1.

I
II

III
IV
Which of the following is the location for sedimentary rock formation?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
Which of the following is the location
for sedimentary rock formation?
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. IV only
2. Igneous rocks with a porphyritic texture have both
large and small crystals. How is this possible?

a. The crystallized rock is covered by a new molten

rock that has slowly cooled.
b. The molten rock is slowly cooling when other
crystallized rocks merged with it.
c. Initially, the molten rock is slowly cooled at depth,
and then it cooled rapidly at the surface.
d. Initially, the molten rock is rapidly cooled at depth
and then slowly cooled at the surface.
2. Igneous rocks with a porphyritic texture have both
large and small crystals. How is this possible?

a. The crystallized rock is covered by a new molten

rock that has slowly cooled.
b. The molten rock is slowly cooling when other
crystallized rocks merged with it.
c. Initially, the molten rock is slowly cooled at depth,
and then it cooled rapidly at the surface.
d. Initially, the molten rock is rapidly cooled at depth
and then slowly cooled at the surface.
3. METAMORPHIC FACIES represent specific
pressure and temperature conditions. Each
facies has several mineral assemblages unique
to that facies; the assemblage depends on the
parent rock (shale vs. basalt). As the chart
below shows, certain facies are associated
with certain formation conditions, such as a
subduction zone for blueschists.
Metamorphic facies are the different
metamorphic rocks formed at the same
temperature and pressure conditions but
with different parent rocks grouped
together. Among the different
metamorphic facies which of the
following will be formed when the parent
rock is in the subduction zone of an
oceanic-continental plate boundary?
3. Which of the following will be formed
when the parent rock is in subduction zone
of an oceanic continental plate boundary?

a. Amphilobite
b. Blueschist
c. Greenschist
d. Hornfels
3. Which of the following will be formed
when the parent rock is in subduction
zone of an oceanic continental plate
boundary?

a. Amphilobite
b. Blueschist
c. Greenschist
d. Hornfels
4. David is preparing for his examination in
Human Biology. He knows that the digestive
system breaks down food to make energy for
the body, the respiratory system allows gas
exchange between cells and the environment,
and the urinary system excretes dissolved
waste products from the blood. Which of the
following body systems is closely associated
with the digestive, respiratory and excretory
system?
a. Skeletal system
b. Immune system
c. Muscular system
d. Circulatory system
a. Skeletal system
b. Immune system
c. Muscular system
d. Circulatory system
5. Why do women experience
menopause?

a. Due to the overproduction of egg

b. Due to lack of proper diet and exercise
c. Because the ovaries stop releasing egg
d. Because of the deterioration of vagina
5. Why do women experience
menopause?

a. Due to the overproduction of egg

b. Due to lack of proper diet and exercise
c. Because the ovaries stop releasing egg
d. Because of the deterioration of vagina
6. Digestion is the process of breaking down food
into substances that can be utilized. What
happens when the food reaches the stomach?

a. The food stays unchanged in the stomach.

b. Food is completely digested and absorbed.
c. Juices mix with the food and the muscles churn it.
d. The food moves quickly into the small intestine.
6. Digestion is the process of breaking down food
into substances that can be utilized. What
happens when the food reaches the stomach?

a. The food stays unchanged in the stomach.

b. Food is completely digested and absorbed.
c. Juices mix with the food and the muscles churn it.
d. The food moves quickly into the small intestine
7. Which of the following principles of relative
dating is NOT used in determining the rocks of the
Grand Canyon National Park are of the same age?
a. Principle of
superposition
b. Principle of lateral
continuity
c. Principle of original
horizontality
d. Principle of cross-
cutting relationship
7. Which of the following principles of
relative dating is NOT used in determining
the rocks of the Grand Canyon National
Park are of the same age?

a. Principle of superposition
b. Principle of lateral continuity
c. Principle of original horizontality
d. Principle of cross-cutting relationship
8. Carbon dating only works for objects that are
younger than about 50,000 years, and most rocks of
interest are older than that
A living organism takes in both carbon-12 and carbon-
14 from the environment in the same relative
proportion that they existed naturally. Once the
organism dies, it stops replenishing its carbon supply,
and the total carbon-14 content in the organism slowly
disappears. Scientists can determine how long ago an
organism died by measuring how much carbon-14 is
left relative to the carbon-12.
Carbon-14 has a half-life of 5730 years,
meaning that 5730 years after an organism
dies, half of its carbon-14 atoms have decayed
to nitrogen atoms.

