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BIODIVERSITY
1. The simplest measure of species diversity is

1) Species richness* 2) species evenness 3) exotic nature 4) endemism
2. The peak of species richness over the globe is present in
0 0 0 0
1) Between 20 N and 40 N 2) between 20 N and 30 N*
0 0 0 0
3) Between 20 S and 40 S 4) between 20 S and 30 S
3. The site of active speciation is
1) Area rich in number of species 2) area rich in evenness
3) Area rich in endemism* 4) area rich in common species
4. A bio-geographic area that is the reservoir of biodiversity and threatened with destruction is
1) Biotope 2) ecological niche 3) ecorealm 4) biodiversity hotspot *
5. The measure of overall diversity in an area is known as
1) Alpha diversity 2) beta diversity 3) gamma diversity* 4) delta diversity
6. Which statement among the following is correct related to species diversity?
1) Species diversity increases from equator to Polar Regions.
2) Species diversity is more at higher latitudes than lower latitudes.
3) Species diversity decreases from polar region to equator
4) Species diversity increases from Polar Regions to equator. **
7. Rivet popper hypothesis to explain the significance of species diversity in ecosystem is given by
1) Malthus 2) Von Humboldt 3) Paul Ehrlich* 4) Odum
8. Most species-rich taxonomic group among animals is
1) Insecta* 2) Mollusca 3) Annelida 4) Chordata
9. The tropics which harbour more species than temperate or tropic regions extend between
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1)30 N – 30 S 2) 23.5 N – 23.5 S* 3) 40 N – 30 S 4) 13.5 N – 13.5 S
10. Less year to year variation in total biomass in the areas with more species is observed by
1) Von Humboldt 2) Paul Ehrlich 3) Robert May 4) David Tilman*
11. The largest bio-geographical division of the earth’s surface with historic and evolutionary common type
fauna and flora is
1) Ecological region 2) Eco-zone* 3) Biodiversity hot spot 4) Biotope
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12. Cryopreservation means

1) Preservation of genome at normal temperature
0
2) Preservation of genome at -196 F
0
3) Preservation of genome at +196 C
0
4) Preservation of genome at -196 C*
13. The first National Park in India
1) Kanha National park 2) Jim Corbett National Park*
3) Gir National park 4) Keoladeo National Park
14. The species diversity between two ecosystems is
1) Alpha diversity 2) global diversity 3) gamma diversity 4) beta diversity**
15. Match the following
EXTINCT ANIMAL COUNTRY
A) Thylacine I) Russia
B) Dodo II) Africa
C) Steller’s sea cow III) Mauritius
D) Quagga IV) Australia
A B C D
1) IV II II I
2) IV III I II**
3) III IV II I
4) IIIII I IV
16. World Summit on Sustainable Development in the year 2002 was held at
1)Rio de Janeiro 2)Manchester 3) Johannesburg* 4)New Delhi
17. Red Data Books are published by
1) WWF 2) IUCN** 3) IBW 4) CI
18. Types of species in two different communities/ecosystems are given below
Community A = a, b, c, d, f, g & h
Community B = c, d, e, h, i, j & k
Calculate Sorensen’s similarity index
1. 2.14 2. 0.112 3. 0.214 ** 4. 0.414
19. Read the following

PRODUCT EXTRACTED FROM PURPOSE
A) Quinine Bark of cinchona Antimalarial drug
B) Vinblastin Fox glove plant Anticancer
C) Digitalin Vinca To treat heart problem
D) Pyrethrin Bacillus thuringiensis Biodegradable pesticide
Correct combination is
1. Only A ** 2. A & B 3. A & C 4. A & D
20. Read the statements
I) Species diversity depends on both richness and evenness
II) Species richness increases from high latitudes to the low latitudes
III) Diversity within a particular area is beta diversity
IV) Overall diversity for different ecosystems within a region is alpha diversity
Correct statements among the above
1. I & IV 2. II & III 3. I & II ** 4. All
CATEGORIES EXAMPLE A B C D
A) Critically endangered (CR) I) Antelope cervicapra 1. iii i ii iv
B) Vulnerable (VU) ii) Raphus cucullatus 2. iii i iv ii*
C) Endangered (EN) iii) Podophyllum 3. ii iii iv i
D) Extinct (EX) iv) Sideroxylon grandiflorum 4. i ii iii iv
22. World heritage sites of biodiversity in India are
A) Khaziranga National Park; Gir National park; Keolado Ghana National park
B) Sunderbans National Park; Kanha National park; Periyar National park; Jim Corbett N.P
C) Manas National park; Nanda Devi National park; Keolado Ghana national park **
D) Nanda Devi National park; Kanha National park; Manas national park
23. The seeds that do not survive the reduction of moisture and exposure to the low temperature are
1. Recalcitrant seeds like cereals and legumes 2. Orthodox seeds like cocoa, tea and coconut
3. Orthodox seeds like cereals, legumes *4. Recalcitrant seeds like Coconut & Jackfruit
24. The zone of biosphere which is used to accommodate resource management strategies, research
and educational activities is
1. Core zone 2. Transition zone 3. Buffer zone** 4. Sanctuary
25. World’s first captive breeding of crocodiles is present at
1. Indravathi, Chattishgarh 2. Tikerpada, Orissa **
3. Nanda Devi, Uttarakhand 4. Periyar, Kerala
26. Wild life week is observed on

1. First week of September 2. Second week of October
3. First week of October ** 4. First week of August
27. Biogeographic region that is both a significant reservoir of biodiversity and threatened
with destruction
1. National park 2. Sanctuary 3. Biodiversity hotspot ** 4. Ecozone
28. Correct statements among the following
A) Tropical forests harbor more than 50% of biodiversity
B) Over 70% of the promising anticancer drugs come from plants in the tropical rain forests
C) About 62% of the known amphibian species are endemic with the majority occurring in the
Western Ghats in India
D) Nearly 50% of the lizards of India are endemic with a high degree of endemicity in the
Eastern Ghats
1. All except D ** 2. A & D only 3. C & D only 4. D only
29. Read the following
I) Limited biotic interference is allowed II) Ecotourism is permissible
III) Boundaries are legally declared IV) Private ownership is not allowed
V) Boundaries are not circumscribed VI) Biotic interference is not allowed
Which of them are applicable to National Parks?
1. I, II & III 2. II, III, IV & VI ** 3. I, III & IV 4. I & IV
30. Who observed that within a region species richness increased with increasing explored area, but only up
to a limit?
1. Ehrlich 2.Humboldt** 3.Norman Myers 4.Tilman
ASSERTION & REASON:
1) Both A and R are true, and the R is the correct explanation to A
2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false.
31. Assertion: at lower latitudes, the species diversity is more.
Reason : at lower latitudes, area is topographically more and diverse environmentally. Answer: 1
32. Assertion: the biological diversity changes with the latitudes.
Reason : environmental conditions are uniform at all latitudes. Answer: 3
33. Assertion: Beta diversity is the community diversity.
Reason : Beta diversity is the diversity of the organisms present in same community
Answer: 3
BIOTECHNOLOGY
1. Which of the following should be chosen for best yield if one was to produce a recombinant
protein in large amounts?
1) Laboratory flask of largest capacity
2) A stirred tank bioreactor without inlets and out lets
3) A continuous culture system 4) PCR
2. A bacterial cell was transformed with a recombinant DNA that was generated using a
human gene. However, the transformed cells did not produce the desired protein. Reasons
could be
1) Human gene may have intron which bacteria can not process
2) Amino acid codons for humans and bacteria are different
3) Human protein is formed but degraded by bacteria
4) Ribosomes are absent in bacterial cell for protein synthesis
3. Which of the following steps are catalysed by taq polymerase in PCR reaction?
1) Denaturation of template DNA
2) Annealing of primers to template DNA
3) Extension of primer and on the template DNA 4) Rejoining of template DNA
List – I List – II
A) Lysozyme i) Agrobacterium tumifaciens
B) Ti plasmid ii) Thermus aquaticus
C) Insertional inactivation iii) Bacterial cell
D) Eco RI iv) Agrase
E) Taq DNA polymerase v) α - galactosidase
F) Gel electrophoresis vi) Escherichia coli Ry13
A B C D E F
1) iii i v iv ii vi
2) i iii v vi ii iv
3) iii i v vi ii iv
4) i iii ii iv vi v
5. Assertion (A): Vectors are engineered to make easy linking of foreign DNA and selection of
recombinants from non – recombinants
Reason (R): Antibiotic resistance gene within the vector gets inactivated due to insertion of
alien DNA, and helps in selection of recombinants.
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true
6. Assertion (A): Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is cumbersome

procedure
Reason (R): It requires simultaneous plating on two plates having different antibiotics
1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are true and R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true and R is false 4) A is false and R is true
7. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no
more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our
interest into a variety of plants because Ti plasmid has been modified by
1) Adding tumor forming genes
2) Deleting tumor forming genes
3) Adding genes resistant to endonucleases
4) Deleting endonuclease
8. The most commonly used bioreactor is of stirring type, the stirrer facilitates
1) Temperature control 2) pH control
3) Oxygen availability 4) Product removal
9. After completion of the transformation experiment involving the coding sequence of enzyme
α - galactosidase, the recombinant colonies should
1) Give blue colour 2) not gives blue colour
3) Have active α - galactosidase 4) die
10. Insertional inactivation is related to
1) Microinjection
2) Gene gun
3) Gel electrophoresis
4) Selection of recombinants
11. Which of the following is not applicable to Agrobacterium tumifaciens ?
1) Pathogen of several dicot plants
2) Has ability to transform normal plant cells
3) Delivers gene of our interest
4) Ti plasmid of it is always pathogenic to plants without any exception
12. Which of the following bacteria are known as ‘natural genetic engineers of plants’ as gene
transfer is happening in nature without human interference?
1) Azotobacter 2) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3) Escherichia Coli 4) Rhizobium
13. The tumor inducing (Ti) plasmid has now been modified into a cloning vector which is no
more pathogenic to the plants but is still able to use the mechanisms to deliver genes of our
interest into a variety of plants because Ti plasmid has been modified by
1) Adding tumor forming genes
2) Deleting tumor forming genes
3) Adding genes resistant to endonucleases
4) Deleting endonuclease
14. Which of the following is incorrect match?

