Set No.

86

1. To find the time flow, it is required to determine the length of channel. This can be done by
transforming the drainage area into a rectangle whose two sides are in the proportion of 1:1.5 The
length of the stream is assumed one diagonal of this rectangle plus one-half of the shorter side of
the rectangle, which is the:
a) square root of the square of width (W) plus half of W
b) square root of the sum of the squares of longer side (L) and W plus half of W
c) square root of the square of the squares of L plus half of W
d) 3.0 W
2. To avoid hitting a waterfall, realignment of the route must be done. Being a new road that will
pass through loose or heterogeneous strata, auger borings should be made on the proposed
alignment at an average interval of:
a) 150 m
b) 200 m
c) 250 m
d) 500 m
3. A set of revised drawings shows a grade separation structure at railroad crossing with cross
sections of the railroad taken at 20 m interval and extended at least 50m from both sides of the
centerline. Does the 50m extension conform with survey/design requirements?
a) Yes, 50 m is in order
b) No, it should be 100 m both sides
c) No, it should be 200 m both sides
d) No, 100 m left side and 200 m right side
4. Depth of exploration for a highway project with light cut and fill where there are no special
problems should extend to a maximum depth of:
a) 1.0 m below bottom of subbase
b) 1.5 m below the proposed subgrade
c) 2.0 m below the proposed subgrade
d) 3.0 below the proposed subgrade
5. Gradients are categorized into four as listed below. Which of the following is also known as
design gradient?
a) minimum gradient
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient
6. The maximum length of ascending gradient which a loaded truck can operate without undue
reduction in speed is called:
a) critical length of grade for design
b) exceptional gradient
c) limiting gradient
d) ruling gradient
Set No. 86

7. A contractor encountered an equation on the plans. Quite confused, he clarified the terms
“BK” and “AH” from the Engineer. If you were the Engineer, you would say that:
a) BK means new survey stationing
b) AH means old survey stationing corrected
c) BK means old survey stationing corrected;
AH, new survey stationing
d) Both a and b
8. The general principles of design of bridges depend on many factors. These may be broadly
unified under the following with the exception of:
a) Selection of site
b) Water discharge
c) Design of bridge
d) Bank protection
9. If the good and hard soil is available within 2 to 3 m below the bed level of a river, the design
will generally require:
a) Spread foundations
b) Raft foundations
c) Pile foundations
d) Caisson foundations
10. In general, the minimum concrete cover for primary reinforcement of concrete not exposed to
weather or in contact with the ground should be:
a) 25 mm
b) 38 mm
c) 51 mm
d) 76 mm
11. A given reinforced concrete girder may be subject at one time to positive span moments and at
another to negative span moments. To withstand both types of moments, the girder must be
designed such that tensile steel must be furnished at:
a) the top only
b) the bottom only
c) both the top and bottom
d) the support only
12. Lateral forces on building frames can be analyzed by approximate analytical methods given
below with the exception of:
a) Moment-Distribution Method
b) Portal Method
c) Factor Method
d) Cantilever Method
2
Set No. 86

13. For drainage mains and outfalls, the discharge should be computed by the use of:
a) Rational Formula
b) Talbot’s Formula
c) Manning Equation for Discharge
d) Synthetic Unit Hydrographs

14. The maximum spacing of manholes for circular conduits should be:
a) 20 m
b) 30 m
c) 50 m
d) 150 m

15. What do you call the vertical distance from the culvert invert at the entrance to the water
surface elevation permissible in the approach channel?
a) freeboard
b) headwater depth
c) tailwater depth
d) scour depth

16. The minimum distance of extended compaction of road embankment material from the edge
of the designed width should be:
a) 2.00 m
b) 3.00 m
c) 0.50 m
d) 1.00 m

17. Normally within how many hours can sawing of joints commence given that concrete has
hardened suffienciently?
a) 36
b) 72
c) 12
d) 24

18. The depth of corrugation and roughened finish by brooming on the surface of a newly set
concrete pavement should not be more than:
a) 6.0 mm
b) 1.5 mm
c) 3.0 mm
d) 2.5 mm

3
Set No. 86

19. Before placing concrete, the base of a roadway for concreting should be kept in moist
condition and saturated with water for at least:
a) 6 hrs.
b) 1.5 hrs.
c) 2 hrs.
d) 3 hrs.

