Test-10 = PW exam Full Marks- 360
1.Given below is the representation of the extent of
global diversity of invertebrates. What groups the four
portions (A-D) represent respectively?
2. Using the figure, determine the percentage of bird
species that will be lost if the island's inhabitable land
area is reduced from 100,000 km2 to 1 km2.
(1) 17 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(2) 20 percent of the bird species will be lost.
(3) All of bird species will be lost.
(4) 93 percent of the bird species will be lost.
3.
4. Historically, island species have tended to become
extinct faster than species living on a mainland. Which
of the following reasons can not be used to explain
this phenomenon?
(1) Island species have often evolved in the absence of
predators and have no natural avoidance strategies.
(2) Humans have introduced diseases and competitors
to islands, which negatively impacts island
populations.
(3) Island populations are-usually smaller than
mainland populations.
(4) Island populations are usually less fit than
mainland populations.
5.
Which of the following boxes show maximum, greater
and minimum diversity.
(1) A- Minimum diversity, B - Greater diversity, C -
Maximum diversity
(2) A- Maximum diversity, B - Greater diversity, C -
Minimum diversity
(3) A- Maximum diversity, B - Maximum diversity, C -
Greater diversity :
(4) A- Minimum diversity, B - Maximum diversity, C -
Greater diversity
6. Which one of the following is not a characteristic
feature of biodiversity hotspots?
(1) Large number of species (2) Abundance of
endemic species
(3) Mostly located in the Polar Regions (4) Mostly
located in the tropics
7. Which of the following statements is correct?
(1) Parthenium is an endemic species of our country.
(2) African catfish is not a threat to indigenous
catfishes.
(3) Steller’s sea cow is an extinct animal.
(4) Lantana is popularly known as carrot grass.
8. Species listed in Red list which are presently have
sufficient population but are facing the risk of
extinction in medium term future are called
(1) endangered species (2) vulnerable species
(3) rare species (4) extinct species
9. India relishes a history of religious and cultural
traditions which emphasised the protection of nature.
In many cultures, tracts of forest were set aside, all
the trees andwildlife within were venerated and given
total protection. Such areas are referred to as
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(1) hotspots (2) ethical groves
(3) sacred groves (4) protected areas
10. In the tropical rainforest, the majority of trees
have showy animal-pollinated flowers. In temperate
forests the majority of trees are wind pollinated.
Which of the following explains these contrasting
patterns?
(i) Wind is rare in tropical forests
(ii) Because of high species diversity in the tropics,
individuals of tree species are often widely sparated
making wind an inefficient means of pollen dispersal.
(iii) More opportunities for coevolved mutualisms
exist
in tropical forests because of the high diversity of
animal species.
(iv) Trees in tropical forests are mostly evergreen and
yearround
leaf canopies impede pollen dispersal by wind.
(v) Flowering in tropical forests occurs over a short
period of time when wind is absent.
(1) (i), (ii) and (v) (2) (i), (ii) and (v)
(3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) (4) (ii) and (iv)
11. The relation between species richness and area is
described on a logarithm scale by the equation
_______ [Where S = species richness, A = area, Z =
slope of the line (regression coefficient), C = Y-
intercept]
(1) log S = log C – Z log A (2) log S = Z log A
(3) log S = log C + Z log A (4) log S = log C
12. Why do migratory species present special
preservation challenges?
(1) Because they are endemic, they are especially
susceptible to habitat destruction.
(2) Their conservation may require international
cooperation
when they require habitats in different countries.
(3) They are often prone to population number
decline during their long migratory journeys.
(4) They reside in biodiversity hotspots that are most
susceptible to habitat degradation.
13.
Column I Column II
a)Endemism I. Khasi and Jaintia hills
Meghalaya
b)Hot spot of india II. Advanced ex-situ
conservation
c)Sacred groove III. Species found in a
particular area only
d)Cryo preservation IV. Zoological park and
Botanical gardens
e)Ex-situ conservation V. Western Ghats
(1) A – III, B – V, C – I, D – II, E – IV
(2) A – I, B – II, C – III, D – IV, E– V
(3) A – II, B – III, C – IV, D – V, E – I
(4) A – V, B – I, C – IV, D – II, E – III
14. The taxa believed likely to join the endangered
category in near future is called
(1) Rare (2) Extinct
(3) Vulnerable (4) Living fossil
15. Which of the following is not currently a major
cause of the global reduction in biodiversity?
(1) Overexploitation
(2) Global warming
(3) Habitat destruction
(4) Introduction of foreign predators and disease