1) Gene therapy : An abnormal gene is replaced by normal gene
2) Cloning : Ability to multiply copies of antibiotic resistance gene in E. coli
3) Restriction enzymes: Molecular scissors
4) Exonucleases : Molecular glue
15. Plant, bacteria, fungi & animals whose genes have been altered by manipulation are called
genetically modified organisms (GMO). Which of the following statement is not applicable to
GM plants?
1) Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides
2) Prevent early exhaustion of fertility of soil
3) Crops less tolerant to abiotic stress
(cold, drought, salt, heat)
4) Enhanced nutritional value of food
16. In case of Bacillus thuringiensis, Bacillus itself is not killed by toxic protein crystals
produced by it because
1) Bt toxin protein is not produced in the bacillus
2) Bt toxin protein is produced in very less amount in the bacillus
3) Bt toxin exist as the inactive toxin
4) Bt toxin can’t cause any damage to bacillus
17. Bt toxin kills the insect by
1) Blocking the nerve conduction
2) Damaging the surface of Trachea
3) By creating pores in the tracheal system
4) By creating pores in the mid gut
18. Which of the following cry gene codes for the protein which can control the corn borer
effectively?
1) Cry I Ac 2) cry II Ab
3) Cry I Ab 4) cry II Ac
19. RNA interference (RNAi) technique has been devised to protect the plants from the
nematode. In this technique mRNA of nematode is silenced by produced by the host plant
1) dsDNA 2) ssDNA
3) dsRNA 4) Target proteins
20. Which of the following peptide chain is removed during maturation of pro-insulin into
insulin?
1) A peptide 2) B peptide
3) C peptide 4) A & C peptide
21. Eli Lilly an American company prepared two DNA sequences corresponding to A & B
chains of human insulin & introduced them in plasmids of E.coli to produce insulin chains.
Chains A & B were produced separately, extracted & combined by creating
1) Peptide bonds 2) Ionic bonds
3) H-bonds 4) Disulphide bonds
22. The first clinical gene therapy was given in 1990 to a 4-year old girl with which of the
following enzyme deficiency?
1) Adenosine deaminase
2) Tyrosine oxidase
3) Monamine oxidase
4) Glutamate dehydrogenase
23. Animals that have had their DNA manipulated to possess & express an extra gene are
known as
1) Foreign animals 2) Superior animals
3) Transgenic animals 4) Intergenic animals
24. Which of the following is not a true statement w.r.t Bt cotton?
1) Bt toxin is produced by a bacterium Bacillus thuringiensis
2) It is an example of bio-pesticide
3) Bt toxin gene has been cloned in plants to provide resistance to insects
4) Bt cotton could decrease the amount of pesticide used
25. Which of the following technique is based upon the principle of antigen-antibody
interaction?
1) PCR 2) ELISA
3) Recombinant DNA technology 4)RNA interference
26. Which of the following transgenic protein product has been used to treat emphysema?
1) α-1-antitrypsin 2) α-Lactalbumin
3) Cry protein 4) C-peptide
27. How many varieties of rice have been estimated to be present in India?
1) 2,000 2) 20,000
3) 200,000 4) 2,000,000
28. The use of bioresources by multinational companies & other organisations without proper
authorisation from the countries & people concerned without compensatory payment is
called
1) Bioethics 2) Biopiracy
3) Bioterror 4) Bioweapon
29. Which biotechnology company is credited with the synthesis of genetically engineered
human insulin for the first time?
1) Celera genomics 2) Cipla
3) Eli Lily 4) Ranbaxy
30. Which step of Government of India has taken to cater to the requirement of patent terms
and other emergency provisions in this regard?
1) Biopiracy act 2) Indian patents bill
3) RTI act 4) Negotiable instruments act
31. What is another term used for GMO (Genetically Modified Organisms)?
1) Hybrid organisms 2) Geomorphic organisms
3) Transgenic organisms 4) Conjoint twins
32. Which GMO is now being developed in order to be used in testing the safety of Polio
vaccines before they are used in humans?
1) Transgenic sheep 2) Transgenic cow
3) Transgenic mice 4) Transgenic viruses
33. ‘Silencing’ of m-RNA molecule in order to control the production of a harmful protein has
been used in protection of plants from
1) Nematodes 2) Beetles
3) Mosquitoes 4) Flies
34. Which step proved to be the main challenging obstacle in the production of human insulin
by genetic engineering?
1) Removal of C-peptide from active insulin
2) Getting insulin assembled into a mature form
3) Addition of C-peptide to pro-insulin
4) Splitting A and B polypeptide chains
35. What is the disadvantage of using porcine insulin (from pig pancreas) in diabetic patients?
1) It leads to hypercalcaemia
2) It may cause allergic reactions
3) It is expensive
4) It can lead to mutations in human recipients
36. Which Indian plants have either been either patented or attempts have been made to patent
them by western nations for their commercial use?
1) Basmati rice 2) Turmeric
3) Neem 4) All of these have been targeted
37. Why is usually insulin not administered orally to a diabetic patient?
1) Insulin is bitter in taste 2) Insulin is a peptide
3) Insulin will lead to a sudden decrease in blood sugar if given orally
4) Insulin leads to peptic ulcer orally
38. Which technique would you expect to be completely curative in SCID?
1) Gene therapy in adult stage
2) Gene therapy in embryonic stage
3) Bone marrow transplantation
4) Enzyme replacement therapy
39. Match the following genes in Column-I with the insect that can be protected from with their
coded protein in Column-II.
Column-I Column-II
a. cry I Ac (i) Cotton bollworm
b. cry I Ab (ii) Beetles
c. Bt toxin gene (iii) Corn borer
1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii) 2) a(ii), b(i), c(iii)
3) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) 4) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)
40. ‘Rosie’ a transgenic cow is known to produce a type of milk which has all the following
characteristics except
1) Protein content of 2.4 gm/litre
2) Has human α-Lactalbumin
3) More balanced diet than normal cow milk for babies
4) Was produced for the first time in year 2001
41. According to the latest estimates, how many documented varieties of Basmati rice are grown
in India?
1) 30 2) 27 3) 118 4) 125
42. Which ingredient was present in high concentrations in genetically modified (GM) rice as
compared to the usual rice?
1) Protein 2) Carbohydrates
3) Na+ ions 4) Vitamin A
Assertion - Reason Type Questions
In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R)
(1) If both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (1).
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion, then mark (2).
(3) If Assertion is true statement but Reason is false, then mark (3).
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false statements, then mark (4).
43. A : RNAi takes place in all eukaryotic organisms as a method of cellular defense.
R : Complementary dsRNA molecule binds to specific mRNA & prevents its translation
(silencing).
44. A : Bt toxin are protein crystals containing insecticidal protein
R : B. thuringiensis forms these protein crystals throughout continuously during their growth
period.
45. A : Transgenic mice are being used to test the safety of the polio vaccine.
R : It could replace the use of monkeys to test the safety of batches of the vaccine.
KEY
1. 3 2.1 3.3 4.3 5. 1 6.1 7.2 8.3 9.2 10.4
11.4 12.2 13.2 14.4 15.3 16.3 17.4 18.3 19.3 20.3
21. 4 22.1 23.3 24. 3 25.2 26.1 27.3 28.2 29.3 30.2
31. 3 32. 3 33.1 34. 2 35. 2 36.4 37. 2 38.2 39. 1 40. 4
41. 2 42.4 43.2 44.3 45.2
HUMAN REPRODUCTION
1. In human transfer of sperms into female genital tract is called as

1) Fertilization 2) Implantation 3) Insemination 4) Gestation
2. In male human scrotum maintains the temperature
o
1) 2-2.5 C higher than normal body temperature
o
2) 2-2.5 C lower than normal body temperature
o
3) 4 C higher than normal body temperature
o
4) 4 C lower than normal body temperature.
3. Cryptorchidism is
1) Non development of testes 2) Non development of uterus
3) Non descent of testes into scrotum 4) Removal of scrotum
4. Each testicular lobule contains
1) One to three uncoiled vasa deferes
2) One to three uncoiled seminal vesicle
3) One to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules
4) One to three highly coiled uriniferous tubules.
5. Which of the following glands are male accessory glands
1) Prostate and seminal vesicles 2) Seminal vesicles and bertholin’s gland
3) Prostate and bertholin’s gland 4) Seminal vesicles and mammary gland
6. Testes are abdominal in
1) Monkeys and apes 2) Elephants and seals
3) Whales and humans 4) Apes and humans
7. Seminal plasma rich in
1) Fructose, sodium and hormones 2) Fructose, calcium and certain enzymes
3) Sucrose, calcium and hormones 4) Fructose, potassium and certain enzymes
8. Identify the mismatch related to the human male reproductive events
1) Transfer of sperms into female genital tract – insemination
2) Development of blastocyst and its attachment to the uterine wall – implantation
3) Embryonic development – gestation
4) Delivery of the baby – lactation.
9. (A) : Each seminiferous tubule is lined on its inside by male germ cells and sertoli cells
( R) : Male germ cells undergo mitotic division only to form sperms
1) A and R are correct R is correct explanation of A
2) A and R are correct R is not correct explanation of A
3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true.
10. Identify the incorrect character related to male human reproductive system
1) leads to vasa efferentia which ascends to the abdomen
2) Seminiferous tubules of testis open into rete testis
3) Seminiferous tubules of testis open into vasa efferentia through rete testis
4) Epididymis Epididymis is located along theposterior surface of each testis
A) Glans penis I) Common duct from seminal vesicle and vas deferens
B) Ejaculatory duct II) Enlarged end
C) Sertoli cells III) Connets rete testes with epididymis
D) Vas efferentia IV) Provide nourishment to sperms
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3)A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV 4) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
12. The finger like projections found at the edges of the infundibulum are called
1) Isthmus 2) Fimbriae 3) Ampulla 4) uterus
13. The number of uterus in female humans
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
14. Middle thick layer of smooth muscle layer uterus wall is
1) Perimetrium 2) Endometrium 3) Mesometrium 4) Myometrium
15. Hymen is
1) Cushion of fatty tissue covered by skin and pubic hair
2) Paired fold of tissue under the labia majora
3) A membrane often covering partially the opening of vagina
4) Tiny finger like structure.
16. The glandular tissue of each breast in female human is divided into
1) 3-5 mammary lobes 2) 3-10 mammary lobes
3) 15-20 mammary lobes 4) 30-40 mammary lobes
17. In female humans milk is sucked out through
1) Mammary lobes 2) Mammary ducts 3) Alveoli cells 4) Lactiferous ducts
18. Mammatry glands are functional in

1) male animals only 2) Male mammals only
3) Male and female cattle 4) All female mammals
19. Study the following parts in oviduct of female human reproductive system
1)Influndibulum 2) ampulla 3) isthmus 4) fimbria
Arrange them in a sequence from periphery of ovary to uterus
1) 1,2,3,4 2) 3,4,2,1 3) 4,1,2,3 4) 4,2,3,1
20. Identify the correct match related to the oviduct of female humans
1) Finger like projected structures infundibulum
2) Funnel shaped structure – isthmus
3) Wider part of oviduct – fimbriae
4) Narrow lumen part joins the uterus – isthmus
A) Mons pubis I) Fleshy folds of tissue
B) Labia majora II) Cushion of fatty tissue converted by skin and pubic hair
C) Labia minora III) Membrane partially covering opening of vagina
D) Hymen IV) Paired folds of tissue under the labia majora
1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV 2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV 4) A-I, B-IV, C-I, D-II
22. Read the statements related to hymen
I) It is often torn during the first coitus
II) It can also be broken by sudden fall or jolt
III) In some women the hymen persists even after coitus
Choose correct statement/s
1) I,II only 2) I, III Only 3) II, III Only 4) I, II, III
23. In which of the following division stages the primary oocytes are temporarily arrested
1) Metaphase – I 2) Anaphase – I 3) Prophase – I 4) Telophase – I
24. membrane surrounding immediately around secondary oocyte is
1) Zona pellucida 2) Carona radiate 3) Theca externa 4) Theca interna
25. Metamorphosis occurs between
1) Primry spermatocyte and secondary spermatocyte
2) Spermatid and spermatocyte
3) Spermatogonia and spermatocyte
4) Spermatids and spermatozoa
26. The number of sperms formed from a single secondary spermatocyte is

1) 4 2) 3 3) 1 4) 2
27. Tertiary follicle is differentiated from other follicles by having
1) A layer of granulose cells 2) More layers of granulose cells
3) Fluid filled cavity antrum 4) A layer of granulose cells with empty antrum
28. First polar body is formed after the completion of
1) Mitotic division 2) Meiosis – I 3) Meiosis – II 4) Anitosis
29. Study the following cells found in the seminiferous tubule of male humans
1) Spermatogonia 2) Primary spematocyte
3) Secondary spermatocyte 4) Spermatid 5) Spermatozoa
Arrange them in a sequence from lumen to the wall of seminiferous tubule.
1) 1,2,3,4,5 2) 2,3,1,4,5 3) 1,3,4,5,2 4) 5,4,3,2,1
30. (A) : In male humans secondary spermatocytes are haploid and consist of 23 chromosomes
(R ) : Primary oocytes undergo meiosis – I and forms 2 equal secondary spermatocytes
2) A and R are correct R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is true R is false 4) A is false R is true
31. Study the following parts of human spermatozoa
1) acrosome 2) head 3) middle piece 4) tail
Arrange them in a sequence form anterior to posterior
1) 1,2,3,4 2) 1,3,4,2 3) 2,1,3,4 4) 1,2,4,3
32. How many ova and sperms will be produced from 100 secondary oocytes and 100
secondary spermatocytes during gametogensis in man
1) 50 ova, 100 sperms 2) 100 ova, 100 sperms
3) 200 ova, 200 sperms 4) 100 ova, 200 sperms
33. 5 oogonia yield 10 primary oocytes, then how many ova are produced on completion of
oogenesis
1) 5 2) 10 3) 20 4) 40
34. Menarche is
1) The first menstruation begins at brith
2) The first menstruation begins at menopause
3) the first menstruation begins at puberty
4) The first menstruation ends at menopause
35. Peak levels of FSH and LH are attained at about
th th th th
1) 20 day 2) 14 day 3) 15 day 4) 29 day
36. Menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age it is

1) Menarche 2) Puberty 3) Menopause 4) Ovulationb
37. (A) : The discharge of menstrual flow contain tissue of endometerium lining of uterus and
its blood vessels
(R ) : During menstruation phase breakdown of endometrium lining of uterus occurs
38. Identify the correct match in relation to female reproductive system
1) Fallopian tubes – sites of fertilization 2) Uterus – site of insemination
3) Isthmus – site of discharge of dcervical flow 4) Vagina – site of implanation
39. (A) : Menstrual cycle ceases around 50 years of age is termed as menopause
(R ) : Cyclical menstruation is an indicator of normal reproductive phase
40. The process of releasing semen during coitus by penis into the vagina is called as
1) Fertilisation 2) Gestation 3) Insemination 4) Implantation
41. Identify the correct sequence of route of passage of motile sperm
1) Cervix – Isthmus – Ampulla – Uterus
2) Isthmus – Cervix – Uterus – Ampulla
3) Cervix – Ampulla – Isthmus – Uterus
4) Cervix – Uterus – Junction of isthimus and ampulla
42. Fertilisation in human female occurs in
1) Uterus 2) Ampullary – isthmic junction 3) Cervix 4) Vagina
43. During fertilization sperms comes in contact with
1) Theca external layer 2) Theca internal layer
3) Zona pellucida 4) Zona reticulate
44. Identify the parts of X and Y from the diagram of graffian follicle
1) X-Oogonia, Y – Theca interna
2) X- Secondary oocyte, Y-Theca Externa
3) X-Tertiary Oocyte, Y – Theca interna
4) 1,2
45. Identify the X and Y from the diagram related to spermatogenesis

