MATERIALS ENGINEER EXAMINATION NO.

7
Instruction: Choose the best answer. The Examination is good for two hours.

1. The pavement marking (Item 606) shall be readily extrude at a temperature of_______________
a.110±5°c b. a.230±9°F c. a.211±7°c d 23±1.7°c
2. Traffic Paint shall be applied to the pavement At the Rate of___________
a. 30-33 L/sq.m b 0-3 L/sq.m. c. 0-0.33 L/sq.m d.30-0.45 L/sq.m
3. Traffic Paint shall be dry sufficiently to be free from cracking from_________to_______ .\
a. 15-25 mins b. 15-30 mins c. 15-25 hrs d. 15-30 hrs
4. This Item shall consist of the construction of the rubble concrete in accordance with this specification and in conformity with the
lines, grades, slopes, and dimesions as shown in the plans or established by the Engineer.
a. Item 707 b. Item 507 c. Item 606 d. item 704
5. What type of concrete shall be used for Rubble Concrete (item 507) in accordance with Structural Concrete.
a. Class B b. Class A c. Class C d. Class P
6. In Placing Concrete Class B for Rubble concrete (Item 507), the clearance between stones shall not be less
less than _______.
a. 2 ½” b. 63 mm c. 50mm d. a & b
7.What is the maximum size of concrete aggregates for Class B concrete.
a. 2 ½” b. 63 mm c. 50mm d. a & b
8.What is the item for concrete Masonry unit?
a. Item 506 b. Item 505 c. Item 704 d. item 504
9.Concrete masonry unit if subject to test, 6 units of CHB Shall be tested for every 10,000 units.(3 units for ______________ and 3
units for____________).
a. absorption & compression b. stability & durability c.density & thickness d. all of the above
10. What is the item for Joint Mortar?
a. Item 504 b. item 604 c. item 704 d. none of the above
11. Mortar for Masonry Beds and Joints shall be:
a. 1:2 b. 1:3 c. 1:1 d. Class B only
12. What should be the PH values for mixing water that is used in the construction?
a. 2-5.5 b. 5.5-7.5 c. 4.5-8.5 d. it does’nt matter
13. What is the item no. for Water?
. a. Item 710 b. Item 714 c. Item 704 d. item 711
14. This item shall consist of furnishing and applying termite control chemicals, including the use of equipment and tools in
performing such operations.
a. Termite Control Work b. Termite demolition c.termite termination d. all of the above
15. What is the item No. of number 14 problem?
a. Item 606 b. Item 1000 c. item 714 d. Item 3110
16. What type of termite control which is specified for crenching soil beneath foundation of proposed buildings.
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
17. What type of termite control that is used as wood preservatives.
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
18. What type of termite control which is applied to visible or suspected subterranean termite mounds and tunnels where termi tes
are exterminated trophallaxes method (exchange or nourishment between termites while greeting each other upon meeting).
a.Type II- Liquid termicide ready Mixed solution b. Type III – Powder Termicide
c. Type I- Liquid termicide concentrated d. none of the above
19.What is the Item no. for Soil Poisoning?
a. Item 1003.1 b. item 1000.1 c. item 1004.1 d. item 10005.1
20.In Soil Poisoning an applicationof Type I working solution at the rate of what?
a. 10 L/ln.m b. 9 L/ln.m c. 8 L/ln.m d. none of the above
21.In Soil Poisoning, this method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite intestaton, where trenches in
concentric circles, squares or rectangles are dug 150mm to 220mm wide and at least 1 meter apart.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method c. wrenching method d. concentric method
22. This Soil Poisoning method shall be applied when there is infestation of termite.
a. Cordoning method b. Drenching method c. wrenching method d. concentric method
23. In drenching method, a Type 1 working solution is use @ a rate of__________________.
a. 20 L/ln.m b. 21 L/ln.m c. 22 L/ln.m d. none of the above.
24. What should be the state of Soil if it is treated with Soil Poisoning so that it will allow to have a uniform distributi on of the
toxicants agents.
a. low plasticity b. low moisture content c. high liquid limit d. high moisture content
25. What should be the period of the application of toxicants prior to placement of concrete which shall be contact with the treated
materials.
a. @least 24 mins b. @least 12 mins c. @least 24 hrs d. @least 12 hrs
26.This item shall consist of furnishing all required materials, fabricated woodwork, tools, equipment and labor and performing all
operations necessary to the satisfactory completion of all carpentry and joinery works in strict.
a. item 1001 b. item 1002 c. item 1003 d. item 1004
27. What is the moisture content requirement for air-dried or sun dried rough lumber use for framing and siding.?
a. 18-20% b. @least 22 % c. 15-25% d. @ least 14 %
28. Dressed lumber for exterior and interior finishing for doors and windows,cabinet and flooring boards shall be:
a. sun-dried d. air-dried c. kiln-dried d. oven-dried
29. What is the moisture content requirement for a dressed lumber at the time of installation.?
a. @ least 20% b. in excess of 14% c. 15-25% d. @ least 22 %
30. An item no. for Corrugated Metal Roofing.
a. Item 1010 b. item 1012 c. item 1011 d. item 1013
31. what should be the gauge shall be use for Corrugated metal roofing?
a. gauge 24 b. gauge 28 c. gauge 26 d. none of the above
32. What is the required thickness for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 0.48cm b. 0.48mm c. 0.48 inches d. none of the above
33. What is the required weight for the gauge in problem no.31 for item Corrugated metal roofing?
a. 4.74 kg/sq.m b. 3.74 kg/sq.m c.2.74 kg/sq.m d. 5.75 kg/sq.m
34. Averaging of the thickness and density of the 2 or 3 cores should not be done.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
35. In the construction of a 380-linear meter asphalt road, with a designed thickness of 5cm, a width requirement of 3,05m, and a
programmed quantity for bituminous mix of 135 tons, an asphalt core was taken for each full day’s operation. Results of
thickness and density tests are as follows:

