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com
DI EXAM 2015 8. Mineralocorticoids cause:
(a) Gluconeogenesis
1. Zero order kinetics is seen in all except: (b) Glycogen synthesis
(a) Salicylates (c) Lipolysis
(b) Barbiturates (d) Sodium reabsorption
(c) Phenytoin
(d) Ethanol 9. In UV spectrophotometer, the light source is:
(a) Tungsten lamp

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2. Which one of the following is not a prodrug? (b) Sodium lamp
(a) Chloral hydrate (c) Deuterium lamp
(b) Diazepam (d) None of these
(c) Enalapril
(d) Oxcarbazepine 10. The principle of infrared spectra is based upon:

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(a) Electronic excitation
3. Which one of the following drugs does not cross the (b) Resonance
placental barrier? (c) Dissociation

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(a) Morphine (d) Molecular vibrations
(b) Lithium
(c) Warfarin

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(d) Heparin
11. Williamson Synthesis is used for the preparation of:
4. The evidence which indicates that a drug is stored (a) Aldehydes
extravascularly is: (b) Alcohols
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(a) Small clearance (c) Ethers
(b) Small apparent volume of distribution (d) Amides
(c) Large apparent volume of distribution
12. Ketoconazole structure contains :
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(d) Large clearance

(a) Imidazole ring
5. Which one among the following drugs can be given (b) Triazole ring
safely during pregnancy? (c) Tetrazole ring
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(a) Tetracycline (d) Thiazole ring

(b) Chloroquine
13. Vitamin containing steroidal moiety is:
(c) Thalidomide
(a) Vitamin D
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(d) Primaquine
(b) Vitamin A
6. Lignocaine is used in the treatment of : (c) Vitamin E
(a) Atrial Flutter (d) Vitamin B12
(b) Atrial Fibrillation
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14. Dragendorff's reagent is employed for the

(c) PSVT
identification of :
(d) Ventricular tachycardia
(a) Carbohydrates
7. Which one among the following drugs is used in AV (b) Alkaloids
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block? (c) Flavonoids

(a) Isoprenaline (d) Proteins
(b) Propranolol
15. In which one among the following is Pteridine ring
(c) Dopamine
system present?
(d) Disopyramide
(a) Ascorbic acid
(b) Thiamine
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Previous Year Paper GPAT Pharmacist
(c) Pyridoxine
(d) Folic acid
16. Aminophylline is a combination of:
(a) Theophylline and dimethylamine
(b) Caffeine and theophylline
(c) Theophylline and ethylenediamine
(d) Caffeine and ethylenediamine
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23. Creatinine clearance is used as a measurement of:
(a) Renal excretion rate
(b) Active renal secretion
(c) Glomerular filtration rate
(d) Tubular reabsorption
24. Which one of the following is an enteric polymer?
(a) Hydroxypropyl cellulose phthalate

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(b) Sodium carboxymethyl cellulose
17. Purine ring system is a fusion of: (c) Ethyl cellulose
(a) Pyridine and imidazole (d) Starch
(b) Pyrimidine and imidazole
(c) Piperidine and pyrazole 25. Ingredient that may be used as a suspending agent

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(d) Piperidine and imidazole is:
(a) Sodium lauryl sulphate
18. Furosemide contains the following heterocycle: (b) Lactose

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(a) Furan (c) Methyl cellulose
(b) Thiophene (d) Cellulose acetate phthalate
(c) Pyrrole

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(d) Imidazole 26. Mifepristone is used in the management of:
(a) Breast carcinoma
19. Term of every patent in India (under Indian Patent (b) Prostatic carcinoma
Act) from the date of filing is: (c) Medical termination of pregnancy
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(a) 10 years
(d) Dysfunctional uterine bleeding
(b) 14 years
(c) 20 years 27. Which one of the following drugs is an antagonist at
(d) 24 years NK1 receptors and is used to prevent or reduce
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chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting?

