Basic AVSEC Questions

BASIC AVSEC COURSE – MODERATELY DIFFICULT QUESTIONS
MODULE – 1 – INTRODUCTION TO COURSE
1. These are acts or attempted acts such as to jeopardize the safety of civil aviation and air
transport.
a. Sabotage
b. Act of Unlawful Interference
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Security
2. A designated area on an apron intended to be used for parking an aircraft.

a. Airport
b. Airside waiting area
c. Aircraft stand
d. Apron
3. An aircraft shall be deemed to be ________ from the beginning of the pre

– flight preparation of the aircraft by the ground staff or by the crew for a specific flight
until twenty – four hours after any landing and the period of such service shall include the
entire period during which the aircraft is in flight.
a. In Service
b. In flight
c. Under Security checks
d. Under Maintenance
4. Space between the departures concourse and airside exists from the passenger building
a. Landside
b. Apron
c. Cargo complex
d. Airside waiting area
5. The non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a company for the carriage of

passengers or goods as an aid to the conduct of company business, flown by a
professional pilot employed to fly the aircraft.
a. General Aviation
b. Corporate Aviation
c. Civil Aviation
d. Aviation Security
6. A device, or combination of devices and / or procedures, which are intended to detect

amounts and types of explosives in passengers checked and hand carried baggage.
a. Explosive Device Detection System
b. Explosive Detection System
c. DFMD
d. HHMD
7. All civil aviation operations other than scheduled air services and non-scheduled air
transport operations for remuneration or hire.
a. General Aviation
b. Civil Aviation
c. Corporate Aviation
d. Private Aviation
8. Human capabilities and limitations which have an impact on the safety, security and
efficiency of aeronautical operations.
a. Profiling
b. Screening
c. Human factor principle
d. Human performance
9. A person who is or will be refused admission to a State by its authorities.

a. Interline passenger
b. Transit passenger
c. Inadmissible passenger
d. Sky Marshal
10. A consignment of multi-packages which has been originated by more than one person,
each of whom has made an agreement for carriage by air with another person other than
a scheduled air carrier.
a. Consolidated cargo
b. Courier
c. Dangerous Goods
d. Mail
11. Measures adopted to safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference.
a. Screening
b. Profiling
c. Security Audit
d. Security Programme
12. An aircraft shall be deemed to be ________ at any time from the moment when all its
external doors are closed following embarkation until the
moment when any such door is opened for disembarkation.
a. In Service
b. In Flight
c. Under Sureveillance
d. Under Maintenance
13. Land side is that area of an airport and buildings to which both travelling passengers and
the non-travelling public have _____________ access.
a. unrestricted
b. controlled
c. restricted
d. regulated
14. Passengers are boarding an aircraft. Suddenly one passenger enters the cockpit and
threatens the pilot with a knife. This incident is an example of
a. Sabotage of aircraft
b. Unlawful seizure of aircraft on ground
c. Unlawful seizure of aircraft in air
d. Terrorist attack on aircraft
15. Profiling is the systematic _________ of persons and baggage and questioning if
necessary to categories them two group i.e. threatening and non threatening.
a. frisking
b. observation
c. screening
d. briefing
16. Sterile area is the area between any passenger inspection or screening control point and
the _________ into which access is strictly controlled.
a. Boarding gate
b. Aerobridge
c. Ramp
d. Aircraft
17. Aviation security is a combination of measures, human and __________ , intended to

safeguard civil aviation against acts of unlawful interference.
a. SOP’s
b. Procedures
c. Material resources
d. SARP’s
18. Regulated Agent is an agent, freight forwarder or any other entity who conducts
business with an operator and provides _____________that are accepted or required by
the appropriate authority in respect of cargo, courier and express parcels or mail.
a. Services
b. Security control
c. Commission
d. Infrastructure
19. The authority designated by a State within its administration to be responsible for the
development, implementation and maintenance of the National Civil Aviation Security
Program (NCASP)
a. Appropriate authority for aviation security
b. DGCA
c. ASG
d. AAI
20. A building through which cargo passes between air and ground transport and in which
processing facilities are located or in which cargo is stored pending transfer to air or
ground transport
a. Cooling pit
b. Baggage Make up Area
c. Cargo Building
d. Cargo Area
21. All items, other than catering supplies, associated with passenger in-flight services, for
example newspapers, magazines, headphones, audio and video tapes, pillows and
blankets, amenity kits, etc.
a. Dangerous goods
b. Catering Stores
c. Catering Supplies
d. Cargo
22. Set of procedures applied in handling, containment, and resolution of an emergency

situation in planned and coordinated steps for responding to a major emergency
situation in order to keep the problem from growing worse.
a. Crisis Management
b. Bomb Threat
c. Standard and Recommended Practices
d. Bomb Alert
23. A device worn by persons operating X-ray equipment to warn them of potential over
exposure to radiation leakage from X-ray equipment.
a. Airport Entry Permit
b. Fan beam geometry
c. Dosimeter Batch
d. Lead Shielding
24. Baggage of passengers subject to transfer from the aircraft of one operator to the
aircraft of another operator in the course of the passenger’s journey.
a. Suspicious bag
b. Courier bag
c. Hand bag
d. Interline baggage
25. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft

operation.
a. BCAS
b. Operator
c. Airport
d. ICAO
26. A means by which the introduction of weapons, explosives or articles likely to be utilized
to commit an act of unlawful interference can be prevented.
a. Sabotage
b. Security Control
c. Sterile Area
d. Hijacking
27. The application of technical or other means which are intended to identify and/or detect
weapons, explosives or other dangerous devices which may be used to commit an act of
unlawful interference.
a. Security Control
b. Screening
c. Security Audit
d. Standard and Recommended Practices
28. Baggage, which arrives at an airport and is not retrieved or claimed by a passenger.
a. Unclaimed baggage
b. Unaccompanied baggage
c. Transit baggage
d. Transfer baggage
29. Baggage, which is transported as cargo and may or may not be carried on the same
aircraft with the person to whom it belongs.
a. Unidentified baggage
b. Unaccompanied baggage
c. Interline baggage
d. Transit baggage
30. A standard practice is defined as any specification for physical characteristics,

configuration material, performance, personnel or procedure, the uniform application of
which is recognized as ____________ for the safety of civil aviation.
a. Desirable
b. Necessary
c. Provisional
d. Recommended
31. ICAO has its headquarters in.

a. Montreal
b. Chicago
c. Geneva
d. Paris
32. Provision and maintenance of security hold areas, frisking point, security stamps for
ASG is the responsibility of ________
a. BCAS
b. Airport Operator
c. Airlines
d. ASG/APSU
33. A ____________ practice is any specification for physical characteristics, configuration,

material , performance, personnel or procedure, the uniform application of which is
recognized as desirable
a. Recommended
b. Standard
c. Necessary
d. Desirable
34. Convention for suppression of unlawful seizure of aircraft

a. Chicago Convention
b. Montreal Convention
c. Hague Convention
d. Tokyo Convention
35. Convention against suppression of unlawful acts against the safety of civil aviation
a. Chicago Convention
b. Montreal Convention
c. Hague Convention
d. Tokyo Convention
1. The abbreviation WTMD stands for ?
a. Watch Through Metal Detector
b. Wired Threat Metal Detection
c. Wire Testing Metal Detector
d. Walk Through Metal Detector
2. The abbreviation AMD stands for?

a. Aviation Metal Detector
b. Archway Metal Detector
c. Armed Metal Detector
d. Archway Mobile Detector
3. The abbreviation ASTP stands for ?
a. Aviation Security Training Package
b. Airlines Security Training Package
c. Aviation Security Training Programme
d. Airlines Security Training Procedure
4. The abbreviation AWG stands for?
a. Airline Works Group
b. American Wire Gauge
c. Airports Wireless Guage
d. Aviation Watch Group
5. The abbreviation BTAC stands for?
a. Bomb Threat Airport Council

b. Bomb Threat Assessment Council
c. Bomb Threat Airport Committee
d. Bomb Threat Assessment Committee
6. The abbreviation BDDS stands for?