1) X-Sertoticell, Y-Spermatogonia
2) X-Nurse cell, Y – Spermatid
3) X-Sperm, Y – Secondary spermatocyte
4) X-Sertolicell, Y –sperm
MOCK TEST – I X
KEY Y
1) 3 2) 2 3) 3 4) 3 5) 1 6) 2 7) 2 8) 4 9) 3 10) 3
11) 2 12) 2 13) 1 14) 4 15) 3 16) 2 17) 4 18) 4 19) 4 20) 2
21) 3 22) 2 23) 3 24) 1 25) 4 26) 4 27) 3 28) 2 29) 4 30) 1
31) 1 32) 4 33) 2 34) 3 35) 2 36) 3 37) 1 38) 1 39) 2 40) 3
41) 4 42) 2 43) 3 44) 2 45) 4
MOCK TEST – II (HUMAN REPRODUCTION)
1. Identify the primary sex organs in male human beings

1) Ovaries 2) Testes 3) Uterus 4) Seminal vesicle
2. In human beings fusion of male and female gametes is called as
1) Fertilization 2) Inseminatoin 3) Implantation 4) Ovulation
3. Gestation is
1) Formation of zygote 2) attachment of blastocyst to the uterine wall
3) Embryonic development 4) Delivery of baby
4. The number of testicular lobules in each testis is about
1) 400 2) 250 3) 350 4) 500
5. Which of the following cells are called as primary germ cells in male human
1) Sertoli cells 2) leyding cells 3) spermatogonia 4) spermatid
6. Interstitial cells in male humans are also called as

1) Sertoli cells 2) Leyding cells 3) male germcells 4) sperms
7. Seminiferous tubules of the testis opens into
1) Rete testis 2) Vasa efferentia 3) Epididymis 4) testis
8. Which of the following duct is formed by union of vasdeferens and a duct from seminal
vesicle is
1) Seminiferous tubule 2) Epididymis 3) penis 4) ejaculatory duct
9. Enlarged end of penis is
1) Foreskin 2) Glans penis 3) urethra 4) Epididymis
10. Transfer of sperms into female tract and fusion of male and female gametes are
respectively termed as
1)Gastation and parturition 2) Implantation and gestation
3) Insemination and fertilization 4) Gestation and parturition
11. Which of the following cells helps in nutrition and support of sperms
1) Leydig cells 2) Nurse cells 3) Primary germ cells 4) Spermatocytes
12. Study the following statements related to seminiferous tubules
I) Each testis has about 250 compartments called testicular lobules
II) Each lobule contains one to three highly coiled seminiferous tubules
III) Sertoli cells are lined on innerside of seminiferous tubules helps in nourishment
Choose correct statement/s
1) I Only 2) II Only 3) III Only 4) I, II, III
13. Female accessory ducts includes
1) Fallopian tubes and vasa efferentia 2) Oviducts, uterus and vagina
3) Oviduct and vas deferens 4) Fallopian tubes and seminal vesicles
14. Which of the following structure in female humans helps in collection of ovum after
ovulation
1) isthmus 2) Infundibulum 3) Fimbriae 4) Uterus
15. The uterus opens into vagina through
1) Wide cervix 2) Urethra 3) A narrow cervix 4) isthmus
16. The number of layers in the wall of uterus
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3
17. Inner glandular layer of uterus wall is
1) Endometruim 2) Perimetrium 3) Mesometrium 4) Myometrium
18. Which of the following fatty tissue is like cushion covered by skin and public hair in female
external genitalia
1) Labia majora 2) Mons pubis 3) Labia minora 4) Hymen
19. Which is of the following is finger like tiny structure
1) Mons pubis 2) Labia majora 3) Labia minora 4) Clitoris
20. Which of the following structures secrete milk
1) Cells of alveoli 2) Mammary duct 3) Lactiferous duct 4) Nipple
21. Female reproductive system consists of
1) A single ovary, a pair of oviducts, single uterus, cervix vagina and external genitalia
2) A pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, single uterus, cervix, vagina and external genitalia
3) A pair of ovaries, a pair of oviducts, pair of uterus, cervix, vagina and external genitalia
4) A single ovary, a single oviduct and pair of uterus, cervix, vagina and external genitalia
22. Which of the following parts of oviduct is funnel shaped and posses finger like projections
respectively
1) Isthmus, ampulla 2) Infundibulum, isthmus
3) Infundibulum, fimbriae 4) Fimbriae, isthmus
23. Which of the following structure is homologous to penis
1) Mons pubis 2) Labia majora 3) Labia minora 4) Clitoris
24. Study the following parts related to mammary glands
1) Mammary lobes 2) Alveoli 3) Mammary tubules 4) Mammary duct
5) mammary ampulla 6) Lactiferous duct
1) 4,5,6,1,3 2) 1,2,3,4,5,6 3) 1,3,4,2,5,6 4) 2,4,5,3,6,1
25. Which of the following cells undergo meiosis – I division
1) Spermatogonia 2) Spermatid 3) Sperm 4) Primary spermatocyte
26. Each secondary spermatocyte is
1) Diploid with 46 chromosomes 2) Haploid with 46 chromosomes
3) Haploid with 23 chromosomes 4) Diploid with 23 chromosomes
27. Trnsformation of spermatid into spermatozoa is called as
1) Spermiation 2) Spermatocytogenesis
3) Spermiogenesis 4) Ejaculation
28. Which of the following hypothalamic hormone stimulates spermatogenesis at the age of
puberty
1) TSH 2) ADH 3) GnRH 4) Oxytocin

29. FSH acts on
1) Sertolicells 2) Leydig cells 3) Primary germ 4) Sperms
30. Cap like structure covering the anterior portion of sperm is

1) Neck 2) Tail 3) Head 4) Acrosome
31. The middle piece of sperm contain numerous
1) Golgi complex 2) Ribosomes 3) Mitochondria 4) Centrioles
32. Primary follicle is surrounded by
1) a double layers of granulose cells 2) a single layer of granulose cells
3) a multi layers of granulose cells 4) a triple layer of granulose cells
33. Fluid filled cavity antrum is found in
1) Primary follicle 2) Secondary follicle 3) Tertiary follicle 4) Primary oocyte
34. The release of secondary oocyte from the ruptured graffian follicle is called as
1) Parturition 2) Gestation 3) Implantation 4) Ovulation
35. Which of the following cells are haploid and having 23 chromosomes
1) Spermatogonia, spermatids 2) Sperm and spermatid
3) Primary oocyte, secondary oocyte 4) Spermatogonia, primary spermatocyte
36. Number of spermatozoa produced by a single primary spermatocyte during
spermatogenesis is
1) 2 2) 3 3) 4 4) 5
37. Which of the following hormones are necessary for spermatogenesis
1) GnRH, FSH, LH, MSH 2) GnRH, FSH, LH
3) GnRH, MSH, Prolactin 4) GnRH, ADH, MSH
38. Which of the following hormone stimulates ovulation
1) FSH 2) MSH 3) LH 4) Prolactin
39. Statement I : The spermatids re transformed into spermatozoa by a process called
spermiogenesis
Statement II : After spermiogenesis heads of sperms are embedded in the nurse cells
1) Statement I and II are correct II is not correct explanation to statement II
2) Statement I and II are correct II is correct explanation to statement II
3) Statement I is wrong, statement II is true
4) Statement I is true, statement II is wrong.
40. Identify the incorrect character related to the hormonal influence of spermatogenesis
1) Increased levels of GnRH acts on anterior pitutory gland and stimulates LH and FSH
2) LH acts on leydig cells and stimulates the secretions of androgens
3) FSH acts on sertolicells and stimulates progesterone hormone
4) FSH acts on nurse cells which stimulates some factors help in spermatogenesis
41. How many sperms are allowed by the ovum for fertilisation
1) Many 2) 54 3) 2 4) only one
42. Completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte occurs
1) when secondary oocyte is inside the ovary
2) during ovulation 3) any time
4) after the entry of sperm inside the ovum
43. The second meiotic division in secondary oocyte is
nd
1) unequal and forms 2 polar body and ootid
nd
2) equal and forms 2 polar body and ootid
st
3) equal and forms 1 polar body and ootid
st
4) unequal and forms 1 polar body and ootid
44. Eggs produced in a year by an ovary of nonpregnant woman is
1) 12 2) 6 3) 24 4) 48
45. From the female reproductive system diagram Identify B
1) Uterus 2) Seminal vesicle
3) Penis 4) Urethra
MOCK TEST – II
KEY
1) 2 2) 1 3) 3 4) 2 5) 3 6) 2 7) 1 8) 4 9) 2 10) 3
11) 2 12) 4 13) 2 14) 3 15) 3 16) 4 17) 1 18) 2 19) 4 20) 1
21) 2 22) 3 23) 4 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 3 28) 3 29) 1 30) 4
31) 3 32) 2 33) 3 34) 4 35) 2 36) 3 37) 2 38) 3 39) 1 40) 3
41) 4 42) 4 43) 1 44) 3 45) 2
The Living world
1. The smallest unit of life is D.P.M.T. - 2003

1) RNA 2) DNA 3) Protein *4) Cell
2. Highest level of biological and Ecological organization is D.P.M.T - 2005
1) Biome 2) Ecosystem *3) Biosphere 4) Landscape
3. Basic unit of classification is AIIMS - 1999
*1) Species 2) Kingdom 3) Family 4) Variety
4. The correct sequence of taxonomic categories is AFMC - 2001
1) Class – Phylum – Tribe – Order – Family – Genus - Species
2) Division – Class – Family – Tribe – Order – Genus - Species
*3) Division – Class – Order – Family – Tribe – Genus - Species
4) Phylum – Order – Class – Tribe – Family – Genus - Species
5. Binomial nomenclature was effectively introduced by AFMC - 2010
1) De Vriese *2) Linnaeus 3) Huxley 4)Ray
6. A group of plants or animals with similar traits of any rank is AFMC - 2011
1) Species 2) Genus 3) Order *4) Taxon
7. National Botanical Research Institute is located at AI PMT - 2010
1) Chennai *2)Lucknow 3) Kolkata 4) Darjeeling
8. The generic name of Mango is HP PMT - 2010
1) Indica *2)Mangifera 3) Triticum 4) vulgare
9. Which is matched correctly
1) Humans – Primata – The family *2) House fly – Musca – the genus
3) Tiger – tigris – the genus 4)cuttle fish – Mollusca – a class
10. Which of the following statements regarding universal rules of nomenclature is

wrong?
Kerala PMT - 2010
1) Both the words in a biological name when handwritten are separately underlined
2) The first word in a biological name represents the genus
3) Generic name starting with a capital letter
*4) Biological names are in Greek and written in Italics
11. Match the following Kerala PMT - 2010
List – I List – II A B C D
A) Wheat I) Primata 1) I II IV III
B) Mango II) Diptera *2) IV III II I
C) House Fly III) Sapindales 3) II IV I III
D) Man IV) Poales 4) III IV II I
V)
HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