20. Raloxifene is indicated for use in: (a) Ondansetron
(a) Rickets (b) Aprepitant
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(b) Hypoparathyroidism (c) Bosentan

(c) Postmenopausal osteoporosis
(d) Metoclopramide
(d) Intestinal osteodystrophy
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28. Aldosterone is secreted by:

21. Immunoglobulin gamma (Ig G) is a: (a) Adrenal Medulla
(a) Deoxyribonucleic acid (b) Zona glomerulosa of adrenal cortex
(b) Ribonucleic acid (c) Zona fasciculata of adrenal cortex
(c) Protein
(d) Zona reticularis of adrenal cortex
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(d) Lipid
29. Biguanides act by the following mechanisms except:
22. Schedule 'X' of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act and (a) Increased glycolysis
Rules deals with: (b) Increased insulin release from pancreas
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(a) List of drugs which are habit forming and likely to be (c) Decreased gluconeogenesis
misused (d) Increased insulin binding to its receptors
(b) Standards for ophthalmic preparations
(c) Requirements for the Good Manufacturing Practices 30. Long acting insulin is:
(d) Life period of drugs (a) Glargine
(b) Lispro

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(c) Aspart 38. Good Laboratory Practice (GLP) works on the basis
(d) Glulisine of:
(a) WHO guidelines
31. Thyroxine is synthesized from: (b) OECD guidelines
(a) Cysteine (c) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of
(b) Tyrosine India guidelines
(c) Arginine (d) ISO guidelines
(d) Alanine

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39. As per GLP certification, the responsibility of
32. Misoprostol is a : archiving the data and samples in a Clinical Trial is with:
(a) Prostaglandin E1 analogue (a) Test Facility Management
(b) Prostaglandin E2 analogue (b) Study Director
(c) Anti progestin (c) Principal investigator

.c
(d) Prostaglandin antagonist (d) QA department
33. CPCSEA deals with: 40. Which one of the following drugs is useful in the

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(a) Good Laboratory Practice prophylaxis of migraine?
(b) Good Clinical Practice (a) Ergotamine
(c) Good Manufacturing Practice

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(b) Sumatriptan
(d) Ethical issues of use of laboratory animals (c) Propranolol
34. Serendipity is: (d) Domperidone
(a) Serious adverse events 41. Which one of the following drugs is not primarily
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(b) Toxicity eliminated through kidney?
(c) Observation by chance (a) Cefotaxime
(d) Anaphylactic shock (b) Cefoperazone
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35. Once a week administration of which one of the (c) Gentamicin

following drugs has prophylactic activity against (d) Benzyl penicillin
bacteraemia caused by Mycobacterium avium complex 42. Which one of the following antihistaminics does not
ar

in AIDS patients ? prolong QTc interval?

(a) Clarithromycin (a) Terfenadine
(b) Azithromycin (b) Mizolastine
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(c) Rifabutin (c) Astemizole

(d) Isoniazid
43. Which one of the following drugs is used to treat
36. Clinical trials for the import and manufacture of new bradycardia or heart block during anaesthesia?
drugs are to be carried out as per: (a) Atropine
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(a) Schedule C and C1 (b) Ipratropium

(b) UGC guidelines (c) Propantheline
(c) Schedule Y (d) Glycopyrrolate
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37. Phase IV of clinical trial is performed: 44. Which one of the following antibacterial drugs will
(a) Before drug approval remain in body for longest duration after single dose
(b) After drug approval administration?
(c) During pharmacological screening (a) Benzathine penicillin
(d) During pharmacokinetic study (b) Ethambutol

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(c) Azithromycin (c) Permanent disability
(d) Kanamycin (d) ECG changes

45. Which one of the following must be given to a 52. Sulphasalazine is a prodrug that is activated in the
pregnant lady to prevent 'spina bifida'? intestine by bacterial enzymes. The enzyme responsible
(a) Vitamin E is :
(b) Folic acid (a) Methyl transferase
(c) Thiamine (b) Acetyl transferase

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(d) Iron (c) Azoreductase
(d) Pseudo cholinesterase
46. For the eradication of P.vivax malaria, which one of
the following drugs is used? 53. The process of sterilization can be best defined as:
(a) Mefloquine (a) Total destruction or elimination of all living

.c
(b) Sulphadoxine microorganisms
(c) Primaquine (b) Elimination of pyrogens only
(d) Pyrimethamine (c) Elimination of pathogenic microorganisms

