the beam) a. 1 or 3
75. A simply supported RC beam carries UDL b. 2 or 3
and is referred to as beam A. A similar c. 1 or 2
beam is pre-stressed and carries the same d. 3 or 4
UDL as the beam A. This beam is referred
79.
to as beam B. The mid-span deflection of
beam A will be
a. More than that of beam B
b. Less than that of beam B
c. The same as that of beam B
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The bending moment for which the beam eccentricity e below the centroidal axis. If
shown above is to be designed is the magnitude of prestressing force is P
a. 200 kNm and flexural rigidity of beam is El, the
b. 800 kNm maximum central deflection of the beam is
c. 600 kNm PeL2
a. (downwards)
d. 640 kNm 8 El
80. A reinforced concrete beam is subjected to PeL2
the following bending moments : b. (upwards)
48 El
Dead load 20 kNm
Live load 30 kNm PeL2
c. (downwards)
Seismic load 10 kNm 8 El
The design bending moment for limit state PeL2
d. (upwards)
of collapse is 8 El
a. 60 kNm 85. Match List I with List II and select the
b. 75 kNm correct answer :
c. 72 kNm List I
d. 80 kNm A. Service ability
81. In the Limit state design of pre-stressed B. Shear key
concrete structure, the strain distribution is C. Shrinkage
assumed to be D. Concrete spalling
a. Linear List II
b. Non-linear 1. Sliding
c. Parabolic 2. deflection
d. Parabolic and rectangular 3. Cracking
82. Consider the following statements : 4. Corrosion
Under-reinforced concrete flexural A B C D
members a. 1 3 4 2
1. are deeper b. 2 1 3 4
2. are stiffer c. 1 3 2 4
3. can undergo larger deflection d. 2 1 4 3
Which of these statements is/are correct ? 86. Cost of required materials for construction
a. 1, 2 and 3 has been estimated by contractor and an
b. 1 and 2 extract thereof indicates Rs. 80,000 for
c. 2 only month-1, Rs. 1,20,000 for month-2, Rs.
d. 1 and 3 1,00,000 for month-3 and Rs. 1,40,000 for
83. Long term elastic modulus in terms of month-4. He has arranged with suppliers to
creep coefficient () an 28-day pay 40% immediately on purchase, 40%
characteristic strength (fck) is given by one month later and balance 20% two
months later. His payment towards cost of
5000 f ck
a. MPa material in month-3 will exceed that in
1+θ month 4 by
50000 f ck a. Rs. 20,000
b. MPa
1+θ b. Rs. 16,000
5000 f ck c. Rs. 12,000
c. MPa d. Rs. 8,000
1+ θ
87. The vibrators are used for
5000 f ck a. Compacting concrete
d. MPa
1+θ b. Proper mixing of concrete
84. A simply supported post-tensioned pre- c. Removing excess water from concrete
stressed concrete beam of span L is pre- d. Obtaining smooth surface
stressed by a straight tendon at a uniform
11 of 14
88. Match List I(Material Use din Individual a. 3 1 4 2
Batching of Concrete) with List b. 2 4 1 3
II(tolerance When Batch Weight Exceeds c. 3 4 1 2
30% of Scale Capacity) and select the d. 2 1 4 3
correct answer : 91. Match List I (equipment) with list
List I II(Operation) and select he correct answer:
A. Cement List I
B. Water A. Powel shovel
C. Aggregates B. Dragline
D. Admixtures C. Backhoe
List II D. Clamshell
1.  0.3% of scale capacity List II
2.  1% of scale capacity 1. Can excavate vertically
3.  2% of scale capacity 2. Can excavate underwater
4.  3% of scale capacity 3. has better control because of the rigid
A B C D dipper stick
a. 1 2 3 4 4. Can operate while standing on firm
b. 1 2 4 3 ground and the bucket is pulled
c. 3 4 1 2 towards the machine
d. 4 3 1 2 A B C D
89. Which one of the following statements is a. 3 2 4 1
correct ? b. 3 2 1 4
a. Grade resistance is positive when the c. 2 3 1 4
unit travels down grade and negative d. 2 3 4 1
when travelling upgrade. 92. The number of trips of a dumper per hour
b. Grade resistance depends on the type is given by
of equipment or the haul surface and is 60 minutes
a.
in addition to rolling resistance Actual or effective cycle time in minutes
c. Grad resistance acts against the total 60 minutes
weight of both wheel and track type b.
units Ideal cycle time in minutes
d. Grade resistance for units moving on 60 minutes
c.
the road surface is greater than grade Ideal running time + Loss time in minutes
resistance for units moving on rails 60 minutes
90. Match List I (Type of Compactor) with d.
Runnig time in minutes
List II (Soil Best Suited) and select the
correct answer : 93. In compaction of clayey-soils using sheep-
foot roller, compaction is achieved by
List I
a. Static action
A. Sheep’s foot compactor
b. Vibration action
B. Steel tandem compactor with 2 or 3
axles c. Kneading action
C. Steel drum d. Impact action
D. Pneumatic with large tyre 94. The working range of a crane is limited
horizontally for maximum lift only by
List II
a. Boom length
1. Granular or granular plastic
b. Length of hoist cable
2. Sandy silts, sandy clays, gravelly sand
and clays with few fines c. Length of jib
3. Clay, silts clay, gravel with clay binder d. Counter weight
4. Sandy silts, most granular material 95. Which one of the following types of crane
with come clay binder is used for high rise buildings ?
A B C D a. Traveller crane
b. Tower crane
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c. Overhead gantry crane
d. Derric crane
96. A certain concreting job can be started
only when all three groups
1. measuring and loading
2. operating the machine, and 99.
3. evacuating and transporting A-O-A network is suggested as shown
are in potion. These local groups can be above. The number of
credited each with only a chance of 0.7 errors/incompatibilities in this network is
being on time, and the 0.3 chance of being a. 1
late, each independently of the other. What b. 2
are the chances of the starting of the job c. 3
getting delayed on any day due to non-
d. 4
arrival of any one group on time ?
100. Which one of the following project
a. 0.021 management techniques is deterministic in
b. 0.147 nature ?
c. 0.343 a. CPM
d. 0.441 b. PERT
97. Three activities F, G and H are to be c. GERT
performed in the said sequence and for the
d. LCES
whole stretch of the project need 15, 21
101. The probabilistic time is
and 27 days respectively. If a ladder
network is adopted with on-third of each t + tp + tn
a. 0
activity as the laddered activity, the saving 3
in total project time in days will be t + t p + 4t n
a. 15 b. 0
6
b. 18 t + 4t p + t n
c. 21 c. 0
d. 24 6
98. Match list I (Inputs Into Networks) with t + 2t p + 4t n
d. 0
List II(Basis) and select the correct 4
answer: where t0 = Optimistic time
List I tp = Pessimistic time
A. Activity Time tn = Most likely time
B. PERT durations 102. A serious limitation of independencies
C. WBS between various activities is generally
D. interfaces observed in
List II a. Bar charts
1. Availability of resources is not b. Milestone charts
discussed c. Network analysis
2. Senior management’s involvement is d. Job layouts
assumed 103. In time-cost analysis, the cost slope Cs is
3. Total cost of each activity is Cc  C n
considered a.
tc  tn
4. Needed supervisory inputs are
Cc  C n
considered b.
A B C D tn  tc
a. 3 1 4 2 tc  tn
c.
b. 3 1 2 4 Cc  C n
c. 4 2 1 3 C n  Cc
d. 4 2 3 1 d.
2  tn  tc 
13 of 14
where Cc = Crash cost a. Both A and R are true and R is the
Cn = Normal cost correct explanation of A
tc = Crash time b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
tn = Normal time the correct explanation of A
104. Sinking fund method is useful in c. A is true but R is false
a. Depreciation d. A is false but R is true
b. Obsolescence 109. Assertion (A) : Addition of 5% to 6% of
c. Liquidation moisture content by weight increases the
d. Scrap value volume of dry sand from 18% to 38%.
105. Assertion (A) : Timbers used for Reason (R) : Bulking of sand is caused due
engineering construction are derived from to surface moisture on sand particles.
deciduous trees. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
Reason (R) : Deciduous trees yield hard correct explanation of A
wood while conifers yield soft wood. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
a. Both A and R are true and R is the the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT d. A is false but R is true
the correct explanation of A 110. Assertion (A) : Normal stress of one nature
c. A is true but R is false (compressive or tensile) acting along one
d. A is false but R is true of the three orthogonal axes of a member
106. Assertion (A) : Dry rot is a disease in will produce strains of the same nature in
wood caused by spores germinating in its direction and strains of opposite nature
wood cells. along the other two directions.
Reason (R) : Decomposition and Reason (R) : Sum of the strains along the
putrefaction of tissues of a standing tree three orthogonal axes equals volumetric
are indication of dry rot. strain.
107. Assertion (A) : The greater the surface 111. Assertion (A) : A horizontal beam hinged
area of a given volume of cement the at one end and freely supported at the
greater the hydration. other end will be in static equilibrium
under inclined load applied on it.
Reason (R) : The reaction between the
water and cement starts from the surface of Reason (R) : The hinged end will offer
the cement particles. resistance to the horizontal component of
the applied force.
correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are true and R is the
the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
108. Assertion (A) : A low C3A cement
generates less heat and develops higher 112. Assertion (A) : In a circular masonry
ultimate strength. column it is desirable to restrict the
resultant load within the middle core of
Reason (R) : During setting and hardening,
one fourth the area of the column section.
the amount of lime liberated appears to be
about 15 to 20 per cent by weight of Reason (R) : It is desirable not to allow
cement. any tension in masonry structures.
14 of 14
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 117. Assertion (A) : Web crippling occurs at a
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT section where heavy vertical load is
the correct explanation of A applied.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : There is stress concentration
d. A is false but R is true in the vicinity of the load.
113. Assertion (A) : Any arch cannot a. Both A and R are true and R is the
practically be built to the shape of the correct explanation of A
theoretical arch. b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT
Reason (R) : The shape of the theoretical the correct explanation of A
arch is affected by loads moving on it. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and R are true and R is the d. A is false but R is true
correct explanation of A 118. Assertion (A) : All columns shall be
b. Both A and R are true but R is NOT designed for a minimum eccentricity of
the correct explanation of A unsupported length of column divided by
c. A is true but R is false 500, plus lateral dimension divided by 30
d. A is false but R is true subject to a minimum of 20 mm.
114. Assertion (A) : Lateral support to a beam Reason (R) : Assertion refers to the design
is provided by a concrete slab resting over of axially loaded column and it may not be
the top flange of a beam. possible to build a perfectly axially loaded
Reason (R) : Shear connectors are needed column in practice.
to provide continuous lateral support. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true 119. Assertion (A) : Under working loads, in a
115. Assertion (A) : Compared to riveted plate reinforced concrete beam the lever arm
girders, in welded plate girders a thicker remains unchanged.
web must be used. Reason (R) : As the bending moment
Reason (R) : Omission of flange angles in increases, the total compressive force and
creases the clear depth of the web and we tensile force are assumed to increase in
thickness is controlled by buckling direct proportion.
criterion. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
d. A is false but R is true 120. Assertion (A) : Rubber tyred equipment
116. Assertion (A) : In double-laced system of a pull better on smooth, hard surfaces while
built-up column, cross member crawlers work better on firm earth.
perpendicular to the longitudinal axis of Reason (R) : Bulldozers mounted on
the column is not used. wheels are employed on earth construction
Reason (R) : Lacing bars are forced to for better performance.
share the axial load on the strut. a. Both A and R are true and R is the
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2003 1 of 16
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. Which one of the following statements is 3. In analyzing buoyancy of a floating
correct? body it is assumed that the resultant
a. Dynamic viscosity of water is nearly vertical force passes through centre of
50 times that of air pressure.
b. Kinematic viscosity of water is 30 4. In a free-body diagram of a floating
times that of air body summation of all horizontal
c. Water in soil is able to rise a forces is taken as zero.
considerable distance above the Which of these statements are correct?
groundwater table due to viscosity a. 1, 3 and 4
d. Vapour pressure of a liquid is inversely b. 1, 2 and 4
proportional to the temperature c. 1, 2 and 3
2. Which of the following fluids can be d. 2, 3 and 4
classified as non-Newtonian? 5. Consider the following statements related
1. Kerosene oil to concept of continuity equation and the
2. Diesel oil concept of control volume in deriving the
3. Human blood equation
4. Toothpaste 1. Continuity equation relates velocity
5. Water component and density of the fluid t a
point in a fluid flow.
Select -the correct answer using the codes
given below: 2. Continuity equation assumes that no
void occurs in the fluid and fluid mass
a. 1 and2 is neither created nor destroyed.
b. 3and,4 3. The shape of control volume for
c. 2 and 5 deriving the equation of continuity is
d. 1 and 5 assumed to be a parallelepiped.
3. As the depth of immersion of a vertical 4. For incompressible fluids the equation
plane surface increases, the location of of continuity does not contain the
centre of pressure• viscosity terms.
a. Falls closer to the centre of gravity of Which of these statements are correct?
the area a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. Moves away from the centre of gravity b. 1 and 2
of the area c. 2, 3 and 4
c. Ultimately coincides with the centre of d. 1 and 4
gravity of the area
6. Match List 1 (Equation / Principle) with:
d. Falls much below the centre of gravity List II (Property) and the select the correct
of the area answer :
4. Consider the following statements related List I
to buoyancy in fluid statics :
A. Energy equation
1. Principle of buoyancy is applicable
both to floating bodies and to. B. Continuity equation
submerged bodies. C. Moment of momentum
2. Archimedes formulated the first theory D. Impulse-momentum principle
of buoyancy. List II
2 of 16
1. Force on a moving vane Which of these parameters exist both in
2. Lawn sprinkler rotational and irrotational flows ?
3. Pressure at a point in a pipeline a. 1 and 2
4. Flow at two sections of a tapering pipe b. 2 and 3
A B C D c. 1 and 3
a. 4 3 2 1 d. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 4 1 2 11. Match List I with List II and select the
c. 4 3 1 2 correct answer :
d. 3 4 2 1 List I
7. When a body moves through still water at A. The type of vortex flow in which no
a constant velocity of 4.5 m/s, the velocity external torque rotates the fluid mass
of water at 0.8 m ahead of the nose of the B. Flow of liquid inside the impeller of a
body is 3.0 m/s. What will be the centrifugal pump
difference in pressure between the nose C. Free surface of forced vortex flow
and the point 0.8 m ahead of it? D. In forced vortex, the rise of liquid level
a. 875 N/m2 at ends
b. 1000 N/m2 List II
c. 1125 N/m2 1. The fall of liquid axis of rotation
d. 1250 N/m2 2. Free vortex flow
8. Which one of the following statements is 3. Parabolic
not 4. Forced vortex flow
a. Cavitation forms where the local A B C D
pressure drops up to the vapour a. 4 2 3 1
pressure condition due to increase in
local velocity b. 2 4 3 1
b. Cavitation takes place in turbine c. 4 2 1 3
blades, runners of pumps, spillways d. 2 4 1 3
where local velocity increases 12. A Cipolletti weir discharges water with the
considerably head of water over the crest being 250
c. Cavitation may be prevented by mm. If the head due to velocity of
maintaining the ambient pressure approach is 0.01 m, what will be the
relatively higher at probable points of excess percentage of flow, when corrected
occurrence by raising their levels for velocity of approach as compared to
d. Boundaries likely to be affected by when not so corrected ?
cavitation can be protected against a. 3.2%
pitting by covering. it with tough b. 4.2%
materials like stainless steel or rubber c. 5.3%
9. The stream function for a two-dimensional d. 6.3%
flow is given by  = 2xy. The resultant 13. Consider the following statements related
velocity at a paint P (2, 3) is to a horizontal venturimetre :
a. 8.45 units/s 1. The velocity of flow in the main pipe
b. 7.21 units/s is greater and the pressure is lesser
c. 6.44 units/s than that at the throat section.
d. 5.18 units/s 2. The velocity of flow in the main pipe
10. Consider the following parameters related is lower and the pressure is larger than
to fluid flow: that at the throat section.
1. Vorticity 3. The pressure difference between the
main pipe and throat section is
2. Velocity Potential
positive.
3. Stream Function
3 of 16
4. The pressure difference between the a. Continuity principle demands that flow
main pipe and throat section is into a network junction is equal to the
negative. flow out of it
Which of these statements are not correct ? b. Momentum equation must be satisfied
a. 1 and 4 so that the force in each loop is
b. 1 and 2 balanced
c. 2 and 4 c. Darcy-Weisbach head loss equation is
to be used in computing head loss in
d. 3 and 4 elementary circuits. The equation is of
14. The distorted models used in the hydraulic the form hL = kQn.
studies are those which
d. HL = KQn must be equated to zero.
a. Have exaggeration of the vertical scale If not, a flow correction factor Q is to
and horizontal scale be made for arriving at a solution.
b. Are not geometrically similar to the 18. Which one of the following phenomena in
prototypes a pipe flow is termed as water hammer?
c. Have same vertical and horizontal a. The sudden rise of pressure in a long
scale as that of the prototypes pipe due to sudden closure of valve
d. Have same Froude Number as that for b. The rise of a pressure in a pipe flow
the prototypes due to gradual closure of valve
15. A thin smooth plate 1 m wide and 2 m c. The rise of negative pressure
long is towed water at a velocity of 2 m/s.
d. The zero pressure in a pipe flow
Assuming that boundary laminar
(kinematic viscosity = 10–6 m2/s), then 19. The moment correction factor for a flow
drag sides of the plate is through open channel is given by
1
2 
a. 5.3 N a.  2 dA
b. 26.6 N AV A
c. 53 N 1
AV A
b.  2 dA
d. 72.5 N
16. Match List I with List Il and select the 1 2
A A
correct answer: c.  dA
List I
1
2 
A. Flow development d.  2 dA
B. Pipe network AV A
C. Water hammer 20. The steps involved in the procedure of
D. Friction loss computing length of backwater curves are
given below with usual notations :
List II
1. Insert all H values and average value
1. Surge tank of slope in the differential equation.
2. Entrance length 2. Assume a new depth of flow y for the
3. Darcy-Weisbach equation other end of the reach and insert
4. Hardy-Cross method corresponding values of A, P, v, R,
A B C D v2/2g, H and S.
a. 2 4 1 3 3. Determine or assume the initial
b. 4 2 3 1 conditions of depth, channel
characteristics and discharge.
c. 2 4 3 1
4. Compute average S value and the
d. 4 2 1 3
change in specific head H.
17. Which one following conditions must be
5. Repeat the process for each reach
satisfied in the Hardy-Cross analysis of
adding resulting L values to obtain
pipe network ?
4 of 16
total required distance L until the b. A regulating body of water in the form
depth or distance desired is reached. of relatively small amount of run-off to
The correct sequence of these steps is regulate flow variation in daily or
weekly power requirements
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
c. Excess run-off to last for years
b. 3, 1, 5, 2, 4
d. Excess run-off for a f hours only
c. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
25. The specific speed of a turbine under a
d. 1, 4, 5, 2, 3
head of 150 m to develop 200 HP while
21. Consider the following statements which running at 300 r.p.m. is
relates to different types of water surface
a. 10 — 35
profiles. Curve types conform to usual
classifications yc and y0 (critical and b. 35 — 60
normal depths) c. 60 — 300
1. Type-3 curves lie between y and y0. d. 300 — 1000
2. All curves where y < cy0 are 26. The moving average of annual
unaffected upstream from any precipitation record is carried out to
disturbance. determine
3. All curves where y > y0 are influenced a. Trend
by downstream disturbances. b. Annual mean
4. All curves approaching the y0 line c. Extreme annual variation
approach it asymtotically except for C d. Extreme seasonal variation
curve where y = y0.
27. Match List I (Hydrological Terms) with
Which of these statements are correct ? List II (Relationship/Nature of Curve), and
a. 1, 2, 3 and4 select the correct answer:
b. 1,3and4 List I
c. 2, 3 and 4 A. Theissen Polygon
d. 1 and 2 B. Mass Curve
22. The approximate discharge over a 4 m C. Hyetograph
long rectangular weir (with suppressed end D. DAD curve
contractions) with head over the crest as
List II
0.36 m is
1. Average depth of rainfall over an area
a. 4.2 litres/s
2. Relationship of rainfall intensity and
b. 2.4 m3/s
time
c. 6.1 litres/s
3. Relationship of accumulated rainfall
d. 1.6 m3/s and time
23. Flow duration curve is a plot of 4. Relationship of river run-off and time
a. Flow ‘against its time of occurrence in 5. Always a falling curve
chronological order
A B C D
b. Flow in ascending order against
a. 1 3 2 5
percentage time in chronological order
b. 1 5 3 2
c. Flow that equalled or exceeded against
percentage time c. 4 3 2 5
d. Flow against duration of time for d. 4 5 3 2
which it is sustained 28. Match List I (Type of Precipitation) with
24. Pondage in a hydropower station is List II (Principal Causes) and select the
defined as correct answer :
a. Impounding of considerable amount of List I
excess water during seasons of surplus A. Convective
flow B. Cyclonic
5 of 16
C. Frontal Which of these statements are correct ?
D. Orographic a. 1, 2 and 3
List II b. 1 and 4
1. Atmospheric disturbance c. 2, 3 and 4
2. Mountain barrier d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Pressure difference 33. Match List I (Floods) with list II
4. Temperature difference (Parameters) and select the correct answer:
5. Warm and cold air masses List I
A B C D A. Standard Project Flood (SPF)
a. 1 4 5 2 B. Maximum Probable Flood (MPF)
b. 4 3 5 2 C. Design Flood
c. 1 4 2 5 D. Maximum Flood
d. 4 3 2 5 List II
29. Which one of the following characteristics 1. Includes catastrophic floods
describes a watershed system in system’s 2. Includes floods of severe conditions
parlance ? 3. Peak flow obtained from observed data
a. Linear 4. Flood of desired recurrence interval
b. Non-linear A B C D
c. Linear and time-invariant a. 2 1 4 3
d. Non-linear and time-variant b. 1 2 3 4
30. A 6-hour storm with hourly intensities of c. 2 1 3 4
7, 18, 25, 12, 10 and 3 mm per hour d. 1 2 4 3
produced a run-off of 33 mm. Then the -
34. Which of the following pairs are correctly
index is
matched?
a. 7 mm/h
1. Silt factor : Average size of silt
b. 3 mm/h particles
c. 10 mm/h 2. Silt load : Volume of suspended
d. 8 mm/h sediments flowing with water in unit
31. A catchment area of 90 hectares has a run- time
off coefficient of 0.4. A storm of duration 3. Silt charge : Weight of silt per unit
larger than the time of concentration of the volume of water
catchment and of intensity 4.5 cm/hr 4. Silt grade : Gradation between
creates a peak discharge rate of different silt particles
a. 11.3 m3/s Select the correct answer using the codes
b. 0.45 m3/s given below
c. 450 m3/s a. 1 and 4
d. 4.5 m3/s b. 3 and 4
32. Consider the following statements: c. 2 and 3
1. Time-area histogram method aims at d. 1 and 2
developing an IUH. 35. Consider the following statements
2. lsochrone is a line joining equal The function of a cut-off in an earth dam is
rainfall on a map. to
3. Linear reservoir is a reservoir having 1. Reduce uplift pressures on the dam
straight boundaries.
2. Prevent undermining of foundation
4. Linear channel is a fictitious channel in
3. Reduce loss of stored water
which an inflow hydrograph passes
through with only translation and no 4. Support the dam
attenuation. Which of these statements are correct ?
6 of 16
a. 1 and 3 b. Soil conservation structure
b. 2 and 4 c. River training structure
c. 2 and 3 d. Water storage structure
d. 3 and 4 40. Match List I (Well Hydraulics Parameters)
36. Match List I (Theory) with List with List II (Definition) and select the
II(Propounded By) and select the correct correct answer
answer : List I
List I A. Specific yield
A. Exit gradient B. Safe yield
B. Alluvial canal C. Specific capacity
C. Unit hydrograph D. Field capacity
D. Boundary layer List II
List II 1. Discharge per unit drawdown of well
1. G. Lacey 2. Same as specific retention
2. L. K. Sherman 3. Measure of water that can be removed
3. A. N. Khosla by pumping
4. C. Inglis 4. Limit of withdrawal from well without
5. T. V. Karman depletion of the aquifer
6. L. Prandtl 5. Water-bearing capacity of aquifer
A B C D A B C D
a. 1 3 2 6 a. 4 3 2 5
b. 6 2 3 5 b. 3 4 1 2
c. 3 1 2 6 c. 4 3 1 2
d. 3 1 4 2 d. 3 4 2 5
37. The ideal condition for energy dissipation 41. Consider the following statements:
in the design of spillways is the one when A well development
the tail water rating curve 1. involves reversal of flow through the
a. Lies above jump rating curve at all well screen
discharges 2. increases permeability towards the
b. Coincides with the jump rating curve well
at all discharges 3. decreases permeability towards the
c. Lies below jump rating curve at all well
discharges 4. is continued till sand/silt free water is
d. Lies either above or below the jump pumped out
rating curve depending upon discharge Which of these statements is/are correct?
38. The worst condition of uplift on the flood a. 1, 3 and 4
of a siphon aqueduct occurs when there is b. 1, 2 and 4
a. High flood flow in the drainage with c. 3 only
canal dry d. 1 and 4
b. Full supply flow in the canal with 42. Leaching s a process
drainage dry
a. By which alkali salts present in the soil
c. High flood flow in the drainage with are dissolved and drained away
canal running full
b. By which alkali salts in soil come up
d. Water tube is at drainage bed and canal with water
is dry
c. Of draining excess water of irrigation
39. A check dam is a
d. Which controls waterlogging
a. Flood control structure
7 of 16
43. On which of the following factors, does 2. Flocculation
the population growth in a town normally 3. Sedimentation
depend? 4. Disinfection
1. Birth and death rates Select the correct answer using the codes
2. Migrations given below
3. Probabilistic growth a. 1 and 2
4. Logistic growth b. 1, 2 and 3
Select the correct answer using the codes c. 2 and 4
given below d. 1 and 4
a. 1 and 4 47. Match List I (Filter Operating Problems)
b. 1 and 2 with List (Effects) and select the correct
c. 1, 2 and 3 answer:
d. 2 and 3 List I
44. Match List t with List II and select the A. Air binding
correct answer using the codes given B. Mud deposition
below: C. Cracking of bed
List I(Tests) D. Sand incrustation
A. Pumping Test List II
B. Recuperation 1. Changes effective size of sand
C. Pressure Test 2. Mud penetrates deeper inside the bed
D. Jar Test 3. Mounds and balls of mud are formed
List II (Features) in the bed
1. The gradual rise of water level in well 4. Air and gases get locked in the bed
is observed as time progresses A B C D
2. Rate of pumping is adjusted to consent a. 4 3 2 1
level of water in well
b. 3 4 1 2
3. Vigorous mixing of the chemical
followed by slow mixing c. 4 3 1 2
4. Pipeline is filled up with water, d. 3 4 2 1
allowed to stand for sometime and then 48. Which of the following are removed by
at least double the maximum pressure rapid sand filter from water?
is applied 1. Dissoled solids
A B C D 2. Suspended solids
a. 1 2 3 4 3. Bacteria
b. 2 1 4 3 4. Helminths
c. 1 2 4 3 Select the correct answer using the codes
d. 2 1 3 4 given below:
45. The purpose of re-carbonation process of a. 1 and 2
water softening is the b. 2 and 3
a. Removal of excess soda from water c. 1 and 3
b. Removal of non-carbonate hardness d. 2, 3 and 4
c. Recovery of lime 49. Consider the following valves in a water
d. Conversion of precipitates to soluble distribution system
form 1. Check valve
46. Which of the following treatment 2. Pressure-reducing valve
processes are necessary for removing 3. Air relief valve
suspended solids from water? 4. Scour valve
1. Coagulation .
8 of 16
5. Sluice valve The correct sequence of these steps is
Which of these work automatically ? a. 5,2,1,6,4,3
a. 1, 3 and 4 b. 1,2,4,5,3,6
b. 2, 4 and 5 c. 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 1
c. 3, 4 and 5 d. 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, 1
d. 1, 2 and 3 55. In an activated sludge process, the sludge
50. A sewer is commonly designed to attain volume index can be controlled by
self-cleansing velocity at a. Aeration
a. Peak hourly rate of flow b. Adding chlorine
b. Average hourly rate of flow c. Reducing recycling ratio
c. Minimum hourly rate of flow d. Increasing the depth of aeration tank
d. Sewer running half full 56. A primary sedimentation tank is not
51. Sewage sickness signifies required for
a. Diseases caused by sewage a. Activated sludge system
b. Soil pores getting dogged and b. Extended aeration system
preventing free circulation of air when c. Trickling filtration system
sewage is continuously applied on land d. Tapered activated sludge process using
c. Raw sewage is applied and used for pure oxygen for aeration
irrigating vegetables which are eaten 57. In urban air pollution, the most poisonous
raw gas is supposed to be carbon monoxide. It
d. Disposal of septic sewage on land is hazardous because
52. Consider the following data in the design a. It affects our sense of smell
of grit chamber: b. It is carcinogenic in nature
1. Sp gravity of grit = 2.7 c. it combines with haemoglobin
2. Size of grit particle = 0.21 mm d. It causes blindness
3. Viscosity of water = l.0  10–2 cm2/s 58.
The setting velocity (cm/s) of the grit
particle will be
a. 1 to 2.5
b. 2.6 to 5.0
c. 5.1 to 7.8
d. > 7.8
53. Amongst the various sewage treatment
The above graph shows the relationship of
methods, for the same discharge, the
ambient lapse rates to the dry adiabatic
largest area is needed for
lapse rate under different conditions of
a. Trickling Filter stability. Match stability situations A, B, C
b. Anaerobic Pond and D (as given in the graph) with the
c. Oxidation Ditch classes of stability as follows
d. Oxidation Pond 1. Superadiabatic
54. Consider the following treatment steps in a 2. Dry adiabatic
conventional wastewater treatment plant: 3. Subadiabatic
1. Primary sedimentation 4. Inversion
2. Grit removal Select the correct answer using the codes
3. Disinfection given below
4. Secondary sedimentation A B C D
5. Screening a. 3 4 1 2
6. Secondary treatment unit b. 4 3 2 1
9 of 16
c. 3 4 2 1 Consider the following comments on this
d. 4 3 1 2 value:
59. The term Refuse’ generally does not 1. Liquidity index cannot have a negative
include value and should be taken as zero.
a. Putrescible solid waste 2. Liquidity index can have a negative
b. Excreta value.
c. Non-putrescible solid waste 3. The soil tested is in semisolid state and
stiff.
d. Ashes
4. The soil tested is in medium soft state.
60. Bangalore method and Indore method of
disposing solid wastes are Which of these statements are correct 7.
a. Identical a. 1 and 4
b. Different as Bangalore method is an b. 1 and 3
anaerobic method c. 2 and 4
c. Different as Bangalore method does d. 2 and 3
not contain human excreta 66. A stratified soil deposit has three layers of
d. Different as Indore method is an thicknesses: Z1 = 4, Z2 = 1, Z3 = 2 units
incineration method and the corresponding permabilities of K1
61. Which one of the following statements = 2, K2 = 1 and K3 = 4 units, respectively.
explains the term pyrolysis ? The average permeability perpendicular to
a. Solid waste is heated in closed the bedding planes will be
containers in oxygen-free atmosphere a. 4
b. Solid waste is incinerated in presence b. 2
of oxygen c. 8
c. Wastewater is treated with oxygen d. 16
d. Dissolved solids from water are 67. Match List I (Soil Description) with List II
removed by glass distillation (Coefficient of Permeability, mm/s) and
62. The collapsible soil is associated with select the correct answer :
a. Dune sands List I
b. Laterite soils A. Gravel
c. Loess B. Clay silt admixtures
d. Black cotton soils C. Loess
63. The predominant mineral responsible for D. Homogeneous clays
shrinkage and swelling in black cotton soil List II
is 1. > 1
a. Illite 2. 10–2 to 10–4
b. Kaolinite 3. < 10–6
c. Mica 4. 10–4 to 10–6
d. Montmorillonite ABCD
64. Consistency as applied to cohesive soils is a. 4 1 3 2
an indicator of its b. 1 4 3 2
a. Density c. 4 1 2 3
b. Moisture content d. 1 4 2 3
c. Shear strength 68. In a compaction test if the compacting
d. Porosity effort is increased, it will result in
65. While computing the values of limits of a. Increase in maximum dry density and
consistency and consistency indices, it is OMC
found that liquidity index has a negative
value.
10 of 16
b. Increase in maximum dry density but d. Difficult to judge since other
OMC remains unchanged conditions are unknown
c. Increase in maximum dry density and 73. In a Newmark’s chart for stress
decrease in OMG distribution, there are 10 concentric circles
d. No change iii maximum dry density and 20 radial lines. The influence factor
but decrease in OMG for the chart would be
69. Consider the following statements : a. 0.1
A dispersed structure is formed in clay b. 0.05
when c. 0.01
1. the net electrical forces between d. 0.005
adjacent soil particles at the time of 74. The contact pressure distribution under a
deposition are repulsive rigid footing on a cohesionless soil would
2. remoulding and compacting of clays be
have high void ratio a. Uniform throughout
3. there is concentration of dissolved b. Zero at centre and maximum at edges
minerals in water c. Zero at edges and maximum at centre
4. platelets have face to face contact in d. Maximum at edges and minimum at
more or less parallel arrays centre
Which of these statements are correct ? 75.
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 1, 3 and 4
70. A CD triaxial test was conducted on a
granular soil. At failure ’1 / ’3 was 3.0.
The effective minor principal stress of
failure was 75 kPa. The principal stress Skin frictional capacities of a 40 cm
difference at failure will be diameter driven concrete pile for the
a. 75 kPa portions A, B and C are 17 kN, 63 kN and
b. 150 kPa 503 kN respectively, and point load
capacity is 11000 RN/rn2 Total pile load
c. 225 kPa capacity will be
d. 300 kPa a. 3743 kN
71. 71. The ultimate bearing capacity of a b. 2864 RN
square footing on surface of a saturated
clay having unconfined compression c. 1965 RN
strength of 50 kN/m2 (using Skempton d. 1529 RN
equation) is 76. Sinking effort in well foundation is the
a. 250 kN/m2 ratio of weight of well steining to that of
b. 180 kN/m2 skin friction developed on the sides and
should preferably be
c. 150 kN/m2
a. < 1.0
d. 125 kN/m2
b. = 1.0
72. If two foundations, one narrow and
another wide, are resting on a bed of sand c. > 1.2
carrying the same intensity of load per unit d. > 2.0
area, then which one is likely to fail early? 77. Consider the following statements
a. Narrow foundation 1. All soils can experience liquefaction
b. Wider foundation under vibrations.
c. Both will fail simultaneously 2. Liquefaction is generally associated
with sandy soils.
11 of 16
3. Liquefaction is not possible in normal
clays.
4. Highly sensitive clays may undergo
liquefaction under vibrations.
Which of these statements are correct ? a.
a. 1 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 2 and 3
d. 2, 3 and 4
b.
78. On which o the following factors does the
behaviour of sand mass to cause
liquefaction during an earthquake depend
largely?
1. The number of stress cycles
2. The frequency and amplitude of c.
vibrations of the earthquake shock
3. Angle of internal friction of sand
4. Relative density of sand
given below : d.
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 81. The magnetic needle in a prismatic
b. 2, 3 and 4 compass is placed
c. 1 and 3 a. At the bottom of the graduated
aluminium ring
d. 4 only
b. Above the graduated aluminium ring
79. Match List I (Sampler) with List II (Use)
and select the correct answer : c. Below the brass box
List I d. Below the needle lifter, but above the
bottom inside the compass
A. Split spoon sampler
82. From the probability equation it is found
B. Stationary piston sampler
that the most probable values of a series of
C. Rotary sampler errors arising out of observations of equal
D. Compressed air sampler weightage are those for which the sum of
List II their squares is
1. To obtain representative samples in all a. Zero
types of soil b. Infinity
2. To obtain undisturbed samples of c. Minimum
sands below water table d. Maximum
3. To obtain undisturbed samples in clay 83. Match List I (Terms) with List II
and silts (Description) and select the correct
4. To obtain approximately undisturbed answer:
samples of hard cemented cohesive List I
soils
A. Contour
A B C D
B. Line of collimation
a. 1 3 2 4
C. Tie line
b. 3 1 4 2
D. Magnetic meridian
c. 1 3 4 2
List II
d. 3 1 2 4
1. Line joining magnetic North and South
80. Which one of the following figures
indicates the principle of traversing ?
12 of 16
2. Line joining subsidiary station on the 87. If g1 and g2 are the two gradients, r is the
main line rate of change of grade (%) per chain, the
3. Line joining points of same elevation length of the vertical curve will be
4. Line joining optical centre of the  g1 + g 2 
objective lens with point of interaction a.  
 r2 
of cross-wires
A B C D  g  g2 
b.  1 
a. 3 4 2 1  r 
b. 4 3 2 1  g  g2 
c.  1 
c. 3 4 2 1  r 
d. 4 3 1 2
g1  g 2
84. Which one of the following methods of d.
r3
levelling eliminates .the error due to
curvature and refraction? 88. The relation between the air-base B,
photographic base b, flying height H and
a. Fly levelling
focal length f of lens in a vertical
b. Levelling by equalizing the distances photograph is given by
of backsight and foresight
a. B = bH / f
c. Check levelling
b. B = f / bH
d. Precise levelling
c. B = b / fH
85. The standard measurement of the
Geodimeter 510 is b
d. B =
a. ± 1 cm Hf
b. ± 5.1 mm 89. Which one of the following is taken into
consider cation for computing traffic
c. 5.1 mm capacity per lane of the highway?
d. ± 1 mm a. Passenger cars and light vehicles
86. Match List I (type of Transition Curves) b. Trucks and buses
with List II (Characteristics) and select the c. Two -wheelers
correct answer :
d. Equivalent of passenger cars
List I
90. In which one of the following location
A. Glover’s spiral surveys of the road soil profile is sampling
B. Cubic spiral done up to a depth of 1 m to 3 m below the
C. Froude’s transition existing ground level?
D. Bernoulli’s lemniscate a. Preliminary survey
List II b. Final location survey
1. An autogenous curve of an automobile c. Construction survey
2. Radius of curvature at any point varies d. Material location survey
inversely as the distance from the 91. The camber provided on a sloping road is
beginning of the curve 1 in 48. Which one of the following is the
3. sin  =  ruling gradient?
4. x = l, cos  = 1 a. 1 in 15
A B C D b. 1 in 20
a. 2 3 4 1 c. 1 in 24
b. 3 2 1 4 d. 1 in 30
c. 2 3 1 4 92. Which of the following are the accepted
criteria for design of valley curve for
d. 3 2 4 1
highways ?
1. Headlight sight distance
13 of 16
2. Passing and non-passing sight distance B. Public transport O-D study
3. Aesthetic consideration C. Public transport usage study
4. Motorist comfort List II
5. Drainage control 1. Starting and destination of riders
Select the correct answer using the codes 2. Available routing and scheduling
given below : 3. Vehicle-km, earning per km
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 4. Passenger-km, IVTT, walking time,
b. 1, 3, 4 and 5 waiting time
c. 2, 3, 4 and 5 A B C D
d. 1 and 5 a. 1 2 3 4
93. Match List I (Tests) with List II b. 2 1 3 4
(Properties) select the correct answer : c. 1 2 4 3
List I d. 2 1 4 3
A. CBR test 96. Match List I (Type of Traffic Signals) with
B. Plate bearing test List II (Advantages) and select the correct
C. Triaxial test answer :
D. Stabilometer and Cohesionmeter test List I
A B C D A. Pre-timed signals
a. 1 2 3 4 B. Vehicle-actuated signals
b. 2 1 3 4 C. Semi-vehicle actuated signals
c. 1 2 4 3 D. Linked traffic
d. 2 1 4 3 List II
94. Match List I (Method of Traffic Volume 1. Useful for junction of a side street
counts) with List II (Equipment Used) and having low traffic volume with a main
select the correct answer : street having heavy flow
List I 2. Overall optimization of traffic flow
A. Manual count 3. Delay is held to a minimum, and
B. Combination of manual and maximum lane capacity is achieved
mechanical methods 4. Most successfully used in linked
C. Automatic devices system
D. Photographic method A B C D
List II a. 3 4 1 2
1. Video-recorder b. 4 3 1 2
2. Pneumatic tube c. 3 4 2 1
3. Watch d. 4 3 2 1
4. Multiple pen 97. Breathing length of LWR is the
A B C D a. End portion which gets affected by
temperature variation
a. 4 3 1 2
b. End portion which does not get
b. 3 4 2 1 affected by temperature variation
c. 4 3 2 1 c. Central portion which gets affected by
d. 3 4 2 2 temperature variation
95. Match List I (Type of study) with List II d. Central portion which does not get
(data collected) and select the correct affected by temperature variation
answer : 98. Grade compensation on curves in Indian
List I Railways for BG is
A. Public transport inventory study a. 0.40% per degree of curve
14 of 16
b. 0.06% per degree of curve d. 3 4 2 1
c. 0.04% per degree of curve 102. The monthly mean of maximum daily
d. 0.02% per degree of curve temperature and monthly mean of average
99. The distance between the running faces of daily temperature of the hottest month of
the stock- rail and gauge face of tongue the year are 49 °C and 40 °C respectively.
rail measured at the heel of the switch is Then airport reference temperature is
known as a. 43°C
a. Flangeway clearance b. 69.6°C
b. Throw of switch c. 37°C
c. Heel divergence d. 52°C
d. Flare 103. Which one of the following imaginary
100. Match List I (Track Parameter) with List II surfaces in airport is circular in plan with
(Equipments Used) and select the correct centre located at an elevation of 150 m
answer above the airport reference point?
List I a. Conical surface
A. Unevenness b. Transitional surface
B. Gauge c. Inner horizontal surface
C. Superelevation d. Outer horizontal surface
D. Alignment 104. Consider the following four components in
an Instrumental Landing System
List II
1. Threshold lights
1. Track recording car
2. Glide slope antenna
2. Amsler car
3. ‘Z’ markers
3. Feeler and spring
4. Localizer antenna
4. Gyroscopic pendulum
These components are installed in the
A B C D direction of landing in the sequence
a. 2 3 1 4 a. 4, 2, 3, 1
b. 3 2 1 4 b. 1, 4, 3, 2
c. 2 3 4 1 c. 3, 1, 2, 4
d. 3 2 4 1 d. 2, 3, 4, 1
101. Match List I (Tunnel Construction 105. The critical depth of water flowing
Methods) with List (Advantages) and through a rectangular channel of width 5 m
select the correct answer: when discharge is 15 m3/s is
List I a. (2.25)1/2 m
A. Full face method b. (1.6)1/2 m
B. Heading and Bench method c. (0.46)1/3 m
C. Drift method d. (0.64)1/3 m
D. Compressed air method 106. Consider the following statements relating
List II to centrifugal pumps
1. Helps in ventilation of tunnel 1. In centrifugal pumps discharge is
2. Useful in soft and water- bearing soil proportional to speed of the impeller.
3. Simultaneous drilling and mucking is 2. In centrifugal pumps discharge is
possible proportional to the cube of the impeller
4. Tunneling is continuous diameter.
A B C D 3. Specific speed is a criterion for
a. 4 3 2 1 selection of centrifugal pumps.
b. 3 4 1 2 4. Cavitation in centrifugal pumps can be
eliminated by avoiding sharp bends,
c. 4 3 1 2
15 of 16
lowering velocity in suction pipe and a. Both A and R are individually true and
by lowering temperature. R is the correct explanation of A
Which, of these statements are correct? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. 1, 2 and 3 R is not the correct explanation of A
b. 1, 2 and 4 c. A is true but R is false
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. A is false but R is true
d. 1, 3 and 4 111. Assertion (A) : With the lining of canals,
107. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow, permissible velocity of flow is tower than
the specific force is a minimum for the that with concrete lining.
given discharge. Reason (R) : The surface of tile lining
Reason (R) : For a minimum value of becomes rough due to loss of surface
specific force, the first derivative of force material with high velocity.
with respect to depth should be unity. a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
R is the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 112. Assertion (A) : Canal escape serves as a
108. Assertion (A) : The vertical co-ordinate of safety valve for a canal.
the apex of the Q-curve is 2/3 E. Reason (R) Canal escape discharges the
Reason (R) : The, horizontal co-ordinate of excess water in the parent canal due to
the apex of E-curve is 1.5 times (q2/g)1/3. sudden closure of outlets by the farmers.
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
109. Assertion (A) : The relative velocity of 113. Assertion (A) : Most important activity in
water of a Pelton Turbine equals the sewer line construction is to start
difference between the absolute velocities constructing it from the tail and to check
of water and vane. levels with a boning rod.
Reason (R) : For a Pelton Turbine, the Reason (R) : Construction of sewer line
inlet blade angle is 1800. from tail end is recommended because
required number of pumping stations may
a. Both A and R are individually true and be incorporated in sewer network design.
R is the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. A is true but R is false R is not the correct explanation of A
110. Assertion (A) : Passive earth pressure is d. A is false but R is true
always greater than the earth pressure at
rest and active earth pressure. 114. Assertion (A) : The ultimate strength of
soil material is determined by the stresses
Reason (R) : In passive state the structure in the potential failure plane.
becomes the actuating, element and soil
becomes the resisting element to maintain Reason (R) : The critical shear stress
the stability. causing failure depends upon the
properties of soil as well as on the normal
stress in the failure plane.
16 of 16
a. Both A and R are individually true and 118. Assertion (A) : CST9 sleeper, a type of
R is the correct explanation of A metal sleeper, has been extensively used
b. Both A and R are individually true but by Indian Railways due to its uniform
R is not the correct explanation of A strength, economical and satisfactory
c. A is true but R is false performance.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : Metal sleeper is an inverted
channel with folded ends. The folded
115. Assertion (A) : In a machine foundation edges which form a bulb resist the damage
subjected to vibrations, frequency of caused by the packing of ballast.
vibrations with damping is less than the
natural frequency of vibrations of the a. Both A and R are individually true and
system. R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The frequency of vibrations b. Both A and R are individually true but
with damping d and natural frequency of
vibrations n are related by the expression c. A is true but R is false
d = n (1 — d2) d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are individually true and 119. Assertion (A) Packing is the method of
R is the correct explanation of A forcing and packing stone ballast below
b. Both A and R are individually true but the sleepers by ramming with a beater-
R is not the correct explanation of A cum-pickaxe.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : At points and crossings,
packing is carried out by lifting the track
d. A is false but R is true by means of track jack and requisite
116. Assertion (A) : In a theodolite if the lower quantity of stone chips is evenly spread
clamp is not properly clamped or the below the sleepers by shovel and the chips
instrument is not firmly tightened on the are allowed to consolidate by running
tripod head, the error introduced is known trains.
as ‘slip’ a. Both A and R are individually true and
Reason (R) : If the shifting head is loose, R is the correct explanation of A
the error ‘slip’ will be introduced. b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. Both A and R are individually true and R is not the correct explanation of A
R is the correct explanation of A c. A is true but R is false
b. Both A and R are individually true but d. A is false but R is true
120. Assertion (A) : Wet docks are enclosed or
c. A is true but R is false partially enclosed basins provided with
d. A is false but R is true locks and entrance gates to keep the water
117. Assertion (A) : Prohibitory signs are part at fairly constant level for allowing vessels
of regulatory signs which give a definite to come in, berth or leave at all times.
negative instruction regarding movement Reason (R) : Wet docks require expensive
prohibition, restriction on weighty or arrangements like lock gate and the walls
speed of vehicles. are designed to withstand backfill pressure
Reason (R) : According to the IRC when the dock is full.
Standards, prohibitory signs are of a. Both A and R are individually true and
octagønal shape with side being 900 mm R is the correct explanation of A
and with a white border and red b. Both A and R are individually true but
background for the standard size. R is not the correct explanation of A
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. A is true but R is false
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004 1 of 17
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. Consider the following statements Dry rot D. Plywood
in timber is due to List II
1. stacking wood in open areas 1. Panelling
2. lack of ventilation 2. Insulation
3. decomposition of sap 3. Scantling
4. lack of preservatives 4. Arches I trusses
Which of the statements given above are A B C D
correct ? a. 3 2 1 4
a. 1 and 2 b. 3 2 4 1
b. 1 and 3 c. 2 3 4 1
c. 2 and 3 d. 2 3 1 4
d. 3 and 4 4. Consider the following characteristics with
2. In static bending test Match List I (Type of respect to brick
Failure) with List II (Figure) and select the 1. Minimum compressive strength = 175
correct answer using the codes : (Standard units)
List I 2. Minimum absorption is 24 hours, (in %
A. Simple tension of dry weight) = 12
B. Gross grain tension 3. 3. Very little efflorescence
C. Splintering tension 4. Tolerance in dimension = ±8%
D. Brash tension As per Indian standards classification, a
List II brick with the characteristics given above
is termed as
1. a. H I
b. F Il
2. c. L II
d. H II
3. 5. Match List I (Test) with List II (Procedure)
and select the correct answer using the
4. codes :
A B C D List I
a. 1 4 3 2 A. Absorption
b. 4 1 3 2 B. Hardness
c. 4 1 2 3 C. Soundness
d. 1 4 2 3 D. Structure
3. Match List I (Pr duct) with List II (Its Use) List II
and select the correct answer using the 1. A brick is to be broken for the test
codes : 2. Two bricks are taken and they can be
List I struck with each other without
A. Fibre board breaking
B. Heartwood 3. A scratch is easily made on brick
C. Laminated timber surface with the help of a finger nail
2 of 17
4. Difference in weight between the brick 9. Consider the following statements
immersed in water for 16 hours and its regarding cement mortar :
dry weight 1. Silicate type chemical resistant mo1ar
A B C D has good resistance to hydrofluoric
a. 1 3 2 4 acid
b. 4 3 2 1 2. Sulphur-type chemical resistant mortar
c. 4 2 3 1 has poor resistance to alkalis
d. 1 2 3 4 3. The interior surface of a building may
be plastered with cement mortar
containing cement and sand in the ratio
Low percentage of C3S and high 1:6
percentage of C2S in cement will result in
Which of the statements given above are
1. higher ultimate strength with less heat correct?
generation
a. 1, 2 and 3
2. rapid - hardening
b. 1 and 2
3. better resistance to chemical attack
c. 2 and 3
d. 1 and 3
correct ?
a. 1 and 2
correct?
b. 2 and 3
The use of super plasticisers as admixture
c. 1 and 3
a. increases compressive strength of
d. 1,2 and 3 concrete
7. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II b. permits lower water cement ratio,
(Property) and select the correct answer thereby strength is increased
using the codes :
c. reduces the setting time of concrete
List I
d. permits lower cement content, thereby
A. Blast furnace slag cement strength is increased
B. High alumina cement 11. Match List I (Aggregate) with List II
C. Low heat cement (Effect) and answer using the codes select
D. White cement the correct :
List II List I
1. High percentage of tricalcium silicate A. Rounded aggregates
2. Initial setting time is approximately B. Crushed aggregates
three and a half hours C. Flaky aggregates
3. Low percentage of iron oxide D. Irregular aggregates
4. Rate of hardening is low List II
A B C D 1. Reduce workability appreciably
a. 4 3 1 2 because of a high ratio of surface area
b. 1 3 4 2 to volume
c. 1 2 4 3 2. Require more water than rounded
d. 4 2 1 3 aggregates and give strength lesser
than crushed aggregates
8. What is the quantity of cement (in kg) and
of dry sand (in cubic metre) respectively 3. Give concrete of higher compressive
required for preparing 1 cubic metre of wet strength due to development of
cement mortar of 1 : 5 proportion? stronger aggregate mortar bond
a. 270 and 1.00 4. Require lesser amount of water and
cement paste for a given workability
b. 290 and 1.05
A B C D
c. 290 and 1.00
a. 1 2 4 3
d. 310 and 1.05
b. 1 3 4 2
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c. 4 3 1 2 3. Concreting of lightly reinforced
d. 4 2 1 3 sections like pavements - Low
12. Consider the following statements : For workability (5 - 50 mm slump)
increasing the workability of concrete, it is 4. Concreting of lightly reinforced
necessary to sections by hand or heavily reinforced
1. increase the quantity of cement sections with vibration - Medium
workability (25 -75 mm slump)
2. decrease the quantity of sand
Which of the pairs given above are
3. alter the proportion of fine and coarse
correctly matched ?
aggregates
a. 1 and 2
4. decrease the quantity of water
b. 2 and 3
5. use angular aggregate
c. 3 and 4
correct ? d. 1 and 3
a. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 16. The fineness modulus of fine aggregate is
2.78 and of coarse aggregate is 7.82 and
b. 2, 4 and 5
the desired fineness modulus. of mixed
c. 2 and 3 aggregate is 6.14. What is the amount of
d. 1 and 5 fine aggregate to be mixed with one part of
13. Slump and compaction factors are two coarse aggregate ?
different measures of workability of a. 55%
concrete. For a slump of 0 to 20 mm, what b. 50%
is the equivalent range of compaction
c. 45%
factor?
d. 40%
a. 0.50 - 0.70
17.
b. 0.70 - 0.80
c. 0.80 - 0.85
d. 0.85 - 0.92
14. The values of slump commonly adopted
for the various concrete mixes are given
below:
A brass bar of solid section is encased in a
Type of Concrete Slump Adopted (mm) steel tube as shown in the above diagram
1. Concrete for road works - 20 to 28 The coefficient of expansion of steel is
2. Ordinary RCC work - 50 to 100 11.2  10–6 per °C and the coefficient of
3. Columns retaining walls - 12 to 25 expansion of brass is 16.5  10–6 per °C.
4. Mass concrete - 75 to 175 The composite bar is heated through 600C.
Which of the pairs given above are Now consider the following statements :
correctly matched ? 1. The stress in the brass will be tensile
a. 1, 3 and 4 2. The stress in the steel will be tensile
b. 1 and 2 3. The stress in the steel will be
c. 3 and 4 compressive
d. 2 and 4 4. The stress in the brass will be
15. Consider the following pairs compressive
1. Hand compaction of heavily reinforced Which of the statements given above are
sections – Low workability (0 - 25 mm correct ?
slump) a. 1 and 2
2. Concreting of shallow sections with b. 1 and 3
vibrations -High workability (125-150 c. 2 and 4
mm slump)
d. 2 and 3
18.
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a. —10 MPa
b. —20 MPa
c. 110 MPa
d. 20 MPa
21. In a plane strain condition in the xy plane,
For the plane stress situation shown in the the strain components associated with xy
above diagram, what is the maximum axes are x = 800  10–6, y = 100  10–6,
shear stress ?
xy = –800  10–6. What are the principal
a. Zero, when X and Y axes are rotated strains for these strain values ?
45° clockwise
a. 981  10–6, –81  10–6
b. Zero, at all positions of orientation of
X and Y axes b. 891  10–6, –18  10–6
c. 20 MPa, at all positions of orientation c. 881  10–6, 71  10–6
of X and Y axes d. 839  10–6, –81  10–6
d. —20 MPa, when X and Y axes are 22. In a plane strain case in the xy plane,
rotated 45° anticlockwise. normal strain in x and y directions are
19. equal to zero and shear strain is equal to 3
10–6. What is the value of diameter of
Mohr’s circle of strain for these strain
values ?
a. 6  10–6
b. 3 10–6
In a piece of stressed material, the c. 1.5  10–6
principle stress are 1 = 3.0 kN/m2 tensile d. Zero
and 2 = 7.0 kN/m2 compressive as shown 23. For a case of plane stress, x = 40 MN/m2,
in the above diagram. The line of action of y = 0, xy = 80 MN/m2. What are the
the tensile stress makes an angle  = 30° to principal stresses and their orientation with
the normal to the plane AB. What is the x and y axes ?
normal stress n ? a. 1 = 80 MN/m2 , 2 = 40 MN/m2 , 1
a. + 0.5 kN/m2 300
b. — 1.5 kN/m2 b. 1 = 100 MN/m2 , 2 = –60 MN/m2 ,
c. + 2.0 kN/m2 1 = 320
d. — 2.5 kN/m2 c. 1 =102.5 MN/m2 , 2 = –62.5 MN/m2,
1 = 360
d. 1 = 105 MN/m2 , 2 = 62 MN/m2 ,
20. 1 = 360
24. A thin rod of 10 mm diameter is subjected
to a tensile force of 7850 N. What are the
principal stresses and maximum shear
stress ?
a. 70MPa, 50 MPa, 10 MPa
b. 100 MPa, Zero, 50 MPa
c. 100 MPa, 50 MPa, 25 MPa
A thin wooden plate PQRS is made by d. 100 MPa, Zero, Zero
gluing two pieces of wood along PR as 25.
shown in the above diagram.
If x = —30 Mpa, y = 10 MPa and xy =
0, then what is the normal stress on the
surface PR?
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The above diagram shows a simply a. Two equally spaced concentric loads
supported beam with load. Which one of b. A couple at mid - span only
the following diagrams is the shear force c. A couple anywhere in the span
diagram for this beam ?
d. UDL over the entire span
30. Consider the following statements for a
beam based on theory of bending
a. 1. Strain developed in any fibre is
directly proportional to the distance of
fibre from neutral surface
b. 2. For flexural loading and linearly elastic
action the neutral axis passes through
the centroid of cross - section
c. 3. The assumption of the plane cross
sections remaining plane will not hold
good during inelastic action
d.
4. Instances in which the neutral axis
26. In which one of the following, the point of
does not pass through the centroid of a
contraflexure will not occur ?
cross - section include a homogenous
a. A two span continuous beam of equal symmetrical ‘beam (with respect to
spans, simply supported and loaded by neutral axis) and subjected to inelastic
UDL over both spans action
b. A simply supported beam loaded by Which of the statements given above are
UDL correct ?
c. A fixed beam loaded by UDL a. 1,2, 3 and 4
d. A propped cantilever loaded by UDL b. 1,2 and 4
27. c. 3 and 4
d. 1 and 2
31.
What are the support reactions at the fixed