Paving Date Paving length, meter Thickness, cm Density , gram/cu.cm

Day1 1.20 5.3 2.262
Day2 1.40 5.1 2.311
Day3 1.20 5.0 2.221

Compute for the quantity of Bituminous mixtures should be paid.

a. 134.85 tons b. 134.28 tons c. 134.58 tons d. 134.82 tons
36. What should be the required ratio for length to diameter (L/D) of a specimen for determining the compressive strength that
contain embedded reinforcement should be avoided if possible or trimmed to eliminate the reinforcement.
a. @least 2 b. @ least 1 c. @least 1.5 d. none of the above
37.For compressive strength determination, what should be the diameter of the core specimen .
a. @ least three (3) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate. used in the concrete.
b. @ least four (4) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate.
c. @ least twice (2) times nominal maximum size if the coarse aggregate in the core sample
d..a & c
38 For compressive strength determination, what should be the length of the core specimens, when capped.
a. Same to its diameter b. twice its diameter c. four times its diameter d. none of the above
39. For individual measurement of core sample, which is less than the specified thickness by more than 25mm shall not be
included in the average.
. a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
40. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 50% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm c. 5mm,max d. 11-15mm
41.What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 70% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 21-25mm b more than 25mm c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
42. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 85% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm b more than 25mm c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
43. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 95% payment is recommended on the project?
a. 6-10mm b 5mm,max c. 16-20mm d. 11-15mm
44. All joints shall be sawed before uncontrolled shrinkage cracking occur.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
45. The sawing of any joints shall be omitted if crack occurs or near the joint prior to the time of sawing.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
46. No cold joint shall be constructed within 1.50m of an expansion joint, contraction joint or plane of weakness.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
47. If the Concrete lanes are concreted separately, what is the joint in the form of key and keyways that is use?
a. transverse contraction joint b. Longitudinal joint
c. transverse construction joint d. weakened plane joint