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(d) Elimination of pyrogens and carbon dioxide
47. Morphine administration produces all of the
following effects except: 54. Which one of the following best describes a cofactor

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(a) Diarrhoea that is firmly bound to an apoenzyme?
(b) Miosis (a) Holoenzyme
(c) Bradycardia (b) Coenzyme
(d) Respiratory depression (c) Prosthetic group
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(d) None of these
48. The drug of choice for filariasis is:
(a) Piperazine 55. Schedule 'S' of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940
(b) Diethylcarbamazine applies to:
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(c) Albendazole (a) Requirement of factory premises

(d) Ivermectin (b) List of poisons
(c) Life period of drugs
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49. Parenteral products with an osmotic pressure less (d) Standard for cosmetics
than that of blood or 0.9% sodium chloride are referred
to as: 56. All fungi are:
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(a) Isotonic solutions (a) Chemoheterotrophs

(b) Hypertonic solutions (b) Chemoautotrophs
(c) Hypotonic solutions (c) Photoheterotrophs
(d) Neutral solutions (d) Photoautotrophs
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50. Micro dosing studies are done before the start of 57. Which one of the following is anaerobic media?
which one of the following phases of a Clinical Trial ? (a) Soyabean casein digest media
(a) Phase I (b) Fluid thioglycollate media
(b) Phase II (c) Eosin-methylene blue agar media
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(c) Phase III (d) Mannitol salt agar media

(d) Phase IV
58. Eudragits are:
51. All of the following are serious adverse events (a) Phthalate polymers
(SAEs) in Clinical Trials except: (b) Cellulose polymers
(a) Death (c) Acrylate polymers
(b) Prolongation of hospitalization (d) Amide polymers
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59. USP Dissolution Apparatus-I is: (b) Steam distillation
(a) Paddle type (c) Destructive distillation
(b) Reciprocating cylinder (d) Distillation under reduced pressure
(c) Basket type
66. For a drug that obeys first order kinetics and fits into
(d) Paddle over disc
one-compartment model of elimination, which one of
60. Dew point is defined as the temperature to which a the following is not correct?
given mixture of: (a) Its rate of elimination is proportional to its plasma

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(a) Air and water must be cooled to become concentration
unsaturated (b) After stopping the I .V. infusion of the drug, the
(b) Air and water vapour must be heated to become plasma concentration declines exponentially
saturated (c) The composition of drug products excreted is
(c) Air and water must be heated to become independent of dose

.c
unsaturated (d) The elimination half life is proportional to the dose
(d) Air and water vapour must be cooled to become administered

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saturated
67. Which one of the following drugs is not used in the
61. All of the following statements are true about treatment of chronic alcoholism?

ed
Sitagliptin except: (a) Naltrexone
(a) It is an inhibitor of dipeptidyl peptidase -4 (DPP-4), (b) Acamprosate
the enzyme that degrades incretin. (c) Disulfiram
(b) It increases circulating levels of GLP-I and GIP. (d) Fomepizole
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(c) It has short half life and low oral bioavailability.
(d) It decreases postprandial glucose excursions by 68. Which one of the following drugs does not produce
its effect through action on GABA- benzodiazepine
increasing glucose mediated insulin secretion and
receptor complex?
decreasing glucagon levels.
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(a) Phenobarbitone
62. Ball mill works on the principle of : (b) Zopiclone
(a) Impact and attrition (c) Chlordiazepoxide
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(b) Impact only (d) Clozapine

(c) Shearing and friction
69. The Clinical Trial Registry in India is maintained by:
(d) Crushing and friction
(a) World Health Organization, Delhi Office
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63. The mixer used for the purpose of mixing solid (b) Indian Council of Medical Research, New Delhi
powder in ointment base is: (c) Institute of Clinical Research, New Delhi
(a) Turbine (d) Central Drugs Standard Control Organization, New
(b) Triple roller mill Delhi
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(c) Planetary
70. The licence to import drug for the purpose of
(d) Agitator
examination and test of analysis is issued on which one
64. Darcy's law is related to: of the following Forms?
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(a) Sedimentation (a) Form 11