end of the cantilever beam shown in the
above diagram?
Consider the simply supported beam AB
a. 120 kN, 120 kNm
subjected to the point loads of equal
b. 120 kN, 240 kNm magnitude as shown in the above diagram.
c. 240 kN, 120 kNm Which one of the Following statements is
d. 120 kN, 60 kNm correct ?
28. The maximum shear stress produced in a The portion CD of the beam is
shaft in 5N/mm2. The shaft is of 40 mm a. in pure bending
diameter. What is the approximate value of
b. in pure shear
twisting moment ?
c. having maximum bending moment
a. 628 Nm
d. having maximum shear force
b. 63 Nm
c. 126 Nm
d. 251 Nm
29. For S. F. to be uniform throughout the
span of a simply supported beam, which of 32.
the following loads should be applied on to
the beam ?
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A rigid bar AB is supported by a spring as
shown in the diagram above. What is the 36.
deflection of the point ‘b’?
a. 25 mm
b. 20 mm
c. 15 mm
d. 10 mm
33.
An angle is connected to the back of the
flange of a channel section to be used as a
beam as shown in the above diagram.
This is done to
a. increase the compression flange area
The diagram above shows a plane truss.
b. increase the moment of inertia about
What is the force in vertical member UL the major axis
of the truss ?
c. increase the moment of inertia about
a. 35 kN the minor axis
b. 30 kN d. make the load pass through the shear
c. 20 kN centre
d. 15 kN 37. Match List I with List II and select the
34. Which one of the following statements is correct answer using the codes
correct? List I
The influence line diagram (ILD) for A. The shape of a cable suspended
bending moment at a section in a between two supports is defined by
cantilever is a triangle extending between B. The cable uniformly loaded along the
the section and the horizontal span takes the shape of
a. fixed end with maximum ordinate C. The cable uniformly loaded along its
under the section length assumes the shape of
b. fixed end with maximum ordinate D. the girder in a suspension bridge
under the fixed end transmits to its supports
c. unsupported end with maximum List II
ordinate at the section
1. A catenary
d. unsupported end with maximum
2. A little load
ordinate at the unsupported end
3. A parabola
35.
4. Applied loads
A B C D
a. 1 2 4 3
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 4 2 1 3
The diagram above shows a truss correct ?
subjected to loading as indicated. What is An indeterminate building frame may be
the force induced in the member AB? converted to a determinate one by
a. 5 kN assuming
b. 10 kN a. hinges at mid-height of columns
c. Zero b. hinges at mid-span of the beams
d. 5 2 kN c. hinges at both mid-height of columns
and mid-spam of beams
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d. one support as fixed at base and other a. 2 1 4 3
support on rollers b. 3 1 4 2
39. Consider the following statements c. 3 4 1 2
1. An indeterminate structure is not d. 2 4 1 3
economical from the material stand- 42. Moments of the same sense are applied to
point in comparison to a determinate both the ends of a simply supported beam.
structure The ratio of the rotation of the two ends is
2. If n redundant in a statically 2. What is the ratio of the applied
indeterminate structure of n degree moments?
indeterminacy are removed, the a. 3/2
structure will become statically
b. 4/3
determinate but unstable
c. 5/4
3. In the rigid frame analysis, the axial
effects are ignored as their influence is d. 6/5
negligibly small compared to bending 43. A beam is hinged at end A and fixed at B.
and shear effects A moment M is applied at end A. What is
Which of the following statements is/are the moment developed at end B?
correct ? a. —M
a. 1 only b. M
b. 1 and 2 c. M/2
c. 3 only d. —M/2
d. 2 and 3 44. Consider the following statements
40. What is the horizontal thrust in a 1. The total potential energy is the sum of
symmetric, parabolic two - hinged arch of strain energy and potential energy due
span L and central rise y subjected to a to external loading
uniformly distributed load of intensity per 2. The strain, energy is always positive
unit length over its entire span ? 3. The potential energy is always positive
a. L2/4y 4. For equilibrium position the total
b. L2/8y potential energy is a minimum
c. L2/12y Which of the statements given above are
d. L2/16y correct ?
41. a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 1, 2 and 4
c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 1 and 3
45. A uniform beam of length 2L and flexural
Match List I with List II and select the rigidity El is fixed at both the ends. What
correct answer using the codes : is the moment required for unit rotation at
List I the centre of span ?
A. Moment at B a. 2El / L
B. Slope at A b. 4El / L
C. Reaction at A c. 6El/L
D. Stiffness of AB d. 8El/L
List II 46. An elastic uniform bar of length I and
cross - sectional area A is subjected,
1. 3/8 L . within its elastic limit to a rapidly applied
2. 4E 1/l tensile force increasing from zero to a final
3. 1.50 M where M = L2/12 value P. What is the final strain energy
4. Ml/4EI where M = L2/12 stored in the bar after vibrations have
A B C D
8 of 17
ceased ? (E is the modulus of elasticity of d. twice the original column length arid
the bar material.) 1.5 times the stiffness of original
a. 2P2l / AE column
b. P2l / AE 49.
c. P2l / 4AE
d. P2l / 2AE
47. Match List I (Type of Beam) with List II
(Collapse Load Wu, wu) and select the
correct answer using the codes given
below the Lists :
What is the collapse load for propped
List I cantilever beam shown in the above
diagram with a plastic moment capacity of
Mp ?
A. a. 1.25 Mp
b. 1.5 Mp
c. Mp
B.
d. 2 Mp.
C. 1. The development of a plastic hinge in a
determinate beam results in effective
destruction of the beam
2. For fixed ended beams of rectangular
D. section, the design by elastic theory is
List II not conservative
1. 8Mp/l 3. In the ideal plastic material, if the
2. 16Mp/l2 material is stressed to a point beyond
3. 6M/1 the elastic limit and is then unstressed,
4. 11.66 Mp/ l2 there will not be any residual strain
Wu, and wu per unit length denote the Which of the statements given above is/are
collapse loads and Mp denotes the plastic correct ?
moment capacity of the beams a. 1 only
corresponding to the collapse loads b. 1 and 2
A B C D c. 2 and 3
a. 2 1 3 4 d. 1, 2 and 3
b. 3 4 1 2 51. Some steels do not show yield plateau and
c. 3 1 2 4 show continuous curve. For such steels,
d. 2 4 1 3 how is the yield strength obtained?
48. Which one of the following statements is a. By drawing 0.2% offset of the strain
correct? b. By drawing 0.5% offset of the strain
In Kani’s method hinged column is c. By drawing initial tangent
replaced by an equivalent column fixed at d. By drawing initial secant modulus
the base with length and stiffness as 52.
a. 1.5 times the original length and 3/4th
stiffness of original column -
b. 1.5 times the original length and
stiffness same as original column
c. same length as original column but
stiffness 3/4th of the original column
stiffness
9 of 17
The stress strain diagram for mild steel 1. The gross area of a rivet is taken as the
subjected to tensile load is given above. cross - sectional area of the rivet hole
Now consider the following statements 2. The distance between the centres of the
1. The diagram represents average stress rivets should not be less than 2.5 times
strain diagram the gross diameter of the rivet
2. The diagram represents actual stress 3. 3. In no case shall fewer than two bolts
strain diagram or rivets be used for attaching the lug
3. A represents upper yield point angle to the gusset
4. B represents lower yield point Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
correct ? a. 1 and 2
a. 1, 2 and 4 b. 1 and 3
b. 1, 3 and 4 c. 2 and 3
c. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3
d. 1, 2 and 3 57. A member is subjected to axial
compression. Effective length is 3000 mm.
Size of the angle used is 100  100  10.
Lug angles are used to What is the maximum capacity (if fy = 250
1. increase the lengths of the end MPa) ?
connections angle section a. 101.2 kN
2. decrease the lengths of the end b. 81.7 kN
connections of angle section
c. 59.2 kN
3. increase the lengths of the end
connections of channel section d. 95.1 kN
4. decrease the lengths of the end 58. What is the maximum slenderness ratio for
a steel member carrying compressive bade
connections of channel section
resulting from dead loads and imposed
Which of the statements given above are loads?
correct?
a. 180
a. 1 and 2
b. 250
b. 2, 3 and 4
c. 350
c. 1, 3 and 4
d. 400
d. 1, 2 and 3
59. Af is the area of flanges and Aw is the area
54. When the effect of wind or earthquake of web What is the effective flange area in
load is considered in the design of rivets the design of a plate girder?
and bolts for steel’ structures, by what
percentage the permissible stresses may. a. Af + Aw / 8
be exceeded? b. Af + Aw / 6
a. 15% c. Af – Aw / 8
b. 25% d. Af – Aw / 6
c. 33.33% 60. Consider the following statements
d. 50% 1. As far as practicable, the lacing system
shall be varied throughout the length of
55. A 6 mm thick mild steel plate is connected
to an 8 mm thick plate by 16 mm diameter the strut
shop rivets. What is the number of rivets 2. Single laced systems on opposite sides
required to carry an 80 kN load ? of the components shall preferably be
a. 2 in mutually opposite directions, so that
one is not the shadow of the other
b. 3
3. Rolled sections or tubes of equivalent
c. 4 strength may be used as lacing bars
d. 6 instead of flats
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Which of the statements given above are b. 15°
correct? c. 30°
a. 1 and 2 d. 45°
b. 2 and 3 65. Which one of the following statements is
c. 1 and 3 correct ?
d. 1, 2 and 3 In a crane gantry girder, a channel is
61. 2-ISMB 300  140 section are acting as a provided at the top flange girder. This
compound column. The height of the accounts for bending in
column is 400 mm. Two sections are a. horizontal plane only
spaced 400 mm, centre to centre. In the b. vertical plane only
longitudinal direction there is runner at the c. horizontal and vertical planes
top of the column. What is the maximum
d. horizontal and vertical planes and
capacity of the column in compression (fy twisting
= 250 Mpa) ?
a. 2002 kN correct ?
b. 1629 kN
For a simply supported beam of
c. 1501 kN rectangular cross - section, a point load is
d. 1799 kN applied at mid span. If the superimposed
62. Consider the following statements load alone is considered to cause the
Horizontal stiffness is provided when collapse, the beam is fully elastic
1. the depth of webs is small a. For a distance of one third of beam
2. tendency to web buckling is less length from either end
3. vertical stiffness becomes too close b. at mid span
4. only thin plates are available for web c. for the middle third of beam length
Which of the statements given above are d. for the distance of one fourth of beam
correct,? length from either end
a. 1 and 2 67. For steel structure proportioned using
plastic design. the working load (dead load
b. 3 and 4 + imposed load) should be multiplied by
c. 1, 2 and 4 which one of the following minimum load
d. 1, 3 and 4 factor?
63. Which one of the following statements is a. 1.3
correct? b. 1.5
Only s portion of the area of outstanding c. 1.7
leg in an angle section serving as tension d. 2.0
member is considered in computing the
effective area of the member. This is 68. A simply supported beam of span 4000
because mm is loaded with a uniformly distributed
load of 30 kN/m fy for the material is 250
a. near the joint, the outstanding leg does MPa. Which rolled steel section is
not take its full stress required?
b. the outstanding leg has a number of a. ISMB 500
rivet holes reducing the net area
b. ISMB 400
c. the outstanding leg is susceptible to
buckling c. ISMB 300
d. additional safety is preferred in the d. ISMB 600
case of tension failure 69. How are the most commonly produced and
64. In a gabled industrial building in order to used structural elements in frames, floor
minimize the wind forces on the roof, the beams, etc. with high moment of inertia
roof slope should be kept close to about x-axis, are designated ?
a. 5° a. ISWB - section
b. ISLB - section
11 of 17
c. ISMB - section b. its thickness is less
d. JSHB - section c. it is a main structural element
70. Which one of the following statements is d. it is a flexural member
correct ? 74. Match List I (Reinforcement Type) with
Minimum tension steel in RC beam needs List II (Anchorage Requirement) and
to be provided to select the correct answer using the codes
a. prevent sudden failure given below the Lists :
b. arrest crack width List I
c. control excessive deflection A. Footing slab, tensile reinforcement
d. prevent surface hair cracks B. Cantilever beam, tensile reinforcement
71. Consider the following statements C. Simply supported beam, tensile
1. The limit state of collapse is defined as reinforcement
the acceptable limit for the stresses in D. Beam, shear stirrup
the materials. List II
2. Limit state method is one that ensures 1. Ld/3 into the support
adequate safety of structure against 2. 6  for 135° bend
collapse 3. Ld into the support
3. In the limit state design method, actual 4. Ld from the column face
stresses developed at collapse differ
considerably from the theoretical A B C D
values a. 1 3 4 2
Which of the above statements is/are b. 1 2 4 3
correct? c. 4 3 1 2
a. 1 and 2 d. 4 2 1 3
b. 1 and 3 75. Which one of the following statements is
c. 2 and 3 correct ?
d. None Minimum shear reinforcement in beams is
provided in the form of stirrups
a. to resist extra shear force due to live
1. Reinforcement that is no longer
required for flexure beyond a certain load
section, shall however be extended by b. to resist the effect of shrinkage of
d or 12 , whichever is greater, before concrete
being curtailed c. to resist principal tension
2. At least half the bars should be bent up d. to resist shear cracks at the bottom of
at the cut -off point beam
3. The shear capacity at cut-off point 76. Which one of the following statements is
should at least be 1.5 times the shear correct ?
force at that section Diagonal tension reinforcement is
Which of the statements given above are provided in a beam as
correct ? a. longitudinal bars
a. 1 and 2 b. bent up bars
b. 1 and 3 c. helical reinforcement
c. 2 and 3 d. 900 bend at the bends of main bars
d. 1, 2 and 3 77. Which one of the following statements is
73. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
correct ? In a combined footing for two columns
Temperature and shrinkage steel is carrying unequal loads, the maximum
provided in reinforced concrete slabs hogging moment occurs at
because a. inside face of the heavier column
a. it occupies larger area
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b. a section equidistant from both the c. arrest the longitudinal cracks on side
columns faces due to shrinkage and temperature
c. a section having maximum shear force variation
d. a section having zero shear force d. resist shear in concrete developing on
78. Which one of the following statements is account of non-homogeneity of
correct ? concrete
The critical section for computing design 83. Which one of the following statements is
shear force in an R.C. beam where the correct ?
supports exert a compressive reaction is at In a cantilever beam carrying gravity load,
a. the centre of support main reinforcement is provided
b. the face of support a. above the neutral axis
c. a distance of half of effective depth b. as vertical stirrups
from the face of support c. as a helical reinforcement
d. a distance of effective depth from the d. below the neutral axis
face of support 84. What is the volume of concrete mix
79. Which one of the following statements is produced if a batch type concrete mixer of
correct ? 1500 litres capacity takes an effective time
Doubly reinforced beams are of 15 seconds for one batch of production?
recommended when a. 36 m3/hr
a. the depth of the beam is restricted b. 180 m3/hr
b. the breadth of the beam is restricted c. 360 m3/hr
c. both depth and breadth are restricted d. 720 m3/hr
d. the shear is high 85. Consider the following statements
80. Which one of the following statements is When acquiring a crane for a project work,
correct ? the important aspects of the specifications
In a reinforced concrete member, the best will include information on
way to ensure adequate bond is 1. length of the hoist line
a. to provide minimum number of large 2. length of boom line
diameter bars 3. tipping condition
b. to provide large number of smaller 4. bucket size
diameter bars 5. angle of swing in absolute terms
c. to increase the cover for reinforcement 6. haul distance
d. to provide additional stirrups Which of the statements given above are
81. Which one of the following statements is correct?
correct ? a. 2, 3, 5 and 6
M 40 concrete is preferred to M 20 b. 1, 2, 3 and 6
concrete for pre-stressed concrete to c. 1 and 5
a. overcome bursting stresses at the ends d. 2, 4, 5 and 6
b. avoid brittle failure of concrete 86. Match List I (Beam Variable) with List II
c. eliminate the effect of shrinkage (Design Provision) and select the correct
d. economise the use of cement answer using the codes :
82. Which one of the following statements is List I
correct? A. Flexure
Minimum shear reinforcement is provided B. Shear
to C. Bond
a. resist shear force at the support D. Deflection
b. resist shear on account of accidental List II
torsion
1. Minimum depth of section
2. Longitudinal steel reinforcement
13 of 17
3. Stirrups 89. If the depth of face from which a shovel is
4. Anchorage in support excavating material is too shallow, then
A B C D which one of the following is correct ?
a. 3 2 1 4 a. The dipper may not be filled in one
pass up the lace
b. 2 3 1 4
b. The depth of penetration of the dipper
c. 3 2 4 1
can he increased
d. 2 3 4 1
c. The depth of penetration of the dipper
87. Match List I (Type of Jobs) with List II would be decreased
(Type of Equipment) and select the correct
d. Excess earth will spill clown to the
answer using the codes :
bottom of the face
List I
90. A scraper of self weight 27 tonnes works
A. Handling stiff and cohesive mixes used on a sandy clay soil weighing 1800 kg/m3
in the manufacturing of precast of bank measure. Haul road rolling
concrete resistance is 3.5% and grade is 2% adverse
B. Road construction where space and for loaded unit. The earth carried per trip is
access are limited 14 m3 (b.m.) What rim pull, in newton
C. Consolidating concrete in thin slabs (approximately) is required when
D. Vibrating both the form and the travelling loaded and empty, respectively?
concrete a. 35600,5100
List II b. 32200,4800
1. External vibrator c. 30100,4400
2. Dual drum mixers d. 28700,4050
3. Pan mixers 91. A roller with 1.5 m effective width of
4. Electric hammer drum moves with an average speed of 1.5
5. Vibrating roller km/h What is the output when six number
of passes are used for effectiveness ?
A B C D
a. 13.5 m2/hr
a. 3 5 1 4
b. 37.5 m2/hr
b. 3 2 5 1
c. 135 m2/hr
c. 5 2 4 3
d. 375 m2/hr
d. 5 3 4 1
92. Two centrifugal pumps work in parallel at
88. Which of the following are taken into
a common delivery head of 18 m. The first
consideration in determining ultimate
pump delivers 90 lps at an efficiency of
operating factor of a typical earthmoving
60% and the second pump delivers 60 lps
equipment?
at an efficiency of 50%. What is the
a. Rated output at flywheel (or similar overall efficiency of the system?
power smoothing fitting). maximum
a. 62.5%
power consumption time factor and
fuel consumption b. 58%
b. Maximum power consumption time c. 55.5%
(actor, idle running time proportion, d. 52%
overall shut-down time proportion 93. Match List I (Earth Excavating
c. Total load/output of earthwork Equipment) with List II (Uses) and select
delivered as a proportion of rated the correct answer using the codes:
capacity List I
d. Maximum power consumption time A. Power shovel
factor, cycle time as proportion of B. Hoe
running time, idle running time C. Clam-shell
between sites, overall shut-down time
D. Bulldozer
proportion
List II
14 of 17
1. Excavation of earth in confined area or 2. Increases initially, stalls and then
pit decreases fast
2. Rehauling of loose or excavated 3. Generally decreases continuously
material from one place to another 4. Increases and stalls
place A B C D
3. Clearing and scrubbing of worksite a. 4 3 1 2
4. Excavation of trenches b. 1 3 4 2
A B C D c. 1 2 4 3
a. 1 4 2 3 d. 4 2 1 3
b. 1 4 3 2 96. How many litres of water will be pumped
c. 4 1 2 3 per minute by a double acting
d. 4 1 3 2 reciprocating pump with 6 cm cylinder
94. Match List I (Working Details), with List diameter and 15 cm stroke length, driven
II (Type of Pumps) and select the correct by a crankshaft running, at 90 rpm with no
answer using the codes slippage?
List I a. 84.6
A. The water which has entered inside the b. 81.2
pump is revolved at high speed by c. 78.5
means of the impeller revolving in a d. 76.4
tight casing 97.
B. The pump gives constant discharge
even under variable heads
C. Usable in pumping from crooked holes
and for handling corrosive liquids
D. Water can be lifted to large heights
using the hydraulic ram
List II A network of seven activities is shown in
1. Air-lift pump the diagram given above. The respective
2. Impulse pump activity durations are shown beside the
arrows. Which one of the following is the
3. Reciprocating pumps
total float in AB, the total float in CE and
4. Diesel engine driven pumps free float in EF, respectively ?
5. Centrifugal pumps a. 2, 2, 3
A B C D b. 3, 3, 2
a. 1 3 5 2 c. 3, 2, 2
b. 5 3 1 2 d. 2, 3, 2
c. 4 2 5 3 98.
d. 5 2 4 3
95. Match List I (Performance Parameters)
with List II (Performance Pattern) and
select the correct answer using the codes :
List I
A. RPM vs. discharge Consider the above AON diagram
B. Head vs. discharge What is the minimum number of dummy
C. BHP vs. discharge arrows required for conversion into AQA
D. Efficiency vs. discharge diagram ?
List II a. 3
1. Increases with increasing head but b. 4
decreases slightly with discharge c. 5
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d. 6 Which of the statements given above are
correct?
99. a. 1 and 3
The line of a PERT network is shown b. 1 and 4
above in the diagram with a, m, b c. 2 and 3
durations. d. 2 and 4
What is the probable range of the total 103. What is the range of fineness modulus
duration ? sand which is least suitable for making
a. 34.2 to 47.2 good concrete?
b. 34.2 to 44.2 a. 3.5 - 4.5
c. 32.6 to 44.2 b. 2.9- 3.2
d. 32.6 to 42.4 c. 2.6 - 2.9
100. Which one of the following is the correct d. 22 - 2.6
sequence to analyse a project for 104. x, y and xy are normal and shear
implementation ? stresses on the x arid y faces. What is the
a. Time-cost study. Network, WBS, radius of Mohr’s circle in terms of their
Scheduling with resource allocation stresses?
b. Network, Time-cost study. Scheduling  x  y
with resource allocation, WBS a.
2
c. WBS, Network, Scheduling with
 x  y
resource allocation, Time-cost study b.   xy
d. WBS, Time-cost study, Network, 2
Scheduling with resource allocation
  x  y 
2
   xy
2
101. c. 
 2 
 x  y 
2
   xy
2
d. 
 2 
105. What is the maximum slenderness ratio of
lacing bars in built-up columns ?
a. 120
b. 145
A bar chart of four activities indicating
their scheduled start and finish “end-of- c. 180
day” values and the resource requirement d. 200
per day are given above. 106. Which one of the following statements is
What will be the maximum and the correct ?
minimum resource- need on any of the The characteristic strength of concrete is
days? a. higher than the average cube strength
a. 22, 6 b. lower than the average cube strength
b. 21, 6 c. the same as the average cube strength
c. 21, 8 d. higher than 90% of the average cube
d. 20, 8 strength
102. Consider the following statements 107. Which one of the following is true of a
Hardest timber is obtained from the wood statically determinate beam?
grown in a. One end is fixed and the other end is
1. the moderately dry climatic regions simply supported
2. the Himalayan slopes b. Both the ends are fixed
3. the open areas c. The beam overhangs over two supports
4. the thin jungles
16 of 17
d. The beam is supported on three Reason (R) The splitting test moulds can
supports be used for casting specimens for both
108. What is the value of minimum compression and tension tests.
reinforcement (in case of Fe 415) in a a. Both A and R are individually true and
slab? R is the correct explanation of A
a. 0.1% b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. 0.12% R is not the correct explanation of A
c. 0.15% consist of two
d. 0.2% c. A is true but R is false
109. Consider the following statements d. A is false but R is true
1. The ideal output of a power shovel is 112. Assertion (A) : One year strength of
achieved at 900 angle of swing. continuously moist cured concrete is 40%
higher than that of 28-day strength, while
2. Output from a power shovel is
no-moisture-curing can lower the strength
independent of size of trucks.
to about 40%.
3. The optimum depth of cut of a power
Reason (R) : Moist curing for the first
shovel is the one at which the dipper
seven to fourteen days results in a
comes out with full load.
compressive strength of 70 to 80% of that
4. The optimum depth of cut does not of 28-day moisture curing.
vary with the size of the dipper of a
power shovel.
correct?
a. 1 and 3 consist of two
b. 2 and 4 c. A is true but R is false
c. 1, 2 and 3 d. A is false but R is true
d. 1, 2 and 4 113. Assertion (A) :. A plane stress system
110. Match List I (Cost) with List II (Feature) consists of two principal stresses 1 and 2
and select the correct answer using the and a plane strain system consists of two
codes : principal strains 1 = 1/E and 2 = 2/E.
List I Both the systems are identical.
A. Optimal cost Reason (R) : Stress is proportional to
B. Overhead cost strain.
C. Direct cost; a. Both A and R are individually true and
D. Indirect cost R is the correct explanation of A
List II b. Both A and R are individually true but
1. Activity related R is not the correct explanation of A
consist of two
2. Developed by crashing process
3. Project-related
4. Contained in, or contributing
exclusively to the related product 114. Assertion (A) : The slope-deflection
method is a stiffness method in which the
A B C D
joint displacements are found by applying
a. 4 3 2 1 the equilibrium conditions at each joint.
b. 2 1 4 3 Reason (R) : The displacements at a joint
c. 4 1 2 3 of a member are independent of the
d. 2 3 4 1 displacements of the member at the far end
111. Assertion (A) : The splitting test for of the joint.
determining the tensile strength of a. Both A and R are individually true and
concrete gives more uniform results than R is the correct explanation of A
any other tension test.
17 of 17
b. Both A and R are individually true but c. A is true but R is false
R is not the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true
consist of two
118. Assertion (A) : Minimum shear
c. A is true but R is false reinforcement as stirrups must be provided
d. A is false but R is true in beams, even if the shear stress v is less
115. Assertion (A) : In the elastic-plastic than the shear strength of concrete c .
behaviour of statically indeterminate Reason (R) : The bending of beams creates
structures the ultimate load can be a tendency in the particles to slide upon
calculated from equilibrium considerations each other within the beam. This tendency
without any reference to the stiffness is called shear.
characteristics of the structure. a. Both A and R are individually true and
Reason (R) : The ultimate load of a R is the correct explanation of A
structure is influenced by settlement of b. Both A and R are individually true but
supports, thermal stress and residual R is not the correct explanation of A
stresses. consist of two
a. Both A and R are individually true and c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true.
R is not the correct explanation of A 119. Assertion (A) : Detailing of bars as per the
consist of two requirements of maximum spacing of
reinforcement in beams and slabs is
c. A is true but R is false sufficient to control flexural cracking.
d. A is false but R is true Reason (R) : A large number of smaller
116. Assertion (A) : The principle of super- diameter bars, well distributed in the,
position cannot be applied in plastic design tension zone, reduce the crack width more
and as such all the loads must be in effectively than a few larger diameter bars
position simultaneously for the analysis. of the same area.
Reason (R) : The relationship between a. Both A and R are individually true and
loads and deformations in the plastic range R is the correct explanation of A
is not linear b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is the correct explanation of A consist of two
R is not the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true.
consist of two
120. Assertion (A) : In assigning activity
c. A is true but R is false durations in developing an AOA network,
d. A is false but R is true the technology to be adopted is inherently
117. Assertion (A) : The stress block used in considered but not the rate of utilization
the limit state design method is obtained (or consumption) of resources (or inputs).
by testing of concrete cylinder under Reason (R): The adopted technology
uniform rate of strain. dictates the compatibly preferred
Reason (R) : If a uniform rate of strain is consumption pattern of the inputs.
not adopted it is not possible to obtain the a. Both A and R are individually true and
descending portion of stress and strain R is the correct explanation of A
curve beyond maximum stress. b. Both A and R are individually true but
R is the correct explanation of A consist of two
R is not the correct explanation of A d. A is false but R is true.
consist of two
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2004 1 of 17
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. Match List I with List II and select the 5. What is the moisture depth available for
correct answer using the codes : evapotranspiration in root zone of 1 m
List I depth soil, if dry weight of soil is 1.5
A. Unit hydrograph gm/cc, field capacity is 30% and
B. Synthetic unit hydrograph permanent wilting point is 10% ?
C. Darcy’s law a. 450 mm
D. Rational method
List II b. 300 mm
1. Design flood c. 200 mm
2. Permeability d. 150 mm
3. Ungauged basin 6. Which one of the following correctly
4. 1 cm runoff defines aquiclude?
A B C D
a. A saturated formation of earth material
a. 2 3 4 1
which not only stores water but also
b. 2 1 4 3
yields it in sufficient quantity
c. 4 3 2 1
d. 4 1 2 3 b. A formation through which only
2. Which one of the following statements is seepage is possible and thus the yield
correct in respect of the two important is insignificant compared to an aquifer
aspects of flood forecast – (1) reliability of c. A geological formation which is
the forecast, and (2) the time available in neither porous nor permeable
between the forecast and the occurrence of d. A geological formation which is
flood? essentially impermeable to the flow of
a. Meteorological forecast is least reliable water
and time available is also the least 7. What is the regime scour depth for a
b. Hydrological forecast is most reliable channel in soil with silt factor of unity and
but the time available is the least carrying 8 m2/s of discharge intensity in
c. River forecast is least reliable and the accordance with Lacey’s regime theory ?
time available is the maximum
d. River forecast is most reliable but the a. 3.6 m
time available is the least b. 4m
3. The delta for a crop having base period c. 5.4 m
120 days is 70 cm. What is the duty ? d. 25.6 m
a. 2480 hectare/cumec
8. Which one of the following equations
b. 1481 hectare/cumec
represents the downstream curve of the
c. 148 hectare/cumec
“Ogee’ spillway (where x and y are the co-
d. 1.481 hectare/cumec
ordinates of the crest profile measured
4. For a culturable command area of 1000
from the apex of the crest, and H is the
hectare with intensity of irrigation of 50%,
design head) ?
the duty on field for a certain crop is 2000
hectare/cumec. What is the discharge a. x1.85 = 2 H0.85 y
required at head of water course with 25% b. x = 2 H1.85 y0.85
losses of water ? c. x0.85 = 2 H1.85 y
a. 3/16 cumec d. x = 2 H0.85 y1.85
b. 1/4 cumec
c. 1/3cumec 9. Clark’s method aims at which one of the
d. 1/2 cumec following?
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a. Developing an IUH due to an A B C D
instantaneous rainfall excess over a a. 2 3 5 4
catchment b. 5 3 4 1
b. Developing stage-discharge c. 5 1 4 3
relationship
d. 4 1 2 3
c. Measurement of infiltration
13. Which one of- the following pairs is not
d. Flood routing through channels correctly matched ?
10. For a saddle siphon, the maximum a. BOD / COD = 0 : Waste-water is toxic
operative head is 6.25 m. The width and
height of the throat of the siphon are 4 m b. BOD I COD  0.2 : Acclimatization of
and 2 m respectively. The coefficient of seed is necessary
discharge is 0.90. How many units are c. BOD / COD  0.6 : Waste-water is
required to pass a flood of 300 non-biodegradable
cumec?(Take g = 10 m/s2) d. BOD = COD = 0 : Waste-water is
a. One devoid of organic matter
b. Two 14. In aerobic conditions, the microbial
c. Three decomposition of organics results in the
d. Four formation of which one of the following?
11. Consider the following statements a. Stable and objectionable end products
regarding building manholes : b. Unstable and objectionable end
1. They must be provided at every change products
of alignment, gradient or diameter. c. Unstable and acceptable end products
2. They must be provided at the head of d. Stable and unobjectionable end
all sewers. products
3. They must be provided at every 15. A waste water sample of 2 ml is made upto
junction of two or more sewers 300 ml in BOD bottle with distilled water.
4. They must be provided at every 100 m Initial DO of the sample is 8 mg/l and after
along straight runs of sewers. 5 days it is 2 mg/l. What is its BOD ?
Which of the statements given above are a. 894 mg/l
correct ? b. 900 mg/l
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. 300 mg/l
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. 1200 mg/l
c. 1, 2 and 3 16. Consider the following statements
d. 2 and 4 Aeration in water treatment helps in
12. Match List I with List II arid select the 1. killing pathogens.
correct answer using the codes : 2. correcting pH.
List I (Parameter) 3. precipitating dissolved iron and
A. F/M ratio manganese.
B. Solar energy 4. expelling excess CO2 and H2S.
C. Effluent recirculation 5. expelling volatile oils.
D. Volatile fatty acids Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
List II (Treatment Unit or Process)
1. Anaerobic digester a. 2, 4 and 5
2. Detritus tank b. 3, 4 and 5
3. Waste stabilization pond c. 1, 2, 3 and 5
4. Trickling filter d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
5. Activated sludge process 17. Match List I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes :
3 of 17
List I (Fixture) 3. To determine the efficiency and
A. Surge arrester adequacy of a distribution system
during days of high demand
B. Butterfly valve
C. Scour valve 4. To determine the internal condition of
D. Check valve 5. pipeline with respect to friction loss
A B C D
List II (Purpose)
1. Prevention of reversal of flow in a a. 2 1 3 4
pipeline b. 2 3 1 4
2. Regulating or stopping the flow c. 4 1 3 2
especially in large size conduits d. 4 3 1 2
3. Control of water hammer 20. Two soil samples A and B have porosities
4. Draining or emptying the pipeline nA = 40% and nB = 60 % respectively.
section What is the ratio of void ratios eA : eB ?
A B C D a. 2 : 3
a. 1 2 4 3 b. 3 : 2
b. 3 2 4 1 c. 4 : 9
c. 1 4 2 3 d. 9 : 4
d. 3 4 2 1 21. Match List I (Densities) with List II
18. Which one of the following statements is (Expressions) and select the correct answer
correct ? using the codes given below :
If a sewer X is to be designed to generate (Symbols G, e, w and S stand for specific
equivalent self- cleansing action as in gravity of soil grains, void ratio, unit
sewer Y, then weight of water and degree of saturation
respectively)
a. velocity in sewer X must be equal to
velocity in sewer Y List I
b. slope of sewer X must be equal to A. Dry density
slope of sewer Y B. Moist density
c. tractive force intensity generated in C. Submerged density
sewer X must be same as that in sewer D. Saturated density
Y List II
d. the roughness coefficient of X sewer 1. {(G + Se) / (1 + e)}w
material should be same as that of Y
sewer material 2. {G /(1 + e)} w
19. Match List I with List II and select the 3. {(G + e) / (1 + e)} w
correct answer using the codes : 4. {(G — 1) / (1 + e)}w
List I A B C D
A. Test with sound waves in the audible a. 2 1 4 3
frequency range b. 2 3 4 1
B. Fire flow tests c. 4 1 2 3
C. Hydraulic gradient tests d. 4 3 2 1
D. Coefficient tests 22. What are the respective values of void
List II ratio, porosity ratio and saturated density
1. To determine the ability of a (in kN/m3) for a soil sample which has
distribution system to transmit water saturation moisture content of 20% and
with adequate residual pressure specific gravity of grains as 2.6 ?
2. Location and isolation of leaks (Take density of water 10 kN/m3)
a. 0.52, 1.08, 18.07
b. 0.52, 0.34, 18.07
4 of 17
c. 0.77, 1.08, 16.64 1. Coarse sand is more than a million
d. 0.520.34, 20.14 times permeable than a high plasticity
clay.
23. Embankment fill is to be compacted at a
density of 18 kN/m3. The soil of the 2. The permeability depends on the
borrow area is at a density of 15 kN/ m3. nature of soil and not on properties of
What is the estimated number of trips of 6 liquid flowing through soil.
Cu. m capacity truck for hauling the soil 3. If a sample of sand and a sample of
required for compacting 100 m3 fill of the clay have the same void ratio, both
embankment ? (Assume that the soil in the samples will exhibit the same
borrow area and that in the embankment permeability.
are at the same moisture content) 4. Permeability of soil decreases as the
a. 14 effective stress acting on the soil
b. 18 increases.
c. 20 Which of the statements given above are
d. 23 correct?
a. 1 and 2
24. Match List I (Equipment) with List II
(Use) and select the correct answer using b. 1 and 3
the codes given below c. 1 and 4
List I d. 2 and 3
A. Vibratory rollers 27. In a falling head permeability test on a
B. Sheep foot rollers soil, the time taken for the head to fall
C. Frog hammers from h0 to h1 is t. The test is repeated with
same initial head h0, the final head h’ is
D. Vibroflots noted in time t/2. Which one of the
List II following equations gives the relation
1. To compact soils in confined areas and between h’, h0 and h1 ?
at corners a. h’ = h0/h1
2. To compact road and railway b. h’= h 0 /h1
embankments of sandy soils
3. To densify sandy soils over a large c. h’ = h0 h1
area and to a larger depth d. h’ = h 0 h1
4. To compact clayey soil fills 28. Which one of the following statements is
A B C D correct?
a. 4 2 1 3 The one dimensional theory of
b. 4 2 3 1 consolidation proposed by Terzaghi
c. 2 4 1 3 derives its name due to the fact that
d. 2 4 3 1 a. only vertical dimension of the soil
sample is used for consolidation test
25. Soil is compacted at which one of The
and lateral dimensions are neglected
following when a higher compactive effort
produces highest increase in dry density ? b. water in the soil sample in
conventional consolidometer escapes
a. Optimum water content
in the lateral directions resulting into
b. Dry side of the optimum moisture settlements only in vertical direction
content
c. normal stress on the sample is applied
c. Wet side of the optimum moisture in only one (vertical) direction
content
d. lateral movements of soil grains are
d. Saturation moisture content not permitted across any vertical
26. Consider the following statements boundary resulting into only vertical
settlements to account for the decrease
5 of 17
in volume due to escape of water from c. sub H tan 
soil sample d. [dry H – H1 w] tan 
29. Match List I with List II and select the 32. A shear test was conducted on a soil
correct answer using the codes  3
List I (Protective Measure) sample. At failure, the ratio of 1 to
2
A. Inverted filter 1   3
is equal to unity.
B. Riprap 2
C. Clay core Which one of the following shear tests
D. Sand columns represents this condition ?
List II (Purpose) a. Drained triaxiaI compression test
1. To protect river banks from erosion by b. Undrained triaxial compression test
river flow c. Consolidated quick triaxial
2. To prevent escape of fine soils by compression test
seepage water d. Unconfined compression test
3. To reduce damage due to liquefaction 33. A footing of 3 m  3 m size transmits a
of saturated granular soils during load of 1800 kN. The angle of load,
earthquakes dispersion- in soil  = tan–1 0.5. What is
4. To reduce seepage of water through the stress created by the footing load at a
the body of the earth dams depth of 5 m?.
A B C D a. 26.12 kN/m2
a. 4 3 2 1 b. 27.12 kN/m2
b. 2 3 4 1 c. 28.12 kN/m2
c. 4 1 2 3 d. 29.12 kN/m2
d. 2 1 4 3 34. Which one of the following statements is
30. For a certain loading condition, a saturated correct?
clay layer undergoes 40% consolidation In dissolved oxygen sag curve, the sag
ma period of 178 days. What would be the results because
additional time required for further 20% a. it is a function of a rate of addition of
consolidation to occur ? oxygen to. the stream
a. 89 days b. it is a function of a rate of addition of
b. 222.5 days oxygen from the stream
c. 329.5 days c. it is a unction of both addition and
d. 400.5 days depletion of ‘oxygen from the stream.
31. d. the rate of addition of oxygen is linear,
but the rate of depletion is non-linear
35. An industry manufacturing urea produces
waste water, which largely contains urea
and ammonia. The treatment plant consists
of following units for effective control of
nitrogen
Which one of the following expressions 1. Nitrification followed by
represents the shear strength of soil at denitrification
point X ? Angle of shear resistance of soil 2. Hydrolysis unit
is  and symbols w , sat , sub , dry stand 3. Ammonia stripping by air
for unit weights of water, saturated soil, 4. Lime dosing and mixing unit
submerged soil and dry soil respectively Which one of the following is the correct
a. dry H tan  sequence of above unit operations in the
b. [sat H – (H + H1) w] tan  treatment plant?
6 of 17
a. 3-2-1-4 A B C D
b. 2-3-1-4 a. 3 2 1 4
c. 2-4-3-1 b. 1 4 3 2
d. 4-2-3-1 c. 3 4 1 2
36. Which one of the following procedures is d. 1 2 3 4
used for sampling of flue gas in a chimney 41. Which one of the following organisms is
for SPM ? responsible for enteric fever?
a. Isothermal sampling a. ECHO
b. Isokinetic sampling b. Salmonella typhi
c. Adiabatic condition c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Variable rate of sampling d. Echinococcus
37. Which one of the following units is 42. Which one of the following statements is
employed for the removal of particulate correct?
matter above 50 in size? If the specific gravity of a suspended
a. Gravity settling chamber particle is increased from 2 to 3, the
b. Cycltne settling velocity will
c. Fabric filter a. not change
d. Electrostatic precipitator b. get doubled
38. Which one of the following statements is c. get increased by 1.5 times
correct? d. get increased by 2.25 times
Acoustics of an auditorium is considered 43. Which one of the following is not a
to be excellent when its reverberation time specific criterion for calculating surface
is between overflow rate in sedimentation tank
a. 0.50 and 1.50 s design?
b. 1.50 and 2.00s a. Total quantity of water to be treated
c. 2.00 and 3.00 s b. Total surface area available in the tank
d. 3.00 and 5.00 s c. Total length of the tank
39. Which one of the following Acts/Rules has d. Total depth of the tank
a provision for “No right to appeal”? 44. Which of the following remedial measures
a. Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 are taken negative head and air binding in
b. The Hazardous Waste (Management a rapid sand filter?
and Handling) Rules, 1989 . 1. Avoiding the occurrence of excessive
c. Manufacture, Storage and Import of negative head
Hazardous Chemicals Rules, 1989 2. Pumping in air
d. Environment (Protection) Rules, 1992 3. Avoiding increase in water
40. Match List I with List II and select the temperature
correct answer using the codes 4. Control of algae growth
List I Select the correct answer using the codes
A. Protozoa given below
B. Bacteria a. 1, 3 and 4
C. Presence of nitrate > 45 mg/l b. 2, 3 and 4
D. Virus c. 1 and 2
List II d. 1,2, 3 and 4
1. Methamoglobinaemia 45. Match List. I with List II and select the
correct answer using the codes
2. Poliomyelitis
List I (Water/Waste Water Parameter)
3. Dysentry
A. Potability of water
4. Typhoid fever
7 of 17
B. Chloride List II (Purpose)
C. Residual chlorine 1. House plumbing
D. Hardness of water 2. Hot water carrying
List II (Test) 3. Distribution main
1. Mohr’s method 4. Pumping main
2. Orthotolidine method 50. Consider the following statements
3. E.D.T.A. method 1. The velocity of flow in the rising main
4. M. F. technique should not be less than 0.8 m/s at any
A B C D time.
a. 4 3 2 1 2. Maximum velocity of flow is generally
limited to 1.8 m/s and never allowed to
b. 2 1 4 3 exceed 3.0 m/s.
c. 2 3 4 1 In the design of large sewage pumping
d. 4 1 2 3 stations, which of the above conditions
46. Which one of the following problem of must be satisfied ?
short circuiting due to density currents ? a. 1 only
a. Batch b. 2 only
b. Complete mix c. Both 1 and 2
c. Plug flow d. Neither 1 nor 2
d. Fluidized bed 51. Match List I with List II and select the
47. Consider the following statements : correct answer using the Codes :
The basic difference between water pipes List I (Type of Signals)
and sewer pipes A. Detonating signal
1. in the material used for the pipes B. Coloured light signal
2. in the pressure of the liquid flow C. Home signal
3. in the suspended solids they carry D. Calling on signal
Which of the statements given above is/are List II (Characteristics)
correct? 1. Locational
a. 1 and 3 2. Operational
b. 1 only 3. Special
c. 2 and 3 4. Functional
d. 1, 2 and 3 A B C D
48. Which one of the following statements is a. 2 4 3 1
correct?
b. 4 2 1 3
A combined sewer is one, which transports
domestic sewage and c. 4 2 3 1
a. storm water d. 2 4 1 3
b. industrial wastes 52. Match List I with List II and select the
c. overhead flow
List I (Road Drainage System)
d. industrial wastes and storm water
A. Vertical sand drains
B. Causeways and culverts
C. Scuppers and catch water drains
List I (Type of Pipe)
A. Steel pipe D. Inlets and gratings
B. Cast iron pipe List II (Location)
C. G. 1. pipe 1. Urban road drainage
D. P.V.C. pipe 2. Hill roads
8 of 17
3. High embankments in soft soils What is the length L of the footing? Take
4. Cross drainage in road alignments width of both the footings as 3.5 m and
A B C D safe bearing capacity of soil as 350 kN/m2.
a. 3 2 4 1 a. 2.0 m
b. 1 4 2 3 b. 2.5 m
c. 3.5 m
c. 3 4 2 1
d. 1 2 4 3 d. 2.95 m
53. Match List I with List II select the correct 56. Assertion (A): At the standard
answer using the codes : temperature, the kinematic viscosity of air
is greater than that of water at the same
List I temperature.
A. Dynamometer car Reason (R) : The dynamic viscosity of air
B. Crossing station at standard temperature is lower than that
C. Ruling gradient of water at the same temperature.
D. Turn table a. Both A and. R are individually true
List II and R is the correct explanation of A
1. Arrangement for turning the direction b. Both A and R are individually true but
of an engine R is not the correct explanation of A
2. Information about condition of railway c. A is true but R is false
track d. A is false but R is true
3. Station on a single railway track 57. Assertion (A): When water flows through
system where Up and Down trains can a long stretch of a narrow rectangular
pass each other channel, the water surface at the walls is
4. Maximum rising gradient of railway higher than that at the central axis.
track depending on engine power Reason (R): Resistive effort of
A B C D atmospheric air is felt more at the walls
than away from the walls.
a. 2 3 1 4
a. Both A and. R are individually true
b. 2 3 4 1
and R is the correct explanation of A
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 3 2 1 4 R is not the correct explanation of A
54. The installation of sand drains in clayey c. A is true but R is false
soil causes the soil adjacent to the sand
drains to undergo which one of the
following? 58. Assertion (A) : The yield of a well varied
from 10 m3/day to 20 m3/day when the
a. Increase in porosity
aquifer area changed from 50 m2 to 75 m2.
b. Increase in compressibility
Reason (R) : The yield is found to be
c. Decrease in horizontal permeability directly proportional to the area of an
d. Decrease in shear strength aquifer opening into a well.
55. A strap footing is to be provided for the a. Both A and. R are individually true
two columns shown in the diagrams given and R is the correct explanation of A
below. b. Both A and R are individually true but
59. Assertion (A) The fluoride content in
drinking water should neither be too low
nor too high.
9 of 17
Reason (R) Deficiency of fluoride content c. A is true but R is false
causes mottling of teeth and its excess d. A is false but R is true
causes dental cavities in children. 63. Assertion (A) Plate load test carried out at
a. Both A and. R are individually true the site gives field test data which is useful
and R is the correct explanation of A in evaluation of bearing capacity and
b. Both A and R are individually true but settlements. It is normally conducted at the
R is not the correct explanation of A level of the proposed foundation.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Plate load test is reliable
d. A is false but R is true because it reflects the true behaviour of
60. Assertion (A) : Raft foundations are the foundation stratum below the proposed
level of foundation and extending up to
best type of shallow foundations to support
heavy structures. large depth below.
Reason (R): Raft foundation has the ability a. Both A and. R are individually true
to redistribute load coming on weak and R is the correct explanation of A
pockets of soil below raft to the adjacent b. Both A and R are individually true but
soils where the stresses are less severe for R is not the correct explanation of A
the soil at that place. This reduces the c. A is true but R is false
chances of differential settlements and d. A is false but R is true
increases the bearing capacity. 64. Assertion (A) : A series of closed contours
a. Both A and. R are individually true indicate either a valley or a hill without
and R is the correct explanation of A any outlet, when their elevations,
b. Both A and R are individually true but respectively, increase or decrease towards
R is not the correct explanation of A the centre.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Contour lines of different
d. A is false but R is true elevations can unite to form one line only
61. Assertion (A) : The settling velocity of a at a vertical cliff.
discrete particle will become five times a. Both A and. R are individually true
when its diameter doubles. and R is the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The settling velocity of a b. Both A and R are individually true but
discrete particle is almost proportional to R is not the correct explanation of A
the square of the particle diameter. c. A is true but R is false
a. Both A and. R are individually true d. A is false but R is true
and R is the correct explanation of A 65. Assertion (A) : A mosaic is large
b. Both A and R are individually true but photomap assembled from two or more
R is not the correct explanation of A aerial photographs of an area.
c. A is true but R is false Reason (R) : Photomap and mosaic are
d. A is false but R is true true planimetric representations of the
62. Assertion (A) : The drained its using area.
triaxial test apparatus are useful in the a. Both A and. R are individually true
study of drainage of water through the soil and R is the correct explanation of A
sample and hence the permeability of the b. Both A and R are individually true but
soil sample. R is not the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The permeability of soil is an c. A is true but R is false
important property useful in estimation of d. A is false but R is true
loss of imponded water through permeable
66. Assertion (A) : Open cut is economical
soil layers below the earth dams. than tunneling for depths of over burden
a. Both A and. R are individually true less than 20 metres.
and R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) Heading and Bench method is
b. Both A and R are individually true but suitable for tunneling in soft soils.
10 of 17
a. Both A and. R are individually true 70. When a load test was conducted by putting
and R is the correct explanation of A a 60 cm square plate on top of a sandy
b. Both A and R are individually true but deposit, the ultimate bearing capacity was
R is not the correct explanation of A observed as 60 kN/m2. What is the
c. A is true but R is false ultimate bearing capacity for a strip
footing of 1.2 m width to-be placed on the
d. A is false but R is true surface of the same soil ?
67. Assertion (A) : Breakwaters are common a. 75 kN/m2
in natural harbours.
b. 120 kN/m2
Reason (R) : Breakwaters help in
controlling wave action and sand c. 150 kN/m2
movement into the harbour area. d. 160 kN/m2
a. Both A and. R are individually true 71. Match List I with List II and select using
and R is the correct explanation of A the codes :
b. Both A and R are individually true but List I (Situation)
R is not the correct explanation of A A. Embankment construction
c. A is true but R is false B. Excavation of a pit
d. A is false but R is true C. Hydrostatic loading
68. A strip footing having 1.5 m width D. Lateral expansion of a backfill
founded at a depth of 3 m below ground List II (Stress Path)
level in a clay soil having C = 20 kN/m2,  1. Stress path moves in left side upward
0° and unit weight  = 20 kN/3. What is the direction
net ultimate bearing capacity using
2. Stress path moves in left side
Skempton’s analysis ?
downward direction
a. 30 kN/m2
3. Stress path moves in right side upward
b. 60 kN/m2 direction
c. 100 kN/m2 4. Stress path moves along the horizontal
d. 140 kN/m axis
69. Match List I with List II and select the A B C D
correct answer using the codes a. 3 2 1 4
List I (Unit Test) b. 3 2 4 1
A. Casagrande’s apparatus c. 2 3 4 1
B. B. Hydrometer d. 2 3 1 4
C. Plate load test 72. A plate load test is conducted on a
D. Oedometer cohesionless soil with a test plate having
List II (Purpose) width Bp (cm) and settlement of this plate
1. Determination of grain, size Sp (cm) is obtained at the same load
distribution intensity as on foundation. A footing
having a width Bf (cm) is to be constructed
2. Consolidation characteristics as foundation. What is the settlement Sf
3. Determination of consistency (cm) experienced by this footing?
4. Determination of safe bearing capacity a. Sf = Sp{[Bf (Bp + 30)] / [Bp (Bf +30)]}2
of soil limits b. Sf = Sp{[Bp (Bf + 30)] / [Bf (Bp +30)]}2
A B C D c. Sf = Sp [Bf / Bp]
a. 1 3 2 4 d. Sf = Sp [Bp / Bf]
c. 3 1 2 4 correct answer using the codes :
d. 3 1 4 2 List I (Type. of Foundation)
A. Floating piles
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B. Micro piles 2. Precast piles inserted into the holes
C. Combined footing bored at the site do not get damaged
D. Under-reamed piles while they are driven into the ground.
Which of the statements given above
List II (Type of Soil)
is/are, correct ?
1. Closed spaced columns resting on
a. 1 only
compressible soil
2. Expansive soils b. 2 only
3. Deep soft clays c. Both 1 and 2
4. Loose sands d. Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D 77. Match List I with List II and select the
a. 2 1 4 3
List I (Type of Foundation)
b. 2 4 1 3
A. Point bearing piles
c. 3 1 4 2
B. Sheet piles
d. 3 4 1 2
C. Compaction piles
74. A square pile of section 30 cm x 30 cm
and length 10 m penetrates a deposit of D. Batter piles
clay having C = 5 kN/m2 and the List II (Use of Foundation)
mobilizing factor m = 0.8. What is the load 1. To retain soil filling
carried by the pile by skin friction only? 2. To transfer heavy loads to strong
a. 192 kN stratum below a weak stratum
b. 75 kN 3. To resist lateral loads.
c. 60 kN 4. To densify loose soils
d. 48 kN A B C D
75. Match List I with List II and select the a. 3 1 4 2
correct answer using the codes b. 3 4 1 2
List I(Type of Strata below Foundation) c. 2 1 4 3
A. Sand d. 2 4 1 3
B. Heterogeneous landfill 78. Consider the following statements
C. Black cotton soil Prevention or elimination of swelling can
D. Hard rock be brought by
List II (Type of Foundation Movement) 1. providing an impervious apron around
1. Practically no movements the structure
2. Immediate settlements 2. pre-wetting the ground to a moisture
3. Large relative settlements content equal to equilibrium moisture
content.
4. Heaving of foundations
3. making downward loads large enough
A B C D to exceed swelling pressures.
a. 3 1 4 2 4. chemically stabilizing the soil with
b. 3 4 1 2 lime
c. 2 1 4 3 Which of the statements given above are
d. 2 4 1 3 correct?
76. Consider the following statements: a. 1 and 3
1. Pile foundations are usually provided b. 1 and 3
when loads coming on the foundation c. 2 and 3
are quite large. Such piles may often d. 1 2, 3 and 4
extend up to a large depth below
ground level.
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List I (Type of Survey) Reciprocal levelling eliminates the effect
A. Topographical survey of
B. Reconnaissance survey 1. errors due to earth’s curvature
C. Cadastral survey 2. errors due to atmospheric refraction
D. Archaeological survey 3. mistakes in taking levelling staff
readings
List II (Purpose)
1. To determine boundaries of fields, 4. errors due to line of collimation
houses etc. Which of the statements given above are
2. To find relics of antiquity correct?
3. To determine natural features of a a. 1, 2 and 3
country b. 1, 3 and 4
4. To determine possibility and rough c. 2, 3 and 4
cost of the surveying system to be d. 1, 2 and 4
adopted 83. Match List I with List II and select the
A B C D correct answer using the codes :
a. 3 4 1 2 List I
b. 3 1 4 2 A. Satellite station
c. 2 4 1 3 B. Gales traverse method
d. 2 1 4 3 C. Invar steel tape
80. On which one of the following are the D. Intervisibility of adjacent stations
third generation electro-optical instruments List II
based ? 1. Measurement of Baseline
a. Microwave 2. Characteristic of triangulation stations
b. Infra-red 3. Auxiliary theodolite station near an
c. UV light inaccessible main triangulation station
d. He-Laser light 4. Computation of coordinates of
81. Match List I with List II and select the traverse/triangulation stations
correct answer using the codes : A B C D
List I (Measurements) a. 3 1 4 2
A. Displacement measurement from b. 2 1 4 3
photograph c. 3 4 1 2
B. Electronic distance measurement d. 2 4 1 3
C. Base line measurement 84. What is the minimum number of satellites
D. Horizontal angle measurement required from which signals can be
List II (Instruments) recorded to enable a global positioning
1. Box sextant system receiver to determine latitude,
2. Subtense bar longitude and altitude ?
3. Tellurometer a. One
b. Two
4. Parallax bar
A B C D c. Three
a. 4 3 2 1 d. Four
b. 1 3 2 4 85. Setting off the ‘proper principal distance’
in the projectors of projection
c. 4 2 3 1 stereoplotters is a procedure for which one
d. 1 2 3 4 of the following?
82. Consider the following statements : a. Finding the focal length of the camera
used
13 of 17
b. Evaluating the digital terrain model c. 4 3 2 1
c. Carrying out the interior orientation d. 2 1 4 3
d. Filling the quotation for the purchase 90. Consider the following statements : A
of A7 stereoplotters transition curve is provided on a circular
86. Consider the following statements.: curve on a highway to provide
IRS series satellites are 1. gradual introduction of centrifugal
1. Low orbiting satellites force
2. Geostationary satellites 2. minimum stopping sight distance
3. Meteorological satellites 3. gradual introduction of super elevation
4. Resources survey satellites 4. comfort and security to passengers
Which of the statements given above are Which of the statements given above are
correct? correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 1 and 4
b. 2 and 3 b. 1, 3 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 4 c. 2, 3 and 4
d. 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 4
87. Which one of the following is measured by 91. Which one of the following defects
the area between the balancing line and the indicates progressive disintegration of
mass-haul curve? bituminous premix carpet surfacing by loss
of aggregates?
a. Haul between the balancing points
a. Potholes
b. Earthwork accumulated upto that point
b. Ravelling
c. Excess of excavation
c. Edge breaking
d. Excess of filling
d. Rutting
88. For a given road, safe stopping sight
92. What will be the ruling radius of a
distance is 80 m and passing sight distance
is 300 m. What is the intermediate sight horizontal curve on a national highway for
distance ? a design vehicle speed of 100 km/h,
assuming allowable super elevation to be
a. 220 m 7% and lateral friction as 0.13 ?
b. 190 m a. 405 m
c. 160 m b. 395 m
d. 150 m c. 385 m
89. Match List I with List II and select the d. 375 m
93. In 500 gm sample of coarse aggregate,
List I (Test) there are 100 gm flaky particles and 80 gm
A. Impact test elongates particles. What are the flakiness
B. Los-Angeles abrasion test and elongation indices (total) as per I.S. ?
C. Crushing test a. 40%
D. Stripping test b. 36%
List II (Purpose) c. 18%
1. Bitumen adhesion d. 4%
2. Toughness 94. The lost time due to starting delay on a
3. Hardness traffic signal approach is noted to be 3
seconds, the actual green time is 25
4. Strength
seconds and amber time is 3 seconds. How
A B C D much is the effective green time?
a. 2 3 4 1 a. 19s
b. 4 1 2 3 b. 25s
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c. 27s 4. For tunnelling of small cross- section
d. 31s area in stable rock attacking the whole
95. Which one of the following statements is section at time
correct? A B C D
The orientation of preferential runway in a. 2 1 4 3
an airport is influenced by b. 4 3 2 1
a. direction of prevailing wind, adequate c. 4 1 2 3
length. obstruction-free landing and d. 2 3 4 1
take-off zones 98. A solid cylinder of length L. diameter D
b. adequate waiting and service facilities and specific gravity 0.6 floats in neutral
c. convenience of terminal and control equilibrium in water with its axis vertical.
facilities What is the ratio of L to D ?
d. stable ground and adequate turning a. 3 /2
space
b. 2 3 / 5
96. Consider the following aircraft operations:
1. Normal landing c. 4 / 5 3
2. Normal take-off with all engines d. 5 / 4 3
3. Engine failure at take-off 99. Match List I (Causes) with List II (Effects)
4. Emergency landing with all engines pertaining to rotation and
shut vertical/horizontal motion of liquid masses
5. Landing with maximum payload with at constant acceleration and select the
the help of ILS correct answer using the codes
Which of the above aircraft operations are List I
taken into consideration in deciding the A. The form of the free surface of liquid
basic runway length required for an in a rotating open vessel
aircraft? B. The form of surface of the liquid in a
a. 1, 2 and 3 tanker moving in the direction of its
b. 2, 3 and 4 length
c. 3, 4 and 5 C. The pressure at any point in a
d. 1 and 5 containers base moving with upward
Acceleration
correct answer using the codes : D. The pressure at any point in a
container’s base moving with
List I (Method) downward acceleration
A. Fll face method List II
B. Heading and Bench method 1. An inclined plane
C. Drift method 2. A paraboloid of revolution
D. American method 3. Greater than the hydrostatic value
List II (Suitability) 4. Less than the hydrostatic value
1. For tunnelling of large cross- section A B C D
area through soft ground driving a top
drift and then widening the sides a. 4 1 3 2
2. For rock tunnelling carried out first in b. 4 3 1 2
smaller section of the proposed tunnel c. 2 3 1 4
and then widened d. 2 1 3 4
3. For driving the top portion in advance 100. Match List I with List II and select the
of the bottom potion for very large correct answer using the codes
tunnel section in unstable rocks List I (Features)
15 of 17
A. Open ended manometer for positive a. 97.8 Pa
pressure b. 48.9 Pa
B. Negative pressure manometer c. 79.8 Pa
C. For measuring pressure in liquids or d. 87.9 Pa
gases 103. A 1 : 30 Scale model of a submarine is to
D. For measuring pressure in liquids only. be tested in a wind tunnel for its drag when
List II (Types of Manometers) it is operating at 15 km/h in ocean. The
kinematic viscosity of air is 1.51 x 10–5
m2/s and for water 1.02 x 10–6 m2/s; What
is the velocity of air in wind tunnel that
should be maintained for kinematic
1. similarity?
a. 1500 m/s
b. 2000 m/s
c. 1850.5 m/s
d. 2500.5 m/s
2. 104. Consider the following statements
regarding the conditions to be satisfied for
the maximum discharge through a
trapezoidal channel section with side slope
1 : n, bed width b, flow depth d and having
a fixed bed slope.
3. 1. Sloping sides should have an angle of
300 with vertical
2. Hydraulic mean depth equals half the
flow depth
3. Length of sloping sides should be
equal to twice the bottom width
4. correct ?
A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 3 4 1 2
b. 1 and 2
b. 1 2 3 4
c. 2 and 3
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 and 3
d. 1 4 3 2
105. Water can flow with 1 m depth in
101. For a turbulent boundary layer (under zero alternatively four channels of different
pressure gradient), the velocity profile is sections as shown below
described by the one-fifth power law.
What is the ratio of displacement thickness
to boundary layer thickness ?
a. 1/7
b. 1/6
c. 1/5
d. 1/4
102. Oil ( = 0.44 Pa.s,  = 888 kg/m3) is filled
in the space between two parallel plates
which are 18 mm apart. The upper plate is
moving at a velocity of 4 m/s. What is the
shear stress on the plate 7
16 of 17
109. A combination of centrifugal pumps of
specific speed 20 and overall efficiency
80%, running at 800 rpm is to be used to
pump 40 lps of water to a height of 75 m.
What should be the arrangement ?
a. 3 pumps in series
b. 3 pumps in parallel
c. 4 pumps in series
d. 4 pumps in parallel
Which one of the following sequences 110. Match List I with List II and select the
shows their hydraulic radii, arranged in correct answer using the codes :
descending order ? List I (Machines)
a. D-C-B-A A. Centrifugal pump
b. D-A-C-B B. Reciprocating pump
c. A-B-C-D C. Francis turbine
d. A-B-D-C D. Pelton wheel
106. In a reach of open channel flow, with q = List II (Associated with)
m2/s, depth of flow at section A is 1.5 m 1. Percent slip
and at section B. 1 6 m. The difference in 2. Bucket
specific energies at two sections can be
correspondingly taken as 0.09 m. The bed 3. Guide blade
slope is 1 in 2000. The mean energy slope 4. Volute chamber
between the sections is given as 0.003. A B C D
What is the length of reach AB ? a. 4 3 1 2
a. 54 m with A on the upstream b. 4 1 3 2
b. 54 m with B on the upstream c. 2 3 1 4
c. 36 m with A on the upstream d. 2 1 3 4
d. 36 m with B on the upstream 111. A pelton wheel operates at 630 rpm taking
107. Two long pipes in parallel are used to 3 m3/s of water under head of 256 m with
carry water between two reservoirs. The a speed ratio of 0.48. (Given = 19.62 =
diameter of one pipe is twice that of the 4.43) What is the diameter of the impeller?
other. Both the pipes have the same value
of friction factor Neglect minor losses. a. 0.90 m
What is the ratio of flow rates through the b. 1.03 m
two pipes ? c. 1.42 m
a. 2.8 d. 1.80 m
b. 5.6 112. An impulse turbine of 3 m diameter is
c. 8 rated at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a
d. 11.3 head of 500 m. The turbine is operated
under the head of 400 m. What is the
108. A cen4rifugal pump discharges 260 litres power developed ?
of water per second when running at 600
rpm. The impeller diameter at the outlet is a. 15000 kW
80 cm. It develops a head of 15.3 m. What b. 14000 kW
is the approximate minimum starting c. 13000 kW
speed? d. 12000 kW
a. 425 rpm 113. An impulse turbine of 3m diameter is rated
b. 450 rpm at 10000 kW at 300 rpm under a head of
c. 475 rpm 500 m. The turbine is operated under the
d. 500 rpm
17 of 17
head of 400 m. What is the speed at which What is the value of p-index of the storm ?
it would run ? 1. 0.5 cm/h
a. 324 rpm 2. 0.7 cm/h
b. 336 rpm 3. 0.8 cm/h
c. 348 rpm 4. 0.9 cm/h
d. 364 rpm 118. Which one of the following is the correct
114. Which one of the following defines aridity sequence in the increasing order of the
index (AI)? Froude number of flow assumed by the
PET  AET bed form of an alluvial stream with
a. AI = 100 movable bed material ?
PET
a. Ripple — Plane bed — Dune — Plane
PET
b. AI = 100 bed - Antidune
AET
b. Dune — Ripple — Plane bed —
AET
c. AI = 100 Antidune — Plane bed
PET c. Plane bed — Ripple — Dune — Plane
AET  PET bed — Antidune
d. AI = 100
AET d. Plane bed — Ripple — Antidune —
where AET = Actual Evapotranspiration Dune — Plane bed
and PET = Potential Evapotranspiration 119. A bridge has an expected life of 50 years
115. Which one of the following filters should and is designed for a flood magnitude of
be recommended for protected rural water return period 100 years. What is the risk
supply project? associated with this hydrologic design ?
a. Pressure filter a. 1 – (0.99) 50
b. Slow sand filter b. (0.5) 50
c. Diatomaceous earth filter c. (0.99)50
d. Rapid sand filter d. (0.99)100
116. Which one of the following statements is 120. Match List I with List II and select the
correct ? correct answer using the codes :
In Snyder’s method of synthetic unit List I
hydrograph development, basin lag is A. Rising limb of a hydrograph
taken as B. Falling limb of a hydrograph
a. the time interval between centroid of C. Peak rate of flow
the rainfall excess and surface runoff
D. Drainage density
b. the time interval from mid point of the
List II
unit rainfall excess to the peak of the
unit hydrograph 1. Depends on intensity of rainfall
c. independent of rainfall duration 2. Function of total channel length
d. independent of catchment 3. Function of catchment slope
characteristics 4. Function of storage characteristics
117. A storm with 14 cm precipitation produced A B C D
a direct runoff of 8 cm. The time a. 3 4 1 2
distribution of the storm is as shown in the b. 1 4 3 2
table below
c. 3 2 1 4
d. 1 2 3 4
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005 1 of 16
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. Match List I (Machinery) with List II compression reinforcement is the depth of
(Purpose) and select the correct answer neutral axis, and d is the effective depth to
using the code given below the Lists : the centre of tension reinforcement. What
List I is the maximum strain in concrete at the
level of compression reinforcement?
A. Bulldozer
a. 0.0035 (1–d’/d)
B. Power shovels
b. 0.0035 (1– d’/xu)
C. Dragline
c. 0.002 (1 – d’/xu)
D. Clamshell
d. 0.002 (1– d’/d)
List II
4. Which one of the following method is
1. Most suited for verticality lifting loose employed to manufacture pre-stressed
materials concrete sleepers for the railways?
2. The bucket in this unit digs by pulling a. Post-tensioning
the load towards it
b. Pre-tensioning
3. To excavate all types of soils and
dump it into trucks c. Pre-tensioning followed by post-
tensioning
4. For digging the earth at or below the
operating level and loading it to d. Partial pre-stressing
hauling units 5. Consider the following statements:
5. Largely employed for excavating and In an under-reinforced concrete beam,
moving the earth 1. Actual depth of neutral axis is less than
A B C D the critical depth of neutral axis.
a. 5 3 4 1 2. concrete reaches ultimate stress prior
b. 1 4 2 5 to steel reaching the ultimate stress.
c. 5 4 2 1 3. moment of resistance is less than that
of balanced sections.
d. l 3 4 5
4. lever arm of resisting couple is less
2. Consider the following statements? than that of balanced sections.
The main reinforcement in the counter fort Which of the statements given above are
in a counter fort retaining wall of R.C.C. is correct?
provided on the
a. 1 and 2
1. inclined face in front of counter fort.
b. 1 and 3
2. bottom face in back counter fort.
c. 2, 3 and 4
3. inclined face n back counterfoil.
d. 1 and 4
4. bottom face in front counterfoil.
6. What is the minimum number of
Select the correct answer using the code longitudinal bars provided In a reinforced
given below: concrete column of circular cross section?
a. 1 and 2 a. 4
b. 2 and 3 b. 5
c. 3 and 4 c. 6
d. 2 and 4 d. 8
3. A doubly reinforced concrete beam has 7. Drop panel is a structural component in:
effective cover d’ to the centre of
a. Grid floor
2 of 16
b. Flat plate b. If the earthquake load is in-plane
c. Flat slab c. If it is unreinforced
d. Slab-beam system of floor d. If it is placed as infill to the frame
8. Match List I with List II and select the 12. What is number of categories into which
correct answer using the code given below masonry buildings are divided on this
the Lists : basis of earthquake resistance features?
List I a. Five
A. Modular Ratio b. Four
B. Seismic Forces c. Three
C. Pedestal d. Two
D. Composite Column 13. On which one of the following concepts is
List II the basic principle of structural design
1. Increase of permissible stresses based?
2. Minimum eccentricity a. Weak column strong beam
3. Limit state method b. Strong column and weak beam
4. Metal core c. Equally strong column-beam
5. Permissible compressive stress due to d. Partial weak column-beam
bending in concrete 14. Match List I (Post-tensioning System) with
A B C D List II (Type of Anchorage) and select the
correct answer using the code given below
a. 5 1 2 4 the Lists :
b. 4 2 3 5
List I
c. 5 2 3 4
A. Freyssinet
d. 4 1 2 5 B. Gifford-Udall
9. Which one of the following systems of C. Lee-McCall
pre-stressing is suitable for pre-tensioned
members? D. Mangel Blaton
a. Freyssinet system List II
b. Magnel-Blaton system 1. Flat steel wedges in sandwich plates
c. Hoyer system 2. High strength nuts
d. Gifford-Udall system 3. Split conical wedges
10. Which of the following measures are 4. Conical serrated concrete wedges
resorted to for strengthening masonry A B C D
walls? a. 2 1 4 3
1. Provide cross walls. b. 4 3 2 1
2. Pre-stressing. c. 2 3 4 1
3. Provide gunite slab on the surface(s) of d. 4 1 2 3
walls. 15. If the Young’s modulus ‘E’ is equal to
4. Provide buttresses. bulk modulus ‘K’, then what is the value
Select the correct answer using the code of the Poisson’s ratio?
given below: 1
a.
a. 1, 3 and 4 4
b. 1 and 2 1
b.
c. 2 and 3 2
d. 1, 2, 3 and 4 1
c.
11. When is a masonry wall known as a shear 3
wall? 3
a. If the earthquake load is out-of-plane d.
4
3 of 16
16. What is the ratio of maximum shear stress b. 088 mm
to average shear stress for a circular c. 0.22 mm
section? d. 1 mm
a. 2 21. At a certain point in a structural member
3 there are perpendicular stresses 80 N/mm2
b.
2 and 20 N/mm2, both tensile. What is the
4 equivalent stress in simple tension,
c. according to the maximum principal strain
3
theory ? (Poisson’s ratio = 0.25)
3
d. a. Zero
4
b. 20 N/mm2
17. For a state of plane stress 1 = x = 40 c. 60 N/mm2
MPa, and 2 = y = 2OMPa. What are the
d. 75 N/mm2
values of the maximum in-plane shearing
stress and absolute maximum shearing 22.
stress?
a. (± 10, 20)MPa
b. (±10, 10)MPa
c. (± 20, 10) MPa
d. (± 20, 20) MPa
18. At a certain point in a strained material,
there are two mutually perpendicular A uniform beam of span I carries a
stresses x = 100 N/mm2 (Tensile) and x uniformly distributed load w per unit
= 50 N/mm2 (Compressive). length as shown in the figure given above.
The supports are at a distance of x from
[Notation : Tension (+);
either end. What is the condition for the
Compression (–) ] maximum bending moment in the beam to
What are the values of the principal be as small as possible?
stresses in N/mm2 at that point? a. x = 0.1071
a. 100, –50 b. x = 0.207l
b. –100, 50 c. x = 0.2371
c. 75, –25 d. x = 0.251
d. –75, 25 23.
19. In a plane strain problem in xy plane, the
shear strain = 12 x 10–6, and the normal
strain In x and y direction = 0. For this
state of strain, what is the diameter of the
Mohr’s Circle of strain? For the simply supported beam shown in
a. 6 x 10–6 the figure given above, at what distance
b. 8 x 10–6 from the support A, is the shear force
c. 12 x 10–6 zero?
d. 24 x 10–6 a.
L
20. A mild steel bar of square cross-section 40 4
mm x 40 mm is 400 mm long. It is L
b.
subjected to a longitudinal tensile stress of 3
440 N/mm2 and lateral compressive stress L
is 200 N/mm2 In perpendicular directions. c.
2
E = 2 x 10–5 N/mm2,  = 0.3. What is the
approximate elongation of the bar in the L
d.
longitudinal direction? 3
a. 0.44 mm 24.
4 of 16
A cantilever AB is loaded as shown in the