1. Which of the following contraceptive method is exclusively for males
(a) Condoms (b)Vasectomy (c)Tubectomy (d)IUCDs
2. MTP is considered safe for the first ......... weeks of pregnancy
(a)10 (b)15 (c)8 (d)12
3. RCH stands for
(a) Reproductive and clinical health
(b)Regular contraceptive hormonal method (c)Reproductive and child health care programme
(d)Research centre for hormonal contraceptives
4. Which of the following statement is false
(a) WHO has defined reproductive health as a total well being in physical, emotional,
behavioral & social aspects of reproduction
(b)Incidence of infection of STDs is maximum in individuals of 15-24 yrs of
age (c)Family planning was initiated in 1951 in India
(d)None of these
5. Which of the following statement is /are true
(a)For a very long time, human population remained in lag phase, having very slow growth
(b) At present world human population is growing at a rate of 2% year and it doubles every 35
years (c)Sex ratio is defined as number of females per thousand males
(d)All of these
6. Syphillis is caused by
(a) Neisseria gonorrhoae (b)Treponema pallidum
(c)Trichomonas vaginalis (d)Chlamydia trachomatis
7. Which of the following is not a type of assisted reproductive technology
(a) GIFT (b)MTP (c)ICSI (d)ZIFT
8. The technique in which sperm is directly injected into egg is
(a)ICSI (b)IUI (c)IVF (d)ART
9. Which of the following is not a cause of infertility in males
(a) Varicocele (b)Hydrocoel (c)Endometriosis (d)Orchitis
10. The purpose of tubectomy is to prevent:
(a)Embryonic development (b)Sexual intercourse
(c)Formation of eggs (d)Fertilization
11. Which of the following methods of birth control is one of the most reversible contraceptive
and most widely used method?
(a)IUD (b)Diaphragm (c)Implant (d)Condom
12. DMPA refers to:
(a) Oral contraceptive
(b)Injectable contraceptive (c)Intrauterine device
(d)Implant
13. Which of the following methods of birth control can cause excess menstrual bleeding and pain?
(a) Oral contraceptive
(b)Condom (c)Cervical cap(d)Intrauterine
device
14. Most of the contraceptive pills contain:
(a)FSH + Estrogen (b)LH + Progesterone
(c)Estrogen + Progesterone (d)FSH + LH
15. Cutting or putting ligatures around male genital duct is called:
(a) Salpingectomy (b)Tubectomy (c)Vasectomy (d)None of these
16. Which one of the following statements is correct with reference to a test tube baby?
(a)A prematurely born baby reared in an incubator
(b)In vitro fertilization and transfer of embryo into mother’s uterus
(c)In vitro fertilization and development of the embryo in a large test tube with
nutrients (d)In vivo fertilization and development of the embryo in a laboratory dish
17. The first test tube baby was born in:
(a) USA (b)France (c)England (d)India
18. Which of the following contraceptive method is exclusively a terminal method of family
planning in the homogametic sex of humans?
(a) Nirodh (b)Vasectomy (c)Tubectomy (d)IUCDs
19. Name the first test tube baby of the world:
(a) Michael Hebranko (b)Russell Hulse (c)Louise Brown (d)Bill Evans
20. MTP is considered safe for the first ......... weeks of pregnancy
(a)10 (b)15 (c)8 (d)12
21. The technique which makes use of amniotic fluid for the detection of prenatal disorder is
called as:
(a)Laparoscopy (b)Amniocentesis (c)Endoscopy (d)Ultrasound
22. Amniocentesis is a technique misused for:
(a)estimating amino acid content of the amnion
(b)determining the sex of the foetus
(c)measuring the size of the amnion
(d)determining the position of the foetus
23. Which one of the following can be determined by amniocentesis?
(a) Turner’s syndrome
(b)Klinefelter’s syndrome (c)Sex of the unborn child
(d)All of the above
24. India launched a nation wide family planning programme in
(a) 1950 (b) 1951 (c) 1952 (d) 1953
25. World population in 1999 was
(a) Eight billions (b) Four billions (c) Six billions (d) Five billions
26. Medical termination of pregnancy Act came into force on
(a) April 1, 1974 (b) April 1, 1972
(c) March 1, 1971 (d) March 1, 1972
27. Barrier method of contraception included all except
(a) Condom (b) Dutch cap
(c) CuT (d) Diaphragm
28. All are medical intrauerine devices except
(a) Lippe’s loop (b) CuT - 200
(c) CuT-380A (d) Multiload 375
29. Multiload device contains
(a) Zinc (b) Copper
(c) Silver (d) Iron
30. Indian MTP Act allows abortion upto
(a) 12 weeks (b) 20 weeks
(c) 21 weeks (d) 24 weeks
31. Best method for spacing is
(a) condom (b) Vasectomy
(c) IUDS (d) Tubectomy
32. Multioad device refers to
(a) First generation IUD
(b) Second generation IUD
(c) Oral contraceptive pill
(d) Barrier contraceptive
33. Most widely practised method of family planning by eligible couples in india is
(a) IUD (b) Oral contraceptive pills
(c) Sterilisation (d) Nirodh
34. Infertility is the relative state of failure to conceive after how many year/years of sexual
life without contraception?
(a) One (b) Two
(c) Three (d) Four
35. commonest STD in India is
(a) Syphils (b) Gonorrhoea
(c) AIDS (d) Herpes
LELVE - 2
36. What is correct about amniocentesis?
a) Intrauterine diagnosis
b) Withdrawal of allantoic fulid from pregnant women
c) Chemical analysis of fluids of pregnant women
d) Culturing amniotic cells and study of metaphasic chromosomes to identify

chromosomal abnormality
37. Progesterone present in contraceptive pill is meant for
a) Checking ovulation b) Preventing fertilization
c) Preventing implantation of zygote d) Preventing cleavage
38. Given below are four methods (a-d) and their mode of action (i-iv) in achieving contraception.
Choose the correct options.
Method Mode of Action
a) Pill i)Prevents sperms reaching ovum
b)Condom ii)Prevents implantation
c)Vasectomy iii)Prevents ovulation
d)Copper – T iv)Semen contains no sperm
a) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-iib) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv c) a-iii, b-i, c-iv, d-ii d) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii
39. Consider the statements regarding birth control and answer as directed
a) Medical termination of pregnancy during first trimester is generally safe
b) Chances of contraception are nil until mother breast feeds the infant upto two years
c) Intrauterine devices like copper – T are effective contraceptives
d) Contraceptive pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to prevent
conception Which two of the above statements are correct
a) a, c b) a, b c) b, c d) c, d
40. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will
a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate
b) Result in decline of growth rate
c) Not cause significant change in growth rate
d) Result in an explosive population growth
41. Sterilisation techniques are generally fool proof methods of contraception with least side effects.
Yet, this is the last option for the couples because
i) It is almost irreversible
ii) Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual / urge drive
iii) It is a surgical procedure
iv) Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the
country Choose the correct option
a) i and iii b) ii and iii c) ii and iv d) i, ii, iii and iv
42. Choose the right one among the statements given below
a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself
b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus
c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis
d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced
43. Following statements are given regarding MTP.
Choose the correct options given below
i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester
ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method
iii) MTPs are always surgicals
iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel
a) ii and iii b) iii and ii c) i and iv d) i and ii
44. Condoms are one of the most popular contraceptives because of the following reasons
a) These are effective barriers for insemination
b) They do not interfere with coital act
c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs
d) All the above
45. Choose the correct statement regarding the ZIFT procedure
a) Ova collected from the female donor are transferred to the fallopian tube to facilitate zygote
formation
b) Zygote formed in simulated conditions is transferred to the fallopian tube of its mother or surrogate
mother
c) Zygote is collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
d) Ova collected from a female donor and transferred to the uterus
46. Diaphragms are contraceptive devices used by the females. Choose the correct option from
the statements given below
i) They are introduced into the uterus
ii) They are placed to cover the cervical region
iii) They act as physical barriers for sperm
a) i and ii b) i and iii c) ii ad iii d) iii and iv
Questions with Assertion A and Reason R

(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, R is false.
(d) A is false, R is true.
47. A: Mother should be blamed for the birth of girls in the family
R: Father is responsible for the sex of the child.
48. A: Over-production is a boom for the developing countries.
R: More hands are present for work.
49. A: One in every six persons in the world is an Indian.
R: In India, there are more females than males.
50. A: Syphilis is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
R: Syphilis spread through sexual contact.
51. A: MTPs as a significant role in controlling population growth.
R: It is performed manually.
KEY
1) b 2) d 3) c 4) d 5) d 6) b 7) b 8) a 9) d 10) d
11) a 12) b 13) d 14) c 15) c 16) b 17) c 18) c 19) c 20) d
21) b 22) b 23) d 24) b 25) c 26) c 27) c 28) a 29) b 30) b
31) c 32) b 33) d 34) b 35) b 36) d 37) a 38) c 39) a 40) c
41) d 42) b 43) c 44) d 45) b 46) c 47) c 48) a 49) c 50) d
51) c
ANIMAL HUSBANDRY AND APICULTURE-QUESTION BANK
1. A cross between White Leghorn and Rhode Island Red is called
a). Out crossing b). Cross breeding c). Line breeding d).Close breeding
2. Find the wrongly matched
a). Ian Wilmut – Dolly
b). V.M.Ingram – sickle cell haemoglibin
c). Archibold Garrod – alkaptonuria
d). Beadle and Tantum – One gene one polypeptide chain
3. The offspring that is produced due to mating of animals of different breeds is called
a). Out cross b). Mule c). Hinny d). Cross breed
4. The number of chromosomes present in each somatic cell of a male, worker and queen honey
bees respectively are
a) 16-16-32 b) 32-16-16 c) 16-32-32 d) 16-32-16
5. In animals Totipotency is exhibited by
a). Gametes b). Meristematic cells c). Zygote d). cancer cell
6. The scientific name of “Scampy”
a)Macrobrachium rosenbergii b) Penaeus monodon
c) Macrobrachium malcomsoni d) Penaeus indicus
7. Which of the following the character of good layer
a) Clean and perfect feathers b) Small breast bone
c) Thin, soft, oily skin d) Round and dry vent
8. The clone of the lamb produced by Ian Wilmut resembles
a). to the mother which gave birth to it b). to the lamb from which udder cell is taken
c). to the mother into which balstocyst is implanted d). to the father used for fertilization
9. The number of secondary oocytes ovulated in super ovulation
a). 8 to 32 b). 6 to 8 c). 1 to 4 d). many
10 A mule can be obtained by crossing
a). Jack and Jennet b). Stallion and mare c). Jack and mare d). Stallion and Jennet
11. Progeny test is conducted to assess
a). sex limited genes present in females b). sex limited genes present in males
c). sex linked genes present in males d). sex influenced genes present in males
12. The following are the statements with regards to out breeding
I. It is the breeding of unrelated animals
II. It is highly effective for characters that are under the control of genes that are polygenic and
cumulative
III. It favours genetic uniformity.
The correct statements are
a). I & II b). II & III c). I & III d). All
13. To achieve totipotency ‘fused cell’ of animals should possess
a). cytoplasm of egg cell and nucleus of sperm
b). cytoplasm of egg cell and nucleus of somatic cell
c). cytoplasm of zygote and nucleus of sperm
d). cytoplasm of udder cell and nucleus of egg cell
14. A queen honeybee, heterozygous for a dominant trait mates with drone that shows the same
trait. Which of the following is true about her offspring/
a). All females express dominant trait and males exhibit dominant and recessive traits in 1:1 ratio.
b). All males express dominant trait and females exhibit dominant and recessive traits in 1:1 ratio
c). All females express dominant trait and all males express recessive trait
d). Both males and females exhibit dominant and recessive traits in 1:1 ratio each
15. When a cow is crossed to a bull and the female progeny is found to be high yielding for milk
than its mother, it can be inferred that
a) Genes for high milk yield are more in number in female parent than that of male
b) More number of high milk yield genes are inherited from male parent than
female
c) More number of high milk yield genes are inherited from female than male
d) High milk yield genes are inherited only from male parent but not from female
16. The lamb (Dolly) produced by organism cloning done by Ian Wilmut is genetically and
phenotypically identical to
a) Surrogate Scottish black face eve
b) Scottish black face eve from which an egg cell was collected
c) Finn Dorset eve from which the udder cells were collected
d) Scottish black face eve from which udder cell was collected
17. In poultry birds which of the following diseases can spread through contaminated food and
water
a) Infectious bursitis, Infectious coryza and Aflatoxicosis
b) Roup disease, CRD and Moniliasis
c) New castle disease, Fowl cholera and Aspergillosis
d) Marek’s diseases, Gumboro disease and Thrush
18. Read the following and select the correct combination
Disease Pathogen Symptoms of disease
A) Gumboro 1BD virus Enlargement of bursa of Fabricius
B) Chronic respiratory Haemophilus gallinarum Nasal discharge with foul smell
disease
C) Aspergillosis Aspergillus flavus Reduced immunity
D) Fowl cholera Pasteruella avicida green diarrhoea
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) A and D
19. Find the wrong combination
a) Herpes virus – enlargement of sciatic nerve
b) Paramyxovirus – enlargement of spleen
c) Haemophilus gallinarum – nasal and eye discharge with foul smell
d) Aspergillus flavus – reduced immunity
20. Following are the popular hybrid broilers raised in India
a) Babcock, Hyline b) Hisex, Hubbard c) Vencobb, Babcock d) Vencobb, Ross
Note: a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not a correct explanation of A
c) A is true, but R is false d) Both A and R are false
21. Assertion (A): Milk yield in cattle is a quantitative character
Reason (R): Genes for milk yield are sex linked and polygenic with cumulative expression
22. Assertion (A): The crossing of unrelated individuals results in the progeny with increased vigour
Reason (R): The offspring produced due to crossing of different breeds has large number of loci
with dominant genotypes than either of the parents
23. Assertion (A) : Macrobrachium rosenbergi is the most suitable scampy for the culture
Reason (R): It is a eurythermal and euryhaline animal
24. Assertion (A): Fish meat is important for brain
Reason (R): Fish meat is rich in non-essential amino acids like methionine and lysine
25. Assertion (A): Coccidiosis and worm infections are less common in deep litter system
Reason(R): Bird droppings are decomposed quickly in the deep litter system
26. Assertion (A): Scampy is most suitable for culture
Reason (R): Scampy is stenothermal and stenohaline and shows fast growth
KEY
1-b 2-d 3-d 4-c 5-c 6-a 7-c 8-b 9-b 10-c 11-b 12-a 13-b
14-a 15-b 16-c 17-a 18-d 19-b 20-d21-c 22-a 23-a 24-c 25-a 26-c
EVOLUTION
1. Biogenetic law of Von Baer & Ernst haekel is