a. Bomb Disposal and Detection Squad
b. Bomb Detector Dog Squad
c. Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad
d. Bomb Detection and Disposal Service
7. The abbreviation BTCP stands for?
a. Bomb Threat Contingency Plan
b. Bomb Threat Counter Plan
c. Bomb Threat Country Plan
1. d)Bomb Threat Conter Procedure
8. The abbreviation BWAF stands for?
a. Bomb Warning Airport Form
b. Bomb Warning Assessment Form
c. Bomb Warning Assistance Form
d. Bomb Warning Assessment Focus
9. The abbreviation BTCL stands for?
a. Bomb Threat Counter List
b. Bomb Threat Check List
c. Bomb Threat Committee List
d. Bomb Threat Contingency List
10. The abbreviation CAPPS stands for?
a. Civil Aviation Passenger Profiling System

b. Computer Aided Passenger Profiling service
c. Computer Aided Passenger Profiling System
d. Civil Aviation Passenger Profiling System
11. The abbreviation CTCP stands for?
a. Counter Terrorist Contingency Plan
b. Computed Terrorist Contingency Plan
c. Counter Terrorist Computer Plan
d. Counter Terrorist Control Plan
12. The abbreviation CCCR stands for?
a. Counter Committee Control Room
b. Central Committee Control Room
c. Central Committee Computer Room
d. Centre Committee Control Room
13. The abbreviation CLIP stands for?
a. Central Line Identification Procedure
b. Computer Line Identification Procedure
c. Caller Line Identification Procedure
d. Caller Line Identification Plan
14. The abbreviation CMG stands for?
a. Critical Management Group
b. Crisis Management Guards
c. Crisis Management Group
d. Computer Management Group
15. The abbreviation COS(AH) stands for?

a. Committee of Security on Aircraft Hijacking
b. Commissioner of Secretaries on Aircraft Hijacking
c. Committee of Secretaries on Aircraft Hijacking
d. Commander of Situation on Aircraft Hijacking
16. The abbreviation HDA stands for?
a. High Detection Alert
b. High Density Alert
c. Higher Density Alarm
d. Huge Density Alert
17. The abbreviation ICPO stands for?
a. Internal Crime Police Organisation
b. International Crime Prevention Organisation
c. International Council of Police Organisations
d. International Criminal Police Organisation
18. The abbreviation INV stands for?
a. Invoice
b. Inorganic
c. Inverse
d. Intruder
19. The abbreviation MANPADS stands for?
a. Man Piloted Air Defense System
b. Mobile Patrolling Airport Defense System
c. Man Prepared Air Defense system
d. Man Portable Air Defense system

20. What does abbreviation NCASTP stands for ?
a. National Civil Aviation Security Training Process
b. National Civil Airports Security Training Programme
c. National Civil Aviation Security Training Programme
d. National Control on Aviation Security Training Programme
21. The abbreviation NCASQCP stands for ?
a. National Civil Aviation Services Quality Check Programme
b. National Civil Aviation Security Quality Control Programme
c. National Civil Affairs Security Quality Contol Programme
d. National Civil Affairs Security Quality Check Plan
22. The abbreviation NCASP stands for ?
a. National Civil Aviation Security Procedure
b. National Civil Airports Security Process
c. National Civil Affairs Security Plan
d. National Civil Aviation Security Programme
23. The abbreviation O2/OO stands for ?
a. Organic Organic
b. Only Orange
c. Organic Only
d. Oxygen
24. The abbreviation PETN stands for ?
a. Plastic Erythra Tetra Nitrate
b. Penta Erythro Tri Nitrogen
c. Penta Erythro Tetra Nitrate
d. Plastic Explosive Tetra Nitrate
25. The abbreviation PTI stands for ?

a. Positive Time Identification
b. Perimeter Threat Identification
c. Perimeter Targeted Identification
d. Positive Target Identification
26. The abbreviation REM stands for ?
a. Royter Equivalent Man
b. Roentgen Equivalent Man
c. Roentgen Equivalent Metal
d. Red Emiting Material
27. The abbreviation SARP stands for ?
a. Standard and Required Practice
b. Security and Research Practice
c. Standard and Required Plan
d. Standard and Recommended Practice
28. The abbreviation SRCH stands for ?
a. Search Red Colored Handbag
b. Screen Handbags
c. Screening
d. Search
29. The abbreviation TATP stands for ?
a. Tetra Acetone Tetra Peroxide
b. Tri Acetone Tri Peroxide
c. Tri Acid Tetra Perogen
d. ) Tetra Acetone Trinitrate Peroxide
30. The abbreviation VCS stands for ?
a. Variable Colour Strapping

b. Variable Colour Stripping
c. Vertical Colour Stripping
Varied Colour Stripping

36. Power to issue direction
a. Section 5
b. Section 5A
c. Aircraft Rule 8A
d. Aircraft Rule 8
37. Photograph at aerodrome or from aircraft in flight

a. Aircraft Rule 8A
b. Aircraft Rule 13
c. Aircraft Rule 19
d. Aircraft Rule 24
38. Carriage of person suffering from mental disorder or epilepsy in an aircraft

a. Aircraft Rule 24
b. Aircraft Rule 24A
c. Aircraft Rule 24B
d. Aircraft Rule 24C
39. Carriage of animals, birds and reptiles in the aircraft

a. Aircraft Rule 24B
b. Aircraft Rule 24C
d. Aircraft Rule 91
40. Carriage of cabin crew

a. Aircraft Rule 24B
b. Aircraft Rule 38B
c. Aircraft Rule 161
d. Aircraft Rule 156
41. Power of central government to make rules for securing safe custody any redelivery of
unclaimed property.
a. Section 5
b. Section 5A
c. Section 8C
d. Section 9A
42. Penalty for failure to comply with direction issued under section 5A
a. Section 8C
b. Section 9A
c. Section 11A
d. Section 5
43. Prohibition of slaughtering and flaying of animals, depositing of rubbish and other
polluted or obnoxious matter in the vicinity of aerodrome.
a. Aircraft Rule 90
b. Aircraft Rule 91
d. Aircraft Rule 24
44. Inspection by government officials

a. Section 8C
b. Section 9A
c. Aircraft Rule 156
d. Aircraft Rule 161
45. The incident that took place in Colombo in 1986 where an aircraft was destroyed is an
example of
a. Sabotage of the airport
b. Terrorist attack at the airport
c. Sabotage of the aircraft on ground
d. Sabotage of the aircraft in air
46. In the first case of hijacking in India the aircraft which was bound for Jammu was
hijacked and taken to ___________ and blown up
a. China
b. U.A.E
c. Afghanistan
d. Pakistan
47. In the Air Lanka bombing of 1987 the explosive was infiltrated in an aircraft through
a. Passenger on his body
b. Cargo consignment
c. Checked in baggage
d. Hand baggage
48. ___________ was used to hijack the US aircrafts on 11 Sep 2001

a. Pocket Knife
b. Swiss knife
c. Box cutter
d. Lighter
49. Which of the following statement is relevant in case of US attack on Sep 11 ?

a. Each of the aircraft had atleast one hijacker who was a trained pilot
b. All hijackers were US citizens
c. Sikh militants had carried out this attack
d. The aircrafts were hijacked using .38 revolvers
50. Which of the following statement is relevant in case of US attack on Sep 11 ?

a. Each of the aircraft had 02 hijackers on board
b. All hijackers were US citizens
c. Sikh militants had carried out this attack
d. The aircrafts were hijacked using box cutters
51. Which of the following persons can hijack an aircraft ?