figure given above. What is the shape of The beam shown in the figure given above
the bending moment diagram for portion is subjected to concentrated load and
AC? clockwise couple.
a. Parabolic What is the vertical reaction at A?
b. Linearly varying with maximum value a. 10 kN
of the bending moment at C b. 40 kN
c. Linear with constant bending moment c. 50 kN
value from C to A d. 30 kN
d. Linearly varying with maximum value 28. A beam has the same section throughout
at A its length with I = 1 x 108 mm4. It is
25. subjected to a uniform B.M. = 40 kNm. E
= 2 x 105 N/mm2. What is the radius of
curvature of the circle into which the beam
will bend in the form of an arc of a circle?
a. 1000m
A cantilever beam AB carries loadings as
b. 500m
shown in the figure above. Which one of
the following is the SFD for the beam? c. 400m
d. 350m
a.
b. 29.
A bar of circular cross-section of diameter
D is subjected to a torque T at B as shown
in the figure given above. What is the
angle of twist at A?
c.
a. Same as that at B
b. Zero
c. Twice as that at B
d.
26. d. Half as that at B
30.
Couple M is applied at C on a simply

supported beam AB. What is the
maximum shear force for the beam?
a. Zero
b. M Consider the following statements for the
column with a bracket as shown in the
c. 2 M/3
figure given above:
d. M/3
1. Shear force is constant throughout.
27.
5 of 16
2. Maximum moment in the column is is 7.5 mm. What is the slope at the free
Pe. end?
3. The compressive axial force in the a. 0.01 radian
column is 0.4 p. b. 0.02 radian
Which of the statements given above is/are c. 0.015 radian
correct? d. 0.025 radian
a. 1, 2 and 3 34. Which one of the following structures is
b. 1 only statically determinate and stable?
c. 1 and 3
d. 2 only
31.
a.
b.
What is the vertical displacement at the

point C of the structure shown in the figure
given above?
9Pa 3 c.
a.
2EI
d.
27Pa 3 35.
b.
2EI
27Pa 3
c.
8EI
3Pa 3
d.
8EI
32.
A three-hinged loaded semicircular arch
ACB is shown in the figure given above.
What is the shearing force at the hinge C?
a. 20 kN
b. 20 2 kN
c. 10 kN
d. 10 2 kN
What is the bending moment at A for the correct?
bent column shown in the figure given
Linear arch is one which represents:
above?
a. centre line of an arch
a. 40 kNm
b. variation of bending moment
b. 20 kNm
c. thrust line
c. 10 kNm
d. variation of shear force
d. zero
37. A point load applied at shear centre
33. The deflection at the free end of a
induces:
uniformly loaded cantilever of length 1 m
a. Zero shear force
6 of 16
b. Zero bending
c. Pure twisting
d. Pure bending
38. 41.
What is the degree of indeterminacy of the
frame shown in the figure given above?
a. 4
b. 3
c. 2
What is the ratio of the forces in the d. Zero
members AB, BE and AE of the pin-joined 42. Consider the following statements:
truss shown in the figure given above? 1. In a non-circular structural member
a. 5 : 4 : 3 subjected to torsion, plane sections
b. 4 : 3 : 5 before twisting remain plane after
twisting.
1 1 1
c.   :   :   2. The analysis of indeterminate
 4 3 5 structures by the theorem of three
d. None of the above moments does not give the exact
39. Which one of the following is correct in solutions.
respect of the influence line for the 3. The work done by the external Loads
bending moment at one- fourths of the during a vertical deformation is not
span from left support of a prismatic beam equal to the increase in internal energy
simply supported at ends? stored in the body.
a. It is composed of straight lines only Which of the statements given above is/are
b. It is composed of curved lines only correct?
c. It is composed of straight and curved a. 1 and 2
line b. 2 and 3
d. It is parabolic c. 1 and 3
40. d. None
43.
A prismatic beam is shown in the figure