16. The narrowly utilitarian arguments for conserving
include which of the following from the given list? (i)
Industrial products like dyes, lubricants, (ii) Ecosystem
services like photosynthesis, (iii) Pollinators layer of
bees, birds and bats, (iv) Firewood, fibre and
construction material, (v) The aesthetic pleasure of
walking through thick, (vi) Products of medicinal
importance, (vii) Watching spring flowers in full
bloom, (viii) Our moral duty to care for the
well-being of each species.
(1) (i), (ii), (v) and (vii) (2) (ii), (iii), (v) and (vii) (3) (i),
(iv) and (vi) (4) (iii), (v), (vii) and (viii)
17. Given below are pie diagrams A, B and C related to
proportionate number of species of major taxa of
invertebrates, vertebrates and plants respectively.
Critically study and fill in the blanks I, II, III and IV.
(1) i-Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III-Fungi, IV-Angiosperms
(2) I-Molluscs, II-Amphibians, III - Angiosperms, IV-
Fungi
(3) I - Hexapoda, II-Amphibians, Ill-Fungi, IV-
Angiosperms
(4) I -Turtles, II -Amphibians, III -Fungi, IV-Angiosperms
18. Which is not a valid reason for the species-area
relationship?
(1) larger areas have higher z values (2) extinction
rates are greater on small islands
(3) larger "core" areas . (4) larger areas contain more
habitats
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19.
Which of the above is correct?
(1)AandB (2)BandC (3)AandC (4) C and D
20. Biosphere reserves differ from national packs and
wild life sanctuaries because in the former-
(1) Human beings are not allowed to enter
(2) People are an integral part of the system
(3) Plants are paid greater attention than the animals
(4) Living organisms are groupht from all over the
world and preserved for posterity
21. What is the difference between; a threatened
species and an endangered species ?
(1) A threatened species is already extinct. An
endangered species means that the population's
numbers have increased greatly over the last 5 years.
(2) A threatened species and an endangered species
are the same thing.
(3) A threatened species means that the population is
likely to become endangered. An endangered species
is already extinct.
(4) A threatened species means that the population is
likely to become endangered. An endangered species
has population numbers so low that it is likely to
become extinct.
22. According to the concept of species area relations
- A. Speciation is generally a function of time I regions
(1) The number of species in an area increases with
the size of the area.
(2) Larger species require larger habitat areas than do
smaller snecies.
(3) Most species within any given area are endemic.
(4) The larger the area, the greater the extinction rate.
23. Which of the following statements describe
natural extinction?
A. Extinctions abetted by human activities. B. Slow
replacement of existing species
C. Also known as background extinction D. A small
population is most likely to be extinct.
(1)A, B (2)A,B,C (3) B, C, D (4)A, B, C, D
24. Which of the following statements about species-
area relationships and their consequences for
extinction rates is false'
(1) Species-area relationships can be used to predict
future extinction rates.
(2) The number of species present increases with the
size of an area.
(3) 50% of Earth's species may become extinct in the
next 50 years.
(4) Extinction rates are generally higher on mainlands
than on islands.
25. Which of the following is true?
(A) The biological wealth of our plant has been
declining rapidly and the accusing finger is clearly
pointing to human activities
(B) The colonisation of tropical pacific Island by
humans is said to have led to the extinction of more
than 2,00( species of native bird
(C) The IUCN Red list (2004) documents the extinction
of 784 species in last 500 years
(1) A, B and C is correct (2) A and B is correct (3) B and
C is correct (4) A and C is, correct
26. Given below are three statements (A-C) each with
one or two blanks. Select the option which correctly
fills up the blanks.
Statements:
Ecologists and evolutionary biologists have proposed
various hypotheses; some important ones are
were subjected to frequent glaciations in the past,
II have remained relatively undisturbed for millions of
years and thus, had a long evolutionary time for
species
diversification.
B. ___III environments, unlike temperate ones, are
less seasonal, relatively more constant and
predictable. Such constant environments promote
niche speci sation and lead to a greater species
diversity.
C. There is more solar energy available in the IV which
contributes to higher productivity; this in turn might
contribute indirectly to greater diversity.
(1) I - temperate, II - tropical latitudes, IN - tropical, N -
tropics
(2) I-tropical, II-tropical latitudes, III-temperate, IV-
Savannah
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(3) I - tropics, II - tropical latitudes, III - temperate, IV -

