REVIEW QUESTIONS Answer: 5 holes/km/lane

13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m
1. What is the sample for compressive strength selected borrow topping (Item 104)? 25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an
determination of a structural concrete? Answer: 3 grading tests original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried
Answer: concrete cylinder sample weight of 138.2 grams?
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if Answer: 17.58%
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200
concrete? if finer than the required materials? 26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication
Answer: Slump test Answer: blend Item 200 with coarser materials does it mean?
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item Answer: the soil is clayey
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality 201?
test? Answer: maximum of 25% and maximum of 27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that
Answer: 1.0 m/10,000kg/size/shipment 6% respectively the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?
Answer: if the sample reaches its constant
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m 16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201? weight
fresh concrete? Answer: 80% maximum
Answer: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample 28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of shall be maintained?
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. concrete pavement? Answer: 110 ± 5°C
sheets? Answer: Blown Asphalt
Answer:3 pcs-60mm x 60mm in 1 sht/100shts 29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue weighing is advisable?
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Book)? Answer: because it can affect its weight
Answer: Reflectorized paint Answer: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture
7. What is that construction material that has a property 19. What is the machine used for abrasion test? content from natural moisture content?
of being a dark brown to black cementitious material Answer: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine Answer: HYGROSCOPIC MOISTURE CONTENT is
in which the predominating substance is bitumen? the moisture content of an air – dried sample
Answer: asphalt 20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items while NATURAL MOISTURE CONTENT is the
104, 200, & 201? moisture content of the original sample from
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous Answer: by Field Density Test thefield.
prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours 21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI? 31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs sample
Answer: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit represents?
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack Answer: 2000 bags
coat? 22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis?
Answer: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq. m Answer: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution 32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be
Test, Mechanical Analysis submitted for Quality Test?
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? Answer: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
Answer: 0 to 30 penetration grade 23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet
density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture 33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using
Answer: concrete beam sample 1,960 kg/m3? a pump Crete to pump out the fresh concrete mix,
Answer: 101.86% what admixture should it be?
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item Answer: Super plasticizer
201 (Aggregate Base Course)? 24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1)
Answer: CBR, abrasion, GPCD kilometer concrete pavement? 34. What is the use of blown asphalt?
1
 Answer: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or
penetration grade asphalt?
Answer: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion –
Compression Test be soaked in water?
Answer: 4 days @ 50°C
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement?
Answer: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue,
Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____
Answer: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15%
beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping
concrete sample?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with
hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing
sample after its initial curing?
Answer: 23°C ± 1.7°C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test.
Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for
a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately prior
to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of
the specimen at all times.
Answer: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be
removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should
be cured to the standard curing temperature of 73.4
°F ± 3°F
Answer: Twenty – four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil?
Answer: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests
should pass to what sieve?
Answer: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given
for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180?
Answer: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for
sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer
shall be applied?
Answer: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an
aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt
by weight of mix?
Answer: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat?
Answer: Cut – back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be
evenly spread over the surface at the rate of
approximately _____?
Answer: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to
your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range
of asphalt content?
Answer: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and
GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind
of soil?
Answer: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9
bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”?
Answer: 8 bags/cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the
responsibility of the_____?
Answer: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start
sampling and testing aggregates?
Answer: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class
“P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive
strength for concrete Class “C”?
Answer: 3,000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not
exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown
on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the mixer,
except that an overload up to _____ percent above
the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted
provided concrete test data for strength, segregation,
and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided
that no spillage of concrete takes place.
Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the
measurement of any core taken from pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals
parallel to the centerline in each direction from
the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower
penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher
penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any
construction material?
Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____?
Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to
determine _____?
Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix
for each full day’s operation?
Answer: at least one but not to exceed three
samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based
on how many measurements?
Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based
on how many measurements?
Answer: nine (9)
2
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the
structure it represents is defective, why?
Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a
one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______.
Answer: overheating during the process of
manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315
pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the
project?
Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000
cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How
many samples shall be submitted for CBR test and for
sieve analysis?
Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for
sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if
60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the
project?
Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for
Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m?
Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly
Reports?
Answer: Summary of field tests and status of
test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505
(Stone Masonry)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by
volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500
(Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by
volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the
technician must have a program on how many
samples for each item of work should be tested based
on the minimum testing requirements. What program
or report is this?
Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing
samples for test, what is the alternative way of
reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two
opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test
specimens molded and cured have attained the
minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not
conducted prior to the specified age the pavement
shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after
the concrete was placed.
Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should
know how many sample has been submitted and
tested and how many samples are to be submitted, in
other words the ME must refer to what report so that
he/she may be updated on the balance and on file
quality test of the construction materials being used in
the project?
Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil
can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to
1/8” (3.2 mm).
Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content
corresponding to 25 blows.
Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the
use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After
the test, the height of concrete measured is 178 mm.
what is the slump of the concrete?
Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an
abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of
wear?
Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following
corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine
aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs,
and water = 15 liters. What is your actual batch
weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine
aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130
liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine,
the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this
material is for Item 201, does it pass the DPWH
specs?
Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50%
maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted
every _____?
Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it
that all the construction materials be tested:
Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment
per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of
concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength
and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing
the name of the project, the quantity represented,
kind of sample, original source, who sampled and who
submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted
and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you
as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
3
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in
layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick
Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with
regards to the number of days of a quality test that
takes place. Since not all construction materials can be
tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the
lead time should he consider for a quality test of a
cement sample?
Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should
be soaked for how many days before testing?
Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil
Classification, what test that its result be used in field
density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density
Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your
scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue
your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is
high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and
asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what
test?
Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test?
Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test?
Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete
mix?
Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60
cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided
as an erosion control measures and also to improve
the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control
design of foundation condition, a soil sample was
taken for field and laboratory tests. The test required
for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content,
Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative
density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground
drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the
top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a
maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
103. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 15 kgs to a
maximum of 25 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 20 kgs.
Answer: Class A
104. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 60 kgs to a
maximum of 100 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 80 kgs.
Answer: Class C
105. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 100 kgs to a
maximum of 200 kgs with at least 50% of the stones
weighing more than 1500 kgs.
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry.
Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300.
Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300.
Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300.
Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size.
Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids
Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of
solids
Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures
permeability, capillarity, measures the potential
cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability,
indicates the clay fraction of a binder material,
measures the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except
Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the
following will determine the economical thickness,
except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural
state.
Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined,
except
Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit,
group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design
strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
for floor slabs.
4
 Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design
strength – 70%)
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength
– 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
for columns.
Answer: 2 days (minimum % of design strength
– 70%)
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works
for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength
– 70%)
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the
head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to
support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer.
Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water.
Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and
heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts
of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders,
columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced
abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings.
Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive
pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls,
unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of
reinforcement.
Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections,
railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel
grid floors.
Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete 142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in
structures and members. strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10%
Answer: Class P to less than 15%
Answer: 70%
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit
Answer: 1.50 m 143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed
when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings in the concreting operation
Answer: Item 612 Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer 144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing
for Item 300 edge of the straight edge between contacts with the
Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm surface in Item 310
Answer: 6.0 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with
range of _____ 145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after
Answer: 3% to 5 % the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be
treated with bituminous curing seal, how much is the
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____ rate of application?
Answer: plain bars Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is
Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when _____
tested in 14 days. Answer: four (4)
Answer: 3.80 MPa
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following,
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than except
150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers 148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil,
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and
_____ shape of grain, Atterberg limits
Answer: 80%
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for sieve are the ff., except
Item 201. Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
Answer: ± 10 mm
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to highway subgrade material
alternate US standard Answer: Group Index
Answer: No. 40
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how
minimum density is _____ many sets of concrete beam samples shall be
Answer: 1,120 kg/m3 required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m,
thickness = 230 mm
5
 Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings
Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow
toppings
Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid
limit and plastic limit exceeds
Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material
density is
Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by
layer
Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment
Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be
carried out for each 500 m 2 of each layer of
compacted fill?
Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200
Answer: 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200
Answer: 35%
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200
Answer: 2”
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-
base course is determined in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 96
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200
Answer: 50%
166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200
Answer: 25%
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base
course is determined by
Answer: AASHTO T 193
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer
of aggregate sub-base course
Answer: 100%
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-
base course material shall be made in accordance with
Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course
materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____
allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog)
blended with crushed stones or gravel.
Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material
under grading B
Answer: 1 ½ inch
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202
Answer: 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least
one (1) fractured face of Item 202
Answer: 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202
Answer: 80%
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under
grading A
Answer:1 ½ inch
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under
grading A
Answer: 2”
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under
grading B
Answer: 1 inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course
composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper
proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a
prepared subgrade/subbase.
Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course
(Item 203)
179. The required plasticity index for Item 203
Answer: 4% to 10%
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the
aggregate on Item 203
Answer: 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under
grading A and B
Answer: 2”
182. Item number for water?
Answer: Item 714
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent
of lime to be added to the soil aggregate?