given above.
Consider the following statements:
1. The structure is unstable.
2. The bending moment is zero at
supports and internal hinge.
3. It is mechanism. The figure given above shows a rigid
frame fixed at A and hinged at C. If a pure
4. It is statically indeterminate.
moment of 20 kNm is applied at B in the
Which of the statements given above is/are plane of the figure, then what is the
correct? moment at the fixed end A?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. 10 kNm
b. 1, 2 and 3 b. 7.5 kNm
c. 1 and 2 c. 5 kNm
d. 3 and 4 d. 2.5 kNm
the Lists :
7 of 16
List I capacity is Mp. What is the value of its
A. Strain energy method collapse load?
B. Slope-deflection 4M p
a.
C. Moment distribution L
D. Kani’s method 6M p
b.
List II L
1. Successive approximation 8M p
2. Flexibility method c.
L
3. Iteration process
11.7 M p
4. Stiffness method d.
L
A B C D
48.
a. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 3 1 4
c. 1 3 2 4
d. 2 4 1 3
45. Which one of the following statements Is
correct? The number of unknowns to be
determined in the stiffness method is equal What is the total degree of indeterminacy,
to: both internal and external of the plane
a. the static indeterminacy frame shown above?
b. the kinematic indeterminacy a. 10
c. the sum of kinematic indeterminacy b. 11
and static indeterminacy c. 12
d. two times the number of supports d. 14
46. The stiffness matrix of a beam element is 49. Which one of the following is the correct
 2 EI   2 1 statement? In beam to column connections
   in steel construction, if torsion is permitted
 L  1 2 
at the ends of simply supported beams by
Which one of the following is its not providing the cleats, the
flexibility matrix?
a. effective length of the beam increases
 L  2 1 by 20%
a.   
 2 EI   1 2  b. effective length remains same as the
actual length
 L   2 1
b.    c. permissible bending stresses are
 3EI   1 2  increased by around
 L   1 2  d. joint has to be designed for torsion
c.   
 5 EI   2 1  50. For a vertical stiffened web of a plate
girder, the lesser clear dimension of the
 L   1 2 
d.    panel should not exceed:
 6 EI   2 1  a. 85 t
47. b. 180 t
c. 200 t
d. 250 t
(where t is the thickness of the web)
51. What is the permissible tensile stress in
bolts used for column bases?
For the propped cantilever beam shown in a. 120 N/mm2
the figure given above, the plastic moment
b. 150 N/mm2
8 of 16
c. 0.6fy Reason (R) : Pure shear on a rectangular
d. 0.4 fy element results in tension along one
(where fy is the yield stress of the steel) diagonal and compression along the other
diagonal.
52. What is the effective height of a free-
standing masonry wall for the purpose of a. Both A and R are individually true and
computing slenderness ratio? R is the correct explanation of A
a. 0.5 L b. Both A and R are individually true but
b. 1.0 L
c. 2.0 L
d. 2.5 L
57. Assertion (A): In certain special situations,
53. A square column section of size 350 mm x omitting the shear effect deformations can
350 mm is reinforced with four bars of 25 lead to significant errors.
mm diameter and four bars of 16 mm
diameter. Then the transverse steel should Reason (R) : In general, when the bending
be: moments very along the length of the
beams, the shearing stress, resultants will
a. 5 mm dia @ 240mm c/c be present and will influence deformation.
b. 6 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. 8 mm dia @ 250 mm c/c R is the correct explanation of A
d. 8 mm dia @ 350 mm c/c b. Both A and R are individually true but
54. Assertion (A) : In resource levelling R is not the correct explanation of A
approach of resource allocation, activity c. A is true but R is false
start times are scheduled such that the peak
demand for a particular resource remains
within available limit of the resources. 58. Assertion (A): The total virtual work done
by a system of forces acting on a rigid
Reason (R) : In resource levelling body. In equilibrium during a virtual
approach of resource allocation, the total displacement is zero.
project time is not changed.
Reason (R) : If a system of forces acting
a. Both A and R are individually true and on a deformable body is in equilibrium, as
R is the correct explanation of A the body is subjected to a small
b. Both A and R are individually true but deformation, the external virtual work
R is not the correct explanation of A done by the forces will also be zero.
c. A is true but R is false a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. A is false but R is true R is the correct explanation of A
55. Assertion (A): Interference float is the b. Both A and R are individually true but
event slack at the headed node of an R is not the correct explanation of A
activity. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : Interference float cannot be d. A is false but R is true
shared by any other activity.
59. Assertion (A): The design shear strength
a. Both A and R are individually true and of axially loaded beams is increased by a
R is the correct explanation of A  3Pu 
factor as per IS codes, 1+ 
 A f 
b. Both A and R are individually true but or 1.5
R is not the correct explanation of A  g ck 
c. A is true but R is false whichever is less.
d. A is false but R is true (Where Pu is axial Load, Ag gross area of
56. Assertion (A): A rectangular element is column and fck characteristic concrete
subjected to pure shear. This will result in strength)
cracks along one diagonal and crushing Reason (R) : The presence of axial
along the other diagonal. compressive force is to hasten the
formation of both flexural and inclined
cracks.
9 of 16
a. Both A and R are individually true and Which of the following given above is/are
R is the correct explanation of A correct?
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. 1, 2 and 3
R is not the correct explanation of A b. 1 only
c. A is true but R is false c. 2 and 3
d. A is false but R is true d. 1 and 3
60. Assertion (A): The concept of locating the 64. Match List I (Diagram Based
neutral axis in a reinforced concrete Nomenclature) with List II (Information
flexural member as centroidal axis is Capability) and select the correct answer
applicable in working stress design using the code given below the Lists
method, but not in limit state design List I
method.
A. Work-breakdown structure
Reason (R) : The working stress design
method assumes that the structural B. B. Bar chart
material behaves in a non-linear elastic C. Linked bar chart
manner and there is strain compatibility in D. D. Time computations on network
bond between steel and concrete. List II
a. Both A and R are individually true and 1. Target dates for interface events can be
R is the correct explanation of A stipulated
b. Both A and R are individually true but 2. Can be heretical
R is not the correct explanation of A 3. 3. Can include information on cost
c. A is true but R is false distribution over time
d. A is false but R is true 4. Best suited for monitoring including
61. Assertion (A): Minimum shear that for costs
reinforcement in all shallow beams is A B C D
provided when shear stress exceeds 0.5 c a. 4 3 2 1
(where c is design shear stress). b. 2 1 4 3
Reason (R) : Minimum shear c. 4 1 2 3
reinforcement prevents formation of
inclined cracks and avoids abrupt failures d. 2 3 4 1
and introduces ductility in shear. 65. Which one of the following is the correct
statement?
R is the correct explanation of A The strength of timber:
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. is maximum in a direction parallel to
R is not the correct explanation of A the grain
c. A is true but R is false b. is maximum in a direction
perpendicular to the grain
62. In a tree, the cambium layer is situated c. is maximum in a direction 45o to the
between: grain
a. The outer bark and inner bark d. remains same in all directions
b. The inner bark and sap wood 66. Consider the following statements:
c. The sap wood and heart wood The disease of dry not in timber is caused
by:
d. The pith and heart wood
1. complete submergence in water.
63. Consider the following statements:
2. alternate wet and dry condition.
Kiln seasoning of timber results is:
3. lack of ventilation.
1. reduced density.
Which of the statements given above is/are
2. reduced life. correct?
3. dimensional stability. a. 1 only
b. 3 only
10 of 16
c. 2 only b. Radioactive waves
d. 2 and 3 c. Ultrasonic pulse
67. Match List I (Term) with List II (Brief d. Creep-recovery
Description) and select the correct answer 71. Match List I (Apparatus) with List II
using the code given below the Lists : (Purpose) and select the correct answer
List I using the code given below the Lists :
A. Heart shakes List I
B. Knot A. Le-chatelier
C. Rot B. Vicat Needle with annular collar
D. Sap Wood C. Vee-Bee
List II D. Briquettes test machine
1. Disintegration caused by fungi List II
2. Outer layers of a log of wood 1. Workability of concrete
3. A branch base embedded in timber by 2. Soundness of cement
natural growth 3. Tensile strength of cement
4. Cracks widest at centre and 4. Final setting time of cement
diminishing towards the outer A B C D
circumference
a. 1 3 2 4
A B C D
b. 2 4 1 3
a. 1 3 4 2
c. 1 4 2 3
b. 4 2 1 3
d. 2 3 1 4
c. 1 2 4 3
72. Match List I (Type of Cement) with List II
d. 4 3 1 2 (Characteristics) and select the correct
68. Which one of the following is the correct answer using the code given below the
statement? Refractory bricks resist: Lists :
a. high temperature List I
b. chemical action A. Rapidly hardening cement
c. dampness B. Low heat Portland cement
d. all the above three C. Portland Puzzolana
69. Which one of the following is the correct D. Sulphate resisting cement
statement? Smaller size of aggregates in a List II
concrete mix:
1. Lower C3A content than that in OPC
a. provides larger surface area for
bonding with the mortar matrix which 2. Contains pulverised fly ash
increases the compressive strength and 3. Higher C3S content than that is OPC
reduces the stress concentration at the 4. Lower C3S and C3A contents than that
mortar-aggregate interface in OPC
b. is economical as the concrete mix is A B C D
more dense a. 1 2 4 3
c. requires lesser cement for a particular b. 3 4 2 1
water-cement ratio and hence is c. 1 4 2 3
economical
d. 3 2 4 1
d. is beneficial as these aggregates can
73. Why is super plasticizer added to
pass through the reinforcement bars
concrete?
more easily
1. To reduce the quantity of mixing
70. On which of the following is the working
water.
principle of concrete hammer for non-
destructive test based? 2. To increase the consistency
a. Rebound deflections 3. To reduce the quantity of cement.
11 of 16
4. To increase resistance to freezing and 78. Which one of the following sections
thawing. performs better on the ductility criterion?
Select the correct answer using the code a. Balanced section
given below: b. Over-reinforced section
a. 1, 2 and 3 c. Under-reinforced section
b. 1, 3 and 4 d. Non-prismatic section
c. 2 and 3 79. A beam of rectangular cross-section (b x
d. 4 only d) is subjected to a torque T. What is the
74. Consider the following statements: maximum torsional stress induced in the
Cement concrete is a/an: beam?
1. elastic material. T
a.
2. visco-elastic material. αb 2 d
3. visco-plastic material. T
b.
Which of the statements given above is/are αbd 2
correct? T
c.
a. 1, 2 and 3 αbd
b. 2 and 3 T
d.
c. 2 only bd
d. 1 only (Where b <d, and  is a constant)
75. In a shape test of aggregate, which one of 80. Match List I (Codal Parameter) with List II
the following gives the correct slot for (Structural Member) and select the correct
flakiness index of a material passing 50 answer using the code given below the
mm sieve and retained on 40mm sieve? Lists :
a. 25 mm List I
b. 27mm A. 0.04 b D
c. 81 mm B. 250 b2/d
d. 30mm C. 100 b2d
76. On which one of the following factors, D. (kxlx)/Dx
does strength of concrete depend List II
primarily?
1. Column
a. Quality of coarse aggregate
2. Cantilever
b. Quality of fine aggregate
3. Continuous beam
c. Fineness of cement
4. Beam
d. Water-cement ratio
A B C D
a. 4 1 2 3
regarding the phenomenon of bulking of
sand: b. 2 3 4 1
1. It is due to film of water around sand c. 4 3 2 1
particles. d. 2 1 4 3
2. It is due to capillary action. 81. Which of the following are the additional
3. It is more in finer sands. moments considered for design of slender
compression member in lieu of deflection
Which of the following statements given
in x and y directions?
above is, are correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 Pu lex2 Pu ley2
a. and
b. 1 and 3 2000 D 2000 D
c. 2 and 3 Pu lex Pl
b. and u ey
d. 1 and 2 2000 2000
12 of 16
Pl2
Pu ley2 Which of the statements given above is/are
u ex
c. and correct?
2000D 2000b
2 a. 1 only
Pu lex2 Pl
d. and u ey b. 1 and 2
200D 200D
c. 1 and 3
(Where Pu is axial load; lex and ley are
d. 2 and 3
effective lengths in respective directions;
D depth of section  to major axis; b width 86. Which of the following should be
of the member) employed to provide lateral support to the
beams?
82. What should be the minimum grade of
reinforced concrete in and around sea 1. Bracing of compression flanges.
coast construction? 2. Shear connectors.
a. M 35 3. Bracing of tension flanges.
b. M 30 4. Embedding compression flanges into
c. M 25 R.C.C. slab.
d. M 20 Select the correct answer using the code
given below:
83. Which one of the following correctly
expresses the split tensile strength of a a. 1 only
circular cylinder of length L and diameter b. 1 and 4
D, subject to a maximum load of P? c. 2 and 3
P d. 1, 2 and 4
a.
πDL 87. Where should splices in the columns be
P provided?
b. a. At the floor levels
2πDL
2P b. At the mid height of columns
c. c. At the beam-column joints
πDL
P d. At one-fourth height of columns
d. 88. Which one of the following stresses is
4πDL
independent of yield stress as a
84. What is the value of flexural strength of M permissible stress for steel members?
25 concrete?
a. Axial tensile stress
a. 4.0 MPa
b. Maximum shear stress
b. 3.5 MPa
c. Bearing stress
c. 3.0 MPa
d. Stress in slab base
d. 1.75 MPa
89. Why are tie plates provided in laced
85. Consider the following statements with columns?
regard to crack formation and its control:
a. To check the buckling of column as
1. The surface width of the crack should whole
not, in general, exceed 0.30 mm for
b. To check the buckling of the lacing
structures not subjected to aggressive
flats
environment.
c. To check the buckling of the
2. When depth of web in a beam exceeds
component columns
750 mm, side face reinforcement @
0.1 percent of web area should be d. To check the distortion of the end cross
provided on each face. sections
3. The nominal spacing of main bars in a 90. A steel rod of 16 mm diameter has been
slab should not exceed three times the used as a tie in a bracing system, but may
effective depth of a solid slab or 300 be subject to possible reversal of stress due
mm, whichever is smaller. to the wind. What is the maximum
permitted length of the member?
13 of 16
a. 1600 mm
b. 1400 mm
c. 1200 mm
d. 1000 mm
91. Consider the following statements in
In the propped cantilever shown in the
respect of plate girders:
figure given above, what are the values of
1. A large number of cover plates are the bending moment and shear force at the
provided over flange angles so that support A?
curtailed flanges match the bending
a. 2 Pa, P/3
moment diagram exactly.
b. Pa, P
2. At least one cover plate should extend
over the entire span so that rain water c. Pa, P/3
may not enter and corrode the d. 2 Pa, 4P/3
connections. 95. A, B, C, D and E are the 5 activities along
3. A minimum of one-third of flange area the unique critical path of a AOA network
should be provided in flange angles of activities. Their characteristics are as
and balance in flange cover plates for under:
stability.
correct?
a. 1 and 2 What is the possible range of project
b. 2 and 3 duration (in days)?
c. 1 and 3 a. 31.2 to 54.8
d. 1, 2 and 3 b. 28.1 to 57.9
92. A beam of rectangular section having c. 25.5 to 60.5
simply supported span L, is subject to a d. 24.6 to 61.4
concentrated load at its mid-span. What is 96. What Is the significant purpose of
the length of elasto-plastic zone of the monitoring a project through its
plastic hinge? implementation phase?
L a. To fix responsibility for delays
a.
3 b. To rerail the project with control over
L cost over-run
b.
4 c. To rerail the project with minimum
L time over-run
c. d. To rerail the project with optimal time
5
and cost overrun
L
d. 97. A bulldozer operates on a 30 m stretch and
7 moves at 2.4 kmph when pushing the
93. The plastic modulus of a section is 5 x 10–4 earth, and returns empty at 6 kmph. The
m3. Its shape factor is 1.2 and the plastic time lost in loading and shifting gears per
moment capacity is 120 kNm. What Is the trip is 18 seconds. Its operating factor is
value of the yield stress of the material? nearly 50 mm/hour. What is the number of
a. 100 N/mm2 trips made per hour?
b. 200 N/mm2 a. 31
c. 240 N/mm2 b. 33
d. 288 N/mm2 c. 35
94. d. 37
98. Match List I (Reporting Feature) with List
II (Implication and/or Possibility) and
14 of 16
select the correct answer using the code Two activities A and B are to be done in
given below the Lists : the given sequence. The variation of direct
List I cost (DC) with possible activity duration
A. PERT study (T) (in days) is indicated for each activity
above. What is the increase in total direct
B. Time-cost study cost between a combined duration of 16
C. Critical path identification days and 13 days?
D. Linked bar chart a. 5
List II b. 6
1. Cost build up on project over time can c. 7
be depicted
d. 8
2. Choice of technology can be 101. What type of vibrator is used for
concurrent concreting thin section as well as heavily
3. Choice of technology is predetermined reinforced section?
4. May be affected by probabilistic a. Vibrating needle
activity durations
b. Internal vibrator
A B C D c. Surface vibrator
a. 3 2 4 1 d. Form vibrator
b. 1 4 2 3 102. Which of the following advantages accrue
c. 3 4 2 1 to the use of Articulate Dump Trucks
d. l 2 4 3 (AD1) over Rigid Dump Trucks (RDT) for
99. construction and earth moving work?
1. Higher manoeuverability.
2. Low turning radius.
3. Lower fleet costs.
For an activity 201-207 in an AOA Select the correct answer using the code
network, the EEL values, LET values and given below:
activity duration are shown in the figure a. 1, 2 and 3
given above. Between free float b. 1 and 2
interference float and independent float,
which one of the following is the correct c. 1 and 3
sequence in the decreasing magnitude d. 2 and 3
order? 103. Match List I with List U and select the
a. Free float — Interference float — correct answer using the code given below
Independent float the Lists :
b. Free float — Independent float — List 1 (Type of Rollers)
Interference float A. Pneumatic roller
c. Interference float — Free float — B. Vibratory roller
Independent float C. Sheep foot roller
d. Interference float — Independent float D. Grid and mesh roller
— Free float List II (Uses)
100. 1. Granular and silty materials,
bituminous road works, etc.
2. Compaction of cohesive material like
clay
3. Compaction of non-cohesive soil
4. Compaction of gravel base
A B C D
a. 1 3 2 4
15 of 16
b. 2 4 1 3 What is the equivalent spring stiffness for
c. 1 4 2 3 the system of springs shown in the figure
d. 2 3 1 4 given above?
104. Consider the following statements: a. 43 kN/m
The Salient features of a bar chart over b. 50 kN/m
network are that: c. 58 kN/m
1. It is simple to draw and easy to d. 64 kN/m
understand. 107.
2. It is unable to depict interdependence
of activities.
3. It clearly distinguishes between critical
and noncritical activities.
4. It is not possible to crash activities to The free end of a cantilever beam is
get optimum and minimum duration of supported by the free end of another
the project. cantilever beam using a roller as shown In
the figure given above. What is the
Which of the following statements given
deflection at the roller support B?
above are correct?
a. 8 Pa3/(3 EI)
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 9 Pa3/(EI)
b. 2 and 3
c. 64 Pa3/(35 EI)
c. 1, 2 and 4
d. 216 Pa3/(35 EI)
d. 1, 3 and 4
105. Match List I (Type of Equipment) with
correct?
List II (Purpose) and select the correct
answer using the code given below the Lug angles
Lists a. are necessarily unequal angles
List 1 b. are always equal angles
A. Agitating Truck c. increase the shear resistance of joint
B. Hoe d. reduce the length of joint
C. Derrick Pole 109. Purlins are provided, in industrial
D. Sheep Foot roller buildings, over roof trusses to carry dead
loads, live loads and wind loads. As per IS
List II
code, what are they assumed to be?
1. Quarrying
a. Simply supported
2. Compacting
b. Cantilever
3. Hoisting
c. Continuous
4. Transporting
d. Fixed
A B C D
110. Consider the following statements about
a. 4 3 1 2 provision of sag rods:
b. 2 1 3 4 1. Sag rods reduce span length of purlin
c. 4 1 3 2 in the weak direction.
d. 2 3 1 4 2. Sag rods are installed in the plane of
106. the roof.
3. Ridge purlin is subject to vertical
components of sag rods on either side
of slope.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
16 of 16
c. 1 and 2 b. filly by direct bearing
d. 1 and 3 c. 50% by direct bearing and 50%
111. The slenderness ratio of lacing bars should through fastening
not exceed: d. 60% by direct bearing and 40%
a. 100 through fastening
b. 200 117. Which steel member section among the
c. 145 following combinations can carry
maximum load?
d. 180
a. A pair of angles welded on opposite
112. Consider the following statements: sides of a gusset plate, but not tack
Bearing stiffness, in plate girders, are: welded
1. Provided at supports. b. A pair of angles welded on opposite
2. Provided under concentrated loads. sides of a gusset plate, and tack welded
3. Provided alternately on the web. along its length
Which of the statements given above is/are c. A pair of angles back to back on same
correct? side of a gusset plate, and tack welded
a. 1 only d. A pair of angles on same side of a
b. 2 only gusset plate, but not tack welded
c. 1 and 2 118.
d. 1, 2 and 3
113. The outstand of the flange of built-up
beams from the line of connection should
not extend beyond:
a. 10 T
b. 85 T
256T
c.
fy
Which one of the following is the most
d. 180 tw
critical rivet in the joint shown in the
(where T is the thickness of flange and tw figure given above?
is the thickness of web)
a. No. 1
114. Which one of the following is a
b. No. 2
compression member?
c. No. 3
a. Purlin
d. No. 4
b. Boom
119. What is the shape of Influence line
c. Girt
diagram for the maximum bending
d. Tie moment in respect of a simply supported
115. In a situation where torsion is dominant, beam?
which one of the following Is the desirable a. Rectangular
section?
b. Triangular
a. Angle section
c. Parabolic
b. Channel section
d. Circular
c. I-section
120. In a plastic analysis of structures, the
d. Box type section segment between any two successive
116. In a gusseted base, when the end of the plastic hinges is assumed to deform as:
column is machined smooth for complete a. A plastic material
bearing, the axial load is transferred to
b. A rigid material
base slab:
c. An elastic material
a. Fully through fastening
d. An inelastic material
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2005 1 of 16
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. The load carrying capacity of an 5. The bearing capacity factors Nc, Nq and
individually friction pile is 200 kN. What Nr, are functions of:
is the total load carrying capacity of a a. Width and depth of footing
group of 9 such piles with group efficiency
b. Density of soil
factor of 0.8?
c. Cohesion of soil
a. 1800 kN
d. Angle of internal friction of soil
b. 1640 kN
6. Match List I (Type of Soil) with List II
c. 1440 kN
(Suitable Foundation) and select the
d. 900 kN correct answer using the code given below
2. Consider the following statements: the Lists :
1. The standard penetration test is a List I
reliable method for measuring the A. Strong soil in surface layer
relative density of granular soils.
B. Weak surface layer followed by rock at
2. For a sand having the same relative shallow depth below ground
density, N-values remain the same at
C. Swelling soil in surface layer
all depths.
extending upto a few meters below
3. For a sand having the same relative ground level
density, N-values are different at
D. Weak heterogeneous surface soil layer
different depths.
List II
correct? 1. Raft foundation
a. 1, 2 and 3 2. Isolated footings
b. 1 and 2 3. End bearing pile
c. only 3 4. Under-reamed piles
d. 1 and 3 A B C D
3. Which one of the following states of field a. 1 4 3 2
compaction of sand deposit truly b. 2 3 4 1
represents the corrected standard c. l 3 4 2
penetration test value: N (corrected) = 27?
d. 2 4 3 1
a. Loose
7. Match List I (Type of Exploration) with
b. Medium dense List II (Soil Profile) and select the correct
c. Dense answer using the code given below the
d. Very dense Lists :
4. In case of footing on the surface or List I
shallow depth is very dense sand, which A. Diamond core drilling
one of the following types of failure is B. Uncased wash boring
likely to occur?
C. Open pit excavation
a. Punching shear failure
D. Cased boring
b. Local shear failure
List II
c. General shear failure
1. Medium strong cohesive soils
d. Any of the above three
2 of 16
2. Rocky formation d. They consider elastic soil medium, and
3. Soft cohesive soils and cohesionless the intensity of allowable stresses
soils. Exploration upto relatively larger below foundations in most cases are
depths quit small and justify elastic solutions
4. Exploration upto a shallow depth 11. Consider the following statements:
below ground level 1. Obtaining reliable properties of soil is
A B C D very important in geotechnical
engineering. Chunk samples obtained
a. 4 3 2 1
from the field are the best for this
b. 2 1 4 3 purpose.
c. 4 1 2 3 2. Chunk samples may easily be obtained
d. 2 3 4 1 at all depths below ground level and
8. Consider the following statements: for all types of soils.
1. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies 3. Undisturbed soil samples are enclosed
that the soil has compressed. in rugged containers. As such, they do
not get disturbed easily during
2. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies
transportation and handling.
that the soil has swelled.
3. A recovery ratio of less than 1 implies
correct?
that the soil has swelled.
a. 1, 2 and 3
4. A recovery ratio greater than 1 implies
that the soil has compressed. b. 1 only
Which of the following statements given c. 2 and 3
above is/are correct? d. 1 and 3
a. 1 and 2 12. Which one of the following Is the
b. 1 only appropriate triaxial test to assess the
immediate stability of an unloading
c. 3 and 4
problem, such as an excavation of a clay
d. 4 only slope?
9. The wall friction of the retaining wall: a. UU test
a. Decreases active earth pressure but b. CU test
increases passive earth pressure
c. CD test
b. Decreases passive earth pressure but
d. Unconsolidated drained test
increases active earth pressure
13. Well-graded dense saturated sands have
c. Decreases both active and passive
high shear strength because:
earth pressures
a. Such sands have, a better grade
d. Increases both active and passive earth
(superior type) of sand grains resulting
pressures
in higher strength
10. Stresses obtained from Bousslnesq’s
b. Such sands have lower water content,
theory are considered reasonably
which increases shear strength
satisfactory Is foundation engineering
because: c. Such sands have better interlocking of
grains, higher inter-particle contacts
a. They represent stress distribution is
and higher inter-particle frictional
inhomogeneous soil below loaded area
resistance resulting in higher strength
b. They account for anisotropy of soil
d. Presence of water in such sands
properly
induces capillary pressure generating
c. They give due regard to plastic higher inter-granular stresses, which
behaviour of soils, particularly of generate apparent cohesion and hence
settlement analysis higher shear strength
3 of 16
14. A footing is resting on a fully saturated 3. Aerial photogrammetry
clayey strata. For checking the initial 4. Tachometric survey
stability shear parameters are used from
A B C D
which one of the following?
a. 3 1 2 4
a. Consolidated non-drained test
b. 2 4 3 1
b. Unconsolidated drained test
c. 3 4 2 1
c. Unconsolidated non-drained test
d. 2 1 3 4
d. Unconsolidated non-drained test with
pore pressure measurement 19. Which one of the following pairs is not
correctly matched?
15. How high should a helicopter pilot rise at a
point. A just to see the horizon at point B, a. Declination : Horizontal angle between
if the distance AD is 40 1cm? magnetic meridian & true meridian
a. 101.75 m b. Bowditch’s rule : Employed to adjust
closing error of a closed traverse
b. 110.50 m
c. Deflection angle Measured in case of
c. 107.75 m
open traverse instead of measuring
d. 105.50 m included angle
16. Which one of the following represents a d. Reconnaissance : Employed for
circumpolar star? detailed survey and precise survey
a. Upper culmination above horizon, 20. What is the volume of a 6 m deep tank
lower culmination below horizon having rectangular shaped top 6 m x 4 m
b. Both upper and lower culminations and bottom 4 m x 2 m (computed through
below horizon the use of prismoidal formula)?
c. Both upper and lower culminations a. 96 m3
above horizon b. 94 m3
d. Altitude at upper culmination is c. 92 m3
minimum
d. 90 m3
17. In an aerial plhotogrammetric survey, If
21. If two triangulation signals of 6.75 m
the exposure interval is 20 seconds to
height each, are to be just visible over
cover ground distance of 1000 m between
ground mutually, what is the maximum
exposures, what would be the ground
distance between their locations on the
speed of the aircraft?
ground surface?
a. 90 km/hour
a. 10 km
b. 120 kin/hour
b. 20 km
c. 150 km/hour
c. 30km
d. 180 km/hour
d. 40km
18. Match List I (Phenomenon) with List II
22. What Is the actual ground area covered by
(Method of Survey) and select the correct
a 20 cm x 20 cm size vertical aerial
answer using the code given below the
photograph, at an average scale of 1 cm =
Lists
200 m having 60% forward overlap and
List I 30% side overlap?
A. Crab and drift a. 1.92 km2
B. Stadia intercept b. 4.48 km2
C. Culmination and elongation c. 6.72 km2
D. Baseline measurement d. 2.88 km2
List II 23. Assertion (A) : A turn-out is a combination
1. Triangulation of points and crossings, which enable a
2. Astronomical survey
4 of 16
branch line to take off from another main d. A is false but R is true
line railway track. 27. Assertion (A) : Basement walls and bridge
Reason (R) : Turn-outs are in great use in abutments are usually designed for earth
railway marshalling yards. pressure at rest.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : These are usually not
R is the correct explanation of A restrained by the floor slab and by the deck
b. Both A and R are individually true but structure at their bases.
R is not the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are individually true and
c. A is true but R is false R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are individually true but
24. Assertion (A) : A small quantity of
ammonia is added to water before carrying c. A is true but R is false
out disinfection using chlorine. d. A is false but R is true
Reason (R) : Chloramines are persistent 28. Assertion (A) : The clay core of an earth
disinfectants, which provide continued dam is usually compacted on the wet side
protection against re-growth of of OMC.
microorganisms in a water distribution Reason (R) : Compaction on the wet side
system. of OMC reduces permeability and prevents
a. Both A and R are individually true and cracking in core.
R is the correct explanation of A a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are individually true but
25. Assertion (A) : Composting is the most d. A is false but R is true
commonly used process for the 29. Assertion (A) : At the critical state of flow,
decomposition of the organic components the specific force is a minimum for the
of municipal solid wastes. given discharge.
Reason (R) : Bangalore method is a Reason (R) : For a minimum value of
common anaerobic method used for specific force the first derivative of force
biological conversion of organic with respect to depth should be unity.
components of municipal solid wastes.
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
30. Assertion (A) : The earth pressure at rest is
26. Assertion (A) : The bearing capacity of a greater than active pressure but less than
footing always gets affected by the passive earth pressure.
location of ground water table.
Reason (R) : When the wall moves away
Reason (R) : Water is soil affects the shear from backfill from the rest condition, the
strength parameters as well as the unit mobilisation of the internal resistance of
weight. soil occurs; on the other hand, if the wall
a. Both A and R are individually true and moves towards the fill, the shearing
R is the correct explanation of A resistance builds up.
b. Both A and R are individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
5 of 16
b. Both A and R are individually true but 3. Alkanity and softness
R is not the correct explanation of A 4. Colour and taste
c. A is true but R is false A B C D
d. A is false but R is true a. 1 3 2 4
31. Which type of light energy Is effectively b. 2 4 1 3
absorbed by CO2 in the lower boundary of
c. 1 4 2 3
the troposphere?
d. 2 3 1 4
a. X-rays
A B C D
b. UV-rays
36. Match List I (Equation/Law) with List II
c. Visible light
(Related Application) and select the
d. Infra-red rays correct answer using the code given below
32. Which one of the following is the correct the Lists
sound. Intensity expression with usual List I
notations?
A. Chicks law
a. dB = 10 log10(I/I0)2
B. Darcy-Weisbach equation
b. dB = 10 log10(I/I0)
C. Stoke’s equation
c. dB = 10 1og10(I – I0)2
D. Carmen-Kozeny equation
d. dB = 10 1og10(I – I0)
List II
33. What type of noise can be abated by
1. Discrete particle settling
providing lining on walls and ceiling with
sound absorbing material? 2. Head loss in a pipe
a. Source noise 3. Head loss in filters
b. Reflection noise 4. Rate of bacterial kill
c. Structural noise A B C D
d. Direct air-borne noise a. 4 2 1 3
34. In which type of lakes, does a perfect b. 3 1 2 4
ecological equilibrium among the c. 4 1 2 3
producers, decomposers and consumer d. 3 2 1 4
groups of organisms exist? 3
37. A flash mixer of 2.0 m , with a velocity
a. Senescent lakes gradient of mixing mechanism equal to
b. Mesotrophic lakes 600/s, and fluid absolute viscosity of 1.0 x
c. Oligotrophic lakes 10–3 Ns/m2 is continuously operated. What
is the power input per unit volume?
d. Eutrophic lakes
a. 360 W
35. Match List I (Type of Impurity) with List
II (Effect) and select the correct answer b. 720 W
using the code given below the Lists c. 1440 W
List I d. 300 W
A. Carbonates and bicarbonates of Ca and 38. Consider the following statements:
Mg In water supply distribution network,
B. Carbonates and bicarbonates of 1. the grid-iron system requires more
Sodium length of pipe lines and larger number
C. Sulphates and chlorides of Ca and Mg of cut-off valves.
D. Oxides of iron and manganese 2. the design of the grid-iron system is
List II difficult but economical.
1. permanent hardness 3. employing a grid-iron system, the dead
ends are completely eliminated.
2. Temporary hardness
6 of 16
4. employing a grid-iron system permits 42. A summit curve is formed at the
more water to be diverted towards the intersection of a 3% upgrade and a 5%
affected point from various directions. downgrade. What is the length of the
Which of the statements given above are summit curve in order to provide a
correct? stopping distance of 128 m?
a. 1, 2 and 4 a. 271 m
b. l, 3 and 4 b. 298 m
c. 2, 3 and 4 c. 322 m
d. 1, 2 and 3 d. 340 m
39. A municipal sewage has BOD5 of 200 43. Match List I (Study) with List II (Purpose)
mg/l. It is proposed to treat it and dispose and select the correct answer using the
off into a marine environment. For what code given below the Lists:
minimum efficiency should the sewage List I
treatment plant be designed? A. Primary road system
a. 85% B. Economic studies
b. 60% C. Engineering studies
c. 50% D. Road use studies
d. 33.67% List II
40. Which one of the following types of 1. Population distribution
settling phenomenon can be analysed by
2. Expressways
the classic sedimentation laws of Newton
and Stokes? 3. Traffic volume
a. Discrete settling 4. Topographic details
b. Flocculent settling A B C D
c. Hindered settling a. 2 1 4 3
d. Compression settling b. 4 3 2 1
41. Match List I (‘Treatment Process) with c. 2 3 4 1
List II (Related Terms) and select the d. 4 1 2 3
correct answer using the code given below 44. Consider the following statements:
the Lists
1. Mastic asphalt is a mixture of hard
List I grade bitumen or blown bitumen,
A. Lagoons minerals filter and fine aggregates.
B. Trickling filter 2. % of binder content in the mastic
C. Oxidation ponds asphalt is 17.20 percent by weight of
the aggregates.
D. Activated sludge process
List II
correct?
1. Attached growth system
a. 1 only
2. Algae-bacteria symbiotic relationship
b. 2 only
3. Extended aeration
c. Both 1 and 2
4. Low cost treatment method
d. Neither 1 nor 2
A B C D
45. Match List I (Traffic Survey) with List II
a. 4 3 2 1 (Method) and select the correct answer
b. 2 1 4 3 using the code given below the Lists :
c. 4 1 2 3 List I
d. 2 3 4 1 A. Spot speed
B. Traffic volume
7 of 16
C. O-D survey remains at the same value, which one of
D. Parking survey the following is the runoff due to 12 cm of
rainfall In 9 hours in the catchment?
List II
a. 4.5 cm
1. By video tape
b. 6.0 cm
2. By road side interview
c. 7.5 cm
3. By Doppler radar
d. 9.0 cm
4. By pneumatic tube
A B C D
correct?
a. 3 1 2 4
A forebay in a hydel system is provided at
b. 2 4 3 1 the junction of:
c. 3 4 2 1 a. the power channel and the tail race
d. 2 1 3 4 channel
46. Match List I (Unit) with List H (Purpose) b. the tail race channel and the penstock
and select the correct answer using the c. the penstock and the turbine
code given below the Lists :
d. the power channel and the penstock
List I
50. A catchment has an area of 150 hectares
A. Clover leaf interchange and a run off/rainfall ratio of 0.40. If due
B. Traffic studies to 10 cm rainfall over the catchment, a
C. Rotary island stream flow at the catchment outlet lasts
for 10 hours, what is the average stream
D. Road junction approach sign
flow in the period?
List II
a. 60,000 m3/hour
1. Informatory sign
b. 100 m3/minute
2. Traffic control device
c. 3.5 m3/s
3. Traffic flow characteristics
d. 1.33 m3/s
4. Grade-separation
51. The area between the two isohytes 45 cm
A B C D and 55 cm is 100 km2, and that between 55
a. 4 3 2 1 cm and 65 cm is 150 km2. What is the
b. 2 1 4 3 average depth of annual precipitation over
the basin of 250 km2?
c. 4 1 2 3
a. 50 cm
d. 2 3 4 1
b. 52 cm
47. Which one of the following is the correct
expression for the versine(h) of a curve? c. 56 cm
d. 60 cm
l2
a. h = 52. Viewing watershed as a system, which one
r
of the following assumptions is made in
l2 the unit graph theory?
b. h =
2r a. Non-linearity
l2 b. Both linearity and time, variance
c. h =
8r c. Both time invariance and non-linearity
l2 d. Both linearity and time invariance
d. h =
r 53. Which one of the following flood routing
(Where l = length of rail on the curve methods involves the concepts of wedge
portion and r = radius of curvature) and prism storages?
48. A 6 hour storm has 6 cm of rainfall and the a. Coefficient method
resulting runoff was 3 cm. If  = index b. Muskingum method
8 of 16
c. Pul’s method List I
d. Lag method A. Sheep foot roller
54. The base width of a soil gravity dam is 25 B. Frog hammer
m. the material of the dam has a specific C. Vibratory roller
gravity of 2.56 and the dam is designed as
List II
an elementary profile ignoring uplift. What
is the approximate allowable height of the 1. To densify cohesionless soils to
dam? relatively larger depths
a. 64 m 2. To compact lumpy cohesive soil fills
b. 40 m 3. 3. To compact soils at corners and
places which bigger rollers cannot
c. 164 m
access
d. 80 m
4. To compact cohesionless soils of
55. Match List I (Relative Position of Canal shallow depth
and Drainage Channel) with List II (Type
A B C
of Cross Drainage Work) and select the
correct answer using the code given below a. 4 1 2
the Lists : b. 2 1 4
List I c. 4 3 2
A. Canal taken above the drainage d. 2 3 4
channel at its grade 58. Match List I (Unit) with List 11 (Purpose)
B. Drainage channel taken above the and select the correct answer using the
canal at its bed slope code given below the Lists :
C. Canal taken below the drainage List I
channel A. Graded filter
D. Drainage channel taken below the B. Lime treatment
canal
C. Impervious clay core
List II
D. Curtain grouting
1. Cansal siphon
List II
2. Drainage siphon
1. To reduce seepage of water through
3. Aqueduct body of earth dam
4. Super passage 2. To reduce water seepage through
A B C D foundation below dam
a. 2 4 1 3 3. To stabilize black cotton soils
b. 3 1 4 2 4. 4. To drain water without Losing fines
c. 2 1 4 3 from the soil
d. 3 4 1 2 A B C D
56. A clay sample has a void ratio of 0.54 in a. 4 3 1 2
dry state. The specific gravity of soil solids b. 1 2 4 3
is 2.7. What is the shrinkage limit of the c. 4 2 1 3
soil?
d. 1 3 4 2
a. 8.5%
59. A soil deposit has three layers having same
b. 10.0% thickness each but the permeabilities of the
c. 17.0% layers are in the ratio of 1 :2:4 from top to
d. 20.0% bottom. What is the ratio of average
permeability In the horizontal direction to
57. Match List I (Equipment) with List II
that in the vertical direction?
(Purpose) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists : a. 7 : 2
9 of 16
b. 14 : 6 64. Match List I (Unit) with List II (Purpose)
c. 28 : 24 and select the correct answer using the
code given below the Lists:
d. 49 : 36
List I
60. If the time required for 60% consolidation
of a remoulded soil sample of clay with A. Width and length of safety area of
single drainage is t, then what Is the time airport
required to consolidate the same sample of B. Engine failure case
clay with the same degree of consolidation C. Location of exit taxiways
but with double drainage?
D. Grading of airport size
a. 4t
List II
b. 2t
1. Basic runway length
c. t/2
2. Runway geometric design
d. t/4
3. Airport drainage
61. If p is increment of pressure on a
4. Runway capacity
normally consolidated saturated soil mass,
as per Terzaghi’s theory at the instant of A B C D
application of pressure increment i.e. when a. 2 4 1 3
time t = 0, what is the pore pressure b. 3 1 4 2
developed in the soil mass?
c. 2 1 4 3
a. Zero
d. 3 4 1 2
b. Very much less than p 65. Which of the following are requirements
c. Equal to p for the design of a transition curve for a
d. Greater than p highway system?
62. Which one of the following is the best 1. Rate of change of grade
method for locating sounding to estimate 2. Rate of change of radial acceleration
the dredged material from the harbours? 3. Rate of change of super elevation
a. Two angles from shore 4. Rate of change of curvature
b. Two angles from boat Select the correct answer using the code
c. One angle from shore and other from given below:
the boat a. 1, 2 and 3
d. Fixed intersecting ranges b. 2, 1 and 4
63. Which one of the following gives the c. 1, 3 and 4
number of gate position in an airport?
d. 2, 3 and 4
Capacity of runway
a.  average gate 66. California Bearing Ratio (CBR) is a:
2
a. Measure of soil strength
occupancy time
b. Method of soil identification
Capacity of apron
b.  number of c. Measure to indicate the relative
60  2
strengths of paving materials
aircraft movements
d. Measure of shear strength under lateral
Capacity of taxiway
c.  average gate confinement
60  2
67. Which of the following factors have to be
occupancy time
considered for the design of the flexible
Capacity of holding apron pavement for a highway?
d.  average
2 1. Design wheel load
gate occupancy time
2. Strength of pavement component
material
3. Expansion joints
10 of 16
4. Climatic factors c. Prevailing wind
Select the correct answer using the code d. Cross wind
given below: 73. At a certain station, the mean of the
a. 1, 2 and 3 average temperature is 25° C and mean of
b. 2, 3 and 4 the maximum daily temperature is 40° C.
What is the airport reference temperature
c. 1, 3 and 4
(ART).?
d. 1, 2 and 4
a. 46.6° C
68. What is the curve resistance for a 50
b. 45° C
tonnes train on a BG track on a 40 curve?
c. 35°C
a. 0.05 tonne
d. 30°C
b. 0.06 tonne
74. Consider the following statements with
c. 0.08 tonne
respect to tunnelling methods:
d. 0.01 tonne
1. Full face excavation is suitable for
69. Why are moorings provided? small size tunnel of short length in
a. For anchoring of ships competent rock. It is not suitable in
b. For towing the ships to the sea urban areas.
c. For repair of ships 2. Heading and benching method is
suitable for soft rock tunnelling of
d. For washing of ships and ship boards
medium size.
70. What is the use of a station pointer?
3. Drift method is suitable for large
a. For making soundings in water bodies tunnels in difficult or incompetent
b. For plotting of soundings in harbour rock.
area Which of the statements given above are
c. For marking sunken shipping hazards correct?
d. For making tidal observations a. 1 and 3
71. Consider the following statements: b. 1, 2 and 3
1. Dock is a marine structure for mooring c. 2 and 3
up vessels, loading and unloading of d. 1 and 2
passengers and/or cargo.
75. The velocity distribution for flow over a
2. Dry dock is generally used only for plate is given by u = 0.5 y – y2 where u is
carrying out repairs, inspections and the velocity in m/s at a distance y meter
painting. above the plate. If the dynamic viscosity of
3. Wet dock is an enclosed or partially the fluid is 0.9 Ns/m2, then what is the
enclosed basin provided with locks and shear stress at 0.20 m from the boundary?
entrance gate to keep the water level at a. 0.9 N/m2
a fairly constant level.
b. 1.8 N/m2
c. 2.25 N/m2
correct?
d. 0.09 N/m2
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 3
c. 1 and 2 the Lists :
d. 1 and 3 List I
72. The percentage of time in a year during A. Equation of motion along a streamline
which the cross wind component remains
B. Euler’s equation
within the limit, is:
C. Pressure exerted by a free jet
a. Wind coverage
D. Rotating lawn Sprinkler
b. Head wind
11 of 16
List II List I
1. Principle of moment of momentum A. M1
2. Bernoulli’s equation B. H3
3. Equation for conservation of C. S2
momentum D. A2
4. Momentum equation List II
A B C D 1. Slope upward in the direction of flow
a. 4 1 2 3 2. Back water profile
b. 2 3 4 1 3. Hydraulic jump occurs
c. 4 3 2 1 4. Hydraulic drop occurs
d. 2 1 4 3 A B C D
77. The pressure gradient In the direction of a. l 3 4 2
flow is equal to the:
b. 2 4 3 1
a. Shear gradient parallel to the direction
c. 1 4 3 2
of flow
d. 2 3 4 1
b. Shear gradient normal to the direction
of flow 81. A high efficiency pump is required for low
discharge, high head and low maintenance
c. Velocity gradient parallel to the
cost. Delivery of water need not be
direction of flow
continuous. The pump need not run at high
d. Velocity gradient normal to the speed. Which one of the following is the
direction of flow correct choice?
78. Which one of the following statements is a. Centrifugal pump
not correct?
b. Reciprocating pump
a. Models are always smaller than the
c. Air lift pump
prototypes.
d. Hydraulic ram
b. Dynamic similarity between a model
and a prototype can be verified by 82. Match List I with List II and select the
equating Reynold’s number in a correct answer using the code given below
viscous flow. the Lists
c. Mach number achieves significance List I
when the velocity of fluid approaches A. Storage
or exceeds the sonic velocity. B. Pondage
d. Distorted models are always C. Pondage factor
exaggerated on a vertical scale.
D. Daily load factor
List II
correct?
1. Small storage
The function of an air vessel in a
reciprocating pump is to obtain: 2. Ratio of total inflow to the total
number of days power plant operates
a. reduction of suction head
in a week
b. rise in delivery head
3. Large reservoirs
c. continuous supply of water at uniform
4. (Average plant load) x (Peak load)
rate
5. Ratio of average load to peak load
d. increase in supply of water
A B C D
80. Match List I (Type of Curve) with List II
(Flow Condition) and select the correct a. 3 2 1 5
answer using the code given below the b. 5 1 2 4
Lists : c. 3 1 2 5
12 of 16
d. 5 2 1 4 c. Specific retention
83. Match List I (Factor) with List II (Ratio) d. Specific capacity
and select the correct answer using the 87. The channel section can be designed on
code given below the Lists: the basis of Lacey’s Theory The steps are
List I mentioned below:
A. Load factor 1. Finding out the perimeter
B. Capacity factor 2. Finding out the velocity
C. Diversity factor 3. Calculation of the silt factor
D. Plant use factor 4. Finding out the area
List II What is the correct sequence of the steps?
1. Sum of individual maximum demands a. 4—2—3—1
Simultaneous maximum demand b. 3—1—4—2
2. Maximum demand Station capacity c. 4—1—3—2
3. Average load Maximum load d. 3—2—4—1
4. Energy produced Installed capacity  88. In Lacey’s regime theory the velocity of
time in hours flow is proportional to:
A B C D a. Qf2
a. 1 2 3 4 b. Q/f2
b. 3 4 1 2 c. (Qf2)1/6
c. 1 4 3 2 d. (Q/f2)1/6
d. 3 2 1 4 89. Which of the following are the purposes of
84. For which one of the following purposes is a groyne as a river training structure?
the double mass curve used? 1. It contracts a river channel to improve
a. Checking on the consistency of its depth.
precipitation records 2. It protects the river bank.
b. Prediction of annual precipitation 3. It does not allow silt to deposit in the
c. Defining which periods of storm vicinity.
should be analyzed to obtain the 4. It trains the flow along a certain
maximum useful information from course.
storm rainfall records
d. For estimating the capacity of a given below:
reservoir
a. 1 and 2
85. For a given storm, other factors remaining
b. 1, 2 and 3
same:
c. 1 and 3
a. Basins with large drainage densities
give smaller flood peaks. d. 2, 3 and 4
b. Low drainage density basins give 90. Denehy’s groyne is a special type of
shorter time bases of hydrographs. groyne which is:
c. The flood peak is independent of the a. Pointing upstream
drainage density b. Pointing downstream
d. Basins having low drainage density c. Hockcy type
give smaller peaks in flood d. T-headed
hydrographs.
91. In a laminar boundary layer, the velocity
86. The discharge per unit drawdown at the distribution can be assumed to be given, in
well is known as: usual notations, as
a. Specific yield u y

b. Specific storage v 
13 of 16
Which one of the following is the correct List I
expression for the displacement thickness A. End bearing pile
* for this boundary layer?
B. Pedestal pile
a. * =  C. Friction pile
b. * = /2 D. Sand piles
c. * = /4 List II
d. * = /6 1. When weak foundation soil is to be
92. For Froude number of a hydraulic jump is compacted
5.5. The jump can be classified as a/an: 2. When foundation soil is granular
a. Undular jump 3. When foundation soil is relatively
b. Oscillating jump weak
c. Weak jump 4. When hard formation or rock is at a
d. Steady jump shallow depth
93. Match List I (Treatment Process) with List A B C D
II (Removed Matter) and select the correct a. 4 2 3 1
answer using the code given below the b. 1 3 2 4
Lists:
c. 4 3 2 1
List I d. 1 2 3 4
A. Plain Sedimentation 96. While driving a large number of piles in
B. Chemical Precipitation loose sand:
C. Slow Sand Filtration a. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
D. Aeration of pile driving such that the inner piles
List II are driven first and then proceed
outwards
1. Dissolved gases
b. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
2. Dissolved solids of pile driving such that the piles near
3. Suspended solids with specific gravity the periphery are driven first and inner
more than 1.0 piles are driven later
4. Floating solids c. It is advantageous to follow a sequence
5. Bacterial cells of pile driving such that alternately
A B C D inner and outer piles are driven
a. 5 1 4 2 d. Driving of piles can be done in any
random order
b. 3 2 5 1
97. In a plate load test, how is the ultimate
c. 5 2 4 1 load estimated from the load settlement
d. 3 1 5 2 curve on a log-log graph?
94. A sample of ground water at a pH of 7.0 a. Directly
contains 122 mg/l of bicarbonates. What is b. By drawing tangents to the curve at the
the alkalinity of this water (in terms of initial and final points
CaCO3)?
c. By the secant method
a. 120 mg/l
d. At 0.2 percent of the maximum
b. 60 mg/l settlement
c. 100 mg/l 98. The laboratory tests on a sample yielded
d. 200 mg/l the following results:
95. Match List I (Type of Pile) with List II Plasticity index: 32%,
(Situation for Use) and select the correct Liquidity index : —0.15,
answer using the code given below the
Lists: Activity number: 1.58.
14 of 16
Which of the following inferences can be 103.
drawn?
1. The soil is very stiff.
2. The soil is medium soft.
3. The soil is highly plastic.
4. The soil is medium plastic.
5. The soil is active.
given below: The void-pressure diagram is shown
above. What is the coefficient of
a. 1, 3 and 5 compressibility?
b. 1, 3 and 4 a. 0.5 m2/t
c. 2, 3 and 5 b. 0.73 m2/t
d. 1, 2 and 4 c. 0.20 m2/t
99. In which one of the following zones is a d. 0.25 m2/t
logarithmic spiral shape of failure surface
assumed in the case of bearing capacity 104. Match List I (Term) with List H
analysis of C- soils? (Definition) and select the correct answer
using the code given below the Lists
a. Active zone (where e is void ratio, p is effective
b. Passive zone vertical stress, k is permeability and w is
c. Radial Shear zone unit weight of water):
d. Surcharge zone List I
100. Westergaard’s formula for vertical stress A. Compression index, C
gives greater value of stress than that by B. Coefficient of volume change, m
the Boussinesq’s formula, when r/z C. Coefficient of compressibility, a,
exceeds:
D. Coefficient of consolidation, C,
a. 1.5
List II
b. 2.5
1. Slope of the e-p curve defined as
c. 3.5
e/p
d. 4.0
2. Slope of e-log p curve given by
101. In a shear test on cohesionless soils, if the
{—e/(log p)}
Initial’ void ratio is less than the critical
void ratio, the sample will: 3. Term defined as k/(mvw)
a. Increase in volume 4. Slope of the c-p curve defined as
b. Initially increase in volume and then —e/p
remain constant A B C D
c. Decrease in volume a. 2 1 4 3
d. Initially decrease and then increase in b. 4 3 2 1
volume
c. 2 3 4 1
102. As the state of strain of an element of
d. 4 1 2 3
dense sand changes from plain strain to
trivial strain condition, the effective angle 105. A clay layer 3 m deep is sandwiched by a
of internal friction: pervious material. The soil reaches 90%
consolidation in 3 years. At another site,
a. Increases
the same clay layer is bounded by
b. Decreases impervious boundary at the bottom and
c. Remains constant sand at the top. What is the time taken by
d. First increases and then remains this layer to reach 90% settlement?
constant a. 9 years
15 of 16
b. 12 years 3. Aluminium separation from solid
c. 15 years wastes can be accomplished by eddy
current separators.
d. 21 years
106. Which of the following factors are
correct?
associated with the behaviour of sand mass
during earthquake to cause liquefaction? a. 1 and 2
1. Number of stress cycles b. 2 and 3
2. The frequency and amplitude of c. 1 and 3
vibration of waves generated by an d. 1, 2 and 3
earthquake 111. Which one of the following statements is
3. Characteristics of sand not correct?
4. Relative density a. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in
Select the correct answer using the code septic tanks in one compartment
given below: b. Settling and sludge digestion occurs in
a. 1, 2 and 3 imhoff tank in different compartments
b. 1, 2, 3 and 4 c. Septic tank is a low-rate anaerobic unit
whereas an imhoff tank is a high rate
c. 2 and 4
anaerobic unit
d. 3 and 4
d. The rate of sludge accumulation in
107. Which one of the following different types septic tank is approximately 40-70
of submerged soils is susceptible to liters/capita/year
liquefaction under earthquake shocks?
a. Dense sand
1. Infiltration galleries are placed along
b. Soft clay the river beds at a depth of 4 to 6 m.
c. Loose silt 2. The draw-down for the infiltration
d. Fissured clay galleries is more than that for radial
108. Which one of the following pairs is not wells.
correctly matched? 3. Clogging of pipe pores in infiltration
Plume Behaviour Atmospheric Condition galleries is less than that for radial
wells.
a. Looping : Stable
4. The cost of extracting unit volume of
b. Fumigation : Inversion above and lapse
water is more in case of infiltration
below the stack
galleries as compared to radial wells.
c. Fanning : Inversion
d. Trapping : Inversion above and below correct?
the stack with lapse in between
a. 1 and 2
109. Which is the major pollutant present in
b. 1, 2 and 3
photochemical smog?
c. 2, 3 and 4
a. PAN
d. 4 only
b. SO2
113. Among the following, which is/are not
c. HC
pre-treatment unit(s)?
d. NO2
a. Bar screen and grit chamber
b. Flow equalization and proportioning
In solid waste management: tank
1. Density separation of solid wastes can c. Neutralization for pH adjustment tank
be accomplished by air classifiers.
d. Nutrient removal tank
2. Iron recovery from solid wastes can be
done by magnetic separators.
16 of 16
114. Consider the following statements in 117. When the recirculation ratio in a high rate
regard to aerobic and anaerobic treatment trickling filter is unity, then what is the
processes: value of the recirculation factor?
1. Biomass production in the aerobic a. 1
treatment process is more as compared b. >1
to the anaerobic treatment process.
c. < 1
2. Start-up period is more in the aerobic
d. Zero
treatment process as compared to the
anaerobic treatment process. 118. Presence of nitrogen in a waste water
sample is due to the decomposition of:
3. Energy consumption and production is
more in the aerobic treatment process a. Carbohydrates
as compared to the anaerobic treatment b. Proteins
process. c. Fats
Which of the statements given above is/are d. Vitamins
correct?
119. According to the theory of filtration in
a. 1 and 2 water treatment, which of the following
b. 2 and 3 mechanisms come into play when water is
c. only 2 filtered through a filter bed?
d. only 1 1. Mechanical straining
115. What is 5 days 20°C BOD equal to? 2. Capillary action
a. 3 days 27° C BOD 3. Centrifugal force
b. 4 days 30° C BOD 4. Electro kinetic phenomenon
c. 6 days 32° C BOD 5. Osmotic force
d. 7 days 35° C BOD 6. Bacteriological action
116. Match List I (Parameter) with List II Select the correct answer using the code
[General Standard for Discharge into the given below:
Inland Surface Water in mg/l (max] and a. 1, 2, 4 and 6
select the correct answer using the code b. 2, 3 and 5
given below the Lists:
c. 3, 4, 5 and 6
List I
d. 1, 3, 4 and 6
A. BOD(5 day20° C)
120. Which of the following are associated with
B. COD alum coagulation?
C. Oil and grease 1. A decrease of alkalinity in treated
D. Suspended solids water
List II 2. Formation of hydroxide flocs of
1. 250 aluminium
2. 100 3. A slight decrease of pH in treated
water
3. 20
4. An increase of permanent hardness
4. 10
5. 30
given below:
A B C D
a. 1, 2 and 3
a. 2 1 4 5
b. 1, 3 and 4
b. 5 4 3 2
c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 2 4 3 5
d. 2 and 4
d. 5 1 4 2
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 18
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. The timber preservative “creosote” a. 500° to 8000 C
belongs to the group of b. 800° to 10000 C
a. Water soluble salts c. 1000° to 1200° C
b. Organic solvent type d. 1200° to 1500° C
c. Tar oil type 6. Match List-I with List-II and select the
d. Inorganic solvent type correct answer using the code given below
2. The strength of timber is maximum in a the Lists :
direction List-I (Job Requirement)
a. Parallel to the grains A. High early strength
b. Perpendicular to the grains B. Lining for canals
c. 450 to the grains C. Frost and acid resistance
d. 300 to the grains D. Marine Structure
3. When a Ist class brick is immersed in cold List-II (Type of Cement Binder)
water for 24 hours, it should 1101 absorb 1. Pozzolanic cement
water by weight more than
2. Rapid hardening
a. 15%
3. Sulphate resisting
b. 20%
4. High Alumina
c. 25%
A B C D
d. 30%
a. 1 4 3 2
4. Match List-I with List-II and select the
b. 2 3 4 1
the Lists: c. 1 3 4 2
List - I (Species) d. 2 4 3 1
A. Babul 7. As per specifications, the initial setting
time of ordinary Portland cement should
B. Ben teak
not be less than
C. Bijsal
a. 10 minutes
D. Mulbury
b. 20 minutes
List-Il (Uses)
c. 30 minutes 60 minutes
1. Tennis rackets (sports goods)
8. In cements, generally the increase in
2. Boats strength during a period of 14 days to 28
3. Agricultural tools days is primarily due to
4. Furniture a. C3A
A B C D b. C2S
a. 4 1 3 2 c. C3S
b. 3 2 4 1 d. C4AF
c. 4 2 3 1 9. What is the approximate ratio of the
d. 3 1 4 2 strength of cement concrete at 7 days to
that at 28 days’ curing ?
5. The temperature at which the bricks are
burnt in kiln vanes from a. 0.40
2 of 18
b. 0.65 p r (2   )
2
a.
c. 0.90 Et
d. 1.15 pr 2 (2   )
10. Which one of the following properties of b.
Et
cement concrete is ascertained by
conducting compaction factor test ? pr 2 (2   )
c.
a. Bulk density 2 Et
b. Compressive strength p(1   )
d.
c. Modulus of rupture Et 2
d. Workability 15. A bar of 40 mm diameter and 400 mm
length is subjected to an axial load of l00
11. As per IS 456—2000, which one of the
kN. It elongates by 0.150 mm and the
following correctly expresses the modulus
diameter decreases by 0.005 mm. What is
of elasticity of concrete ? (read with the
the Poission’s ratio of the material of the
relevant units)
bar ?
a. Ee = 0.7 f ck a. 0.25
b. Ee = 500 f ck b. 0.28
c. 0.33
c. Ec = 5000 f ck
d. 0.37
d. Ec = 5700 f ck 16.
12. The mix design for pavement concrete is
based on
a. The flexural strength
b. The characteristic compressive
strength
c. The shear strength
d. The bond strength The Mohr’s circle given above corresponds to
13. If G is the modulus of rigidity, E the which one of the following stress conditions
modulus of elasticity and  the Poisson’s
ratio for a material, then what is the
expression for G?
3E
a. G  a.
2(1  2  )
5E
b. G 
(1   )
E
c. G  b.
2(1   )
E
d. G 
(1  2  )
14. A thin cylinder of thickness ‘t’, width ‘b’ c.
and internal radius ‘r’ is subjected to a
pressure ‘p’ on the entire internal surface.
What is the change in radius of the
cylinder ? ( is the Poission’s ratio and E
is the modulus of elasticity)
d.
3 of 18
17. Match List — I with List — II and select 20. If p1 and p2 are the principal stresses at a
the correct answer ( = direct stress,  = point in a strained material with Young’s
shear stress, Mx = Bending moment, E = modulus E and Poisson’s ratio 1/rn, then
Modulus of elasticity, G = Modulus of what is the principal strain ?
rigidity, I = Area moment of inertia, V p1  p2
Volume) a.
mE
List–I (Strain Energy) p1  p2
 2v b.
A. mE
2E p1 p2
c. 
 2v E mE
B.
2G p1 p2
d. 
 2v E mE
C.
4G 21. In a two-dimensional stress system, the
L
M  dx
2 two principal stresses are p1 = 180 N/mm2
D.  2 EI
(Tensile), and p2 which is compressive.
0 For the material, yield stress in simple
List II (Gradually Applied Load) tension and compression is 240 N/mm2
1. Axial load and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. According to
maximum normal strain theory, for what
2. Bending Load values of p2 , shall yielding commence?
3. Shear load a. 240 N/mm2
4. Torsional load b. 180 N/mm2
A B C D c. 195 N/mm2
a. 2 3 4 1 d. 200 N/mm2
b. l 4 3 2 22.
c. 2 4 3 1
d. l 3 4 2
18. If the maximum principal stress for an
element under bi—axial stress situation is
100 MPa (tensile) and the maximum shear A simply supported beam AB has span L
stress is also 100 MPa, then what is the as shown in the figure above, Point C is
other principal stress? the mid—span of the beam. It is subjected
a. 200 MPa (tensile) to u.d.l. w/unit length, in the portion A to
b. 200 MPa (compressive) C. Which of the following are the SFD and
c. 100 MPa (compressive) BMD for the beam ?
d. 0
19. A thin cylindrical tube closed at ends is
subjected to internal pressure. A torque is
also applied to the tube. The torque is also
applied to the tube. The principal stresses a.
p1 and p2 developed are 80.0 units and
20.0 units respectively. If the yield stress is
240 units, then what is the factor of safety
according to Maximum shear stress
theory? b.
a. 3.00
b. 4.00
c. 5.00
d. 6.00 c.
4 of 18
25.
d.
23.
For the circular shaft AB, as shown in the
figure above, a torque ‘T’ is applied at the
section XX at C, such that b/a = 1.5. The
shaft is uniform in section. What is the
ratio of TA/TB?
a. 3
b. 1.5
A beam of square cross section is placed
horizontally with one diagonal horizontal c. 0.67
as shown in the figure above. It is d. 0.5
subjected to a vertical shear force acting 26. The failure surface of a standard cast iron
along the depth of the cross section. torsion specimen, subjected to a torque is
Maximum shear stress across the depth of along
cross section occurs at a depth x from the a. the surface helicoidal at 450 to the axis
top. What is the value of x? of the specimen
a. x = 0 b. the curved surface at the grips
b. x = (2/3) D c. the plane surface perpendicular to the
c. x(3/4)D axis of the specimen
d. D d. the curved surface perpendicular to the
24. axis of the specimen
27.
Which one of the following diagrams

indicates the shear stress distribution for A horizontal beam shown in the figure
the beam as shown in the figure above? given above is subjected to transverse
loading. Which one of the following
diagrams represents the distribution of
shear force along the cross—section ?
a.
a.
b.
c.
b.
d.
5 of 18
Which one of the following is the correct
BMD for the loaded uniform sized beam
as shown in the figure given above?
c.
a.
d.
28.
b.
c.
What is the force in number AB of the d.