Arctic Tundra
(4) I - temperate, II - tropical latitudes, III - tropics, IV – 32. The accompanying diagram shows the uterine
Chapparral tubes of four women (P, Q, R and S).
27. In the formula logs = Log C + Z log A, Ecologist
have discovered that the value of z lies in the range of
(1) 0.1 to 0.5 (2)0.5to1 (3) 0.1 to 0.2 (4) 1 to 5
28. If the Bengal tiger becomes extinct-
(1) Hyaenas and Wolves will become scarce
(2) The wild Oveas will be safe for man and domestic
animals
(3) Its gene pool will be lost forever
(4) The population of beautiful animals like deers will
be stabilized.
29. Select the correct statement about biodiversity.
(1) Large scale planting of Bt cotton has no adverse
effect on biodiversity. In which two women is fertilization impossible at
(2) Western Ghats have a very high degree of species present?
richness and endemism. (1) P and Q (2) Q and R (3) R and S (4) S and P
(3) Conservation of biodiversity is just a fad pursued 33.
by the developed countries.
(4) The desert areas of Rajasthan and Gujarat have a
very high level of desert animal species as well as
numerous rare animals.
30.

34. Choose the correct statements –

31. Which of the following cannot be detected in a
developing foetus by amniocentesis ?
(1) Sex of the foetus (2) Down syndrome
(3) Jaundice (4) Klinefelter syndrome
32. The diaphragm, cervical cap and vaults are
(1) Disposable contraceptive devices (2) Reusable
contraceptives (3) lUDs (4) implants
i. According to the WHO, reproductive health is total
well-being in the physical, social, emotional,
behavioural aspects of reproduction.
ii. According to the WHO, reproductive health is total
well being in the physical, social and emotional
aspects of reproduction.
iii. A reproductively healthy society has people with
physically and functionally normal reproductive
organs.
iv. Reproductively healthy societies have abnormal
sexrelated
emotional and behavioural interactions.
(1) i, ii, iii (2) ii, iv (3) i, iii (4) i
35. Match the following figures (given as A, B, C and E)

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with their respective names given below as (i), (ii), (iii), (3) (i), (ii), (iii), (v) (4) All of these
(iv)and (v).
38.

(1) A-(iv), B-(v), C-(iii),D-(ii), E-(i)

(2) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(ii),D-(i), E-(v)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii),D-(iv), E-(v)
(4) A-(iii), B-(iv), C-(v),D-(i), E-(ii)
36. Fill up the blanks in the following paragraph by
(1) A – V; B – IV; C – I; D – III; E – IV
selecting the correct option.
(2) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
A. ____(i)____ methods work on the principle of
(3) A – III; B – V; C – II; D – IV; E – I
avoiding chances of ovum and sperms meeting.
(4) A – III; B – I; C – V; D – II; E – IV
B. _____(ii)________ is one such method in which
39. Refer the following statement and answer the
couples avoid coitus from day 10-17 of the menstrual
question. "Inability of an individual to inseminate the
cycle.
female or due to very low sperm counts in ejaculates
C. ______(iii)____ is another method in which the
leads to "A". It could be corrected by "B". In "B" the
male
"C" is collected and artificially introduced either into
partner withdraws his penis from the vagina just
the vagina or into the "D" (IUI - intra-uterine
before ejaculation so as to avoid insemination.
insemination) of the female." Identify A to D.
D. __________ method is based on the fact that
ovulation and therefore the cycle do not occur during
the period of intense lactation following parturition.
(1) (i) Barrier, (ii) Coitus interrupts, (iii) Periodic
abstinence, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
(2) (i) IUDs, (ii) Lactational amenorrhoea, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Periodic abstinence 40. Match the column I with column II:-
(3) (i) Natural, (ii) Periodic abstinence, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
(4) (i) Surgical, (ii) Periodic abstinence, (iii) Coitus
interrupts, (iv) Lactational amenorrhea
37. Identify the correct reasons of infertility.
(i) Drugs (ii) Diseases
(iii) Congenital (iv) Use of Contraceptives
(v) Immunological or psychological
(vi) Assisted reproductive technology (1) A– (v), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (iii), (iv), (vi) (2) A– (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (vi)