(a) Phylogeny repeats ontogeny (b) Ontogeny repeats phylogeny**
(c) Ontogeny never repeats phytogene (d) Ontogeny and phylogeny are cyclic
2. Evidence from fossils records are obtained by calculating age of fossil found in–
(a) Metamorphic rock (b) Sedimentary rocks* (c) Igneous rocks (d) Earth crust
3. Mammals originated during the period-
(a) Triassic* (b) Jurassic (c) Cretaceous (d) Permian
4. First plant having seed habit (Heterosporous Pterodophyte) originated during-
(a) Silurian* (b) Devonian (c) Carboniferous (d) Permian
5. First human appeared during-
(a) Oligocene (b) Miocene (c) Pliocene (d) Pleistocene*
6. Era of reptiles and gymnosperm is-
(a) Precambrian (b) Paleozoic (c) Mesozoic * (d) Cenozoic
7. The correct order of evolution of horse is-
(a) Mesohippus, Hyracotherium, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.
(b) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, Hyracotherium, pliohippus, equus.
(c) Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, Hyracotherium, equus.
(d) Hyracotherium, Mesohippus, Meryhippus, pliohippus, equus.*
8. Darwin’s theory of pangenesis was refuted by-
(a) Recapitulation theory (b) theory of Germplasm*
(c) Chromosome theory (d) theory of biogenesis
9. Mutation theory of Hugo de vries was put forward while working on-
(a) Drosophila (b) Ancon sheep (c) Oenothera amarckiana* (d) Antirrhinum
10. Evolution at genetic level is termed as-
(a) Microevolution* (b) Macroevolution (c) Gene Evolution (d) Point mutation
11. The oldest microfossil so far of age 3.5 billion year ago was-
(a) Coacervates (b) Eobionts (c) Microspheres (d) Cyanobacteria*
12. In his book, “The origin of life (1938)” oparin submitted abiogenesis first bur biogenesis
ever since, this theory is named as-
(a) Spontaneous generation (b) Chemical origin* (c) Primary abiogenesis (d) Biogenesis
13. Experimental evidence for molecular evolution of life was provided by-
(a) Oparin (b) Haldane * (c) Urey and Miller (d) Syndey fox
14. During pre-biotic origin of life which chemical played important role in formation of nucleotide
specially guanosine-
(a) CH4 (b) CO2 (c) NH3 (d) HCN**
15. Among the following which molecule till now not synthesized by mimicking the environment of
pre-biotic environment-
(a) Ribose** (b) Pyrimidines (c) Purine (d) L-aminoacids
16. Among the following the evidence of evolution from biogeography is-
(a) Embryo development (b) Plate tectonics (c) Darwin finches* (d) Darwin turtles
17. Thorns of Bougenwalia plant and tendril of cucurbits are-
(a) Homologous organs** (b) Paralogous organ (c) Analogous organ (d) Orthologous organ
18. Placental mammals such as mouse, wolf, Australian marsupials such as marsupial mouse,
Tasmanian wolf shows-
(a) Parallel evolution** (b) Convergent evolution
(c) Divergent evolution (d) Phyletic evolution
19. Which of the following is not an vestigial organ in humans-
(a) Ear muscles (b) Tail vertebra (c) Premolar** (d) Appendix
20. Which of the following was earliest form with lipid bilayer and can reproduce by budding-
(a) Coacervates (b) Micro spheres** (c) protobionts (d) Monospheres
21. Which of them do not cause variation at genetic level-
(a) Mutation and recombination (b) Gene migration and drift
(c) Natural selection and artificial selection (d) Panmictic population**
22. The raw material for evolution is variability of gene or allele at/in-
(a) individual level (b) population (c) gene pool** (d) community
23. Founder effect is concerned with-
(a) Gene migration (b) Genetic drift (c) Natural selection** (d) Mutation
24. If the individual ar one extreme of the size distribution (eg., larger one ) contribute more offspring
to next generation then such selection is called as-
(a) Directional** (b) Disruptive (c) Cyclic (d) Stabilizing
25. Examples of polymorphism in human is-
(a) ABO blood group (b) Sickle cell anaemia (c) height and Intelligence (d) All of the above**
26. When the preservation of genetic variability is through heterozygote superiority it is termed as-
(a) Heteropolymorphism (b) Balanced polymorphism**
(c) Stabilizing polymorphism (d) Directional polymorphism
27. Type of speciation due to polyploidy is-
(a) Allopathic (b) Parapatric (c) Peripatric (d) Sympatric**
28. When the two species are morphologically almost identical but reproductively isolated,are termed
as-
(a) Taxonomic species (b) Ecotypes (c) Sibling species** (d) Morphospecie
29. Which of the following is not a prerequisite for natural selection’s operation?
a)More offspring than can possibly survive b)Differential reproduction
c)An innate desire to change** d)Competition for resources
30. Which statement best characterizes natural selection?
a)Blind, random chance hitting upon lucky combinations
b)The slow accumulation of adaptive mutations**
c)Absolute dependence on carbon-based biochemistry
d)Organisms perishing when unexpected calamities occur
31. The wing of the bat and the fore-limb of the dog are said to be homologous structures. This
indicates that:
a) They have the same function
b) Bats evolved from a lineage of dogs
c) They are structures which are similar due to common ancestry**
d) The limb bones of each are anatomically identical
32.Marine mammals have many structural characteristics in common with fishes. The explanation
that evolutionary theory would give for this similarity is:
a) Fish and mammals are closely related
b) Fish evolved structures similar to those already existing in mammals
c) Marine mammals evolved directly from the fishes
d) Marine mammals adapted to an environment similar to that of the fishes**
33. An alternation in the arrangement of nucleotides in a chromosome, possibly resulting in either a
structural or physiological change in the organism, is called:
a) Genetic drift b) Natural selection c) Gene flow d) A mutation**
34. A sudden major climatic change would most likely initially result in:
a. A rapid increase in adaptive radiation
b. A rapid increase in extinction rates
c. A sharp increase in numbers of species
d. An increase in mutation rates**
35. Which of the following best represents Lamarck's ideas on the evolutionary process?
a) Survival of the fittest b) Inheritance of acquired characteristics**
c) Neutral drift d) Punctuated equilibrium
36. With respect to the alleles for sickle cell anemia, which genotype(s) is (are) at a
disadvantage to persons residing in tropical areas of Africa?
a. homozygous recessive*
b. homozygous dominant
c. heterozygous
d. both heterozygous and homozygous dominant
37. Individual species will continually evolve as a result of:
a. coevolution.
b. convergent evolution.
c. punctuated equilibrium.
d. natural selection**.
38. Evolutionary modifications that improve the survival and reproductive success of an
organism are called:
a. mutations. b. vestigial structures.
c. homoplastic traits. d. Adaptations*.
39. Whose findings of evolution by natural selection were presented with those of Darwin?
a. Alfred Wallace b. Carolus Linnaeus
c. Charles Lyell d. Gregor Mendel
40. Perhaps the most direct evidence for evolution comes from:
a. biogeography. b. comparative anatomy.
c. developmental biology. d. the fossil record.**
41. Bird wings and insect wings are considered to be:
a. homologous structures. b. homogenous structures.
c. vestigial structures. d. homoplastic structures.**
42. The front limbs of birds and bats, both wings, are considered to be:
a. homologous structures.** b. homozygous structures.
c. convergent structures d. homoplastic structures.
43. When populations with separate ancestors adapt in similar ways to similar
environmental constraints, it is referred to as:
a. biogeography. b. coevolution.
c. convergent evolution**. d. homologous evolution.
44. Which of the following early embryos would be the easiest to distinguish from the
others?
a. bird b. honey bee** c. Human d. snake
45. If a population of 1000 individuals has 160 aa genotypes, the genotype frequency of the
aa genotype is:
a. 0.016. b. 0.08. c. 0.16**. d. 0.8.
46. If a population of 1000 individuals has 160 aa genotypes, assuming simple dominance
by the A allele, the phenotype frequency of the dominant phenotype is:
a. 0.08. b. 0.16. c. 0.42. d. 0.84**.
47. What is the correct equation for the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a. p2 + 2pq2 + q2 + q2 = 100 b. p2 + 2p + 2q + q2 = 1
c. p2 - 2pq + q2 = 1 d. p2 + 2pq + q2 = 1**
48. In the Hardy-Weinberg equation, the term q2 refers to the frequency of:
a. the recessive allele at a given locus. b. the homozygous recessive genotype at a given locus.**
c. the recessive alleles in a given population. d. the heterozygotes in a population.
49. Which of the following causes changes in allele frequencies?
a. genetic drift b. natural selection
c. gene flow from migration d. All of these.**
50. Due to a rapid change in the environment, a population of ants was reduced from
1 million to 1 thousand. What type of genetic drift will occur in the gene pool of this
population when it expands again?
a. the founder effect b. migration
c. a genetic bottleneck** d. gene flow
51. Random evolutionary changes in a small breeding population is known as:
a. gene flow. b. genetic drift* c. disruptive selection. d. natural selection.
52. The migration of breeding individuals between populations causes a corresponding
movement of alleles, which is referred to as:
a. genetic drift. b. directional selection. c. natural selection. d. gene flow.**
53. The overuse of antibiotics has led to a form of antibiotic resistant tuberculosis. This
has occurred as a result of:
a. directional selection within the bacterial population.**
b. stabilizing selection within the bacterial population.
c. disruptive selection within the bacterial population.
d. a heterozygote advantage within the bacterial population.
54. In selection, individuals with a phenotype near the mean are favored over
those at the phenotypic extremes.
a. directional b. Disruptive c. stabilizing** d. frequency-dependent
55. The distribution of phenotypes for human birth weight is a good example of:
a. the founder effect. b. directional selection. c. disruptive selection. d. stabilizing selection**.
56. In the human species, a heterozygote advantage is demonstrated by which condition?
a. hemophilia b. sickle cell anemia** c. Down syndrome d. Klinefelter syndrome
57. Theory of abiogenesis or spontaneous genration was finally disapproved by
a.Louis Pasteur** b.A.I.Oparin c.A.R.Wallace d.Sydney Fox
58.Chronological sequence of ev olution of the genus Homo are
a. Homo habilis – H.erectus -- H.neander -- H.sapiens sapiens**
b. Homo habilis – H.sapiens neanderthalensis -- H.sapiens sapiens
c) Homo erectus – H.habilis -- H.sapiens sapiens -- H.sapiens neanderthalensis
d) Homo neanderthalensi – H.erectus -- H.sapiens sapiens -- H.habilis
59. Which of the following fossil man possessed a cranial capacity almost equal to that of modern
man?
a.Neanderthal man** b.java ape man c.peking man d.australopithecus africanus
60.During the evolution of man, the first human like being was
a.Homo sapiens b.Homo habilis** c.Ramapithecus d.Dryopithecus
GENETICS
1. Which of the following is mismatched pair of disease and its related symptom?
Disease Symptom
1) Phenylketonuria Urine turns black on exposure to air
2) Down’s syndrome Physical and mental retardation
3) Klinefelter’s syndrome sterile males
4) Turner’s syndrome sterile females.
2.
Inheritance of which of the following traits is shown in the above given cross?
1) X-linked dominant trait 2) X-linked recessive trait
3) Autosomal recessive trait 4) Autosomal dominant trait.
3.
Study the given pedigree chart for sickle-cell anaemia and select the most appropriate
option for the genotypes.
st rd
Genotypes of parents Genotypes of 1 and 3 child in F,
A S A A A A A S
1) Hb Hb , Hb Hb Hb Hb , Hb Hb
A S A S A A A A
A A A S A A S S
A S A S A S S S
4) Hb Hb , Hb Hb Hb Hb , Hb Hb .
4. Which one is the incorrect match?
1) — Consanguineous mating
2) — Sex unspecified
3) — Male
4) — Affected individuals.
5. Complete the given table by selecting the correct option.
6. The given figure shows lac operon and its functioning. Select the option which correctly
labels A, B, X, Y and Z.
A B X Y Z
1) Repressor Inducer β-Galacto-sidase Permease Trans acetylase
2) Repressor Inducer Permease β-Galacto-sidase Trans acetylase
3) Inducer Repressor β-Galacto-sidase Permease Trans acetylase
4) Inducer Repressor β-Galacto-sidase Trans-acetylase Permease
7. Match column I with column II and select the correct option from the codes given below.
Column I Column II
A) Sigma factor (i) 5' - 3'
B) Capping (ii) Initiation
C) Tailing (iii) Termination
D) Coding strand (iv) 5' end
(v) 3' end
1) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(ii) 2) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D)-(i)
3) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(v), (D)-(iii) 4) (A)-(iii), (B)-(v), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i).
8. Match the scientists given in column I to their respective discoveries given in column II
and select the correct option.
Column I Column II
A) Alec Jeffreys (i) Lac operon
B) F. Sanger (H) Automated DNA sequencers
C) Jacob and Monoth (iii) DNA finger printing
D) Avery, Mc Leod and Mc Carty. (iv)Transforming principle
1) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) 2) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iv)
3) (A)-(iii), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iv), (D)-(i) 4) (A)-(i), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(iv).
9. Following figure represents the process of transcription in bacteria.
Select the option which correctly labels A, B and C.