pin—jointed frame as shown above ? 31. Consider the following statements
a. P (Tension) 1. Even though a three—hinged parabolic
b. P (Compression) arch is subjected only to vertical loads,
it generates horizontal reactions and
c. P / 2 (Compression)
axial forces.
d. Zero
2. A cable uniformly loaded along the
29. horizontal span assumes the shape of a
parabola, whereas a cable uniformly
loaded along its length takes the shape
of a catenary.
Which one of the following diagrams 3. Cables loaded uniformly along the
corresponds to the influence line diagram horizontal span are by far the types
for moment at A of the beam shown above most commonly used structures in
in the figure? practice.
correct ?
a. Only 1
a. b. Only 2 and 3
c. Only 1 and 2
d. 1, 2 and 3
b.
the Lists :
List-I (Loading Condition)
c. A. Cantilever with concentrated load W at
end
B. Cantilever with udi (w/unit length)
across the complete span (W = wl)
d.
C. Simply supported beam with
concentrated load W at the centre
D. Simply supported beam with udl
30. (w/unit length) across complete span
(W=wl)
6 of 18
List-II Maximum Slope)
1. W12/16 El
2. W12/24 El
3. W12/2 El
4. W12/6 El
c.
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
c. l 4 3 2
d. 3 2 1 4 d.
33. 35. Consider the following statements :
Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine
the deflection in
1. an arch.
2. a truss.
3. a rigid frame.
A cantilever truss carries a concentrated Which of the statements given above is/are
load P as shown in the figure above. What correct ?
are the magnitudes of axial forces in the a. Only 1
members I, II and III, respectively? b. Only 2
a. 1.00P, 1.33P & 1.67P c. Only 3
b. l.67P, l.33P& l.00P d. 1, 2 and 3
c. 1.33 P, 0.75 P & 1.60 P 36. A propped cantilever AB, with fixed edge
d. 0.60 P. 0.75 P & 1.0 P A is propped at B and carries uniformly
34. distributed load over the entire span. If the
prop heaves up (displaces upward), which
one among the following is true if prop
reaction = RB, Moment at A = MA?
a. Both RB and MA will increase
b. RB will increase, MA will decrease
c. RB will decrease, MA will increase
d. Both RB and MA will decrease
Which one of the following is the bending 37.
moment diagram for the vertical cantilever
beam loaded as shown in the figure above?
For the fixed beam as shown in the figure

above, what is the fixed end moment at A
a. for the given loading?
Wab 2
a. cos 2 
L2
Wa 2b
b. 2
cos 2 
L
b.
Wab 2
c. cos 
L2
7 of 18
2
Wa b 1. Continuous beams including non—
d. 2
cos 2  prismatic structures.
L
38. 2. continuous beams with prismatic
elements.
3. structures with intermediate hinges.
4. rigid frames.
correct ?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
What is the ratio of magnitudes of b. Only 1, 2 and 3
moments in the member BC at the ends B c. Only 1, 2 and 4
and C in the figure given above? d. Only 3 and 4
a. 1 : 1 42.
b. 3 : 1
c. 3 : 4
d. 1 : 3
39.
What is the carry—over factor from A to
B while using moment distribution for
analysing beam as shown in the figure
given above ?
a. 1/2
b. 1.0
c. < 1/2
For the frame as shown in the figure
above, the final end moment MDC has d. > 1/2
been calculated as — 40 kNm. What is the 43.
end moment MCD?
a. +40 kNm
b. —40 kNm
c. +30 kNm
d. —30 kNm
40. The rigid plane frame ABCD has to be
analysed by slope deflection method. What
is the number of unknown displacements /
rotations for the frame as shown in the
figure given above ?
a. 4
b. 3
What is the degree of static indeterminacy
of the plane structure as shown in the c. 5
figure above ? d. 2
a. 3 44. Consider the following statements
b. 4 regarding the analysis of indeterminate
structures
c. 5
1. The force method consists in applying
d. 6
displacement compatibility conditions
41. Consider the following statements at the nodes.
Hardy Cross method of moment
distribution can be applied to analyse
8 of 18
2. The stiffness method consists in
formulating equilibrium equations at
the nodes.
correct ?
a. Only 1
b. Only 2
The beams in the two storey frame shown
c. Both 1 and 2 in the figure above have a cross section
d. Neither 1 nor 2 such that the flexural rigidity may be
45. considered infinite. Which among the
following is the stiffness matrix for the
structure in respect of the global
coordinates 1 and 2?
24 EI  1 1
a.
3  1 2 
 
What is the stiffness matrix for a prismatic
cantilever with coordinates as shown in 24 EI  1 1
b.
3  1 1 
figure ?  
 AE  24 EI  2 1
 L 0 0  c.  
  3  1 2 
a.  0 4 EI 6 EI 
1 1
 24 EI
L L2  d. 1 1
 6 EI 12 EI  3  
 0
 L2 L3  47. What is the total strain energy of a
member subject to an axial stress f (E =
 AE  Young’s modulus)
0 0
L 
  a. (f2/2E)  volume of bar
b. 0 4 EI 6 EI 
b. (f/E)  volume of bar
 L L2 
 6 EI 12 EI  c. (f2/E)  volume of bar
0
 L2 L3  d. (f/2E)  volume of bar
 AE 4 EI 
 L 0  48.
L
 
c.  0 0 0 
 6 EI 4 EI 
 0 
 L2 L 
 AE 4 AE 6 EI 
 L L L2 
  Considering only flexural deformations,
d.  0 6 EI
0  which is the stiffness matrix for the plane
 L2  frame shown in the figure given above?
 6 EI 12 EI 
 0 4 3
 L3 L3  a.   EI
3 4
46.
3 1 
b.   EI
1 3
2 1
c.   EI
1 2
9 of 18
1 1
d.   EI
1 1
1. Muller—Bresiau’s principle is
applicable only to indeterminate
structures Three wires of steel 1, 2 and 3, each
2. Muller—Breslau’s principle is having area ‘A’ support load W. What is
applicable only to determinate the ratio between collapse load and the
structures load corresponding to yielding of, on of
the wires?
3. Muller—Breslau’s principle is
applicable to both determinate and a. 3 : l
indeterminate structure b. 3 : 2
4. For a two span Continuous beam ABC, c. 3 : 3
the influence line diagrams is/are 52. Match List – I with List–II and se1ect the
(i) correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
List I
(Loaded prismatic beam of uniform Mp)
A.
B.
(ii) C.
correct ? D.
a. 1 and 4(ii) List – II(Plastic Load)
b. 3 and 4(i) 1. 4 Mp/L
c. 2 and 4(i) 2. 16 Mp/L
d. 3and4(ii) 3. 6 Mp/L
50. 4. 8 Mp/L
A B C D
a. 4 3 1 2
b. l 2 4 3
c. 4 2 1 3
A load 500 kN applied at point A, as d. l 3 4 2
shown in the figure above, produces a
vertical deflection at P and C of the beam 53. A beam of square cross—section of side x
as b = 10 mm and b = 15 mm is composed of material whose yield stress
respectively. What is the deflection at A in compression is 1.5 times the yield stress
when loads of 100 kN and 300 kN are in the tension. What is the distance of the
applied at B and C. respectively? neutral axis from the centre for the fully
plastic condition?
a. 6mm
a. 0.1 x
b. 8mm
b. 0.15 x
c. 11mm
c. 0.2 x
d. 12.5 mm
d. 0.25 x
51.
54. Which one of the following is not correct?
10 of 18
a. The shape factor for any section is
equal to Mp/My
b. For a thin—web wide—flange beam,
shape factor is close to unity c.
c. For a circular section, shape factor is
nearly 1.7
d. Shape factor for an I—section
sometimes may be more than that for a
rectangular section
d.
55. What is the ratio of the shape factors for
58.
beam cross—sections having rectangular,
circular and triangular shapes and of same
area?
a. 1.00 : 0.73 : 0.64
b. 1.00 : 0.88 : 1.38
c. 1.00 : 1.13 : 1.56
d. 1.00 : 1.56 : 1.13 Which one of the bolts in a web splices of
56. a plate girder as shown in the figure is
stressed maximum?
a. Bolt — 1
b. Bolt — 2
c. Bolt- 3
d. Bolt—4
A plate girder of depth d bears a
59.
concentrated load P through a distribution
plate of width 0.5 d as shown in the figure.
If the maximum allowable critical
buckling stress is calculated as f, what is
the value of P ? Web plate thickness = t
a. 0.5 dt f
b. 1.0 dtf
c. 1.5 dt f
d. 2.0 dt f A bracket has been attached to flange of a
column as shown in the figure. What is the
57. A bolt is subjected to shear force V and maximum force in the bolt ?
tension T. The capacity of the bolt in
resisting shear and tension respectively are a. P/4
V0 and T0. Which one of the following b. P/2
diagrams represents interaction relations? c. P
d. 2P
60. An equal angle of area A has been
attached to the support by means of a lug
a. angular. If allowable stress in tension is f,
what is the load carrying capacity of the
member ?
a. 0.5 fA
b. 0.85 fA
b. c. 0.9 fA
d. 1.0 fA
11 of 18
61. What is the maximum slenderness ratio of all the members added are equal. Which
permitted as per IS 800-1984 of design of one of the following options will yield
a tie member subjected to reversal of stress higher allowable stress ?
due to earthquake ?
a. 180
b. 250
a.
c. 300
d. 350
62. A welded plate girder has web plate 1500
6 mm. which one of the following is b.
correct about stiffening the web ?
a. The web is left unstiffened
b. The web is provide with vertical
c.
stiffeners only
c. The web is provided with vertical
stiffeners and a horizontal stiffener at
0.4 from the top flange
d. The web is provided with vertical
d.
stiffener and two rows of horizontal
66. Conventional practice is to brace end
stiffeners, on e at 0.4 d form the top
panels of the side walls of an industrial
flange and another at the mid height of
building. Instead bracing can be provided
the web.
in the bays near centre of the building.
63. Which one of he following reasons is
correct ?
a. Wind pressure at the mid length is
higher compared to ends
b. Trusses are erected starting from the
ends of the building
c. Fixing the bracings to end gables is
convenient
An industrial portal frame shown has weak
d. Free change of length between centre
floor beams. What is the effective length
and the ends of the building is possible
of column ?
in mid-span bracing.
a. 3 m
67. What is the maximum permissible
b. 4 m slenderness ratio of a major compression
c. 6 m number with undergoes reversal of stress
d. 8 m due to wing load ?
64. Which one of the following section sis the a. 180
most efficient for a simply supported b. 250
gantry girder ? c. 300
a. I-section with equal flanges d. 400
b. I-section with a channel attached to the 68. Which one among the following is the
top flange correct ratio of effective length to actual
c. I-section with a wide bottom flange length of a discontinuous angle strut, if
d. I-section with a heavy plate connected ends are welded ?
to the bottom flange a. 0.65
65. A laterally unsupported compression b. 0.85
flange of beam has been strengthened by c. 1.0
channel, angle and plates as shown. Areas
12 of 18
d. 1.2 73. The distance between theoretical cut—off
69. A fixed beam of length l has been loaded point and actual cut—out point in respect
with central concentrated load. The beam of the curtailment of reignforcement of
has been strengthened at the supports with reignforced concrete beams should not be
cover plates so that the flexural resisting less than
yield moment capacity at the ends is thrice a. Development length
of that at the centre. If this capacity is to be b. 12  dia of bar or effective depth
fully effective resulting in higher collapse whichever is greater
load, to what length from the ends should
the cover plate extend? c. 24  dia of bar or effective depth
whichever is greater
a. l/3
d. 30  dia of bar or effective depth
b. l /4 whichever is greater
c. l /6 74. The maximum strain in the tension
d. l /8 reinforcement in the section at failure
70. In the case of a tension member consisting when designed for the limit state of
of two angles back to back on the same collapse should be
side of gusset plate, what is k equal to?  fy 
(Area of connected leg = A1, Area of a.    0.002 
outstanding leg = A2)  1.15 Es 
3 A1  fy 
a. b.    0.002 
3 A1  A2  1.15 Es 
3 A1  fy 
b.
A1  3 A2 c. exactly equal to   0.002 
 1.15 Es 
5 A1
c. d. < 0.002
A1  5 A2
Where, fy = Characteristic strength of
5 A1 steel,
d.
5 A1  A2 and Es = Modulus of elasticity of steel
71. Which one of the following is the correct 75. The final & reflection due to all including
maximum shear capacity of a prismatic effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage
beam under plasting design of steel measured from as—cast level of the
structures ? supports of floors, roofs and all other
a. 0.5 AwFy horizontal members of reinforced concrete
should not normally exceed
b. 0.55 AwFy
a. Span / 350
c. 0.75 AwFy
b. Span / 250
d. AwFy
c. (Span I 350) or 20 mm whichever is
(where Aw and Fy,, are web area and yield less
stress, respectively)
d. (5/348) of span
72. Characteristic strength of M20 concrete is
20 MPa. What the number of cubes having 76. Shear strength of concrete in a reinforced
28 days’s compressive strength greater concrete beam is a function of which of
than 20 MPa out of 100 cubes made with the following:
the concrete? 1. Compressive strength of concrete
a. All 2. Percentage of shear reinforcement
b. 95 3. Percentage of longitudinal
c. 80 reinforcement in tension in the section
d. 50 4. Percentage total longitudinal
reinforcement in the section
13 of 18
Select the correct answer using the code B. One way shear
given below C. Punching shear
a. l, 2 and 4 Location
b. l, 2 and 3 1. At face of columns
c. Only 1 and 3 2. At d/2 from face of column
d. Only 1 and 4 3. At d from face of column
77. An axially loaded column is of 300 x 300 A B C
mm size. Effective length of column is 3
a. 1 2 3
m. What is the minimum eccentricity of
the axial load for the column? b. 3 1 2
a. 0 c. 1 1 3
b. 10mm d. 1 2 3
c. 16 mm 80. A beam is designed for uniformly
distributed loads causing compression in
d. 20 mm
the supporting columns. Where is the
78. A rectangular reinforced column (B x D) critical section for shear? (d is effective
has been subjected to uniaxial bending depth of beam the Ld is development
moment M and axial load P. Characteristic length)
strength of concrete = fck. Which one
a. A distance Ld/3 from the face of the
amone the following column design curves
support
shows the relation between M and P
qualitatively? b. A distance d from the face of the.
support
c. At the centre of the support
d. At the mid span of the beam
81. As per codal provisions in two way slabs,
a. the minimum mild steel reinforcement to
be provided in the edge strip is
a. On the basis of minimum bending
moment
b. Half of the area of steel provided in
b. middle strip in the shorter span
c. Half of the area of steel provided m
middle strip in the longer span
d. 0.15 % of the cross–sectional area of
concrete.
c. 82. An R.C. structural member rectangular in,
cross section of width b and depth D is
subjected to a combined action of 1bendin;
moment M and torsional moment T. The
longitudinal reinforcement ha1l be
d. designed for moment Me given by
79. In the case of isolate square concrete T (1  D / b)
a. Me  M 
footing, match the locations at which the 1.7
stress resultants are to be checked where d T (1  b / D)
is effective depth of footing and select the b. Me  M 
correct answer using the code given below 1.7
the lists T (1  D / b)
c. Me 
Stress Resultant 1.7
A. Bending moment
14 of 18
T (1  b / D) shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. How much
d. Me  is the effective stress left in steel ?
1.7
83. A T—beam roof section has the following a. 184 MPa
particular : b. 160 MPa
Thickness of slab = 100mm c. 40 MPa
Width of rib = 300mm d. 16 MPa
Depth of beam = 500mm 88. Which one of the following is the correct
Centre to centre distance of beams statement?
= 3.0 m Prestressing anchorage units using
multiple wire cables exist in the
Effective span of beams = 6.0
a. Freyssinet system
Distance between points of contra-flexure
b. Lee—McCall system
= 3.6 m
c. Gifford—Udall system
What is the effective flange width of the
T–beam ? d. Hoyer system
a. 3000 mm 89. Match List — I with List — II and select
the correct answer using the code given
b. 1900 mm
below the Lists :
c. 1600 mm
List - I (Post Tensioning System)
d. 1500 mm
A. Freyssinet
84. At T—beam behaves as a rectangular
B. Gifford—Udall
beam of width equal to its flange if its
neutral, axis C. Lee—McCall
a. coincides with centroid of D. Magnel—Blaton
reinforcement List-II
b. coincides with centroid of T—section (Arrangement of Tendons in the Duct)
c. remains within the flange 1. Single bars
d. remains in the web 2. Wires evenly spaced by perforated
85. The profile of the centroid of the tendon is spacers
parabolic with a central dip h. Effective 3. Horizontal rows of four wires spaced
prestressing force is. P and the span  . by metal grills
What is the equivalent upward acting 4. Wires spaced by helical wire core in
uniform load? annular spacer
a. 8h  /P A B C D
b. 8hP/  2 a. 4 1 2 3
c. 8h2  /P b. 3 2 1 4
d. 8b2 P/  c. 4 2 1 3
86. What is the uplift at centre on release of d. 3 1 2 4
wires from anchors due to pretensioning
90. A pre–stressed concrete beam of cross–
only for force P and eccentricity e for a
sectional area A, moment of inertia ‘I’,
pre—tensioned rectangular plank ?
distance of top extreme fibre from neutral
a. PeL2/6EI axis ‘yt’, and distance of bottom extreme
b. Pe2L/6EI fibre from neutral axis ‘Yb’; is subjected to
c. PeL2/8EI pre—stressing force such that stress at top
fibre is zero. What is the value of
d. Pe2/8EI
eccentricity (r is radius of gyration):
87. An ordinary mild steel bar has been
a. A/yb
prestressed to a working stress of 200
MPa. Young’s modulus of steel is 200 b. r2/yb
GPa. Permanent negative strain due to c. r2/yt
15 of 18
d. ryb/yt d. Type of plastering on the wall
91. Concordant cable profile is 96. Consider the following statements :
a. A cable profile that produces no A mixer designated 400 NT indicates that
support reactions due to pre-stressing 1. it is non-tilting type mixer
b. A cable profile which is parabolic in 2. its nominal mix batch capacity is 400
nature litres
c. A cable profile which produces no 3. it requires 300 revolutions for proper
bending moment at the supports of a mixing of the batch using one bag of
beam cement
d. A cable profile laid corresponding to which of the statements given above are
axial stress diagram correct ?
92. For a pre—stressed concrete continuous 97. Transportation of concrete-mix by pumps
beam subject to different load is very convenient method, particularly in
combinations, which one of the following case of
is correct for concordant cable profile?
a. Housing complex
a. It is not unique, but located in a narrow
b. Cement concrete pavement
zone
c. Low rise buildings
b. It is unique
d. Tunnel–lining
c. It is selected as compromise between
secondary stresses and working 98. What is the correct sequence of operations
stresses involved in concrete production?
d. It is selected based on deflection a. Batching–Mixing–Handling–
profile Transportation
93. A masonry wall has height ‘h’, length ‘L’ b. Mixing–Batching–Handling–
and thickness ‘t’. The allowable stress Transportation
based on slenderness is calculated on the c. Transportation–Handling–Mixing–
basis of Batching
a. h/t only d. Handling–Transportation–Mixing–
b. L/t only Batching
c. Lesser of L/t and h/t 99. Match List–I with List–II and select the
d. Greater of L/t and h/t
the Lists :
94. The net effect of vertical and lateral forces
List-I(Type of work)
acting on a masonry wall can be expressed
as vertical load ‘p’/unit length acting at an A. To dig trenches, footings or basement
effective eccentricity ‘e’. If e > (t/6), where the precise control of depth is
tension develops in the wall. Ignoring in required
the part of thickness ‘t’ in tension, what is B. To handle loose materials such as sand,
the compressive stress in extreme fibre? gravel, coal, etc.
a. p/{(t/2)–e} C. To excavate all classes of earth except
b. [2p/3 {(t/2)–e}] the rock & load it into the trucks
c. [p/3 {(t/2)–e}] D. To excavate the earth from a canal an
to be deposited on nearby banks
d. [p/6 {(t/2)–e}]
List–II(Type of Machine)
95. Which one of the following is not a factor
affecting strength of a brick masonry wall? 1. Clam shells
a. Size and location of door in a wall 2. Power shovel
b. Positioning of cross walls 3. Back hoe
c. Type of roof the wall bears and its 4. Scraper
connection 5. Drag line
A B C D
16 of 18
a. 3 5 2 1
b. 2 1 4 5 b.
c. 3 1 2 5
d. 2 5 4 1
c.
100. Which of the following are the advantages
of crawler mounted bulldozer over wheel
mounted bulldozers ? d.
1. Higher travel speed 103. Consider the following activities of a
2. Able to travel over very soft soil housing project
3. Able to travel over very rough surfaces 1. Flooring
having no haul roads 2. Wall—plastering
Select the correct answer using the codes 3. Conceal wiring
given below : 4. Fixing doors—window frames
a. 1, 2 and 3 5. Fixing door—window shutters
b. Only 1 and 2 What is the correct logical sequence of the
c. Only 1 and 3 above activities?
d. Only 2 and 3 a. 4—3—2—5—1
101. Consider the following statements b. 3—1—5–4—2
associated with critical path : c. 1—4—5—2—3
1. Critical path is the most important d. 1—2—3—4—5
sequence of activities which has no 104. Activities A and B can be started
float and which determines the project independently. Activity C follows activity
completion period A, and activity D follows activities B and
2. Critical path is the largest path with C. Activity E follows activity B and
shortest duration withing which the precedes activity F. The activities D and F
project can be completed merge at the objective event. Which one of
3. The difference between early start time the following is the correct network of the
and late finish time must be equal to project?
the activity duration
Which of the statements given above arc
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3 a.
b. Only 1 and 2
c. Only 1 and 3
d. Only 2 and 3
102. Consider the following tasks: b.
1. Placing of reinforcement (P) for roof
slab cannot start before bending of
reinforcement (B) and erection of c.
flame work (E).
2. As soon as placing of reinforcement is
finished, concreting (C) will follow.
The correct activity on arrow diagram d.
representing for the above tasks is 105. If ‘a’ is the optimistic–time, ‘b’ is the
pessimistic time, and ‘m’ is most likely
time of activity, then what is the expected
a. time of activity ?
17 of 18
amb d. 18 units
a.
3 109. A cantilever is to be attached to column.
a  2m  b Which one among the following is the best
b. connection.?
5
a. Framed connection
a  4m  b
c. b. Seated’ connection
6
c. Stiffened seated connection
a  3m  b
d. d. End plate connection
6
110. Assertion (A) : The strength of brick
106.
masonry s purely dependent upon the type
of mortar used.
Reason (R) : Mortar is the binding material
in masonry.
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
A small project, consists of seven activities R is not the correct explanation of A
in the activity—on—node diagram as c. A is true but R is false
shown in the figure above. The duration of d. A is false but R is true
these activities, in days and the
111. Assertion (A) : Low heat Portland cement
predecessor relationships are shown. What
is used in dam construction.
is the total project duration of the project?
Reason (R) : Low heat Portland cement
a. 39 days
attains higher 28 days’ strength than
b. 35 days ordinary Portland cements.
c. 34 days a. Both A and R are individually true and
d. 41 days R is the correct explanation of A
107. What is the process of incorporating b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
changes and rescheduling or preplanning R is not the correct explanation of A
called? c. A is true but R is false
a. Resource allocation d. A is false but R is true
b. Resource smoothing 112. Assertion (A) : Rebound hammer (Schmidt
c. Resource 1evelling hammer) test gives only approximate
d. Updating estimation of strength of the concrete
specimen.
108.
Reason (R) : The test represents the
hardness of the surface and provides no
idea of the concrete inside.
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
The activity duration (days) and resource c. A is true but R is false
requirements (units) are shown in the d. A is false but R is true
figure above. What is the maximum
resource required in a day? 113. Assertion (A) : In working stress method
of design, the values of strain in cement
a. 14 units concrete and steel at any point are same.
b. 11 units
c. 19 units
18 of 18
Reason (R) : There is a perfect bond Reason (R) : In a reciprocating pump, the
between steel and surrounding cement liquid is pushed out of the cylinder by
concrete. actual displacement of a piston or a
a. Both A and R are individually true and plunger.
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
114. Assertion (A) : For a ductile material the d. A is false but R is true
maximum shear distortion theory is most 118. Assertion (A) : Deflection of a beam with
suitable. bolted connections is greater than that of a
Reason (R) : The maximum shear beam with riveted connections.
distortion theory of failure assumes that Reason (R) : Bolted connections allow
yielding can occur in a general three— greater slip between components than
dimensional state of stress. riveted connections.
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
R is not the correct explanation of A R is not the correct explanation of A
115. Assertion (A) : In limit state design, over- 119. Assertion (A) : Angle of inclination of
reinforced sections are not permitted. lacing bars in a built- up column is
Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is constrained as 700 >  > 40°, where  is
brittle, the structure fails suddenly without angle of lacing with vertical.
any warning. Reason (R) : When this limit is not
a. Both A and R are individually true and maintained, the total length of the bar will
R is the correct explanation of A be large.
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but a. Both A and R are individually true and
R is not the correct explanation of A R is the correct explanation of A
c. A is true but R is false b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
d. A is false but R is true R is not the correct explanation of A
116. Assertion (A) : The working stress method c. A is true but R is false
of R.C.C. design of beams is also known d. A is false but R is true
as modular ratio method. 120. Assertion (A) : Smooth wheeled rollers are
Reason (R) : The ratio of stress in steel and preferred for compacting granular soils but
concrete is the same as that of elastic not cohesive soils.
modulii of steel and concrete in beam. Reason (R) : Cohesive soils tend to form a
a. Both A and R are individually true and crust over the rolling smooth surface.
b. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is the correct explanation of A
R is not the correct explanation of A b. Both A and R are’ individually true but
117. Assertion (A) : For low discharges at high d. A is false but R is true
heads, reciprocating pumps are not
suitable.
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2006 1 of 16
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. d. 5.2 m/s
5. Which one of the following assumptions in
deriving the boundary layer equation of
flow past a flat plate at zero incidence is
not correct ?
a. Uniform flow = 0
b. Outside boundary layer velocity is v0
throughout
Which one of the following expresses the
difference in the pressure at the floors of c. The boundary layer thickness is very
the tank shown above in the figure? small compared to distance x
a. (2—1)gH2 d. Pressure remains constant throughout
the flow both within and outside the
b. (2—1)gH1 boundary layer
c. p1gH1+ p3gH2—p2gH2 6. Which one of the following gives the lift
d. p1gH1 + p3g(H2—H1)–p2gH2 force FL produced on a rotating circular
Where 1 , 2 and 3 are the densities of cylinder per unit length in a uniform flow?
the different fluids. a. FL = u /
2. A flat plate of 0.l5m2 is pulled at 20 cm/s b. FL = u
relative to another plate, fixed at a distance c. FL = u/
of 0.02 cn from it with a fluid having  =
00014 Ns/m’ separating them. What is the d. FL = u/
power required to maintain the motion ? Where u = free stream velocity ;
a. 0.0l4 W  = Circulation
b. 0.021 W  = density of the fluid
c. 0.035 W 7. Drag force on a cylinder for turbulent flow
d. 0.042 W compared to Laminar flow is
3. Multi U-tube manometers with different a. Same
fluids are used to measure b. More
a. Low pressures c. Less
b. Medium pressures d. Very high
c. High pressures 8. Match List – I with list – II and select the
d. Very low pressures correct answer :
4. A pilot-static tube, with a coefficient of List–I
098 is used to measure the velocity of A. Reynolds number
water in a pipe. The stagnation pressure B. Froude number
recorded is 3 m and the static pressure is
0.5 m. What is the velocity of flow ? C. Mach number
a. 7.2 m/s D. Weber number
b. 6.8 m/s List-II
c. 5.9 m/s 1. Formation of liquid droplet
2 of 16
2. High speed flow of a gas 11. If the Froude number of flow in a
3. Flow in closed conduits rectangular channel at a depth of flow of
y0 is F0, then what is y/y0 equal to ?
4. Sloping interface exists between fluids
of different densities a. F01/3
A B C D b. F02/3
a. 3 4 2 1
c. F03/2
b. 2 1 3 4
c. 3 1 2 4 1
d.
d. 2 4 3 1 F0
9. Match List–I with List — II and select the 12. A hydraulically efficient trapezoidal
correct answer : section of open channel flow carries water
List-I at the optimal depth of 0.6 m. Chezy
coefficient is 75 and bed slope is 1 m 250.
A. Froude number What is the discharge through the channel?
B. Euler number a. 1.44 m3/s
C. Reynolds number b. 1.62 m3/s
D. Mach number c. 1.92 m3/s
List-II d. 2.24 m3/s
1. Related to inertia force & elastic force 13. In the step methods (both direct and
2. Related to inertia force to viscous force standard), the computations must
3. Related to inertia force to pressure a. Proceed downstrem in subcritical flow
force b. Proceed upstream in subcritical flow
4. Related to inertia force to gravity force c. Always proceed upstream
A B C D d. Always start at a control section
a. 4 1 2 3 14. Which of the following equations are used
b. 2 3 4 1 for the derivation of the differential
c. 4 3 2 1 equation for water surface profile in open
channel flow?
d. 2 1 4 3
1. Continuity Equation
10. Consider the following statements in
respect of specific energy of flow in an 2. Energy Equation
open channel of fixed width : 3. Momentum Equation
1. There is only one specific energy curve Select the correct answer using the code
for a given channel. given below
2. Alternate depth are the depths of flow a. 1, 2 and 3
at which the specific energy is the b. Only 1 and 3
same.
c. Only I and 2
3. Critical flow occurs when the specific
energy is minimum. d. Only 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above are 15. In a wide rectangular channel if the normal
correct ? depth is increased by 20%, then what is the
approximate increase in discharge ?
a. Only 1 and 2
a. 25%
b. Only 1 and 3
b. 30%
c. Only 2 and 3
c. 35%
d. 1, 2 and 3
d. 40%
3 of 16
16. Which one of the following statements is 19. Which one of the following inferences is
not correct ? not drawn by studying performances
a. Water hammer is a phenomenon which curves of centrifugal pumps ?
occurs due to oscillation of water a. Discharge increases with speed
column away from the valve b. Power decreases with speed
b. Rigid water column theory specifies c. Head increases with speed
that water is incompressible and pipe
material does not expand d. Manometric head decreases with
discharge
c. Water hammer occurs under unsteady
conditions of flow 20. The centrifugal pump should be installed
above the water level in the sump such that
d. Rigid water column theory is used less
in practice as it does not reflect field a. Its height is not more than 10.3 m at
situation room temperature of liquid
17. Which one of the following statements is b. Its height is not allowed to exceed 6.7
not correct ? m
a. Solution of pipe network by Hardy c. The negative pressure does not reach
Cross method is a trial and error as low as the vapour pressure
solution d. The negative pressure is not allowed to
b. At a junction of pipes, total inflow is develop in the impeller
equal to the total outflow 21. Which one of the following statements is
c. Loss of head due to flow in a correct?
clockwise direction should be equal to a. Pumps operating in series boost the
loss of head in a counter clockwise discharge whereas pumps operating in
direction parallel boost the head
d. Hardy Cross method can be extended b. Pumps operating in parallel boost the
to open channel flow also discharge whereas pumps operating in
18. series boost the head
c. In both the above cases there would be
a boost in discharge only
d. In both the above cases there would be
a boost in head only
not correct ?
Water flows into junction J from reservoirs a. Draft tubes decrease efficiency of a
A and B through connecting pipes, the turbine
head loss through these being, respectively
b. Wheels of a reaction turbine must
10. QA2 and 4. QB2 . The water level
always run full
elevations at the reservoirs at A and B are
25.9 m and 18 m, respectively. The inflow c. When the load on a reaction turbine is
at J is discharged out at C into the decreased, the system reduces quantity
atmosphere. The head loss through pipe JC of flow of water in an immersed flow
reaction turbine and reduces the power
is 1. QC2 . The gauge pressure at J is 9 m.
produced.
What is the residual gauge pressure of the
d. Pelton wheels are impulse turbine
outflow at C?
23. Match List — I with List — II and select
a. 2.56 m
the correct answer
b. 1.86 m
List — I
c. 1.16 m
A. Pelton
d. 0.46 m
B. Kaplan
4 of 16
C. Banki c. 5/3, 11/7
D. Francis d. 20/11, 11/6
List—Il 27. Which one of the following is not a major
1. Draft tube is used type of storm precipitation?
2. Draft tube is not used a. Frontal storm
3. Operates under high head & low b. Air mass storm
discharge c. Orographic storm
4. Operates under low head & high d. Continental storm
discharge 28.
A B C D
a. 2 1 3 4
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 4 3 1
d. 3 1 2 4 A DRH due to a storm over a basin has a
24. Which one of the following statements is time base of 90 hours with straight line
not correct ? portions of the hydrograph with flow rates
a. Storage and pondage can be obtained of 0, 10, 70, 90, 40 and 0 m3/s at elapsed
from flow duration curve durations of 0, 10, 20, 30, 50 and 90 hours
as indicated on the above diagram,
b. Primary or form power corresponds to respectively. The catchment area is 300
maximum stream flow condition km 2 What is the rainfall excess in the
c. Secondary power is occasionally called storm ?
surplus power a. 2.83 cm
d. Often, flash boards are put on dams to b. 3.46 cm
augment the pondage at low flow
durations c. 3.87 cm
25. In the selection of turbine by specific d. 4.02 cm
speed or head, which one of the following 29. Double mass curves are used
statements is not correct ? a. to check on the consistency of
a. For specific speed 10—35, Kaplan precipitation records
turbines b. as basis for storm rainfall analysis
b. For specific speed 60—300, Francis c. to determine average rainfall over an
turbines area
c. For head 50—1 50 m. Francis turbines d. to indicate rainfall distribution
d. For head above 300 m, Pelton wheel 30. Penman’s equation is based on
26. Recorded annual maximum 24—hour a. Energy budgeting only
rainfall magnitudes at stations KTX are as
b. Energy budgeting and water budgeting
under :
c. Energy budgeting and mass transfer
Year 1960 1961 1962 1963 1964 1965 1966 1967 1968 1969
Rainfall, d. Water budgeting and mass transfer
12.0 6.0 4.8 7.9 12.0 14.2 13.6 6.0 3.7 2.9
cm
31. The time of concentration at the outlet in
What is the return period, in years, for a an urban area catchment of 1.5 km2 area
6.0 cm annual rainfall according to (i) with a run off coefficient of 0.42 is 28
Hazen formula; and (ii) Weibull formula minutes. The maximum depth of rainfall
respectively ? with a 50 year return period for this time
of concentration is 48 mm. What is the
a. 10/7, 11/7
peak flow rate at the outlet for this return
b. 20/13, 22/13 period ?
5 of 16
a. 12 m3/s (V represents the point velocity at the
b. 14 m3/s given section and the depth such as 0.ld,
0.2d etc.)
c. 16 m3/s
d. 18 m3/s the correct answer using the code given
32. Match List — I with List — II and select below the Lists :
the correct answer using the code given List—I
below the Lists :
A. Location
List—I (Technique/Principle)
B. Stability
A. —Index
C. Variation of discharge
B. Slope—area method
D. Plan form
C. Flow duration curve
List—II
D. Dilution technique
1. Perennial
List—II (Purpose)
2. Degrading
1. Dependable flow
3. Tidal
2. Reservoir regulation
4. Braided
3. Steady stream discharge determination
A B C D
4. Run—off volume
a. 4 2 1 3
5. Unsteady stream discharge
determination b. 3 1 2 4
A B C D c. 4 1 2 3
a. 3 5 1 4 d. 3 2 1 4
b. 4 1 2 3 35. The basic equation of flood routing
through a reservoir can be modified for
c. 3 1 2 4 discrete successive intervals t by which
d. 4 5 1 3 one of the following ?
33. In the case of large rivers, a number of l  l   Q t   Q t 
equidistant vertical sections of the total a.  1 2  t  S1  1   S2  2 
 2   2   2 
width of flow are indentified, for the
purpose of finding by umerical integration, l  l   Q t   Q t 
b.  1 2  t  S1  1   S2  2 
the total discharge on any day. On each  2   2   2 
section, the mean velocity is taken as the
arithmetic average of two typical depths l  l   Q t   Q t 
c.  1 2  t  S1  1   S2  2 
on that Section. Then the mean velocity is  2   2   2 
worked out for, that section.
l  l   Q t   Q t 
Usually, the mean velocity on any section, d.  1 2  t   S1  1    S2  2 
 2   2   2 
corresponds to which one of the
following? 36. By using Gumbel’s method, the flood
discharge with a return period of 500 years
V0.1d  V0.9 d
a. at a particular township neighborhood was
2 estimated as 18000 m3/s with a probable
V  V0.8d error of 2000 m3/s. What are the 95%
b. 0.2 d
2 confidence probability limits of the 500-
year flood at the location ?
V0.3d  V0.7 d
c. a. 16100 m3/s to 19900 m3/s
2
b. 17050 m3/s to 18950 m3/s
V  V0.6 d
d. 0.4 d c. 14080 m3/s to 21920 m3/s
2
d. 13600 m3/s to 22400 m3/s
6 of 16
37. Which type of fall can be generally used 4. Gross irrigation requirement
for a moderate discharge of 40—60 For a given set up, which one of the
cumecs and low fall heights of I to 1.5 m? following is the correct relation?
a. Vertical drop fall a. 1>2>3>4
b. Ogee fall b. 1<2<3<4
c. Glacis fall c. (1=2)<3<4
d. Baffle fall d. l<(2=3)<4
38. If the sensitivity of an irrigation module is 43. A drainage coefficient
0.5, then what per cent variation in outlet
discharge will be caused by 50 percent a. Decides the choice of the method of
variation in canal water depth ? the drainage
a. 100% b. Decides the kind of crop that can be
grown on the land
b. 50%
c. Is the depth of water that can be
c. 25% removed from the drainage area in unit
d. 12.5% time
39. A 252 km2 catchment area has a 6 hr U.II. d. Is the flow of water from the soil into
which is a triangle with time base of 35 the tile laterals per unit time
hours. What is the peak discharge of the 44. Match List — I with List — II and select
DRI-I due to 5 cm effective rainfall in 6 the correct answer (s = bed slope, q =
hours from that catchment ? discharge intensity, Q = Discharge) :
a. 45 cumecs List — I
b. 115 cumecs A. Mean velocity in a Lacey regime
c. 200 cumecs channel
d. 256 cumecs B. Mean velocity in a lined channel
40. In a river carrying a discharge of 142 m C. Normal scour depth in an alluvial
31s, the stage at a station A was 3.6 m and channel
the water surface slope was 1 in 6000. If D. Wilted perimeter of a Lacey regime
during a flood, the stage at A was 3.6 m channel
and the water surface slope was 1 in 3000,
what was the flood discharge List — II
(approximately)? 1. s1/2
a. 284 m3/s 2. s1/3
b. 200 m3/s 3. q2/3
c. 164 m 4. q–1/3
d. 96 m 5. Q1/2
41. The moisture tension for a soil is 8 A B C D
atmospheres. The soil is then at a. 2 5 3 1
a. Permanent wilting point b. 3 1 4 5
b. Field capacity c. 2 1 3 5
c. Optimum moisture content d. 3 5 4 1
d. Equivalent moisture 45. What type of cross drainage work is
42. Consider the following terms relating to provided when the canal runs below the
irrigation requirements: drain, with FS L of canal well below the
1. Consumptive irrigation requirement bed of the drain?
2. Net irrigation requirement a. Aqueduct
3. Field irrigation requirement b. Super passage
7 of 16
c. Level crossing b. PAN : Found during photo—chemical
d. Siphon acueduct smog
46. What is the equivalent calcium carbonate c. Cyclone : Employed for particulate
concentration of 110 mg/l of CaCl2? matter removal
a. 50 mg/l d. Wind rose : Employed in forecast of
pollutant dispersion in ambient air
b. 58.5 mg/l
51. A standard multiple—tube fermentation
c. 100 mg/l test was conducted on a sample of water.
d. 117 mg/i The results of the analysis for the
47. Which of the following cations impart(s) confirmed test are given below :
pseudo—hardness to water? Sample No. of positive No. of negative
a. Calcium only Size results out of 5 results out of 5
b. Magnesium only (ml) tubes tubes
c. Calcium and magnesium 10 4 1
d. Sodium 1 2 3
48. Which one of the following is thç range of 0.1 1 4
ozonosphere in atmosphere ? 0.01 0 5
a. Troposphere to Stratosphere
b. Tropospause to Stratospause MPN Index for combination of positive results
c. Tropospause to Mesosphere when 5 tubes used per dilutions (10 m, 1.0ml,
0.1 ml)
d. Stratosphere to Mesosphere -
Combination MPN Combination MPN
of positives Index of positives Index
per per 100
below the Lists :
100 ml ml
List—I (Equipment)
5–4–3 280 4–2–1 26
A. Tintometer
4–3–1 33 2–1–0 7
B. Nephelometer
Using the above MPN Index table, what is
C. Imhoff cone the most probable number (MPN) of the
D. Muffle furnace sample ?
List—II (Parameter) a. 280
1. Temperature b. 33
2. Colour c. 26
3. Turbidity d. 70
4. Settleable solids 52. Chlorides from water are removed by
5. Volatile solids a. Lime soda process
A B C D b. Reverse osmosis
a. 4 3 1 5 c. Cation exchange process
b. 2 5 4 3 d. Chemical coagulation
c. 4 5 1 3 53. Chlorination with Cl2 produces
d. 2 3 4 5 hypochlorous acid (HOCl), which may
further dissociate as hypochiorite ion
50. Which one of the following pairs is not (OCI–) depending upon pH of the water.
correctly matched ? The reaction is represented as
a. Corioilis : The effect of earth’s rotation
HOCI  H + OC1– (k = 2.5 x 10–8 moles/I
on wind effect direction and velocity
at 20°C).
8 of 16
What is the fraction of HOCI in the water d. Carbon dioxide
at pH 7.0 ? 60. If total hardness & alkalinity of a water
a. 0.95 sample are 200 mg/l as CaCO3 and 260
b. 0.80 mg/l as CaCO3 respectively, what are the
values of carbonate hardness and non-
c. 0.20 carboness hardness?
d. 0.05 a. 200 mg/l and zero
54. In which treatment unit is “Schmutz b. Zero and 60 mg/l
decke” formed?
c. Zero and 200 mg/l
a. Sedimentation tank
d. 60 mg/l and zero
b. Rapid sand filter
c. Coagulation tank the correct answer using the code given
d. Slow sand filter below the Lists:
55. Which one of the following chemicals is List — I (Process/Bacteria)
employed for decholrination of water? A. Anabolism
a. Sodium solphite B. Autotrophs
b. Sodium bicarbonate C. Catabolism
c. Calcium carbonate D. Heterotrophs
d. Hydrogen peroxide List — II (Energy/Material)
56. Which one of the following is the correct 1. Providing energy for the synthesis of
sequence of slow sand filter (SSF), rapid new cells and maintenance of other
sand filter (RSF), dual media filter (DMF) cell functions
and mixed media filter (MMF) in the
decreasing order of their filtration rates ? 2. Obtaining energy and material for
growth from organic sources
a. MMF DMF> RSF> SSF
3. Providing the material necessary for
b. DMF> RSF> SSF > MMF cell growth
c. RSF> SSF > MMF DMF 4. Obtaining energy and material for
d. SSF> MMF DMF> RSF growth from inorganic sources
57. After which of the following water A B C D
treatment units, the turbidity is maximum ? a. 1 4 3 2
a. Chlorination b. 3 2 1 4
b. Primary sedimentation c. 1 2 3 4
c. Flocculation basin d. 3 4 1 2
d. Secondary sedimentation 62. Consider the following clay minerals
58. In context of water polluted, with sewage, 1. Kaolinite
what does BOD signify ?
2. Illite
a. Biological oxygen demand
3. Montmorillonite
b. Bacteriological oxygen demand
c. Biochemical oxygen demand sequence of the minerals given above in
d. Biology of degradation the increasing order of their grain size?
59. What is the most common cause of acidity a. 3—2—1
in water ? b. 1—3—2
a. Carbon monoxide c. 1—2—3
b. Nitrogen d. 3—1—2
c. Hydrogen 63. Consider the following statements
9 of 16
1. Mica is a clay mineral c. 4 1 2 3
2. Rock dust particles, even of clay size d. 2 3 4 1
are non—plastic 66. Match List — I with List — II and select
3. A particle of Kaolinite is electrically the correct answer using the code given
charged below the Lists :
Which of the statements given above are List - I (Type of Soil)
correct ? A. Wet clays and silts
a. 1, 2 and 3 B. Crushed rock
b. Only 1 and 2 C. Fills soils
c. Only 2 and 3 D. Sands
d. Only 1 and 3 List-II (Compaction Equipment)
64. Which one of the following relation gives 1. Smooth wheel rollers
the value of degree of saturation s, in terms
2. Vibrators
of unit weight , water content w (as ratio)
and specific gravity of soil solids Gs, w is 3. Pneumatic tyred rollers
unit weight of water? 4. Grid rollers
w A B C D
a. s =
 /  w 1  w   1/ G s a. 4 2 3 1
w b. 3 1 4 2
b. s =
 /  w 1  w   1/ G s c. 4 1 3 2
d. 3 2 4 1
w
c. s =
 w /  1  w   1/ G s 67. A soil mass under seepage has a
downward flow of water. Which of the
w following statements are correct with
d. s =
 w /  1  w   1/ G s regard to stresses at any point in the soil
mass ?
1. Effective stress is decreased by an
amount equal to the seepage force
below the Lists :
2. Effective stress is increased by an
List–I
amount equal to the seepage force
A. Smooth wheel rollers
3. Total stress will change
B. Sheep foot rollers
4. Total stress will be unaltered
C. Pneumatic tyred rollers
D. Rammers given below
List-II a. 1 and 3
1. Most suitable for compacting cohesive b. 2 and 3
soils
c. 1 and 4
2. Most suited for compacting coarse
d. 2 and 4
grained soils
68. In a consolidation test void ratio decreased
3. Used for compacting soils in confined
from 0.80 to 0.70 when the load was
places
changed front 40 kN/m2 to 80 kN/m 2
4. Suitable for both cohesionless & What is the compression index ?
cohesive soils
a. 0.14
A B C D
b. 0.16
a. 4 3 2 1
c. 0.33
b. 2 1 4 3
d. 0.66
10 of 16
69. In a consolidation test the sample tested Which of the statements given above are
has height H; water content is w; specific correct?
gravity of solids G. After increasing the a. 1, 2 and 3
loading by an increment p, the height
b. Only 1 and 3
decrease is H Which one of the following
expresses the corresponding change in c. Only 1 and 2
void ratio e? d. Only 2 and 3
H 72. Consider the following statements:
a. e =
H 1  wG  1. Stress path is a locus of stress points
developed by stress changes in the soil
H 1  wG  and can be obtained from Mohr’s
b. e =
H Stress Circle.
H 1  wG  2. Stress path can be used to determine
c. e = the intensity of stress at a point due to
H
the application of uniformly applied
H
d. e = circular loaded area.
H 1  wG  3. Stress path has a value in giving
70. Consider the following statements insight into probable soil response -
particularly if a part of the previous
1. A sand with its void ratio higher than
history stress path can be reproduced.
its critical void ratio increases in
volume when sheared. Which of the statements given above are
correct?
2. A sand with its void ratio less than its
critical void ratio increases in volume a. 1, 2 and 3
when sheared. b. Only 1 and 2
3. For a sand at critical void ratio, the c. Only 2 and 3
volume change during shear is d. Only 1 and 3
minimum.
73. A point load of 650 kN is applied on the
Which of the statements given above are surface of a thick layer of clay. Using
correct ? Boussinesq’s elastic analysis, what is
a. 1, 2 and 3 approximate value of the estimated vertical
b. Only 1 and 2 stress at a depth 2 m and a radial distance
of 1.0 m from the point of application of
c. Only 2 and 3
load?
d. Only 1 and 3
a. 55 kN/m2
b. 44 kN/m2
the shearing resistance as a function of
effective stress c. 41 kN/m2
1. Effective stress on the failure plane d. 37 kN/m2
governs the shearing resistance and not 74. In a braced vertical excavation of 5 m
the total stress. height and 250 m width in a cohesive soil
2. Two soils equally dense, consolidated having undrained cohesion equal to 20
to same effective stress will show kN/m2 and bulk unit weight of 20 kN/m3 ,
different shear resistance with drainage what is the factor of safety against heave
and undrained condition. failure at its base ?
3. The post peak drop off in shearing a. 1.0
resistance is less pronounced in over b. 1.20
consolidated clays and more in c. 1.40
normally consolidated clays at same
effective stress. d. 2.0
11 of 16
75. During a sampling operation, the drive c. 4 2 3 1
sampler is advanced 600 mm and the d. 3 1 4 2
length of the sample recovered is 525 mm.
What is the recovery ratio of the sample? 78. Consider the following statements
a. 0.125 1. The proportioning of a footing is more
often governed by its bearing capacity.
b. 0.140
2. Friction piles are also called ‘floating
c. 0.875 piles.
d. 0.143 Which of the statements given above is/are
76. A sampling tube with a cutting edge is correct ?
used for extracting the samples. The a. Only 1
sampling tube has the following
dimensions: b. Only 2
Inner diameter of cutting edge = Dc. Outer c. Both 1 and 2
diameter of cutting edge = Dw. Inner d. Neither 1 nor 2
diameter of the sampling tube = Ds. Outer 79. A test plate 30 cm square, settles by l2 m
diameter of the sampling tube = Dt,. under a load of 4.5 kN in a sandy soil. By
What is the area ratio A, of the sampling how much will a footing 2m x 2m
tube? subjected to a load of 200 kN settle by ?
Dw2  Dc2 a. 36.3 mm
a. Ar  100%
Dc2 b. 20.87 mm
c. 75.75 mm
Dt2  Dc2
b. Ar  100% d. 1815 mm
Dc2
D2  D2
c. Ar  t 2 w 100% 1. Initial load tests and routine tests are
Dw carried out on test piles and working
piles, respectively.
Dt2  Ds2
d. Ar  100% 2. A cyclic load test is performed to
Ds2
determine a pile’s skin resistance and
77. Match List — I with List — II and select base resistance separately.
the correct answer using the code given 3. In a pile load test, the safe load is taken
below the Lists as half the final load at which the
List-I (Type of Foundations) settlement equals 10% of pile
A. Spread footings diameter.
B. Underreamed piles Which of the statements given above are
correct ?
C. Raft foundation
a. 1, 2 and 3
D. Deep foundation
b. Only 1 and 2
List-II (Suitability)
c. Only 2 and 3
1. Soft clay for 20 m followed by hard
rock stratum d. Only 1 and 3
2. Upto 3 m black cotton soil followed by 81. Which one of the following verniers is
medium dense sand employed in Abney Level?
3. Compact sand deposit extending to a. Retrograde vernier
great depth b. Double vernier
4. Loose sand extending to great depth c. Double folded vernier
A B C D d. Extended vernier
a. 4 1 3 2 82. What is the angle between two plane
b. 3 2 4 1 mirrors of an optical square ?
12 of 16
a. 300 a. In winter than in summer
b. 600 b. At smaller latitudes than at higher
c. 450 latitudes
d. 900 c. At magnetic equator points
83. Which of the following figures are equal to d. In summer than in winter
one acre? 88. What is the angle of intersection of a
1. 43560 sq. ft. contour and a ridge line?
2. 40 gunthas a. 30°
3. 10 sq. Gunter’s chain b. 0°
4. 4850 sq. yds. c. 180°
Select the correct answer using the code d. 90°
given below 89. Match List — I with List — II and select
a. 1, 2 and 3 the correct answer using the code given
below the Lists :
b. 2, 3 and 4
List-I
c. 1, 2 and 4
A. Adjustment of surveying instruments
d. 1, 3 and 4
B. Bowditch rule
84. What is the slope correction for a length of
30.0 m along gradient of 1 in 20? C. Triangulation
a. 3.75 cm D. Bessel’s method
b. 0.375 cm List-II
c. 37.5 cm 1. Bringing the various fixed parts of the
instruments into proper relations with
d. 0.0375 cm one another
2. Solution of three point problem
85. 3. Measuring all the angles and base line
4. Balancing the latitudes and departures
A B C D
a. 1 2 3 4
b. 3 4 1 2
The magnetic bearing of a line AB is S 30° c. 1 4 3 2
E. If the declination is 6° West, then what d. 3 2 1 4
is the true bearing ? 90. A level when set up 25 m from peg A and
a. S 36°E 50 m from peg B reads 2.847 m on staff
b. N 36°W held on A and 3.462 m on staff held on B,
keeping bubble at its centre while reading.
c. S 24° E
If the reduced levels of A and B are
d. N 24° W 283.665 m and 284.295 m respectively,
86. A 30 m metric chain is found to be 10 cm what is the collimation error per 100.0 m?
too short throughout a measurement. If the a. 0.0l5m
distance measured is recorded as 300 m,
what is the actual distance ? b. 0.30m
a. 300.1 m c. 0.045m
b. 301.0 m d. 0.060m
c. 299.0 m 91. For air borne application and
materialization of GPS receiver and easy
d. 310.0 m construction, which is the most frequently
87. Diurnal variation is greater used antenna ?
13 of 16
a. Microstrip 96. Which one of the following is the set of
b. Micropole physical requirements of coarse aggregates
for construction of WBM roads as per IRC
c. Spiral helix recommendation?
d. Choke ring LAV(%) AIV(%) Fl (%)
92. What is the minimum length of a transition a. <50 <40 <15
curve for a design speed of 80 kmph in a
horizontal curve of 240 m radius? b. <50 <30 <15
a. 32 m c. <40 <30 <20
b. 42 m d. <40 <30 <15
c. 52 m 97. On a road the free speed was 65 kmph and
the space headway at jam density was 625
d. 72 m m. What is the maximum flow which
93. A runway is located 450 m above the could be expected on this road?
mean sea level. If the aeroplane reference a. 2600 vph
field is 1800 m, what is the approximate
corrected runway length for elevation ? b. 1625 vph
a. 1849 m c. 1300 vph
b. 1889 m d. 406 vph
c. 1987 m 98. A mucking operation is to be carried out
by hauling trucks of 6 m3 capacity.
d. 2013 m Further,
94. Match List — I with List — II and select 1. Volume of muck per blast = 60 m3
below the Lists : 2. Time allotted for mucking is 60
minutes with operating efficiency = 50
List-I (Type of Binder) minute per hour.
A. 80/100 Penetration grade bitumen 3. Effective cycle time of hauling truck
B. 85/25 Blownbitumen 25 mm.
C. MC—70 Cutback What is the number of hauling trucks
D. RT-5 Road tar required for mucking?
List-II (Use) a. 2
1. Mastic—assphalt b. 4
2. Bituminous roads c. 5
3. Grouting works d. 6
4. Prime-coat 99. Match List — I with List — II and select
A B C D
below the Lists :
a. 3 4 1 2
List-I (Signal)
b. 2 1 4 3
A. Outer signal
c. 3 1 4 2
B. Starter signal
d. 2 4 1 3
C. Repeater signal
95. What are the standards for testing of road
D. Disc signal
macadam in Aggregate Impact Test ?
List-Il (Function)
a. 14 kg wt, 38 cm drop, 15 blows
1. Departure signal
b. 14 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 20 blows
2. Reception signal
c. 18 kg wt, 35 cm drop, 15 blows
3. Shunting signal
d. 18 kg wt, 30 cm drop, 20 blows
4. Coacting signal
14 of 16
A B C D (considering that all the available gates can
a. 4 1 2 3 be used by all aircrafts).
b. 2 3 4 1 Which one of the following equations
gives the ultimate gate capacity C?
c. 4 3 2 1
n
d. 2 1 4 3 G  M i
100. What is the value of the steepest gradient a. C  i 1
n
to be provided on a 2 degree curve for T i
B.G. line having ruling gradient of 1 in i 1
200? G  60
b. C 
a. 1 in 238 (b) n
b. 1 in.227
M T
i 1
i i
c. 1 in 202 n
M 
c. C    i   Ti
d. 1 in 198 i 1  G 
101. The ruling gradient on B.G. section of G
railway is 1 in 150 and a 4° curve is also d. C  n
there on it. What is the allowable ruling M
i 1
i  Ti
gradient?
a. 1 in 146 104. The total correction percentage for
b. 1 in 154 altitude and temperature, in calculating the
runway length from basic runway length,
c. 1 in 196 normally does not exceed
d. 1 in 232 a. 7
102. For design of a runway length, match b. 14
List—I with List—II and select the correct
answer using the code given below the c. 28
Lists: d. 35
List- I (Factor) 105. The present population of a community is
A. Standard basic length 28000 with an average water demand of
150 lpcd. The existing water treatment
B. Elevation plant has a design capacity of 6000 m3/d. It
C. Temperature is expected that the population will
D. Effective gradient increase to 48000 during the next 20 years.
What is the number of years from now
List - II (Correction)
when the plant will reach its design
1. 7% for every 303 metres capacity assuming an arithmetic rate of
2. 0.5% population growth ?
3. 20% for each 1% gradient a. 86 years
4. Depends upon aircraft and obtained b. 120 years
from ICAO Standard Tables c. 150 years
A B C D d. 165 years
a. 4 1 2 3 106. Which one of the following diagrams
b. 2 3 4 1 illustrates the relationship between flow
c. 4 3 2 1 value (FV) and percentage bitumen (%
BIT)?
d. 2 1 4 3
103. If Mi = Proportion of ith type of aircraft in
the mix, Ti = “Gate occupancy time” of the
ith type of aircraft. G = Number of gates
a.
15 of 16
109. The design speed of a highway is 80 km/hr
and the radius of circular curve is 150 m in
plain topography. Which one of the
following is the minimum length of
transition curve?
b. a. 115 m
b. 85 m
c. 65 m
d. 43 m
110. A rising gradient of 1 in 50 meets a falling
c. gradient of 1 in 30. Which one of the
following is the length of vertical curve if
the stopping sight distance is 120 m ?
a. 174 m
b. 158 m
d. c. 140 m
107. Match List — I with List —II and select d. 120 m
below the Lists : 111. A 4–hour unit hydrograph of a basin can
be approximated as a triangle with a base
List – I (Method of Design for Flexible period of 48 hours and peak ordinate of
Pavement) 300m3/s. What is the area of the catchment
A. Group Index Method basin ?
B. CBR Method a. 7776 km2
C. US Navy Method b. 5184 km2
D. Asphalt Institute Method c. 2592 km2
List – II (Principle) d. 1294 km2
1. Semi—theoretical 112. Hardness to water is caused by the
2. Quasi—rational presence of calcium (Ca+2) and magnesium
(Mg+2) ions. Which are the least soluble
3. Empirical method using soil
forms of calcium and magnesium at
classification test
normal water temperature?
4. Empirical method using soil strength
a. CaCl2 and MgCO3
test
b. Ca(HCO3)2 and MgCl2
A B C D
c. Ca(OH)2 and Mg(HCO3)2
a. 3 1 4 2
d. CaCO3 and Mg(OH)2
b. 2 4 1 3
113. Assertion (A) : Boundary layer theory is
c. 3 4 1 2
applicable only in the vicinity of the
d. 2 1 4 3 leading edge of the plate.
108. What ratio do the versines of a circular Reason (R) : Boundary layer theory is
curve when measured at the quarter point based on the assumption that its thickness
of a full chord and, when measured at the is small when compared to other linear
same point on half chord bear? dimensions.
a. 100 : 1 a. Both A and R are individually true and
b. 60 : 1 R is the correct explanation of A
c. 3 : 1 b. Both A and R are individually true but
d. 1 : 1 R is not the correct explanation of A
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d. A is false but R is true respective horizontal velocities remain
114. Assertion (A) : It takes longer to drain a constant during their stay in the tank.
reservoir with a long vertical pipe taken a. Both A and R are individually true and
down from its bottom discharging into R is the correct explanation of A
atmosphere than with an orifice at the b. Both A and R are individually true but
bottom. R is not the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) : The relative height of the c. A is true but R is false
water surface elevation in the reservoir
compensates for the friction loss in the d. A is false but R is true
pipe besides the entry and exit losses in the 118. Assertion (A) : Large weir overflow rates
pipe. will result in excessive velocities at the
a. Both A and R are individually true and outlet of. A settling basin.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : These excessive velocities
b. Both A and R are individually true but will extend backward into the settling
R is not the correct explanation of A zone, causing particles and floes which
would otherwise be removed as sludge to
c. A is true but R is false be drawn into the outlet.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are individually true and
115. Assertion (A) : The unit hydrograph R is the correct explanation of A
cannot be applied for areas less than 5000 b. Both A and R are individually true but
sq. km. R is not the correct explanation of A
Reason (R) The run—off hydrograph c. A is true but R is false
reflects the physiographic factors of a
catchment. d. A is false but R is true
a. Both A and R are individually true and 119. Assertion (A) : The state of earth pressure
R is the correct explanation of A at rest is the state of equilibrium with zero
strain condition.
R is not the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : In rest condition neither the
wall nor the soil moves.
116. Assertion (A) : The USBR type 11 stilling b. Both A and R are individually true but
basin length requirement is less than that R is not the correct explanation of A
in type III basin for similar design
conditions. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : Energy dissipation is d. A is false but R is true
primarily accomplished by hydraulic jump 120. Assertion (A) : The super elevation
in USBR type II stilling basin. provided on a curve of a railway track is
a. Both A and R are individually true and less than the equilibrium cant.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R) : Subject to a maximum value
b. Both A and R are individually true but depending on speed and gauge, cant
R is not the correct explanation of A deficiency is allowed and therefore actual
cant provided is less than the equilibrium
c. A is true but R is false cant.
d. A is false but R is true a. Both A and R are individually true and
117. Assertion (A) : Flocculating particles settle R is the correct explanation of A
in curved path in a long rectangular b. Both A and R are individually true but
sedimentation tank designed for a constant R is not the correct explanation of A
flow rate.
Reason (R) : The downward settling
velocities of particles as well as their d. A is false but R is true
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007 1 of 15
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
1. subjected to equal torsional force. What is