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(3) A– (vi), B - (v), C - (i), D - (ii)
(4) A– (iv), B - (v), C - (ii), D - (vi)
41. The copper ions of I UDs
(1) Suppress the motility and fertilization capacity of
sperms
(2) Make the uterus unsuitable for implantation
(3) Increase phagocytosis of sperms
(4) Make cervix hostile to sperms
42. Select the option which correctly fills up the blanks
in the following statements.
Statements:
A. Destruction of embryo or foetus in the uterus is
called ________.
B. Government of India leg sed MTP in the
year________.
C. Natural family planning method is also called
_________.
D. _______ is a method in which the male partner
withdraws his penis from vagina just before
ejaculation.
E. _______ is the copper releasing and __________ is
a hormone releasing intra uterine devices.
Options:
(1) A - Foeticide, B -1961, C - Rhythm method, D -
Coitus interrupts, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20 -
(2) A - Foeticide, B -1971, C - Rhythm method, D -
Coitus interrupts, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20
(3) A- Foeticide, B -1965, C - Rhythm method, D -
Coitus interruptus, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20
(4) A- Foeticide, B -1982, C - Rhythm method, D -
Coitus interruptus, E - Multiload 375, LNG-20
43. Identify the false statements from the statements
- (3) Both a and b
I. Birth control pills are likely to cause cardiovascular
problems.
II. Awoman who substitutes or takes the place of the
real mother to nurse the embryo is called surrogate
mother.
III. Numerous children have been produced by invitro
fertilization but with some abnorm ties.
IV. Woman plays a key role in the continuity of the
family and human species.
V. Foetal sex determination test should not be
banned.
(1) I and II (2) II and IV (3) III and V (4) None
44. Which is true?
I. Generally MTP is safe during the first trimester
II. Chances of contraception are nil until the mother
breast-feeds the infant upto 2 years
III. IUDs are very effective contraceptives
IV. Pills may be taken upto one week after coitus to
prevent conception
(1) I, II (2) II, III (3) III, IV (4)l,lll
45. Match the ARTs with their description -
I. Collected gametes are made to form the zygote in
the laboratory.
II. Zygote or early embryo with upto 8 blastomeres is
transferred into the oviduct.
III. Zygote with more than 8 blastomeres is transferred
into the uterus.
IV Fusion of gametes within the female.
V Transfer of ovum from a donor to the oviduct of the
recipient.
VI. Sperm is injected into the ovum in-vitro.
A. GIFT B.ZIFT C.AI G.IUI D. ICSI
E. IUT F. IVF H. In-vivo fertilisation
(1)! - G, i! - B, ill - F, IV - H, V -A, VI – D (2) i - F, ii - B, iii -
A, IV - H, V - A, VI - G
(3)l-F, II ~B, III-E, IV-H, V-A.VI-D (4)l-GJI-B, III-F.IV-H.V-
C, VI-E
46. What is true of natural methods of contraception?
(1) They increase phagocytosis of sperms
(2) They employ barriers to prevent fertilisation
(3) They are natural ways of avoiding chances of
fertilisation
(4) They are surgical methods and are terminal
methods
47. MTP is practised mainly to -
(1) Get rid of unwanted female child legally
(2) Get rid of unwanted pregnancies due to failure of
contraception or rapes
(4) Decrease population size
48. It is a disease which mainly affects mucous
membrane of urinogenital tract. In males, burning
feeling on passing urine, after a yellow discharge
occurs, that is a accompanied by fever, headache and
feeling of illness. Its name is
(1) syphilis (2) gonorrhoea (3)AIDS (4) none of these.
49. I. Rapid decline in death rate.
II. Rapid increase in MMR and IMR
III. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
IV. Increase in number of people in the reproductive
age group
V. Rapid increase in the death rate
What are the causes of higher population growth?
(1) All (2) I, II, IV (3) I, III, IV (4)lll, IV.V
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50. State which is true - 54.