(b) Filtration (b) Form 20
(c) Centrifugation (c) Form 21
(d) Viscosity (d) Form 29

65. Distillation of two immiscible liquids is done by: 71. The Drugs and Magic Remedies (Objectionable
(a) Fractional distillation Advertisements) Act 1954 applies to all except:

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(a) Dadra & Nagar Haveli (c) 6.0
(b) Jammu & Kashmir (d) 3.5
(c) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
79. The drug pioglitazone was banned by Government
(d) Puducherry
of India due to:
72. Drying of blood products and enzyme based (a) Increased risk of bladder cancer only
preparation is carried out by: (b) Risk of heart failure and increased risk of bladder
(a) Vacuum drying cancer

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(b) Fluidized bed drying (c) Risk of heart failure only
(c) Lyophilization (d) Risk of decrease in mobility
(d) Tunnel drying
80. Which of the following is used in nuclear medicine
73. The mode of action of ethylene oxide as a imaging?

.c
sterilization agent is by: (a) Alpha radiations
(a) Oxidation (b) Gamma radiations
(b) Reduction (c) Beta radiations

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(c) Alkylation (d) None of these
(d) Protein precipitation
81. Schedule 'T' of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act

ed
74. The term used to describe unequal distribution of prescribes GMP specifications for manufacture of :
colour on a tablet is: (a) Ayurvedic, Siddha and Unani medicines
(a) Chipping (b) Ophthalmic preparations
(b) Mottling (c) Parenteral preparations
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(c) Double impression (d) Allopathic medicines
(d) Lamination
82. Drugs (Price Control) Order 1995 and related orders
75. Which one of the following functional groups is from time to time are enforced by:
m

most susceptible to hydrolysis? (a) NPPA

(a) R-CO-R (b) CSIR
(b) R-COOR (c) DBT
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(c) R-O-R (d) ICMR

(d) R-COOH
83. The characteristics of non-linear pharmacokinetics
Ph

76. Dienostrol is synthesized from: include:

(a) 4-amino acetophenone (a) Area under the curve is proportional to the dose
(b) 4-chloro butyrophenone (b) Elimination half-life remains constant
(c) 4-bromo propiophenone (c) Area under the curve is not proportional to the dose
(d) 4-hydroxy propiophenone (d) Amount of drug excreted remains constant
he

77. Any enzyme that cleaves deoxyribonucleic acid 84. Inulin is used as marker for measurement of :
(DNA ) at a specific site is called: (a) Glomerular filtration rate
(a) Restriction endonuclease (b) Active renal secretion
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(b) Restriction ribonuclease (c) Active renal reabsorption

(c) Interleukin (d) Passive renal absorption
(d) Trypsin
85. Which one of the following enzymes is most likely to
78. Aspirin (pKa = 3.49) will be most soluble at pH be deficient in "Gray Baby Syndrome"?
(a) 1.0 (a) Azoreductase
(b) 2.0 (b) Methyl transferase
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(c) Glucuronyl transferase 91. Which one of the following is a solid dosage form
(d) Acetyl transferase excipient which can play the role of a diluent, a
disintegrant, a glidant, a lubricant and a pore/channel
86. The absorption rate constant is calculated by: former?
(a) Rate of excretion method (a) Lactose
(b) Wagner Nelson method (b) Microcrystalline cellulose
(c) Michaelis Menten equation (c) Ethyl cellulose
(d) Sigma Minus plot

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(d) Eudragit RL 100
87. The loading dose of a drug is determined on the 92. Which one of the following techniques is used to
basis of: determine glass transition temperature?
(a) Area under the plasma drug concentration versus (a) X-ray diffractometry
time curve (b) Raman spectroscopy

.c
(b) Total body clearance (c) Differential scanning calorimetry
(c) Fraction of drug excreted unchanged in the urine (d) Thermogravimetric analysis
(d) Apparent volume of distribution and desired drug

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concentration in plasma 93. For increased production of penicillin by
fermentation, the pH is maintained between:
88. How long after the drug administration is 75% of the