A wood sample is determined to have 75%

parent material and 25% stable daughter
isotope. Which radioactive isotope would be
used to determine the age of the wood
sample and what is the age?
a. Carbon – 14 and the age of the sample
is 2865 yo.
b. Carbon – 14 and the age of the sample
is 5730 yo.
c. Potassium - 40 and the age of the
sample is 1.2 byo
d. Potassium - 40 and the age of the
sample is 625 myo
a. Carbon – 14 and the age of the
sample is 2865 yo.
b. Carbon – 14 and the age of the
sample is 5730 yo.
c. Potassium - 40 and the age of the
sample is 1.2 byo
d. Potassium - 40 and the age of the
sample is 625 myo
9. Most radiometric methods directly
measure the isotopes and their decay
products in rock samples. Two exceptions
are fission track and luminescence
(luminescence
A process in which energy stored in a
material is given off as light when suitably
stimulated.)
Fission Track Dating -This radiometric method
is often used to date crystals and glasses in
volcanic rocks that have cooled quickly,
such as volcanic ash. The commonest
minerals dated using this method
are zircon and apatite.
Zircon is common in volcanic ash, and its
crystals contain very small amounts of the
uranium-238 .
A rock sample found to have existed 80,000
years ago was dated using fission track dating.
What other ways can this rock sample be
determined?

a. Radioactive dating
b. Luminescence dating
c. Radioactive dating using Rubidium - 87
d. Radioactive dating using uranium - 238
A rock sample found to have existed 80,000
years ago was dated using fission track dating.
What other ways can this rock sample be
determined?

a. Radioactive dating
b. Luminescence dating
c. Radioactive dating using Rubidium - 87
d. Radioactive dating using uranium - 238
10. Which of the options below
depicts the given illustration below?
a. It shows that the flow of genetic information from RNA
to DNA makes a functional product which is protein.
b. It shows the flow of genetic information from DNA to
RNA to make a functional product which is protein.
c. It shows that RNA contains the information needed to
make DNA and that RNA carries this information to the
ribosome.
d. It shows that the DNA contains the information needed
to make RNA and that RNA carries this information to the
cytoplasm.
a. It shows that the flow of genetic information from
RNA to DNA makes a functional product which is
protein.
b. It shows the flow of genetic information from DNA
to RNA to make a functional product which is protein.
c. It shows that RNA contains the information needed
to make DNA and that RNA carries this information to
the ribosome.
d. It shows that the DNA contains the information
needed to make RNA and that RNA carries this
information to the cytoplasm.
11. Base pair happens when nitrogenous bases form a
hydrogen bond. Each base has a specific partner such
as guanine (G) with cytosine (C), and adenine (A) with
thymine (T). If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, what will
be the corresponding strand?

a. GCCAUT
b. GCCATG
c. GCCTAG
d. TAACGT
11. Base pair happens when nitrogenous bases form a
hydrogen bond. Each base has a specific partner such
as guanine (G) with cytosine (C), and adenine (A) with
thymine (T). If one strand of DNA is CGGTAC, what will
be the corresponding strand?

a. GCCAUT
b. GCCATG
c. GCCTAG
d. TAACGT
12. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that
results from point mutation caused by a single
nucleotide substitution that changes the
amino acid being determined. What amino
acid change occurs in sickle cell anemia?

a. Glutamine to valine
b. Valine to glutamine
c. Valine to glutamic acid
d. Glutamine to aspartic acid
12. Sickle cell anemia is a genetic disorder that
results from point mutation caused by a single
nucleotide substitution that changes the
amino acid being determined. What amino
acid change occurs in sickle cell anemia?

a. Glutamine to valine
b. Valine to glutamine
c. Valine to glutamic acid
d. Glutamine to aspartic acid
13. The food-making process by which all
plants use light energy to produce glucose
from carbon dioxide and water is called
photosynthesis. What is the food-making
process in animals?