I. Abortions could happen spontaneously too.
II. Infertility is the inability to produce viable offsprings
due to defects in the female partner only
III. Complete lactation could help in contraception
IV. Creating awareness can help create a
reproductively healthy society
(1) I, III, IV (2) I, II, III (3) II, III (4) III, IV
51.

55.
52.

56.

53.

57.

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59. 62.

60.

63.

61.

64.

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65.

66.

68.

69.

67.

70.

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71.
72. A twenty year old unmarried female who has
never conceived and whose age of attainment of
puberty was twelve years. Approxiamtely, how many
ovulation would have occurred in the body till date :
(1) 48 – 60 (2) 96 – 100
(3) 192 – 200 (4) None
73. All of the following statements concerning
pregnancy are accurate EXCEPT
(1) the detection of human chorionic gonadotropin in
the urine forms the basis for pregnancy tests.
(2) the cyclic release of pituitary gonadotropins and
ovarian steroids is continued.
(3) the mammary gland tissue of the pregnant woman
is stimulated to develop by placental hormones.
(4) the corpus luteum of pregnancy maintains the
uterus until the placenta is well established.
74. Ejaculation of human male contains about 200 –
300 million sperms, of which for normal fertility ____
% sperms must have normal shape and size and at
least ____% must show energetic motility.
(1) 40, 60 (2) 50, 50
(3) 60, 40 (4) 30, 70
75.
76. The immature male germ cell undergo division to
produce sperms by the process of spermatogenesis.
Choose the correct one with reference to above.
(1) Spermatogonia have 46 chromosomes and always
undergo meiotic cell division
(2) Primary spermatocytes divide by mitotic cell
division
(3) Secondary spermatocytes have 23 chromosomes
and undergo second meiotic division
(4) Spermatozoa are transformed into spermatids
77. Mature Graafian follicle is generally present in the
ovary of a healthy human female around
(1) 5-8 day of menstrual cycle
(2) 11-17 day of menstrual cycle
(3) 18-23 day of menstrual cycle
(4) 24-28 day of menstrual cycle
78. Acrosomal reaction of the sperm occurs due to
(1) its contact with zona pellucida of the ova
(2) reactions within the uterine environment of the
female
(3) reactions within the epididymal environment of
the male
(4) androgens produced in the uterus
79.
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(1) A – I; B – V; C – III; D – II; E – IV
(2) A – III; B – I; C – II; D – IV; E – V
(3) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(4) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – V; E – IV
80. In the given columns, column-I contain features of
developing child and column-II contain the time of
their occurrence. Select the correct match
(1) A – I; B – II; C – III; D – IV; E – V
(2) A – III; B – I; C – IV; D – II; E – V
(3) A – II; B – I; C – III; D – V; E – IV
(4) A – III; B – IV; C – II; D – V; E – I
81. What happens during fertilisation in humans after
many sperms reach close to the ovum?
(1) Cells of corona radiata trap all the sperms except
one
(2) Only two sperms nearest the ovum penetrate zona
pellucida
(3) Secretions of acrosome helps one sperm enter
cytoplasm of ovum through zona pellucida
(4) All sperms except the one nearest to the ovum
lose their tails
82. Which of the following sequences shows the
correct order of the events that occur during foetal
development?
(1) cleavage —>• fertilisation —^ differentiation —>
implantation
(2) fertilisation —*• cleavage—>• implantation —*•
differentiation
(3) cleavage—>> fertilisation—> implantation—+>
differentiation
(4) fertilisation—+• cleavage—>> differentiation—
^.implantation
83. Which one of the following is the correct matching
of the events occurring during menstrual cycle? .
(1) Proliferate phase: rapid regeneration of
myometrium and maturation of Graafian follicle
(2) Secretory phase: development of corpus luteum
and increased secretion of progesterone
(3) Menstruation : breakdown of myometrium and
ovum not fertilised
(4) Ovulation : LH and FSH attain peak level and sharp
fall in the secretion of progesterone
84. Given below are ten statements (A to J), each with
one blank. Select the option which correctly fill up the
blanks in all statements -
Statements:
A. Humans reproduce
______________(asexually/sexually)
B. Humans are ______________(oviparous,
viviparous, ovoviviparous)
C. Fertilisation is________________ in humans
(external/internal)
D. Male and female gametes are ________
(diploid/haploid)
E. Zygoteis____:___(diploid/haploid)
F. The process of release of ovum from a mature
follicle is called ________
G. Ovulation is induced by a hormone called ________
H. The fusion of male and female gametes is called
________
I. Zygote divides to form ________which is implanted
in uterus.
J. The structure which provides vascular connection
between fetus and uterus is called_____
85. The following refers to ovum surrounded by few
sperms. Identify A, B and C
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(1) A- GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone), B -

