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Which of the following .

It is used for identification of


In a precipitation reaction, High affinity and high avidity correctly describes reverse antigens.
how can the ideal antibody passive agglutination?
be characterized?
Reactions involving IgG may . It may be too small to produce
Precipitation differs from Precipitation involves a soluble need to be enhanced for lattice formation.
agglutination in which way? antigen, whereas agglutination which reason?
involves a particulate antigen.
For which of the following Agglutination inhibition
When soluble antigens Zone of equivalence tests is a lack of
diffuse in a gel that contains agglutination a positive
antibody, in which zone does reaction?
optimum precipitation occur?
Typing of RBCs with reagent Direct hemagglutination
Which of the following Readings are taken before antiserum represents which
statements apply to rate equivalence is reached, It is type of reaction?
nephelometry? more sensitive than turbidity,
and Measurements are time In a particle-counting The patient has a large amount
dependent immunoassay using reagent of antigen present.
antibody attached to latex
Which of the following is Concentration is directly in particles, if the particle count
characteristic of the proportion to the square of the in solution is very low, what
end-point diameter. does this mean about the
method of RID? presence of patient antigen?

In which zone might an Prozone Which of the following The concentration of patient
antibody-screening test be statements accurately analyte is inversely proportional
false negative? describes competitive to bound label.
binding assays?

How does measurement of Nephelometry measures light How do heterogeneous Heterogeneous assays require
turbidity differ from that is scattered at an angle. assays differ from a separation step.
nephelometry? homogeneous assays?

In the following equation, . 3:1


Which of the following refers Affinity what is the ratio of bound
to the force of attraction radioactive antigen (Ag*) to
between an antibody and a bound patient antigen (Ag)?
single antigenic 12Ag* + 4Ag + 4Ab → : Ag*
determinant? Ab + AgAb + Ag* + Ag

Immunofixation In immunofixation Which of the following . Requires two wash steps


electrophoresis differs from electrophoresis, antibody is responses characterizes a
imunoelectrophoresis in directly capture or sandwich enzyme
which way? applied to the gel instead of assay?
being placed in a trough.
Which of the following is an Decrease in hazardous waste
If crossed lines result in an The two antigens are unrelated. advantage of enzyme
Ouchterlony immunodiffusion immunoassay over RIA?
reaction with antigens 1 and
2, what does this indicate? Which of the following is Microbial antigens can be
characteristic of direct rapidly identified by this method
Which technique represents Radial immunodiffusion fluorescent assays?
a single-diffusion reaction?
Which of the following is true Large molecules polarize more
Which best describes the The equilibrium constant is of fluorescence polarization light than smaller molecules.
law of mass action? related to strength of immunoassay?
antigen–antibody binding.
A fluorescent substance is light energy is absorbed and
Agglutination of dyed Direct agglutination best described as one in converted to a longer
bacterial cells represents which wavelength.
which type of reaction?
In a noncompetitive enzyme Washing steps were
If a single IgM molecule can Avidity immunoassay, if a negative incomplete.
bind many more antigens control shows the presence
than a molecule of IgG, of color, which of the
which of the following is following might be a possible
higher? explanation?

Agglutination inhibition could Soluble haptens Which of the following best A chemical is oxidized to
best be used for which of the characterizes produce light.
following types of antigens? chemiluminescent assays?
Immunofluorescent assays Autofluorescence of substances be considered an b. RA
may be difficult to interpret in serum b. Nonspecific binding organ-specific autoimmune c. GPA
for which reason? to serum proteins c. Subjectivity disease? d. Hashimoto's thyroiditis
in reading results d. Any of the
above SLE can be distinguished from a. Joint pain
RA on the basis of which of b. Presence of anti-nuclear
Which statement best They are designed for the following? antibodies
describes flow-through point-of-care testing. c. Immune complex formation
immunoassays? with activation of complement
d. Presence of anti-dsDNA
Which of the following is Color is directly proportional to antibodies
characteristic of an indirect the amount of patient antigen
enzyme immunoassay? present. Which of the following would a. Anti-histone antibodies
support a diagnosis of b. Antibodies to Smith antigen
In a homogeneous enzyme Enzyme activity is directly drug-induced lupus? c. Presence of RF
immunoassay, which best proportional to the amount of d. Antibodies to SS-A and
describes the enzyme? patient antigen present. SS-B antigens

In an indirect Results will be falsely increased. A speckled pattern of staining a. Anti-dsDNA


immunofluorescent assay, of the nucleus on IIF may be b. Antibody to histones
what would be the outcome caused by which of the c. Centromere antibody
of an improper wash after following antibodies? d. Anti-SS-A/Ro antibody
the antibody-enzyme
conjugate is added? Which of the following would a. Increased TSH levels
be considered a significant b. Antibody to TSH receptor
. In a heterogeneous Dilute the patient sample finding in Graves' disease? c. Decreased T3 and T4
enzyme immunoassay, if the d. Anti-thyroglobulin antibody
patient sample produces
more color than the highest Destruction of the myelin a. Multiple sclerosis
positive control, what action sheath of axons caused by the b. Myasthenia gravis
should be taken? presence of antibody is c. Graves' disease
characteristic of which d. Anti-glomerular basement
The Label that is attached in Colloidal gold disease? membrane disease
the monoclonal antibody
used in Blood was drawn from a a. Report out as diagnostic for
immunochromatography 25-year-old woman with SLE.
suspected SLE. A FANA b. Report out as drug-induced
Machine used to measure Scintillation Counter screen was performed, and a lupus.
radioactivity speckled pattern resulted. c. Perform an assay for
Which of the following actions specific ANAs.
should be taken next? d. Repeat the test.
What are the substances - Fluorophores
that can be used as labels - Enzymes
for immunoassay? - Radioactive isotopes Which of the following is a a. Negative selection of
- Answer: all of the mechanism used to achieve autoreactive T cells in the
above peripheral tolerance? thymus
b. Apoptosis of autoreactive B
cells in the bone marrow
c. Editing of B-cell receptors
Matching Type that weakly recognize
self-antigens in the bone
Hydatid disease Casoni Intradermal Skin test marrow
d. Lack of a costimulatory
Brucellosis Brucellergin skin test signal to autoreactive T cells
in the lymph nodes
Trichinosis Bachman Intradermal Test
Epitope spreading refers to a. post-translational
modifications to self-antigens.
Lymphogranuloma venereum Frei test b. modifications in gene
expression that are not caused
Scarlet fever Dick test by changes in DNA sequence.
c. expansion of the immune
response to unrelated
Diphtheria Schick test
antigens.
d. cross-reaction of the
immune response to a
All of the following may a. clonal deletion of pathogen with a similar
contribute to autoimmunity self-reactive T cells. self-antigen.
except b. molecular mimicry.
c. increased expression of Anti-CCP (cyclic citrullinated a. Rheumatoid arthritis
class II MHC antigens. proteins) is specifically b. Myasthenia gravis
d. polyclonal activation of B associated with which c. Autoimmune hepatitis
cells. autoimmune disease? d. Systemic sclerosis

Which of the following would a. SLE Which autoantibodies are a. ANA

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