a. lipid synthesis
b. cellular division
c. protein synthesis
d. cellular respiration
13. The food-making process by which all
plants use light energy to produce glucose
from carbon dioxide and water is called
photosynthesis. What is the food-making
process in animals?

a. lipid synthesis
b. cellular division
c. protein synthesis
d. cellular respiration
14. What causes the increase in carbon dioxide
levels in the atmosphere in deforested areas?

a. Increased transpiration rate

b. Decreased rate of photosynthesis
c. Increased rate of cellular respiration
d. Increased absorption of solar energy by the
surface of the earth
14. What causes the increase in carbon dioxide
levels in the atmosphere in deforested areas?

a. Increased transpiration rate

b. Decreased rate of photosynthesis
c. Increased rate of cellular respiration
d. Increased absorption of solar energy by the
surface of the earth
15. Why do green plants need solar
energy?

a. To release carbon
b. To decrease water
c. To absorb nitrogen
d. To produce glucose
15. Why do green plants need solar
energy?

a. To release carbon
b. To decrease water
c. To absorb nitrogen
d. To produce glucose
 For items 16 and 17, refer to the situation below.
Maria investigated the rate of the reaction between
hydrochloric acid (HCl) and calcium carbonate (CaCo3).
The equation below describes the reaction:
2 HCl (aq) + CaCO3 (s)  CaCl2 (aq) + H2O (l) + CO2 (g)
She recorded the volume of carbon dioxide (CO2) gas
produced every 15 seconds as shown in the table
below:
Time (s) 0 15 30 45 60 75 90 105 120
CO2 (mL) 0 32 42 53 65 72 72 72 72
16. Which generalization is NOT acceptable?

A. The production of CO2 stops after 75 seconds.

B. The production of CO2 is faster after 15 seconds.
C. The maximum amount of CO2 is reached at 72 mL.
D. There will be more CO2 produced if time is extended.
 Initially, the concentration of
HCl is the highest and the
rate of production of CO2 is
at a maximum.

As HCl becomes more

dilute, the production of
CO2 slows and the curve
flattens.
#16 | Thus, from the choices, the generalization that is NOT acceptable is:

D. There will be more CO2 produced if time is extended

17. Which of the following statements best explains
your answer in item 16?
A. Reaction comes to a stop when activation energy
is reached.
B. Reaction comes to a stop when particles of the
reactants are used up.
C. Reaction comes to a stop when particles of the
product starts to form.
D. Reaction comes to a stop when energy is
released from the reaction.
 Initially, the concentration of
HCl is the highest and the
rate of production of CO2 is
at a maximum.

As HCl becomes more

dilute, the production of
CO2 slows and the curve
flattens.

#17 | Thus, from the choices, the statement that BEST explains the
answer in #16 is:

B. Reaction comes to a stop when particles of the reactants are used up

18. Acetic acid is the active component of vinegar. Ali
observed that bubbles were produced faster in Vinegar A
compared to Vinegar B when same amount of baking soda
was poured to the same volume of vinegar. What does this
suggest?
A. There is a higher percentage of acetic acid
present in Vinegar A compared to Vinegar B.
B. There is a higher percentage in Vinegar B
compared to Vinegar A.
C. There is a lower percentage of acetic acid
present in Vinegar A compared to Vinegar B.
D. There is same percentage of acetic acid present
in Vinegar A compared to Vinegar B.
ANSWER:
A. There is a higher percentage of acetic acid present in Vinegar A
compared to Vinegar B

This is all about Factors affecting Rate of Chemical Reaction. What is

being observed here is there is clearly a higher concentration of
acetic acid in Vinegar A compared to Vinegar B. Thus, if you have
higher concentration, you have more acetic acid solute particles
present resulting to more collisions of the particles thereby increasing
the reaction rate. That’s why the bubbles (CO2) produced are faster in
Vinegar A compared to Vinegar B.
19. An alternative way of producing chlorine (Cl2) gas known
as the Deacon process is summarized by the chemical
equation below:

4 HCl + O2  2 Cl2 + 2 H2O

How many grams of Cl2 is produced for every 2 moles of HCl?
Given : molar mass of H = 1g/mol
molar mass of Cl = 35.5 g/mol
molar mass of Cl = 16 g/mol
A. 35
B. 71
C. 140
D. 180
Check if equation is balanced!