(1) A-Zone pellucida, B - Perivitelline space, C - Corona
Estrogen and Progesterone, G - Ovary, D - FSH and LH
reticulata
(2)A-GnRH(Gonadotropin releasing hormone), B -
(2) A-Zone pellucida, B - Vitelline membrane, C –
Progesterone and LH, C-Ovary, D - Estrogen and FSH
Corona radiata
(3) A- GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone), B -
(3) A- Zone pellucida, B - Perivitelline space, C -
FSH and Estrogen, C - Ovary, D - LH and Progesterone
Corona
(4) A- GnRH (Gonadotropin releasing hormone), B -
radiata
FSH and LH, C - Ovary, D - Estrogen and Progesterone
(4) A- Oolemma, B - Perivitelline space, C - Corona
89. In the following diagram of a portion of a
radiata
seminiferous tubule identify the marked alphabets.
(5) A - Uterine, B - Yolk sac, C - Umbilical cord, D –
Cervix
86.

87. Which of the following set in developed from
endoderm-
(1) Nervous system, urinary bladder, eye (2) Lira,
Pancreas, thymus
(3) Liver, Connective tissue, Least (4) Thymus, spinal
cord, nervous system
88. Given below is an incomplete flow chart showing
influence of hormones on gametogenesis in human
females.
Study it carefully and fill in the blanks A, B, C and D –
(1) A- Leydig cell, B - Spermatogonium, C - Primary
spermatocyte, D - Secondary spermatocyte, E -
Spermatids, F - Sertoli cells.
(2) A- Sertoli cells, B - Spermatogonium, C - Primary
spermatocyte, D - Secondary spermatocyte, E -
Spermatids, F - Leydig cell.
(3) A- Leydig cell, B - Primary spermatocyte, C -
Spermatogonium, D -Secondary spermatocyte, E -
Spermatids, F - Sertoli cells.
(4) A- Leydig cell, B - Spermatogonium, C - Primary
spermatocyte, D - Secondary spermatocyte, E -
Spermatozoa, F - Sertoli cells

90. Fill up the blanks-

A functional mammary gland is characteristic of all
female A . The mammary glands are paired structures

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(breasts) that contain glandular tissue and variable

amount of fat. The glandular tissue of each breast is
divided
fhto15-20 mammary lobes containing clusters of cells
called ___B The ceils of C___ secrete
milk, which is stored in the cavities (lumens) of alveoli.
The alveoli open into mammary tubules. The tubules
of
each lobe join to form a ____D_____ duct. Several
E_____ ducts join to form a wider mammary ampulla
which is
connected to F duct through which milk is sucked out.
(1) A - vertebrates, B - alveoli, C - alveoli, D -
mammary, E - mammary, F - lactiferous.
(2) A- mammals, B - lactogen, C - alveoli, D -
mammary, E - mammary, F - lactiferous. -
(3) A - mammals, B - alveoli, C - alveoli, D - mammary,
E - mammary, F - lactiferous.
(4) A- mammals, B - alveoli, C - alveoli, D - mammary,
E - lactiferous, F - mammary

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