a. Gate no show passenger
b. Mentally deranged person
c. Person giving a hoax threat call
d. No show passenger

b. Person who wants to seek refuge in another country

b. Terrorist

b. Criminal
55. Coordinating with ICAO is the responsibility of

a. Appropriate Authority
b. Airlines
c. APSU
d. Airport Operators
56. Which one of the following is the oldest threat to civil aviation
a. Misuse of nuclear weapons
b. Misuse of radioactive substances
c. Threat from biological weapons
d. Unlawful seizure of aircraft
57. Implementation of raising of perimeter wall to the prescribed height started

after______________________ incident
a. Kanishka Tragedy
b. IC814 Hijack
c. US Attack
d. Ethiopian hijack
58. Reconciliation of baggage was introduced after _________ tragedy

a. US Attack
b. Kanishka Tragedy
c. Air Lanka bombing
d. PanAM sabotage
59. Implementation of inspection of security arrangements of national air- carriers at foreign
stations by BCAS officers started after
a. US Attack
b. Kanishka Tragedy
c. IC 814 Hijack
d. Ethiopian hijack
60. Implementation of strengthening of cockpit doors started after

a. IC 814
b. Kanishka Tragedy
c. US Attack
d. Ethiopian Hijack
61. Identification of baggage was made mandatory after

a. IC 814 Hijack
b. Kanishka Tragedy
c. US Attack
d. Air France Hijacking
62. Perimeter wall of standard height is __________________ measure

a. Anti hijacking
b. Anti sabotage
c. Measures against terrorist attacks
d. None of the above
63. Deployment of QRT is ___________________ measure

a. Anti hijacking
b. Anti sabotage
c. Measures against terrorist attacks
64. Which are the factors contributing to terrorism

a. Political factor
b. Social recognition
c. Religious factor
d. All the above
65. Which one of the following is not a physical measure taken at airport.
a. Perimeter wall
b. Turnstile
c. Frisking
d. Watch Tower
66. Which one of the following is considered as physical measure taken at airport
a. Turnstile
b. Surveillance
c. Frisking
d. Profiling
67. Which one of the following is not a physical measure taken at airport
a. Perimeter wall
b. Turnstile
c. Profiling
d. Watch Tower
68. Which one of the following is not a physical measure taken at airport
a. Perimeter wall
b. Turnstile
c. QRT
d. Watch Tower
69. ______________ is also known as Aviation Security Group

a. Local police
b. CISF
c. BDDS
d. APSU
70. Which one of the following is the correct size of APSU stamp
a. 3 cms X 2cms
b. 2.14 cms X 2.43 cms
c. 2.5cms X 3.5 cms
d. 3.5 cms X 4.5 cms
71. Spacing between two bags on conveyor belt is

a. 30 cms
b. 10 mm
c. 2 feet
d. 1 mtr
72. Which one of the following is the correct size of cooling pit
a. 4 X 4 X 4 cms
b. 4 X 4 X 4 feet
c. 4 X 4 X 4 meter
d. 4 X 4 X 4 inches
73. Sum total of all dimensions of hand bag allowed at Jammu & Srinagar is
a. 110cms
b. 100cms
c. 115cms
d. 200cms
74. Sum total of all dimensions of hand bag allowed other than Jammu & Srinagar
a. 115 cms
b. 110 cms
c. 111cms
d. 100cms
75. Size of frisking booth

a. 2.14 cms X 2.43 cms
b. 2.14 m X 2.43 m
c. 2 m X 3 m
d. 2.41 m X 2.34 m
76. Size of DFMD is
a. 1m height X 0.75 to 0.85 m width
b. 2m height X 0.75 to 0.85 m width
c. 2m height X 0.5 m width
d. 2m height X 1.5 m width
77. Which one of the following is speed of the conveyor belt

a. 0.5 m/sec
b. 0.35 m/sec
c. 0.18 to 0.3 m/sec
d. 0.35 to 0.8 m/sec
78. Following are the categories of people who can hijack plane
a. Terrorist
b. Refugees
c. Mentally deranged
d. All the above
79. Frisking of passengers is ____________________ type of measure

a. Anti hijacking
b. Anti sabotage
c. Measures against terrorist attack
d. Security of personnel
80. Security of catering item is ______________________ type of measure

a. Both Anti hijacking and anti sabotage measure
b. Only Anti hijacking measure
c. Only Anti sabotage measure
81. Security of fuel is ________________ measure

a. Anti hijacking
b. Anti sabotage
c. Measures against terrorist attack
82. First hijacking in India took place in the year

a. 1976
b. 1945
c. 1971
d. 1931
83. Kanishka Aircraft was bombed in the year

a. 1985
b. 1986
c. 1971
d. 2001
84. Colombo airport attack by LTTE in the year

a. 2001
b. 2000
c. 1999
d. 2005
85. Quick Reaction Team is a unit of

a. Airline
b. Airport Operator
c. ASG/APSU
d. BCAS
86. Receiving carriage and disposal of security removed articles is the responsibility of
________
a. Airport Operator
b. Airlines
c. ASG/APSU
d. BCAS
87. Issuance of vehicle permits for access of vehicles in operational areas is the
responsibility of ________
a. BCAS
b. Airport Operator
c. Airlines
d. ASG/APSU
88. Which of the following can pose a threat to the aircraft

a. Interline passenger
b. Transfer baggage
c. Catering supplies
d. All the above
89. Which are the factors contributing to terrorism

a. Religious factor
b. Economic conditions of a country
c. Natural disaster
d. All the above
90. Which one of the following is the correct size of perimeter wall
a. 8 feet wall with 1½ feet ‘Y’ shaped angle overhang with barbed wire
b. 8 feet wall with 2 feet ‘Y’ shaped angle overhang with barbed wire
c. 6 feet wall with 2 feet ‘Y’ shaped angle overhang with barbed wire
d. 7 feet wall with 1 feet ‘Y’ shaped angle overhang with barbed wire
91. Which one of the following is the example of recommended practice

a. Pre-embarkation checks
b. Anti sabotage search of aircraft
c. Screening of cargo
d. Secondary ladder point checks
92. Following organisation is responsible for detection and disposal of bomb

a. EDDS
b. BDDS
c. EDS
d. ASG
a. Perimeter wall
b. Guarding
c. Turnstile
d. Watch Tower
a. Patrolling
b. Perimeter wall
c. Turnstile
d. Watch Tower
95. Preventing an hijacked aircraft to take off from Indian soil once it lands is a lesson
learned after
a. Kanishka Tragedy
b. IC 814 Hijacking
c. US Attack
d. 1931 Peru hijacking
96. Preparation of Airport security programme is ________ responsibility.

a. Airport operator
b. Airline
c. BCAS
d. DGCA
97. Preparation of Contingency Plan for airport is responsibility of ________

a. Airport operator
b. Airline
c. BCAS
d. DGCA
98. Preparation of BTCP is the responsibility of ____________

a. Airport operator
b. Airline
c. BCAS
d. DGCA
99. Protection unit is one of the four units of

a. BCAS
b. Airline
c. ASG
d. Airport operator
100. Chicago convention was held in the year

a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1970
d. 1988
101. Tokyo convention held in the year

a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1970
d. 1988
102. Hague convention held in the year

a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1970
d. 1988
103. Montreal convention held in the year

a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1988
104. Protocol supplementary to Montreal convention held in the year

a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1988
105. Convention on the marking of plastic explosive for the purpose of detection held
in the year
a. 1963
b. 1944
c. 1971
d. 1991
MODULE – 2 – WORKING AT THE AIRPORT
N/A
MODULE 3 - ACCESS CONTROL – PEOPLE
106. Access control points are located
a. Within a building such as terminal and within airport boundary
b. Only at the cargo complex

c. Only at the vulnerable points
d. Only at the catering premises
107. For persons whose duty warrants them to visit only the arrival or departure halls
of a specific airport, which colour pass is issued
a. Navy Blue
b. White
c. Light Brown
d. Purple
108. Which passes may be issued to persons whose duty warrants them to visit one
specific airport for passenger facilitation up to check-in area of departure side and up to
visitor areas on arrival side.
a. Navy blue
b. Light Green
c. Transferable passes
d. Purple – ‘G’
109. For GHA persons whose duty warrants them to visit all areas of a specific
airports which colour pass is issued
a. Purple ‘G’
b. Purple ‘T’
c. Light Green ‘G’
d. Purple
110. For persons whose duty warrants them to visit only all areas of the terminal
building of a specific airport which colour pass is issued
a. Purple ‘G’
b. Purple ‘T
c. Purple ‘P’
d. Light Green ‘C’
111. Which one of the following is not considered as biometrics?