Stoichiometric ratio:
4 moles of HCl is stoichiometrically equivalent to 2 moles of Cl2

Molar Mass of Cl2:

Cl = (35.5 g/mol)(2)
Total = 71.0 g/mol

2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑙2 71.0 𝑔 𝐶𝑙2

2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙 × × = 71.0 𝑔 𝐶𝑙2
4 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐻𝐶𝑙 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑙2

ANSWER:

B. Approximately 71.0g of Cl2 is produced for every 2 moles of HCl

20. Sodium hypochlorite (NaClO) is a common active ingredient of
bleaching agents such as Zonrox. It is produce by bubbling
chlorine (Cl2) gas into a solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) as
represented by the chemical equation below.:

Cl2 (g) + 2 NaOH (aq)  NaClO (aq) + NaCl (aq) + H2O (l)
What is the number of moles of Cl2 gas needed for every 2 moles of NaOH
to produce enough NaClO?

A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 2.5
 Check if equation is balanced!

Stoichiometric ratio: 2 moles of NaOH is equivalent to 1 mol of Cl2

1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑙2
2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻 × = 1 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐶𝑙2
2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝑁𝑎𝑂𝐻
ANSWER:

A. 1 mol of Cl2 is needed for every 2 moles of NaOH to produce enough NaClO
21. In a given water electrolysis set-up below, what is the
correct number of parts of oxygen (O2) for every part of (H2)
gas produced from water (H2O)?
A. There will be two parts of hydrogen
produced for every one part of oxygen.
B. There will be two parts of oxygen
produced for every part of hydrogen.
C. There will be half part of hydrogen
produced for every one part of
oxygen.
D. There will be two parts of hydrogen
produced for every one part of
water.
 • The electrolysis of water produces hydrogen and oxygen
gases.

ANSWER:

A. There will be two parts of Hydrogen (H2) produced for every one part of Oxygen (O2).
22. Which of the following roles of species in a biotic
community uses raw materials from the environment to
manufacture their own food?
A. Consumers
B. Decomposers
C. Detritivores
D. Producers
22. Which of the following roles of species in a biotic
community uses raw materials from the environment to
manufacture their own food?
A. Consumers
B. Decomposers
C. Detritivores
D. Producers
23. Which of the following is an example of a biotic
factor?
A. Number of algae in the lake
B. Amount of oxygen in a pond
C. Amount of fertilizer in the field
D. Concentration of dissolved NPK in the field
23. Which of the following is an example of a biotic
factor?
A. Number of algae in the lake
B. Amount of oxygen in a pond
C. Amount of fertilizer in the field
D. Concentration of dissolved NPK in the field
24. Which organism serves as a tertiary consumer?
A. Grasshopper
B. Grass
C. Mouse
D. Owl
24. Which organism serves as a tertiary consumer?
A. Grasshopper
B. Grass
C. Mouse
D. Owl
25. The graphs below show varying population growth in
different countries. Which country shows a negative
population growth?

Photo source: http://people.eku.edu.ritchisong/RITCHISO/envscinotes3.html

A. Kenya
B. Sweden
C. United States
D. None of the above
25. The graphs below show varying population growth in
different countries. Which country shows a negative
population growth?

Photo source: http://people.eku.edu.ritchisong/RITCHISO/envscinotes3.html

A. Kenya
B. Sweden
C. United States
D. None of the above
26. Why does algal bloom lead to fish kills?
A. Due to the decrease in cellular respiration that
leads to low oxygen level
B. Due to the decrease in rate of photosynthesis
that leads to low level of oxygen
C. Due to the increase in cellular respiration that
leads to depletion of oxygen
D. Due to the decrease in rate of photosynthesis that
leads to high level of carbon dioxide
26. Why does algal bloom lead to fish kills?
A. Due to the decrease in cellular respiration that
leads to low oxygen level
B. Due to the decrease in rate of photosynthesis
that leads to low level of oxygen
C. Due to the increase in cellular respiration that
leads to depletion of oxygen
D. Due to the decrease in rate of photosynthesis that
leads to high level of carbon dioxide
27. What can be done to kill unwanted insect pests with
least harm to the environment?
A. Spraying the insects with water soluble
insecticides
B. Removal of plants that are used by insects as food
C. Introduction of exotic species of insects that can
prey on the insects
D. Using traps baited with hormones that can attract
the insects before they are killed
27. What can be done to kill unwanted insect pests with
least harm to the environment?
A. Spraying the insects with water soluble
insecticides
B. Removal of plants that are used by insects as food
C. Introduction of exotic species of insects that can
prey on the insects
D. Using traps baited with hormones that can
attract the insects before they are killed
28. Given the infographic below, which of the following
information best describes the behavior of the electron in
the atom?