1) A = DNA, B = RNA, C = Promoter
2) A = RNA, B = RNA polymerase, C = Rho factor
3) A = RNA, B = RNA polymerase, C = Sigma factor
4) A = DNA, B = DNA polymerase, C = RNA.
10. Which process occurs in the regulation of gene expression in prokaryotes but does not
occur in the regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes.
1) RNA is formed from the transcription of base triplets on DNA
2) Translation of the mRNA starts as the 5′ end
3) RNA polymerase synthesizes RNA nucleotides in a 5′ to 3′ direction
4) Ribosome helps to produce polypeptide during translation
11. Genes that are involved in turning off or on the transcription of set of structural genes are
called
1) Operator genes 2) Promotor genes 3) Repressor genes 4) Regulatory genes
12. Which of following statements is correct?
1) Glucose acts as inducer for lac operon
2) Galactose acts as inducer for lac operon
3) Glucose or galactose acts as inducers for lac operon
4) Glucose or galactose canot as inducers for lac operon
13. Lactose is the substrate for the enzyme β - galactosidase, it regulates
1) Switching on and off of the operon 2) synthesis of polypeptide chain
3) Attachment RNA polymerase to promoter 4) expression of inhibitor gene
14. Which of the following binds to stop codon at the end of translation?
1) Sigma factor 2) rho factor 3) release factor 4) stop factor
15. In view of importance of genetic research, the genome of the plant is analysed
1) Larthyrus oderatas 2) Pisum sativum 3) Arabidopsis 4) Mimosa
16. Nucleotide base pairs in an average gene
1) 1.5 millions 2) 3000 3) 2416 4) 3 billion
17. Number of SNPs (snips) in the genome
1) 2.2 million 2) 1.4 million 3) 1 billion 4) 3 billion
A) 3164 – 7 million bps i) Protein encoding genes of human
B) 2, 968 genes ii) Y – chromosome of human
C) 231 genes iii) Chromosome – I of human
D) 30, 000 genes iv) Human genome
v) X – chromosome of human
A B C D A B C D
1 i ii iii iv 2 iv iii ii v
3 iv i ii v 4 iv iii ii iii
19. Arrange the following from up stream to down stream in the following related to lac
operon
A) A – structural gene B) Z – structural gene
C) Y – structural gene D) Operator
E) Repressor gene F) Promoter
1) ABCDEF 2) ACBDFE 3) ACBEFD 4) ADEFBC
20. Assertion (A): Lac operon is an inducible operon
Reason (R) : The lac operon gets ‘on’ by the inducer
1) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A
2) Both A and R are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A
3) A is correct but R is incorrect 4) A is incorrect but R is correct
21. Assertion (A): In prokaryotic cells polypeptide begins to get synthesized, before the
termination of synthesis of m RNA.
Reason (R): In prokaryotes, ribosomes can bind and begin translation before polymerase
has completed of the new m RNA strand.
22. Assertion (A): In most cases the gene in eukaryotes is discontinuous

Reason (R) : In eukaryotes, the genes are split genes with coding introns and noncoding
exons
23. Which of the following acts as a catalyst in a bacterial cell?
1) hn RNA 2) 23 sr RNA 3) 5sr RNA 4) sn RNA
24. Allelic sequence variation with more than 0.01 frequencies in a population is
1) SNP’s 2) VNTR’s 3) DNA polymorphism4) Incomplete
dominance
25. Select the correct statement
1) RNA polymerase I transcribes r RNAs 2) RNA polymerase II transcribes sn RNAs
3) RNA polymerase III transcribes hn RNAs 4) RNA polymerase II transcribes hn RNAs
1) a and d are correct 2) b and c are correct 3) a and c are correct 4) a and b are
correct
26. Automated DNA sequencing is based on method developed by
1) Alec jaffreys 2) Frederick Sanger 3) Erwin chargaff 4) Watson & crick
27. In eukaryotic cell transcription, RNA splicing and RNA capping takes place in
1) Nucleus 2) Cytoplasm 3) Ribosomes 4) Mitochondria
28. A unit of lac – operon which in the absence of lactose, suppresses the activity of operator
gene is
1) Structural gene 2) Regulatory gene 3) Repressor gene 4) Promoter gene
29. Process used for amplification or multiplication of DNA for finger printing is
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) Southern blotting technique
3) Autoradiography 4) Electrophoresis
30. Which of the following technique helps us to find out variations in individuals of a
population at DNA level?
1) Polymerase chain reaction 2) Southern blotting technique
3) DNA finger pointing 4) Gel electrophoresis
31. DNA finger printing works on which principle in DNA sequence.
1) Transcription 2) Polymorphism 3) Translation 4) Transformation
32. Which of the following provide flatform for joining of aminoacids in translation?
1) Mitochondria 2) Endoplasmic reticulum
3) Nucleus 4) Ribosomes
33. Identify the free living non-pathogenic nematode.
1) Arabidopsis 2) Drosophila melanogaster
3) Cenorhabditis elegans 4) Wchareria bancrofti
34. Select the two correct statements out of the four given below about lac operon
i) Glucose or galactose may bind with the repressor and inactivate it
ii) In the absence of lactose the repressor binds with the operator region
iii) The z-gene codes for permease
iv) This was elucidated by Francois Jacob and Jacques Monad
The correct statements are
1) II and III 2) I and III 3) II and IV 4) I and II
35. According to the Lac operon concept, which functional unit of the bacterial genetic
material is responsible for suppressing the activity of the operator gene in the absence of
lactose?
1) Regulator gene 2) Structural gene 3) Promoter gene 4) Repressor gene
36. An m RNA has some additions sequences that are not translated are present at
 and before stop codon at 3′ end
1) Before start codon at 5′end
2) Before start codon at 3′ end and before stop codon at 5′ end
3) Before start codon at 5′ end and after stop codon at 3′ end
4) After start codon at 5′end and before stop codon at 3′ end
37. ABO blood groups in humans are controlled by the gene I. it has three alleles – and
i. since there are three different alleles, six different genotypes are possibile. How many
phenotypes can occur?
1) 3 2) 1 3)4 4) 2
38. Which of the following disorders are caused due to recessive autosomal mutations?
1) Tuner’s syndrome and sickle cell anaemia
2) Edward’s syndrome and Down’s syndrome
3) Cystic fibrosis and phenlketonuria
4) Alzheimer’s disease and Huntington’s chorea
39. A man with enlarged breasts, sparse body hair and XXY genotype is suffering from
1) Down’s syndrome 2) Tuner’s syndrome 3) Klinefelter syndrome 4) super male
40. Which of the following is a symptom of Down’s syndrome?
1) Flat back of head 2) Many “loops” on finger tips
3) Big and wrinkled tongue 4) All of these
41. Genes with multiple phenotypic effectsas are known as
1) Hypostatic genes 2) duplicate genes 3) Pleiotropic genes 4) Complementary genes
42. Which one of the following conditions correctly describes the manner of determining the
sex?
1) Homozygous sex chromosomes (ZZ) determine female sex in birds
2) Xo type of sex chromosomes determine male sex in grasshopper
3) XO condition in humans as found in turners syndrome, determines female sex
4) Homozygous sex chromosomes (XX) produce male in Drosphila
43. Removal of introns and joining of exons in a defined order during transcription is called
1) Looping 2) inducing 3) Slicing 4) Splicing
44. The lac operon is turned on when allolactose molecules bind to
1) Promoter site 2) operator site 3) mRNA 4) Repressor protein
45. Identify the wrong statements
1) In male grasshoppers 50% of the sperms have no sex chromosome
2) In domesticated fowls the sex of the progeny depends on the type of sperm that fertilizes the
egg.
3) The human males have one of their sex chromosomes much shorter than the other
4) The male fruit fly is heterogametic
1) 1 2) 2 3) 4 4) 3 5) 3 6) 1 7) 2 8) 2 9) 2 10) 2
11) 1 12) 4 13) 1 14) 3 15) 3 16) 2 17) 2 18) 4 19) 2 20) 1
21) 4 22) 3 23) 2 24) 3 25) 1 26) 2 27) 1 28) 3 29) 1 30) 3
31) 2 32) 4 33) 3 34) 3 35) 4 36) 3 37) 3 38) 3 39) 3 40) 2
41) 3 42) 2 43) 4 44) 4 45) 2
Health and diseases
1. The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health
would be:
a. health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
b. health is the reflection of a smiling face

c.health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
d. health is the symbol of economic prosperity.
2. The chemical test that is used for diagnosis of typhoid is:
a. ELISA-Test b. ESR – Test c. PCR – Test d. Widal-Test
3. Diseases are broadly grouped into infectious and non-infectious diseases. In the list given
below, identify the infectious diseases.
i. Cancer ii. Influenza iii. Allergy iv. Small pox
(a) i and ii (b) ii and iii (c) iii and iv (d)ii and iv
4. Many diseases can be diagnosed by observing the symptoms in the patient. Which groups
of symptoms are indicative of pneumonia?
a.Difficulty in respiration, fever, chills, cough, headache
b. Constipation, abdominal pain, cramps, blood clots
c. Nasal congestion and discharge, cough, sore throat, headache
d. High fever, weakness, stomach pain, loss of appetite and constipation
5. When an apparently healthy person is diagnosed as unhealthy by a psychiatrist, the reason

could be that:
a. the patient was not efficient at his work b. the patient was not economically prosperous
c. the patient shows behavioral and social maladjustment
d. he does not take interest in sports
6. The substance produced by a cell in viral infection that can protect other cells from further
infection is:
a. serotonin b. colostrums c. interferon d. histamine
7. Antibodies present in colostrum which protect the new born from certain diseases is of
a. Ig G type b. Ig A type c. Ig D type d. Ig E type
8. Which of the following is not a lymphoid tissue?
a. Spleen b. Tonsils c. Appendix d. Thymus
9. Identify the third line of defense from the following
a) NK cells b) Tears c) T cells d) Phagocytes
10. Two T cell subpopulations can be distinguished by the type of the membrane glycoprotein
molecules called
a) Opsonization b) CD markers c) MHC molecules d) BCR
11. Immunity that protects against intracellular bacteria, virus & cancer cells is
a) Innate immunity b) Humoral immunity
c) Non-specific immunity d) Cell mediated immunity
12. Which of the following cells release inflammatory mediators such as histamine an
bradykinin
a) Basophils b) Eosinophils
c) Neutrophils d) Acidophils and Neutrophils
A. Anti tetanus serum 1. Cell mediated immunity
B. Vaccination 2. Humoral immunity
C. Graft rejection 3. Artificially acquired active immunity
D. Protects against extra cellular bacteria 4. Naturally acquired active immunity
5. Artificially acquired passive immunity
a) A – 3; B – 5; C – 1; D – 2 b) A – 5; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2
c) A – 5; B – 3; C – 2; D – 1 d) A – 5; B – 4; C – 1; D – 2
14. Consider the following statements about immunological disorders
1) Deficiency in the immune response is called immunodeficiency
2) Inappropriate immune response against self antigens is called autoimmunity
3) Immunodeficiency resulting from a genetic or developmental defect is called primary

immunodeficiency.
4) Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID) is due to secondary immunodeficiency.
Which of the above are true?
a) Only 1, 2 & 3 b) Only 2, 3 & 4 c) Only 1, 2 & 4 d) All are true
A. Malaise 1. General feeling of discomfort
B. Cirrhosis 2. Loss of appetite
C. Hepatitis 3. Fibrosis of liver
D. Anorexia 4. Fibrosis of lungs
5. Inflammation of liver
a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 5 b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 5; D – 1
c) A – 4; B – 5; C – 3; D – 2 d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 5; D – 2
16. Gamma interferons are produced by
a) B lymphocytes b) Macrophages c) T lymphocytes d) Dendritic