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(a) 1 to 4
drug eliminated from the patient's body if the (b) 4.8 to 5.2
elimination half life is 4 hours? (c) 6.8 to 7.4
(a) 12 hours
(d) 6 to 7
(b) 8 hours
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(c) 16 hours 94. Newer insulins are:
(d) 10 hours (a) Acidic
(b) Neutral
89. An antibiotic was given at a dose of 10 mg/kg by a
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(c) Alkaline
single intravenous bolus injection to a 62 year old (d) Monomers
woman who weighed 80 kg. The antibiotic followed the
pharmacokinetics of a one- compartment model and 95. Which one of the following classes exists inside a
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has an elimination half-life of 4 hours. The apparent certified horizontal or vertical laminar air flow hood?
volume of distribution is 0.50 L/kg. What is the initial (a) Class 1000
plasma drug concentration in the woman? (b) Class 100
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(a) 1600 mg/L (c) Class 10

(b) 20 mg/L (d) Class 1
(c) 0.2 mg/L
96. Which one of the following treatments should be
(d) 160 mg/L
instituted immediately in a child presenting to medical
he

90. A drug is 55% bound to plasma proteins. The emergency with severe acute lead poisoning with signs
concentration of drug in a patient's body after 10 hours and symptoms of encephalopathy?
was found to be 20 mg/L. The apparent volume of (a) Succimer
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distribution was found to be 0.60 kg/L for an 80 kg (b) Penicillamine

patient. What is the total amount of drug present in the (c) Deferoxamine
patient's body after 10 hours? (d) EDTA
(a) 120 mg
(b) 960 mg 97. MRT is defined as the ratio of:
(a) AUC to AUMC
(c) 1.5 mg
(b) AUMC to AUC
(d) 20 mg
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(c) AUC to Vd India
(d) AUMC to Vd (d) President, Pharmacy Council of India, Government
of India
98. The proteins which are ATP dependent pumps and
facilitate the efflux of drug molecules from the cell are 104. In quantitative TLC, radioactive material can be
known as: studied by:
(a) Cytochrome P 450 3 A4 (a) Gravimeter
(b) P-glycoproteins (b) Geiger counter

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(c) Cytochrome P 450 (c) Densitometer
(d) Carrier for active transport (d) Visual comparison

99. Ion-exchange chromatography is used for the 105. Which one of the following is not a correct
separation of: statement?

.c
(a) Aldehydes (a) DNA polymerase is an enzyme that cleaves DNA at
(b) Aminoacids sequence-specific site.
(c) Fatty acids (b) Recombinant DNA is a hybrid DNA that is formed

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(d) Hydrocarbons when pieces of DNA from different sources are joined
(c) Interferon is a glycoprotein produced by animal cells
100. Which one of the following techniques is used to

ed
in response to viral infection.
mill camphor? (d) Hybridoma is a hybrid cell produced by the fusion of
(a) Attrition a myeloma cell and a specific antibody produced B-
(b) Levigation
lymphocyte
(c) Trituration
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(d) Pulverization by intervention 106. Which one of the following drugs has low first pass
metabolism?
101. Blood and blood products are governed by which (a) Verapamil
Schedule of the Drug and Cosmetics Act, 1940?
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(b) Morphine
(a) Schedule B (c) Propranolol
(b) Schedule C and C1 (d) Isosorbide mononitrate
(c) Schedule G
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(d) Schedule W 107. When the investigators and relevant governing

bodies ( such as Institutional Review Board) approve a
102. Live attenuated vaccines are better immunizing protocol deviation before initiating the study, it is
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agents because: called:

(a) Live attenuated vaccines require multiple doses (a) Minor protocol deviation
(b) Live attenuated vaccines can be given to immuno- (b) Major protocol deviation
compromised persons (c) Minor protocol violation
(c) Replication of organism in a live attenuated vaccine
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(d) Protocol exception

increases the stimulation of the immune system and a
lower dose is often required. 108. All of the following are true about active transport
(d) All of these except:
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(a) Active transport utilises energy.