Source: www.compoundchem.com
28. Given the infographic below, which of the following information
best describes the behavior of the electron in the atom?
A. Electron behave like a ball orbiting in certain energy
level and may bump into other electrons in the same
level.
B. Electrons in the atom are located around the nucleus
and remain static unless they become excited by
acquisition of energy.
C. Electrons in the atom are moving around the nucleus
due to their attraction and collapse to the center upon
release of energy.
D. Electrons in the atom are moving around the nucleus in
a wave-like fashion where their momentum and location
cannot be determined exactly.
BOHR’s MODEL –
PROPONENT: Niels Bohr
-one-dimensional model that used ONE
QUANTUM NUMBER to describe the
distribution of electrons in the atom.
Electrons revolve around the nucleus in
stable orbits without emission of radiant
energy.

SCHRODINGER’S MODEL –
PROPONENT: Erwin Schrodinger
allows the electron to occupy three-
dimensional space. Electrons behave
as standing waves that have greater
probability of being in some regions of
space (orbitals) than in others.
Given the infographic below, which of the following information
best describes the behavior of the electron in the atom?
A. Electron behave like a ball orbiting in certain energy
level and may bump into other electrons in the same
level.
B. Electrons in the atom are located around the nucleus
and remain static unless they become excited by
acquisition of energy.
C. Electrons in the atom are moving around the nucleus
due to their attraction and collapse to the center upon
release of energy.
D. Electrons in the atom are moving around the nucleus in
a wave-like fashion where their momentum and location
cannot be determined exactly.
Latest; still widely accepted as the most
accurate model of atom and how
electrons behave
29. Given the infographic below, which statement is correct?
Atomic model of carbon
6 electrons

A. When one neutron is added, it becomes a new

element having atomic number 7.
B. When one electron is removed, it becomes another
element having atomic number 5
C. When one proton is added, it still remains the
element carbon but its mass number is 13.
D. When one neutron is added, it becomes another
isotope of carbon having mass number of 13.
ANSWER:

D. When one
neutron is added, it
becomes another
isotope of carbon
having mass
number of 13.
30. When positively-charged alpha particle is bombarded on
gold atoms, 99.9998% of the alpha particles lands on point A,
0.001% are slightly deflected on point B, while 0.000001% are
reflected back on point C. What can you infer when only a trace
amount of alpha particles are reflected back?

Photo source: http://historyoftheatomictheoryuc.weebly.com/gold-foil-experiment.html

30. When positively-charged alpha particle is bombarded on
gold atoms, 99.9998% of the alpha particles lands on point A,
0.001% are slightly deflected on point B, while 0.000001% are
reflected back on point C. What can you infer when only a trace
amount of alpha particles are reflected back?
A. The positive charged alpha particle hits a very small
but densed positive center.
B. The observed reflected ray is very insignificant that
can be deduced as adventitious rays.
C. The alpha particle hits a concentrated area that
contains negative charge thus it deflects.
D. The alpha particle was not able to pass through
because it hits the very small gold atom which is
inert to reactions; thus repels the alpha ray.
 • Rutherford’s gold foil
experiment showed us that
the atom is mostly empty
space with a comparatively
tiny, massive, positively
charged nucleus in the centre.

• Rutherford thought that the

particles would fly straight
through the foil. However, he
found that the particle’s path
would be shifted or deflected
when passing through the foil.
This is because like charges repel
each other.
ANSWER:
A. The positively charged alpha particle hits a very small but densed positive
center