Answer: 3% to 12%
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203
Answer: 100%
185. Required percent compaction for Item 203
Answer: 100%
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling
Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling
Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel
roller
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the
asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame
Answer: flash point
6
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a
measurement of roughness from the surface profile
which may be expressed in terms of International
Roughness Index.
Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring
Device
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the
structural properties of existing pavement with
unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt?
Answer: MC – 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the
method used to determine the casting length of the
regular piles?
Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure
differential deflection between joints of a concrete
pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing
slabs for use in the design of an overlay, and to
determine the remaining life of existing pavement.
Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars,
conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in
concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure
for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as
soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently or as
soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment
consuming radioactive material which is commonly
used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt
road construction and in the measurement of moisture
content?
Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement
deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The
results of the elastic deformation tests are used to
evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help
in the design of road strengthening measures and
road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection
Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the
quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete?
This instrument is a non – destructive portable
instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x
160 mm and its main uses includes the determination
of concrete strength (either in – situ or pre –
cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks
and other imperfections.
Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
199. Soil stabilizing agent
Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – fro sandy soil
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to
liquid state.
Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid
to plastic state.
Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi
– solid.
Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the
adjoining slabs together are called _____
Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of
15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the
area represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if
high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not
exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is
conducted _____
Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous
mixture?
Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the
bituminous mixture?
Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria
for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for
heavy traffic is ____
Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is
the maximum load resistance that a specimen will
develop at _____
Answer: 60°
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how
many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design
under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is
the grade of the asphalt?
Answer: 85 – 100
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I
Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be
used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam
sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint
method.
Answer: 4.50 MPa
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement
are _____
Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done
usually at _____
Answer: Within 24 hours
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement
7
 Answer: 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form
method of paving is _____
Answer: 1 ½ inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein
no payment of contract price allowed is _____
Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single
traffic lane is poured?
Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two
lanes lane are poured concurrently?
Answer: 500 ln. m
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam
specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of
pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
Answer: Prime Coat
228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment?
Answer: Item 304
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material
in job – mix formula for Item 310?
Answer: ± 0.4%
230. This item consists of an application of bituminous
material with or without the application of
aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for
Item 310.
Answer: ± 10°C
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for
each full day’s operation?
Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310
when placed?
Answer: 107°C
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an
existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with
bituminous materials preparatory to the construction
of bituminous surface course.
Answer: Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat
using asphalt cement?
Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat
using cut – back asphalt?
Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the
surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the
straight edge between any two contacts with
the surface?
Answer: 6 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310?
Answer: 1.40 MPa
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of
Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65?
Answer: 70% minimum

223. What is the required compressive strength that 234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310. 245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
concrete piles be moved? Answer: 5 kph No. 4 and larger sieve.
Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day Answer: ±7
compressive strength 235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint
or crack. 246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – Answer: faulting No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive).
20 mm Ø reinforcing steel. Answer: ±4
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø 236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness
and above = 10d) determination, it shall have a diameter of at least 247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing
______ No. 200 sieve.
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during Answer: 100 mm Answer: ±2
batching.
Answer: 4 to 6 rpm 237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement 248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation
content shall be _____ from imposed load.
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in Answer: ± 1.0 mass % Answer: stability
water?
Answer: 10 to 20 cm 238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the 249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental
slope using Class D stones for riprap. effects of air, water, temperature and traffic.
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – Answer: durability
aggregate base course preparatory to the 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
construction of a bituminous surface course.
8
 250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated
flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads.
Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without
cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and
moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310.
Answer: 92% to 95%
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the
effect of water on the cohesion of the mix?
Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is
the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement?
Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt,
Immersion – Compression Test is performed.
Answer: stability
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt
increases in Marshall Stability.
Answer: decrease
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt
mix, what apparatus is used?
Answer: armored thermometer
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as:
Answer: highly organic soils
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub –
base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials,
efficiency of the equipment used and the
construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly
paved asphalt road?
Answer: excessive asphalt content
261. A good subgrade soil should have the following:
Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in
order to _____
Answer: determine the trend of its strength
development
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe
tested in a three – edge bearing test machine?
Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load
should be continuous without shock at a constant
rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression);
125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period
of time and that there is already doubt as to its
quality should:
Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to
make it more suitable for a particular purpose.
Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs
from each other, third test is taken. What will be
this test?
Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of
concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to
use core samples to determine the strength. What is
the required compressive strength?
Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the
application of asphalt mix?
Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may
_____
Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing
steel
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is
considered _____
Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is
considered _____
Answer: very stable
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above
categories is considered ___
Answer: normal
274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil?
Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic
soil
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction
of soil. It is also a control test in embankment
construction to ensure adequate compaction.
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it
affects the accuracy of the result. True or false?
Answer: true
277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried
sample?
Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of
the sun
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the
heat of the sun, what alternative should be used?
Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve
size?
Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No.
4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾
inch
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180
compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with
a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs)
rammer with an 18” drop.
281. What is particle size analysis?
9
 Answer: It is the determination of particle size
distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a
combined analysis
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test
especially if it deals with chemicals?
Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed
to drop sharply on the base through a height of
_____?
Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a
liquid limit be rotated?
Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil
thread begin to break?
Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
286. What is specific gravity?
Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric
relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of
the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a
stated temperature)
287. What is the approximate area for density control
strips?
Answer: 335 sq. m
288. What Item of work is embankment?
Answer: Item 104
289. What kind of material for Item 200?
Answer: Aggregate sub – base course
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow
for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm
or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass %
will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item
200 and 201?
Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density
curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and
Optimum moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for
field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing,
uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained
No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT
sand cone?
Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT?
Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide
plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or
digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials
(tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for
specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water?
Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the
saturated dry condition?
Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test
for surface moisture. If the molded shape of
fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that
it has reached a surface dry condition
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?
Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific
gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse
aggregate = grading, specific gravity,
absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per
request
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast –
iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each
weighing between 390 – 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for
abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12
as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
301. What is significance of abrasion test?
Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of
coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of
quality as determined by resistance to impact
and wear. It also determines whether the
aggregates will have degradation during traffic
or rolling.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for
abrasion test?
Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be
tested for flexural test?
Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete
beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete
beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling
concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the
tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of
the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test,
how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more
than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing
concrete masonry units?
Answer:
10
 Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi)
minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9
MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load
bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi)
minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5
MPa (600 psi) minimum
310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel
bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile
strength of the bar as well as its elongation
and is used to classify the bars into grade.
311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of
RSB
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints?
Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or
pail)
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt?
Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous
prime coat be left undisturbed?
Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat?
Answer: cut – back asphalt
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken
for every how many pieces of RCCP?
Answer: 25 pieces
317. What is being determined in a core sample from
asphalt pavement?
Answer: thickness and density of pavement
318. All records regarding quality control such as
accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are
recorded in a _____
Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ
test that measures what?
Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of
conveying concrete is called _____
Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m
and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the
pavement was designed to have subbase and base
courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the
thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading
and compaction of the base and subbase courses
shall be carried out in _____?
Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of
4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the
anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be
permitted?
Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best
established through what?
Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the
course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME
assigned to the project, what is the most effective
and cheaper method that you would recommend to
stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the
subbase course?
Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete
specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be
rodded?
Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued
whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or
_______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate,
displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should
be less than ____
Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a
300 pcs RCCP?
Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs
RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test?
Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete
mix in order to increase its workability (provided
concrete does not excced specified slump), how
many minutes after the initial time of mixing does
adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that
water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are
commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the
distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products
of the distillation of crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts?
Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt,
emulsified asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
11
 CATIONIC EMULSION – works better
with wet aggregates and in cold 344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and 354. How is concrete consolidated?
weather. It is a positively charge electron. compaction and is of great significance in the Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to strength of the resulting pavement? concrete vertically
aggregates which have positive charge. It is Answer: temperature
a negatively charge electron. 355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done? joint in a form of a keyway is used?
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310? Answer: It should begin from the sides and Answer: longitudinal construction joint
Answer: asphalt cement proceed longitudinally parallel towards the
center line, each trip overlapping one half the 356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement? roller’s width. stated in the preceding problem?
Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt Answer: deformed steel tie bars
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked?
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt Answer: degree of compaction 357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when
selected? sawed with a concrete saw?
Answer: climatic condition 347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal Answer: not less than 50 mm
to or greater than _____
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted 358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____
the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula? density Answer: not less than 6 mm
Answer: three (3) weeks
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the 359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the
339. Who will approve the job – mix formula? pavement? joint prior to the time of sawing?
Answer: DPWH PE and ME Answer: when the pavement has cooled to Answer: sawing shall be omitted
atmospheric temperature
340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the 360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____
following: 349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement? Answer: asphalt or other materials
Answer: Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
a. grading of aggregates 361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer
b. percentage and type of asphalt 350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete device held in a position parallel to the surface and
c. temperature of aggregates and if not vibrated? center line of the slab of pavement?
asphalt Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm Answer: dowel
d. temperature of mixture upon
delivery or time of compaction 351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete 362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate
if vibrated? sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____
341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm Answer: thin film of bitumen
mixture shall be placed?
Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC 352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, 363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by
what is the time of mixing? means of _____
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than Answer: brooming
the required density? 90 seconds
Answer: when the mixture is still hot and 364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by
workable 353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed brooming in the surface of the pavement?
from the time water is added to the mix until the Answer: 1.5 mm
343. What is to be done in order to determine the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
number of passes that would attain the required Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if 365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has
density? hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____
Answer: trial section minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators Answer: 72 hours
12
 Answer: pothole patching Answer: Certificate of Quality Control
366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the Assurance (submitted weekly)
following: 375. VMA means
Answer: Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates 389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from
a. by covering the concrete with mats Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
saturated with water 376. The compaction temperature in molding the
b. by thoroughly wetting the bituminous mixture specimen 390. The type of electron present in rapid curing
pavement Answer: 124ºC emulsified asphalt?
c. by ponding Answer: cationic
d. by applying curing compound 377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is
immediately after finishing of the Answer: 163ºC 391. How many group of three in – situ densities are
surface required if the compacted volume of embankment
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness
367. When is the right time to seal the joints? Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC of 200 mm/layer?
Answer: after the curing period or before it is Answer: fifteen (15)
opened to traffic 379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from
Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC 392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item reinforcing steel is
505 (bluebook ’95)? 380. The maximum absorption content of CHB Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders Answer: 240 kg/m3
and the ratio of cement and fine sand 393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB a deformed and plain billet steel bar is
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the Answer: 45% Answer: 0.06%
supervision of the _____?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH 382. SPT means 394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer: Standard Penetration Test Answer:
370. The requisites in transporting samples of the TENSILE
laboratory is _____ 383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed STRENGTH YIELD POINT
Answer: Well packed in durable containers to sample GRADE 40 483
avoid damages in transit, accompanied by a Answer: Shelby tube MPa 276 MPa
sample card filled up in detail and duly signed GRADE 60 621
by the ME 384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample MPa 414 MPa
Answer: wax GRADE 75 689
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or MPa 517 MPa
rejection of construction materials for use in the 385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample
project based on test results? Answer: split spoon sampler 395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH Answer: clay content
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives empirical results which can be used to estimate shear 396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the
color and hardness. strength and bearing capacity laboratory compaction test is
Answer: asphaltene Answer: Standard Penetration Test Answer: air – dried condition

373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous 387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring 397. The method in the determination of density of soil in
mix is passing sieve? Answer: diamond bit – place
Answer: No. 200 Answer: Sand cone method
388. CQCA means
374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____
13
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is 407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with Answer: Latex
passing the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly
Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200 appears in which the material lies flat, it indicates 418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in
Answer: excessive asphalt zinc coating test.
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR? Answer: Triple spot test
Answer: 408. Where and when was the first use of Portland
a. subbase materials cement? 419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with
b. surfacing materials Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893) lightest coating.
c. base course materials Answer: Single spot test
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25 th
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of 420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is
cast – iron spheres or steel spheres. the soil. a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle.
Answer: Answer: Flow curve Answer: Enamel
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres 410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____ 421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0
GRADING C – 8 spheres Answer: abrasion loss to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and
GRADING D – 6 spheres adequate compaction. The supporting value of a material
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
after all ingredients including water is in the drum is mm? Answer: good subgrade material
Answer: 100 rpm Answer: 24.7 liters
422. It determines the target density which is constructed
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet 412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about at the beginning of the work on each course of material
mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used _____ to be compacted.
(Item 206) Answer: 2.75 Answer: Control strips
Answer: two (2) hours
413. The standard packaging weight of cement 423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the Answer: 40 kg/bag a compact mass in its fina position.
speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
set. 414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete
Answer: 40 kph pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid 424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint.
evaporation of water from the mix. Answer: 2.15
404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its Answer: curing compound
preparation 425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint.
Answer: 90 minutes 415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, Answer: 102.5ºC
traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying,
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and possess 426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint.
correct method that should be followed is improved visibility at night. Answer: 10 minutes
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the Answer: reflectorized paint
face of the previously placed concrete. 427. The rate of application of traffic paint.
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the night time.
pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you Answer: glass beads 428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint.
recommend? Answer: 15 – 30 minutes
Answer: conduct recoring 417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry
units. 429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized
paint.