a. Hand Geometry
b. Finger printing
c. Frisking
d. Iris Recognition
112. Which of the following details should be maintained in access control point
logbook
a. Status of equipment
b. Record of incident
c. List of visit by supervisor
d. All the above
113. What details to be maintained in access control point log
a. Details of vehicle admitted
b. Visit by supervisor
c. Status of equipment
d. All the above
MODULE 4 : RECOGNITION OF EXPLOSIVE DEVICES AND OFFENSIVE WEAPONS
114. Improvised explosive cannot be manufactured from

a. Urine
b. Aspirin tablets
c. Weed killer
d. Wheat
115. Explosives are of two types
a. Low explosive and high explosive
b. Small explosive and big explosive
c. Electrical and non electrical explosive
d. Traditional and Modern explosive

116. Which one of the following is not the type of switch used in an IED
a. Cloth peg
b. Anti lift mechanism
c. Wire
d. Booby trap
117. Anti handling bomb in the bag cannot be activated by
a. Lifting
b. Pulling
c. Opening
d. Change in temperature
118. What is the color of LTPE
a. Yellow
b. Black
c. White
d. Pale yellow
119. What is the physical form of LTPE
a. Cartridge
b. Flexible
c. Slurry
d. Cord
120. What is the color of Tetryl
a. Black
b. Yellow
c. White
d. Chocolate
121. What is the physical form of Tetryl

a. Slurry
b. Granular
c. Flexible
d. Plastic
122. What is the color of sheet explosive
a. Yellow
b. White
c. Chocolate
d. Black
123. What is the physical form of sheet explosive
a. Granular
b. Block
c. Cord
d. Flexible
124. What is the color of C-4 explosive
a. Black
b. White
c. Chocolate
d. Pale Yellow
125. What is the physical form of C-4 explosive
a. Flexible
b. Plastic
c. Cord
d. Granular
126. What is color of cordtex explosive
a. Yellow
b. Chocolate
c. Black
d. Orange
127. What is the physical form of cordtex explosive
a. Plastic
b. Cord
c. Granular
d. Flexible
128. What is the color of the safety fuse
a. Yellow
b. Dirty black
c. White
d. Chocolate
129. What is the color of gelatin
a. Greenish
b. Yellow
c. Black
d. White
130. What is the color of ANFO
a. Yellow
b. White
c. Greenish
d. Black
131. Due to explosion pressure may be generated up to __________PSI.
a. 4,00,000 PSI
b. 40,000 PSI
c. 25,000 PSI
d. 40,00,000 PSI
132. Velocity of detonation of TNT is
a. 6,000 KMPH
b. 30,000 KMPH
c. 25,000 KMPH
d. 40,000 KMPH
133. Speed of fragmentation due to explosion may be up to ___________
a. 6,000 KMPH
b. 3,000 KMPH
c. 25,000 KMPH
d. 4,000 KMPH
134. Due to translation effect of explosion human bodies are lifted ____________ feet
high
a. 30 to 60
b. 100 to 120
c. 100 to 200
d. 80 to 100
135. A scissor with 11cms blade falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
c. Dangerous Articles
d. Dangerous Substances
136. Chisels falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
137. Ice picks falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
138. Ammunition falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
139. Loaded magazine of a gun falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
140. Safety fuse falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
141. Chilly powder falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
d. Dangerous Substance
142. Martial art device falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
143. Pool cues fall under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
144. Ski poles falls under which category of prohibited article
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
145. IID is designed to
a. Explode
b. Burn
c. Burst
d. Blast
146. Which one of the following is incendiary material
a. TNT
b. RDX
c. Semtex
d. Gun Powder
147. Which one of the following item can be carried in checked in luggage without
license
a. Pistol
b. Revolver
c. Machine gun
d. Starter pistol
148. Which one of the following item can be carried in checked in luggage without
license
a. Air gun
b. Pistol
c. Revolver
d. Machine gun
149. Which one of the following is true for an IED ?
a. Requires incendiary device
b. Explodes
c. Burns
d. All above
150. Which one of the following is true for an IED ?
b. Burns
c. Requires initiating mechanism
d. Does not require detonator
151. Which one of the following is not applicable for an IID ?
b. Burns
c. Requires a high explosive
d. Does not require detonator

152. Explosives are of two types. The two types are
a. High explosive and Low Explosive
b. Traditional explosive and Modern explosive
c. Heavy explosives and Light explosives
d. Commercial explosives and military explosives
153. _________ includes acids, corrosives and radioactive material
a. Weapons
b. Explosives
c. Dangerous articles
d. Dangerous substances
154. Which one of the following is not an explosive
a. TNT
b. RDX
c. Sulphur powder
d. Semtex
155. Which one of the following is not a weapon
a. Hammer
b. Mace
c. AK 47
d. Baton
156. Which one of the following is a dangerous substance
a. TNT
b. RDX
c. Kerosene
d. Baton
157. Which one of the following is a weapon

a. Grenade
b. Mace
c. TNT
d. Hammer
158. Detonator is also known as
a. Switch
b. Initiator
c. Explosive
d. Mechanism
159. Which of the following falls under concealment of explosives on person
a. Concealing explosive in handbag
b. Concealing explosive in a box carried in handbag
c. Concealing explosive in the sole of shoe
d. Concealing explosive in false bottom of bag
160. Which of the following is not true for IED ?
a. It is easy to conceal
b. It does not require detonator
c. It can take any shape
d. It can be of any size
161. A __________ is the explosive device designed, fabricated, placed and activated to
create panic and chaos among public
a. Incendiary Explosive Device
b. Inert Explosive Device
c. Impact Exploding Device
d. Improvised Explosive Device
162. Which of the following is applicable for explosive material used in an IED ?
a. It will always be stolen from military camp
b. It can be manufactured from material easily available in market
c. It will always be acquired from international terrorist organizations which are

specialized in manufacturing it
163. Which of the following is true for IED ?
a. IED can be of any shape, size or color
b. IED is always of specific shape
c. IED is another name for bomb
d. IED device always uses incendiary material for explosion
164. An IED which may explode if you tilt the package, has ____________ mechanism
a. Anti handling mechanism
b. Ambient mechanism
c. Delayed mechanism
d. Remote control mechanism
165. An IED which may explode if you lift the package, has ____________ mechanism
a. Anti handling mechanism
b. Ambient mechanism
c. Delayed mechanism
d. Remote control mechanism
166. Remote control bombs can be activated by
a. Transmission of electric current
b. Transmission of sound waves
c. Transmission of light
d. Transmission of electromagnetic waves
167. Which of the following is an example of plastic explosive

a. Semtex
b. RDX
c. TNT
d. ANFO
168. Which of the following is an example of plastic explosive
a. PEK
b. RDX
c. TNT
d. ANFO
MODULE 5 : ACCESS CONTROL – VEHICLE
169. Typical external access control point will contain
a. Equipment for operating barriers
b. Communication system
c. Vehicle search equipment
d. All the above
170. Which of the below mentioned equipment can be used for the search of vehicle
a. Flash light
b. Mirror
c. Torch
d. All the above
171. Area of vehicle to search include
a. Interior passenger compartment
b. Trunk or boot
c. Engine compartment
d. All the above
172. Area of vehicle to search include
a. Underside of vehicle
b. Roof area
c. Any external aperture
d. All the above
173. Typical external access control point will contain
a. Equipment for operating barriers
b. Communication system
c. Vehicle search equipment
d. All the above
174. Which of the below mentioned are the vehicle access control point locations
a. Vicinity of passenger terminal building
b. Entrance to VIP are
c. Entrance to ATC
d. All the above
175. Which of the below mentioned are the vehicle access control point locations
a. Vicinity of fuel storage area
b. Entrance to air navigation facility
c. Entrance to ATC
d. All the above
176. Which of the below mentioned equipment can be used for the search of vehicle
a. Flash light
b. Mirror
c. Torch
d. All the above
177. Area of vehicle to be searched includes
a. Interior passenger compartment