20. On sloping surface, concrete should be placed starting at:

a) top of slope
b) bottom of slope
c) middle of slope
d) any part of the slope

21. What is the minimum width required in pipe culvert excavation?

a) 300 mm greater than the diameter of the pipe
b) 2 times the diameter of the pipe
c) 1.5 times the diameter of the pipe
d) Just enough to put the pipe

22. What will you do if there is evidence of discrepancies on the actual elevation from those
shown in the Plans?
a) Conduct Pre-construction Survey
b) Conduct Parcellary Survey
c) Conduct Geotechnical Survey
d) Conduct Boring Test

23. What is the difference between the Net Volume Suitable Materials Embankment and Net
Volume of Suitable Materials from Excavation?
a) Free haul volume
b) Overhaul volume
c) Unsuitable materials
d) Surplus materials

24. The water from the pavement surface is removed by providing which of the following to the
pavement?
a) weep hole
b) drain hole
c) cross drain
d) camber or cross slope

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Set No. 86

25. What is the method used in constructing an embankment over a low swampy ground that
cannot support the mass of truck loads and other hauling equipment?
a) re-blocking
b) sealing
c) grouting
d) overlaying

26. What do you call the portion of earth or base course materials left unleveled by a road grader
during longitudinal grading operation?
a) windrow
b) stockpile
c) hump
d) edging

27. The inside face of a pothole, aside from squaring, must be made vertical before patching
using cold or hot mix asphalt in order to:
a) ensure bond between the new mix and old surface
b) prevent pumping
c) minimize spalling
d) prevent faulting

28. In maintenance work, under vegetation control, the remaining height grasses and shrubs
should be left uncut is:
a) 50 mm
b) 100 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 400 mm

29. Vegetation control along highways should be undertaken from the outer edge of the shoulder
to:
a) Outer edge of side ditch lined canal
b) Center of side ditch
c) Outer edge of shoulder only
d) Road-right-of-way limit

30. What do you call the structure, typically less than 5.0 m, that is built across or spanning a
river or waterway?
a) Bridge (any type)
b) Culvert (pipe or box)
c) Viaduct
d) chute

5
Set No. 86

31. As practically possible, concrete mix should not be placed where this can be subject to
manual dropping by not more than ________ and where no other special tools and means are
used.
a) 3.0 m
b) 2.5 m
c) 2.0 m
d) 1.5 m

32. Concrete Class A mix used and deposited in water for footing construction shall maintain a
slump between:
a) 5 and 10 cm
b) 10 and 20 cm
c) 20 and 30 cm
d) 30 and 40 cm

33. Concrete should be kept continuously wet by the application of water for a minimum period
of how many days after it has been placed?
a) 28
b) 30
c) 14
d) 7

34. In pile driving, when the desired penetration cannot be obtained by driving alone, other
schemes are used. Which of the following is not acceptable?
a) Water jets
b) Pilot holes
c) Both jet and holes
d) Square hole

35. What is the technical term used in repairing the foundation of piers and abutments that have
an indication of scouring and erosion?
a) Shotcreting
b) Underpinning
c) Riveting
d) plastering

36. What is the minimum length requirement for longitudinal reinforcement of the piles that
should be embedded in the bridge structure?
a) 30 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
b) 40 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
c) 50 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars
d) 20 times the diameter of main reinforcing deformed bars

6
Set No. 86

37. In underpinning a pier the following methods may be undertaken before the repair work
starts, with the exception of:
a) Earth-filled wood cofferdaming
b) Water diversion thru dikes of rock and earth
c) Use of steel sheet piles
d) spurdiking

38. Which of the following is not classified as a type of caisson foundation?

a) Pneumatic foundation
b) Box Caisson
c) Open Caisson
d) Hydraulic Caisson

39. What is the simplest type of superstructure of a concrete bridge with a limited span of 8
meters?
a) Reinforced concrete slab
b) Concrete plank deck
c) Girder and slab superstructure
d) Beam or plank bridge