14
 Answer: 10 kg
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or
height of compacted bituminous paving mixture.
Answer: vernier caliper
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the
mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt
pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted
bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry
specimens.
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen.
Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on
Answer: mass of dry aggregates
434. The method used to determine the grading of
aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted
aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of
asphalt.
Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the relative
proportion of asphalt to oil.
Answer: Distillation
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to
melt.
Answer: Softening point
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed
through the formula
Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for
Item 310.
Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked?
Answer: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix
bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix
bituminous pavement are there in the blue book?
Answer: two (2)
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured
at
Answer: approximately quarter points
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes
Answer: bleeding
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
Answer: not greater than 4
446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by
dislodging of aggregate particle.
Answer: raveling
447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small
blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire.
Answer: alligator cracking
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated
quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of
each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles
of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall
not exceed
Answer: 10 mass %
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of
sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not
exceed
Answer: 12 mass %
451. Additives used in concrete mixing.
Answer: admixtures
452. The test that determines the resistance of
aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of
sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook
is based on
Answer: Absolute Design Method
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less
than
Answer: 45 minutes
455. The final setting time of Portland cement
Answer: 10 hours
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar
strength of Portland cement
Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of
Portland cement by air permeability
Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
458. A mixture of cement and water is
Answer: cement paste
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final
setting of Portland cement in the laboratory.
Answer: Gillmore needle
460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples
in 7 days is
Answer: 19.3 MPa
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste
which fails to meet the autoclave?
Answer: crumbled
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete
Answer: first seven (7) days
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the
sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that
will show the nature and condition of the materials which
they represent.
Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent
tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes
which will pass certain sieves.
15
 Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil
samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties.
Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
467. The representative who will witness the testing of
materials in an accredited laboratory.
Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum
disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides
clean hole before insertion of thin – walled tubes that is,
both the natural density and moisture content are
preserved as much as practicable.
Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting
of fresh concrete.
Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum
early compressive strength of concrete.
Answer: accelerator
471. The best enemy of construction.
Answer: water
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental
quantities of organic materials such
as grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat
and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80%
and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture
content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density,
800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly
compacted as determined by the
engineer
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No.
200, grading A for aggregate base course?
Answer: 0 – 12% Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than
0.002”
474. The rate of application of special curing agent
Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m 485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by
_____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by
475. The method of measurement for determining the _____.
depth of the river channel. Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
Answer: sounding
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what and areas that have previously patched by asphalt
Atterberg limit test can be performed? by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: Liquid limit test Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100
psi
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into
the surface of timber is 487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled
Answer: 20mm amount of air on the form moist in concrete during
mixing without significantly altering the setting or
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the rate of characteristic of concrete.
the treating process of timber. Answer: air entraining admixtures
Answer: 10 days
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled
479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ against actual and by speed task to make – up for
maximum clear opening. the past or future loss of time.
Answer: 2mm Answer: Delivery control
480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid 489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the
injury using gravity hammer. pavement surface.
Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) ` Answer: potholes
4.5m (timber)
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates (surface waves) across the pavement.
of any size, shape and gradation. Answer: corrugation
Answer: Compaction
491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity bulging of the pavement.
index are poor as engineering materials. Answer: shoving
Answer: liquid limit of fines
492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths.
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt Answer: rutting
overlay depending on the expected traffic and the
modulus of the cracked and seated pavement 492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road?
section. Answer: base or subbase course
Answer: 3” to 5”
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the point of deposit by pneumatic means.
the mean deflection is ____ or the differential Answer: 3 meters
deflection is ____.
16
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced
by traffic in the subbase and subgrade.
Answer: base course
495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered.
Answer: 40 times bar Ø
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete
in all structures except pavements conforming to
the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons.
Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry
the roadway structure.
Answer: transom
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by
using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is
_____.
Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler?
Answer: 50mm
501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling.
Answer: 1.50m length
502. The initial diameter of bore hole.
Answer: 76mm
503. What is the core bit diameter?
Answer: 67mm
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline
of roads for 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline
of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic.
Answer: 500m (along centerline)
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline
for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new Answer: Cordoning
road)
517. This method is used when soil shows termite
507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge infestation.
project Answer: Drenching
Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m 518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not
run) exceed _____
1 boring for each pier for multi – span Answer: 22%
(3m into the bed rocks)
519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over exceed _____
foundation area of dam. Answer: 14%
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along
centerline 520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position.