b. Trunk or boot
c. Engine compartment
d. All the above
178. Area of vehicle to be searched includes
a. Underside of vehicle
b. Roof area
c. Any external aperture
d. All the above
179. The details to be checked in vehicle permit include
a. Photo
b. Colour indicating area
c. BCAS stamp
MODULE 6 – EMERGENCIES AND CONTINGENCIES
180. Who is the coordinator of BTAC

a. Station Manager of airline
b. Air Worthiness Officer
c. Airport Director
d. In charge of BDDS
181. List out the AGENCY whose representative is involved to cordon off an aircraft in
case of a specific call
a. DGCA
b. ASG/APSU
c. Airline
d. BDDS
182. A warning where the threat permits identification of a specific target, or where
the caller has positively identified himself or the organization involved is
a. Non- specific threat
b. Specific threat
c. Hoax call
d. Bomb Alert
183. ‘What time is the bomb set to explode’ is the question asked to the caller of
bomb threat to know
a. What type of device is it
b. How much time is available in hand before the bomb explodes
c. Whether the bomb was placed in the day or at night
d. Who must have placed the bomb
184. ‘Where is the bomb placed?’ is the question asked to caller of bomb threat to
know
a. What type of device is it
b. What is the time left
c. Who placed the device
d. Exact location of the bomb
185. ‘What type of device is it ?’ is the question asked to the caller of the bomb threat
to know
a. What type of switch and explosive is used
b. What is the time left for the bomb to explode
c. Who must have placed the device
d. Where it is placed
186. ‘How does it look like?’ is the question asked to the caller of Bomb threat to
a. Help know how much time is left for explosion
b. Help searches in Identification of the device
c. Know who must have placed it
d. Know what kind of mechanism it uses
187. What information must be reported by the recipient of a bomb threat call to the
authorities
a. Background noise
b. Identification of gender
c. Actual word
d. All the above

188. What information must be reported by the recipient of a bomb threat call to the
authorities
a. Exact time of call
b. Average age
c. Actual word
d. All the above
189. A warning that can be related to one or more targets but where there is doubt
about its credibility or about the effectiveness of existing countermeasures
a. Specific call
b. Non specific call
c. Hoax call
d. All the above
190. Which one of the following is not the member of BTAC
a. APD
b. Commandant of ASG
c. Local police
d. BDDS
a. APD
c. Emergency service people
d. BDDS
a. APD
c. Diplomatic representative
d. DGCA
a. APD
c. BDDS
d. Cargo manager
194. Which one of the following action will be taken in case of specific bomb threat
call
a. Aircraft to be taken to isolated bay
b. Inform passenger to remain seated in the aircraft
c. Passengers to deplane without hand baggage
d. Do not offload catering
call
a. Aircraft will stay at normal parking bay
b. Inform passenger to remain seated in the aircraft
c. Aircraft will be taken to isolated parking bay and cordoned off
d. Do not offload registered baggage
call
a. Aircraft will stay at normal parking bay
b. Cargo, mail, registered bag to be offloaded and checked
c. Cargo, mail, registered bag will not be offloaded
d. Catering will be checked inside the aircraft by security
a. All registered baggage will be offloaded and taken to BMA
b. All registered baggage will be offloaded and taken to terminal building for
rescreening
c. Registered bags will not be offloaded
d. Registered bags will be offloaded and kept 100mtr away from aircraft
198. In case of specific threat agencies carrying out search will sign a completion
certificate and forward it to __________ to get clearance for aircraft to take off
a. CASO
b. COSCA
c. ATC
d. BDDS
199. In case of non specific call
a. Aircraft to be taken to isolated bay
b. Aircraft to remain at its normal parking bay
c. Aircraft to be taken to taxiways
200. In case of non specific call
a. Aircraft to be checked by BDDS
b. Aircraft to be checked by dog squad
c. Aircraft to be checked by airlines security, airlines engineer
d. Aircraft to be checked by CISF and airline security
201. Open windows on the discovery of suspicious object, to
a. reduce the impact of explosion
b. ensure passengers can evacuate through windows as well
c. allow BDDS to enter through any window
d. throw the package out of the window or door
202. Which one of the following you will follow on the identification of suspicious
object
a. Submerge package in the water
b. Close all windows and doors
c. Place sand bags around the package
d. Open package
203. In case of specific threat to terminal building which one of the following is not
correct
a. Coordinator to make announcement on PA system to evacuate
b. Passengers will remain in terminal building
c. Coordinator will ensure to switch off ac

d. Coordinator will ensure to open emergency door
204. In case of specific threat to terminal building which one of the following is
correct
a. Staff and passengers both will evacuate terminal building
b. Passengers to evacuate terminal building but not staff
c. Passengers in SHA will not evacuate terminal building
d. All Passengers from the terminal building will be taken to the apron
correct
a. All the staff will evacuate terminal building
b. Passengers will evacuate terminal building along with their hand bags
c. While evacuating passengers will not carry their belonging
d. The air conditioning units of your offices should be switched off
correct
a. The air conditioning units of your offices should be switched off
b. Passengers will evacuate terminal building along with their hand bags
c. Coordinator will ensure to open emergency door
d. Staff will not carry their belonging while evacuating
207. In case of non specific threat to terminal building which of the following is true
a. Evacuation of building is not required
b. Evacuation of building is required
c. All passengers except ones in SHA should be evacuated
d. Evacuation of only passenger is required, staff will not leave office
208. Which of the following is a counter measure to reduce hoax bomb call incidents
at airport
a. Pre-embarkation security check
b. Perimeter wall around the airport
c. Installation of caller ID
d. QRT’s
209. Which of the following is a counter measure to reduce bomb incidents at the
airport
a. Pre-embarkation security check
b. Perimeter wall around the airport
c. Give wide publicity in local newspaper if caller is identified
d. QRT’s
210. Which of the following is a counter measure for bomb threat incidents at the
airport
a. Using sniffer dogs to identify explosive in the baggage
b. Access control of the aircraft
c. QRT’s
d. Prompt evaluation of call with the help of BWAF
211. Which of the following is a counter measure for bomb threat incidents at the
airport
a. Introduction of Sky marshals on the aircraft
b. Access control of the aircraft
c. QRT’s
d. Effective training of staff
212. Which of the following is true for a Non specific threat call where all passengers
had boarded the aircraft
a. All passengers and their hand baggage have to undergo security checks again at
SHA
b. No additional checks will be carried out on passengers
c. Only hand bags of passengers will be re-checked
d. Only registered bags of passengers will be re-checked
213. Which of the following is a counter measures to tackle bomb threat incidents at
airport
b. Conduct periodical mock up exercise

c. Installing watch towers around the perimeter
d. Patrolling around the perimeter
214. Which of the following is a counter measures to tackle bomb threat incidents at
airport
b. Up gradation of EDS and EDDS
c. Installing watch towers around the perimeter
d. Patrolling around the perimeter
215. Which one of the following counter measures for bomb incidents taken at airport
a. CCTV
b. Installation of EVD / ETD
c. Conducting periodic mock up exercise
d. All the above
216. In case of a specific bomb call search of aircraft will be conducted by
a. Bomb squad
b. Airline engineer
c. Airline security
d. All the above
217. In case of a specific bomb call which agency which one of the following will not
be involved in search of aircraft
a. Bomb squad
b. Representative from CISF
c. Security Officer of airline
d. Watch Supervisory Officer
218. The recipient of bomb threat call should try and hear background sounds
because it will help
a. To get an idea of age of the caller
b. in recognising the caller

c. in getting an idea of the location from where call was made
d. in understanding the motive of the caller
219. Which of the following is applicable while searching for a Suspect article
a. Use minimum 2 searches per room of size 250 sq ft
b. Use maximum 2 searchers per room of size 250 sq ft
c. Use maximum 3 searchers per room
d. Use maximum searchers per room
220. The Basic Search Rule specifies
a. Searchers should be used in alternate rooms
b. Searchers should be used in adjacent rooms
c. Use atleast 04 searchers per room
d. Suspect device should be immediately moved to safe location
221. Search area should be divided into which three levels while searching for a
suspect device
a. Floor to head, head to waist, waist to celing
b. Ceiling to waist, waist to head, head to floor
c. Waist to floor, floor to head, head to ceiling
d. Floor to waist, waist to head, head to ceiling
222. Which of the following is not applicable for unclaimed article
a. It is treated as a potential bomb
b. It will not be touched
c. It will be immediately taken to the local police station
d. It should not be opened
223. Which of the following is not the correct way to handle an unclaimed article
a. It is treated as a potential bomb
b. It will not be touched
c. A safe distance should be maintained from it
d. It should be opened to check if owner can be traced
MODULE 7 – PATROLLING AND GUARDING