40. Which of the following is not included in the exploration of foundation strata?
a) Driving test rods
b) Boring with auger
c) Drilling test hole
d) Nuclear density test

41. What is the usual measure undertaken to stop a river from changing its path?
a) shore protection works
b) river training works
c) bank seat
d) wing wall

42. What do you call the additional support on steel sheet piles to support embankment of the
abutment of a bridge embedded in the ground designed to increase road safety factor against
overturning?
a) Dead man
b) Pile
c) Bridge panel
d) Cross bracing

7
Set No. 86

43. What is the allowable minimum thickness of bedding material beneath a concrete pipe?
a) 50 mm
b) 60 mm
c) 70 mm
d) 100 mm

44. Which of the following is not a result of river mouth improvement works?
a) Easier navigation
b) Ensuring easy maintenance in the future
c) Giving natural balance to the river
d) Fast river bed deposition

45. What do you call the limit of drainage of a river system?

a) Service area
b) Project area
c) Drainage area
d) Confluence area

46. What do you call the total covering area of a river system?
a) River basin
b) Drainage area
c) Service area
d) Flooded area

47. Which of the following factors does not affect the stability of an embankment?
a) Active earth pressure
b) Translatory slide
c) Lateral forces
d) Wind load

48. A project is about to be started, but the as-staked plan shows a reduction in length or
shortening of the proposed structure. What should the Project Engineer do?
a) Issue Notice to Proceed and disregard the as-staked survey
b) Proceed with work, reflect the underrun in the as-built plan
c) Suspend work and request for review if redesign is needed
d) Recheck the as-staked plan

49. Excavation of indurated rocks can be undertaken by:

a) Pick and shovel
b) Ripper
c) Road grader
d) Bulldozer
8
Set No. 86

50. You are assigned as a new Project Engineer on an almost completed spillway project and you
found out per field survey that the spillway elevation is lower by one meter. What should
you do?
a) Accept the project as is
b) Require the contractor to redo the spillway
c) Install corresponding ogee
d) Reprimand the former Project Engineer

51. When the average thickness of the concrete pavement per lot is deficient by 5 mm, payment
for the lot should be:
a) 100 %
b) Adjusted to 95%
c) Adjusted to 90%
d) Adjusted to 85%

52. Soil will have greater strength if its particles are:

a) Uniformly graded
b) Well-graded
c) One-sized
d) Gap-graded

53. Clay can be made plastic by:

a) air-drying
b) adjusting its water content
c) Continuous rolling
d) pulverizing

54. Clay can be distinguished from silt by performing:

a) sieve analysis test
b) hydrometer test
c) plastic limit test
d) liquid limit test

55. During the curing period, the exposed surfaces of normal cement concrete should be kept
continuously moist for at least:
a) 3 days
b) 5 days
c) 7 days
d) 14 days

9
Set No. 86

56. Ordinarily, what is the absolute volume of cement in a concrete mix?

a) 7 to 14 percent
b) 15 to 20 percent
c) 21 to 25 percent
d) 26 to 32 percent

57. To attain a uniform consistency of concrete during the pouring operation of a concrete
pavement, the slump should not be more than:
a) 40 mm (1½ inches)
b) 50 mm ( 2 inches)
c) 62 mm (2½ inches)
d) 75 mm ( 3 inches)

58. The flexural strength of concrete is considered satisfactory when the average strength of all
sets of 3 consecutive strength test results equal or exceed the specified strength and when no
individual strength test result is deficient by more than:
a) 10 % of 550 psi
b) 15 % of 550 psi
c) 20 % of 550 psi
d) 25 % of 550 psi

59. If 95% of a soil passes the No. 200 mm sieve, its particle size distribution is best determined
by:
a) Hydrometer Analysis
b) Sieve Analysis
c) Combination of a and b
d) Atterberg Limit Test

60. In Item 200 – Aggregate Subbase Course, the fraction passing the 0.425 mm (No. 40) sieve
should have a liquid limit not greater than:
a) 25 %
b) 35 %
c) 40 %
d) 50 %

61. How many set/s of in-situ density tests is required in a 1500 square meter compacted
aggregate subbase course?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 5
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Set No. 86