Depth = ½ times base width Answer: 244 kg/m2
509. For ports and harbors projects: 521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank.
Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)
522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on
510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2): concrete/steel pile at each stroke.
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the Answer: 831.48 kg/m
structure and one on the interior (9m below
lowest foundation) 523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion
of the splice below ground line or seabed.
511. For buildings less than 930 m2 Answer: 2.5 meters
Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a creeks or esteros and other bodies of water.
minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm. Answer: dredging
Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
525. The slope of batter piles
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened Answer: 1:6
plane is delayed.
Answer: shrinkage cracking 526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than
____
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design Answer: 0.12%
criteria in design?
Answer: consistency 527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in
design
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting Answer: 20%
operations.
Answer: ± 4mm 528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the
building outline has been established on the ground.
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no Answer: Minor excavation
visible evidence of termite infestation.
17
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction
bearing capacity.
Answer: footing
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3)
storey and above.
Answer: Boring test
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other
minor structure on the ground.
Answer: 700mm
532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted
fill.
Answer: 100mm
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is
usually provided to support a column.
Answer: Spread footing
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of
_____ of the manufactured state.
Answer: ± 3%
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction
obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the
compaction specs and needs additional
compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually
Answer: greater than plastic limit
537. The blue book requires that the base course be
compacted at least
Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that
the delivered materials are different from the on
tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you
do?
Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for
verification
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of
the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
540. Measure of construction materials for concrete
structure shall be
Answer: volume
541. The moisture density curve if different from each
soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally
have fairly high maximum density
at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC
than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater
densities than uniform soil at OMC
d. none of the above
542. What should be done on the subbase course with
existing moisture content of 10% higher than the
optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to
the required thickness and compact
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for
asphalt pavement thickness
Answer: - 5mm
544. Geosynthetics may be used for
Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement,
erosion control
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining
moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder
546. Steel bars are considered undersize if
Answer: its nominal diameter as determined
by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested
for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend?
Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
548. Concrete curing refers to
Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete
strength
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its
engineering properties?
Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application
of energy and addition of water as lubricant?
Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in
concrete pavement is
Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for
AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test?
Answer: 0.002124 m3
553. A material resulting from the disintegration,
grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass
2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm
sieve
Answer: sand
554. What is ASTM?
Answer: American Society for Testing &
Materials
555. What is AASHTO?
Answer: American Association of State
Highway & Transportation Officials
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has
prepared a revised laboratory
testing procedure manual, in order to have be
consistent with the latest methods as prescribed
under
Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
18
557. What is the category of contractor that are required
by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or
apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in
Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve?
Answer: colloids
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at
least _____ above the specimen
Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting
predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and
containing silt – clay materials
Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded
with an average dimension between 75mm –
305mm
Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree
on the roadside to make them denser and grow
straight.
Answer: Pruning
564. The road near or abutting a bridge.
Answer: Approach
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done
Answer: before the construction work
566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity
Answer: sand and gravel
567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be
made at a maximum interval of
Answer: 20 meters
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the
strength of the subgrade
material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to
fill ≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly within 600 mm of the other grade
asphalted which showed a lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement 578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
area with irregularity Answer: the material shall be taken from
borrow locations and shall be deposited so as
570. Controlled Density Method in embankment to form the grade and cross section and shall
construction involves be thoroughly compacted
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in
layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose 579. What is the principal factor used in determining the
materials and extending to the full width of thickness of the pavement?
the embankment Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE
(deterioration due to frustration move also be
571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it considered)
was not cured immediately after final placement
especially during the first seven days? 580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present
572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh under the embankment correctivework
concrete? consists of placing a surcharge constructed to
Answer: Liquid membrane forming the full width of the road bed. The surcharge
shall remain in place until the embankment
573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen? has reached stability or the required
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and settlement
tested at the specified date
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method
574. When to remove the false work of continuous Embankment?
structure? Answer: this involves the introduction of water
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on into the embankment to accelerate
each side have reached the specified strength consideration
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of 582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous
silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high binder and water for surface sealing
void rather and usually not high water content Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
Answer: Weak Subgrade
583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment? Answer:
Answer: the material shall be deposited and Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt.
spread in layers not more than 300 mm in retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the
finished grade and extending to the full width original wt.
of the embankment
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which
577. What is Rock Embankment Method? creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the usually becomes quite sticky
fill and push over the end of the fill by means Answer: bleeding
19
 Answer: Mechanic Stabilization Answer: Type V
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint
caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during 598. What is the common material employed in 608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace
hot weather stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and Slag Cement?