224. Objective of security patrolling is to
a. Deter and prevent unauthorized access
b. Detect unauthorized access
c. Prevent unlawful activity
d. All the above
225. Which of the following is the sign of interference or attempted unauthorized

access
a. False alarm given by security equipment
b. Power failure at airport
c. Broken doors

access
c. Broken boundary
d. All of the above

access
c. Broken window
d. All of the above
228. Patrolling can be by __________
a. Watch tower
b. Foot
c. Control room

a. Watch tower
b. Foot
c. Control room
d. Using CCTV cameras
a. Watch tower
b. Using vehicle
c. Control room
MODULE – 8 PASSENGER SCREENING AND PHYSICAL SEARCH OF PASSENGERS
231. HHMD is used to detect?

a) Non-metallic material
b) Metallic items on a person’s body
c) Replicas of weapons made of non-metallic material
d) Drugs
232. The HHMD should be capable of detecting a minimum of …….. metals ?
a) 2.5gms
b) 5gms
c) 0.5gms
d) 50gms
233. Which one of these is not a pre operational check of HHMD?
a) The metal detector should be tested before use
b) Frisk the passenger with the HHMD by keeping it 2.5 cms away from his body
c) Check that the battery is fully charged
d) Adjust the audio control knob as necessary

234. HHMD is safe for ……….. And ………..?
a) Metals, Pacemakers
b) Pacemakers , non-metallic material
c) Pacemakers, Pregnant Women
d) Weapons , Drugs
235. DFMD is safe for ……….. And ………..?
a. Metals, Pacemakers
b. Pacemakers , non-metallic material
c. Pacemakers, Pregnant Women’s
d. Weapons , Drugs
236. Which one of these is not an advantage of HHMD?
a) It may malfunction
b) Easy to use
c) Touch free checks for passengers
d) Low Cost
237. The dimension of DFMD is?
a) 2meters x 0.75 to 0.85 meters
b) 3meters x 0.70 to 0.80 meters
c) 2meters x 0.7 to 0.8 meters
d) 3meters x 0.75 to 0.85 meters
238. Which one of these is a part of DFMD?
a) Transmitter Unit
b) Transmitter Piece
c) Transmitter Control
d) Transmitter Panel
239. DFMD is used to detect metallic items on person’s body which is of ?
a) 30gms and below
b) 0.30gms
c) 30gms and above
d) .5gms
240. Distance between 02 passengers passing through DFMD should be?
a) 3 meters
b) 3 feet
c) 30cms
d) 30 feet
241. DFMD has ______ overlapping zones?
a) 06
b) 08
c) 10
d) 12
242. DFMD gives ______ and _____ alarm
a) Video, audio
b) Visual, LED
c) Audio, visual
d) Audio, beep
243. DFMD and HHMD gives an ______ and _____ alarm
e) Video, audio
f) Visual, LED
g) Audio, visual
h) Audio, beep
244. Distance between two passengers while passing through DFMD is
a. 3mtr
b. 3 ft
c. 3 cm
d. 3 mm
245. With OTP staff should pass _______ times through DFMD for pre operational
checks
a. 10 Time
b. 20 Time
c. 05 Time
d. 8 Time
246. DFMD works on which principle
a. Infrared
b. Radio transmission
c. Electromagnetic
d. Audio visual
247. HHMD works on which principle
a. Infrared
b. Radio transmission
c. Electromagnetic
d. Audio visual
248. DFMD cannot detect
a. Metal of 40gms
b. Explosives
c. Steel
d. Mobile phone
249. In normal situation not more than ___________ LED’s should be illuminating when
nobody is passing through the DFMD
a. 1-2
b. 4-5
c. 5-6
d. 6-7
250. Red light illuminates on the control panel of DFMD, indicates passenger is
carrying
a. Weapon
b. Explosive
c. Alarming quantity of metal
d. All the above
251. Everyone will be screened at screening station except
a. Staff
b. Women
c. Children
d. Person under Exempted category
MODULE 9 : X-RAY EXAMINATION OF BAGGAGE
252. X-ray cannot be ______ by means of lens or prism is the
a. deformed
b. degraded
c. deflected
d. deflagrate
253. X-rays wavelength are extremely ________
a. Long
b. Short
c. Big
d. Minute
254. Which of the following is an example of DO’s while operating XBIS ?
a. Always check machine with OTP before use
b. Always switch on and off with key switch only
c. Close the ventilation openings on the machine before operation
d. Ensure no metallic items is in one meter range of the equipment
255. When should the following check be done on XBIS ?
‘Check all service panels are closed and locked’
a. Immediately after machine is switched on
b. Before shutting down XBIS
c. Before switching on XBIS
d. Randomly after every 1 hours of operating XBIS
‘Check all Emergency switches are in released position’
d. This check is not applicable for XBIS
‘Check all service panels are closed and locked’

‘There should be no object inside inspection tunnel’
d. Randomly after every 1 hours of operating XBIS
‘Make sure table is available for physical check’
‘Check the exterior of XBIS for any loose wires or connections’
261. When should the following be done on XBIS ?
‘Adjust brightness and contrast on monitor’
a. Every time a new operator takes charge of the machine
d. Once every morning when XBIS is started
262. When should the following be done on XBIS ?
‘Test the forward, stop and reverse movement of the conveyor belt’

d. Once every morning when XBIS is started
263. As per BCAS specification, when should a CTP test be carried out on the XBIS ?
d. Once every day when XBIS is first started
264. Where is the generator located in a Top Down beamer XBIS
a. At the Top of the XBIS
b. At the Bottom of the XBIS
c. On the right side of XBIS
d. On the left side of XBIS
265. Where is the generator located in a Down Top beamer XBIS
a. At the Top of the XBIS
b. At the Bottom of the XBIS
c. On the right side of XBIS
d. On the left side of XBIS
266. Where is the generator located in a Side beamer XBIS
a. On both sides of the tunnel
b. Always on the right side of tunnel
c. Always on the left side of tunnel
d. On any one side of tunnel
267. Which of the following item is seen in Orange colour ?
a. Organic material
b. Inorganic material
c. Heavy elements
d. Medium Heavy elements
268. Which of the following item is seen in Blue colour ?

a. Organic material
b. Inorganic material
c. All liquids
d. Explosives
269. Which of the following item is seen in Green colour ?
a. Organic material
b. Any item derived from plants
c. Explosives
d. Medium Heavy elements
270. Which of the following item is seen in Black colour ?
a. Items through which X-rays have completely penetrated
b. Any item derived from plants
c. Items through which X-ray could not penetrate
d. Heavy elements
271. Which of the following is a duty of load officer manning XBIS?
a. He will affix stickers on screened bags
b. He will operate the XBIS
c. He will carry out physical search of bags
d. He will ensure bag is placed correctly on conveyor
272. Which of the following is applicable to the load officer manning XBIS?
a. He will always be positioned at exit of XBIS
c. He will carry out physical search of bags
d. He will always be positioned at input of XBIS
273. Which of the following is applicable to the officer responsible for manual checks
of bags at XBIS?
c. He will ensure bag is placed correctly on conveyor