62. When the grading test results of the three stockpiles are not in accordance with Item 201
requirements, which of the following is economical to recommend?
a) replace the three stockpiles with quality Item 201 materials
b) blend the three stockpiles to produce a correct proportion that will meet the specified
grading
c) Allow the use of the materials provided corresponding deduction in payment will be
effected
d) Increase the thickness of Item 201

63. A rehabilitation of asphalt pavement is undertaken by a District Office. Per approved

program of work, Item 201 was included in the pay items. However, during construction, the
Materials Engineer certified that the existing base course material is still of good quality. As
project/resident engineer, what is the best recommendation?
a) Remove and replace the existing base course material as required in the approved
program of work
b) Provide additional Item 201 materials for correction purposes and prepare corresponding
change order
c) Deduct from payment due to the contractor the corresponding amount equivalent to the
total volume of Item 201 that was not incorporated into the works
d) b and c

64. The temperature of a 5.0 cu.m. bituminous mix delivered in the project site is 15 oC lower
than the required compaction temperature of the submitted Job-Mix Formula. As resident
engineer of the project, what decision should you take?
a) allow the spreading and compaction of the material delivered
b) advise the contractor to spread the mixture in one layer only
c) reject the delivered material
d) adjust the job-mix formula

65. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will
have a high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a) Job-Mix formula
b) Marshall Stability Test
c) Immersion-Compression Stability Test
d) Plant-Mix Design

66. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the
following with the exception of:
a) rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b) too much coarse aggregates
c) too little binder
d) too much fine aggregates

11
Set No. 86

67. If permitted by the Engineer, additional water may be added to the batch concrete materials in
truck mixers for portland cement concrete pavements. Additional mixing may be performed
to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement provided that the water-cement ratio
is not exceeded and that the said operations are performed within ______minutes after the
initial mixing operation.
a) 30
b) 45
c) 60
d) 90

68. When consolidating concrete during pouring operations, vibrator should not be operated in
any one location longer than:
a) 10 seconds
b) 15 seconds
c) 20 seconds
d) 30 seconds

69. The depth and width of weakened plane joints should not be more _______ and
__________of corrugations during brooming operation of a concrete pavement should not be
more than:
a) 2.5 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively
b) 2.0 mm and 1.0 mm, respectively
c) 1.0 mm and 3.0 mm, respectively
d) 3.0 mm and 2.0 mm, respectively

70. What class of structural concrete is generally used for footings, pedestals, massive pier shafts,
pipe bedding, and gravity walls?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

71. What class of structural concrete is generally used for reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast
piles, cribbing and for filler in steel grid floors?
a) Class A
b) Class B
c) Class C
d) Class P

12
Set No. 86

72. Unless other sizes are shown in the plans, stones for stone masonry should have a minimum
thickness of:
a) 100 mm
b) 150 mm
c) 200 mm
d) 250 mm

73. What is Item 505 in the DPWH Standard Specification?

a) Structural concrete
b) Prestressed concrete
c) Riprap and grouted riprap
d) Stone masonry

74. Rock used in gabions shall consists of hard, durable rock pieces that will not deteriorate when
submerged in water or exposed to severe weather condition, and should be uniformly graded
in sizes ranging from:
a) 50 mm to 100 mm
b) 101 mm to 200 mm
c) 201 mm to 300 mm
d) 301 mm to 400 mm

75. In laying the stone components of Item 506 (Stone Masonry), the exposed faces of the
individual stones should be:
a) Perpendicular to the faces of the walls
b) Parallel to the faces of the walls
c) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 150 mm
d) Reasonably uniform with no projections more than 100 mm

76. Whose engineering judgement will prevail in the overall field implementation of a project?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer

77. Who has the full power and authority to supply to the contractor, during the progress of
works, additional plans and instructions?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Materials Engineer
13
Set No. 86

78. Who has the authority to reject questionable materials or suspend the work until it is refereed
and decided upon by the project engineer?
a) Project Inspector
b) Resident Engineer
c) Project Engineer
d) Contractor’s Engineer

79. In a PERT/CPM diagram, the contract time duration of the project is represented by:
a) Dummy Activities
b) Float
c) Critical Path
d) End Event