the torsional stiffness of hollow shaft?
a. Equal to that of the solid shaft
b. Less than that of the solid shaft
c. More than that of the solid shaft
d. Exactly half of that of the solid shaft
What is the most appropriate method for
analysis of a skeletal plane frame shown in
the figure above?
a. Slope - deflection method
b. Strain energy method 5.
c. Moment distribution method What is the inclination of resultant
d. None of the above reactions at A with the vertical for the
frame shown in the above figure?
2. A fixed beam AB of span l carries a
uniformly distributed load w/unit length. a. 600
During loading, the support B sinks b. 400
wl 4 c. 30°
downwards by an amount . If  = ,
72 EI d. 50°
what is the fixing moment at B?
6. Match List - I with List - II and select the
wl 2 correct answer using the code given below
a.
12 the Lists :
wl 2 List-I (Load Case)
b.
6 A. Slope for tip load of W
6EI  B. Deflection for tip load of W
c.
l2 C. Slope for total UDL of W
d. Zero D. Deflection for total UDL of W
3. What does the Williot - Mohr diagram (Flexural rigidity = El)
yield? List-II (Expression for Slope/Deflection)
a. Forces in members of a truss 1. WL3 / 8E1
b. Moments in a fixed beam 2. WL2 / 6E1
c. Reactions at the supports 3. WL3 / 3E1
d. Joint displacement of a pinjointed 4. WL2 / 2E1
plane frame
A B C D
4. Two shafts, one of solid section and the
other of hollow section, of same material a. 4 2 3 1
and weight having same length are b. 1 3 2 4
c. 4 3 2 1
2 of 15
d. 1 2 3 4 b. 16 kN, 6 kN
7. c. 6kN,l6kN
d. 8kN,6kN
11.
What is the magnitude of the force in the A circular shaft of diameter 30 mm having
member BD in the figure given above? shear modulus G = 80 GPa is subjected to
a. 5 kN moment as shown above.
b. 7 kN(App) What is the maximum shear stress
developed at periphery of shaft at A?
c. 4 2 kN
a. 20.6 MPa
d. Zero
b. 15.3 MPa
8. A cantilever beam of T cross -section
c. 7.4 MPa
carries uniformly distributed load. Where
does the maximum magnitude of the d. Zero
bending stress occur ? 12. A close - coiled helical spring with n coils,
a. At the top of cross - section mean radius R and diameter d is subjected
to an axial load W. What is the
b. At the junction of flange and web
compression in the spring?
c. At the mid- depth point
64WR 3 n
d. At the bottom of the section a.
Cd 3
9.
64WR 3 n
b.
Cd 4
32WR 3 n
c.
Cd 3
32WR 3 n
What is the vertical deflection of joint C of d.
Cd 4
the frame shown above?
a. PL/AE
1. In a beam, the maximum shear stress
b. 2PL/AE occurs at the neutral axis of the beam
c. PL / 2AE cross - section.
d. 3PL / AE 2. The maximum shear stress in a beam
of circular cross - section is 50% more
10.
than the average shear stress.
3. The maximum shear stress in a beam
of triangular cross-section, with its
vertex upwards occurs at b/6 above the
neutral axis.
What are the magnitudes of horizontal and correct ?
vertical support reactions, respectively at a. 1, 2 and 3
support A of the frame shown above ?
b. 2 and 3 only
a. 16 kN, 18 kN
c. 1 and 2 only
3 of 15
d. 1 and 3 only What is the horizontal reaction at A at
14. Length of plastic hinge of a beam depends collapse conditions
on which of the following? a. 0
1. Span of the beam b. 0.1 W
2. Type of loading c. 0.2 W
3. Shape of cross - section d. 0.4 W
4. Yield strength of steel 17. Consider the following statements in
Select the correct answer using the code respect of gantry girders:
given below 1. Gantry girders are designed for 23%
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 extra load of crane capacity for impact.
b. 1, 2 and 3 only 2. Maximum deflection for dead and
imposed loads without impact is
c. 2 and 3 only limited to span / 500
d. 1 and 4 only Which of the statements given above is/are
15. correct ?
a. 1 only
b. 2 only
c. Both 1 and 2
d. Neither 1 nor 2
18. Diagonal member of a roof truss of length
I has been designed with tube of 100 mm
mean diameter and 3 ruin thick. The force
in the member is tensile due to dead and
live loads, and compressive due to
If a uniform beam shown in the figure
occasional winds. What is the maximum
above has the plastic moment capacity Mp
permissible effective length of the
for span AB and 0.9 Mp for span BC, what
member?
is the correct virtual work equation?
a. 63m
 2θ 
a. M p θ  M p  θ    W .2θ b. 875m
 3 
c. 1225m
2θ
b. M p θ  M p θ  0.9M p  W .2θ d. 140m
3
19. At what value (nearly) is the maximum
 2θ 
c. M p θ  0.9 M p  θ    W .2θ spacing of purlins for standard asbestos
 3  roofing sheets kept ?
 2θ 2θ  a. 1.0 m
d. M p θ  0.9 M p  θ     W .2θ
 3 3  b. 1.4 m
16. c. 1.8 m
d. 2.0 m
20. Horizontal stiffeners are needed in plate
girders if the thickness of web is
a. < 6 mm
b. < d/200
Collapse moment for the frame shown
c. <L / 500
above has been worked out as Mp = Wl/5.
d. nearly equal to flange thickness
4 of 15
where d distance between the flanges and d. Lateral shear + 25% of the
L = span compression force in two end posts
21. Consider the following statements 25. Why are intermediate vertical stiffeners
pertaining to intermediate stiffeners provided in plate girders?
1. Stiffeners are provided to exclusively a. To eliminate web buckling
bear concentrated loads. b. To eliminate local buckling
2. Stiffeners should bear tightly against c. To transfer concentrated loads
top and bottom flanges.
d. To prevent excessive deflection
3. Maximum spacing of stiffeners is
restricted 180t, where t is the thickness
of web. 26.
correct?
a. 1, 2 and 3
b. 1 and 2 only
c. 3 only
Four bolts share the load P as shown in the
d. 2 only
figure above. The shear strength of bolt is
22. A symmetrical plate girder has been 30 kN and tension strength of bolt is 40
fabricated with three equal plates. If a kN.
circular hole of diameter equal to half of
Which one of the following is the value of
its height is centrally cut in the web, what
P?
is the approximate ratio of the strength of
this punctured girder to that of the original a. 96 kN
girder? b. 105 kN
a. 93% c. 117 kN
b. 85% d. 134 kN
c. 75% 27. What is the ratio of the permissible bearing
d. 56% stress in power -driven shop rivets relative
to the yield stress of mild steel?
23. For a pair of identical steel channel
sections, tack - welded as a tension a. 1.0
element, what is the net area of cross - b. 0.8
section for design purposes ?
c. 0.6
a. Net area of the webs only
d. 0.4
b. Net area of the flanges only
28. A reduction in the allowable stress in steel
c. Net area of the webs and flanges chimney construction is necessary if the
d. Web area plus a portion of the area of temperature exceeds
the flanges a. 75°C
24. The portal bracing is designed for which of b. 100°C
the following?
c. 200 °C
a. Wind forces only
d. 300 °C
1
b. Wind force + 1 % of the 29. A compound column had been fabricated
4 with 4 angles of ISA 50  50  6 placed at
compression force in two end posts corners of a square 300 mm  300 mm.
c. Wind force + 25% of the compression The radius of gyration of the angle is 10
force in two end posts mm. For the fabricated column, the overall
slenderness ratio is 40. What is the
5 of 15
maximum distance between lacing bar in a concrete pedestal as per relevant IS
attachments at the fabricated columns ? code ?
a. 500 mm a. 0.4
b. 400 mm b. 0.2
c. 300mm c. 0.15
d. 280 mm d. 0.1
30. In the case of a continuous RC beam, in 35. Which one of the following is the correct
order to obtain the maximum positive span expression to estimate the development
moment, where should the live load be length of deformed reinforcing bar as per
placed? IS code in limit state design?
a. On all the spans  s
a.
b. On alternate spans starting from the 4.5 bd
left
 s
c. On spans adjacent to the spans under b.
5 bd
consideration
d. On the span plus alternate spans  s
c.
6.4 bd
31. What is the allowable upward deflection in
a prestress concrete member under  s
serviceability limit state condition ? d.
8 bd
a. Span/250
where  is diameter of reinforcing bar, s
b. Span/300 is the stress in the bar at a section and bd
c. Spacn/350 is bond stress
d. Span/500 36. The cover of longitudinal reinforcing bar
in a beam subjected to sea spray should
32. Which one of the following predicts the
not be less than which one of the
effective modulus of elasticity of concrete.
following?
Ec
a. a. 30 mm
1
b. 70 mm
Ec
b. c. 75 mm
1  2
d. 80 mm
Ec
c. 37. Which one of the following is correct in
1  3
respect of the material efficiency of RCC
d.
Ec flexural elements in rectangular beam, T-
1  5 beam and two-way slab?
where Ec is short-term elastic modulus and a. All the three sections are equally
 is the ultimate creep coefficient efficient
33. What is the limiting principle tensile stress b. T-beam section is most uneconomical
in prestress uncracked concrete member of c. Two-way slab is most economical
M 25 grade?
d. The efficiency of rectangular section
a. 1 MPa lies between that of T-beam and two-
b. 1.5 MPa way slab sections
c. 2 MPa 38. Which one of the following is correct
working stress method of design for
d. 2.5 MPa
reinforced concrete is
34. What is the minimum nominal percentage
a. not a limit state design
longitudinal reinforcement to be provided
6 of 15
b. a serviceability limit state design 43. Prestressing force in a wire under thermal
c. a Limit state for crack width stressing can be estimated from which of
the following?
d. a collapse limit state
1. Pressure gauge with jack
39. At the time of initial tensioning, the
maximum tensile stress immediately 2. Elongation of wire
behind the anchorage should not exceed 3. Temperature rise
which one of the following? Select the correct answer using the code
a. 0.50  ultimate tensile stress given below
b. 0.60  ultimate tensile stress a. 1 and 2 only
c. 0.70  ultimate tensile stress b. 1 and 3 only
d. 0.80  ultimate tensile stress c. 2 and 3 only
40. Which one of the following is correct for d. 2 only
horizontal spacing between the group of 44. Consider the following statements
prestressing cables as per IS code ? Modulus of elasticity of concrete is
a. Greater of, 40 mm and 5 mm plus 1. tangent modulus
maximum size of coarse aggregate
2. secant modulus
b. Greater o1 40 mm and -5 mm plus
maximum size of coarse aggregate 3. proportional to f ck
c. 50mm 4. proportional to 1/ f ck
d. 25mm
41. High strength steel used in prestressed correct?
concrete can take how much maximum
a. 1 and 3 only
strain?
b. 1 and 4 only
a. 2%
c. 2 and 3 only
b. 3 %
d. 2 and 4 only
c. 4%
45. Which one of the following is employed to
d. 6%
determine strength of hardened existing
42. In pretensional beams, which of the concrete structure ?
following losses is/are not considered ?
a. Bullet test
1. Anchor loss
b. Kelly ball test
2. Shrinkage
c. Rebound hammer test
3. Creep
d. Cone penetrometer
4. Relaxation
46. Which one of the following is the correct
5. Friction expression for the target mean strength ft
6. Elastic shortening of concrete mix ?
Select the correct answer using the code a. ft = kfck + S
given below b. ft = fck + KS
a. 1, 2 and 3 only c. ft = fck + S
b. 4, 5 and 6 only d. ft = kfck + S
c. 5 only Where fck is characteristic strength, K is
d. 6 only probability factor and S is standard
deviation
7 of 15
47. What is the correct sequence of the 51. A 20 cm long rod of uniform rectangular
following metals in the decreasing order of section, 8 mm wide  1.2 mm thick is bent
their Poission’s ratio ? into the form of a circular arc resulting in a
1. Aluminium central displacement of 0.8 cm. Neglecting
second – order quantities in computations,
2. Cast iron what is the longitudinal surface strain
3. Steel (approximate) in the rod?
Select the correct answer using the code a. 7.2  10–4
given below
b. 8.4  10–4
a. 1-2-3
c. 9.6  10–4
b. 2-1-3
d. 10.8  10–4
c. 1-3-2
52. Mohr’s stress circle helps in determining
d. 3-1-2 which of the following ?
48. A steel rod, 100 mm long is held between 1. Normal stresses on one plane
two rigid supports. It is heated by 20 °C. If
the coefficient of thermal expansion of the 2. Normal and tangential stresses on two
planes
material of the rod is 15  10–6/°C and
modulus of elasticity is 200  103 MN/m2, 3. Principal stresses in all Three
what is the stress in the rod? directions
a. 20 MN/m2 4. Inclination of principal planes
b. 40 MN/m2 Select the correct answer using the code
given below
c. 60 MN/m2
a. 1 and 2 only
d. 80 MN/m2
b. 2 and 3 only
49.
c. 3 and 4 only
d. 2 and 4 only
Mohr’s strain circle can be drawn
1. for plane stress conditions
An element is subjected to stress as given 2. if strains in three directions are known
above
3. if strains on two mutually
For this state of stress, what is the perpendicular planes are known
maximum shear stress ?
a. 2.5 MPa correct?
b. 5 MPa a. 1, 2 and 3
c. 10 MPa b. 2 and 3 only
d. 15 MPa c. 1 and 2 only
50. If modulus of elasticity of a material is d. 1 and 3 only
189.8 GN/m2 and its Poissons ratio is 0.30,
what is the approximate value of shear 54. What is the angle between principal strain
modulus of the material? axis and maximum shear strain axis?
a. 73 GN/m2 a. 00
b. 93.3 GN/m2 b. 300
c. 103.9 GN/m2 c. 450
d. 123.3 GN/m2 d. 900

8 of 15
55. In a strained material, the principal stresses c. 1.5 m
in the x and y directions are 100 N/mm2 d. 2.5 m
(tensile) and 60 N/mm2 (compressive). On
an inclined plane, the normal to which 60.
makes an angle 30° to the x- axis, what is
the tangential stress in N/mm2?
a. 30 3
b. 40 3
c. 60
d. 40
56. For a masonry dam of base width b, at For the simply supported beam in the
which location w.r.t. the central line, figure above, C is the centre of the span. C
should the resultant loading intersect the is also the point through which the
sections. to avoid tension in any horizontal resultant of the column load W passes. The
section ? column rests on the beam over a small
length symmetrically on either side of C.
a. Outside of b /6 What is the shearing force at C ?
b. Within b /6 a. W/2
c. Within b / 8 b. W14
d. At the central line c. W
57. According to maximum shear stress d. 0
criterion, at what ratio of maximum shear
stress to yield stress of material, does the 61. The depreciation charges for a machine are
yielding of material take place ? thirty paise per working hour. The
machine has a scrap value of Rs 2,000 and
a. 2 a working hour average life of 24000
b. 2 3 hours. What is the purchase price of the
machine ?
c. 1/ 3 a. Rs 1,800
d. 1/2 b. Rs 7,200
58. At what value of the ultimate shear c. Rs 9,200
strength, shall the material under the action
of uniform axial tension fail due to shear? d. Rs 14,275
a. <0.5 times the ultimate tensile strength 62. Match List - I with List - II and select the
b. <0.7 times the ultimate tensile strength the Lists:
c. = ultimate tensile strength List-I
d. > the ultimate tensile strength A. Agitator truck
59. B. Needle vibrator
C. Concrete pump
D. Tremie pipe
List-II
1. Placing of concrete
At what distance from left support of the
above beam, is the shear force zero? 2. Underwater concreting
a. 1 m 3. Compaction of concrete
b. 1.25 m 4. Ready mixed concrete transport
A B C D
9 of 15
a. 1 3 4 2 66. The optimistic, most likely and pessimistic
b. 4 2 1 3 time estimates of an activity are 5, 10 and
21 days respectively. What are the
c. 1 2 4 3 expected time and standard deviation?
d. 4 3 1 2 a. 12, 3
63. b. 11,4
c. 11,267
d. 10, 16
67. What is the time by which the completion
of an activity can be delayed without
affecting the start of succeeding activities,
The performance of a centrifugal pump [H called?
and P vs. Q] is typically shown in the a. Total float
figure with four curves numbered 1, 2, 3
b. Interfering float
and 4. which one of the following is
correct? c. Independent float
a. 1 and 2 refer to P, with P along 1 d. Free float
referring to greater speed than P along 68. Duration along the critical path defines
2 which of the following?
b. 1 and 2 refer to H, with H along 1 1. Shortest duration needed
referring to greater speed than H along
2 2. Shortest duration permissible
c. 3 and 4 refer to P. with P along 3 3. Longest duration needed
referring to lesser speed than P along 4 4. Longest duration permissible
d. 3 and 4 refer to H, with H along 3 Select the correct answer using the code
referring to greater speed than H along given below
4 a. 1 and 2 only
64. Consider the following types of bridges b. 1 and 4 only
1. Arch bridge c. 2 and 3 only
2. Double cantilever bridge d. 3 and 4 only.
3. Suspension bridge 4. Truss bridge 69. Consider the following statements
What is the correct sequence in the 1. Setting and hardening of cement takes
ascending order of the span ranges place after the addition of water.
generally adopted for the bridges given
above ? 2. Water causes hydration and hydrolysis
of the constituent compounds of
a. 2-4-l-3 cement which act as binders
b. 1-3-2-4 Which of the statements given above is/are
c. 2-3-l-4 correct ?
d. 1-4-2-3 a. 1 only
65. As the span of a bridge increases, how b. 2 only
does the impact factor vary? c. Both 1 and 2
a. It decreases d. Neither 1 nor 2
b. It increases 70. Assertion (A) : Wooden window shutters
c. It remains constant should be fitted, leaving proper tolerances
d. It increases up to a critical value of for dimensional changes.
span and then decreases
10 of 15
Reason (R) : Timber sections change in compact concrete, if the mix is not
volume with change in seasons. properly graded or designed.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R) : Over-vibrating of concrete
R is the correct explanation of A. with a slump of more than 10 cm may lead
b. Both A and R are individually true but to honeycombing and a top surface which
R is not the correct explanation of A. is not durable.
R is the correct explanation of A.
71. Assertion (A) : Time - cost studies have to R is not the correct explanation of A.
be firmed up before the EOQ and ABC
analyses can be undertaken c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : Time-cost studies can be d. A is false but R is true
premised on no bottlenecks or shortages in 75. Which one of the following is the most
materials procurement. preferred wood for high quality and
a. Both A and R are individually true and durable furniture?
R is the correct explanation of A. a. Sandalwood
b. Both A and R are individually true but b. Deodar wood
R is not the correct explanation of A. c. Teakwood
c. A is true but R is false d. Shishani wood
d. A is false but R is true 76. As a natural material, timber is which one
72. Assertion (A) : Critical path can pass of the following?
through dummy arrows also. a. Isotropic
Reason (R) : Necessary additional nodes b. Anisotropic
are introduced to ensure uniqueness of i-j
notation for activities. c. Homogeneous
a. Both A and R are individually true and d. Heterogeneous
R is the correct explanation of A. 77. Shear strength of timber depends on which
b. Both A and R are individually true but one of the following ?
R is not the correct explanation of A. a. Lignin with fibres
c. A is true but R is false b. Medullary rays
d. A is false but R is true c. Heartwood
73. Assertion (A) Slenderness ratio of tension d. Sapwood
members is restricted to 250.
78. The defect which develops due to
Reason (R) : Slenderness ratio for tension uncontrolled and non - uniform loss of
members is a stiffness criterion associated moisture from wood is known as which
with self - weight. one of the following?
a. Both A and R are individually true and a. Kont
b. Shake
c. Warping
R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. Cross grain
79. For ornamental work, which type (s) of
bricks is/are preferred?
74. Assertion (A) Even though vibration is the
1. Silica bricks
best technique of obtaining a durable and
strong concrete, it cannot produce a 2. Silica lime bricks
3. Bricks produced in autoclaves
11 of 15
Select the correct answer using the code d. Tetracalcium alumino - ferrite
given below 85. Why is lime added to cement slurry for the
a. 1 and 3 only topcoat of plastering?
b. 2 and 3 only a. To improve the strength of plaster
c. 1 only b. To stiffen the plaster
d. 2 only c. To smoothen the plaster for ease of
80. Which one of the following is the nominal spread
size of standard modular brick? d. To make the plaster non - shrinkable
a. 25 cm  13 cm  8 cm 86. Match List-I with List-II and select the
b. 25cm 10 cm  8 cm
the Lists :
c. 20 cm  10 cm  10cm
List-I
d. 20 cm  15 cm  10 cm (Cement Mortar for Different Work)
81. Why are bricks soaked in water before A. Cement mortar for normal brick work
using in brick masonry?
B. Cement mortar for plastering work
a. For removing dust
C. Cement mortar for grouting the
b. For reducing air voids cavernous rocks
c. For preventing depletion of moisture D. Cement mortar for guniting
from mortar
List - II(Cement : Sand in Mortar)
d. For reducing efflorescence
1. 1 : 4
82. Which type of brick masonry bond is
provided for heavy loads on masonry? 2. 1: 3
a. English bond 3. 1: 6
b. Zigzang bond 4. 1 : 1.5
c. Single Flemish bond A B C D
d. Double Flemish bond a. 3 2 4 1
83. Consider the following type of cements: b. 4 1 3 2
1. Portland pulverized fuel ash cement c. 3 1 4 2
2. High alumina cement d. 4 2 3 1
3. Ordinary Portland cement 87. In what context is the slump test
performed?
4. Rapid hardening cement
a. Strength of concrete
sequence of the above cements in terms of b. Workability of concrete
their increasing rate of strength gain? c. Water-cement ratio
a. 2-3-4-l d. Durability of concrete
b. 1-3-4-2 88. Consider the following statements
c. 2-1-3-4 The use of superlasticizers as admixture
d. 3-1-2-4 1. increases compressive strength of
84. Ultimate strength of cement is influenced concrete
by which one of the following? 2. permits lower water - cement ratio,
a. Tricalcium silicate thereby strength is increased
b. Dicalcium silicate 3. reduces the setting time of concrete
c. Tricalcium aluminate
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4. permits lower cement content, thereby 91. What is the maximum permissible
strength is increased longitudinal pitch in staggered riveted
Which of the statements given above is/are compression joints ?
correct? a. 500 mm
a. 1 and 3 only b. 400 mm
b. 3 and 4 only c. 300mm
c. 1, 3 and 4 only d. 100mm
d. 2 only 92. A concentrated load W moves on the span
89. Consider the following statements of a three- hinged arch. The horizontal
thrust at the supports is maximum when
Curing of concrete is necessary because the load is at which one of the following ?
1. concrete needs more water for a. The springing
chemical reaction
b. One-sixth of the span from one end
2. it is necessary to protect the water
initially mixed in concrete from being c. Quarter span
lost during evaporation d. The crown
3. penetration of surrounding water 93. Which one of the following is the correct
increases the strength of concrete statement ? In a gusseted base, when the
Which of the statements given above is/are end of the column is machined for
correct ? complete bearing on the base plate, the
axial load is assumed to be transferred to
a. 1, 2 and 3 the base plate
b. 1 and 3 only a. fully by direct bearing
c. 2 only b. fully through the fastenings
d. 3 only c. 50% by direct bearing and 50%
90. Match List-I with List-Il and select the through fastenings
correct answer using the code given below d. 75% by direct bearing and 25%
the Lists through fastenings
List-I 94.
A. Absorption and surface moisture in
aggregates
B. Deleterious material
C. Grading of aggregate
D. Chemical stability
List-II
1. Interferes with hydration of cement In the structure shown in the figure above,
2. Improves workability of mix what is the distance through which the
points A move towards each other?
3. Ensures durability of all types of
structures a. 4 Pa3 / EI
4. Affects the mix proportions b. l6 Pa3 / 3EI
A B C D c. 28 Pa3 / 3EI
a. 3 1 2 4 d. 6 Pa3 / EI
b. 4 2 1 3 95. Match List-I with List-II and select the