cells
17. An example for the less organised secondary lymphoid tissue
a) Thymus b) Spleen
c) Lymph nodes d) Mucosal - associated lymphoid tissue
18. Antibodies are produced by
a) B-lymphocytes only b) plasma cells only
c) B-lymphocytes and T-lymphocytes d) B-lymphocytes and plasma cells
19. Antigen presenting cells are
a) Dendritic cells b) Activated macrophages
c) B-Cells d)Dendritic cells, activated macrophages and B- Cells
20. Find the wrong statement among the following
a) Malignant tumors exhibit metastasis
b) Benign tumors are with a fibrous outer capsule
c)Sarcomas are the malignant tumors of secondary lymphoid organs
d) Carcinomas are malignant tumors of the epithelial cells
21. Which of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection
Disease Causative organisms mode of infection
1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti with infected water and food
2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax bite of male anopheles mosquito
3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi with inspired air
4) Pneumonia Strepto coccus pneumonia droplet infection
a) Option – 1 b) option – 2 c) option – 3 d) option – 4
22. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasitie ?
a) RBCs of Humans suffering from malaria
b)Saliva of infected female anopheles mosquito
c) Saliva of Infected female culex mosquito
d) Spleen of infected humans.
23. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity
Example Type of immunity
1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes Physical barriers
2) Mucous coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital Physiological barriers
tract and the HCL in the stomach
3) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
4) Anti – tetanus and anti snake bite injections Active immunity
a) Example – 1 b) example – 2 c) example – 3 4) example - 4
24. A certain patient is suspected to be suffering from Acquired immune deficiency syndrome.
Which diagnostic technique will you recommend for its detection?
a) Ultra sound b) Widal c) Elisa d) MRI
25. Which of the following is a pair of viral diseases?
a) Typhoid and tuberculosis b) Ring worm and AIDS
c) Common cold and AIDS d) Dysentery and common cold
26. Which of the following factor does not cause transmission of HIV – infection?
a) Sharing of house hold items
b) Transfusion of contaminated blood
c) Sexual contact with infected person
d) Sharing of infected needles
27. Copulation of filarial worms takes place in the
a) Blood of man b) Lymphatic system of man
c) Heamocoel of mosquito d) Thoracic muscles of mosquito
28. Following are the stages of plasmodium in erythrocytic schizogony
I. Amoeboid stage II. Schizont stage III. Signet ring stage IV. Erythrocytic
merozoites
Arrange the above stages in the correct sequence of development
a) III-II-I-IV b) III-I-II-IV c) I-II-III-IV d) II-III-I-IV
29. Which of the following stages of P.vivax that transforms into dormant stages
a) Hypnozoites b) Cryptozoites
c) Macrometacryptozoites d) Micrometacryptozoites
30. The incubation period of Plasmodium vivax
a) 8-10 days b) 10-14 days c) 8 days d) 15-20 days
31. Delhi boils are caused by
a) Leishmania donovani b) Leishmania tropica
c) Trypanosoma gambiensi d) Trichomonas hominis
32. ”Asymptomatic cyst passers “with reference to parasites such as Entamoeba histolytica are
a).secondary hosts b).carriers
c).those who release metacystic form of Entamoeba histolytica
d).those who pass uninucleate cysts with rich glycogen and chromatoid bodies
33. Opiates are
a) Morphine, cocaine and heroin
b) Morphine, codeine, LSD and pethidine
c) Morphine, codeine, heroin, pethidine and methadone
d) Morphine, codeine, heroin and mescaline
34. Which one is an ergot preparation?
a) LSD b) Smack c) Brown sugar d) Angle dust
Note; a) A & R are true and are R is the correct explanation to A
b) A & R are true but R is not the correct explanation to A
c) A is true but R is wrong d) Both A and R are false
35. Assertion (A): Most of the antigens inducing humoral immunity are thymus – dependent
antigens
Reason (R): They require direct contact with TH cells to activate B – cells
36. Assertion (A): Malignant cancer cells show metastasis
Reason(R): In cancer cells cadherin molecules are either partly or entirely missing, allowing
the cancer cells to lose contact with other cells in the tissue and spread to other areas
37. Assertion (A): Blood samples should be taken during night time between 10.00 pm to 4.00 am
to detect filariasis in man
Reason (R): Microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
38. Assertion (A): Plasmodium is cytozoic parasite
Reason(R): It is present in plasma of blood of man
39. Assertion (A): Ring worms generally develop in skin folds such as in groins and between toes
Reason(R): Heat and moisture help the fungi to thrive well.
KEY
1-c 2-d 3-d 4-a 5-c 6-c 7-b 8-c 9-c 10-b
11-d 12-a 13-b 14-a 15-d 16-c 17-d 18-d 19-d20-c
21-d 22-b 23-c 24-c 25-c 26-a 27-b 28-b 29-c 30-b
31-b 32-b 33-c 34-a 35-a 36-a 37-a 38-c 39-a
Health and diseases

QUESTION BANK
1. The organisms which cause diseases in plants and animals are called:
a.Pathogens b. Vectors c. Insects d. Worms
2. The sporozoites that cause infection when a female Anopheles mosquito bites a human
being are formed in:
a. Liver of human b. RBCs of mosquito
c. salivary glands of mosquito d. intestine of human
3. The disease chikungunya is transmitted by:
a. house flies b. Aedes mosquitoes c. cockroach d. female

Anopheles
4. The genes causing cancer are:
a. structural genes b. expressor genes c. oncogenes d. regulatory

genes
5. In malignant tumors, the cells proliferate, grow rapidly and move to other parts of the
body to form new tumors. This stage of disease is called:
a. metagenesis b. metastasis c. teratogenesis d. mitosis
6. AIDS is caused by HIV. Among the following, which one is not a mode of transmission of
HIV?
a. transfusion of contaminated blood b. sharing the infected needles
c. shaking hands with infected person d. sexual contact with infected person
7. ‘Smack’ is a drug obtained from the:
a. latex of Papaver somniferum b. leaves of cannabis sativa
c. flowers of dhatura d. fruits of Erythroxylum coca
8. Transplantation of tissues/organs to save certain patients often fails due to rejection of

such tissues/organs by the patient. Which type of immune response is responsible for such
rejections?
a. auto-immune response b. humoral immune response
c. physiological immune response d. cell-mediated immune response
9. Tobacco consumption is known to stimulate secretion of adrenaline and nor-adrenaline.

The component causing this could be:
a.Nicotine b. Tannic acid c. Curaimin d. Catechin
10. Anti venom against snake poison contains:
a. Antigens b. Antigen-antibody complexes
c. Antibodies d. Enzymes
11. Which of the following glands is large sized at birth but reduces in size with aging?
a. Pineal b. Pituitary c. Thymus d. Thyroid
12. Haemozoin is:
a. a precursor of hemoglobin b. a toxin from Streptococcus
c. a toxin from Plasmodium species d. a toxin from Haemophilus species
13. One of the following is not the causal organism for ringworm
a. Microsporum b. Trichophyton c. Epidermophyton
d. Macrosporum
14. A person with sickle cell anemia is
a. more prone to malaria b. more prone to typhoid
c. less prone to malaria d. less prone to typhoid
15. The number of classes of antibodies in human being is
a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
16. The site in the variable region of the antibody that binds to an epitope on an antigen is
called
a) Antigenic determinant b) Epitope c) Both 1 and 2 d) Paratope
17. Immunity developed due to transfer of antibodies from mother to the foetus through
placenta is
a) Natural acquired active immunity b) Natural acquired passive immunity
c) Artificially acquired active immunity d) Artificially acquired passive immunity
18. Incubation period of Hepatitis A is
a) 4 – 26 weeks b) 2 – 22 weeks c) 2 – 6 days d) 2 – 6

weeks
19. Toxoplasmosis of the brain and Kaposi’s sarcoma are example for
a)Category – C b) Category – B c) Category – A d) Category –

D
20. Each immunoglobulin consists of these polypeptides
a) One alpha chain & one beta chain b) One light chain & one heavy chain
c) Two alpha chains & two beta chains d) Two light chains & two heavy chains
21. The portion of antigen to which an antibody binds is termed as
a) Epitome b) Atopy c) Paratope d) Epitope
22. In the diagnosis of HIV infection, PCR method is useful in the detection of
a) Antibodies b) Viral enzymes c) Viral protein d) Viral RNA
23. In birds mature B cells are produced in
a) Thymus b) Bone marrow c) Liver d) Bursa of

fabricius
24. Gamma interferons are produced by
a) B lymphocytes b) Macrophages c) T lymphocytes
d) Dendritic cells
25. Hepatitis virus whose incubation period is 4-26 weeks is also characterized by
a) Presence of single - stranded RNA b) Presence of double- stranded RNA
c) Presence of single- stranded DNA d) Presence of double- stranded DNA
26. Low pH of skin is maintained by
a) Lysozyme b) Interferons c) Gastric juice d) Sebum
27. In higher animals the second line of defence does not include
a) N K cells b) Antimicrobial proteins
c) Antibodies d) Phagocytes
28. Cytokines that primarily affect the growth and differentiation of various cells of immune
system are secreted by the
a) Viral infected cells b) NK cells c) mast cells d) leucocytes
29. In cell mediated immune system the structures that fragment target cell DNA are
released by
a) B cells b) TH cells c) B and TH cells d) CTLS
30. In the stages of cancer which mutation leads to progression
a) Second mutation b) third mutation c) fourth mutation d) first mutation
31. Stimulant present in Tea, Cocoa is
a) cocaine b)tannin c)caffeine d)astringent
32. Cirrhosis of liver is cased by the chronic intake of
a) Tobacco b) cocaine c) opium d) alcohol
33. Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth and tears from eyes are an example for
a) Cellular barriers b) Cytokine barriers c) Physiological barriers d) Physical barriers
34. Inflammation of lymph vessels caused by filarial worm is
a) Lymphoedema b) Lymphangitis
c) Lymphadenitis d) Elephantiasis
35. The number of copulatory papillae and copulatory spicules in male Wuchereria are
respectively
a) Two, many b) Many, 1 pair c) Two pairs, many d) Many, Two pairs
36. Which of the following forms of plasmodium can invade two different types of cells in the
host`s body
a) Sporozoites b) Macrometacryptozoites
c) Micrometacryptozoites d) Cryptozoites
37. The following stages of P.vivax are not formed in primary host
a) Sporozoites b) Gametes c) Gametocytes d) Sporoblasts
38. The proteolytic enzyme produced by Entamoeba histolytica is
a) haemolysin b) haemozoin c) histolysin d) heparin
39. An effect of Plasmodium vivax on human host is
a).Hyperplasia of RBC b).Hypertrophy of erythrocytes
c).Gigantism d).Development of neoplasia
40. Which of the following is necessary for the release of ‘metacystic form’of Entamoeba
Histolytica?
a).Acidic medium b).Trypsin c).Pepsin d).Amylase
41. Ganja and LSD are classified in
a) Stimulants b) narcotic c) depressant d) hallucinogens
42. Sleeping pills are made from
a) Barbiturates b) Amphetamines c) Cocaine d) LSD
43. Barbiturates are extensively used as
a) Antiseptics b) Disinfectants c) Sedatives d) Stimulants
44. Which part of the brain is involved in loss of control when a person drinks alcohol?
a) Cerebellum b) Cerebrum c) Thalamus d) Pons varolli
45. Antisleep pills are made of
a) Barbiturates b) benzodiazepines c) Amphetamines d) Both a and b
46. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
a) Caused by a virus b) caused by a Gram-positive bacterium
c) Caused by a Gram-negative bacterium d) not an infectious disease
47. The term ‘Health’ is defined in many ways. The most accurate definition of the health
would be:
a. health is the state of body and mind in a balanced condition
b. health is the reflection of a smiling face

c.health is a state of complete physical, mental and social well-being
d. health is the symbol of economic prosperity.
48. Which of the following are the reason(s) for Rheumatoid arthritis? Choose the correct
option.
i. Lymphocytes become more active
ii. Body attacks self cells
iii. More antibodies are produced in the body
iv. The ability to differentiate pathogens or foreign molecules from self cells is lost
(a) i and ii (b) ii and iv (c) iii and iv (d) i and iii
49. Consider the following statements about secondary lymphoid organs:
I) They trap antigen and provide sites for mature lymphocytes to interact with that antigen.
II) Immunocompetent lymphocytes transformed into functional cells in secondary lymphoid

organs
III) Spleen and lymph nodes are highly organized secondary lymphoid organs
IV) Mucosa associated lymphoid tissue (MALT) is the less-organized lymphoid tissue
Which of the above are true?
a) Only I, II & III b) Only II, III & IV c) Only I, II & IV d) All are true
50. The following are some forms of viral hepatitis
1) Hepatitis A 2) Hepatitis B 3) Hepatitis C 4) Hepatitis D
5) Hepatitis E
Which of the above infect by faecal – oral route?
a) 1, 4 and 5 b) 1, 3 & 4 c) 1 & 5 d) 2, 3 & 4
51. Identify the wrong statement from the following with respect to the structure of an
antibody
a) Fab fragment has variable region and a part of constant region
b) Constant region has Fc fragment and a part of Fab fragment
c) Fc fragment has both heavy chains and light chains
d) Each Fab fragment has one light chain and a part of heavy chain
52. Based on the percentage incidence of different types of cancers arrange them in an
ascending order
A) Lymphoma B) Sarcoma C) Carcinoma
a) A B C b) C A B c) B A C d) C B A
53. Find the wrong statement among the following
a) Malignant tumors exhibit metastasis
b) Benign tumors are with a fibrous outer capsule
c)Sarcomas are the malignant tumors of secondary lymphoid organs
d) Carcinomas are malignant tumors of the epithelial cells
54. What does “T” stands for in DPT vaccine (AIIMS 2010)
a). Tuberculosis b). Typhoid c). Tetanus d). Trachoma