274. Which of the following is applicable to the X-ray officer positioned at XBIS?
b. He will be responsible for image interpretation of bag
b. He will alarm the officer at Manual check
277. The details of breakdown of XBIS are maintained in
a. Physical check register
b. Duty change register
c. Dangerous goods register
d. Maintenance register
278. Ammunition is detected in a checked in luggage. A log entry will be made in
a. Sticker consumption register
279. Acid was detected in a passengers checked in luggage. A log entry will be made
in
a. Sticker consumption register

280. Which of the following can have a negative influence on screening process of the
airline staff
a. A gate no show passenger
b. Unauthorised person caught entering from vehicle gate
c. CCTV cameras at the airport
d. Improper training
airline staff
a. A gate no show passenger
d. Person problems of staff performing screening duty
airline staff
a. DGCA audit of the crew members
d. Time deadline for aircraft departure
airline staff
d. Passenger pressure
airline staff

d. Increased surprise checks done by supervisors
airline staff
d. Extended hours of duty
airline staff
d. Feeing of sympathy for old passengers
airline staff
d. Non cooperation from passengers
288. Which of the following is an advantage of XBIS ?
a. It is portable
b. It is easy to operate
c. It works on principle of touch free concept
d. It is time saving
a. It is portable

d. Less manpower is required
a. It is portable
d. Easy to check bulky bags
a. Safe for cardiac pace makers
b. Safe for pregnant ladies
c. Safe for guns
d. Safe for food and films
292. Which of the following is a dis-advantage of XBIS ?
a. It is not portable
b. It cannot detect explosives
c. It cannot detect non-metallic firearms
d. It requires lot of manpower
a. It involves high maintenance cost
a. It can be operated only by trained staff
a. It is space consuming equipment

296. In which one of the following colors will Iron appear on the X-ray monitor?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Opaque
297. In which one of the following colors will Copper appear on the X-ray monitor?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Opaque
298. In which one of the following colors will Power Source appear on the X-ray
monitor?
a. Blue
b. Orange
c. Green
d. Blue or green depending on material
299. In which one of the following colors will Mechanism appear on the X-ray monitor?
a. Orange
b. Blue or green depending on material
c. Green
d. Blue
300. In which one of the following colors will Gold appear on the X-ray monitor?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Opaque
301. In which one of the following colors will Silver appear on the X-ray monitor?
a. Green
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Opaque
302. Which of the following items will appear in Green color on the X-ray monitor?
a. Detonator
b. Iron
c. Silver
d. Zinc
303. Which of the following item will appear in Opaque color on the X-ray monitor?
a. Wood
b. Silver
c. Gold
d. Book
304. Which of the following items will appear in Opaque color on the X-ray monitor?
a. Gun
b. Gun Powder
c. Salt
d. Leather
305. Which test defines 26 SWG wire will be seen under second step wedge
a. Single wire resolution
b. Useful penetration
c. Material discrimination
d. Spatial resolution
306. For new X-ray machines, Single Wire Resolution is
a. 38SWG
b. 40SWG
c. 48SWG
d. 26SWG
307. For existing or older X-ray machines, Single Wire Resolution is
a. 38SWG
b. 40SWG
c. 48SWG
d. 26SWG
308. Simple penetration for new x-ray machine is
a. 26mm of steel
b. 24mm of steel
c. 40mm of steel
d. 38mm of steel
309. Simple penetration for existing x-ray machine is
a. 26mm of steel
b. 24mm of steel
c. 40mm of steel
d. 38mm of steel
310. Which colour message is seen on monitor when you detect threat item in TIP
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
311. Which colour message is seen on the monitor when you miss threat item in TIP
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Black
312. Which colour message is seen in case of aborted projection
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
MODULE – 10 : PHYSICAL INSPECTION OF BAGGAGE
313. Procedure for hand search of baggage

a. Baggage should be opened in such a way that passenger and searcher both can
see the contents but other passengers can not see the contents.
b. Baggage should be opened and examined to ensure that there is no false bottom.
c. Try to search the bag if possible without removing contents. Use systematic
method i.e. top to down and left to centre and centre to right.
d. All the above
MODULE 11 – SEARCHING AND SECURING STERILE HOLD AREA
314. When conducting search of the SHA more attention to be paid to toilets because
a. It dirty
b. Passenger is unsupervised
c. Very few passengers use it
315. More the facilities in the SHA greater the problem because
a. Cost involved
b. Passengers make SHA dirty
c. More checks to be conducted of facilities
316. If weapon discovered while conducting search of SHA searcher should

immediately
a. Trace passenger
b. Check all hand bags of passenger in SHA
c. Immediately safeguard the weapon

317. If IED IS discovered while conducting search of SHA searcher should

immediately
a. Trace passenger
b. Check all hand bags of passenger in SHA
c. Notify supervisor
MODULE – 12 : ESCORTING PEOPLE AND CONSIGNMENT
318. Prisoner while boarding the aircraft has to board the aircraft
a. Along with the other passengers
b. After all the pax have boarded
c. Before all the pax have boarded
d. Before the crew have boarded
319. Procedure for the carriage of prisoner

a. No more than one prisoner, classified as dangerous shall be allowed on any one
flight
b. No aircraft operator shall allow a prisoner and escorting officers as passengers
unless prior permission is obtained from the BCAS
c. Minimum 02 escorts shall be required for one prisoner who is classified as
dangerous
d. All the above
320. No of dangerous prisoner allowed on board the aircraft

a. 3
b. 2
c. 1
d. 4
321. Minimum no of escorts require for dangerous prisoner

a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1
322. Which of the following document is checked by Security staff for Sky marshals
travelling on board aircraft
a. Weapon authorization card-BCAS
b. Identity card
c. Ration card
d. Letter given by NSG that the Sky Marshal should be allowed to travel
323. Which of the following document is checked for Sky marshals travelling on board
aircraft
a. Valid Flight ticket
b. Identity card
c. Ration card
d. Letter given by BCAS to allow Sky Marshal to travel
324. Which of the following document is checked for Sky marshals travelling on board
aircraft
a. Valid Airport Entry Permit
b. Identity card
c. Ration card
d. Letter given by BCAS to allow Sky Marshal to travel
325. What are the main factor causes passenger becoming unruly
a. Excessive drinking
b. Nicotine starvation due to smoking restriction
c. Travelling in crowded environment for extended time
d. All the above
326. A bonafide passenger is carrying a weapon, where would it be loaded in case of

an aircraft where holds are accessible from passenger cabin, for ex ATR aircraft
a. In registered baggage
b. In the cock pit
c. In weapon compartment which is attached to the body of the aircraft
d. Weapon is not allowed to be carried
327. Sky marshals are from which organization

a. BCAS
b. ASG/APSU
c. NSG
d. Airline
328. Sky marshals travel as per schedule given by

a. DGCA
b. Airline operator
c. BCAS
d. NSG
329. Which colour AEP sky marshal carry

a. Orange C
b. Orange
c. Purple
d. Navy Blue
330. Who can carry weapon and ammunition on person or in hand baggage
a. PSO’s of VVIP’s
b. PSO’s of VIP’s
c. Any person on bonafide duty
d. Bonafide passenger holding valid license
331. Who can carry weapon and ammunition in registered baggage

a. PSO’s of VVIP
b. Sky marshal
c. SPG’s when accompanying SPG Protectee
332. Who can carry loaded gun in flight

a. PSO’s of VVIP
b. Sky marshal
c. SPG’s when accompanying SPG Protectee
333. Maximum no of weapon and ammunition can be carried by passenger