80. Which of the following scheduling features does not describe the bar chart?
a) Shows start and end dates of activities
b) Indicates estimated duration of each activity
c) Allows comparison of actual and planned progress
d) Identifies activity relationship

81. In PERT/CPM networking, the process of compressing the duration of a project is called:
a) Time optimization
b) Crashing
c) Contract time adjustment
d) Reduction

82. In the calculation of total project duration in an infrastructure project (equipment oriented),
which of the following is the most important consideration?
a) Right-of-way acquisition
b) Local manpower capability
c) Climatic condition in the area
d) Availability of funds

83. Being a Project Inspector, you are asked to monitor the on-going construction of a revetment.
Which of the following should have the highest elevation?
a) Normal water level
b) Maximum experienced flood level
c) Existing bank level
d) Headwall level

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Set No. 86

84. Which of the following is the main purpose of the first advance payment to a contractor?
a) seed money
b) progress payment
c) mobilization costs
d) representation costs

85. Which of the following is not a cause of delay in project implementation?

a) revision in plans
b) inadequacy of contractor’s resources
c) non-availability of construction materials
d) rainy months pre-determined in the area

86. Concerning delayed project implementation, which of the following is not the fault of the
contractor?
a) delayed preparation of contract documents
b) faulty construction method
c) defective construction equipment
d) undersized construction materials delivered

87. Which of the following financial controls should be imposed if the project is delayed?
a) Penalty by way of additional bond
b) Confiscation of surety bond
c) Liquidated damages
d) Withhold progress billing

88. If a project is abandoned by the contractor due to peace and order problems, what
recommendation should immediately be submitted?
a) Rescission of Contract
b) Termination of Contract
c) Contract Suspension
d) Blacklisting of Contractor

89. After a pre-final inspection is conducted on a project and having verified an accomplishment
of 95% or more, which of the following is issued?
a) Final Inspection Certificate
b) Acceptance Certificate
c) Punch List
d) Turnover Certificate

15
Set No. 86

90. The best aid in locating and identifying areas of discussion in an inspection report are:
a) Bar Charts
b) Executive Summary
c) Weather Charts
d) Photographs

91. The procurement process for the opening of bids up to the award of contract shall not exceed:
a) 1 month
b) 2 months
c) 3 months
d) 4 months

92. Where do we base and reckon the computation of the contract price escalation of a project
that is awarded thru simplified bidding?
a) Notice to proceed
b) Date of bidding
c) Approval of the contract
d) None of the above

93. What is the allowable variance from the original unit price, so that a contract will be entitled
to contract price escalation?
a) Less than 2 %
b) Less than 5 %
c) More than 5 %
d) Less than 3 %

94. The government may rescind the contract work if there is:
a) Delay in the payment of contractor’s claim for billing
b) Existing right-of-way problem
c) Undue delay attributable solely to the contractor
d) Adverse peace and order conditions

95. From the time of project was bid to the issuance of notice to proceed, how many calendar
days is required for a project to be entitled to contract priced adjustment?
a) 60
b) 90
c) 120
d) 150
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Set No. 86

96. After the issuance of the “Punch List” during the pre-final inspection, what is the time
duration imposed to complete the project without penalties?
a) one month
b) two months
c) three months
d) four months

97. An Extra Work Order may be issued if:

a) There are additional works necessary but were not included as items of works in the
original contract
b) The aggregate amount of the variation order is more than 25% of the original contract
cost
c) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
d) The introduction of new work necessary for the completion improvement or protection of
the project which was not included as Item of Work in the original contract

98. A variation orders may be in the form of the following except:

a) Extra Work Order
b) Change Order
c) Supplemental Agreement
d) None of the above

99. Which does not fall under the condition when a change order can be issued?
a) The cumulative amount of the positive or additive V.O. does not exceed ten percent
(10%) of the original contract price
b) There is a decrease in work due to deletion of work items or sections of the project
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d) There is reclassification of an existing item due to latent conditions which were not
known at the time of bidding

100. A change order may be issued when:

a) The aggregate cost is limited to 25% of original contract cost
b) The aggregate cost exceeds 25% of the original contract cost
c) There are additional works which were not included as items of work in the original
contract
d) To cover any increase/decrease in quantities of original work items in the contract

17