55. Reservoir host of plasmodium is
a) Man b) Antelope c) Mosquito d) Monkey
56. Which one of the following is not a property of cancerous cells where as the remaining
three are?
a) They divide in an uncontrolled manner
b) They show contact inhibition
c) They complete with normal cells for vital nutrients
d) They do not remaining confined in the area of formation
57. Where will you look for the sporozoites of the malarial parasite?
a) RBCs of Humans suffering from malaria
b)Saliva of infected female anopheles mosquito
c) Saliva of Infected female culex mosquito
d) Spleen of infected humans.
58. Carcinoma refers to
a)Malignant tumors of the skin or mucous membrane
b) Benign tumors of the connective tissue
c) Malignant tumors of the colon
d) Malignant tumors of the connective tissue
59. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
a)he secondary lymphoid organs are immature lymphocytes differentiate into antigen- sensitive
lymphocytes
b) After maturation the lymphocytes migrate to secondary lymphoid organs like spleen and
lymph nodes
c) The bone marrow is the main lymphoid organ where all blood cells including lymphocytes are
produced
d) Spleen has a large reservoir of erythrocytes
60. In the life cycle of malarial parasite, which of the following will occur in the lumen of the
crop of its invertebrate host?
a) Gametogony (formation of gametocytes), sporogony and schizogony
b) Exflagellation, sporogony, schizogony
c)Gametogony (gamete formation from gametocytes), exflagellation and anisogamy
d) Flagellated body, fertilization, sporogony
61. Identify the correct sequence of the following regarding the life cycle of Plasmodium
a) Meiosis –Gametes-Zygote – Ookinete-Oocyst-Sporozoite
b) Gametes –Zygote-Ookinete – Oocyst – Meiosis-Sporozoite
c) Gametes –Zygote- Meiosis-Ookinete – Oocyst – Sporozoite
d) Meiosis – Gametes –Zygote –Oocyst – Mitosis –Sporozoite
62. Which of the following stage (s) of malarial parasite always invade erythrocytes of man
a) Gametocytes
b) Cryptozoites and macrometa cryptozoites
c) Micrometa cryptozoites
d) Sporozoites
63. The following are the different stages of Entamoeba histolytica. Arrange them in a
sequence
I. Tetranucleate cyst II. Precystic stage III. Metacyst IV. Trophozoite
V. Metacystic amoebae
a) I-II-III-IV-V b) IV-II-III-I-V
c) IV-II-I-III-V d) I-III-IV-V-II
64. The stage in the life cycle of Wuchereria that is observed in both the hosts for a brief
period
a) First stage Larva and second stage larva b) Microfilaria and Second Stage larva
c) Microfilaria and Third Stage larva d) Second Stage Larva and Third Stage larva.
A. Cell mediated immunity 1. Skin
B. Humoral immunity 2. RBC
C. First line of defence 3. T Cells
D. Second line of defence 4. Fever
5. B – cells
a) A – 5; B – 3; C – 1; D – 2 b) A – 3; B – 5; C – 1; D – 4
c) A – 3; B – 5; C – 4; D – 1 d) A – 2; B – 5; C – 1; D – 4
A. Malaise 1. General feeling of discomfort
B. Cirrhosis 2. Loss of appetite
C. Hepatitis 3. Fibrosis of liver
D. Anorexia 4. Fibrosis of lungs
5. Inflammation of liver
a) A – 1; B – 3; C – 2; D – 5 b) A – 2; B – 3; C – 5; D – 1
c) A – 4; B – 5; C – 3; D – 2 d) A – 1; B – 3; C – 5; D – 2
List – I List - II
A) Class I MHC molecules I) Antigen presenting cells
B) Class II MHC molecules II) Effector CTLs
C) Interleukin – 2 III) Mast cells
D) Granzymes IV) Nucleated cells
V) Effector TH cells
a) A– I, B – IV, C- II, D- III b ) A- V, B – IV, C – III, D –

I
c) A – IV, B – V, C – I, D – II d) A – IV, B – I, C – V, D –
II
68. Match the following.
Type of cancer Affected organ
A) Burkett lymphoma i) Mammary glands
B) Angiosarcoma ii) WBC of bone marrow
C) Carcinoma iii) Secondary lymphoid organ
D) Leukemia iv) Blood vessels

v) Primary lymphoid organ
A B C D A B C D
a) III IV V II b) V III I II
c) III IV I II d) V III I IV
69. Match the following List-
I List-II
A) Grassi I) Observed Plasmodium in the RBC of malarial patient
B) Laveran II) Monograph of Plasmodium
C) Garnham III) Observed Plasmodium in the blood of malarial patient
D) Golgi IV) Discovered the oocyst stages of Plasmodium
V) P.vivax life cycle in mosquito
A B C D A B C D
a) V III IV I c) V III II I
b) IV III II I d) III IV II V
70. Which of the following options gives the correct matching of a disease with its causative
organism and mode of infection
Disease Causative organisms mode of infection
1) Elephantiasis Wuchereria bancrofti with infected water and food
2) Malaria Plasmodium vivax bite of male
anopheles mosquito
3) Typhoid Salmonella typhi with inspired air
4) Pneumonia Strepto coccus pneumonia droplet infection
a) Option – 1 b) option – 2 c) options 3 d) option – 4
71. In which one of the following options the two examples are correctly matched with their
particular type of immunity
Example Type of immunity
1) Saliva in mouth and tears in eyes Physical barriers
2) Mucous coating of epithelium lining the urinogenital Physiological barriers
tract and the HCL in the stomach
3) Polymorphonuclear leucocytes and monocytes Cellular barriers
4) Anti – tetanus and anti snake bite injections Active immunity
a) Example – 1 b) example – 2 c) example – 3 4) example - 4
72. Read the following and select the correct combination
Disease Pathogen Symptoms of disease
A) Gumboro 1BD virus Enlargement of bursa of Fabricius
B) Chronic respiratory Haemophilus gallinarum Nasal discharge with foul smell
disease
C) Aspergillosis Aspergillus flavus Reduced immunity
D) Fowl cholera Pasteurella avicida green diarrhoea
a) A and B b) B and C c) C and D d) A and D
Note: a) A and R are true, R is the correct explanation of A
b) A and R are true, R is not the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) Both A and R are false
73. Assertion (A): Most of the antigens inducing humoral immunity are thymus – dependent
antigens
Reason (R): They require direct contact with TH cells to activate B – cells
74. Assertion (A): Unlike T cells, B- cells cannot recognize free antigens
Reason(R): B–cell receptors recognize and bind only to the class I MHC molecules located
on antigen presenting cells
75. Assertion (A): Malignant cancer cells show metastasis
Reason(R): In cancer cells cadherin molecules are either partly or entirely missing, allowing
the cancer cells to lose contact with other cells in the tissue and spread to other areas
76. Assertion (A): Benign tumors are harmless
Reason (R): Benign tumour cells are localized with fibrous capsule and exhibit metastasis.
77. Assertion (A): Female Wuchereria is ovo-viviparous
Reason (R): The young ones of Wuchereria develop in the mother with in the egg and the
female releases the microfilariae
78. Assertion (A): Blood samples should be taken during night time between 10.00 pm to 4.00 am
to detect filariasis in man
Reason (R): Microfilariae exhibit nocturnal periodicity
79. Assertion (A): Sporozoite of Plasmodium vivax exhibit lashing movements
Reason(R): Many convoluted tubules occur only anterior part of sporozoite
80. Assertion (A): Wuchereria requires a blood sucking Vector for its transmission.
Reason (R) : Its Larvae, microfilaria are present in the blood of culex mosquito
53
81. Assertion (A): In mammals P gene acts as a tumour suppressor gene
53 53
Reason (R): P gene product is P protein which promotes the activity of oncogenes.
82. Assertion (A): Plasmodium is cytozoic parasite
Reason (R): It is present in plasma of blood of man
83. Assertion (A): Ring worms generally develop in skin folds such as in groins and between toes
Reason(R): Heat and moisture help the fungi to thrive well.
84. Assertion (A): Skin acts as a physical barrier
Reason (R): Stratified keratinized epithelium of the skin with tough stratum corneum prevents
entry of the microbes
85. Assertion (A): LSD and marijuana are clinically used as analgesics
Reason(R): Both these drugs active brain function
KEY
1-a 2-c 3-b 4-c 5-b 6-c 7-a 8-d 9-a 10-c
11-c 12-c 13-d 14-c 15-c 16-d 17-b 18-d 19-a 20-d
21-d 22-d 23-d 24-c 25-d 26-d 27-c 28-d 29-d 30-b
31-c 32-d 33-c 34-b 35-b 36-d 37-c 38-c 39-b 40-b
41-d 42-a 43-c 44-a 45-c 46-a 47-c 48-b 49-d 50-c
51-c 52-c 53-c 54-c 55-d 56-b 57-b 58-a 59-a 60-c
61-b 62-c 63-c 64-c 65-b 66-d 67-d 68-c 69-c 70-d
71-c 72-d 73-a 74-d 75-a 76-c 77-a 78-a 79-d 80-c
81-c 82-c 83-a 84-a 85-d

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1. The simplest measure of species diversity is

12. Cryopreservation means

19. Read the following

26. Wild life week is observed on

6. Assertion (A): Selection of recombinants due to inactivation of antibiotics is cumbersome

14. Which of the following is incorrect match?

1. 3 2.1 3.3 4.3 5. 1 6.1 7.2 8.3 9.2 10.4

41. 2 42.4 43.2 44.3 45.2

1. In human transfer of sperms into female genital tract is called as

18. Mammatry glands are functional in

26. The number of sperms formed from a single secondary spermatocyte is

36. Menstrual cycles ceases around 50 years of age it is

45. Identify the X and Y from the diagram related to spermatogenesis

41) 4 42) 2 43) 3 44) 2 45) 4

MOCK TEST – II (HUMAN REPRODUCTION)

1. Identify the primary sex organs in male human beings

6. Interstitial cells in male humans are also called as

1) TSH 2) ADH 3) GnRH 4) Oxytocin

30. Cap like structure covering the anterior portion of sperm is

41) 4 42) 4 43) 1 44) 3 45) 2

The Living world

1. The smallest unit of life is D.P.M.T. - 2003

10. Which of the following statements regarding universal rules of nomenclature is

HUMAN REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH

36. What is correct about amniocentesis?

b) Withdrawal of allantoic fulid from pregnant women

c) Chemical analysis of fluids of pregnant women

d) Culturing amniotic cells and study of metaphasic chromosomes to identify

37. Progesterone present in contraceptive pill is meant for

a) Checking ovulation b) Preventing fertilization

c) Preventing implantation of zygote d) Preventing cleavage

Method Mode of Action

a) Pill i)Prevents sperms reaching ovum

b)Condom ii)Prevents implantation

c)Vasectomy iii)Prevents ovulation

d)Copper – T iv)Semen contains no sperm

a) Medical termination of pregnancy during first trimester is generally safe

c) Intrauterine devices like copper – T are effective contraceptives

conception Which two of the above statements are correct

40. Increased IMR and decreased MMR in a population will

a) Cause rapid increase in growth rate

b) Result in decline of growth rate

c) Not cause significant change in growth rate

d) Result in an explosive population growth

ii) Of the misconception that it will reduce sexual / urge drive

iii) It is a surgical procedure

iv) Of lack of sufficient facilities in many parts of the

country Choose the correct option

a) i and iii b) ii and iii c) ii and iv d) i, ii, iii and iv

a) IUDs are generally inserted by the user herself

b) IUDs increase phagocytosis reaction in the uterus

c) IUDs suppress gametogenesis

d) IUDs once inserted need not be replaced

Choose the correct options given below

i) MTPs are generally advised during first trimester

ii) MTPs are used as a contraceptive method

iii) MTPs are always surgicals

iv) MTPs require the assistance of qualified medical personnel

a) ii and iii b) iii and ii c) i and iv d) i and ii

a) These are effective barriers for insemination

b) They do not interfere with coital act

c) These help in reducing the risk of STDs