a. 1 weapon and 15 ammunition
b. 2 weapon and 50 ammunition
c. 1 weapon and 50 ammunition
d. 2 weapon and 25 ammunition
334. Passenger’s with a valid weapon license can carry weapon in their
a. Hand baggage
b. Registered/checked baggage
c. On person
d. All the above
335. In case more number of weapons are to be carried by sports person, permission
is given by
a. BCAS
b. DGCA
c. COSCA
d. APM
336. While boarding the aircraft prisoner and escort should boarded first and deplaned
last, because
a. Hospitality should be maintained
b. Crew should see who is the prisoner
c. Special meal is provided which we do not want to show to other passenger
d. We do not want to give chance to prisoner to mingle with general public where he
can take undue advantage of it
337. No metal cutlery to be provided to prisoner , because
a. They are prisoner hence they should not be treated well
b. We are not giving food to them
c. We want them to eat with hand
d. Prisoner can misuse the cutlery to harm someone
338. Who is the deportee
a. Deportees are persons who have been ordered to leave the state
b. They are unruly passengers
c. They are terrorist
d. The one who carry drugs
339. For carriage of weapon sky marshal are issued with
a. Weapon authorization card
b. License
c. Movement order
d. Letter from DGCA
MODULE – 13 – PROTECTION AND SEARCH OF AIRCRAFT
340. What is the procedure for guarding the aircraft normal condition?
a. Security person guarding the aircraft
b. Ensure only authorized people allowed on board
c. Intercept unauthorized people attempting to board aircraft or in a vicinity
d. All the above
341. Toilets of an aircraft is the most vulnerable area, where suspicious items could
be placed by terrorists because
a. They are dirty
b. The terrorist has complete privacy
c. There are smoke detectors in toilets
d. They are not cleaned while aircraft is in flight
342. Which of the following areas of the aircraft is most vulnerable where the terrorist
can easily place an IED
a. Under the seat
b. Over head bin
c. In the cockpit
d. In the toilet
343. Which of the following is the airline procedure for unattended aircraft
a. Aircraft are parked in a well-lit area
b. All external doors are locked
c. Stairs and loading bridges are removed
d. All the above
344. Which of the following is not a procedure for unattended aircraft?
a. Aircraft are parked in a well-lit area

b. Aircraft will be guarded by security staff
c. Stairs and loading bridges are removed and immobilized
d. All external doors are closed and locked
345. What is the correct action to handle a suspect bag found at airport
a. Handover the bag to Airport operator

b. Take the bag to the airlines Lost Luggage department
c. Do not touch the bag
d. Check the bag to find out any details of passengers on it
346. Which of the following is applicable for originating flight ?
a. Aircraft search not required for originating flight

b. A thorough anti-sabotage check is carried out
c. Transit passengers and their baggage are examined
d. Identification of checked in baggage by pax done for this flight
347. When is the aircraft search done for a turn-around flight ?
a. After all the passengers have disembarked/deplaned

b. Aircraft search not required in turn around flight
c. With Transit passenger still on board
d. When the boarding process is completed
348. Responsibility of searching the cabin of an aircraft is that of the following
a. ASG/APSU
b. Trained airline ground staff & engineering staff
c. Cabin crew
d. Cockpit crew
349. Which document to be referred while conducting search of aircraft ?
a. Aircraft search check-list

b. Aircraft equipment check-list
c. Aircraft entry list
d. Aircraft entry register
MODULE – 14 : PROTECTING AIRCRAFT CATERING UPLIFT

350. Which one of the following is the responsibility of caterer?
a. Sealing of carts
b. Access control of catering premises
c. Preparation of dispatch slip for HLV
d. Checking food trays
351. Which is not a role of airline security in catering
a. Search under the food trolley and check locks

c. Check the trays for unusual weight.
d. Search the top part of the trolley namely the ice tray
a. Sealing of carts
b. Security checks of raw material brought into premises
c. Preparation of dispatch slip
d. Checking trays
a. Sealing of carts
b. Chilling rooms and refrigerators under strict security control
d. Checking trays
a. Sealing of carts
b. Providing proper locking system for meal carts
d. Checking trays
a. Sealing of carts
d. Escorting of catering vehicles
356. On board courier will be accepted minimum
a. One day prior
b. 5hrs prior
c. 2hrs prior
MODULE -15 : PROTECTION OF CARGO AND MAIL
357. Which one of the following shipment is exempted from x-ray screening
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. HUM
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. AVI
d. flower
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. Life saving material
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. Live human organs
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. Diplomatic mail
a. Documents
b. Food items
c. Special nuclear material
363. Which one of the following document is required in case of acceptance of HUM
a. Letter from embassy
b. Approval from BCAS
c. Death Certificate
c. Embalming certificate
c. Police clearance certificate

366. In case of acceptance of AVI letter from _______ is required
a. Police
b. Veterinary doctor
c. BCAS
367. Accompanied diplomatic mail bag can be
a. Screened
b. Not to be screened
c. Can be physically searched
368. Unaccompanied diplomatic mail bag can be
a. Screened
b. Not be screened
c. Can be physically searched
MODULE – 16 : IMPROVING SECURITY ENVIRONMENT
369. The following personnel’s is exempted from pre-embarkation security checks at

all civil airports even when he/she is not accompanying the president.
a. Spouse of the president of India
b. Former President
c. Shri Robert Vadra, while travelling with SPG Protectees
d. His Holiness the Dalai Lama

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Basic AVSEC Questions

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BASIC AVSEC COURSE – MODERATELY DIFFICULT QUESTIONS

MODULE – 1 – INTRODUCTION TO COURSE

2. A designated area on an apron intended to be used for parking an aircraft.

3. An aircraft shall be deemed to be ________ from the beginning of the pre

5. The non-commercial operation or use of aircraft by a company for the carriage of

6. A device, or combination of devices and / or procedures, which are intended to detect

9. A person who is or will be refused admission to a State by its authorities.

17. Aviation security is a combination of measures, human and __________ , intended to

22. Set of procedures applied in handling, containment, and resolution of an emergency

25. A person, organization or enterprise engaged in or offering to engage in an aircraft

30. A standard practice is defined as any specification for physical characteristics,

31. ICAO has its headquarters in.

33. A ____________ practice is any specification for physical characteristics, configuration,

34. Convention for suppression of unlawful seizure of aircraft

a. Watch Through Metal Detector

b. Wired Threat Metal Detection

c. Wire Testing Metal Detector

d. Walk Through Metal Detector

2. The abbreviation AMD stands for?

b. Archway Metal Detector

c. Armed Metal Detector

d. Archway Mobile Detector

3. The abbreviation ASTP stands for ?

a. Aviation Security Training Package

b. Airlines Security Training Package

c. Aviation Security Training Programme

d. Airlines Security Training Procedure

4. The abbreviation AWG stands for?

a. Airline Works Group

b. American Wire Gauge

c. Airports Wireless Guage

d. Aviation Watch Group

5. The abbreviation BTAC stands for?

a. Bomb Threat Airport Council

c. Bomb Threat Airport Committee

d. Bomb Threat Assessment Committee

6. The abbreviation BDDS stands for?

b. Bomb Detector Dog Squad

c. Bomb Detection and Disposal Squad

d. Bomb Detection and Disposal Service

7. The abbreviation BTCP stands for?

a. Bomb Threat Contingency Plan

b. Bomb Threat Counter Plan

c. Bomb Threat Country Plan

1. d)Bomb Threat Conter Procedure

8. The abbreviation BWAF stands for?

a. Bomb Warning Airport Form

b. Bomb Warning Assessment Form

c. Bomb Warning Assistance Form

d. Bomb Warning Assessment Focus

9. The abbreviation BTCL stands for?

a. Bomb Threat Counter List

b. Bomb Threat Check List

c. Bomb Threat Committee List

d. Bomb Threat Contingency List

10. The abbreviation CAPPS stands for?

a. Civil Aviation Passenger Profiling System

c. Computer Aided Passenger Profiling System

d. Civil Aviation Passenger Profiling System

11. The abbreviation CTCP stands for?

a. Counter Terrorist Contingency Plan

b. Computed Terrorist Contingency Plan

c. Counter Terrorist Computer Plan

d. Counter Terrorist Control Plan