103. The Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board is: (b) Active transport is a carrier mediated transport
(a) Drug Controller General of India, Government of process.
India (c) The carrier system is not saturated at high drug
(b) Director General, Indian Council of Medical concentration.
Research, Government of India (d) In active transport, drug molecules move against a
(c) Director General of Health Services, Government of concentration gradient.
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109. In case of clinical trial injury, who decides the (c) Tyrosine
quantum of compensation? (d) Ornithine
(a) Sponsor
(b) Investigator 116. All the following drugs induce cytochrome P 450
except:
(c) Licensing Authority
(d) Medical Superintendent of the hospital where injury (a) Ketoconazole
(b) Phenobarbitone
occurs
(c) Rifampicin

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110. Pharmacovigilance Programme of India (PvPI) is (d) Alcohol
under the control of:
(a) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers, Government of 117. Febuxostat is:
India (a) Anticoagulant agent
(b) Antiplatelet agent
(b) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government

.c
(c) Xanthine oxidase inhibitor
of India
(c) Ministry of Law and Justice, Government of India (d) Contraceptive pill

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(d) Central Bureau of Investigation, Government of India 118. Which one of the following drugs is not used in the
111. All are viral vaccines except: treatment of MAC complex?
(a) Roxithromycin

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(a) Pertussis
(b) Mumps (b) Rifabutin
(c) Poliomyelitis (c) Ethambutol
(d) INH
(d) Rabies
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119. According to Kozeny Carmen equation, a 10%
112. Centchroman belongs to which category of drugs?
(a) Oral anticoagulant change in porosity can produce:
(b) Oral contraceptive (a) Three fold change in rate of flow
(b) Two fold change in rate of flow
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(c) Oral antidiabetic

(c) Ten fold change in rate of flow
(d) Oral haematinic
(d) Hundred fold change in rate of flow
113. Which one of the following drugs can be used in a
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patient who develops severe thrombocytopenia in
response to treatment with unfractionated heparin and
still requires parenteral anticoagulation?
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120. A drug of low water solubility when given orally is
absorbed up to 90% of the administered dose. The drug
belongs to which class according to BCS classification?

(a) Vitamin K1 (a) Class III

(b) Class I
(b) Abciximab
(c) Cilostazol (c) Class II
(d) Lepirudin (d) Class IV
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114. Heterocyclic rings present in pilocarpine are: 121. Pregnancy test kits are designed to detect:
(a) Imidazole and dihydrofuran (a) Estrogen
(b) Human chorionic gonadotropin
(b) Imidazole and quinoline
(c) Follicle-stimulating hormone
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(c) Imidazole and thiazole

(d) Quinoline and phenanthrene (d) Luteinizing hormone

115. Precursor for the biosynthesis of Tropane group of 122. Which one of the following facts is not true about
Clomiphene Citrate?
alkaloids is:
(a) Leucine (a) Decreases the risk of ovarian tumour
(b) Lysine (b) Acts as a pure estrogen antagonist in all human
tissues
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(c) Renders benefit in males with oligospermia (c) suddenly
(d) Enhances the risk of multiple pregnancy (d) and hardly

123. Which one of the following is not a penetration 130. Which part of the sentence 'This latest machine is
enhancer? more efficient than any other equipments in the
(a) Sodium taurocholate laboratory.' is incorrect?
(b) Tween 80 (a) this latest machine
(c) Sodium chloride (b) is more efficient

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(d) Caprylic acid (c) than any other equipments
(d) in the laboratory
124. Somatostatin inhibits all except:
(a) Growth harmone
(b) Epinephrine

.c
(c) Insulin
(d) Thyroxine

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125. Which one of the following is not effective in the
treatment of anaerobic infections?
(a) Clindamycin

ed
(b) Erythromycin
(c) Metronidazole
(d) Chloramphenicol
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126. Which part of the sentence 'Please tell to him to do
his work.' is incorrect?
(a) please
(b) tell to him
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(c) to do
(d) his work
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127. Which part of the sentence 'His friends blamed him

for being a coward person.' is incorrect?
(a) his friends
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(b) blamed him

(c) for being
(d) a coward person

128. Which part of the sentence 'If I was knowing why

he

he was absent, I would have informed you.' is incorrect?

(a) if I was knowing
(b) why he was absent
(c) I would have
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(d) informed you

129. Which part of the sentence 'The robber hit Mahesh

suddenly and hardly.' is incorrect?
(a) the robber
(b) hit Mahesh

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