48.What is the variation permitted on the surface of the asphalt using the straight edge method .
a. 5mm,min b. 6mm,min c. 5mm,max d. 6mm,max
49. The subbase is a structural layer which accepts greater compressive stress than the sub-grade and thus reduces that
deformation of the pavement under traffic loading.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
50.The base reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by the traffic in the subbase and the sub-grade.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
51. In asphalt pavement,the base and the subbase serve to provide structural capacity to bituminous concrete slab, while in PCCP,
the base and the subbase spread the load over the foundation.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
52. What is the chief load bearing element of gravel roads.?
a. base course b. subbase course c. sub-grade course d. either a & b
53. Proper design of the base or subbase course can lead to structural failure of the slabs.
 a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
54. what does it mean if soil has high values for liquid and Plasticity index?
a. good b. low plastic limit c. poor/weak d. none of the above
55. what is the approximate area for cracking and seating of PCCP .
a. 1 sq.m b. 0.5 sq.m c. 2 sq.m d. either a or b
56. Reflection cracking on the overlay is caused by the differential movement at cracks and joint in the old pavements.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
57. As part of the selection process, ______________are taken to evaluate the condition of existing pavement or any asphalt
pavement prior to cracks and seat treatment.
a. cores are taken at three different locations. b. two cores are taken at four different locations
c. 5 cores are taken at three different locations d. @ least 1 but not more than three core samples
58. The Lower the coefficient of permeability of the supporting subbase material, the better the chances in seating the cracked
pieces and avoiding pumping and rocking.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
59. What is the reasonable range of structural layer coefficient for properly cracked and seated PCCP?
a. 0.25-0.30 b. 0.28-0.32 c. 0.10-0.16 d. none of the above
60. The most popular and extensively used for cracking or breaking and removal of pavements.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. arrow hammer d. either b or c
61. The impact hammer attached to the end of the leaf-spring arm which can be controlled in a horizontal as well as vertical
direction. It is mounted on the rear of a truck.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. Resonant Pavement breaker d. whiphammer
62. The hammer is mounted on the trailer which is tractor or truck drawn.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. arrow hammer d. whiphammer\
63. This equipment is vibrated 44 cycles per second and it is generally induces longitudinal cracks.
a. Pile Driver b. Guillotine hammer c. Resonant Pavement breaker d. whiphammer
64.Using arrow hammer/guillotine, no cracking should be closer than 2 ½ ft from an existing transverse joint.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
65. once the cracked, the PCCP pieces are seated firmly against the base or sub-grade and should be done by applying two
passes of rolling using what equipment?
a. 50-ton pneumatic tired roller b. 35-ton pneumatic roller c. tandem smooth type roller d. either a or b
66. Cracking and seating does not mean reducing the PCCP to rubble.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
67. PPCP overlay is used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where a minimum thickness of _____ with a
maximum size of ____ aggregates and a modulus of rapture of concrete of______ @ 28 days.
a. 180mm, 40mm,650psi b.18cm, 40mm, 650psi c. 1.8mm,40mm,650psi d. either a or b
68. It is commonly used overlay material on the cracked and seated pavement where its thickness will depnd on the expected
traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement section. The recommended thickness is 3”-5”.
a. Hot Mix Asphalt b. PCCP overlay c. rock layers d. either b or c
69. Rectifying inherent drainage problem is essential for the cracking and seating to be effective.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
70. Concrete shall be conveyed through sheet metal or approved pipes when placing operation involves dropping the concrete
more than 1.5 meter.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
71. Falsework of continuous structures shall not be removed in any span until the first and second adjoining span on each side
have reached the specified strength.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
72. For concrete which is deposited in water shall have a minimum cement content of______ of concrete.
a. 500 kg/cu.m b. 600 kg/cu.m c. 450 kg/cu.m d. 400 kg/cu.m
73. For concrete deposited in water should have a slump of____ to ______.
a. 10-20 mm b. 25-30 cm c. 10-20 cm d. 25-30 cm
74. Concrete deposited in water shall be placed in compact mass, in final position, by means of ______ or button dun bucket to
prevent segregaton.
a. tremie b. vibrator c. casing d. none of the above
75. What is the commonly used curing media for curing the fresh concrete.
a. Liquid membrane-forming compound b. Water emulsifier
c. superplasticizer d. none of the above
76. The concrete should be cured immediately at the final placement, especially during the first seven days, in order that the plastic
shrinkage will be minimized.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
77. The reasonable range of slump for Class A concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
78. The reasonable range of slump for Class B concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
79 The reasonable range of slump for Class C concrete.
a. 2-4 inches b. 50-100mm c. 50-100cm d. either a or b
80. The reasonable range of slump for Class P concrete.
a. 4 inches,min b. 4inches,max c. 100mm,max d. either b or c
81. The reasonable range of slump for Class Seal concrete.
a. 4-8 inches b. 100-200 mm c. 100-200 cm d. either a or b
82.In compaction of Concrete, a well consolidated concrete is _____ to _______ % higher in strength than that of concrete which is
thoroughly consolidated.
a. 20-25% b. 25-30% 30-33% d. 15-20%
83. Unsuitable materials are soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 or plasticity index exceeding 55.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
84. unsuitable materials are soil with a natural water content exceeding 100%.
a. true b. false c. maybe d. none of the above
85. Unsuitable materials are soils with higher natural density of 800 kg/cu.m or higher.
a. false b. true c. maybe d. none of the above
86. An embankment(item 104), requires ______ of compaction.
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
87. The surface layer of sub-grade material requires ______ compaction in every layer of 150mm.
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
88. What is the degree of compaction of materials immediately under pavement structures?
a. 90 % b. 95% c. 100% d. none of the above
89. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 225 mm in depth, loose
measure, and extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method.
90. In this method the materials for the embankment shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth, loose
measure, parallel to finished grade and extending to the full width of the embankment.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
91.The shattered rock obtained in rock cuts shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bull dozers.
This method shall not be used in fills less than 1.2m in depth, and in no case, shall the rock embankment be placed within
600mm of the earth grade.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock embankment c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
92. This involves the introduction of water into embankment to accelerate consolidation.
a. Twelve-inch method b. Rock c. Hydraulic consolidation d. controlled density method
93. The material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited as to form the grading and cross-section, and shall be
thoroughly compacted.
a. Hydraulic fill c. hydraulic consolidation c.Rock d. controlled density method
94. Embankments construction across peat marshes consists of total or partial excavation of the peat using power shovels which is
usually carried on in conjuction with backfilling of the peat areas.
a. Hydraulic fill c. hydraulic consolidation c.Rock d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes
95. Where unsuitable material is present under the embankment, corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to
the full width of the road bed.
a.Hydraulic fill c. Placing & removing surcharge c.Rock d. Methods of treatment of peat marshes
96. A cracks in the concrete that are predominantly perpendicular to the pavement centerline
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
97. A crack that are predominantly parallel to the pavement centerline.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
98. Cracks at any angle to the centerline of the pavement.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
99. Cracks that develop near the outside edges of a PCCP and progress in an irregular path toward the longitudinal joint.
a. transverse crack b. longitudinal crack c. diagonal cracks d. restraint crack
100. These diagonal cracks forming a triangle with a longitudinal edge or joint and a transverse joint.
a. corner cracks b. spatting cracks c. scaling cracks d. faulting cracks