c. 3 2 1 4 the Lists
d. 4 1 2 3 List - I (Shape of Structural Section)
13 of 15
A. Rectangular ductility and of uniform cross-section. It
B. Circular carries a uniformly distributed load which
is gradually increased to its ultimate value
C. I-section Wu/unit length, at which the beam is
D. Diamond transformed into a failure mechanism.
What is the magnitude of Wu in terms of
List - II (Shape Factor)
the ultimate moment Mu of the beam -
1. 2.0 section and span l
2. 1.1 to 1.2 a. 8 Mu / l2
3. 1.5 b. 12 Mu / l2
4. 1.7 c. 16 Mu / l2
A B C D d. 24 Mu / l2
a. 3 1 2 4 99. What is / are the use(s) of influence lines ?
b. 2 4 3 1 a. To study the effect of moving loads on
c. 3 4 2 1 the structure
d. 2 1 3 4 b. To calculate the value of stress
function with the critical load
96.
condition
c. To find the position of live load for a
maximum value of particular stress
function
d. Towards all the above purpose
100. What is the variation of influence line for
stress function in a statically determinate
structure ?
What is the ultimate load for the frame a. Parabolic
shown in the figure above ?
b. Bilinear
a. M / a
c. Linear
b. 2 Mp / a
d. Uniformly rectangular
c. 3 M / a
101.
d. 4 Mg / a
97. What is the number of plastic hinges
which will cause the overall total collapse
of a structure ?
a. One more than the order of statical
indeterminacy
Which one of the following is the reaction
b. Equal to order of statical of the cantilever at B as shown in the
indeterminacy figure above ?
c. One less than the order of statical a. 3/8 wl
indeterminacy
b. 5/8 wl
d. Not determinable
c. 6/17 wl
98.
d. 3/21 wl
102. The displacement method is also referred
to as which one of the following?
The above figure shows a fix - ended beam a. Minimum strain energy method
of elastic material possessing sufficient
14 of 15
b. Maxwell-Mohr method direction and position at A and B when
c. Consistent deformation method acted upon by two concentrated loads at
1/3rd span as shown in the figure above?
d. Slope-deflection method
a. 2/9 WL
103. A beam carries a uniformly distributed
load throughout its length. In which of the b. 4/9 WL
following configurations will the strain c. 6/9 WL
energy be maximum? d. 8/9 WL
a. Cantilever 107. A tractor-trailer assembly has a gross
b. Simply supported beam weight of 25 tonnes. When moving over a
c. Propped cantilever level road, its rolling resistance is 42 kg
per tonne. It is moved up a road of 5%
d. Fixed beam
grade. What is the required tractive effort ?
104.
a. 1050.5 kg
b. 1060.5 kg
c. 1085 kg
d. 1102.5kg
108. Which one of the following shovel
excavators is considered most efficient in
The shear equation for the portal frame loading carriers ?
shown in the above figure will be
a. Dipper shovel
 M  M BA   M CD  M DC  b. Dragline
a.  AB   P  0
 L1   L2  c. Backhoe
 M  M BA   M BC  M CB  d. Clamshell
b.  AB   P  0 109. Bottom-dump wagons are suitable for
 L1   L 
handling which of the following?
 M  M CB   M CD  M DC  a. Wet sticky clay
c.  BC   P  0
 L   L2  b. Sand and gravel
 M  M CD   M BA  M DC  c. Quarry rocks
d.  AB  P  0 d. Any type of material
 L1   L 
110. Vibratory rollers are more useful for
compacting which of the following?
correct?
a. Sandy soils
a. In slope-deflection method, the forces
are taken as unknowns b. Silty soils
b. In slope-deflection method, the joint c. Clayer soils
rotations are taken as unknowns d. Mixed soils
c. Slope-deflection method is not 111. When power shovels are operated under
applicable for beams and frames different site conditions (in terms of
having settlement at the supports material handled), what is the correct
d. Slope-deflection method is also known sequence in. the increasing order of the
as force method output for the following materials?
106. 1. Well - blasted rock
2. Hard and tough clay
3. Poorly blasted rock
4. Moist loam or sand
What are the bending moments at the ends
given below :
A and B of a uniform beam AB fixed in
15 of 15
a. 1-2-3-4 116. What is the optimum mortar mix type for
b. 1-4-3-2 maximum masonry unit strength of 15 N /
mm2
c. 4-2-3-l
a. M1
d. 4-3-1-2
b. M2
112. For three - dimensional movement of a
weight, which one of the following is most c. H1
suitable ? d. H2
a. Chain hoist 117. In load- bearing wall, the depth of
b. Winch horizontal chassis should not exceed which
one of the following?
c. Crane
a. 1 / 3 thickness of masonry
d. Jack
b. 1/4 thickness of masonry
113. Match List-I with List- II and select the
correct answer using the code given below c. 1/5 thickness of masonry
the Lists : d. 1/6 thickness of masonry
List - I (Crane) 118. What is a tendon profile, in which the
A. Tower crane eccentricity is proportional to the bending
moment caused by any loading on a rigidly
B. Floating crane
supported indeterminate structure, at all
C. Mobile crane cross - sections ?
D. Gantry crane a. Cable profile
List - II (Suitable for) b. Resultant profile
1. Hydraulic structures c. Concordant profile
2. High industrial plant d. Reduced profile
3. Longitudinal and lateral movements of 119. What is the distance between the kems for
load the section given below?
4. Railway electrification a. 100 units
A B C D b. > 100 units, < 150 units
a. 2 1 4 3 c. <100 units
b. 3 4 1 2 d. > 150 units
c. 2 4 1 3 120.
d. 3 1 4 2
114. How are concrete mixers specified?
a. By the number of cement bags used in
a batch
b. By the nominal volume of concrete
that can be mixed in a batch For a rectangular prestressed beam
c. By the volume of water used designed for operating stress conditions,
what is the maximum prestressing force ?
d. By the volume of aggregate used
a. bdc
115. What is the minimum width of roadway
for a six - lane high -level bridge 1
b. (bdc)
constructed for the use of road traffic 2
only? 1
c. (bdc)
a. 215 m 3
b. 225 m 1
d.  (bdc )
c. 240 m 6
d. 255 m
I.E.S-(OBJ) 2007 1 of 15
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. Match List-I with List-II and select the 3. If the stream function  = 3x2 – y3, what is
correct answer using the code given below the magnitude of velocity at point (2, 2)?
the lists : a. 9
List – I (Format of Representation) b. 13
u v c. 15
A. 
x y d. 17
v u 4. During a flood in a stream of width 200
B. 
x y (taken as rectangular section), the gauge
u v reading was found to rise by 18 cm per
C. u v hour. What would be the difference in
x y discharges at two sections, each 250 m on
q either side of the gauge station ?
D.
2 a. 10 m3/ s less at downstream section
List-II (Context /Relevant to) b. 75 m3/ s less at downstream section
1. Relevant to a velocity potential c. 5 m3/ s less at downstream section
2. Rate of rotation about a relevant axis d. 5 m3/ s more at downstream section
3. Pressure gradient in a relevant 5. A flat plate with a sharp leading edge
direction placed along a free stream of fluid flow.
4. Continuity of flow Local Reynolds number at 3 cm from the
leading edge is 105.What is the thickness
A B C D of the boundary layer?
a. 3 2 4 1 a. 0.47 mm
b. 4 1 3 2 b. 0.35 mm
c. 3 1 4 2 c. 0.23 mm
d. 4 2 3 1 d. 0.12 mm
2. Which one of the following expresses the 6. Which one of the following is the correct
height of rise or fall of a liquid in a statement? A streamlined body is one for
capillary tube ? which the
4 wd a. skin friction is zero.
a.
 cos  b. thickness of the body is less than 1/100
 cos  of its length
b.
4w c. corners are rounded off.
 4 cos  d. separation occurs, if at all, at the
c.
wd farthest downstream part of the body
wd 7. A circular pipe of radius R carries a
d. laminar flow of a fluid. The average
4 cos 
velocity is indicated as the local velocity at
w = Specific weight of the liquid what radical distance, measured from the
 = Angle of contact of the liquid surface centre?
 = Surface tension a. 0.50 R
2 of 15
b. 0.71 R c. 0.5
c. 0.67 R d. 0.6
d. 0.29 R 13. Flow depths across a sluice gate are 2.0 m
8. In the model of a highway bridge and 0.5 m. What is the discharge (per
constructed to a scale of 1 : 25, the force of metre width) ?
water on the pier was measured as 5 N. a. 1.0 m2/s
What is the force (approximate) on the b. 1.4 m2/s
prototype pier?
c. 2.0 m2/s
a. 15.6 kN
d. 2.8 m2/s
b. 25.3 kN
14. A rectangular channel is 6 m wide and
c. 78 kN discharges 30 m3 s–1. The upstream depth
d. 90 kN is 2.0 m, acceleration due to gravity is 10
9. A river model is constructed to a m s–2. Then, what is the specific energy
horizontal scale of 1: 1000 and a vertical (approximate)?
scale of 1:100. A model discharge of 0.1 a. 2.5
m3/ s would correspond to a discharge in b. 0.3
the prototype, of what magnitude?
c. 2.3
a. 102 m3/s
d. None of the above
b. 103 m3/s
15. For a smooth hump in a sub-critical flow
c. 104 m3/s to function as a broad crested weir, the
d. 10 m3/s height Z of the hump above the bed must
10. Body M has twice the weight, twice the satisfy which one of the following ?
projected area and twice the drag a. Z  (E1 — yc)
coefficient of body N. How many times is
b. Z  (E1 — Ec)
the terminal velocity of the body M in air,
compared to that of the body N ? c. Z  (E1—yc)
a. 8 d. Z  (E1—Ec)
b. 2 16. Match List I with List II and select the
c. 2 the lists :
d. 1/ 2 List - I (Flow Section Type)
11. A rectangular channel 3 m wide is laid on A. Shallow parabolic
a slope of 0.0002. When the depth of flow
B. Triangular
in the channel is 1.5 m, what is the average
boundary shear stress (nearly) ? C. Rectangular
a. 0.3 N/m2 D. Trapezoidal
b. 0.15 N/m2 List - II (Critical Discharge is
proportional to :) [where y is the depth
c. 3.0 N/m2
of fowl]
d. 1.5 N/m2
1. y(z3/2)
12. A right-angled triangular channel,
2. y3/2
symmetrical in section about the vertical,
carries a discharge of 5 m3/s with a 3. y5/2
velocity of 1.25 m/s. What is the 4. y2
approximate value of the Froude number A B C D
of the flow?
a. 2 3 4 1
a. 0.3
b. 4 1 2 3
b. 0.4
3 of 15
c. 2 1 4 3 critical depth and y = depth in the
d. 4 3 2 1 gradually varied flow, Match List I with
List II and select the correct answer using
17. Which one of the following statements is the code given below the lists :
not correct?
List-I
A control section in an open channel is the
site A. Y > y0 > y
a. where the flow quantity can be B. y0 > y > y
controlled C. y > yc > yo
b. at which flow is known to be critical D. y > y0 > yc
c. where the discharge can be measured List-II
d. where the specific energy is 1. M1
determined 2. S3
18. What is the normal depth in a wide 3. M2
rectangular channel carrying 0.5 m2/s
discharge at a bed slope of 0.0004 and 4. S1
Manning’s n = 0.01 ? A B C D
a. 0.13 m a. 4 1 2 3
b. 0.32 m b. 2 3 4 1
c. 0.43 m c. 4 3 2 1
d. 0.50 m d. 2 1 4 3
19. Flow happens at a critical depth of 0.5 m 23. In a wide rectangular channel, an increase
in a rectangular channel of 4 m width. in the normal depth 20% corresponds to
What is the value of discharge? how much (approximate) increase in
a. 5.4 m3/s discharge ?
b. 5.1 m3/s a. 12%
c. 4.9 m3/s b. 20%
d. 4.4 m3/s c. 36%
20. In a 4 cm diameter pipeline carrying d. 48%
laminar flow of a liquid with it  = 1.6 24. A penstock is 2000 m long and the
centipoise, the velocity at the axis is 2 m/s. velocity of pressure wave in it is 1000 m/s.
What is the shear stress midway between Water hammer pressure head for
the wall and the axis ? instantaneous closure of valve at the
downstream end of the pipe is 60 m. If the
a. 0.01 N/m2
valve is closed in 4 s, then what is the peak
b. 0.0125 N/m2 water hammer pressure in m of water?
c. 0.0175 N/m2 a. 15
d. 0.02 N/m2 b. 30
21. A hydraulic jump occurs at the toe of a c. 60
spillway. The depth before jump is 0.2 m.
d. 120
The sequent depth is 3.2 m. What is the
energy dissipated in m (approximate)? 25. At a rated capacity of 44 cumec, a
centrifugal pump develops 36 m of head
a. 27
when operating at 725 r.p.m: What is its
b. 10.5 specific speed?
c. 15 a. 327
d. 42 b. 255
22. In connection with a gradually varied flow c. 350
with notations y0 = normal depth, yc =
4 of 15
d. 45 d. (3.8 to 4.05)  104 m3 per day
26. In an air flow the velocity is measured by a 31. What is the probable maximum
Pitot tube (coefficient = 1.0). The mass precipitation (PMP)?
density of air can be taken as 1.2 kg/m3. If a. Projected precipitation for a 100-yr
the head difference in a vertical U - tube return period
holding water is 12 mm, then what is the
velocity of air in m/s b. Maximum precipitation for all past
recorded storms
a. 10
c. Upper limit of rainfall, which is
b. 14 justified climatologically
c. 17 d. Effective perceptible water
d. 20 32. Which one of the following is a method of
27. A single-acting reciprocating pump has a extending the length of record for a
plunger diameter 25 cm and stroke 35 cm. frequency curve at a station ?
The speed of the pump is 60 r.p.m., and it a. Double Mass Curve method
delivers 165 litres/second of water. What
is the value of the theoretical discharge ? b. The Station Year method
a. 16.8 lps c. Thiessen method
b. 17.2 lps d. Isohyetal method
c. 18.0 lps 33. Match List I with List II and select the
d. 18.4 lps the lists :
28. To generate 8100 kW under a head of 81 List - I (Parameter)
m while working at a speed of 540 r.p.m.,
what type of turbine is suitable? A. Rainfall Intensity
a. Pelton B. Rainfall Excess
b. Kaplan C. Rainfall Averaging
c. Bulb D. Mass Curve
d. Francis List - II (Relatable Term)
29. During a certain week a power plant turns 1. Isohyets
out 8,400,000 kWhr and the peak load 2. Cumulative rainfall
during the week is 100,000 kW. What is 3. Hyetograph
the load factor during the week
4. Direct Runoff hydrograph
a. 40%
A B C D
b. 45%
a. 1 3 2 4
c. 50%
b. 3 4 1 2
d. 60%
c. 1 3 4 2
30. A standard, ground-based evaporation pan,
corresponding to Indian Standards, is d. 3 4 2 1
installed at the banks of a surface 34. The total observed runoff volume during a
reservoir. The water surface area on a 4 hour storm with a uniform intensity of
particular day is 100 heactares. The 2.8 cm/hr is 25.2  106 m3 from a basin of
recorded evaporation loss from the pan, on 280 km2 area. What is the average
a certain day, is nearly 4.0 cm. What is the infiltration rate for the basin?
anticipated evaporation loss from the a. 36 mm/hr
reservoir for that day?
b. 48 mm/hr
a. (1.8 to 2)  104 m3 per day
c. 52 mm/hr
b. (2.5 to 2.75)  104 m3 per day d. 55 mm/hr
c. (3.0 to 3.25)  104 m3 per day
5 of 15
35. The rainfall hyetograph shows the d. By measuring velocity at 01 times the
variation of which one of the following? depth below the surface
a. Cumulative depth of rainfall with time 40. Groynes are adopted for river bank
b. Rainfall depth with area protection works. When it is placed
inclined downstream in the direction of
c. Rainfall intensity with time flow in the river, it is designated as which
d. Rainfall intensity with cumulative one of the following?
depth of rainfall a. Repelling groyne
36. In constructing a 4 hour synthetic unit b. Attracting groyne
hydrograph for a basin, the lag time is
estimated to be 40 hours. When will the c. Neither repelling nor attracting groyne
peak discharge in the synthetic unit d. Fixed groyne
hydrograph occur from start of the storm? 41. The sequent depth ratio of a hydraulic
a. 36 hours jump in a rectangular channel is 16.48.
b. 40 hours What is the Froude number (approximate)
at the beginning of the jump?
c. 42 hours
a. 9.0
d. 44 hours
b. 12.0
c. 5.0
1. Only the surface flow constitutes the
flood hydrograph due to an isolated d. 8.0
storm. 42. The quantitative statement of the balance
2. For a given storm, the flood peak is between water gains and losses in a certain
dependent on the drainage density. basin during a specified period of time is
known as which one of the following ?
3. Fan shaped catchments give narrow
hydrograph with low peak. 1. Water budget
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Hydrologic budget
correct? 3. Groundwater budget
a. 1, 2 and 3 Select the correct answer using the code
b. 1 and 3 given below
c. 2 only a. 1 only
d. 3 only b. 2 only
38. A unit hydrograph for a watershed is c. 3 only
triangular in shape with base period of 20 d. None of the above
hours. The area of the watershed is 500 ha. 43. A soil sample has an exchangeable sodium
What is the peak discharge in m3/hour? percentage of 16%, its electrical
a. 7000 conductivity is 32 milli - Mhos/cm and pH
of 9.5. How is the soil classified ?
b. 6000
a. Saline soil
c. 5000
b. Saline - alkaline soil
d. 4000
c. Alkaline soil
39. How is the average velocity along the
vertical in a wide stream obtained? d. None of the above
a. By averaging the velocities at 0.2 & 44. How is the determination of aquifer
0.8 depth from surface parameters S (Storage Coefficient) and T
(Transmissivity Coefficient) done?
b. By measuring velocity at 0.6 depth
below the surface 1. By recording the drawdown in a
pumped well at different time
c. By measuring velocity at half the depth intervals.
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2. By recording the drawdown in 3. 1/2
installed observation wells at different 4. 5/3
time intervals.
Select the correct answer using the code given below
given below
a. 1 and 2
a. 1 only
b. 1and 3
b. 2 only
c. 3 and 4
c. Both 1 and 2
d. 2 and 4
d. Neither 1 nor 2
49. The flood plain of a river carries a
45. Consider the following statements: discharge of 2000 m3/s. What are the
An aqueduct is a cross drainage work in values of the meander length and dominant
which flow width?
1. a canal is carried over the drainage a. 160 m,48 m
channel b. 180 m,42 m
2. a drainage channel is carried over the c. 200 m, 38 m
canal
d. 220 m, 36 m
3. both drainage channel and canal are at
the same level. 50. What is eutrophication of lakes primarily
due to ?
correct? a. Multiplication of bacteria
a. 1 only b. Excessive inflow of nutrients
b. 1 and 2 only c. Increase in benthic organisms
c. 2 and 3 only d. Thermal and density currents
d. 1, 2 and 3 51. Match List I with List II and select the
46. If the discharge required for different the lists :
crops is 0.4 cumes in the field and the
capacity factor and time factors are 0.8 and List - I (Parameter)
0.5 respectively, then what is the design A. Excess sulphates
discharge for the distributory t its head B. Lack of iodide
a. 0.80 Cumecs C. Excess hardness
b. 0.16 Cumecs D. Excess dissolved oxygen
c. 1.0 Cumecs List - H (Impact)
d. 1.24 Cumecs 1. Greater soap consumption
47. Which one of the following is the purpose 2. Laxative effect
of providing the downstream sheet pile in
3. Goitre
a barrage?
4. Corrosion of pipes
a. To control failure due to piping by
high value of exit gradient A B C D
b. To control failure due to scour a. 2 1 3 4
c. To stop failure due to sliding b. 4 3 1 2
d. To stop failure due to uplift pressure c. 2 3 1 4
48. What are the recommended setting options d. 4 1 3 2
of an adjustable proportional module 52. The concentration of hardness producing
worked with an open flume type outlet? cations estimated using which one of the
1. 3/10 following ?
2. 9/10 a. Conductivity meter
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b. pH meter D. Specific gravity
c. Spectrophotometer List-II (Limiting Value)
d. Flame photometer 1. 12.0
53. Which one of the following treatments is 2. 100.0
economically effective in the control of 3. 4.0
guinea worm disease?
4. 2.6
a. Chlorination
A B C D
b. Filtration
a. 3 1 2 4
c. Ozonation
b. 2 4 3 1
d. Sedimentation
c. 3 4 2 1
correct answer using may be the code d. 2 1 3 4
given below the lists : 57. Match List I with List II and select the
List - I (Disinfectant) correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
A. Chlorine
List-I (Contaminant)
B. Ozone
A. Suspended solids
C. Iodine
B. Nutrients
D. Ultra-violet rays
C. Heavy metals
List - II (Property)
D. Dissolved inorganic solids
1. No carcinogenics result
List-II (Environmental significance)
2. Ineffective in the presence of
suspended solids 1. May cause eutrophication
3. Not affected by the Ammonium ion 2. Toxic, may interfere with effluent
reuse
4. Feasible residual content
3. May interfere with effluent reuse
A B C D
4. Cause sludge deposits
a. 4 3 1 2
A B C D
b. 1 2 4 3
a. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 2 1 3
b. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 3 2 1
55. What is the predominating coagulation
mechanism for raw water having high d. 2 1 4 3
turbidity and high alkalinity? 58. Which one of the following methods of
a. Ionic layer compression solid waste management conserves energy
most efficiently in the form of gas or oil?
b. Adsorption and charge neutralization
a. Incineration with heat recovery
c. Sweep coagulation
b. Composting
d. Inter particle bridging
c. Fluidized - bed incineration
correct answer using the code given below d. Pyrolysis
the lists : 59. Match List I with List II and select the
List – I (Physical properties of filtering correct answer using the code given below
material for trickling filters) the lists :
A. Crushing strength, N/mm2 List - I (Equation/Method)
B. Hardness A. Manning’s Equation
C. Percent wear B. Darcy-Weisbach Equation
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C. Hardy Cross Method d. Ministry of Rural Development
D. Rational Method 63. The daily cover of MSW landfills consists
List - II (Application) of which one of the following?
1. Frictional head loss estimation in pipe a. Compacted soil
flow b. Geomembrane
2. Sanitary sewer design c. Geotextile
3. Storm sewer design d. Geocomposite
4. Water distribution system design 64. Match List I with List II and select the
A B C D correct answer using the code given below
the lists
a. 2 1 4 3
List-I (Air Pollutant)
b. 1 4 3 2
A. Particulates
c. 2 1 3 4
B. Carbon monoxide
d. 1 4 2 3
C. Sulphur oxides
60. In conventional activated sludge process,
MLSS is generally kept in which range ? D. Photochemical oxidants
a. < 100 mg/l List-II (Impact on Human Health)
b. 1000 - 2000 mg/l 1. Impairs transport of O2 in bloodstream
c. 2000 - 3000 mg/l 2. Irritation of mucous membranes of
respiratory tract
d. 3000 - 5000 mg/l
3. Causes coughing, shortness of breath
61. Match List I with List II and select the headache etc.
the lists 4. Causes respiratory illness
List - I (Pathogen) A B C D
A. Bacteria a. 2 3 4 1
B. Virus b. 4 1 2 3
C. Protozoa c. 2 1 4 3
D. Helminth d. 4 3 2 1
List- II (Epidemic) 65. Which type of plume may occur during
winter nights?
1. Gastroenteritis
a. Looping
2. Cholera
b. Inversion
3. Worms
c. Coning
4. Polio
d. Lofting
A B C D
66. A machine in a steel plate fabricating
a. 2 4 1 3 industry is found to be producing a sound
b. 3 1 4 2 level of 50 dB. In the expansion plans one
c. 2 1 4 3 more such machine needs to be added.
What will be the combined noise level?
d. 3 4 1 2
a. 80 - 100 dB
62. Which among the following brings about
the Hazardous Waste Management and b. 101 - 150 dB
Handling Rules in India? c. 51 - 70 dB
a. Central Pollution Control Board d. 40 - 50 dB
b. Ministry of Environment and Forests
c. Ministry of Urban Development
9 of 15
67. Which one of the following is the correct 2. M.D.D. decreases but strength
statement? A heterotroph is an organism increases.
that obtains 3. M.D.D. and O.M.C. both increase.
a. its cell carbon from an inorganic Which of the statements given above is
source. correct ?
b. its energy from the oxidation of simple a. 1 only
inorganic compounds.
b. 2 only
c. its cell carbon as well as its energy
from organic matter. c. 3 only
d. its energy from a natural ecosystem. d. None of the above
68. The term ‘biological magnification’ 72. From a flow net which of the following
indicates which one of the following? information can be obtained ?
a. Likelihood of increasing size of 1. Rate of flow
animals during evolution 2. Pore water pressure
b. Magnification pertaining to 3. Exit gradient
microscopy 4. Permeability
c. Accumulation of pollutants in soil Select the correct answer using the code
d. Accumulation of pollutants in given below :
successive consumers a. 1, 2, 3 and 4
69. Which one of the following is the correct b. 1, 2 and 3
statement ?
c. 2, 3 and 4 only
The contact pressure distribution below
d. 1 only
rigid footing on the surface of a clay soil is
a. uniform for the full width
1. Organic matter increases the
b. maximum at the centre and minimum
permeability of a soil
at the edges.
2. Entrapped air decreases the
c. maximum at the edges and minimum
permeability of a si1
at the centre.
d. of an irregular shape.
correct?
70. The following soils are compacted at the
a. 1 only
same compactive effort in the field. Which
one of the following is the correct b. 2 only
sequence in the increasing order of their c. Both 1and 2
maximum dry density? d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. Silt clay - Clay - Sand - Gravel sand 74. Consider the following statements
clay mixture
Dewatering increases the slope stability of
b. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Silty a cohesionless soil mainly because
clay - Clay
1. it causes changes in pH.
c. Clay - Silty clay - Sand - Gravel sand
clay mixture 2. it reduces pore water pressure.
d. Sand - Gravel sand clay mixture - Clay Which of the statements given above is/are
- Silty clay correct ?
71. Consider the following statements a. 1 only
On addition of lime to a clay soil, b. 2 only
generally c. Both 1 and 2
1. M.D.D. and strength both increase. d. Neither 1 nor 2
75.
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a. 1000 kN s/m
b. 4000 kN s/m
c. 2000 kN s/m
d. 8000 kN s/m
1. The bearing capacity of a footing on
The virgin compression curve for a soil is clay does not significantly get altered
shown in the figure above. What is the by the presence of water table
compression index of the soil ?
2. The bearing capacity of a footing on
a. 0.3 saturated clay ( = 0) is a function of
b. 0.5 its size.
c. 1.5 Which of the statements given above is/are
d. 15 correct ?
76. What does the confining pressure used in a. 1 only
triaxial compression tests on an b. 2 only
undisturbed soil sample represent ? c. Both 1 and 2
a. The in-situ total normal stress d. Neither 1 nor 2
b. The in-situ total lateral stress 81. Which of the following types of piles is
c. The in-situ effective average principal likely to have the highest load capacity in
stress compression?
d. The in-situ shear stress a. Driven pre - cast concrete pile
77. Consider the following statements b. Pre - cast pile placed in a pre - drilled
Liquefaction is a phenomenon bore
1. observed in fine sands c. Driven steel pipe pile
2. associated with development of d. Steel pipe pile placed in a pre-drilled
positive pore pressure. bore
Which of the statements given above is/are 82. What is the value of negative skin friction
correct ? for a group of piles of 30 cm diameter, 5
M long and spaced at 80 cm c/c and
a. 1 only having cohesive strength of soil as 25
b. 2 only kN/m2 (Neglect bottom contribution in
c. Both 1 and 2 bearing capacity)
d. Neither 1 nor 2 a. 925 kN
78. A static cone penetration test is usually b. 950kN
conducted when the structure is likely to c. 975 kN
be founded on which of the following? d. 1000 kN
a. Shallow foundations 83. If the coefficient of active earth pressure is
b. Pile foundations 1/3, then what is the value of the
c. Drier foundations coefficient of passive earth pressure ?
d. Improved ground a. 1/9
79. A machine and its foundation weigh 981 b. 1/3
kN and has a spring constant k = 10,000 c. 3
kN/m. What is the value of damping d. 1
coefficient Cc if system is to be critically
damped ? (Acceleration due to gravity g = 84. Consider the following statements
9.81 m/s2) Criteria for satisfactory performance of
footings are that the
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1. soil supporting the footing must be observer makes equal error in each station,
safe against shear failure. the magnitude of which is  in each
2. footing must not settle more than a pre- instance at all the stations. What is the
specified value. probable error of the final bearing at the
end of the traverse ?
3. footing must be rigid.
a. ± 10 
4. footing should be above water table.
Which of the statements given above are b. + 100 ()2
correct ? c. ± 10 δθ
a. 3 and 4 d. ± 10 
b. 1 and 2
89. Which of the following instruments have
c. 1 and 3 both horizon glass and index glass?
d. 2 and 4 1. Optical square
85. Why are weep holes provided at the back 2. Line ranger
of retaining walls?
3. Box sextant
a. To reduce the active earth pressure on
4. Pedometer
the walls
b. To reduce the build - up of hydrostatic
given below
pressure
a. 2, 3 and 4
c. To provide better compaction
b. 1, 3 and 4
d. To increase the passive earth pressure
c. 1 and 3 only
86. An increase in compaction effort will lead
to which of the following? d. 2 and 4 only
a. Decrease in both the optimum moisture 90. Which one of the following instruments
content (OMC) and maximum dry can be used as a clinometer?
density a. Prism square
b. Decrease in both the optimum moisture b. Line ranger
content (OMC) and increase in the c. Abney level
maximum dry density
d. Optical square
c. Increase in the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and decrease in the 91. Match List I with List 11 and select the
maximum dry density correct answer using the code given below
the Lists :
d. Increase in both the optimum moisture
content (OMC) and maximum dry List - I (Instrument)
density A. Subtense bar
87. A 20 m chain was found to be 10 cm too B. Sextant
long after chaining a distance of 2000 m. It C. Tangent clinometer
was found to be 18 cm too long at the end
of the day’s work after chaining a total D. Range finder
distance of 4000 m. What is the true List - II (Use)
distance if the chain was correct before the 1. To determine difference in elevation
commencement of the day’s work ? between points
a. 3962 m 2. To determine horizontal distance
b. 4019 m 3. To measure angles
c. 3981 m 4. To establish right angles
d. 4038 m A B C D
88. There are ten instrument stations occupied a. 2 4 1 3
in succession during a traverse survey. An
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c. 2 3 1 4 correct answer using the code given below
the lists :
d. 1 4 2 3
List I(Term)
92. A sailor, standing on the deck of a ship,
just sees the light beam from a lighthouse A. Apparent solar day
on the shore. If the height of the sailor’s B. Sidereal day
eye and of the light beam at the lighthouse, C. Tropical year
above the sea level, are 9 m and 25 m
respectively, what is the distance between D. Sidereal year
the sailor and the lighthouse ? List - II (Definition)
a. 29.8 km 1. The time interval between two
b. 31.1 km successive upper transits of the first
point of Aries over the same meridian
c. 31.9 km
2. 2. Time interval between two
d. 33.2 kin successive lower transits of the center
93. Which one of the following statements is of the Sun across the same meridian
correct? 3. 3. Time interval between two
a. The axis of plate level should be successive passage of the Sun over the
parallel to the vertical axis. meridian of any of the fixed stars
b. The axis of striding level must be 4. The time interval between two
parallel to the horizontal axis. successive vernal equinoxes
c. The axis of the altitude level must be A B C D
perpendicular to the line of a. 1 2 3 4
collimation.
b. 2 1 4 3
d. The line of collimation must be
perpendicular to the plate level axis. c. 2 1 3 4
94. Match List I with List II and select the d. 1 2 4 3
correct answer using the code given below 96. If the mean temperature of Sun’s surface
the lists : 6000 K and m of its radiation is 0.5 what
List- I (Triangulation Station) is the mean temperature of Each surface
for which m is 100 m, according to
A. Main Stations Wien’s Displacement Law in Remote
B. Subsidiary Seniror Concept?
C. Satellite Stations a. 25 °C
D. Pivot Stations b. 28 °C
List—II (Definition) c. 27°C
1. Control points of triangulation network d. 30 °C
2. Points not for observation but for 97. Match List I with List II and select the
continuation of triangulation network correct answer using the code given below
3. Points to provide additional rays to the lists :
intersected points List - I (Type of Construction)
4. Points close to main stations to avoid A. Bituminous macadam
intervening obstructions B. Dense bituminous macadam
A B C D C. Bituminous concrete
a. 1 3 4 2 D. Bitumen mastic
b. 1 3 2 4
List - H (Binder Content Generally
c. 3 1 4 2 Specified)
d. 3 1 2 4 1. 8- 15%
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2. 3 - 35% b. 100,20
3. 4 - 45% c. 50, 5
4. 45 - 60% d. 10, 0
A B C D 102. Consider the following statements related
a. 2 1 4 3 to Los Angeles Abrasion test on
aggregates
b. 4 3 2 1
1. It evaluates hardness of source - rock.
c. 2 3 4 1
2. It has a coefficient of variation of
d. 4 1 2 3 about 30 percent
98. If a road surface is adequately Which of the statements given above is/are
superelevated on horizontal curve, which correct ?
one of the. following is the proper
distribution of pressure on the vehicle a. 1 only
wheels ? b. 2 only
a. Pressure on both outer and inner c. Both 1 and 2
wheels is equal d. Neither 1 nor 2
b. Pressure on inner wheels is more than 103. A road surface is corrected by spreading a
the outer wheels layer of dry sand in a thickness varying
c. Pressure on inner wheels is less than from 5 mm to 10 mm and rolling the
the outer wheels surface by heavy rollers. Which one of the
d. Pressure on front wheels is thrice the following maintenance works does it apply
pressure on rear wheels to?
99. Consider the following statements related a. Repair of ruts and patches
to interchanges b. Repairing of blow ups
1. In diamond interchange there is the c. Repair of bleeding surface
possibility of illegal wrong - way turns. d. Sealing of joints and cracks
2. Diamond interchange is far superior to 104. The weight of aggregate having specific
cloverleaf design. gravity 2.65, completely filled into a
Which of the statements given above is/are cylinder of volume 0.003 m3 is 52 kg.
correct? What is the value of the angularity index
a. 1 only of aggregate (approximately) as given by
Murdock?
b. 2 only
a. 1
c. Both 1 and 2
b. 0.34
d. Neither 1 nor 2
c. 0.15
100. Based on Fuller’s maximum density
criterion, for 4 mm maximum size of soil d. 0.05
particles, what is the percentage of 105. Which one of the following criteria is used
particles between 4 mm and 2 mm by for obtaining the value of modulus of
weight? subgrade reaction from plate bearing test
a. 80 data?
b. 50 a. Slope of pressure settlement graph
c. 30 b. Pressure corresponding to the
settlement of 1.25 mm
d. 20
c. Deflection corresponding to a pressure
101. What are the maximum value of CBR and of 1.25 kg/cm2
minimum value of G.I. of any material,
respectively? d. Pressure corresponding to the
settlement of 1.50 mm
a. 100,0
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106. Which of the following factors are used for Select the correct answer using the code
calculating temperature stress at the given below
critical edge region in rigid pavement a. 1, 2, 3 and 5
design ?
b. 2, 3, 4 and 5
1. Maximum temperature difference
between summer and winter c. 1, 2 and 4
2. Coefficient of thermal expansion of d. 1 and 3 only
concrete 109. Match List I with List II and select the
3. Slab length correct answer using the code given below
the lists
4. Slab width
List-I (Speed)
given below A. Space mean speed
a. 1, 2 and 3 B. Journey speed
b. 2, 3 and 4 C. Running speed
c. 1 and 2 only D. Spot speed
d. 1 and 3 only List-Il (Application)
107. Match List I with List II and select the 1. Road conditions studies
correct answer using the code given below 2. Regulatory measures
the lists 3. Traffic flow studies
List - I (Type of Wall) 4. Delay studies
A. Parapet wall A B C D
B. Check wall a. 3 2 1 4
C. Breast wall b. 1 4 3 2
D. Gabion wall c. 3 4 1 2
List - II (Feature) d. 1 2 3 4
1. Constructed with dry stone masonry 110. Which one of the following methods is
encased in wire mesh generally considered the best for tunnel
2. To add the overall stability to the hill ventilation ?
face a. Driving a drift through the tunnel
3. To buttress the uphill slopes of the b. ‘Blow in’ method
road cross - section
c. ‘Blow out’ method
4. To give protection to the motorists
d. Combination of ‘Blow in’ and Blow
A B C D out’ methods
a. 2 4 1 3 111. Which one of the following is not related
b. 4 2 1 3 to theories of creep of rails ?
c. 4 2 3 1 a. Wave theory
d. 2 4 3 1 b. Percussion theory
108. Emulsion is used as a binder in which the c. Drag theory
following stages of construction ? d. Reversal theory
1. Surface dressing work 112. What is the steepest gradient permissible
2. Sealing open textured surfacing on a 20 curve for B.G. line having reeling
3. Filling cracks in pavement gradient of I in 200?
4. Prime coat a. 1 in 250
5. Pre-coating of aggregates b. 1 in 238
c. 1 in 209
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d. 1 in 198 a. Both A and R are individually true and
113. Which one of following is not correct for R is the correct explanation of A.
container ports ? b. Both A and R are individually true but
a. The berth capacity is great R is not the correct explanation of A.
b. Overall transit time is less c. A is true but R is false
c. There is minimal damage to cargo d. A is false but R is true
d. Minimal land is required for the 118. Assertion (A) : Shear strength parameters
marshalling area of sand can be estimated by conducting
unconfined compression test.
114. Which one of following statements
associated with groynes : Reason (R) : The effective angle of
shearing resistance of sand is nearly the
1. Hydraulic behaviour of a system of same for thy and saturated sands, in
groynes is influenced by the drained condition.
characteristics of particles that
constitute the littoral drift. a. Both A and R are individually true and
2. Groyne is constructed approximately
parallel to shore. b. Both A and R are individually true but
correct ? c. A is true but R is false
a. 1 only d. A is false but R is true
b. 2 only 119. Assertion (A) : Estimation of settlement of
foundations on sandy soils can be done by
c. Both 1 and 2 using SPT values.
d. Neither 1 nor 2 Reason (R) : Sampling- in cohesionless
115. What is the wave velocity for a uniform soils without disturbing the structure is
train of wave beyond the storm centre for a difficult.
wave length of 20 m in 14 m deep water? a. Both A and R are individually true and
a. 5.5 m/s R is the correct explanation of A.
b. 11.2 m/s b. Both A and R are individually true but
c. 4.5 m/s R is not the correct explanation of A.
d. 9 m/s c. A is true but R is false
116. As the elevation increases, the runway d. A is false but R is true
length has to be changed at what rate ? 120. Assertion (A) : The water content of
a. Decreased @ 5% per 300 m rise in inorganic soils is determined by heating
elevation above M.S.L. the soil in an oven at a temperature of 105°
to 1100 C.
b. Increased @ 7% per 300 m rise in
elevation above M.S.L. Reason (R) : The free water, adsorbed
water & structural water are all completely
c. Decreased @ 9% per 300 m rise in
removed from the soil by heating it at 105°
elevation above M.S.L.
to 1100 C.
d. Increased @ 15% per 300 m rise in
elevation above M.S.L.
117. Assertion (A) : A discrete particle (of
diameter d0) setting in a circular
sedimentation tank follows a parabolic
path. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R) : The downward settling d. A is false but R is true
velocity (v0) of the discrete particle (of
diameter d0) in a circular sedimentation
tank does not change with time.
I.E.S– (OBJ) 2008 1 of 15
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–I)
4.
1.
What is the number of independent

degrees of freedom of the tow-span
continuous beam of uniform section
shown in the above figure?
a. 1
b. 2
What is the total degree of indeterminacy c. 3
(both internal and external) of the d. 4
triangular planar truss shown in the figure 5.
above?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 5
d. 6
2. What is the kinematics indeterminacy for

the frame shown above? (member
inextensible)
What is the total degree of indeterminacy a. 6
in the continuous prismatic beam shown in b. 11
the above figure? c. 12
a. 1 d. 21
b. 2
c. 3 6. If the axial deformation is neglected, what
d. 4 is the kinematics indeterminacy of a signal
bay portal frame fixed at base?
3. a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 6
7.
What is the total degree of indeterminacy

(both internal and external) of the
cantilever plane truss shown in the above
figure?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
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For the rigid frame shown above, what is 1 1 1
the moment reaction at A? b. , ,
2 4 4
a. 5 kNm 2 1
b. 10 kNm c. , ,0
3 3
c. 12.33 kNm 1 1 1
d. 15 kNm d. , ,
4 4 2
Ans. b
Ans. a
8. If the free end of a cantilever of span l and
flexure rigidity EI undergoes a unit
displacement (without rotation), what is
the lists:
the bending moment induced at the fixed
end? List I
3EI (Analysis Method)
a. A. Kane’s method
l2
B. Force method
4 EI
b. C. Column method
l2 D. Displacement method
5EI List II
c.
l2 (Structure Type)
6 EI
d.
l2
Ans. d
9. 1.
2.
A fixed beam AB, of constant EI, shown