Answer: buckling hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction Answer: Type 1S
process by slowing the rate of evaporation of
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the moisture from the soil 609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan
concrete pavement Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt Cement?
Answer: crushing Answer: Type 1P
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture 610. Type I is for general use such as
of the free haul distance content increases. Granular material becomes Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings &
Answer: Overhaul unstable if it has dried bridges and tanks & water pipes

588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical
slurry ratio?
Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the
soil aggregates in Item 204?
Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics?
Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
591. What is quality?
Answer: It the degree of excellence
592. What is control?
Answer: Is to regulate
593. What is quality control?
Answer: It is conformance to requirements
594. What is assurance?
Answer: it the degree of certainty
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road
construction aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save
heating costs and from convenience in road –
mixing or priming
601. The theory of concrete design mix is to
Answer: Optimize aggregate packing
optimizes properties of cement mortar
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar,
one has to depend on
Answer: cement type, cement content and
water content
603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland
Cement (OPC)?
Answer: Type I
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate
Resistant Portland Cement?
Answer: Type II
611. Type III cement is used for
Answer: early stripping of forms & high early
strength
612. Type IV is used for
Answer: massive structures such as dams
and 613. Type V cement is used for
Answer: when sulphate content of
groundwater is very high
614. The inventor of Portland cement was
Answer: Joseph Aspdin
615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials
containing
Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part
clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore,
then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker

595. What are the two kinds of control activities? 605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening 617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material
Answer: Inspection and Testing Portland Cement? called
Answer: Type III Answer: volcanic earth
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from
subgrade level? 606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland 618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement
Answer: 4 – 5 feet Cement? is composed of
Answer: Type IV Answer: C3S and C2S
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil
in suitable properties to produce good grading on 607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant 619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is
gravel, sand, silt and clay? Portland Cement? controlled by
20
 Answer: C3A and C4AF
620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____
process is developed
Answer: hydration
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH) 2]
are developed when _____ is added to Portland
cement
Answer: water
622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means
Answer: the setting time is larger
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when
mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s
Answer: alkalinity
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from
Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
625. The water required for concrete mix should be
Answer: fresh water
626.Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on
admixture is added because it contains
Answer: chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate
632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require
more water to be workable, but making it so
will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will
be considered adequate if the average strength of
the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the
specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than
_____
Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the
_____ for organic impurities
Answer: Colormatic Test
635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps
of cake cement and it comes from a discarded
or used bag
636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of
aggregates
Answer: fineness modulus
Answer: five (5)
643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive
settlement occur leading to failure
Answer: bearing capacity
644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt
overlay
Answer: 2”
645. In the test to determine the moisture content of
samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to
Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the
prescribed time after being removed from the oven,
it will placed inside a
Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how
many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass
Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and
must be weighed after it has been removed from
the oven within
Answer: 1 hour

627. The entrapped air in concrete is
Answer: accidental and unwanted
628. The entrained air in concrete is
Answer: deliberate and desirable
629. We use aggregate in concrete as
Answer: filler materials in concrete
630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they
strongly influence:
Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix
proportion and its economy
631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to
concrete?
Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse 649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant
aggregates weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time
Answer: free water depends on the kind of soil and size of sample. A
25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in
638. What do you mean by SSD? about
Answer: Saturated Surface Dry Answer: 2 hours
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix 650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above
with respect to its fluidity Answer: Boring Test
Answer: consistency
651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil
640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is Answer: calcium tri – chloride
Answer: objectionable
652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate
641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as is
Answer: Water – reducing admixture Answer: low
642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into 653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated
how many equal segments? pavement
21
 Answer: hot – mix asphalt
654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk
Answer: 1.5 m
655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete
Answer: 0.50 – 0.60
656. A cement which has a cementitious effect
Answer: Portland cement
657. A concrete where compression is induced before
the application of working load so that tension
under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the
phosphorus content of steel materials?
Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel
material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness
when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of
proposed concrete pavement
Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content,
how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m 3 from
(water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m 3 of
average (water)
662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of %
air entrained?
Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger
aggregates)
663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of air
entrained?
Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will
happen if air content is involved?
Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement
ratio and maintaining other values of its
ingredients?
Answer: it will acquire strength
666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90
seconds
667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates,
batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____
Answer: 1 ½ hours
668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed
and stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be
stockpiled or binned for draining
669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes
upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as
32ºC temperature is present
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must
be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of
the drum or Olader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial
setting of concrete
671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid,
what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible
in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
22