in the above figure, supports a
concentrated load of 10 kN. What is the
fixed end-moment MFAB at support A? 3.
a. 4.8 kNm
b. 6.0 kNm
c. 7.2 kNm
4.
d. 9.5 kNm Code:
Ans. c A B C D
10. a. 4 1 3 2
b. 4 3 1 2
c. 2 1 3 4
d. 2 3 1 4
Ans. b
12. Muller-Breslau Principle is applicable to
get influence line for which one of the
following?
In the portal frame shown above, what are a. Reaction at the ends of simple beam
the distribution factors for members BA, b. Bending moment at a section
BC and BD respectively? c. Shear force at a section
1 1 1 d. Forces and moments at any section
a. , ,
3 3 3 Ans. d
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13. What is the number of plastic hinges 1. Plane sections under bending
formed if an indeterminate beam with remain Plane at all stages of bending.
redundancy R is to become determinate? 2. The stress-stair, relation is bilinear, i.e.
a. R -1 consisting of tow straight lines.
b. R 3. Shear deformations are neglected.
c. R + 1 Select the correct answer using the code
d. R + 2 given below:
Ans. b a. 1 only
14. b. 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
d. 1, 2 and 3
18. A load P is applied at the middle of a
simply supported beam of span L. If the
beam is made of ductile material, and MP
A portal frame has a collapse mechanism is the plastic moment, what is the ultimate
as shown above. What is the type? value of P?
a. Pure portal mechanism a. MP / (4L)
b. Panel mechanism b. 2MP / L
c. Combined mechanism c. 2.5 MP /L
d. Dual beam mechanism d. 4 MP / L
15. A steel beam is connected to a steel 19. What value of the shape factor is taken for
column by means of two angles placed on a rectangular section in plastic design?
the two sides of the web of the beam. a. 1.0
What is it called? b. 1.5
a. Stiffened seat connection c. 2.0
b. Unstiffened seat connection d. 2.5
c. Framed connection 20. Plastic analysis of structures is applicable
d. Rigid connection to the structures made of which one of the
16. following?
a. Ductile and brittle materials
b. Any structural material
c. Brittle material only
d. Ductile material only
21. The effective length of an angle member in
a riveted truss is equal to which one of the
following?
(Where l is the centre to centre between
What is the failure of a section in the the joints).
figure above called?
a. l
1. Web buckling
b. 0.85 l
2. Web crippling
c. 0. 65 l
3. Web crimpling
d. 0.5 l
4. Column bucking
22. Which one of the following is correct:
The purling in the roof trusses are
given below:
subjected to unsymmetrical bending
a. 1 and 2 because the loading
b. 2 and 3 a. is parallel to the minor principle axis,
c. 1 and 4 but doesn’t coincide
d. 2 and 4 b. is perpendicular to the minor principle
17. In the plastic analysis of a steel beam, axis
which of the following assumptions is/are c. is inclined to the minor principal axis
made?
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d. coincides with the minor principal axis tension along the axis. What is the
23. Which one of the following is correct? effective area of the angle?
An intermediate vertical stiffener a. 0.5 A
connected to the web is designed to b. 0.75 A
withstand a shearing force of not less than c. 0.875 A
100t d. A
a.
h 29. Which one of the following is correct?
2 The permissible stresses in a weld are
b. 150t usually taken as
h
125h a. less than those of the parent body
c.
t2 b. equal to those of the parent body
125t 2 c. more than those of the parent body
d. d. any desired value
h
Where t is web thickness in mm and h is 30. How are structural members composed of
the outstand of stiffener in mm. two angles back to back connected
24. Which one of the following forces is used throughout their length?
for the design of battens of a built-up a. By locking rivets
column? b. By spacing rivets
a. Axial load c. By gripping rivets
b. Twisting moment d. By tacking rivets
c. Vertical shear 31. Which one of the following is correct?
d. Transverse shear Steel structures are ideally suitable for
25. Which of the following parameters govern impact loads because they have high
the permissible stress in compression in a. toughness value
columns? b. elastic modulus
1. Modulus of section c. design stress
2. Effective length d. plastic modulus
3. Radius of gyration 32. What is the allowable direct tensile stress
Select the correct answer using the code in structural steel (approximately)?
given below: a. 0.45 fv
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 0.6 fy
b. 1 and 3 only c. 0.66 fy
c. 2 and 3 only d. 0.80 fy
d. 1 and 3 only Where fy is the yield stress or proof stress.
26. What is the maximum permissible 33. Consider the following statements:
slenderness ratio for steel ties likely to be Compared to mild steal, aluminum has
subjected to compression? 1. lesser ductility
a. 400 2. lesser value of Young’s modulus.
b. 350 3. lesser tensile strength.
c. 250 4. no definite yield point.
d. 180 Which of the statements given above are
27. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are correct?
reduced by what percentage? a. 2 and 3 only
a. 10 % b. 1, 3 and 3 only
b. 15 % c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
c. 25 % d. 1 and 4 only
1 34. Which one of the following is the correct
d. 33 %
3 range of fineness modulus of medium sand
28. An equal angle of are A has been welded usable in preparing cement mortar?
on one side of a Gusset plate and carries a. 1.5 to 2.2
5 of 15
b. 2.6 to 2.9 b. 40 %
c. 2.9 to 3.2 c. 50 %
d. 5.5 to 6.5 d. 60 %
35. Which of the following pairs are correctly 39. Match List-I with List-II and select the
matched? correct answer using the code given below
1. Particle size: Affects workability the lists:
2. Absorption and surface moisture: List-I
Affects mix proportions (Admixture)
3. Grading: Maximizes cement A. Calcium lignosulphonate
4. Bulk density: Significant for stability B. Aluminum powders
Select the correct answer using the code C. Tartaric acid
given below: D. Sodium silicate
a. 1 and 2 List-II
b. 2 and 3 (Action in concrete)
c. 3 and 4 1. Accelerators
d. 1 and 3 2. Retarded
36. Consider the following statements: 3. Air entertainer
1. Rise in temperature does not cause any 4. Water reducer
change in the color of cement concrete. Code:
2. Curing minimizes the shrinkage of A B C D
cement concrete when it sets. a. 1 3 2 4
Which of the statements given above is/are b. 4 3 2 1
correct? c. 4 2 3 1
a. 1 only d. 1 2 3 4
b. 2 only 40. Which factors influence the workability of
c. Both 1 and 2 concrete without sacrificing strength?
d. Neither 1 nor 2 1. Fine aggregate
37. Consider the following statements: 2. Quality of mixing water
1. In reinforced cement concrete, modular 3. Maximum size of coarse aggregate
ratio is defined by ratio (modulus of 4. Shape of coarse aggregate.
elasticity of steel) (modulus of
elasticity of concrete).
given below:
2. Modulus of rupture of cement concrete
a. 1 only
is a function of its characteristic
compressive strength. b. 2 only
3. The characteristic compressive c. 1 and 2
strength of M20 grade cement concrete d. 3 and 4
at 7 days is 20 N/mm2. 41. The workability of concrete can be
Which of the statements given above are increased by which of the following?
correct? 1. Increasing the quantity of coarse
a. 1, 2 and 3 aggregate without altering the total
aggregate quantity
b. 1 and 2 only
2. Decreasing the quantity of coarse
c. 2 and 3 only
aggregate and at the same time
d. 1 and 3 only
correspondingly increasing the
38. What is the percentage of the fine quantity of fine aggregate
aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 to be
3. Using round aggregate
combined with coarse aggregate of
fineness modulus 6.8 for obtaining Select the correct answer using the code
combined aggregate of fineness modulus given below:
5.4? a. 1 and 3 only
a. 30 % b. 1 and 2 only
c. 2 and 3 only
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d. 1, 2 and 3 completely specify the state of
42. Consider the following statements stress at a point?
regarding cement concrete: a. 3
1. Bleeding indicates deficiency of b. 4
coarser materials in the mix. c. 6
2. Segregation generally indicates poor d. 9
aggregate grading. 46. The value of modulus of elasticity for a
Which of the statements given above is/are material in 200 GN/m2 and Poisson’s ratio
correct? is 0.25. What is its modulus of rigidity?
a. 1 only a. 250 GN/m2
b. 2 only b. 320 GN/m2
c. Both 1 and 2 c. 125 GN/m2
d. Neither 1 nor 3 d. 80 GN/m2
43. Consider the following statements: 47.
Curing of concrete by steam under
pressure
1. increases the compressive strength of
concrete.
2. reduces the shear strength of concrete.
3. increases the speed of chemical
reaction.
correct?
A stepped column carries loads as shown
a. 1, 2 and 3 above. What is the maximum normal stress
b. 1 only in the column at B in the larger diameter
c. 2 and 3 only column?
d. 3 only P
44. Match the sequence of determination of a.
1.5 A
components of a concrete mix as per
P
Indian standard method of mix design and b.
select the correct answer using the code A
given below the lists: 2P
c.
List-I 1.5 A
A. Cement content 2P
d.
B. Aggregate content A
C. Water content 48. A composite system where the
D. Water cement ratio components are of equal lengths is
List-II subjected to temperature rise. Which one
1. First step of the following stresses will be developed
2. Second step in the component having highest
3. Third step coefficient of linear expansion?
4. Fourth step a. Compressive stress
Code: b. Tensile stress
A B C D c. Shear stress
a. 1 2 4 3 d. Zero stress
b. 3 2 4 1 49. What is the nature of stress in a ceiling fan
rod?
c. 3 4 2 1
a. Bending
d. 1 4 2 3
b. Tensile
45. In a body loaded under plane stress
conditions, what is the number of c. Compressive
independent stress components in order to d. Shear
7 of 15
50. b. At the bottom of flanges in
flanges
c. At the bottom of flanges in web
portion
d. At the neutral axis
55. A simply supported beam AB of span L
carries two concentrated loads W each at
points L/3 from A and B. What is the S.F.
in the middle one-third portion of the
beam?
What is the diameter of Mohr’s circle of
a. W/2
stress for the state of stress shown above?
b. 2W
a. 20
c. W
b. 10 2 d. Zero
c. 10 56. A beam is made of two identical metal
d. Zero flats soldered together. What is the ratio of
51. In a plane strain situation in xy plane, the stiffness of this beam to the stiffness of a
displacements at a point are given as: beam in which the two flats are not
u = (-2x + 8y)  10-6 unit. soldered and which acts independently?
v = (-3x + 5y)  10-6 unit a. 2
What is the shearing strain? b. 4
a. 9  10-6 c. 6
b. 7  10-6 d. 8
c. 5  10-6 57. A circular shaft is subjected to a bending
d. 3  10-6 moment Mb and a twisting moment Mt.
What is the ratio of maximum shear stress
52. If a body carries two unlike principal
and the maximum bending stress?
stresses, what is the maximum shear
stress? 2M t
a. Half the difference of magnitude of the a.
Mb
principal stresses.
b. Half the sum of the magnitude of Mt
b.
principal stresses. Mb
c. Difference of the magnitude of
principal stresses. Mt
c.
d. Sum of the magnitude of principal 2M b
stresses
1.5M t
53. In a bi-axial strain system x and y, what is d.
the maximum engineering shearing strain? Mb
a. x + y 58. A thin cylinder of unit length, thickness ‘t’
b. x - y and radius ‘r’ is subjected to internal
pressure ‘p’. What is the circumferential
x y stress?
c.
2 pr
x y a.
2 Et
d.
2 pr
54. A symmetrical I section is subjected to b.
shear force.
2t
The chear stress induced across induced pr
across the section is maximum at which c.
t
location?
a. Extreme fibers
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2 pr 62. Fill factor range of a power shovel
d. when used for well blasted rock is
t
a. 0.9 – 1.0
59.
b. 0.8 – 0.9
c. 0.6 – 0.75
d. 0.4 – 0.5
63. Which of the following are the advantages
of a crawler mounted power shovel over a
rubber-typed equipment?
1. It can operate of soft and hard soil.
2. It is less expensive than rubber-tyred
equipment.
What is the force in the vertical member 3. It works faster than rubber-tyred
CD of the pin-jointed frame shown above? equipment,
a. 12 T (tension) Select the correct answer using the code
b. 2 T (compression) given below:
c. 7 T (compression) a. 1, 2 and 3
d. 5 T (tension) b. 1 and 2 only
60. What if the ratio of load carrying capacity c. 2 and 3 only
of a fixed beam to the of a cantilever beam d. 1 and 3 only
of same span, having same maximum 64. The strain of the boom of a hoist is
bending moment and loaded with minimum when it is in the
uniformly distributed load throughout the a. Vertical position
span?
b. Horizontal position
a. 6
c. Inclined position general
b. 4
d. 45° inclined position
c. 3
d. 2 correct answer using the code given below
61. Match List-I with List-II and select the the lists:
correct answer using the code given below List –I
the lists:
(Equipment)
List-I
A. Clamshell
(Chart)
B. Designation S
A. Bar chart
C. Designation E
B. Milestone
D. Centralized production
C. W.B.S
List –II
D. Linked Bar chart
(Used as with)
List II
1. Paving mixer
(Facilitation)
2. Aggregate storage bins at batching and
1. Activity dependencies can be implied mixing plant
2. Resource requirement can be depicted 3. Transit mixer
3. Higher level of authority can effect 4. Construction mixer
monitoring and control
Code:
4. Trade based site supervision can be
A B C D
assigned
a. 2 3 1 4
Code:
b. 2 4 1 3
A B C D
c. 1 3 2 4
a. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 4 2 3
b. 2 1 4 3
66. For high class brick masonry, which area
c. 4 1 2 3
the proper bricks?
d. 2 3 4 1
a. Refractory bricks
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b. Jhumb bricks A. Derrick crane
c. Bull nose bricks B. Hoe
d. Modular bricks C. Clam shell
67. Which one of the following is correct? D. Dumper truck
Fully priestesses concrete beams List-II
a. resist all the working loads by priestess (Category)
b. resist the full live load by priestess 1. Excavating equipment
c. resist the part of the load by priestess 2. Hauling equipment
d. resist only the dead loads 3. Hoisting equipment
68. What is the assumption in the steel beam 4. Lifting equipment
theory of doubly reinforced beams? Code:
a. Only steel bars will resist tension A B C D
b. Only concrete will resist tension a. 3 1 4 2
c. Stress in tension steel equals the stress b. 4 2 3 1
in compression steel c. 3 2 4 1
d. Both concrete and steel will resist d. 4 1 3 2
compression 72. The approximate hourly output of a
69. Consider the following statements 100C
regarding CPM technique of project scraper is given by where c
( D / 30)  28
planning:
is the struck capacity of the scraper in m3
1. The critical path consists of those
and D is the one-way haul distance in
activities for which the total float is
meters. For a nominal 7 m3 scraper hauling
zero.
over 65 m, the hourly output will nearly be
2. Independent float is expressed as the
a. 170 m3
difference between total float and the
slack at the head event. b. 160 m 3
3. It is not possible to complete an c. 150 m 3
activity earlier than the crash time. d. 140 m 3
Which of the statements given above are 73. Which one of the following techniques is
correct? most suitable in case of research and
a. 1, 2 and 3 development type of activity?
b. 1 and 2 only a. Critical Path Method
c. 2 and 3 only b. Project Evaluation and Review
Technique
d. 1 and 3 only
c. Bar chart
70. A compounded bar consists of material A
encased in material B. It is tightly secured d. Graphical Evaluation and Review
at the ends. The coefficient of thermal Technique
expansion of A is more than of B. If the 74. A tunnel of length of 800m is to be driven.
temperature of the bar is increased, the Part of the total length is through granite
stresses induced will be and balance is through sandstone. Granite
a. tensile in both materials can be tunneled at 10m per day and
sandstone at 20m per day. Two mutually
b. compressive in both materials
exclusive site conditions can be. (1) A
c. tensile in material B and compressive probability of 0.4 for 600m granite with
in material A 200m sandstone; (2) Probability of 0.6 that
d. compressive in material B and tensile each is 400m lone. The probabilistic
in material A estimate of total tunneling duration is
71. Match List-I with List-II and select the a. 74 bays
correct answer using the code given below b. 68 days
the lists:
c. 64 days
List-I
d. 60 days
(Equipment)
10 of 15
75. Assertion (A): addition of calcium chloride b. Both A and R are individually
while preparing concrete proves more true but R is the correct explanation of
effective with slow hardening Portland A
cement than with rapid hardening cement. c. A is true but R is false
Reason (R): Calcium chloride is an d. A is false but R is true
effective accelerator in increasing the rate 79. Assertion (A): Linked bar chart cannot be
of relevant reaction. developed form an AON network as easily
a. Both A and R are individually true and as form an AOA network.
R is the correct explanation of A Reason (R): AON networks do not
b. Both A and R are individually true but incorporate information corresponding to
R is the correct explanation of A dummy arrows of AOA networks.
76. Assertion (A): The volume of mortar b. Both A and R are individually true but
needed for plastering on both faces of a R is the correct explanation of A
one-brick wall is more than that for the c. A is true but R is false
same are on both faces together of any d. A is false but R is true
other thickness of brick wall. 80. Assertion (A): Where as crashing
Reason (R): More water evaporates form considers only the negative cost slop
the wetted bricks in case of a one-brick aspects, resource allocation may need
wall and also the joints have to be more consideration of the positive cost slope
commonly raked. aspects also.
a. Both A and R are individually true and Reason (R): Implement ability is based on
R is the correct explanation of A manageability and affordability of
b. Both A and R are individually true but resource histograms.
c. A is true but R is false R is the correct explanation of A
d. A is false but R is true b. Both A and R are individually true but
77. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a case R is the correct explanation of A
iron specimen, the failure of the specimen c. A is true but R is false
is one a cross section perpendicular to the d. A is false but R is true
axis of the specimen. 81.
Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is
on a plane subjected to maximum tensile
stress and cast iron is relatively weak in
tension.
For the propped cantilever shown in the
above figure, a hinge is provided at C.A
and B is at the same level. What is the
force reaction at the fixed end A?
a. (4/3) P
b. P
78. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a mild
c. (3/4) P
steel specimen, the failure of the specimen
is along a plane at 45° to the cross section. d. P/2
Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is 82. Which one of the following is correct?
on a plane subjected to maximum shear A suspension bridge with a two-hinged
stress and mild steel is relatively weak in stiffening girder is
shear. a. Statically determinate
a. Both A and R are individually true and b. Indeterminate of one degree
R is the correct explanation of A c. Indeterminate of two degrees
d. A mechanism
11 of 15
83. ql 2
MA = What is the clockwise
8
moment required at B to make the slope of
the deflection curve equal to zero?
ql 2
a.
8
ql 2
b.
16
ql 2
c.
12
ql 2
d.
4
86.
What is the shear equation in slope
deflection method for the portal frame
shown above?
M AB  M BA M CD  M DC
a.  P0
L L
M AB  M BA M BC  M CB
b.  P0
L L
M BC  M CB M CD  M DC
c.  P0 What is the statical indeterminacy for the
L L frame shown above?
a. 12
M BC  M CB b. 15
d.  p0
L c. 11
d. 14
84. 87. Which one of the following is correct?
A statically indeterminate structure is the
one which
a. cannot be analysed at all
b. can be analysed using equations of
static’s only
The fixed beam AB has hinge C at mid
span. A concentrated load P is applied at c. can be analysed using equations of
C. What is the fixed end moment MA? static’s and compatibility equations
a. Pl d. can be analysed using equations of
compatibility only
b. Pl/2
88. By which one of the following methods is
c. Pl/4
an approximate quick solution possible for
d. Pl/8
frame subjected to transverse loads?
85.
a. By cantilever or portal method
b. By strain energy method
c. By moment distribution method
d. By matrix method
89. match list-I with list-II and select the
the lists:
The propped cantilever AB carries a List-I
uniformly distributed load of q/unit length. A. Maxwell’s diagram
In this condition the moment reaction
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B. Henneberg’s method When a load is applied to a
C. New mark’s method structure with rigid joints
D. Williot-mohr diagram a. There is no rotation or displacement of
List-II joint
1. Displacement of joints in a truss b. There is no displacement of joint
2. Deflection by numerical procedure c. There is no displacement of joint
3. Forces in bar members d. There can be rotation and displacement
4. Concept of substitute member of joint but the angle between the
Code: members connected to the joint
remains same ever after application of
A B C D
the load
a. 1 2 4 3
94.
b. 3 4 2 1
c. 3 2 4 1
d. 1 4 2 3
90. Some structural members subjected to long
time sustained loads deform progressively
with time especially at elevated
temperatures. What is such a phenomenon
called?
a. Fatigue In the frame shown above, what is true
b. Creep horizontal reaction at left support?
c. Creep relaxation a. 15 kN
d. Fracture b. 13 kN
91. c. 7 kN
d. 2 kN
95.
What is the reaction at the support D of the What is the force in the member BC of the
rigid –jointed structure shown above? place frame shown above?
a. 10 kN a. 10 kN tensile
b. 20 kN b. 10 kN compressive
c. 30 kN c. 5.76 kN compressive
d. 40 kN d. Zero
92. Which one of the following is correct? 96. Consider the following statements:
A determinate structure 1. The bending stiffness of a beam cannot
a. Cannot be analyzed without the correct be determined and the dimensions of
knowledge of modulus of elasticity cross-section of the beam.
b. Must necessarily have roller support at 2. The boundary conditions of a structure
one of its ends are important in sketching its deflected
shape qualifiedly as well as for
c. Requires only statical equilibrium
computing the displacement
equations for its analysis
quantitatively.
d. Will have zero deflection at its ends
93. Which one of the following is correct? correct?
a. 1 only
13 of 15
b. 2 only List-II
c. Both 1 and 2 (Effect of Disease)
d. Neither 1 nor 2 1. Attack of sapwood by fungus
97. Match list-I with list-II and select the 2. Damage to wood fibers due to
correct answer using the code given below chemical decomposition of wood
the lists: 3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due o
List-I fungal attack
(Wood Element) 4. Destruction of lignin of wood due to
A. Pitch fungal attack
B. Sapwood Code:
C. Heart wood A B C D
D. Cambium layer a. 1 3 2 4
List-II b. 1 4 2 3
(Description) c. 2 3 1 4
1. Innermost portion of the tree d. 2 4 1 3
2. Inner annual rings surrounding the 101. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is
pitch the number of bricks required of nominal
3. Outermost annual rings size 20 cm  10 cm, with 1.2 cm wide
4. Thin layer of sap between sapwood cement mortar all around and with
and inner bark allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m2 area?
Code: a. 400
A B C D b. 410
a. 1 3 2 4 c. 425
b. 2 4 1 3 d. 440
c. 1 4 2 3 102. Consider the following statements:
d. 2 3 1 4 1. Soil containing more than 30% of
98. In respect of moisture content in wood calcium hydroxide is used for
fiver saturation point refers to which one manufacture of sand lime brick.
of the following? 2. Carbon brick is made form crushed
a. Free water present in the cells coke bonded with tar.
b. Free water present in cell walls and Which of the statements given above is/are
cell cavities correct?
c. No moisture present in cell walls and a. 1 only
cell cavities b. 2 only
d. No free water exists in cell cavities but c. Both 1 and 2
cell walls are saturated d. Neither 1 nor 2
99. The moisture content of timber used in 103. What is the number of traditional bricks
building frames can be required for 10m3 of brickwork with
a. 2% to 5% standard thickness of cement mortar (1:3
b. 8% to 12% to 1:5, as the case may be)?
c. 12% to 18% a. 4750
d. > 20% b. 4850
100. Match list-I with List-II and select the c. 4950
correct answer using the code given below d. 5050
the lists: 104. Consider the following statements on
List-I cement mortar in brick masonry:
(Disease of Timber) 1. Cracking in brick masonry in most of
A. Dry rot the cases is due to differential
B. Grey rot movement of the structure.
C. Wet rot
D. White rot
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2. Rich mix cement mortar in brick 1. 25 to 30%
masonry makes the structure 2. 50 to 60%
unnecessarily rigid.
3. 6 to 8%
3. small quantity of hydrated lime in
4. 8 to 12%
cement mortar reduces shrinkage
cracks. Code:
Which of the statements given above are A B C D
correct? a. 2 3 4 1
a. 1, 2 and 3 b. 4 1 2 3
b. 1 and 2 only c. 2 1 4 3
c. 2 and 3 only d. 4 3 2 1
d. 1 and 3 only 107. Match List-I with List-II and select the
105. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below
correct answer using the code given below the lists:
the lists: List-I
List-I (Equipment)
(Composition of raw material used in A. Briquette testing machine
manufacture of cement) B. I e chatelier
A. 25% C. Vicat apparatus
B. 65% List-II
C. 5% (Property)
D. 5% 1. Compressive strength
List-II 2. Consistency
(Component of raw material) 3. Soundness
1. Silica 4. Tensile strength
2. Calcium oxide Code:
3. Aluminum oxide A B C
4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides a. 1 3 2
Code: b. 1 2 3
A B C D c. 4 2 3
a. 1 2 3 4 d. 4 3 2
b. 4 3 2 1 108. When sand for construction work is stored
c. 1 3 2 4 at site in stacks of 61 cm height, what
d. 4 2 3 1 allowance due to sink age and shrinkage
should be provided?
106. Match List-I with List-II in respect of
ordinary Portland cement and select the a. 5%
correct answer using the code given below 1
b. 7 %
the lists: 2
List-I c. 10%
(Compound) 1
d. 12 %
A. Tribalism silicate 2
B. Dualism silicate 109. How can shear strength be ensured in a
C. Tribalism aluminate beam?
D. Tertra calcium aluminoferrite a. By providing binding wire on main
List-II bars
(Proportion)
15 of 15
b. By providing HYSD bars instead of c. Balanced section
mild steel bars d. Economic section
c. By providing rounded aggregate 115. Why is the design of a R.C. section as
d. By providing stirrups over-reinforced undesirable?
110. How is the depth of footing for an isolated a. It consumes more concrete
column governed? b. It undergoes high strains
1. By maximum bending moment c. It fails suddenly
2. By shear force d. Its appearance is not good
3. By punching shear 116. What is the moment capacity of an under-
Select the correct answer using the code reinforced rectangular RCC beam?
given below: a. R b d2
a. 2 and 3 only b. R d b2
b. 1 and 2 only c. Ast st j d
c. 1 and 3 only d. Ast j d
d. 1,2 and 3 (Symbols have the usual meaning)
111. Usually stiffness of a simply supported 117. What is the bond stress acting parallel to
beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to the reinforcement on the interface between
depth does not exceed which one of the bar and concrete?
following?
a. Shear stress
a. 7
b. Local stress
b. 10
c. Flexural stress
c. 20
d. Bearing stress
d. 26
118. In a singly reinforced concrete beam
112. When is an R.C.C roof slab designed as a section maximum compressive stress in
two way slab? concrete and tensile stress in steel reach
a. If the slab is continuous over two their permissible stresses simultaneously.
opposite edges only What is such a section called?
b. It the slab is un-supported at one edge a. Under reinforced section
only b. Economic section
c. If the ratio of spans in two directions is c. Balanced section
>2 d. Over-reinforced section
d. If the ratio of spans in two directions is 119. Which one of the following is correct?
<2s While designing combined footing, the
resultant of the column loads passes
113. Which one of the following is correct? through the centrc of gravity of the footing
When HYSD bars are used in place of slab such that the net soil pressure
mild steel bars in beam, the bond strength obtained is
a. Does not change a. Parabolic
b. Increases b. Trapezoidal
c. Uniform
c. Decreases
d. Non-uniform
d. Becomes zero 120. For shorter storey height, cheaper form
114. In a singly reinforced beam, the tensile work and better lighting facilities, what is
steel reaches its maximum allowable stress the recommended slab floor?
earlier than concrete. What is such a a. T beam and slab
section known as? b. Two way slab
a. Under-reinforced section c. Flat slab
b. Over-reinforced section d. Framed structure
I.E.S– (OBJ) 2008 1 of 15
CIVIL ENGINEERING
(PAPER–II)
1. The type of jump that forms when initial d. 1,2 and 3
Froude number lies between 2-5 and 4-5 is 5. Which one of the following is carried out
a. Weak jump by two the dilate method?
b. Steady jump a. Circular curve ranging
c. undular jump b. Tachometric survey
d. oscillating jump c. Geodetic survey
2. During the consolidation of a clay layer, if d. Astronomical survey
instead of double drainage, the drainage is 6. Electronic the odolites of various ranges in
allowed at single face only, the rate of which measured angels are displayed
compression will be originally on display board area based on
a. 4 times slower which one of the following?
b. 4 times faster a. Special optical technology
c. 2 times slower b. Introduction of microprocessor
d. 2 times faster technology
3. For a proposed building, raft foundation c. Electro-optical technology
isolated footings and combined footings d. Special gearing
are being considered. These foundations 7. If the weight of an angle A (= 40° 2424
are to be listed in the decreasing order of say) is 2, then the weight of the angle A/3
preference in terms of performance. Which (= 13°28 08) will be
one of the following is the correct order of
listing? a. 4
a. Raft foundation – combined footings – b.  3
isolated footings c. 9
b. Isolated footings – Raft foundation d. 18
combined footings 8. Flam steed gave numbers to stats observed
c. Combined footings – Raft foundation – by him in each constellation according to
isolation footings their
d. Combined footings – isolated footings a. Brilliance
– raft foundation b. Altitudes
4. Consider the following statements: c. Co-declinations
foundation design in expansive soil can be
d. Right ascensions
done by
1. Isolating the foundation from the 9. If  is the declination of a star and is the
swelling soil latitude of the place of observation, then
for a circumpolar star 
2. Taking measures to prevent the
swelling
a.  ≤ 
3. Employing measures to make the
structure withstand the moment. b.  ≥ 
Which of the above statements are correct? c.  ≤ (90°-2)
a. 1 and 2 only d.  ≤ (90°-2)
b. 2 and 3 only 10. Which one of the following surveys
c. 1 and 3 only employs alidade?
2 of 15
a. Contour survey c. A is true but R is false
b. Archeological survey d. A is false but R is true
c. Plane table survey 15. Assertion (A): foundation on expansive
d. Reconnaissance survey soils must be designed for as high a
11. A particular runway measures 6 cm on a bearing pressure as possible consistent
vertical photograph, whereas the same with bearing capacity and settlement
runway measures 4 cm on a map plotted requirement.
on a scale of 1/24000. The scale of the Reasons (R) : Lightly loaded single and
photograph at the runway elevation is : two strayed buildings experience
a. 1/36000 maximum damage when built on
expansive soils.
b. 1/24000
c. 1/36000 R is the correct explanation of A
d. 1/16000 b. Both A and R are individually true but
12. Assertion (A): Rankine’s earth pressure R is the correct expiation of A
theory should not be used for concrete c. A is true but R is false
retaining walls and coulomb’s theory
should not be used for estimating passive d. A is false but R is true
earth pressures. 16. Assertion (A): Triangulation networks are
to be formed by well conditioned triangles.
Reasons (R): Rankine assumed that the
retaining wall has a vertical beck and Reason (R): triangulation signals should
coulomb assumed that the resultant be conspicuous and centered accurately
reaction due to earth pressure acts at one- over the stations.
third the height of the wall. a. Both A and R are individually true and
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct expiation of A
R is the correct expiation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 17. Assertion (A): Road camber helps in
13. Assertion (A): generally driven pilcs are surface drainage.
adopted in granular soils and not in clays. Reason (R): In a curved road alignment,
Reason (R): Vibratory loading helps in super elevation serves the purpose of
densification of sands but it has adverse camber.
effects in clays. a. Both A and R are individually true and
b. Both A and R are individually true but R is the correct expiation of A
R is the correct expiation of A c. A is true but R is false
d. A is false but R is true 18. Assertion (A): California bearing ratio test
14. Assertion (A): Under-reamed piles are is carried out to evaluate the stability of
suitable for loose filled up sites and black soil sub grade and other flexible pavement
–cotton soils. materials over stressed.
Reasons (R): Black cotton soil have Reason: It is essential at no time are the
expansive montmorillonite clay minerals. soil sub grade as well as other flexible
a. Both A and R are individually true and pavement materials over stressed.
R is the correct expiation of A
3 of 15
b. Both A and R are individually true but index remains at the same value,
R is the correct expiation of A the runoff due to 10 cm of rainfall in 8 hrs
c. A is true but R is false in the catchment is:
d. A is false but R is true a. 6.0 cm
19. Assertion (A): wind rose diagrams, b. 7.5 cm
showing wind direction duration and c. 2.3 cm
intensity are an essential requirement for d. 2.8 cm
planning the best direction of main runway
23. While using darcy-weisbach equation for
of the airport.
estimating head loss in a pipe flow the
Reason (R): corrections for elevation, friction factor was misjudged by +20%.
temperature and gradient have to be For this case, the error in estimating
applied to determine the length of the main discharge is:
runway of an airport, as per ICAO a. + 10%
recommendations.
b. + 40%
R is the correct explanation of A c. – 40%
b. Both A and R are individually true but d. – 10%
R is the correct expiation of A 24. Consider the following statements:
c. A is true but R is false Due to aging of pipes in a pipe network
d. A is false but R is true 1. The roughness increases linearly with
20. Assertion (A): runway capacity will be time.
more in airport operating under VFR than 2. The pipes get rusted and bent.
IFR. 3. The pipes become smoother with time.
Reason (R): VFR gives more clear visual Which of the statements given above is/are
reference of airport during good weather correct?
conditions. a. 1 and 3
a. Both A and R are individually true and b. 2 and 3
c. 3 only
d. 1 only
R is the correct expiation of A
25. The shape number in the case of pumps
refers to which one of the following?
a. Ratio of sizes of suction pipe and
21. Which of the following statements is/are delivery pipe
correct?
b. Ratio of diameter and thickness of
Lining of irrigation canals has necessarily impeller
to be carried out in the reaches where the
c. Non dimensional form of specific
channel passes through
speed
1. Sandy soil
d. Ratio of blade angle at the inlet to the
2. Coarse aggregate soil blade angle at the exit
3. Clay soil 26. Consider the following statements:
4. Fine silt and clay 1. Hydraulically most efficient channel
Select the correct answer using the code section for an open channel flow will
given below: carry maximum discharge for a given
a. 1 and 3 area of cross section.
b. 3 only 2. For a given cross sectional area
c. 1 and 2 hydraulic radius maximum when the
wetted perimeter is minimum.
d. 3 and 4
22. A 4 hr storm had 4 cm of rainfall and the
correct?
resulting direct runoff was 20 cm. if the -
4 of 15
a. 1 only 1. Maximum wind coverage and
b. 2 only least cross winds
c. Both 1 and 2 2. Landing characteristics of aircrafts
d. Neither 1 nor 2 3. Scope for future expansion
27. Consider the following statements: 4. Obstruction-free approaches
1. Fluids of low viscosity are all Select the correct answer using the code
irrigational. given below:
2. Rotation of the fluid is always a. 1 and 2 only
associated with shear stress. b. 1,2 and 3
Which of the statements given above c. 1,2 and 4
is/are correct? d. 2,3 and 4
a. 1 only 31. Mean sea level at Indian ports and
b. 2 only harbours has generally been established
c. Both 1 and 2 based on the analysis of tidal sea water
level fluctuations over which period?
d. Neither 1 nor 2
a. 10 years
28. Match list-I with list-II and select the
correct answer using the code given below b. 16 years
the lists: c. 19 years
List I d. 25 years
(component) 32. Match list-I with List-II and select the
A. Taxiways correct answer using the code given below
the lists:
B. Control tower
List –I
C. Hanger
(Component)
D. Apron
List II A. Keel and Bilge blocks
B. Capstons and Bolards
(Design Feature)
1. Large span structure C. Fenders
D. Apron
2. Visibility all round and sound-proof
3. Turning radius List II
4. Waiting capacity for aircraft (Function)
1. Impact absorbers of quay walls
Code:
2. Floating indicators
A B C D
a. 1 4 3 2 3. Supports for ships in dry docks
b. 4. Anchorage devices for ships
3 2 1 4
Code:
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 3 4 1 2 A B C D
a. 3 4 1 2
29. The size of hangar in an airport is guided
by which of the following? b. 4 3 1 2
a. Speed and direction of wind and c. 4 3 2 1
visibility d. 3 4 2 1
b. Weight of aircraft and turning needs 33. Echo-sounding machine is used for which
c. The fuelling capacity and storage space of the following?
d. The length, wingspan and height of 1. Locating objects on sea shore
aircraft 2. Measuring sea-surface levels
30. The orientation of runway is decided by 3. Determining depth of sea-bed below
which factors? sea surface
5 of 15
4. Location sunken objects below sea c. 2 and 3 only
surface d. 1, 2 and 4 only
Select the correct answer using the code 37. Consider the following statements:
given below:
On addition of lime to swelling soils,
a. 1 and 3 only 1. Their liquid limit increases
b. 1,2 and 3 2. Their plastic limit increases
c. 2 and 4
3. Their shrinkage limit increases
d. 3 and 4 4. Their swelling potential decreases
34. Which of the following pairs are correctly Which of the statements given above are
matched? correct?
1. Vishakhapatnam Plymouth : Semi- a. 1 and 3 only
natural harbor
b. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. Para dip and Mangalore: Lagoon
harbor c. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. New York : Natural harbor d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Select the correct answer using the code 38. Consider the following statements about
given below the under-reamed pile in swelling soils:
a. 1 and 2 only 1. Its bulb provides anchor against
movement due to volume changes of
b. 2 and 3 only soil.
c. 1 and 3 only 2. It is a driven pile.
d. 1, 2 and 3 3. Its bulb diameter is 2-5 times its shaft
35. Consider the following statements: diameter.
1. Piles are provided in groups, which are Which of the statements given above are
connected together by a pile cap. The correct?
structure rests on top of the pile cap. a. 1, 2 and 3
The pile cap is situated below the
ground level. b. 1 and 2 only
2. For situations where pile is subjected c. 2 and 3 only
to upward pull, pedestal piles or under- d. 1 and 3 only
reamed piles are more suitable type of 39. A scale of 1 inch = 50 ft. is mentioned on
foundations. an old map. What is the corresponding
Which of the statements given above is/are equivalent scale?
correct? a. 1 cm = 5 m
a. 1 only b. 1cm = 6 m
b. 2 only c. 1cm = 10 m
c. Both 1 and 2 d. 1 cm = 12 m
d. Neither 1 nor 2 40. The whole circle bearings of lines AB and
36. In comparison to Atterberg limits of BC are 30° 15’ and 120° 30’. What is the
normal soil, the expansive soils have included angle ABC between the lines AB
which of the following? and BC?
1. More liquid limit a. 229° 45’
2. Less plastic limit b. 89° 45’
3. Less shrinkage limit c. 269° 45’
4. More volumetric shrinkage d. 90° 15’
Select the correct answer using the code 41. What is ABC if FB of line AB is 40° and
given below: BB of line BC is 280°?
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 a. 90°
b. 1,3 and 4 only b. 120°
6 of 15
c. 240° 3. Computer classification of
d. 320° digital image data
42. Which one of the following statements is 4. Supplier of aerial and satellite based
not correct? remote sensing data products in India
a. Change point is a point denoting Code:
shifting of level A B C D
b. For leveling work both centering and a. 2 1 3 4
leveling of a dumpy level are b. 2 1 4 3
prerequisite c. 1 3 2 4
c. Bench mark is a point whose R.L. is
d. 1 4 2 3
always known
46. Which one of the following is not strictly a
method of remote sensing?
a. Thermal and multi spectral scanning
the characteristics of contours:
b. Microwave sensing
1. Closed contour lines with higher
values inside show a lake. c. Earth resource satellite
2. Contour is an imaginary line joining d. Stereoscopy
points of equal elevations. 47. Consider the following bituminous
3. Closely spaced contours indicate steep surfacing:
slop. 1. SDBM
4. Contour lines can cross each other in 2. PMC
case an overhanging cliff. 3. A.C.
Which of the statements given above are 4. S.D.
correct? 5. Mastic asphalt (M.A.)
a. 2, 3 and 4 Which one of the following is the correct
b. 1 and 2 only sequence in increasing order with respect
c. 1 and 4 to their performance and wearing
d. 1,2 and 3 qualities?
44. Which of the following can be used as a a. 4, 1, 2, 3, 5
map substitute? b. 2, 4, 1, 5, 3
a. Terrestrial photographs c. 4, 2, 1, 3, 5
b. Vertical aerial photographs d. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5
c. Oblique aerial photographs 48. Consider the following statements with
d. Vertical aerial photo-mosaics reference to water bound macadam
(WBM) and wet mix macadam (WMM):
45. Match List–I with List–II and select the
correct answer using the code given below 1. WBM is a road mix and WMM is a
the list plant mix.
List –I 2. WBM usually has plastic filler, while
WBM has non-plastic filler.
A. Visual interpretation
3. WBM is a modern road mix and
B. Geographical information system
WMM is a traditional road mix.
C. National remote sensing agency Which of the statements given above is/are
D. Supervised image classification correct?
List II a. 1 and 2
1. Creation of data bank of multi b. 2 and 3
information for a project area
c. 1 only
2. Visual identification of objects from d. 2 only
image characteristics
7 of 15
49. A line load of infinite length has an c. 2 1 4 3
intensity q per unit length. What is the d. 3 4 1 2
vertical stress z at a depth z below the 52. Which of the following factors are not
earth at the centre of the load? strictly related to design of traffic rotary
2qz intersections?
a. s z =
p 1. Radius of central island
2q 2. Weaving length
b. s z =
pz 3. Ramps and interchanges
2qz 2 4. Acceleration lanes
c. s z =
p Select the correct answer using the code
2q given below:
d. s z = 2 a. 1 and 2
pz
50. IRC code No. 37-1985 deals with which b. 1 and 4
one of the following? c. 2 and 3
a. Design of rigid pavements, taking d. 3 and 4
ESWL and CBR into account 53. A pressure gauge reads 57.4k pa and 80k
b. Design of rigid pavements, taking axle pa respectively at heights of 8m and 5m
load and CBR into account fitted on the side of a tank filled with
c. Design of flexible pavement, taking liquid. What is the approximate density of
ESWL and CBR into account the liquid in kg/m3?
d. Design of flexible pavement taking a. 393
cumulative axle loads and CBR into b. 768
account. c. 1179
51. Match list- I with list-II and select the d. 7530
correct answer using the code given below 54. What is the momentum thickness for the
the lists: boundary layer with velocity distribution
List I u y
 ?
A. Traffic volume U 
B. Traffic density a. /6
C. Traffic Regulations b. /2
D. Rotary Intersection c. 3 /2
List II d. 2 
1. Number of vehicles occupying a unit 55. In model similarity, if gravitational and
length of road at a given instant of inertial forces are the only important
time. forces, then what is the discharge ratio?
2. Number of vehicles passing a given a. L r3/2
point on road in a given unit of time in
a given direction b. L r1/2
3. Where all converging vehicles are c. L r5/2
forced to move in one direction around d. L r1/3
a large central traffic island Where L r = ratio of length dimension.
4. Rules covering all aspects of control of 56. When discussing most efficient section of
vehicles, drivers and all other road flow into open channels, what is the
users perimeter P as a proportion of depth of
Code: flow h (ie., P/h) fir (i) a triangular section,
A B C D and (ii) a trapezoidal section, respectively?
a. 2 4 1 3 a. 2.25, 2.83
b. 3 1 4 2 b. 2.25, 3.15
8 of 15
c. 2.83, 3.15 4. Have uniform discharge
d. 2.83, 3.46 Which of the statements given above are
57. What is the energy loss through a length of correct?
pipe form which all the discharge is taken a. 1, 2 and 4
out unifo5rmly along its length, with b. 1 and 2 only
respect to the case when all the discharge c. 3 and 4 only
is delivered to the end?
d. 2, 3 and 4
a. 2/3
61. Water is supplied form a height of 2.8 m at
b. 1/3 the rate of 35 lps to a hydraulic ram which
c. 3/2 delivers 2 lps to a height of 28 m above the
d. 1/2 ram. What is the Rankine’s efficiency?
58. Match List I with List II and select the a. 58%
correct answer using the code given below b. 55%
the lists: c. 52%
List I d. 44%
(Principle) 62. Match List-I with List-II and select the
A. Hele Shaw flow correct answer using the code given below
B. Strokes law the lists:
C. Hagen-Poiseuille flow List I
D. Pascal’s law (Type of Power House)
List II A. Tidal Plant
(Effect) B. Storage Plant
1. Surface of equal pressure C. Pumped Stored Plant
2. Settling of fine particles D. Run-of-river Plant
3. Laminar flow between parallel plates List II
4. Laminar flow in tubes (Feature)
Code: 1. Utilizes reversible turbines and
A B C D improves utilization factor
a. 2 3 4 1 2. Utilizes current flow in stream, and
b. 3 2 4 1 has pond age to improve load factor
c. 2 3 1 4 3. Utilizes current flow in stream, and has
pond age to improve load factor
d. 3 2 1 4
4. Utilizes annually average flow with
59. A fast centrifugal pump impeller has storage
which of the following?
Code
a. Forward facing blades
A B C D
b. Radial blades
a. 3 4 1 2
c. Backward facing blades
b. 3 2 1 4
d. Propeller type blades
c. 1 2 3 4
d. 1 4 3 2
An air vessel is fitted on the suction side of
a reciprocating pump to 63. Kilpich equation is used to determine
which one of the following?
1. Achieve higher speed without
separation a. Run-off form a given rainfall
2. Reduce work in overcoming frictional b. Base time of a unit hydrograph
resistance c. Time of concentration in run-off
3. Avoid excessive vibration hydrograph
9 of 15
64. Form the analysis of rainfall data at a b. NOx
particular station, it was found that a c. Lead
rainfall of 400 mm had a return period of d. Cadmium
20 years.
71. Which one of the following conditions of
a. (0.95)10 automobile gives maximum unburned
b. 1-(0.95)10 hydrocarbons?
c. 1-(0.05)10 a. Idling
d. (0.05)10 b. Cruise
65. Inconsistency of rainfall data can be c. Acceleration
checked by which one of the following? d. Deceleration
a. Normal ratio method 72. Electrostatic precipitator is most useful for
b. Mass curve method which one of the following industries?
c. Double-mass curve method a. Tannery
d. Depth duration frequency curve b. Hydroelectric power generation
66. What is the chemical symbol for ice as per c. Thermal power generation
UNESCO terminology? d. Textile factory
a. H8 O4 73. What will be the resultant decibel level
b. H2 O when two sources make noise of equal
c. H6 O3 decibels?
d. H4 O2 a. Decibel level will be the same
67. What is the depth of water seal in the b. Decibel level will increase by 3
traps? decibels
a. < 2.5 cm c. Decibel level will decrease by 3
b. 2.5 – 7.5 cm decibel
c. 7.5 – 12.5 cm d. Decibels of the two sources
d. Not less than 15 cm 74. Match List –I with List-II and select the
68. Bangalore and Indore process of correct answer using the cod3e given
composting are which of the following? below the lists:
a. Both anaerobic processes List I
b. Both aerobic processes (Air pollutant)
c. Anaerobic process and aerobic process, A. CO
respectively B. CO2
d. Aerobic process and anaerobic process, C. SO2
respectively D. NOx
69. A solid waste sample has been segregated List II
and one of the components has been (Effect)
subjected to elemental analysis. The result 1. Acid rain
of analysis in percent by mass revealed C
(40%), H (6.0%), O (44%), N (0.3%). 2. Acute toxicity
What is the likely waste component? 3. Ozone liberation
a. Food waste 4. Greenhouse effect
b. Paper and cardboard waste Code
c. Plastic waste A B C D
d. Leather waste a. 4 3 1 2
70. Pneumoconiosis is caused due to b. 4 3 2 1
inhalation of which one of the following? c. 2 4 1 3
a. Silica d. 3 4 1 2
10 of 15
75. Biological magnification of pesticides c. 3 1 2
takes place through which of the d. 2 3 4
following? 78. Match List–I with List-II and select the
a. Population pyramids correct answer using the code given below
b. Hydrologic cycle the lists:
c. Food chains List-I
d. Air cycle (Symbol)
76. Match List–I with List–II and select the A. ML
correct answer using the code given below B. SM
the lists: C. Pt
List I D. MH
(Soil Classification Symbol) List II
A. GW (Soil)
B. SW
1. Silty sand
C. ML 2. Inorganic silt with large
D. CL compressibility
List II 3. Inorganic silt with small
(Soil Property) compressibility
1. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 6 4. Soil with high organic content with
2. Soil having uniformity coefficient > 4 high compressibility
3. Soil having law plasticity Code:
4. Soil having low compressibility A B C D
Code: a. 3 2 4 1
A B C D b. 4 1 3 2
a. 1 2 4 3 c. 3 1 4 2
b. 2 1 3 4 d. 4 2 3 1
c. 2 1 4 3 79. Maximum possible discharge form a small
catchment corresponding to a particular
d. 1 2 3 4
rainfall intensity is independent of which
77. Match List–I with List-II and select the one of the following?
the lists: a. Soil moisture conditions
List-I b. Drainage characteristics of catchment
(Soil) c. Area of the catchment
A. Fine sand d. Duration of the rainstorm
80. The permissible tractive force in an
B. Silt
erodible channel depends upon which of
C. Peat the following?
List II 1. Angle of repose of the material
(Type) 2. Particle size
1. Expansive oil 3. Sediment content of water
2. Coarse grained soil 4. Wetted perimeter of channel
3. Fine grained soil Select the correct answer using the code
4. Organic soil given below:
Code: a. 1, 2 and 4
A B C b. 1, 2 and 3
a. 3 2 1 c. 1 and 3 only
b. 4 3 1 d. 2 and 4 only
11 of 15
81. Which one of the following is correct? 3. Between pH 5 to 6.5
Semi-module outlets are those outlets in Code:
which A B C
a. Discharge gets affected by the change a. 1 2 3
in water level of field channel b. 2 3 1
b. Discharge gets affected by the change c. 3 1 2
in water level of the distributing
channel but not with the change in d. 3 2 1
water level of field channel 86. Which of the following are the advantages
c. Discharge is independent of water of cast-iron pipe for its use in water
levels in the distributing channel and supply?
the field channel 1. Resistant to corrosion to a reasonable
d. None of the above extent
82. For calculating the maximum flood 2. Very easy to join the pipes
discharge in an alluvial stream, which is 3. Easy to transport
the best suited relation? 4. Longer life
a. v  R 2/3 S1/3 Select the correct answer using the code
b. v  R2/3 S1/2 given below:
c. v  R1/2 S1/2 a. 1, 3 and 4
d. v  D 0.64 b. 1, 2 and 3
83. For water supply to a medium town, what c. 1 and 4 only
is the dailv variation factor? d. 2, 3 and 4
a. 1.5 87. Which one of the following valves is
b. 2.5 seldom used in water distribution systems
because of high head loss characteristics?
c. 3
a. Butterfly
d. 3.5
b. Globe
84. Which one of the following factors has the
maximum effect on figure of per capita c. Plug
demand of water supply of a given town? d. Sluice
a. Method of charging of the 88. Son scope is used for which one of the
consumption following?
b. Quality of water a. Checking the accuracy of water meters
c. System of supply-intermittent or b. Regulating the fire hydrants
continuous c. As a replacement of venturimeter for
d. Industrial demand discharge measurement
85. Match List –I with List-II and select the d. Detection of leakage in underground
correct answer using the code given below water mains
the lists: 89. In the design consideration of sewerage
List I system, the sewers must have which one of
(Predominance of Compounds) the following?
A. Monochloramine a. Maximum velocity of flow
B. Dicholoramine b. Only 50 percent of maximum velocity
of flow
C. Nitrogen tricholoride
c. Minimum velocity of not less than
List II cleansing velocity of flow
(pH range) d. High pressure at all times
1. Below pH 4.4
2. Over pH 7.5
12 of 15
90. Which one of the following is considered a. Recent pollution of water with
as the thermophilic range of sludge sewage
digestion? b. Past pollution of water with sewage
a. 60° C to 70°C c. Intermittent pollution of water with
b. 50°C to 57°C sewage
c. 29° C to 40°C d. No pollution of water with sewage
d. 20°C to 30°C 96. What is the minimum turning radius for a
91. Consider the following statements: passenger ship?
In context of sludge volume index (SVI). a. 2  ship length
1. The SVI is expressed as the volume (in b. 3  ship length
cu. Cm) of the activated sludge for one c. (1.5  ship length) + water depth
gram of dry weight of the sludge.
d. (2  ship length) + (1.5  draft)
2. A higher value of SVI indicates a light
97. Match List –I with List-II and select the
and fluffy sludge which is not easily
settle able.
the lists:
List I
correct?
(Harbour Structure)
a. 1 only
A. Dolphins
b. 2 only
B. Groynes
c. Both 1 and 2
C. Fenders
d. Neither 1 nor 2
D. Slipways
92. Which one of the following can fix
atmospheric nitrogen? List II
a. Green algae (Purpose)
b. Blue green algae 1. To protect the beach or retained earth
c. Red algae 2. To cushion to absorb shock of shine
during loading the unloading
d. Brown algae
3. Mooring structure in combination with
93. An industry has a sewage treatment plant
loading platform
which produces sludge with a moisture
content of 98%. With the solid content 4. Repairing and building ship
remaining the same, the sludge is Code:
thickened so that the moisture content now A B C D
is 96%. If the original quantity of sludge is a. 2 4 3 1
P, what is the quantity of the quantity of
the thickened sludge? b. 3 1 2 4
c. 2 1 3 4
a. 0.98 P
b. 3 P/4 d. 3 4 2 1
c. 2 P/3 98. Which of the following are related to
maintenance of railway track?
d. P/2
1. Jim crow and gauge bar
94. a well operating activated sludge process
unit, what is the value of sludge volume 2. Through packing and boxing
index? 3. Buffer stop and sand hump
a. < 50 4. Creep adjustment
b. 100-150 Select the correct answer using the code
c. 200-300 given below:
d. >300 a. 1, 2 and 3
95. What does the presence of excess nitrates b. 1, 3 and 4
in river water indicate? c. 1, 2 and 4
13 of 15
d. 2, 3 and 4 105. Which one of the following
99. The vertical water on tongue rail should methods of tunneling is employed if the
not exceed which one of the following? strata is sub-aqueous?
a. 6 mm a. Shield tunneling
b. 10 mm b. Drift system
c. 12 mm c. Liner plate method
d. 15 mm d. Pilot tunnel method
100. What is the hauling capacity of a railway 106. In modal choice studies which one of the
locomotive having 4 pairs of driving following factors influences the shape of
wheels, carrying an axle load of 24 tonnes diversion curves?
each? (Assume 0.166 as the coefficient of a. Trip purpose
friction)
b. Trip length
a. 16.5 tonnes
c. Income
b. 16.0 tonnes
d. Residential density
c. 15.5 tonnes
107. In urban transportation planning, the
d. 17.0 tonnes modal split’ is the process of which one of
101. Which of the following factors help in the following?
ensuring track modulus, in a railway track? a. Staggering of working hours
a. Gauge and formation width b. Segregation of fast and slow modes
b. Track materials and sleeper density
c. Separation of traffic streams by
c. Degree of curvature and super flyovers
elevation
d. Deciding the choice for a mode
d. Length of rail and flange width
108. Which one of the following is correct?
102. The ‘track modulus’ is an index of
measure of which of the following? In laboratory compaction tests, the
optimum moisture content of soil
a. Resistance due to friction decreases
b. Resistance due to shear a. With increase of compaction energy
c. Resistance due to deformation and with decrease of coarse grains in
d. Resistance due to rolling the soil
103. How can additional access, quick removal b. With decrease of compaction energy
of muck and natural ventilation in long and with increase of coarse grains in
tunnels be achieved? the soil
a. By providing jumbos and pumps c. With increase of both compaction
b. By providing scaffolding and liner energy and coarse grains in the soil
plates d. With decrease of both compaction
c. By providing adits and shafts energy and coarse grains in the soil
d. By providing pilot tunnels and well 109. Consider the following statements:
points 1. Coefficient of consolidation normally
104. Weishbach triangle method may be used increases with decreasing liquid limit
for which one of the following? of clay.
a. To carry out surface alignment of a 2. The larger the value of coefficient of
tunnel consolidation, the longer it takes for
b. To transfer levels underground tunnel full consolidation to occur.
surveys Which of the statements given above is/are
c. To connect two ends of an correct?
underground tunnel surveys a. 1 only
d. To connect two ends of an b. 2 only
underground tunnel
14 of 15
c. Both 1 and 2 113. In seismic exploration method,
d. Neither 1 nor 2 velocities V1 and V2 were 600 m/s and
4000 m/s the distance corresponding to the
break point of velocities was 30 m. based
1. Pore pressure parameter a is a constant on this detail, what is the depth of
for a soil. overburden?
2. The shear strength of soil is a function a. 11.5 m
of the effective stress in the soil and
b. 12.5 m
not of the total stress in the soil.
c. 12.9 m
correct? d. 13.2 m
a. 1 only 114. Consider the following statements in
respect of static cone penetration test:
b. 2 only
1. The cone used has an apex angle of
c. Both 1 and 2
60° and base area of 10 cm2.
d. Neither 1 nor 2
2. This test gives a continuous record of
111. Match List-I with list-II and select the cone resistance.
the lists:
correct?
List I
a. 1 only
(Equipment)
b. 2 only
A. Hydrometer
c. Both 1 and 2
B. Plate load test set up
d. Neither 1 nor 2
C. Pycnometer
115. Match List –I with List-II and select the
D. Direct shear apparatus correct answer using the code given below
List II the lists:
(Use) List-I
1. Determination of shear parameter (Foundation)
2. Determination of bearing capacity of A. Under-reamed piles
specific gravity B. Floating rafts
3. Determination of bearing capacity of C. Combined footing
soils
D. Strap footing
4. Grain size distribution tests for clays
List II
Code:
(Demanding Situation)
A B C D
1. To restrict settlement of soft clays/silts
a. 2 1 4 3
2. To transfer the moment in between two
b. 4 3 2 1 adjacent footings
c. 2 3 4 1 3. To restrict damages due to volume
d. 4 1 2 3 changes of swelling soils
112. A vertical cut is to be made in saturated 4. When columns are very close to the
clay with C=15 kN/m2,  = and Y= 20 property line
kN/m3. What is the theoretical depth to Code:
which the clay can be excavated without A B C D
side collapse?
a. 3 2 4 1
a. 6 m
b. 4 1 3 2
b. 2 m
c. 4 2 3 1
c. 2.5 m
d. 3 1 4 2
d. 3 m
15 of 15
116. A differential free swell test on a soil gives (Test)
a value of differential free swell of 40% A. Field Density test
what is the degree of swelling?
B. Plate load test
a. Low
C. C.B.R test
b. Medium
List II
c. High
(Utility)
d. Very high
1. Stress deformation characteristics
117. Which factors influence the bearing
2. Compaction characteristics
capacity of a purely cohesion less soil?
3. Design of pavement
1. Relative density of soil
4. Safe load bearing capacity of soil
2. Width and depth of footing
Code:
3. Unit weight of soil
A B C
given below: a. 2 4 1
a. 1 and 2 only b. 4 2 1
b. 2 and 3 only c. 4 2 3
c. 1 and 3 only d. 2 4 3
d. 1,2 and 3 120. Match list–I with list-II and select the
118. Match list –I with list-II and select the
the lists:
the lists: List-I
List II (Method)
(Field Test) A. Static formulae
A. Plate load test B. Dynamic formulae
B. Standard penetration test C. Static pile load test
C. Vane shear test D. Cyclic pile load test
D. Dilatancy test List-II
List II (Suitability)
(Suitability) 1. To estimate allowable load for
permissible settlement for a pile
1. To estimate bearing capacity of
granular soil 2. To separate point bearing and friction
bearing capacities of a pile
2. To estimate in situ strength of soft clay
3. To estimate allowable load for driven
3. To identify silt from clay
piles in granular soils
4. To estimate bearing capacity for
4. To estimate allowable load for board
permissible settlement, in clays
piles in clays
Code:
Code:
A B C D
A B C D
a. 4 3 2 1
a. 4 2 1 3
b. 2 1 4 3
b. 1 3 4 2
c. 4 1 2 3
c. 4 3 1 2
d. 2 3 4 1
d. 1 2 4 3
119. Match list-I with list-II and select the
the lists:
List I

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